LONG TERM CHASE–2 Date: 08-02-2024

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VIJAYAWADA
LONG TERM CHASE–2 Date: 08-02-2024

BOTANY 7. Who noted that the behavior of gene

was parallel to behavior of
SECTION-A (1-35 QUESTIONS) chromosome?
------------------------------------------------------------------ 1) Mendel
1. What would be the number of 2) T.H. Morgen
chromosomes in the cells of the 3) C. Punnet
aleurone layer in a plant species with8 4) Sutton and Boveri
chromosomes in its synergids? 8. How the inheritance of gene showing
1) 16 2) 24 Parallelism with inheritance of
3) 32 4) 8 chromosome?
2. Endosperm is consumed by developing 1) Both occurs in pair
embryo in the seed of 2) Both segregate during gametes
1) Pea 2) Maize formation
3) Coconut 4) Castor 3) In both only one of a pair presents in
3. If a gene has 10 different alleles, then gametes
find out the possible number of 4) All of these
genotypes produced? 9. How the inheritance of gene differs
1) 6 2) 11 from inheritance of chromosomes?
3) 55 4) 2 1) two gene never show linkage where as
4. If a medium size starch grain plant two chromosomes can
crossed with a small size starch grain 2) Two gene presents on same
plant, then what fraction of their chromosome may show linkage whereas
progeny have small starch grain size two chromosomes never show linkage
1) 1/2 2) 1/4 3) Gene occurs in pairs whereas
3) 1/3 4) 3/4 chromosome not
5. In incomplete-dominant F1 is resemble 4) Chromosomes occur in pair whereas
with genes never occur in pair
1) Dominant parent 10. Given below are two statements :
2) Both parent One is labeled as Assertion A and the
3) Recessive parent other is labeled as Reason R:
4) Neither with any parent Assertion :- expression of recessive
6. When we perform the selfing of phenotype is due to absence of
heterozygous round and yellow seed unmodified allele.
pea plant then what fraction of their Reason :- recessive allele produce
progeny have round seed? nonfunction enzyme always.
1) 1/16 2) 3/16 In the light of the above statements,
3) 9/16 4) 12/16 choose the correct answer from the

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options given below: (B) Bryophytes are known as a
1) A is false but R is true amphibians of plant kingdom
2) Both A and R are true and R is the (C) Funaria, Polytrichum &
correct explanation of A Sphagnumare classified under mosses.
3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT (D) Vascular tissues (xylem & phloem)
the correct explanation of A are present in Bryophytes.
4) A is true but R is false 1) only A 2) A & D
11. Given below are two statements: 3) only C 4) only D
Statement I: out of 3 classes of algae 14. Read the statement A to D & select
red algae is present at great depth in wrong statement
Water. (A) The pteridophytes include Pteris&
Statement II: Red algae absorb red fern
colour of light. (B) Pteridophytes are the first
In the light of the above statements, terrestrial plants to possess vascular
choose the correct answer from the tissues xylem & phloem.
options given below: (C) In Bryophytes the dominant phase
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement in the life cycle is the sporophytic
II is true plant body.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (D) In Pteridophytes, the main plant
true body is a gametophyte
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are 1) only B 2) only A & C
false 3) only C & D 4) only B & D
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement 15. Consider the following four statements
II is false whether they are correct or wrong
12. Given below are two statements: One (a) The sporophyte in liverworts is
is labeled as Assertion A and the other more elaborate than that in mosses
is labeled as Reason R: (b) Salvinia is heterosporous
Assertion A: Embryo is absent in (c) In Pteridophyte gametophytes is
algae. not dependent on sporophyte
Reason R: Zygotic meiosis is present (d) Most pteridophytes are
in algae hetrosporous
In the light of the above statements, The two wrong statements together
choose the correct answer from the are
options given below: 1) Statements (a) and (c)
(1) A is false but R is true 2) Statements (a) and (d)
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the 3) Statements (b) and (c)
correct explanation of A 4) Statements (a) and (b)
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT 16. The advantage of using DNA
the correct explanation of A polymerases from thermophilic
(4) A is true but R is false organisms in PCR is that:
13. Read statement (A-D) & find which 1) the DNA polymerases of these
is/are wrong statement bacteria are much faster than those from
(A) Asexual reproduction in liverworts other organisms
takes place by fragmentation of thalli 2) the DNA polymerases of these
or by the formation of specialised bacteria can withstand the high
structure called Gemmae temperatures needed to polymerise the
DNA strands
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3) the DNA polymerases of these 23. Some foreign DNA fragment is
bacteria never make mistakes while attached to Cla I site of pBR 322.
replicating DNA This recombinant vector on two
4) all of the above different media, one containing
17. A bacterium adds methyl group to its ampicillin and the other containing
DNA, by a process known as tetracycline. The transformed cells
modification, in order to: containing the recombinant vector
1) Clone its DNA will
2) Protect DNA from viral restriction 1) Grow on both, tetracycline and
enzymes ampicillin containing media
3) Transcribe many genes 2) Not grow on either tetracycline
simultaneously containing or ampicillin containing
4) Protect DNA from its own restriction media
enzymes 3) Grow on tetracycline but not on
18. Which of the following primers would ampicillin containing medium
allow copying of the single-stranded 4) Grow on ampicillin but not on
DNA sequence 5’ ATGCCTAGGTC tetracycline containing medium
3’? 24. In pBR 322 ampR and tetR genes are
present. When we ligate a foreign DNA
1) 5’ TACGG 2) 5’ CTGGA
at Pst-I site, then recombinant
3) 5’ GACCT 4) 5’ GGCAT
plasmids will lose the resistance to the
19. A cloning vector has two antibiotic
1) Ampicillin 2) Tetracycline
resistance genes – for tetracycline and 3) Both 4) None
ampicillin. A foreign DNA was 25. Read the following statements.
inserted into the tetracycline gene. i) Primers used in PCR are small
Non-recombinants transformants chemically synthesised
would survive on the medium oligosaccharides.
containing: ii) E.coli is closely related to
1) ampicillin but not tetracycline Salmonella.
2) tetracycline but not ampicillin iii) There are 3 basic steps in
3) both tetracycline and ampicillin genetically modifying an organism.
4) neither tetracycline nor ampicillin iv) The techniques of the genetic
20. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have engineering overcome the limitation of
been used to design novel: traditional hybridization procedures.
1) Biofertilizers In these statements how many are
2) Bio metallurgic techniques correct ?
3) Biomineralization processes 1) 4 2) 3
4) Bio insecticidal plants 3) 1 4) 2
21. Bt cotton is not: 26. What is the source of nematode
1) A GM plant specific gene during RNAi
2) ball worm resistant 1) RNA virus 2) tranposomes
3) A transgenic plant 3) agrobacterium 4) both 1 and 2
4) Resistant to all pest
22. RNAi is a mechanism to silence genes
with the help of:
1) ribozyme 2) dsRNA
3) ssDNA 4) dsDNA

