Class 10 Science CBSE PYQ Chapter Wise Topic Wise

Chapter wise Topic wise Solved Paper From (2014 - 2023)
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
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Chemical Reactions and Equations
Previous Years Questions
1.1 Chemical Equations
MCQ
1. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The balanced equation which
represents the above reaction is
(a) Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝑙) → 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + 2H2( g)
(b) 2Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝑙) → 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + H2(𝑔)
(c) 2Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝑙) → NaOH(aq) + 2H2( g)
(d) 2Na(𝑠) + H2 O(𝐼) → 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + 2H2(𝑔)
(Term I, 2021-22)
2. It is important to balance the chemical equations to satisfy the law of conservation of mass. Which of
the following statements of the law is incorrect?
(a) The total mass of the elements present in the reactants is equal to the total mass of the elements
present in the products.
(b) The number of atoms of each element remains the same, before and after a chemical reaction.
(c) The chemical composition of the reactants is the same before and after the reaction.
(d) Mass can neither be created nor can it be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(Term I, 2021-22)
3. In which of the following, the identity of initial substance remains unchanged?

(a) Curdling of milk
(b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
(c) Fermentation of grapes
(d) Digestion of food
(2020)
4. Identify ' 𝑥 ', ' 𝑦 ' and ' 𝑧 ' in the following reaction:
𝑦
2KClO3(𝑥) ⟶ 2KCl(𝑥) + O2(𝑧)
(a) 𝑥 = gas; 𝑦 = reaction condition; 𝑧 = gas
(b) 𝑥 = solid; 𝑦 = liquid; 𝑧 = gas
(c) 𝑥 = number of moles of KClO3 ; 𝑦 = reaction condition; 𝑧 = number of molecules of oxygen
(d) 𝑥 = physical state of KClO3 and KCl; 𝑦 = reaction condition, z = physical state of O2 .
(2020)
5. Assertion (A) : Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron:
3Fe + 4H2 O ⟶ Fe3 O4 + 4H2
Reason (R) : The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true, but reason (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (𝑅) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
6. What is a balanced chemical equation ?
(2021 C)
7. Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation :

"Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium sulphate."
(2019)
SA I (2 marks)
8. Give the chemical name of the reactants as well as the products of the following chemical equation:
HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 ⟶ Ca(NO3 )2 + H2 O
(2021 C)
SA II (3 marks)
9. Explain the significance of photosynthesis. Write the balanced chemical equation involved in the
process.
(Board Term I, 2017)
10. Write balanced chemical equations for the following chemical reactions:
(a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
(b) Lead + Copper chloride → Lead chloride + Copper
(c) Zinc oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon monoxide
1.2 Types of Chemical Reactions
MCQ
11. When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead nitrate are mixed, an insoluble substance
separates out. The chemical equation for the reaction involved is
(a) KI + PbNO3 ⟶ PbI + KNO3
(b) 2KI + Pb(NO3 )2 ⟶ PbI2 + 2KNO3
(c) KI + Pb(NO3 )2 ⟶ Pbl + KNO3
(d) KI + PbNO3 ⟶ PbI2 + KNO3
(2023)
12. A metal ribbon ' 𝑋 ' burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame forming a white ash ' 𝑌 '. The
correct description of 𝑋, 𝑌 and the type of reaction is
(a) 𝑋 = Ca; 𝑌 = CaO;
Type of reaction = Decomposition
(b) 𝑋 = Mg; Y = MgO;
Type of reaction = Combination
(c) 𝑋 = 𝐴Al; Y = Al2 O3 ;
Type of reaction = Thermal decomposition
(d) 𝑋 = Zn; 𝑌 = ZnO;
Type of reaction = Endothermic

(2023)
13. The balanced chemical equation showing reaction between quick lime and water is
(a) 2CaO + H2 O ⟶ 2CaOH + H2 + Heat
(b) CaO + H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2 + Heat
(c) CaO + H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + Heat
(d) 2CaO + 3H2 O ⟶ 2Ca(OH)3 + O2 + Heat
(2023)
14. Study the following chemical reaction:

2Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝑙) ⟶ 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + H2(𝑔) ↑
The reducing agent in this reaction is

(a) Na
(b) H2 O
(c) NaOH
(d) H2
(2023)
15. Assertion (𝐴): In the following reaction

ZnO + C ⟶ Zn + CO
ZnO undergoes reduction.
Reason (R): Carbon is a reducing agent that reduces ZnO to Zn.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is False.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason ( 𝑅 ) is true.
(2023)
16. Assertion (A) : Reaction of quick lime with water is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R) : Quicklime reacts vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A)
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
(2023)
17. A student took sodium sulphate solution in a test tube and added barium chloride solution to it. He
observed that an insoluble substance has formed. The colour and molecular formula of the insoluble
substance is
(a) grey, Ba2 SO4
(b) yellow, Ba(SO4 )2
(c) white, BaSO4
(d) pink, BaSO4
(Term I, 2021-22)
18. C6 H12 O6( aq) + 6O2(𝑔) → 6CO2(𝑔) + 6H2 O(𝑙) The above reaction is a/an
(a) displacement reaction
(b) endothermic reaction
(c) exothermic reaction
(d) neutralisation reaction.
(Term I, 2021-22)
19. Which of the following statement about the reaction given below are correct?
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2 O + Cl2
(i) HCl is oxidized to Cl2 .
(ii) MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2 .
(iii) MnCl2 acts as an oxidizing agent.
(iv) HCl acts as an oxidizing agent.

(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only
(Term I, 2021-22)
20. Which one of the following reactions is categorised as thermal decomposition reaction?
(a) 2H2 O(𝐼) → 2H2(𝑔) + O2(𝑔)
(b) 2AgBr(𝑠) → 2Ag (𝑠) + Br2(𝑔)
(c) 2AgCl(𝑠) → 2Ag (𝑠) + Cl2(𝑔)
(d) CaCO3( s) → CaO(s) + CO2( g)
( Term I, 2021-22)
21. Assertion (A) : Burning of natural gas is an endothermic process.

Reason (R): Methane gas combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but ( 𝑅 ) is true.
(Term I, 2021-22)
22. Consider the following processes

I. Dilution of sulphuric acid
II. Sublimation of dry ice
III. Condensation of water vapours
IV. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
The endothermic process(es) is/are

(a) I and III
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and IV
(Term I, 2021-22)
23. When lead nitrate powder is heated in boiling tube, we observe

(a) brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide
(b) brown fumes of lead oxide

(c) yellow fumes of nitrogen dioxide
(d) brown fumes of nitric oxide.
(Term I, 2021-22)
24. Assertion (A) : Silver salts are used in black and white photography.
Reason (R) : Silver salts do not decompose in the presence of light.
(Term I, 2021-22)
25. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime.
CaO(s) + H2 O(l) ⟶ Ca(OH)2(𝑎𝑞)
This reaction can be classified as
(A) combination reaction
(B) exothermic reaction
(C) endothermic reaction
(D) oxidation reaction.
Which of the following is a correct option?

(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (B)
(2020)
26. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate
of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction
is an example of a
(a) combination reaction
(b) displacement reaction

(c) decomposition reaction
(d) double displacement reaction.
(2020)
27. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium
chloride solution:
(A) exchange of atoms takes place
(B) exchange of ions takes place
(C) a precipitate is produced
(D) an insoluble salt is produced
The correct option is

(a) (B) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) only (B)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
(2020)
Sunlight
28. CH4 + Cl2 ⟶ CH3 Cl + HCl
The above reaction is an example of
(a) displacement reaction
(b) addition reaction
(c) substitution reaction
(d) double displacement reaction.
(2020 C)
VSA (1 mark)
29. Name the type of chemical reaction which takes place when quicklime is added to water.
(2021 C)
SA I (2 marks)
30. What is observed after about 1 hour of adding the strips of copper and aluminium separately to
ferrous sulphate solution filled in two beakers?
Name the reaction if any change in colour is noticed. Also, write chemical equation for the reaction.
(2019)
31. A student wants to study a decomposition reaction by taking ferrous sulphate crystals. Write two
precautions he must observe while performing the experiment.
(2019)
32. Classify the following reactions into different types:

(i) AgNO3 (aq) +NaCl( aq ) ⟶ AgCl(s) + NaNO3 (aq)
(ii) CaO(s) + H2 O (l) ⟶ Ca(OH)2 (aq)

Δ
(iii) 2KClO3 ( s) ⟶ 2KCl( aq) +3O2 ( g)
(iv) Zn + CuSO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + Cu
(2019)
33. A student mixes sodium sulphate powder in barium chloride powder.
What change would the student observe on mixing the two powders?
Justify your answer and explain how he can obtain the desired change.
(2019)
34. Study the following equation of a chemical reaction:

H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(i) Identify the type of reaction.
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation of another example of this type of reaction.
35. State the type of chemical reactions, represented by the following equations :
(a) 𝐴 + 𝐵𝐶 → 𝐴𝐶 + 𝐵
(b) 𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶
(c) 𝑃𝑄 + 𝑅𝑆 → 𝑃𝑆 + 𝑅𝑄
(d) A2 O3 + 2 B → B2 O3 + 2 A (Board Term I, 2014) An
SA II (3 marks)
36. (i) While electrolysing water before passing the current some drops of an acid are added. Why? Name
the gases liberated at cathode and anode. Write the relationship between the volume of gas collected
at anode and the volume of gas collected at cathode.
(ii) What is observed when silver chloride is exposed to sunlight? Give the type of reaction involved.
(2023)
37. (a) Define a double displacement reaction.

(b) Write the chemical equation of a double displacement reaction which is also a (i) Neutralisation
reaction and (ii) Precipitation reaction. Give justification for your answer.
(2023)
38. Mention with reason the colour changes observed when:

(i) silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(ii) copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen.
(iii) a piece of zinc is dropped in copper sulphate solution.
(2020)
39. A shining metal ' 𝑀 ', on burning gives a dazzling white flame and changes to a white powder ' 𝑁 '.
(a) Identify ' 𝑀 ' and ' 𝑁 '.
(b) Represent the above reaction in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
(c) Does ' 𝑀 ' undergo oxidation or reduction in this reaction? Justify.
(2020)
40. In the electrolysis of water

(a) Name the gases liberated at anode and cathode.
(b) Why is it that the volume of gas collected on one electrode is two times that on the other
electrode?
(c) What would happen if dil. H2 SO4 is not added to water?
(2020)
41. 1 g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change takes place on heating?
When hydrogen gas is passed over this heated substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the
chemical equations of reactions, the name and the colour of the products formed in each case.
(2020)
42. A compound ' 𝐴 ' is used in the manufacture of cement. When dissolved in water, it evolves a large
amount of heat and forms compound ' 𝐵 '.
(i) Identify 𝐴 and 𝐵.
(ii) Write chemical equation for the reaction of 𝐴 with water.
(iii) List two types of reaction in which this reaction may be classified.
(2020)
43. Identify the type of each of the following reactions.

Also write balanced chemical equation for each reaction.
(i) A reaction in which the reaction mixture becomes warm.
(ii) A reaction in which an insoluble substance is formed.
(2020)
44. Lead nitrate solution is added to a test tube containing potassium iodide solution.
(a) Write the name and colour of the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(c) Name the type of this reaction justifying your answer.
(2020)
45. 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a China dish and the China dish is placed in sunlight for sometime.
What will be your observation in this case? Write the chemical reaction involved in the form of a
balanced chemical equation. Identify the type of chemical reaction.
(Delhi 2019)
46. Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the balanced
chemical equation for the reactions.
(a) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide.
(Delhi 2019)
47. When potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead (II) nitrate in a test tube, a precipitate is
formed.
(a) What is the colour of this precipitate? Name the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.

