By the Word of the Lord

— De L. Trefethen

What of this term - “by the word of the Lord,” that Paul writes
in I Thessalonians 4? It has been said that this is about the
"snatching away” and that it is “new" information because of
the use of the term - “by the word of the Lord.”

I’m guilty of parroted what others before me said, which was -

“this was a new revelation” for the One Body of Christ. I have
since come to realize that this has nothing to do with the
ecclesia which is Christ’s Body.

What stands out to me today, are the words Paul used more
than once, recorded by Luke in the book of Acts.

Let’s look into Scripture to continue this thought - for we read

as late as Acts 26 and 28, Paul declaring this —-

26:22 “… until this day I stand attesting both to small and

to great, saying nothing outside of what both the
prophets and Moses speak of impending
occurrences.”

28:23 “… he expounded, certifying to the kingdom of

God, besides persuading them concerning Jesus, both
from the law of Moses and the prophets, from morning
till dusk.”

Thus with Paul attesting and expounding that he said

NOTHING outside of Moses (the law), and the prophets (that
which they prophesied concerning the Christ and Israel’s
restored kingdom upon earth), then the term - “by the word of
the Lord” - must fit this parameter. Yes?

And since we have learned that the One Body will NOT be
"caught up in the rapture,” (because we have correctly
partition the word of truth), we can be confident that the Lord
descending to earth from out of the celestials, and the rest of
this “rapture” passage has nothing to do with the One Body of
Christ. Clearly this passage, and ALL of Paul’s Acts epistles
have everything to do with what pertains to Moses and the
prophets - dispensationally speaking. Therefore we can
KNOW with assurance - by the authority of God’s word - what
the truth is regarding the term “by the word of the Lord” from
this simple, yet logical rightly divided reasoning.