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27. The colonies of recombinant bacteria
appear white in contrast to blue
colonies of non – recombinant bacteria
because of
1) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
recombinant bacteria
2) Non – recombinant bacteria containing
beta-galactosidase
3) Insertional inactivation of alpha –
galactosidase in non – recombinant
bacteria
4) Insertional inactivation of alpha-
galactosidase in non-transformant
28. RNA being a catalyst was reactive and
hence …A… . Therefore, DNA has
evolved from RNA with …B…
modification that makes it more …C… .
Choose the correct option for A, B and
C.
1) A-stable, B-physical, C-stable
2) A-stable, B-chemical, C-stable
3) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-stable
4) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-unstable
29. A bisexual flower which never open, is
known as
1) Autogamous 2) Cleistogamous
3) Homogamous 4) Allogamous
30. Largest family of Indian flora, spike of
spikelet inflorescence, versatile stamen
is the character of family: -
1) Liliaceae 2) Cruciferae
3) Asteraceae 4) Poaceae
31. Hypogynous and tetramerous flower
with cruciform corolla is
characteristic feature of family: -
1) Liliaceae 2) Cruciferae
3) Asteraceae 4) Poaceae
32. The UTR [untranslated regions] in an
mRNA:
1) Are present only at 5’ end and are not
required for efficient translation
2) Are present only at 3’ end and are not
required for efficient translation
3) Are present at both 5’ and 3’ends and
are not required for efficient translation
4) Are present at both 5’ and 3’ ends and
are required for efficient translation
process
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33. Gene regulation in prokaryotes is
carried out exclusively at the level of:
1) Initiation of transcription
2) Post transcriptional modifications
3) Translation
4) Post translational modifications
34. The repressor of lac operon is:
1) Lactose itself
2) A steroid
3)Synthesized constitutively
4)A product of structural gene
35. Which enzyme polymerizes RNA with
defined sequences in a template
independent manner?
1) Peptidyl transferase
2) RNA polymerase
3) Reverse transcriptase
4) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
SECTION-B (36-50 QUESTIONS)
----------------------------------------------------------------
36. Which of the following statement
about Griffith’s experiment is right?
I. S-strain have capsule. II. Mouse
will die if injected with living S-strain.
III. Mouse will die if injected with
living R-strain.
IV. Transforming principle associated
with capsule of S-strain.
V. Transformation of R-strain into S-
strain can take place in a test-tube.
the 1) I and II 2) III and IV
3) I, II and V 4) III, IV and V
37. During the formation of embryo sac,
the functional megaspore undergoes
1) Two mitotic divisions
2) Two meiotic divisions
3) Three meiotic divisions
4) Three mitotic divisions
38. When we make a cross b/w a pink
flower plant of Antirrhinum with red
colour flower plant then what
percentage of their progeny have
white flower?
1) 25% 2) 0%
3) 75% 4) 100%
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39. Theoretically a modified allele may
1) Produce same or less functional
enzyme
2) Different enzyme
3) No enzyme
4) All of these may possible
40. Device to discourage self-pollination
or increase cross-pollination is
1) Pollen release and stigma receptivity
are not synchronized
2) Anther and stigma placed at different
position
3) Same height of stamen and stigma
4) Both (a) and (b)
41. A common biocontrol agent for the
control of mosquitoes is
(1) Bacillus thruingiensis
(2) Glomus
(3) Dragon fly
(4) Ladybird
42. Which one of the following is a wrong
matching of a microbe and its
industrial product, while
remaining three are correct?
(1) Straptococcus - statins
(2) Acetobacter aceti– acetic acid
(3) Clostridium butylicum–butyric acid
(4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
43. Consider the following statements
(A-D) about organic farming
(A) Utilizes transgenic disease resistance
plant
(B) keep the pest population at
manageable level by a complex system
of cheek and balance
(C) use bio-control agents
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins
and minerals
Which of the above statements are
correct?
1) (B), (C) and (D)
2) (C) and (D) only
3) (B) and (C) only
4) (A) and (B) only
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44. RNA can acts as
a) Genetic material
b) Messenger
c) Adapter molecule
d) Structural molecule
e) Catalytic molecule
1) b, c and e 2) a, d and e
3) a, b and c 4) a, b, c, d and e
45. During analysis of the DNA of an
organism having 5386 nucleotides find
out A = 29%, G = 17%, C = 32%, T =
17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule it
can be concluded that
1) It is double stranded linear DNA
2) It is double stranded circular DNA
3) It is single stranded DNA
4) Both 1 and 2
46. The plane of one base pair stacks over the
other in double helix. This provides
1) Antiparallel nature to DNA double helix
2) Uniform length in all DNA
3) Uniform width throughout DNA
4) Additional stability to DNA
47. Assertion (A) : In purple and green
the sulphur bacteria anoxygenic
photosynthesis takes place.
Reason (R) : In sulphur bacteria H2S act
as hydrogen donor.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
48. Assertion (A) : Twelve molecule of water
required as substrate in photosynthesis
equation.
Reason (R) : In photosynthesis equation
six oxygen molecules evolve came from
water.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
49. Replum is developed from the thalamus
in place of wall of the ovary is
characteristic of members of family:-
1) Liliaceae 2) Cruciferae
3) Asteraceae 4) Poaceae
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50. Presence of monothecous and kidney 55. Statement-I : Head of sperm consists
shaped anther is character of of acrosome and mitochondria.
members of family:- Statement-II: Acrosome contains
1) Liliaceae 2) Malvaceae spiral row of mitochondria.
3) Asteraceae 4) Poaceae 1) Both the statements are correct
2) Both the statements are incorrect
ZOOLOGY 3) only statement I is correct.
4) only statement II is correct.
SECTION-A (51-85 QUESTIONS) 56. Which of the following statement is
------------------------------------------------------------------ correct regarding menstruation?
51. Which of the following contraceptives 1) The menstrual fluid can easily clot.
is inserted inside the uterus 2) Permanent cessation menstruation is
1) Diaphragm called menarche.
2) Implant 3) At menopause, there is an abrupt
3) Vault increase in Estrogen and Progesterone
4) Lippes Loop levels
52. Read the statements and choose the 4) In human female, menstruation can be
correctoption withheld or delayed by the
I. Ovulation and menstrual cycles do administration of combination of
not occurduring the period of intense estrogen and progesterone.
lactationfollowing parturition 57. Statement-I: Corpus luteum is formed
II. Oral contraceptive pills inhibit in all human females following
ovulation andimplantation as well as ovulation
alter the quality ofcervical mucus to Statement-II: In the absence of
prevent entry of sperms fertilization corpus luteum
1) Both I, II are correct degenerates
2) Both I, II are incorrect 1) Both statement I and II are correct
3) Only II is correct 2) Only statement I is correct
4) Only I is correct 3) Only statement II is correct
53. Choose the incorrect match of the 4) Statement I and II are incorrect
diseaseand the causative organism 58. How many of these statements are
1) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria true for DNA polymorphism
2) Syphilis – Treponema A) it is inheritable
3) Chlamydiosis – Chlamydia B) it arises due to mutation
4) Genital herpes – Human papilloma C) it is important for evolution and
virus speciation
54. Emergency contraceptives are D) it is the basis of genetic mapping
effective whenthey are used within 72 E) it is the basis of DNA Fingerprinting
hrs. of 1) 5 2) 4
1) Coitus 3) 3 4) 2
2) Menstruation 59. Which bacterium is used in the
3) Implantation production of insulin by genetic
4) Foetus formation engineering?
1) Saccharomyces 2) Rhizobium
3) Escherichia 4) Mycobacterium