(c) List two types of reactions in which this reaction can be placed.
(2019)
48. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(a) List any two observations.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the products formed.
(AI 2019, Board Term I, 2017, 2016)
49. You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a China dish, the reddish brown surface
of copper powder becomes coated with a black substance.
(a) Why has this black substance formed?
(b) What is the black substance?
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(d) How can the black coating on the surface be turned reddish brown?
(AI 2019)
50. Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking
down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in
the form of heat, light and electricity.
(2018)
51. Take 3 g of barium hydroxide in a test tube, now add about 2 g of ammonium chloride and mix the
contents with the help of a glass rod. Now touch the test tube from outside.
(i) What do you feel on touching the test tube?
(ii) State the inference about the type of reaction occurred.
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.
52. (a) A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white
substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of the chemical
reaction.
(b) Ferrous sulphate when heated, decomposes with the evolution of a gas having a characteristic
odour of burning sulphur. Write the chemical reaction involved and identify the type of reaction.
53. Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation :
(i) CaO + H2 O → Ca(OH)2
(ii) 3BaCl2 + Al2 (SO4 )3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
Heat
(iii) 2FeSO4 ⟶ Fe2 O3 + SO2 + SO3
(Board Term I, 2016) An
54. What is a reduction reaction?

Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following
reactions.
(a) Fe2 O3 + 2Al → Al2 O3 + 2Fe
(b) 2PbO + C → 2 Pb + CO2
LA (5 marks)
55. (a) Can a displacement reaction be a redox reaction? Explain with the help of an example.
(b) Write the type of chemical reaction in the following:
(i) Reaction between an acid and a base
(ii) Rusting of iron.
1.3 Have You Observed the Effects of Oxidation Reactions in Everyday Life?
MCQ
56. Copper utensils slowly lose their shiny brown surface and gain a green coat on prolonged exposure to
atmospheric air. This is due to the formation of a coating of
(a) copper sulphate
(b) copper carbonate
(c) cupric oxide
(d) cuprous oxide.

(2020 C)
SA II (3 marks)
57. What happens when food materials containing fats and oils are left for a long time? List two
observable changes and suggest three ways by which this phenomenon can be prevented.
(2020) U
58. (a) In the following reaction:

MnO2 + 4HCl ⟶ MnCl2 + 2H2 O + Cl2
Identify the oxidant and reductant.
(b) Give reasons:
(i) Antioxidants are added to foods containing fats and oils.
(ii) White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
(2019 C)
59. (i) Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction?

(ii) Write chemical name and the formula of the brown gas produced during thermal decomposition
of lead nitrate.
(iii) Why do chips manufacturers flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen? (Board Term I, 2015)
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
SOLUTION
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
SOLUTIONS
1. (b): The balanced equation is

2Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝐼) ⟶ 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + H2(𝑔)
Concept Applied
Use the law of conservation of mass.
2. (c): A balanced equation follows law of conservation of mass that means the total mass of reactants is
equal to the total mass of products but the chemical composition of reactants does not remain same
before and after the reaction.
3. (b): Formation of crystals is a physical change while others are chemical change.
Heat
4. (d): 2KClO3(𝑠) ⟶ 2KCl(𝑠) + 3O2( g)
5. (a): A balanced chemical equation must obey the law of conservation of mass.
6. The equation which contains an equal number of atoms of each element on both sides of the arrow is
called a balanced chemical equation.
7. 3BaCl2 + Al2 (SO4 )3 ⟶ 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
8. Reactants:- Nitric acid, calcium hydroxide (slaked lime)
Products:- Calcium nitrate, water
9. Photosynthesis means synthesis with the help of light. It is the process that gives life to all living
beings.
Photosynthesis is a process by which plants utilize carbon dioxide and water in the presence of
sunlight to produce glucose and oxygen.
10. (a) H2(𝑔) + Cl2(𝑔) ⟶ 2HCl(𝑔)

(b) Pb(𝑠) + CuCl2(𝑎𝑞) ⟶ PbCl2(𝑎𝑞) + Cu(𝑠)
(c) ZnO(𝑠) + C(𝑠) ⟶ Zn(𝑠) + CO(𝑔)
11. (b): Pb(NO3 )2( aq ) + 2KI(aq) ⟶ Pbl2(𝑠) ↓ +2KNO3 (aq)

Yellow ppt.
12. (b): Magnesium metal, 𝑀𝑔(𝑋) burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame forming a white ash,
MgO(𝑌).
2Mg + O2 ⟶ 2MgO
This is a type of combination reaction.
13. (c): Quick lime reacts vigorously with water to produce calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) and release
a large amount of heat (exothermic reaction).
CaO(s) + H2 O(𝐼) ⟶ Ca(OH)2( aq) + heat
(Quick lime) (Slaked lime)
14. (a):
Here, Na is oxidised to NaOH and H2 O is reduced to H2 . Na acts as a reducing agent and H2 O acts as
an oxidising agent.
15. (a): The reaction in which oxygen is added or hydrogen is removed or loss of electrons takes place is
called an oxidation reaction.
In the reaction,
(i) Carbon is getting oxidised to carbon monoxide.
(ii) Zinc oxide is getting reduced to zinc.
Carbon is a reducing agent that reduces ZnO to Zn.
16. (a): Reaction of quick lime (CaO) with water is an exothermic reaction because CaO reacts
vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.
CaO(𝑠) + H2 O(𝑙) ⟶ Ca(OH)2( aq ) + Heat
17. (c): The reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride is an example of double displacement
reaction or precipitation reaction in which white ppt. of BaSO4 is obtained.
Na2 SO4 + BaCl2 ⟶ 2NaCl + BaSO4 ↓
(White ppt.)
18. (c): In the process of respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in cells of our body and provides
energy. Thus, respiration is an exothermic process.
C6 H12 O6(𝑎𝑞) + 6O2(𝑔) ⟶ 6CO2(𝑔) + 6H2 O(𝐼) + Energy
19. (c):
As hydrogen is removed from HCl to give Cl2 , HCl is being oxidised whereas oxygen is removed from
MnO2 to give MnCl2 , hence MnO2 is reduced. Here MnO2 acts as an oxidising agent and HCl acts as
a reducing agent.
Electric current
20. (d): 2H2 O(𝐼) ⟶ 2H2(𝑔) + O2(𝑔)
(Electrolytic decomposition reaction)
Sunlight
2AgCl(𝑠) ⟶ 2Ag (𝑠) + Cl2( g) (Photo-decomposition)
Sunlight
2AgBr(𝑠) ⟶ 2Ag (𝑠) + Br2(𝑔) (Photo-decomposition)
Δ
CaCO3(𝑠) ⟶ CaO(s) + CO2( g) (Thermal decomposition)
21. (d): Burning of natural gas is an exothermic process.
CH4(𝑔) + 2O2(𝑔) ⟶ CO2(𝑔) + 2H2 O(𝑔) + Heat
22. (d): During sublimation of dry ice, heat is absorbed, so, it is an endothermic process. Dissolution of
NH4 Cl in water is also an endothermic process.
23. (a): When lead nitrate is heated in a boiling tube, brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide are found to
evolve and a yellow residue of lead oxide is left behind in the test tube.
24. (c): Silver salts are used in black and white photography and they decompose in presence of sunlight.
sunlight
2AgCl(𝑠) ⟶ 2Ag (𝑠) + Cl2(𝑔)
25. (d): The reaction between CaO and H2 O to form Ca(OH)2 is an exothermic and combination reaction.
Key Points
Combination reactions are generally exothermic whereas decomposition reactions are generally
endothermic.
26. (d): CuSO4 + H2 S ⟶ CuS + H2 SO4

It is a double displacement reaction as in this reaction CuSO4 and H2 S are reacting by exchange of
Cu2+ and H + ions to form two new compounds i.e., CuS and H2 SO4 .
27. (d): In this reaction, exchange of Na+ and Ba2+ ions takes place forming BaSO4 which is a white
precipitate i.e., an insoluble salt.
Na2 SO4 + BaCl2 ⟶ BaSO4 ↓ +2NaCl
28. (c): It is a type of substitution reaction.
29. The reaction between CaO and H2 O to form Ca(OH)2 is an exothermic and combination reaction.
30. Copper is less reactive than Fe, hence copper cannot replace iron from ferrous sulphate solution, so
no colour change is observed.
Aluminium is more reactive than Fe, hence displace iron from ferrous sulphate solution.
2Al + 3FeSO4 ⟶ 3Fe + Al2 (SO4 )3
Green Colourless
Green colour of solution due to FeSO4 changes to colourless.
This is an example of single displacement reaction.
31. (i) Test tube should be dried properly.

(ii) Hold the test tube in a test tube holder.
32. (i) AgNO3 ( aq) +NaCl(𝑎𝑞) ⟶ AgCl(𝑠) + NaNO3 (aq) Double displacement or neutralisation
reaction
(ii) CaO(s) + H2 O(I) ⟶ Ca(OH)2 (aq)
Combination reaction
Δ
(iii) 2KClO3 ( s) ⟶ 2KCl(𝑎𝑞) + 3O2 ( g)
Decomposition reaction
(iv) Zn + CuSO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + Cu
Displacement reaction.
33. When student mixes Na2 SO4 powder in BaCl2 powder, no changes will observed.
Student need to prepare aqueous solution of Na2 SO4 and BaCl2 separately in two different test tubes
and then on mixing these two solutions, double displacement (precipitation) reaction takes place.
Na2 SO4(𝑎𝑞) + BaCl2(𝑎𝑞) ⟶ BaSO4(𝑠)↓ + 2NaCl(𝑎𝑞)
(Barium sulphate)
(white ppt.)
34. (i) Combination reaction.

(ii) Another example of combination reaction is
2Na(𝑠) + Cl2(𝑔) ⟶ 2NaCl(𝑠)
Sodium Chlorine Sodium chloride
35. (a) Displacement reaction.

(b) Combination reaction.
(c) Double displacement reaction.
(d) Displacement reaction or redox reaction.
36. (i) While electrolysing water before passing the current some drops of an acid are added because acid
dissociates into ions completely and during electrolysis of water, the number of ions increases
causing the solution to become more conducting. This allows the current to pass through the solution
easily.
In electrolysis of water (acidified), the gases that are evolved at anode and cathode are oxygen and
hydrogen respectively. Hydrogen ions gain electrons from cathode and form hydrogen gas, oxygen
ions give electrons to anode and form oxygen gas. The decomposition reaction of water is as follows:
2H2 O(𝐼) ⟶ 2H2( g) + O2( g)
From the above balanced chemical equation, it can be concluded that the volume of hydrogen
(obtained at cathode) is twice the volume of oxygen (obtained at anode).
(ii) When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, white silver chloride turns grey. This is due to the
decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine by the light.
It is decomposition reaction.
Sunlight
2AgCl(s) ⟶ 2Ag (s) + Cl2(𝑔)
37. (a) The chemical reaction in which two reactants exchange ions to form two new compounds is called
a double displacement reaction.
(b) (i) When an aqueous solution of an acid reacts with a base (alkali) by exchanging their
ions/radicals to form salt and water as the only products, the reaction which takes place is called
neutralisation reaction.
(ii) When the aqueous solutions of two ionic compounds react by exchanging their ions/radicals, to
form two or more new compounds such that one of the products formed is an insoluble salt, and
hence forms precipitate, the double displacement reaction is said to be precipitation reaction.
When lead nitrate solution is mixed with potassium iodide solution, a yellow precipitate is formed.
This reaction is a precipitation reaction and can be expressed as follows:
Pb(NO3 )2(𝑎𝑞) +2KI(𝑎𝑞) PbI2(𝑠) ↓ +2KNO3(𝑎𝑞)

Lead nitrate Potassium Lead iodide Potassium
solution iodide (yellow ppt.) nitrate
(colourless) solution solution
Sunlight
38. (i) 2AgCl(𝑠) ⟶ 2Ag (𝑠) + Cl2(𝑔)
White Grey
AgCl decomposes on absorbing light energy.
(ii) 2Cu + O2 ⟶ 2CuO

(Reddish browm) (Black)
Copper metal undergoes oxidation.
(iii) Zn + CuSO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + Cu

Colourless
Zn displaces Cu from CuSO4 solution. Colour changes from blue to colourless.
39. (a) ' 𝑀 ' is 𝑀𝑔 and ' 𝑁 ' is 𝑀𝑔𝑂

(b) 2Mg + O2 ⟶ 2 2MgO
(White powder)
(c) ' 𝑀 ' undergoes oxidation in this reaction because Mg gain oxygen to form MgO.
40. (a) At anode: Oxygen gas is liberated.

At cathode: Hydrogen gas is liberated.
(b) In the test tube covering the cathode, the amount of gas collected is double than that of the gas
collected in the test tube covering the anode due to stoichiometry.
2H2 O ⟶ 2H2 + O2
(c) Addition of a few drops of sulphuric acid make water a good conductor of electricity.
41. When copper powder is heated in a China dish, the reddish brown surface of copper powder becomes
coated with a black substance which is copper oxide.
2Cu(s) + O2( g) ⟶ CuO(s) (Copper oxide, Black)
When hydrogen gas is passed over CuO, the black coating on the surface turned reddish brown due to
the formation of Cu.
CuO(𝑠) + H2(𝑔) ⟶ Cu(𝑠) (Reddish brown) + H2 O
42. (i) A is calcium oxide, CaO which is used in the manufacturing of cement.
𝐵 is calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 .
(ii) CaO(s) + H2 O(𝑙) ⟶ Ca(OH)2(𝑎𝑞)
(iii) The given reaction is a combination reaction.
Example: NH3(𝑔) + HCl(𝑔) ⟶ NH4 Cl(s)
2NO(𝑔) + O2(𝑔) ⟶ 2NO2(𝑔)
43. (i) Exothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat energy is evolved. This makes the reaction
mixture warm. For example : combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.
CH4(𝑔) + 2O2( g) ⟶ CO2( g) + 2H2 O(g) + heat
(ii) Precipitation reactions are those reactions in which precipitate is formed. For example :
Na2 SO4(𝑎𝑞) + BaCl2(𝑎𝑞) ⟶ BaSO4(𝑠) ↓ +2NaCl(𝑎𝑞)
44. (a) When lead nitrate is added to potassium iodide then yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed
along with potassium nitrate.
(b) Balanced chemical reaction is as follows :
Pb(NO3 )2( aq) + 2KI(aq) ⟶ PbI2(𝑠) ↓ +2KNO3 (aq)

(Yellow ppt.)
(c) This type of reaction is called precipitation reaction in which one of the products formed is an
insoluble substance or this is also called double displacement reaction.
45. When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it decomposes to form Ag and Cl2 gas. The balanced
chemical equation is written as :
2AgCl(𝑠) ⟶ 2Ag (𝑠) + Cl2(𝑔)
( White ) (Grey)
This is an example of photodecomposition reaction.

Concept Applied
While balancing a chemical equation, the number of atoms of each element on both the sides of the
equation should be made equal.
46. (a) It is a displacement reaction.

Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3 )2 + 2Ag
Zinc Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate Silver
(b) When lead nitrate is added to potassium iodide then yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed
along with potassium nitrate.
Pb(NO3 )2(𝑎𝑞) + 2KI(𝑎𝑞) ⟶ PbI2(𝑠) ↓ +2KNO3(𝑎𝑞)
(Yellow ppt.)
This type of reaction is called precipitation reaction.
47. (a) PbI2 is precipitated and the colour of this precipitate is yellow.
(b) 2KI + Pb(NO3 )2 ⟶ 2KNO3 + PbI2 ↓
(Yellow ppt.)
(c) (i) Double displacement reaction
(ii) Precipitation reaction
48. (a) Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4 ⋅ 7H2 O) lose water when heated and the colour of the crystals
changes. It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe2 O3 ), sulphur dioxide (SO2 ) and sulphur trioxide
(SO3 ) with a smell of burning sulphur.
(b) This is a thermal decomposition reaction.
(c)
Commonly Made Mistake

Ferrous ion is Fe2+ and ferric ion is Fe3+ .
49. (a) The black substance is formed because copper combines with oxygen.
(b) The black substance is copper oxide (CuO).
(d) The black coating on the surface can be turned reddish brown by passing hydrogen gas over the
hot copper oxide.
50. Decomposition reaction involving absorption of heat:

Δ
ZnCO3(𝑠) ⟶ ZnO(𝑠) + CO2(𝑔)
Zinc carbonate Zinc oxide Carbon dioxide
Decomposition reaction involving absorption of light:

Light
2H2 O2(𝐼) ⟶ 2H2 O(𝑙) + O2(𝑔)
drogen peroxide Water Oxygen
Decomposition reaction involving absorption of electrical energy:
51. (i) When barium hydroxide is added into ammonium chloride, the bottom of test tube is found to be
cooler.
(ii) It is an endothermic reaction. Endothermic reactions involve the formation of chemical bonds
through the absorption of heat from the surroundings, thereby creating a cooling effect.
(iii) Ba(OH)2 + 2NH4 Cl ⟶ BaCl2 + 2NH4 OH
52.
(white, insoluble)
It is a double displacement reaction.
(b) Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4 ⋅ 7H2 O) lose water when heated and the colour of the crystals
changes. It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe2 O3 ), sulphur dioxide (SO2 ) and sulphur trioxide
(SO3 ) with a smell of burning sulphur.
This is a thermal decomposition reaction
53. (i) Combination reaction.
(ii) Precipitation reaction or double displacement reaction.
(iii) Thermal decomposition reaction.
54. Those reactions in which addition of hydrogen to a substance or removal of oxygen from a substance
take place are called reduction reactions.
Fe2 O3 is getting reduced to Fe and Al is getting oxidised to Al2 O3 .
(b) 2PbO + C ⟶ ⟶ Pb + CO2

↑
PbO is reduced to Pb and C is oxidised to CO2 .
Answer Tips
Gain of O or loss of H : Oxidation
Loss of O or gain of H : Reduction
55. (a)
Here, carbon is oxidised to CO and ZnO is reduced to Zn. Thus, the above reaction is a displacement
reaction as well as redox reaction.
(b) (i) Neutralisation reaction
(ii) Oxidation reaction.
56. (b):
57. Food materials containing fats and oils change their taste and smell due to a process called rancidity.
Rancidity is a process in which air reacts with fats and oils which changes the smell and taste of food.
Methods of prevention: Vacuum packing, refrigeration of food materials, placing of food materials
away from direct sunlight.
58. (a)
Oxidant: MnO2
Reduction
Reductant: HCl
(b) (i) Slow oxidation of oils and fats present in food materials resulting in compounds with
unpleasant smell is known as rancidity.
Antioxidants are added to foods containing fats and oils to prevent the oxidation of fats and oils and
thus increase the shelf life of food.
(ii) 2AgCl(𝑠) ⟶ 2Ag + Cl2
It undergoes photochemical decomposition reaction.
Silver chloride turns grey in sunlight to form silver metal.
59. (i) The glucose produced in our body during digestion combines with oxygen in the cells of our body
and provides energy. The special name of this reaction is respiration. Thus respiration is an
exothermic process because energy is produced during this process.
C6 H12 O6( aq) + 6O2(𝑔) → 6CO2(𝑔) + 6H2 O(𝑙) + Energy
(ii)
Brown gas evolved is nitrogen dioxide (NO2 ).
(iii) Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen because atmospheric
oxygen can react with chips which may cause change in colour, change in taste. So to cut the contact
between air and the chips, nitrogen gas is used which prevents the chips from getting oxidised.
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 2
Acids Bases and Salts
2.1 Understanding the Chemical Properties of Acids and Bases

MCQ
1. When sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, the gas evolved is
(a) Hydrogen; it gives pop sound with burning matchstick.
(b) Hydrogen; it turns lime water milky.
(c) Carbon dioxide; it turns lime water milky.
(d) Carbon dioxide; it blows off a burning match stick with a pop sound.
(2023)
2. Acid present in tomato is :

(a) Methanoic acid
(c) Lactic acid
(b) Acetic acid
(d) Oxalic acid
3. Select a pair of olfactory indicators from the following:
(a) Clove oil and vanilla essence
(b) Onion and turmeric
(c) Clove oil and litmus paper
(d) Vanilla and methyl orange
(2023)
4. Which of the options in the given table are correct?

Option Natural Source Acid Present
(i) Orange Oxalic acid
(ii) Sour milk Lactic acid
(iii) Ant sting Methanoic acid
(iv) Tamarind Acetic acid
(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iv)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
(Term I, 2021-22)
Three test tubes 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 contain distilled water, an acidic solution and a basic solution
respectively. When red litmus solution is used for testing these solutions, the observed colour
changes respectively will be
5. (a) A - no change; B - becomes dark red ; 𝐶 - becomes blue
(b) A - becomes light red; B - becomes blue; 𝐶 - becomes red
(c) 𝐴 - becomes red; 𝐵 - no change; 𝐶 - becomes blue
(d) 𝐴 - becomes light red; 𝐵 - becomes dark red; 𝐶 - becomes blue
(Term I, 2021-22)
A visually challenged student, has to perform a lab test to detect the presence of acid in a given
solution. The acid-base indicator preferred by him will be :
(a) Blue litmus
6. (b) Clove oil
(c) Red cabbage extract
(d) Hibiscus extract
(2020)
7. Which one of the following natural sources contains Oxalic acid?
(a) Tomato
(b) Tamarind
(c) Ant sting
(d) Nettle sting (2020C)
VSA (1 mark)
State the purpose for which litmus is used in laboratories.

(2021C)
8.
SAI (2 marks)
A student took a small amount of copper oxide in a conical flask and added dilute hydrochloric acid
to it with constant stirring. He observed a change in colour of the solution.
(i) Write the name of the compound formed and its colour.
9.
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(2023)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
10. Blue litmus solution is added to two test tubes 𝐴 and 𝐵 containing dilute HCl and NaOH solution
respectively. In which test tube a colour change will be observed? State the colour change and give
its reason.
(2019)
11. With the help of an example, explain what happens when a base reacts with a non-metallic oxide.
What do you infer about the nature of non-metal oxide?
12. What is observed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water
(i) for a short duration?
(ii) for a long duration? Also write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.
SA II (3 marks)
13. (a) Write a balanced equation to show the reaction that occurs when a piece of aluminium is dipped
in a dilute solution of (i) sulphuric acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide
(b) Write the colour of the solution formed when copper oxide is treated with hydrochloric acid. Give
reason for this observation.
(2023)
14. 2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test
tube. When the content are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution before
testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the
gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid.
(2018)
OR
Write the names of the product formed when zinc reacts with NaOH. Also write the balanced
chemical equation for the reaction involved. Write a test to confirm the presence of the gas evolved
during this reaction.
LA (5 marks)
15. A cloth strip dipped in onion juice is used for testing a liquid ' 𝑋 '. The liquid ' 𝑋 ' changes its odour.
Which type of an indicator is onion juice? The liquid ' 𝑋 ' turns blue litmus red. List the observations
the liquid ' 𝑋 ' will show on reacting with the following:
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(a) Zinc granules
(b) Solid sodium carbonate
Write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.
(2020)
2.2 What Do All Acids and All Bases have in Common?
MCQ
16. Sodium hydroxide is termed as alkali while ferric hydroxide is not because :
(a) Sodium hydroxide is a strong base, while ferric hydroxide is a weak base.
(b) Sodium hydroxide

(c) Sodium hydroxide is
is aa strong
base which is soluble
base while in hydroxide
ferric water while
is ferric hydroxide
a strong acid. is also a base but it is
not soluble in water.
(d) Sodium hydroxide and ferric hydroxide both are strong base but the solubility of sodium
hydroxide in water is comparatively higher than that of ferric hydroxide.
(2023)
17. Hydronium ions are formed by the reaction between

(a) sodium hydroxide and water
(b) calcium chloride and water
(c) hydrogen chloride gas and water
(d) ethanol and water.
(2023)
18. Concentrated H2 SO4 is diluted by adding drop by drop