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60. The first transgenic cow, named Rosie 66. Assertion: Males and females in
produce human alpha-lactalbumin in humans & Drosophila differ in the
1) blood 2) urine structure of allosomes but have the
3) milk 4) saliva same autosome in number and
61. The type of mutation in sickle-cell structure.
disease consists of: Reason: Humans and Drosophila show
1) a deletion. male heterogamety and female
2) a duplication. heterogametyrespectively.
3) an insertion 1) Both A and R are correct R is correct
4) a point mutation. explanation of A
62. If the father in a family has a disease 2) Both A and R are correct R is not
while the mother is normal. All their correct explanation of A
daughters have inherited the disease 3) A is correct, R is incorrect
but none of their sons did. The disease 4) A is incorrect, R is correct
is more likely to be 67. In the species count-global-as per pie
1) Autosomal recessive chart related with vertebrates, in the
2) Autosomal dominant given groups whose number of species
3) X linked recessive is minimum?
4) X linked dominant 1) Pisces 2) Birds
63. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal 3) Mammals 4) Reptiles.
recessive genetic disorder. If one 68. At which place the sacred grooves are
parent of a child is a carrier the last refuges for a large number of
possessing one copy of the faulty cystic rare and threatened plants?
fibrosis gene (Cc), another parent is 1) Meghalaya
not a carrier (genotype = CC). What 2) Rajasthan
are the chances that the children 3) Western Ghat regions
would have the disease? 4) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas
1) 100% 2) 50% 69. Which of the following is not included
3) 25% 4) 0% in ex situ conservation methods?
64. The sex determination pattern in 1) Protective maintenance of threatened
honeybees is called species in zoological parks and botanical
1) Male heterogamety gardens.
2) Haplodiploidy 2) In vitro fertilization
3) Female heterogamety 3) Tissue culture propagation and
4) Gametogony cryopreservation of gametes.
65. Assertion: Color blindness isn't 4) National parks
common in females. 70. The limitations of the ecological
Reason: There's a low likelihood that a pyramid is/are:
female will inherit both genes required 1) It has no place for decomposers and
for the condition. detrivores
1) Both A and R are correct R is correct 2) It is based on simple food chain and
explanation of A not food web
2) Both A and R are correct R is not 3) It has no place for insectivorous plants
correct explanation of A which simultaneously belong to more
3) A is correct, R is incorrect than on trophic level
4) A is incorrect, R is correct 4) All are correct
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71. Subtraction of which of the following 78. Cocaine is extracted from
will convert gross primary productivity 1) Erythroxylum coca
into net primary productivity? 2) Cannabis sativa
1) The energy contained in the standing 3) Papaver somniferum
crop 4) Atropa belladonna
2) The energy used by heterotrophs in 79. The laboratory tests that are used in the
respiration
diagnosis of AIDS are
3) The energy used by autotrophs in
1) ELISA and PCR
respiration
2) Northern blot and ELISA
4) The energy fixed by photosynthesis
3) ELISA and Southern blot
72. If the sun suddenly stops providing
4) Western blot and Widal
energy to the earth, then most of the
ecosystems would vanish. Which of the 80. The interferons are
following ecosystems would likely to 1) antiviral drugs used for the treatment of
survive even after this hypothetical virus infections
disaster? 2) a group of proteins released by virus-
1) Tundra 2) Benthic infected cells and cause the nearby cells to
3) Grassland 4) Desert heighten their anti-viral defenses
73. Which ecosystem has the maximum 3) antibiotic drugs obtained from bacteria
biomass________ 4) immunosuppressive drugs obtained
1) Forest ecosystem from plants
2) Pond ecosystem 81. Which one of the following is not an
3) Grassland ecosystem autoimmune disease?
4) Lake ecosystem 1) Grave’s disease
74. Secondary productivity is the rate of 2) Myasthenia gravis
formation of new organic matter 3) Rheumatoid arthritis
by________ 4) Insomnia
1) Decomposers 2) Parasite 82. Where will you look for the sporozoites
3) Producers 4) Consumers of the malarial parasite?
75. The breakdown of detritus into small 1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted
particles by earthworm is a process female Anopheles mosquito
called________ 2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles
1) Catabolism 2) Fragmentation mosquito
3) Mineralisation4) Humification 3) Red blood corpuscles of humans
76. An example of an analogous organs is suffering from malaria
1) Forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs, 4) Spleen of infected humans
and human
83. At which state of HIV infection does
2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
Cucurbita
3) Thorns and spines
1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with
4) Vertebrate hearts an infected person
2) When the infecting retrovirus enters
77. Embryological support for evolution was
host cells
proposed
1) Ernst Heckel
3) When viral DNA is produced by
2) Karl Ernst von Baer reverse transcriptase
3) Charles Darwin 4) When HIV replicates rapidly and
4) Alfred Wallace damages a large number of helper T-
lymphocytes (CD4+ cells)
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84. Match the column – I and II and choose 87. How many of the following were the
the correct combination from the features of the Human Genome
options given: 1) 99.9% of the bases are present are
Column – I Column – II
exactly same in all humans
a. Chronic inflammation
Ringworm (i) 2) The fewest number of genes is
of lymphatic vessels
found to be present at the
b. Recurring high fever
Pneumonia (ii) chromosome which is present in males
with chills
only.
c. Typhoid (iii) Alveoli filled with fluid
3) Repeated sequences make up very
d. Dry, scaly lesions on
Filariasis (iv) large portion of the human genome
skin, nails and scalp
4) Repeated sequences are useful for
e. Sustained high fever study of chromosome structure,
Malaria (v)
with chills dynamics and evolution
1)a – iv ; b – iii ; c – v ; d – ii ; e - i 1) 1 2) 2