(a) water to acid with constant stirring
(b) acid to water with constant stirring
(c) water to acid followed by a base
(d) base to acid followed by cold water.
(Term I, 2021-22) (u)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
19. Consider the following compounds
I. HCl
II. C2 H5 OH
III. C6 H12 O6
IV. H2 SO4
Which of these compounds do not conduct electricity in solution?
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and IV
(2020C)
SA I (2 marks)
20. On diluting an acid, it is advised to add acid to water and not water to acid. Explain why it is so
advised?
SA II (3 marks)
21. (i) Suggest a safe procedure of diluting a strong concentrated acid.
(ii) Name the salt formed when sulphuric acid is added to sodium hydroxide and write its pH.
(iii) Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper. Why?
(2023)
22. (i) Draw a labelled diagram to show the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory.
(ii) Test the gas evolved first with dry and then with wet litmus paper. In which of the two cases, does
the litmus paper show change in colour?
(iii) State the reason of exhibiting acidic character by dry HCl gas /HCl solution.
(2020) Cr
23. Complete and balance the following chemical equations:

(i) NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + Zn(𝑠) →
(ii) CaCO3(𝑠) + H2 O(𝐼) + CO2(𝑔) →
(iii) HCl(aq) + H2 O(𝑙) →
(2020)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
24. How the following substances will dissociate to produce ions in their solutions?
(i) Hydrochloric acid
(ii) Nitric acid
(iii) Sulphuric acid
(iv) Sodium hydroxide
(v) Potassium hydroxide
(vi) Magnesium hydroxide
LA (5 marks)
25. (a) Illustrate an activity to investigate whether all compounds containing hydrogen are acidic.
(b) What happens when hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide are dissolved in water? Explain by
giving equation of each.
2.3 How Strong are Acid or Base Solutions?
MCQ
26. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. To delay its curdling, a chemical substance is added to it, which is
(a) sodium carbonate
(b) baking powder
(c) sodium hydroxide (caustic soda)
(d) baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate).
(2023)
27. Select from the following the statement which is true for bases.
(a) Bases are bitter and turn blue litmus red.
(b) Bases have a pH less than 7.
(c) Bases are sour and change red litmus to blue.
(d) Bases turn pink when a drop of phenolphthalein is added to them. (Term I, 2021-22)
28. Consider the pH value of the following acidic samples.
S. No. Sample pH Value
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
1. Lemon Juice 2.2
2. Gastric Juice 1.2
3. Vinegar 3.76
4. Dil. Acetic acid 3.0
The decreasing order of their H + ion concentration is

(a) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2
(b) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
(c) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3
(d) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1
(Term I, 2021-22)
29. A solution gives yellowish orange colour when a few drops of universal indicator are added to it.
This solution is of
(a) lemon juice
(c) sodium hydroxide
(b) sodium chloride
(d) milk of magnesia.
(Term I, 2021-22)
30. An aqueous solution ' 𝐴 ' turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an aqueous solution ' 𝐵 '
to ' 𝐴 ' the pink colour disappears. The following statement is true for solution ' 𝐴 ' and ' 𝐵 ' :
(a) 𝐴 is strongly basic and 𝐵 is a weak base.
(b) 𝐴 is strongly acidic and 𝐵 is a weak acid.
(c) 𝐴 has pH greater than 7 and 𝐵 has pH less than 7.
(d) 𝐴 has pH less than 7 and 𝐵 has pH greater than 7.
(2020)
31. The acid produced in our stomach during digestion of food is

(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Oxalic acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Acetic acid
(2020C)
SA I (2 marks)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
32. Two solutions 𝑀 and 𝑁 give red and blue colour respectively with a universal indicator.
(i) In which solution will the hydrogen ion concentration be more? Justify your answer.
(ii) If both 𝑀 and 𝑁 solutions are mixed and the resultant mixture is tested with a universal indicator,
it turns green. What is the nature of the salt formed? Justify your answer.
(2023)
33. Out of the two hydrochloric acid and acetic acid, which one is considered as strong acid and why?
Write the name/molecular formula of one more strong acid.
(2021C)
34. Out of HCl and CH3 COOH, which one is a weak acid and why? Explain with the help of an example.
(Al 2019)
35. Explain how an antacid works.

SA II (3 marks)
36. (a) You are provided with concentrated sulphuric acid. Describe the process of preparing a dilute
solution of sulphuric acid.
(b) What is the effect of dilution on (H3 O+ /OH − ) ratio?
(c) If the H3 O+ ion concentration is increased in a solution, will the pH increase or decrease? What
are the probable colours of pH paper if the pH range is 0.5 to 2.0 ?
(2020C)
37. (a) What does pH scale measure?

(b) Write its range.
(c) State the significance of highest and lowest values of pH scale.
(2019C)
38. (a) Three acidic solutions 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 have pH = 0,3 and 5 respectively.
(i) Which solution has highest concentration of H + ions?
(ii) Which solution has the lowest concentration of H + ions?
(b) How concentrated sulphuric acid can be diluted? Describe the process.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
39. A compound 𝑃 forms the enamel of teeth. It is the hardest substance of the body. It doesn't dissolve
in water but gets corroded when the pH is lowered below 5.5.
(a) Identify the compound 𝑃.
(b) How does it undergo damage due to eating chocolate and sweets? What should we do to prevent
tooth decay?
2.4 More About Salts
MCQ
40. The name of the salt used to remove permanent hardness of water is
(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3 )
(b) Sodium chloride ( NaCl)
(c) Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2 CO3 ⋅ 10H2 O)

1
(d) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4 ⋅ 2 H2 O)
(2023)
41. Study the following table and choose the correct option.
(Term 1, 2021-22)
42. Study the experimental set up shown in given figure and choose the correct option from the
following.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Term I, 2021-22)
43. Which of the following salts do not have the water of crystallisation?
(i) Bleaching Powder
(ii) Plaster of Paris
(ii) Washing soda
(iv) Baking soda
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
(Term I, 2021-22)
44. Assertion (A): Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an ingredient in antacids.

Reason (R) : NaHCO3 is a mild non-corrosive basic salt.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴).
(c) (A) is true, but ( 𝑅 ) is false.
(Term I, 2021-22)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
45. Absence of tartaric acid in baking powder makes the taste of the cake bitter due to the presence of
(a) sodium hydrogen carbonate
(b) sodium carbonate
(c) sodium metabisulphite
(d) sodium sulphate.
(Term I, 2021-22)
46. Salt ' 𝐴 ' commonly used in food products, is a reactant to produce salt ' 𝐵 ', used in the kitchen for
making tasty, crispy pakoras. Salt 'B' on heating converts into another salt ' 𝐶 ', which is used in the
manufacturing of glass. Salts ' 𝐴 ', ' 𝐵 ' and ' 𝐶 ' respectively are
(a) NaHCO3 , NaCl, Na2 CO3
(b) Na2 CO3 , NaHCO3 , NaCl
(c) Na2 CO3 , NaCl, NaHCO3
(d) NaCl, NaHCO3 , Na2 CO3
(Term I, 2021-22)
47. An aqueous solution of a salt shows an orange red colour when a drop of universal indicator is added
to it. This salt is made up of
(a) a strong acid and a strong base
(b) a weak acid and a weak base
(c) a strong acid and a weak base
(d) a weak acid and a strong base.
(Term I, 2021-22)
48. Given below is a reaction showing Chlor-alkali process

2NaCl(𝑎𝑞) + 2H2 O(𝑙) → 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + Cl2(𝑔) + H2(𝑔)
(A) (B) (C)
The products 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are produced respectively
(a) at the anode, at the cathode, near the cathode
(b) near the cathode, at the anode, at the cathode
(c) at the cathode, near the cathode, at the anode
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(d) at the anode, near the cathode, at the cathode.
(Term I, 2021-22)
49.
In the activity shown in the diagram, if the climate is humid, the role of the calcium chloride taken in
the guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas
(b) warm up the gas
(c) dry the gas
(d) absorb chloride ions from the evolved gas.
(Term I, 2021-22)
Read the passage given below and answer the questions 50-53:
One day Kamal saw that her mother was roasting penanuts in a pan (kadahi) in the kitchen and she
had taken ordinary salt to roast the peanuts. She was surprised to observe that in spite of very high
temperature, the salt does not melt and the peanuts also get roasted.
50. The chemical name of common salt is

(a) potassium chloride
(b) sodium carbonate
(c) sodium hydrogen carbonate
(d) sodium chloride.
51. Common salt is

(a) a covalent compound
(b) an ionic compound formed by sharing electrons
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(c) an ionic compound formed by the transfer of electrons
(d) soluble in organic solvents.
52. Common salt is not a raw material for

(a) bleaching powder
(b) plaster of paris
(c) baking soda
(d) caustic soda.
53. Common salt is used as a raw material in the preparation of washing soda in which the number of
molecules of water of crystallisation is
(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 2
(Term I, 2021-22)
54. Baking soda is a mixture of

(a) sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid.
(2020)
55. The chemical formula for plaster of Paris is

(a) CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2 O
(b) CaSO4 ⋅ H2 O
1
(c) CaSO4 ⋅ 2 H2 O
(d) 2CaSO4 ⋅ H2 O
(2020)
SA I (2 marks)
56. On heating 𝑋 at 373 K, it loses water molecules and becomes 𝑌. 𝑌 is a substance which doctors use
for supporting fractured bones in the right position.
(i) Identify 𝑋 and 𝑌.
(ii) How can 𝑋 be reobtained from 𝑌 ?
(2023)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
57. "Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt". Justify this statement. How is it converted into washing
soda?
(Al 2019)
58. A solution ' 𝑋 ' gives orange colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper, while another solution ' 𝑌 '
gives bluish colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper. What is the nature of both the solutions?
Determine the pH of solutions ' 𝑋 ' and ' 𝑌 '.
(2019)
59. On adding a few drops of universal indicator in three colourless solutions 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 taken separately
in three test tubes, a student observed the changes in colour as green in 𝑋, red in 𝑌 and blue in 𝑍.
(a) Arrange 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 in increasing order of their pH values. (b) Which one of the three 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍,
will change the colour of phenolphthalein? Why? (2019C)
60. Why is sodium hydrogen carbonate an alkaline salt? List its two important uses.
(2019C)
61. Write the chemical formula of bleaching powder. How is bleaching powder prepared? For what
purpose is it used in drinking water?
SA II (3 marks)
62. Consider the following salts:
(i) YCl (ii) NH4 X (iii) ZCO3
(a) What would be the pH of the salt solution if in 𝑌𝐶𝑙, 𝑌 is sodium? Give reason for your answer.
(b) If in salt NH4 𝑋, 𝑋 is nitrate, then its solution will give what colour with universal indicator? Why?
(c) What would be the change in colour in blue litmus solution if ZCO3 is added to it and Z is
potassium?
(2023)
63. The industrial process used for the manufacture of caustic soda involves electrolysis of an aqueous
solution of compound ' 𝑋 '. In this process, two gases ' 𝑌 ' and ' 𝑍 ' are liberated. ' 𝑌 ' is liberated at
cathode and ' 𝑍 ', which is liberated at anode, on treatment with dry slaked lime forms a compound '
𝐵 '. Name 𝑋, 𝑌, 𝑍 and 𝐵.
(2023)
64. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one important use of each.
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
65. How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of
this salt. Name the type of hardness of water which can be removed by it?
(2020)
66. Give reasons for the following:

(i) Only one half of water molecule is shown in the formula of plaster of Paris.
(ii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an antacid.
(iii) On strong heating, blue coloured copper sulphate crystals turn white.
(2020) U
67. During electrolysis of brine, a gas ' 𝐺 ' is liberated at anode. When this gas ' 𝐺 ' is passed through
slaked lime, a compound ' 𝐶 ' is formed, which is used for disinfecting drinking water.
(i) Write formula of ' 𝐺 ' and ' 𝐶 '.
(ii) State the chemical equations involved.
(iii) What is common name of compound ' 𝐶 '? Give its chemical name.
(2020)
68. Identify the acid and the base from which sodium chloride is obtained. Which type of salt is it? When
is it called rock salt? How is rock salt formed?
(Delhi 2019)
69. A white powder is added while baking cakes to make it soft and spongy. Name its main ingredients.
Explain the function of each ingredient. Write the chemical reaction taking place when the powder is
heated during baking.
(Al 2019)
70. (a) Why is electrolysis of brine called 'Chlor-alkali process' ? Write the chemical equation involved in
this process.
(b) A few crystals of hydrated copper sulphate are heated in a dry test-tube. Enlist any two
observations.
(2019C)
71. The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical
equation for its formation. List its two uses. (2018)
72. Write one point of difference between each of the following:
(i) A hydrated salt and an anhydrous salt.
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SOLUTIONS
(ii) Washing soda and soda ash.
(iii) Baking soda and baking powder.
73. Complete the following table:
74. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced
chemical equation for this change.
75. (a) Define an acid-base indicator. Mention one synthetic acid-base indicator.
(b) If someone in the family is suffering from a problem of acidity after overeating, which of the
following substances would you suggest as a remedy?
Lemon juice, vinegar or baking soda solution. Mention the property on the basis of which you will
choose the remedy.
LA (5 marks)
76. A chemical compound ' 𝑋 ' is used in the soap and glass industry. It is prepared from brine.
(a) Write the chemical name, common name and chemical formula of ' 𝑋 '. (b) Write the equation
involved in its preparation.
(c) What happens when it is treated with water containing Ca or Mg salts?
(2020)
77. Define water of crystallisation. Give the chemical formula for two compounds as examples. How can
it be proved that the water of crystallisation makes a difference in the state and colour of the
compounds?
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
78. (a) A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The
evolved gas was passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime water? Write
balanced chemical equations for both the changes observed.
(b) State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
(ii) as a constituent of baking powder.
79. (a) What are anhydrous and hydrated salts? Explain with a suitable example of each.
(b) How is plaster of Paris prepared? What reaction takes place when it sets to a hard mass?
80. (a) Write the chemical formula of hydrated copper sulphate and anhydrous copper sulphate. Giving
an activity illustrate how these two are interconvertible.
(b) Write chemical names and formulae of plaster of Paris and gypsum. (Board Term I, 2016) Crr
81. How is sodium hydroxide produced? Write the balanced chemical equation also. Why is this process
called as chlor-alkali process? In this process name the products given off at:
(a) anode
(b) cathode
Write one use of each of these products.
OR
(a) Name and describe giving chemical equation the process used for producing sodium hydroxide.
Why is this process so named?
(b) Give one use of each of any two products obtained in this process.
82. What is water of crystallisation? Write the common name and chemical formula of a commercially
important compound which has ten water molecules as water of crystallisation. How is this
compound obtained? Write the chemical equation also. List any two uses of this compound.
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 3
Metals and Non-Metals
3.2 Chemical Properties of Metals
MCQ
1. Which of the following statements is true for an amphoteric oxide?
(a) It reacts only with acid and does not form water.
(b) It reacts with acid as well as base to form salt and hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with both acid as well as base to form salt and water.
(d) It reacts only with base and does not form water.
(2023)
2. A student while burning a magnesium ribbon in air, collected the products in a wet watch glass. The
new product obtained was
(a) magnesium oxide
(b) magnesium carbonate
(c) magnesium hydroxide
(d) magnesium chloride.
(Term I, 2021-22)
3. Select the correct matching in the following table in connection with the given chemical reaction.
CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu
Final
Initial colour Final colour Type of
colour of
of solution of solution reaction
iron nail
Pale
(a) Blue Grey Displacement
green
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SOLUTIONS
Pale Double
(b) Blue Brownish
green displacement
Light Double
(c) Blue Grey
blue displacement
Pale
(d) Blue Brownish Displacement
green
(Term I, 2021-22)
4. Study the diagram given below and identify the gas formed in the reaction.
(a) Carbon dioxide which extinguishes the burning candle.
(b) Oxygen due to which the candle burns more brightly.
(c) Sulphur dioxide which produces a suffocating smell.
(d) Hydrogen which while burning produces a popping sound.
(Term I, 2021-22)
5. The pair(s) which will show displacement reaction is/ are

(i) NaCl solution and copper metal
(ii) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
(iii) Al2 (SO4 )3 solution and magnesium metal
(iv) ZnSO4 solution and iron metal.

(a) (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
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SOLUTIONS
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
(Term I, 2021-22)
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions 6 to 9:
A student, took four metals 𝑃, 𝑄, 𝑅 and 𝑆 and carried out different experiments to study the properties
of metals. Some of the observations were:
 All metals could not be cut with knife except metal 𝑅.
 Metal 𝑃 combined with oxygen to form an oxide M2 O3 which reacted with both acids and bases.
 Reaction with water:
𝑃 - Did not react either with cold or hot water but reacted with steam.
Q- Reacted with hot water and the metal started floating 𝑅 - Reacted violently with cold water.
𝑆 - Did not react with water at all
Based on the above observations answer the following.
6. Out of the given metals, the one which needs to be stored in kerosene is
(a) 𝑃
(b) 𝑅
(c) S
(d) Q
7. Out of the given metals, the metal 𝑄 is

(a) iron
(b) zinc
(c) potassium
(d) magnesium.
8. Metal which forms amphoteric oxides is

(a) 𝑃
(b) Q
(c) 𝑅
(d) 𝑆.
9. The increasing order of the reactivity of the four metals is

(a) 𝑃 < 𝑄 < 𝑅 < 𝑆
(b) 𝑆 < 𝑅 < 𝑄 < 𝑃
(c) 𝑆 < 𝑃 < 𝑄 < 𝑅
(d) 𝑃 < 𝑅 < 𝑄 < 𝑆.
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SOLUTIONS
(Term I, 2021-22)
10. Which one of the following statements is true about the position of metals in the activity series of
metals?
(a) Copper is below hydrogen but above lead.
(b) Iron is below lead and zinc.
(c) Zinc is below magnesium but above aluminium.
(d) Magnesium is below calcium but above aluminium.
(2020 C)
SA I (2 marks)
11. Why is potassium kept immersed in kerosene?
(2021 C)
12. Give reason why:

(a) gold and silver are used for making jewellery.
(b) a few metals are used for making cooking utensils.
(2021 C)
13. What would a student report nearly after 30 minutes of placing duly cleaned strips of aluminium,
copper, iron and zinc in freshly prepared iron sulphate solution taken in four beakers?
(2019)
14. A pale green solution of ferrous sulphate was taken in four separate test tubes marked I, II, III and IV.
Pieces of Cu, Zn and Al were dropped in test tubes II, III and IV respectively. In which case(s)
(a) the colour of ferrous sulphate solution will match with the colour in test tube (I)? Give reason.
(b) the colour of ferrous sulphate solution will fade and black mass will be deposited on the surface
of the metal?
(2019 C)
15. Reverse of the following chemical reaction is not possible:

Zn(𝑠) + CuSO4(𝑎𝑞) → ZnSO4(𝑎𝑞) + Cu(𝑠)
Justify this statement with reason.
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SOLUTIONS
16. Name a metal which:
(a) is the best conductor of heat.
(b) has a very low melting point.
(c) does not react with oxygen even at high temperature.
(d) is most ductile. (Board Term I, 2015)
17. What is meant by amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from the following:
Na2 O, ZnO, CO2 , Al2 O3 , H2 O
SA II (3 marks)
18. Compare in tabular form the reactivities of the following metals with cold and hot water:
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(2020)
19. Give reason for the following:

(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most of the metals react with nitric acid.
(ii) Zinc oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
(iii) Metals conduct electricity.
20. (a) Why does calcium start floating when it reacts with water? Write the balanced chemical equation
of the reaction. (b) Name two metals which do not react with water.
21. State what would happen if :

(i) some zinc pieces are placed in blue copper sulphate solution.
(ii) some copper pieces are placed in green ferrous sulphate solution.
(iii) an iron nail is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate for some time. (Board Term I, 2014) Ap
22. Give reason:
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SOLUTIONS
(a) Aluminium is a reactive metal but is still used for packing food articles.
(b) Calcium starts floating when water is added to it.
LA (5 marks)
23. (a) Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
(i) Al2 O3 + HCl ⟶
(ii) K 2 O + H2 O ⟶
(iii) Fe + H2 O ⟶
(b) An element ' 𝑋 ' displaces iron from the aqueous solution of iron sulphate. List your observations
if the element ' 𝑋 ' is treated with the aqueous solutions of copper sulphate, zinc sulphate and silver
nitrate. Based on the observations arrange X, Zn, Cu and Ag in increasing order of their reactivities.
(2020)
3.3 How do Metals and Non-metals React?

MCQ
24. Assertion (A) : The solution of ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R) : Movement of atoms of elements take place in solution.
(c) (A) is true, but (𝑅) is false.
(Term I, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
25. (a) Write electron dot structure of Ca (At. No. 20) and 𝑂 (At. No. 8).
(b) Show the formation of calcium oxide by transfer of electrons.
(c) Name the ions present in this compound.
(d) List four important characteristics of this compound.
(2020) Cr
26. A metal ' 𝑋 ' combines with a non-metal ' 𝑌 ' by the transfer of electrons to form a compound 𝑍.
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SOLUTIONS
(i) State the type of bond in compound 𝑍.
(ii) What can you say about the melting point and boiling point of compound 𝑍 ?
(iii) Will this compound dissolve in kerosene or petrol?
(iv) Will this compound be a good conductor of electricity?
27. The following questions are source based/case based questions. Read the case carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
The melting points and boiling points of some ionic compounds are given below:
Compound Melting Point (K) Boiling Point (K)
NaCl 1074 1686
LiCl 887 1600
CaCl2 1045 1900
CaO 2850 3120
MgCl2 981 1685
These compounds are termed ionic because they are formed by the transfer of electrons from a metal
to a non-metal. The electron transfer in such compounds is controlled by the electronic configuration
of the elements involved. Every element tends to attain a completely filled valence shell of its nearest
noble gas or a stable octet.
(i) Show the electron transfer in the formation of magnesium chloride.
(ii) List two properties of ionic compounds other than their high melting and boiling points.
(iii) (A) While forming an ionic compound say sodium chloride how does sodium atom attain its
stable configuration?
OR
(B) Give reasons:
(i) Why do ionic compounds in the solid state not conduct electricity?
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SOLUTIONS
(ii) What happens at the cathode when electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium
chloride?
(2023)
28. (i) By the transfer of electrons, illustrate the formation of bond in magnesium chloride and identify
the ions present in this compound.
(ii) Ionic compounds are solids. Give reasons.
(iii) With the help of a labelled diagram show the experimental set up of action of steam on a metal.
(2020)
29. (a) (i) Write two properties of gold which make it the most suitable metal for ornaments.
(ii) Name two metals which are the best conductors of heat.
(iii) Name two metals which melt when you keep them on your palm.
(b) Explain the formation of ionic compound CaO with electron-dot structure. Atomic numbers of
calcium and oxygen are 20 and 8 respectively.
(2020)
30. (i) Write down the electronic configuration of magnesium and oxygen.
(ii) Give two general properties of the compound formed by combination of magnesium and oxygen.
(iii) Show the formation of this compound by the transfer of electrons. (Board Term I, 2014) Cr)
3.4 Occurrence of Metals
SA II (3 marks)
31. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the type of ore
with one example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore? Also write the
chemical equations for the reactions involved in the process.
(Al 2019)
32. (i) Carbonate of metal ' 𝑋 ' is abundant in earth crust and its hydroxide is used in 'white washing'.
Identify metal ' 𝑋 '.
(ii) How will you convert this carbonate into its oxide? Name the process and write its equation.
LA (4/5 marks)
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SOLUTIONS
33. The following questions are source based/case based questions. Read the case carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
Metals are required for a variety of purposes. For this we need their extraction from their ores. Ores
mined from the earth are usually contaminated with many impurities which must be removed prior to
the extraction of metals. The extraction of pure metal involves the following steps:
(1) Concentration of ore
(2) Extraction of metal from the concentrated ore
(3) Refining of metal
(a) Name an ore of mercury and state the form in which mercury is present in it.
(b) What happens to zinc carbonate when it is heated strongly in a limited supply of air?
(c) The reaction of a metal 𝐴 with Fe2 O3 is highly exothermic and is used to join railway tracks.
(I) Identify the metal 𝐴 and name the reaction taking place.
(II) Write the chemical equation or the reaction of metal A with Fe2 O3 .
OR
(c) We cannot use carbon to obtain sodium from sodium oxide. Why? State the reactions taking place
at cathode and anode during electrolytic reduction of sodium chloride.
(2023)
34. (a) How is the method of extraction of metals high up in the reactivity series different from that for
metals in the middle? Why cannot the same process be applied for them? Name and explain the
process of extraction of sodium.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of electrolytic refining of copper.
(2020)
35. Two ores 𝑋 and 𝑌 were taken. On heating these ores it was observed that
(a) ore 𝑋 gives CO2 gas, and
(b) ore 𝑌 gives SO2 gas.
Write steps to convert these ores into metals, giving chemical equations of the reactions that take
place.
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
36. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals.
Why? Where are these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals obtained from
their ores? Take an example to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations.
(2020)
37. Write balanced chemical equations to explain what happens, when