2) a – iv ; b – iii ; c – v ; d – i ; e - ii 3) 3 4) 4
3) a – iii ; b – iv ; c – v; d – i ; e - ii
88. Which of the following statement is
4) a – ii; b – i; c – iv ; d – iii ; e – v
incorrect related with fertilization in
85. Which of the following sets of diseases humans?
is caused by bacteria? 1) It takes place at ampullary region of
1) Tetanus and mumps oviducts
2) Herpes and influenza 2) Final maturation division in ovum
3) Cholera and tetanus takes place only after the entry of sperm
4) Typhoid and smallpox into ovum.
SECTION-B (86-100 QUESTIONS) 3) Fertilization leads to formation of
------------------------------------------------------------------ zygote
86. Select the correct statements 4) Fertilization can be prevented by the
regarding oogenesis. use of intrauterine contraceptive devices
(i) It is initiated during the embryonic 89. What will the condition of the progeny
stage when millions of oogonia are be if the father is normal while the
mother has one gene for haemophilia
formed within each ovary.
and one gene for colour blindness on
(ii) Graafian follicle releases primary one of the X chromosomes
oocyte from the ovary by ovulation. 1) All sons and daughters are
(iii) At puberty only 60,000 - 80,000 haemophilic and colour blind
primary follicles are left in each ovary. 2) Haemophilic and colour blind
(iv) Primary oocyte within tertiary daughters
follicles grows in size and completes its 3) 50% haemophilic and colour blind
sons and 50% colour blind daughters
first meiotic division.
4) 50% haemophilic and colour blind
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) sons and 50% normal sons
2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
3) (ii) and (iv)
4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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90. Study the pedigree chart given below.
What does it show?
1) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria, an autosomal recessive
trait.
2) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is
not possible.
3) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked
disease like haemophilia.
4) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn
error of metabolism like cystic fibrosis.
91. Assertion: Polymorphism in DNA
sequence is the basis of DNA
fingerprinting.
Reason: Polymorphism arises due to
mutation.
1) Both A and R are correct R is correct
explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct R is not
correct explanation of A
3) A is correct, R is incorrect
4) A is incorrect, R is correct
92. Satellite DNA is important because it
1) does not code for proteins and is
identical in all members of the population
2) codes for enzymes needed for DNA
replication
3) codes for proteins needed in the cell
cycle
4) shows a high degree of polymorphism
in the population
93. Find out the incorrect statement
related with Alien species Invasions-
1) It can cause extinction of indigenous
species.
2) The Nile perch introduced into Lake
Victoria in east Africa-causes
extinction of more than 200 species
of cichlid fish in the lake.
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3) The recent illegal introduction of the
African catfish Clarias gariepinus for
aquaculture purposes is posing a
threat to the indigenous catfishes.
4) Exotic species like carrot grass
(parthenium), Lantana and water
hyacinth (Eichhornia) introduced
into our ecosystem are supportive for
our local indigenous species.
94. Secondary consumers that can feed on
(eat) only primary consumers, receive
what percentage of the energy fixed by
primary producers in a typical
terrestial ecosystem?
1) 10% of the energy fixed by primary
producers
2) 20% of the energy fixed by primary
producers
3) 1% of the energy fixed by primary
producers
4) 0.1 %of the energy fixed by primary
producers
95. The pyramid given below represents:
1) Pyramid of number in the grassland
ecosystem
2) Pyramid of number in the single tree
ecosystem
3) Pyramid of biomass in the forest
ecosystem
4) Pyramid of energy in the pond
ecosystem
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96. Which of the following statements is
PHYSICS
correct about the origin and evolution
SECTION-A (101-135 QUESTIONS)
of men?
------------------------------------------------------------------
1) Homo habilis had a completely erect
101. A slit of width ‘a’ is illuminated by
posture and probably was a meat eater. white light. The first minimum for red
2) The Neanderthal man with a cranial light  λ = 6500 Å  falls at θ = 30o on
capacity of 1400 C.C lived in near east
screen, then ‘a’ must be equal to
and central Africa between 1,00000-
1) 3250 Å 2) 3  6500 Å
40,000 years back.
3) 15 mya, Australopithecines lived in 3) 1.3 micron 4) 2.6 micron
East African grasslands. 102. Two identical conductors P and Q are
4) Homo erectus had a brain size about placed two frictionless rails R and S in
900 C.C. a uniform magnetic field directed into
the plane. If P is moved in the
97. From which part of the poppy plant,
direction shown in figure with a
opium is obtained? constant speed, then rod Q
1) Leaf
2) Flower
3) Root
4) Fruit (unripe seed capsule)
98. Neoplasms are
1) Nuclei with massive DNA
2) Cells without covering membranes
3) Cells capable of unlimited division
4) Abnormal masses of tissue that form
when cells grow and divide more than
they should or do not die when they 1) will be attracted towards P
should. 2) will be repelled away from P
99. According to Ernst Haeckel, the 3) will remain stationary
presence of gills in the tadpole of a frog 4) may be repelled away or attracted
indicates that: towards P
1) frogs evolved from fish-like gilled 103. Identify the gate represented by the
ancestors block diagram is
2) fishes were amphibious in the past
3) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
4) frogs will have gills in future
100. When more individuals acquire
peripheral character values at both 1) AND 2) NOT
ends of the distribution curve, the type 3) NAND 4) NOR
of natural selection is called 104. In a full wave rectifier circuit
1) Stabilising selection operating form 50Hz mains frequency,
2) Directional selection the fundamental frequency in the
3) Disruptive selection ripple would be
4) Progressive selection 1) 25 Hz 2) 50 Hz
3) 70.7 Hz 4) 100 Hz