(i) Mercuric oxide is heated.
(ii) Mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide is heated.
(iii) Aluminium is reacted with manganese dioxide.
(iv) Ferric oxide is reduced with aluminium.
(v) Zinc carbonate undergoes calcination.
(2020)
38. (a) List in tabular form three chemical properties on the basis of which we can differentiate between a
metal and a non-metal.
(b) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Most metals conduct electricity well.
(ii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide [Fe2 O3 ] with heated aluminium is used to join cracked machine
parts.
(Delhi 2019)
39. (a) Name two metals which are obtained from their ores by simple heating.
(b) Differentiate between calcination and roasting, taking examples of zinc ores.
(c) What is thermite reaction? State its significance.
(2019 C)
40. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series
from their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore? Explain the various steps supported by chemical
equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper.
(2018)
41. Draw a schematic diagram of the various steps involved in the extraction of metals from ores for
metals of medium reactivity and for metals of low reactivity.
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SOLUTIONS
42. (a) Describe an activity to show that metals are good conductors of electricity.
(b) Account for the following:
(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
(ii) For storing sodium metal, it is kept immersed in kerosene.
(iii) The reaction of iron(III) oxide with aluminium is used to join cracked iron parts of machines.
43. How is copper obtained from its ore (Cu2 S) ? Write only the chemical equations. How is copper thus
obtained refined? Name and explain the process along with a labelled diagram. (Board Term I, 2015)
44. (a) Copper produced by heating the ore in air is not very pure. Describe the method used for refining
impure copper. Draw labelled diagram of the process.
(b) Write chemical equations for the reactions taking place when:
(i) zinc sulphide is heated in air.
(ii) zinc carbonate is calcined. (Board Term I, 2014)
3.5 Corrosion
MCQ
45. Assertion (A) : The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R): Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it is not a good conductor of electricity.
(a) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true and (𝑅) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(2020)
SAI (2 marks)
46. Silver articles become black when kept in open for some time, whereas copper vessels lose their
shiny brown surfaces and gain a green coat when kept
in open. Name the substances present in air with which these metals react and write the name of the
products formed.
(2019)
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SOLUTIONS
47. Name first discovered alloy. Give its composition also.
SA II (3 marks)
48. List three differentiating features between the processes of galvanisation and alloying.
(2020)
49. Describe an activity to find out the conditions under which iron rusts.
50. Why some metal surfaces acquire a dull appearance when they are exposed to moist air? Write colour
acquired by the surfaces of copper and silver in such situation and also write the chemical names of
the substances due to which it happens.
LA (5 marks)
51. (a) Name the following:
(i) Metal that can be cut by knife
(ii) Lustrous non-metal
(iii) Metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature (iv) Most malleable and ductile metal
(v) Metal that is best conductor of electricity
(vi) Non-metal that can exist in different forms
(b) How are alloys better than metals? Give composition of solder and amalgam. (2020) R
52. (a) Define corrosion.

(b) What is corrosion of iron called?
(c) How will you recognise the corrosion of silver?
(d) Why corrosion of iron is a serious problem?
(e) How can we prevent corrosion of iron?

(a) Ionic compounds have higher melting point and higher boiling point.
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SOLUTIONS
(b) Sodium is kept immersed in kerosene.
(c) Reaction of calcium with water is less violent.
(d) Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air.
(e) Prior to reduction the metal sulphides and carbonates must be converted into metal oxides for
extracting metals.
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 4
Carbon and Its Compounds
4.1 Bonding in Carbon - The Covalent Bond
MCQ
1. The correct representation of covalent bonding in an oxygen molecule is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2023)
2. The electron dot structure of chlorine molecule is
(a)
(b)
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SOLUTIONS
(c)
(d)
(2023)
3. Assertion (A): Carbon has a strong tendency to either lose or gain electrons to attain noble gas
configuration.
Reason (R) : Carbon has four electrons in its outermost shell and has the tendency to share electrons
with carbon or other elements.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
4. Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points. Why?
(Term II, 2021-22, 2020)
5. Write the name of an allotrope of carbon. (2021C)
6. How are covalent bonds formed?
(2020)
7. Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity. Why?

(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
SA I (2 marks)
8. Draw the electron dot structure of the following:
(a) Cyclohexane
(b) Butane
(Term II, 2021-22)
9. "Carbon prefers to share its valence electrons with other atoms of carbon or with atoms of other
elements rather than gaining or losing the valence electrons in order to attain noble gas
configuration." Give reasons to justify this statement.
(Term II, 2021-22)
10. Draw the electron dot structure of the molecules of (a) Oxygen, and (b) Nitrogen. The atomic
numbers of oxygen and nitrogen are 8 and 7 respectively.
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
11. Carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding. Why?

(Term II, 2021-22 C)
12. Write the molecular formula of ethene and draw its electron dot structure.
(2019)
SA II (3 marks)
13. State the reason why
(i) carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) carbon compounds do not conduct electricity.
(iii) carbon can form only covalent compounds.
(Term II, 2021-22)
14. (a) Draw the electron dot structure for ethyne.

(b) List two differences between the properties exhibited by covalent compounds and ionic
compounds.
(Term II, 2021-22)
15. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three
characteristic properties.
(Delhi 2016)
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SOLUTIONS
LA (5 marks)
16. Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas electronic configuration by either gaining or
losing electrons from their valence shells. Explain giving reason why carbon cannot attain such a
configuration in this manner to form its compounds. Name the type of bonds formed in ionic
compounds and in the compounds formed by carbon. Also explain with reason why carbon
compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.
(Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
17. State the reason why carbon can neither form C 4+ cations nor C 4− anions, but forms covalent
compounds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds:
(i) are bad conductors of electricity?
(ii) have low melting and boiling points?
(Delhi 2014)
4.2 Versatile Nature of Carbon

MCQ
18. Assertion (A) : Following are the members of a homologous series:

CH3 OH, CH3 CH2 OH, CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
Reason (R) : A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by −CH2 unit is called
homologous series.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
19. Name a cylic unsaturated carbon compound. (2020)
20. Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having functional group −Cl.
(Delhi 2017)
21. Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having functional group
−OH.
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SOLUTIONS
(Delhi 2017)
22. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first
member is ethene.
(Al 2017)
23. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first
member is methane.
(Al 2017)
24. Write the next homologue of each of the following:

(i) C2 H4
(ii) C4 H6
(Delhi 2016)
25. Name the following compounds:

(a) CH3 − CH2 − OH
H
(b) CH3 − C = O
(Delhi 2016)
26. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following: C3 H6 ; C5 H10 ; C4 H10 ; C6 H14 ; C2 H4
(Delhi 2016)
27. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule. (Al 2016) Cr
28. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
(Al 2016)
29. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
(Al 2016)
30. Which element exhibits the property of catenation to maximum extent and why?
(Foreign 2016)
31. Write the name and molecular formula of the fourth member of alkane series.
(Foreign 2016)
32. What is homologous series of carbon compounds?
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SOLUTIONS
(Foreign 2016)
33. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula C𝑛 H2𝑛 .
(Delhi 2015)
34. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula
C𝑛 H2𝑛+2
(Delhi 2015)
35. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula
C𝑛 H2𝑛−2 .
(Delhi 2015)
36. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane.

(Al 2015, Delhi 2014)
37. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C4 H10 .
(Al 2015)
38. Write the name of each of the following functional groups:
(Foreign 2015)
39. Write the name and molecular formula of the first member of the homologous series of alkynes.
(Foreign 2015)
SAI (2 marks)
40. (a) Write the molecular formula of the following carbon compounds:
(i) Methane
(ii) Propane
(b) Carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points. Why?
(Term II, 2021-22)
41. Consider the carbon compounds having following molecular formula:

(i) C3 H6 (ii) C3 H8 (iii) C4 H6 (iv) C6 H6 (v) C6 H12
(a) State the number of double covalent bonds present in C3 H6 .
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SOLUTIONS
(b) Write the formula of first member of the homologous series to which the carbon compound C4 H6
belongs.
(c) Which one of the above compounds forms ring structures of carbon atoms?
(d) Identify, which of the above compounds, is a member of alkane series.
(Term II, 2021-22)
42. The molecular formulae of two alkynes, 𝐴 and 𝐵 are C𝑥 H2 and C3 H𝑦 respectively.
(a) Find the values of 𝑥 and 𝑦.
(b) Write the names of 𝐴 and 𝐵.
(Term II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
43. What is a homologous series? Find the difference in molecular mass between the two consecutive
members of a homologous series. State how in
a homologous series of carbon compounds the following properties vary with increase in molecular
mass:
(i) Melting and boiling points
(ii) Chemical properties
(Term II, 2021-22)
44. Draw two different possible structures of a saturated hydrocarbon having four carbon atoms in its
molecule. What are these two structures of the hydrocarbon having same molecular formula called?
Write the molecular formula and the common name of this compound. Also write the molecular
formula of its alkyne.
(Term II, 2021-22)
45. (i) Write the molecular formula of benzene and draw its structure.
(ii) Write the number of single and double covalent bonds present in a molecule of benzene.
(iii) Which compounds are called alkynes?
(Term II, 2021-22)
46. Consider the following organic compounds:
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SOLUTIONS
(a) Name the functional group present in these compounds.
(b) Write the general formula for the compounds of this functional group.
(c) State the relationship between these compounds and draw the structure of any other compound
having similar functional group
(Term II, 2021-22)
47. Carbon, a member of group 14, forms a large number of carbon compounds estimated to be about
three million. Why is this property not exhibited by other elements of this group? Explain.
(2020)
48. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds? Give an example and list its three characteristics.
(2019)
49. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity?
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in
a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this compound. (2018) U
50. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3 H6 O.
Write their structures and name them. State the relation between the two in the language of science.
(AI 2016)
51. What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane, C4 H10 . Explain why we
cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series. (Delhi 2015, Foreign 2014) An OR
Define the term 'structural isomerism'. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this property. Draw the
structures of possible isomers of butane, C4 H10 .
(Al 2014)
52. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw their electron-dot structures: (i)
Ethane (ii) Ethene (iii) Ethyne (Foreign 2015)
53. What is meant by functional group in carbon compounds? Write in tabular form the structural
formula and the functional group present in the following compounds:
(i) Ethanol
(ii) Ethanoic acid
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SOLUTIONS
(Foreign 2015)
OR
State the meaning of functional group in a carbon compound. Write the functional group present in (i)
ethanol and (ii) ethanoic acid and also draw their structures.
(Delhi 2014)
54. Why is homologous series of carbon compounds so called? Write the chemical formula of two
consecutive members of any homologous series and state the part of these compounds that
determines their (i) physical and (ii) chemical properties.
(Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
55. State the meaning of the functional group in an organic compound. Write the formula of the
functional group present in alcohols, aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids.
(Delhi 2014)
56. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the general formula of (i) alkenes,
and (ii) alkynes. Draw the structures of the first member of each series to show the bonding between
the two carbon atoms.
(Al 2014)
LA (5 marks)
57. Explain why carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonds. Explain in brief two main reasons
for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Why does carbon form strong bonds with most
other elements?
(2023)
58. (i) Draw the structure of the following compounds:

(a) Butanoic acid
(b) Chloropentane
(ii) How are structure (i) and structure (ii) given below related to one another? Give reason to justify
your answer.
Draw one more possible structure for above case.
(iii) Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds on the basis of their general
formula.
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SOLUTIONS
(2023)
59. (i) Draw two structural isomers of butane.