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105. In the double slit experiment, the 108. The cell has an emf of 2V and the
monochromatic source is shifted to a internal resistance of this cell is 0.1 ,

position S at an angle  above SQ. it is connected to resistance of 3.9 ,
The position of central bright fringe the voltage across the cell will be
will be 1) 1.95 V 2) 1.5 V
3) 2 V 4) 1.8 V
109. The equivalent resistance of n
resistors each of same resistance when
connected in series is R. If the same
resistances are connected in parallel,
the equivalent resistances will be
1) R / n 2 2) R / n
2
3) n R 4) nR
1) at O 2) at O
110. A coil of self-inductance   H is
1
3) at O 4) at P
106. A rectangular loop with a sliding  
connector of length l=1.0 m is situated connected in series with a 300
in a uniform magnetic field B=2T resistance. A voltage of 200V at
perpendicular to the plane of loop. frequency 200 Hz is applied to this
Resistance of connecter is as shown in combination. The phase difference
figurer. The external force required between the voltage and the current
to keep the connector moving with a will be
1) tan 1   2) tan 1  
constant velocity v=2 m/s is 4 3
3 4
1 5
3) tan 1   4) tan 1  
4 4
111. A prism of refractive index 2 has a
refracting angle of 600. At what angle
must a ray be incident on it so that it
1) 6 N 2) 4 N suffers a minimum deviation?
3) 2 N 4) 1 N 1) 30° 2) 600
107. The cell in the circuit shown in figure 3) 45° 4) 75°
is ideal. The coil has an inductance of 112. A thin equiconvex galss lens of
4 mH and a resistance of 2m . The refractive index 1.5 has power of 5D.
switch is closed at t=0. The amount of When the lens is immersed in a liquid
energy stored in the inductor at t=2s is of refractive index  , it acts as a
(take e=3)
divergent lens of focal length 100 cm.
The value of  u of liquid is
1) 4/3 2) 5/3
3) 3/4 4) 8/3
113. A constant voltage at different
frequencies is applied across a
4 8 capacitance C as shown in the figure.
1) J 2) x103 J
3 9 Which of the following graphs
8 correctly depicts the variation of
3) x103 J 4) 2 x103 J
3 current with frequency
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1)

1) 2)
2)

3)

3) 4)
114. A proton when accelerated through a
p.d of V volt has wavelength 
associated with it. An electron to have
the same  must be accelerated 4)
through a p.d of 118. The angular momentum of the
V electron in third orbit of hydrogen
1) volt 2) 4V volt atom, if the angular momentum in the
8
3) 2V volt 4) 1838V volt second orbit of hydrogen atom is L is
115. Two plano-convex lenses of equal focal 1) L 2) 3 L
lengths are arranged as shown 3
3) 2 L   4) 2/3 L
119. A parallel plate capacitor with air
between the plates has a capacitance
of 8 pF (1 pF=10–12 F). What will be
the capacitances, if the distance
The ratio of the combined focal between the plates is reduced by half
lengths is and the space between them is filled
1) 1:2:1 2) 1:2:3 with a substance of dielectric constant
3) 1:1:1 4) 2:1:2 6?
116. Two lenses of power –15D and +5D 1) 24 pF 2) 96 pF
are in contact with each other. The 3) 8 pF 4) 12 pF
focal length of the combination is 120. Three capacitors each of capacitance 8
1) - 20 cm 2) - 10 cm pF are connected in series. What is the
3) +20 cm 4) +10 cm potential difference across each
117. In the circuit shown, the input capacitor, if the combination is
waveform is given. Which of the connected to a 120 V supply?
following correctly gives the output 1) 40 V 2) 60 V
waveform across RL? 3) 80 V 4) 50 V
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121. Two resistances R and 2R are C) 3)
connected in parallel in an electric
circuit. The thermal energy developed
in R and 2R in the ratio
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 4
3) 4 : 1 4) 2 : 1
122. In Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom
‘m’ kg is mass of an electron and ‘e’
coulomb is the charge on it. The ratio
(in SI units) of magnetic dipole
moment to that of the angular D) 4)
momentum of electron is:
1) e/2m 2) e/m
3) 2 e/m 4) 2 e/3m
123. A straight wire of mass 200 g and
length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A.
It is held in mid-air by a uniform
horizontal magnetic field. What is the
magnitude of magnetic field? 1) A  1; B  3; C  2; D  4
1) 1 T 2) 0.65 T 2) A  3; B  4; C  2; D  1
3) 0.35 T 4) 0.85 T 3) A  3; B  4; C  1; D  2
124. Match plane wave incident on 4) A  4; B  2; C  1; D  3
different surfaces. In column I with 125. The dominant mechanisms for motion
the emergent wavefront in column II. of charge carriers in forward and
Column I Column II reverse biased silicon P-N junctions
A) 1) are
1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in
reverse bias
2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in
reverse bias
3) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
4) Diffusion in both forward and reverse
bias
126. Which of the following characteristics
B) 2) of electrons determines the current in
a conductor?
1) Drift velocity alone
2) Thermal velocity alone
3) Both drift velocity and thermal
velocity
4) Neither drift nor thermal velocity
127. In nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is
converted into energy. The energy
released in the fission of 1 Kg mass is
1) 2.5 x 105 KWH 2) 2.5 x 107 KWH
3) 2.5 x 109 KWH 4) 2.5 x 10-7 KWH