(ii) Draw the structures of propanol and propanone.
(iii) Name the third homologue of:
(a) alcohols
(b) aldehydes
(iv) Name the following:
(a)
(b) CH3 − CH2 CH = CH2
(v) Show the covalent bond formation in nitrogen molecule.
(2023)
60. (a) State the reason why carbon can neither form C 4+ cations nor C 4− anions, but forms covalent
bonds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds
(i) are bad conductors of electricity
(ii) have low melting and boiling points.
(b) Write the structural formula of benzene, C6 H6 . (Al 2019)
61. Explain why carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bond. Explain in brief two main reasons
for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Why does carbon form strong bond with most
other elements?
(Delhi 2015)
62. What are hydrocarbons? Distinguish alkanes from alkenes and each of them from alkynes, giving one
example of each. Draw the structure of each compound cited as example to justify your answer.
(Foreign 2014) Ap
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SOLUTIONS
4.3 Chemical Properties of Carbon Compounds
VSA (1 mark)
63. Name the process by which unsaturated fats are changed to saturated fats.
(Foreign 2015) UU)
64. Write the chemical equation to show what happens when methane is treated with chlorine in the
presence of sunlight?
(1/3, Foreign 2014)
OR
Write one chemical equation to represent the following type of reaction of organic substances:
substitution.
(1/3, Foreign 2014)
65. Write the respective chemical reaction to show what happens when methane is burnt in presence of
oxygen?
(1/3, Foreign 2014)
SA I (2 marks)
66. What happens when 5% alkaline KMnO4 solution is added drop by drop to warm ethanol taken in a
test tube? State the role of alkaline KMnO4 solution in this reaction.
(2/3, Foreign 2016)
SA II (3 marks)
67. 3 mL of ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath. A 5% solution of alkaline
potassium permanganate is added first drop by drop to this solution, then in excess.
(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO4 prepared?
(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What happens on adding it in
excess?
(iii) Write chemical equation of this reaction.
(2020)
68. Two carbon compounds 𝑋 and 𝑌 have the molecular formula C4 H8 and C5 H12 respectively. Which
one of these is most likely to show addition reaction? Justify your answer. Also give the chemical
equation to explain the process of addition reaction in this case.
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SOLUTIONS
(Delhi 2017)
OR
The molecular formula of two carbon compounds are C4 H8 and C3 H8 . Which one of the two is most
likely to show addition reaction? Justify your answer. Also give the chemical equation to explain the
process of addition reaction in this case.
(Delhi 2017)
69. What is an oxidising agent? What happens when an oxidising agent is added to propanol? Explain
with the help of a chemical equation.
(Delhi 2016)
70. Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding. In
your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose?
(Al 2015)
71. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with
hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition,
write a chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction.
(Al 2015, Delhi 2014)
LA (5 marks)
72. (i) Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with
hydrogen can take place. Stating the essential condition required for an addition reaction to occur,
write the chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and product of such a reaction. How is an
addition reaction different from a substitution reaction?
(ii) Write the structure of benzene.
(2023)
73. What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this compound.
Why are such compounds
(i) poor conductors of electricity and
(ii) have low melting and boiling points? What happens when this compound burns in oxygen?
(Delhi 2019)
74. (a) Draw electron dot structure of methane molecule.

(b) Identify the functional groups present in the following compounds :
(i) C2 H6 O
(ii) C2 H4 O
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SOLUTIONS
(c) A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Why do you think a mixture of ethyne and
air is not used for welding ?
(2019 C)
75. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series
of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write
the name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to
show the necessary conditions for the reaction to occur.
(Al 2017)
76. With the help of a suitable example, explain the process of hydrogenation mentioning the conditions
of the reaction and any one change in physical property with the formation of the product.
(Delhi 2015)
4.4 Some Important Carbon Compounds - Ethanol and Ethanoic acid

MCQ
77. Assertion (A) : Esterification is a process in which a sweet smelling substance is produced.
Reason (R) : When esters react with sodium hydroxide, an alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid
are obtained.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A). (b) Both (A) and
(R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(2020)
78. Assertion (A) : Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid.
Reason (R) : The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it often freezes during
winters in cold climates.
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
SAI (2 marks)
79. A compound ' 𝑋 ' on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated
compound ' 𝑌 '. ' 𝑋 ' also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ' 𝑍 '. Identify ' 𝑋 ', ' 𝑌 '
and ' 𝑍 '. Write the equation of the chemical reaction of formation of ' 𝑌 ' and also write the role of
sulphuric acid in the reaction.
(2018)
80. Write the chemical equations to show what happens when

(i) an ester reacts with a base?
(ii) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of sulphuric acid?
(2/3, Foreign 2014)
81. Write the respective chemical equations to show what happens when
(i) ethanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K ?
(ii) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid acting as a catalyst?
(2/3, Foreign 2014)
SA II (3 marks)
82. Complete the following chemical equations:
(i) CH3 COOC2 H5 + NaOH ⟶
(ii) CH3 COOH + NaOH ⟶

Conc. H2 SO4
(iii) C2 H5 OH + CH3 COOH ⟶
(Delhi 2017)
83. Complete the following chemical equations:

(i) C2 H5 OH + O2 ⟶
Conc. H2SO4
(ii) C2 H5 OH 443 K
(iii) CH3 COOH + NaHCO3 ⟶
(Delhi 2017)
84. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess of conc. H2 SO4
at 443 K ? Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of conc. H2 SO4 in this
reaction.
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SOLUTIONS
(Al 2017, Delhi 2015)
85. What happens when (write chemical equation in each case)

(a) ethanol is burnt in air?
(b) ethanol is heated with excess conc. H2 SO4 at 443 K ?
(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
(Al 2017)
86. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reaction with the help of the chemical equations
for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and
(ii) saponification process.
(Al 2017)
87. Explain esterification reaction with the help of a chemical equation. Describe an activity to show
esterification.
(Al 2017)
88. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc. H2 SO4 , a substance with fruity smell
is produced. Answer the following:
(i) State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write the chemical
equation for the reaction and write the chemical name of the product formed.
(ii) State the role of conc. H2 SO4 in this reaction.
(Delhi 2016)
89. Name the compound formed when ethanol is heated in excess of conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K. Also
write the chemical equation of the reaction stating the role of conc. sulphuric acid in it. What would
happen if hydrogen is added to the product of this reaction in the presence of catalyst such as
palladium or nickel?
(Delhi 2016, Foreign 2015)
90. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following:
(a) Sodium;
(b) Sodium hydroxide;
(c) Ethanol
Write the name of one main product of each reaction.
(Al 2016)
91. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ' 𝑋 ' with molecular
formula C2 H6 O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ' 𝑌 ' is produced. On bringing a burning
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SOLUTIONS
splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ' 𝑋 ' and ' 𝑌 '.
Also write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product
formed, when you heat ' 𝑋 ' with excess conc. sulphuric acid.
(Al 2016)
92. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium
ethanoate. Write balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the
products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case.
(Al 2016)
93. Write the name and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed with 'ol' and
having two carbon atoms in its molecule. Write balanced chemical equation to indicate what happens
when this compound is heated with excess conc. H2 SO4 and the name of main product formed. Also
state the role of conc. H2 SO4 in the reaction.
(Foreign 2016)
94. An organic compound ' 𝑃 ' is a constituent of wine. ' 𝑃 ' on reacting with acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 forms
another compound ' 𝑄 '. When a piece of sodium is added to ' 𝑄 ', a gas ' 𝑅 ' evolves which burns with
a pop sound. Identify 𝑃, 𝑄 and 𝑅 and write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.
(Foreign 2016)
95. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and
describe how these tests are performed.
(Al 2015)
96. What are esters? How are they prepared? List two uses of esters.
(Delhi 2014)
97. A carboxylic acid (molecular formula C2 H4 O2 ) reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid
catalyst to form a compound ' 𝑋 '. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by
acidification gives the same carboxylic acid C2 H4 O2 . Write the name and structure of (i) carboxylic
acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound ' 𝑋 '.
(AI 2014)
98. Write the chemical equation to explain what happens when ethanol is heated with alkaline solution of
potassium permanganate. Mention two physical properties and two uses of ethanol.
(Foreign 2014)
99. Write chemical equations to describe two examples of different oxidations of ethanol. List two uses
of ethanol.
(Foreign 2014)
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SOLUTIONS
100. Write the chemical equations to show what happens when
(i) sodium hydroxide is added to ethanoic acid?
(ii) solid sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to ethanoic acid?
(iii) ethanol reacts with sodium?
(Foreign 2014)
LA (5 marks)
101. Write the chemical equation for the following:
(i) Combustion of methane
(ii) Oxidation of ethanol

(iii) Hydrogenation of ethene
(iv) Esterification reaction
(v) Saponification reaction
(2023)
102. (i) What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped in ethanol? Write the equation for this
reaction.
(ii) Why is glacial acetic called so?
(iii) What happens when ethanol is heated at 443 K in the presence of conc. H2 SO4 ? Write the role
of conc. H2 SO4 in this case.
(iv) Write an equation showing saponification.
(2023)
103. (a) Define isomerism. Draw all possible isomers of butane.

(b) "A compound ' 𝑋 ' on combustion gives a yellow flame with lots of smoke." What inference
would you draw from this statement?
(c) State the role of alkaline KMnO4 in the reaction involving conversion of an alcohol to
corresponding carboxylic acid.
(2020)
104. (a) What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.
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SOLUTIONS
(b) Define the following terms giving one example of each.
(i) Esterification
(ii) Addition reaction
(2020)
105. (a) Carry out following conversions:

(i) Ethanol to ethene
(ii) Ethanol to ethanoic acid
(b) Differentiate between addition reaction and substitution reaction. Give one example of each.
(2020)
106. Write the chemical formula and name of the compound which is the active ingredient of all
alcoholic drinks. List its two uses. Write chemical equation and name of the product formed when
this compound reacts with
(i) sodium metal
(ii) hot concentrated sulphuric acid.
(Delhi 2019)
107. (a) Define the term isomer.