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128. The energy supplied by a power plant 133. Resistance in the two gaps of a meter
is 40 million kilowatt hour. It is bridge are 10 ohm and 30 ohm
supplied by annihilation of matter, the respectively. If the resistances are
mass that is annihilated is interchanged the balance point shifts
1) 1.6 gm 2) 1.6 kg by
3) 1.6 mg 4) 1.6 amu 1) 50 cm 2) 25 cm
129. A long straight wire of radius a carries 3) 66.67 cm 4) 33.3 cm
a steady current I. The current is 134. Three magnets of same length but
uniformly distributed over its cross- moments M, 2M and 3M are arranged
section. The ratio of the magnetic in the form of an equilateral triangle
a with opposite poles nearer, the
fields B and B’ at radial distances resultant magnetic moment of the
2
and 2a respectively, form the axis of arrangement is
the wire is 1) 6 M 2) Zero
1 3
1) 2) 1 3) 3M 4) M
2
2
1 135. What is the time taken by light to
3) 4 4) cross a glass of thickness 4mm and
4  3
130. Magnetic moment (or magnetic dipole 1) 4x10-11 sec 2) 2x10-11 sec
moment) of a current-carrying coil is 3) 16x10-11 sec 4) 8x10-11 sec
given by
I
1) m  INA 2) m 
A
NI SECTION-B (136-150 QUESTIONS)
3) m  NA 4) m 
A ------------------------------------------------------------------
131. A copper coil of 100 turns, radius 136. The current in a wire varies with time
8.0  10 2 m carries of 0.40 A. according to the equation i=4+2t, whee
Magnitude of magnetic field at centre I is in ampere and t is in second. The
of coil is quantity of charge which passes
1) B  3.1  10 3 T through a cross-section of the wire
during the time t=2 s to t=6s is
2) B  3.1  10 2 T
1) 40 C 2) 48 C
3) B  3.1  10 4 T 3) 38 C 4) 43 C
4) B  3.1  10 7 T
132. Two long and parallel straight wires A
137. Two identical glass g  3 / 2  
and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and equiconvex lenses of focal length f are
5.0 A in the same direction are kept in contact. The space between the
separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. two lenses is filled with water
Estimate the force on a 10 cm section   w  4 / 3 . The focal length of the
of wire A. combination is
1) 5  10 5 N repulsive f
2) 5  10 5 N attractive 1) f 2)
2
3) 2  10 5 N repulsive 4f 3f
4) 2  10 5 N attractive 3) 4)
3 4
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138. A slab of material of dielectric
constant K has the same area as the
plates of a parallel plate capacitor but 3)
has a thickness (3/4)d, where d is the
separation of the plates. How is the
capacitance changed when the slab is
inserted between the plates? 4)
4K K3 141. The magnetic induction field strength
1) C0 2) C0 at a distance 0.3m on the axial line of a
K3 4K short bar magnet of moment 3.6 Am2
K 3 4K is
3) C0 4) C0
4K K 3 1) 4.5 x 10-4 T 2) 9 x 10-4 T
-5
139. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 3) 9 x 10 T 4) 2.6 x 10-5 T
15 and meter shows full scale 142. Two Nicols are oriented with their
deflection for a current of 4 mA. To principal planes making an angle of
convert it into an ammeter 6 A range, 60o. The percentage of incident
1) a resistance of 10 m is required in unpolarized light which passes
series through the system is
2) a resistance of 10 m is required in 1) 50% 2) 100%
3) 12.5% 4) 37.5%
parallel
143. A bar magnet of length ‘I’ breadth ‘b’
3) a resistance of 1000 m is required
mass ‘m’ suspended horizontally in
in series the earths magnetic field, oscillates
4) a resistance of 1000 m is required with period T. If ‘I’, m, b are doubled
in parallel with pole strength remaining the
140. The logic circuit shown below has the same, the new period will be
input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as 1) 8T 2) 4T
shown. Pick out the current outpur 3) T/2 4) 2T
waveform. 144. In the diagram, a ray is passing
through a broken prism, find angular
deviation for the ray

1) 1) 105° 2) 30°
3) 60° 4) 15°
145. The voltage between the plates of
parallel plate condenser of capacity
2.0 F is charging at a rate of 10Vs 1 .
The displacement current
1) 2mA 2) 2 A
2) 3) 20 A 4) 2A

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146. The magnetic field in travelling EM 150. The resistance of the following circuit
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The between A and B is
peak value of electric field strength is
1) 6 V/m 2) 9 V/m
3) 12 V/m 4) 3 V/m
147. What is the peak value of the voltage
of an electric lamp connected to a
220V, 50 Hz supply?
1) 311 V 2) 320 V
3) 211 V 4) 210 V
148. When an object is at a distance u₁ and
u₂ from a lens, real images and a
virtual image is formed respectively 1)  3 / 2   2) 2
having same magnification. The focal 3) 4 4) 8
length of the lens is
u1  u 2 CHEMISTRY
1) u1  u 2 2)
2 SECTION-A (151-185 QUESTIONS)
u1  u 2 ------------------------------------------------------------------
3) 4) u1  u 2 151. Read the following statements and
2
149. A network of four 10F capacitors is select the correction option.
Statement-1: Coupling reaction is an
connected to a 500 V supply as shown example of electrophilic substitution
in figure. Determine the equivalent reaction.
capacitance of the network. Statement-2: Grignard reagent on
nucleophilic addition produces a
primary alcohol with Propanal.
1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
2) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2
is incorrect.
3) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement
2 is correct
4)Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct
152. Assertion: There is considerable
increase in covalent radius from N to
P but not so from As to Bi.
Reason: Covalent and ionic radii in
particular oxidation state increase
1) 12F 2) 13.3F down the group.
3) 11.5F 4) 14F 1) A is false but R is true
2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
4) A is true but R is false

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153. How many of the following can show 157. Number of structural isomeric
flame colour test? products formed by monochlorination
Be, Mg, Sr, Ba, Li, Cu of 2-methylbutane in presence of
1) 4 2) 2 sunlight is____
3) 3 4) 5 1) 6 2) 4
154. For which of the following van’t 3) 1 4) 3
Hoff’s factor is not correctly matched 158. Statement-1: F has highest
Salt Degree of i electronegativity in its group.
dissociatio Statement-2: O has least negative
n ( ) electron gain enthalpy in it’s group.
1)Na2SO4 50% 2 1) Both statements are correct
2) K3[Fe(CN)6] 75% 3.25 2) Both statements are incorrect
3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl 80% 1.8 3) Statement-1 is incorrect, Statement-2
4) [Cr(CH3)5Cl]SO4 90% 2.8 is correct
155. Statement 1: Lyophilic sols are more 4) Statement-1 is correct, Statement-2 is
stable in comparison to lyophobic sols incorrect
Statement 2: Stability of Lyophilic sols 159. Match the items given in column I and
is due to solvation of colloidal particles II
by solvent Column I Column II
1) If both the statement are TRUE and P) Starch 1) FeCl3 + NaOH
STATEMENT-2 is the correct Q) Lyophilic sol 2) Lyophilic
explanation of STATEMENT-1 colloid
2) If both the statement are TRUE and R) Positively 3) Gum
STATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct Charged colloid
explanation of STATEMENT-1 S) Negatively 4) FeCl3 + Hot
3) If STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and Charged colloid water
STATEMENT-2 is FALSE 1)P  1; Q  2; R  3; S  4
4) If STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and 2) P  2; Q  3; R  4; S  1
STATEMENT-2 is true 3)P  3; Q  4; R  1; S  2
156. Which of the following is most likely 4) P  4; Q  1; R  2; S  3
attacked by electrophile? 160. Identify the given reaction:

1) 2) 1) Rosenmund reaction
2) Stephen reaction
3) Gattemann Koch reaction
4) Etard reaction
161. HX is a weak acid (Ka = 10-5). It forms
a salt NaX (0.1M) on reacting with
3) 4) caustic soda. The degree of hydrolysis
of NaX is:
1) 0.01 % 2) 0.0001%
3) 0.1 % 4) 0.5 %
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162. Which of the following will not show CrO2Cl2  NaOH  [ X ]
variable oxidation state? 168.
1) Br 2) Cl [ X ]  HCl  H 2O  [Y ]
3) F 4)I Select correct option
163. The value of magnetic moment of [X] [Y]
[Pt(NH3)2(CH3NH2)Cl)]Cl is ____ BM. 1) Na2CrO4 CrO5
1) 0 2) 1.73 2) Na2Cr2O7 Cr2O3
3) 2.8 4) 3.76 3) CrO5 Na2CrO4
164. A2 + B2  2AB; R.O.R. = k]A2]a[B2]b 4) Cr2O3 Na2Cr2O7
Initial [A2] Initial [B2] R.O.R. (r)
MS-1 169. (I) Shape of [Ni(CN)4]2- is square
0.2 0.2 0.04 planar
0.1 0.4 0.04 (II) VBT cannot explain ligand field
0.2 0.4 0.08 strength
Order of reaction with respect to (III) For cis-[Pt(en)2Cl2]+2 isomerism is
A2 and B2 are respectively: not exhibited.
1) a = 1, b = 1 2) a = 2, b=0 (IV) [NiCl4)2- is square planar
3) a = 2, b = 1 4) None Select current statements:
165. IUPAC name of compounds 1) I,II 2) III, IV
3) I, III 4) II, IV
170. Biomolecular dehydration is not
is suitable to prepare ethyl methyl ether
1) 2-Methylbutyne due to
2) 3-Methylbut-1-yne 1) Propane is formed not ether
3) 2-methylbutene 2) Mixture of ethers are formed along
4) 3-methylbutane with ethyl methyl ether formation.
166. Salicylaldehyde forms from phenol by 3) Oxidation product Acetic acid is
reacting with which reagent? formed
1) CO2, NaOH 4) Butane is formed
2) CHCl3, NaOH 171. The ether which is most difficult to
3) CCl4, NaOH cleave on heating with HBr is
+
4) H2O, H
167. Consider the following sequences of
reactions 1)
2) Ph-CH2-O-CH2-Ph
3) Ph-O-CH3
4) Ph-O-Ph
172. What is the molar solubility of
Select the option with correct A and B Al(OH)3 in 0.2 M NaOH Solution?
respectively. Given that, solubility product
1) HNO3 Phenol Al (OH)3 = 2.4  10-24 :
2) NaNO2/HCl, Phenol 1)3  10-19 2) 12  10-21
3) HNO3, Aniline 3) 3  10-22 4) 12  10-23
4) NaNO2/HCl, Aniline 173. An alkali is titrated against an acid
with methyl orange as indicator,
which of the following is a correct
combination ?
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Base Acid End point 177. What is A in the following reaction?
1)Strong Strong Pinkish red to
yellow
2) Weak Strong Yellow to pinkish
red
3) Strong Pink to colourless
Strong
4) Weak Strong Colourless to pink
174.

1) 2)

1) LiAlH4 2) NaBH4
3) DIBAL-H 4) B2H6
175. Statement-1: The first members of 16th
group, oxygen can exhibit-2 oxidation
state only.
Statement-2: The stability of +4
oxidation state decreases down the 3) 4)
group and +6 oxidation increases 178. Read the following :
down the group. (i) When a solution of a weak
1) Both Statement-1 & Statement-2 are monoprotic acid is titrated against a
correct strong base, at 50% neutralization
2) Both Statement-1 & Statement-2 are 1
point, pH= pK a
in correct 2
3) Statement-1 is correct whereas (ii) A buffer has maximum buffer
Statement-2 is incorrect capacity when the ratio of salt to acid
4) Statement-1 is incorrect whereas is 10.
Statement-2 is correct. (iii) In a mixture of weak acid and its
176. The correct increasing order of salt, the ratio of concentration of salt
magnetic moment (spin only) of the to acid is increased ten fold. The pH of
following species are: the solution would Increase by one
(P) = [FeF6]3- ; (Q)=[V(H2O)6]2+ unit.
(R)=[Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) An aqueous solution of K2SO4 has
1) Q < R < P 2) P < Q < R pH nearly equal to 7.
3) P < R < Q 4) R < Q < P Select the correct code for above.
1)TTTT 2) TFTT
3) FTFT 4) FFTT
179. Calculate the [H3O+] of blood, the pH
of which is 7.4 (slightly basic).
1)5  10-8 M 2) 6.3  10-8 M
-9
3)5  10 M 4) 4  10-8 M

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180. Pkb for NH4OH at certain temperature 184. Among the following correct
is 4.74. The pH of basic buffer statement is:
containing equimolar concentration of 1) Stability of hydrides order:
NH4OH and NH4Cl will be? NH3<PH3<AsH3<SbH3<SbH3<BiH3
1)7.74 2) 4.74 2) Reducing strength order:
3) 2.37 4) 9.26 NH3<PH3<AsH3<SbH3<BiH3
181. Which of the following is the strongest 3) NH3 is strongest reducing agent
acid? while BiH3 is mild reducing agent
4) Basicity of hydrides:
NH3<PH3<AsH3<SbH3<BiH3
185. For a first order reaction, the ratio of
time for the completion of 99.9% and
1) 2) CH3COOH half of the reaction is
1)8 2) 10
3) 9 4) 12
SECTION-B (186-200 QUESTIONS)
--------------------------------------------------------
186. Positive Fehling solution test is given
3) HCOOH 4)
by how many of them
182. A homogeneous catalytic reaction
takes place through the three
alternative plots A, B and C shown in
the given figure. Which one of the
following indicates the relative ease
with which the reaction can take 1) 5 2) 4
place? 3) 2 4) 3
187. In a chemical reaction,

A  2 B 
K
 2C  D the initial
concentration of B was 1.5 times of the
concentration of A, but the
equilibrium concentrations of A and B
were found to be equal. The
equilibrium constant (K) for the
aforesaid chemical reaction is :
1)A > B > C 2) C > B > A 1
1) 2)4
3) A > C > B 4) A = B = C 4
183. Which of the following is incorrectly 3) 16 4) 1
matched. 188. Statement-I: Solution of [Ni(H2O6]+2 is
Column-I Column-II green in colour.
Process Catalyst/ Statement-II: Solution [Ni(CN)4]-2 is
Reagents used colourless
1) Wacker’s process PtCl2 1) Both statements are correct.
2)Polythene Al(C2H5)3/TiCl4 2) Both Statements are incorrect.
formation 3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-
3) Haber’s process Fe II is incorrect.
4) Statement-I is incorrect and
4) Photography AgBr
Statement-II is correct
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189. Assertion (A): KCN react with R-X to 193. For which reaction at 298 K, the value
give cyanide and AgCN reacts with R-X of will be maximum and minimum
to give isocyanide mainly. respectively:
Reason (R): KCN and AgCN both are (a) N 2O4  g   2 NO2  g 
ionic compounds. (b) 2SO2 g   O2 g   2SO3 g 
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason explains Assertion. (c) X  g   Y  g   4Z  g 
2) Both Assertion and Reason is true but (d) A  g   3B  g   7C  g 
Reason does not explains Assertion.
1) d, c 2) d, b
3) Assertion is true and Reason is false 3) c, d 4) d, a
4) Assertion is false but reason is true 194. Consider the following reversible
190. Statement-I: In aniline, -NH2 group is chemical reactions:
strong deactivating group for all ESR. A2  g   B2  g  
 K
 2 AB  g  ...... 1
1

Statement-II: Aniline does not show
6 AB  g  
  3 A2  g   3B2  g  ......  2 
K 2

Friedel-Craft alkylation reaction. 

1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1)K1K2 = 3 2) K2 = K13
correct 1
3) K2 = K13 4) K1K 2 
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2
incorrect 195. Two solutions S 1 and S 2 containing
3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II 0.1M NaCl(aq) and 0.08M BaCl2(aq)
is incorrect are separated by semipermeable
4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-
membrane. Which among the
following statement(s) is/are correct
II is correct
S1 S2
191. Find out final product (C). 0.1M NaCl 0.08M BaCl 2

1) S1 and S2 are isotonic

2) S1is hypertonic andS2 is hypotonic
3) S1 is hypotonic and S2 is hypertonic
1) Propan-1-ol 2) Propan-2-ol 4) Osmosis will take place to from
3) Propene 4) Propane S2 to S1
192. Statement-I: Noble gases have very high 196. Among the following white precipitate
boiling point. is:
Statement-II: Noble gases molecules 1) Pbl2
2) (NH4)2S
have strong dispersion forces.
3) (NH4)3AsO4.12MoO3
1) Both statements are correct. 4) PbSO4
2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II
is incorrect
3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-
II is correct
4) Both statements are incorrect.

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SRI GOSALITES 22 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA
LONG TERM CHASE–2 Date: 08-02-2024
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197.
List-I List-II 200. The molal elevation constant of water
Electronic is 0.51. The boiling point of 0.1 molal
Complex
configuration aqueous NaCl solution is nearly :
2,2,2 1)100.05 OC 2) 100.1 OC
(i) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (P) t2 g , eg1,1 3) 100.2 OC 4) 101.00C
(ii) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (Q) t2 g1,1,1 , eg1,1
(iii) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (R) t2 g1,1,0 , eg 0,0
(iv) [V(H2O)6]3+ (S) t2 g1,1,1 , eg 0,0
Identify correct match:
1) i-Q, ii-P, iii-S, iv-R
2) i-P, ii-Q, iii-R, iv-S
3) i-Q, ii-P, iii-R, iv-S
4) i-P, ii-R, iii-Q, iv-S
198. What is the product formed in the
below given reaction?

1) 2)

3) 4)
199. Which of the following is correct?
1) [NiCl4)2- diamagnetic, [Ni(CO)4]
diamagnetic
2) [Ni(CO)4] diamagnetic, [Ni(Cl)4]2-
Paramagnetic
3) [NiCl4]2- paramagnetic, [Ni(CO)4]
Paramagnetic
4) [NiCl4)2- diamagnetic [Ni(CO)4
Paramagnetic

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SRI GOSALITES 23 | P A G E VIJAYAWADA