(b) Two compounds have same molecular formula C3 H6 O. Write the name of these compounds and
their structural formula.
(c) How would you bring the following conversions:
(i) Ethanol to ethene
(ii) Propanol to propanoic acid?
(AI 2019)
108. A carbon compound ' 𝑃 ' on heating with excess conc. H2 SO4 forms another carbon compound '
𝑄 ' which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon
compound ' 𝑅 '. One molecule of ' 𝑅 ' on combustion forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and
three molecules of water. Identify 𝑃, 𝑄 and 𝑅 and write chemical equations for the reactions involved.
(Al 2016)
4.5 Soaps and Detergents

MCQ
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SOLUTIONS
109. Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers 𝐴 and 𝐵. Water samples were collected from
these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river 𝐴 was acidic while that of river 𝐵
was basic. The factories located near 𝐴 and 𝐵 are
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near 𝐴 and alcohol distillery near 𝐵.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near 𝐵 and alcohol distillery near 𝐴.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near 𝐴 and soaps and detergents factories near 𝐵.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near 𝐵 and soaps and detergents factories near 𝐴.
(2020)
LA (5 marks)
110. (a) A compound ' 𝑋 ' undergoes addition reaction with H2 to form a compound ' 𝑌 ' having
molecular mass 30 g mol−1 . ' 𝑋 ' decolorises bromine water and burns with a smoky flame. Identify '
𝑋 ' and ' 𝑌 ' and write chemical equations of the reactions involved.
(b) Write the structural formulae of (i) Butanone, and (ii) Pentanoic acid.
(c) Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a detergent? Give reason to justify your
answer.
(2020 C)
111. (a) Carry out the following conversions giving complete conditions for the reaction to take place
in each case:
(i) Ethanoic acid from Ethanol
(ii) Ethane from Ethene
(iii) Ester from Ethanoic acid and ethanol
Also state the names given to all the above conversions.
(b) Detergents are preferred over soaps. Why? (Give one reason)
(2019 C)
112. (a) Compare soaps and detergents on the basis of their composition and cleansing action in hard
water.
(b) What happens when ethanol is treated with sodium metal? State about the behaviour of ethanol in
this reaction.
(c) Draw the structure of cyclohexane.
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SOLUTIONS
(d) Name the following compound.
(2018)
113. Soaps and detergents are both, types of salts. State the difference between the two. Write the
mechanism of the cleansing action of soaps. Why do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water?
Mention any two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
(Delhi 2017, Al 2015)
OR
What is the difference between the molecules of soaps and detergents, chemically? Explain the
cleansing action of soaps.
(Delhi 2015)
114. What are micelles? Why does it form when soap is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in
other solvents such as ethanol also? State briefly how the formation of micelles help to clean the clothes
having oily spots.
(Foreign 2016)
115. (a) You have three unlabeled test tubes containing ethanol, ethanoic acid and soap solution.
Explain the method you would use to identify the compounds in different test tubes by chemical tests
using litmus paper and sodium metal.
(b) Give the reason of formation of scum when soaps are used with hard water. (Foreign 2016)
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 5
Life Processes
5.2 Nutrition
MCQ
1. Opening and closing of stomata is due to
(a) high pressure of gases inside the cells
(b) movement of water in and out of the guard cells
(c) stimulus of light in the guard cells
(d) diffusion of CO2 in and out of the guard cells.
(2023)
2. Assertion (𝐴) : The inner walls of the small intestine have finger like projections called villi which
are rich in blood.
Reason (R) : These villi have a large surface area to help the small intestine in completing the
digestion of food.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but ( 𝑅 ) is true.
(2023)
3. Water in the root enters due to

(a) the function of the root to absorb water
(b) difference in the concentration of ions between the root and the soil
(c) excess water present in the soil
(d) diffusion of water in the roots.
(2023)
4. In human alimentary canal, the specific enzyme/ juice secreted in locations (i), (ii) and (iii) are
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SOLUTIONS
(a) (i) Amylase
(ii) Pepsin
(iii) Bile
(b) (i) Amylase

(ii) Bile
(c) (i) Lipase

(ii) Amylase
(iii) Trypsin
(d) (i) Trypsin

(ii) Bile
(iii) Pepsin
(iii) Amylase.
(Term I, 2021-22)
5. In the following flow chart showing autotrophic nutrition in green plants, 𝐴 and 𝐵 respectively are
(a) oxygen and energy

(b) starch and oxygen
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SOLUTIONS
(c) energy and starch
(d) oxygen and water.
(Term I, 2021-22)
6. Read the following and answer the questions from 6(i) to 6(iv).
Take a healthy potted plant with elongated leaves. Select a leaf and insert about one half of this leaf
in a test tube containing KOH and make it air tight. Place the set-up in sun for two hours. Take out the
leaf from the test tube and dip it in boiling water for a few minutes. Put this leaf in a beaker with
alcohol and boil it in a water bath. Wash the leaf with water and then dip the leaf in iodine solution
for a few minutes. The portion of the leaf dipped in KOH solution will not show any change when
dipped in iodine solution.
(i) The function of KOH taken in the test tube is to absorb
(a) released water vapours
(b) released CO2
(c) released O2
(d) chlorophyll.
(ii) On the basis of this activity, we may conclude that the factor for photosynthesis is
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) oxygen
(c) chlorophyll
(d) water vapour.
(iii) The event that does not occur in photosynthesis is
(a) absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c) oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d) conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
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SOLUTIONS
(iv) lodine solution gives blue-black colour with
(a) starch
(b) proteins
(c) glucose
(d) fats.
(Term I, 2021-22)
7. The correct statements with reference to single celled organisms are

(i) complex substances are not broken down into simpler substances
(ii) simple diffusion is sufficient to meet the requirement of exchange of gases
(iii) specialised tissues perform different functions in the organism
(iv) entire surface of the organism is in contact with the environment for taking in food.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv).
(Term I, 2021-22)
8. Which one of the following conditions is true for the state of stomata of a green leaf shown in the
given diagram?
(a) Large amount of water flows into the guard cells.
(b) Gaseous exchange is occurring in large amount.
(c) Large amount of water flows out from the guard cells.
(d) Large amount of sugar collects in the guard cells.
(Term I, 2021-22)
9. Assertion (A) : Nitrogen is an essential element for plant growth and is taken up by plants in the form
of inorganic nitrates or nitrites.
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SOLUTIONS
Reason (R) : The soil is the nearest and richest source of raw materials like nitrogen, phosphorus and
other minerals for the plants.
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(Term I, 2021-22)
10. A student was asked to write a stepwise procedure to demonstrate that carbon dioxide is necessary for
photosynthesis. He wrote the following steps. The wrongly worded step is
(a)
(b)
(a) both potted plants are kept in dark room for at least three days
(b) bottom of the bell jars is sealed to make them air tight
(c) both potted plants are kept in sunlight after the starch test
(d) a leaf from both the plants is taken to test the presence of starch.
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SOLUTIONS
(Term I, 2021-22)
11. The length of small intestine in a deer is more as compared to the length of small intestine of a tiger.
The reason for this is
(a) mode of intake of food
(b) type of food consumed
(c) presence or absence of villi in intestines
(d) presence or absence of digestive enzymes.
(Term I, 2021-22)
12. Most of the digestion and absorption of the food takes place in the
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) stomach
(d) large intestine.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
13. Name an enzyme present in pancreatic juice.
(2019 C)
14. What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal in human beings?
(2019 C)
15. Mention the raw materials required for photosynthesis.

(NCERT, Board Term I, 2016)
16. State the location and function of gastric glands.

SAI (2 marks)
17. Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in the dark and other in sunlight.
It was observed that plant kept in dark could not survive longer. Give reason for this observation.
(2023)
18. List the events in proper sequence that takes place during the process of photosynthesis. (2023) R
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SOLUTIONS
19. Name the glands present in the wall of the stomach that release secretions for digestion of food. Write
the three components of secretion that are released by these glands.
SA II (3 marks)
20. (i) How does Paramecium obtain its food?
(ii) List the role of each of the following in our digestive system :
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Trypsin
(c) Muscular walls of stomach
(d) Salivary amylase
(2023)
21. (a) With the help of an activity, explain the action of saliva on the food we eat.
(b) Why is bile juice important in the process of digestion?
(2023)
22. In the human body the site of absorption of digested food is the small intestine. How is the process of
absorption carried out and why is absorption of digested food necessary?
(2020 C)
23. Complete the following flow chart as per the given instructions.
(2020)
24. (a) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion:
(i) Enzyme trypsin
(ii) Enzyme lipase
(b) List two functions of finger-like projections present in the small intestine.
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SOLUTIONS
(2020)
25. (a) Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal :
(i) Saliva
(ii) HCl in stomach
(iii) Bile juice
(iv) Villi
(b) Write one function each of the following enzymes:
(i) Pepsin
(ii) Lipase
(2019)
26. Explain the significance of photosynthesis. Write the balanced chemical equation involved in the
process.
27. Differentiate between autotrophs and heterotrophs and give one example of each.
(NCERT Exemplar, Board Term I, 2017)
28. Explain with the help of neat and well labelled diagrams the different steps involved in nutrition in
Amoeba.
LA (5 marks)
29. (a) Why is nutrition necessary for the human body?

(b) What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
(c) Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
(d) What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands? (NCERT Exemplar, 2020)
30. (a) State the form in which the following are stored:
(i) Unused carbohydrates in plants.
(ii) The energy derived from food in humans.
(b) Describe the process of nutrition in Amoeba with the help of diagram.
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SOLUTIONS
5.3 Respiration
MCQ
31. As compared to terrestrial organisms, the rate of breathing in aquatic organism is
(a) faster because they need more oxygen for their survival
(b) faster because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is fairly low
(c) slower because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is fairly low
(d) slower because the capacity of water of dissolving atmospheric air is limited (2023) (U)
32. The sequence of anaerobic respiration in our muscle cells during heavy exercise is
Lactic acid + Energy

Mitochondria
(b) Glucose ⟶ Pyruvate Muscle cells ⟶ Carbon dioxide + Water
Cytoplasm Muscle cells
(c) Glucose ⟶ Pyruvate ⟶ Ethanol + Carbon dioxide
Mitochondria
(d) Glucose ⟶ Pyruvate Muscle cells ⟶ Ethanol + Lactic acid.
(Term I, 2021-22)
33. The energy released during cellular respiration is used to synthesise

(a) ribosomes
(c) ATP
(b) RBC
(d) mitochondria.
(Term I, 2021-22)
34. Which of the following statements are correct in reference to the role of 𝐴 (shown in the given
diagram) during a breathing cycle in human beings?
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(i) It helps to decrease the residual volume of air in lungs.
(ii) If flattens as we inhale.
(iii) It gets raised as we inhale.
(iv) It helps the chest cavity to become larger.

(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(Term I, 2021-22)
35. Assertion (A) : The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much slower than that seen in terrestrial
organisms.
Reason (R) : The amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very low as compared to the amount of
oxygen in air.
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(Term I, 2021-22)
36. Assertion (A) : In human beings, when air is taken into the body through the nostrils and passed
through the throat, the air passage does not collapse.
Reason (R) : Rings of cartilage present in the throat ensure that the air passage does not collapse.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(2021C)
37. The function of the lining of mucus in the nasal passage of human beings is to
(a) increase the temperature of inhaled air
(b) move the air in and out
(c) filter the air that we breathe in
(d) absorb oxygen from the air.
(Term I, 2021-22)
38. In living organisms during respiration which of the following products are not formed if oxygen is
not available?
(a) Carbon dioxide + Water
(b) Carbon dioxide + Alcohol
(c) Lactic acid + Alcohol
(d) Carbon dioxide + Lactic Acid
(Term I, 2021-22)
39. Respiratory structures of two different animals-a fish and a human being are shown.
Observe (A) and (B) and select one characteristic that holds true for both of them.
(a) Both are placed internally in the body of animal.
(b) Both have thin and moist surface for gaseous exchange.
(c) Both are poorly supplied with blood vessels to conserve energy.
(d) In both the blood returns to the heart after being oxygenated.
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SOLUTIONS
(Term I, 2021-22)
40. Observe the diagram of an activity given below. What does it help to conclude, when the person
exhales into the test-tube?
(a) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in inhaled air.
(b) Fermentation occurs in the presence of oxygen.
(c) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in the exhaled air.
(d) Fermentation occurs in the presence of carbon dioxide.
(Term I, 2021-22)
41. Anaerobic process

(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation
(b) takes place in the presence of oxygen
(c) produces only energy in the muscles of human beings
(d) produces ethanol, oxygen and energy.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
42. Diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of multicellular organisms like human. State
reason.
SA I (2 marks)
43. Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in human body. Write the
products formed in each case.
(Delhi 2019)
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SOLUTIONS
SA II (3 marks)
44. (a) In the process of respiration, state the function of alveoli.
(b) Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms. Give
reasons.
(c) Complete the following pathway showing the breakdown of glucose.
(2020)
45. Explain the ways in which glucose is broken down in absence or shortage of oxygen.
(2019)
46. Write three points of difference between breathing and respiration.

47. Draw a flow chart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways.
48. Write three points of difference between respiration in plants and respiration in animals.
LA (5 marks)
49. (a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic organisms and terrestrial
organisms? Explain.
(b) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label - pharynx, trachea, lungs, diaphragm and
alveolar sac on it.
(2020)
50. In the experimental set up to show that " CO2 is given out during respiration", name the substance
taken in the small test tube kept in the conical flask. State its function and the consequence of its use.
(2019)
51. (a) State reasons for the following:

(i) Herbivores need a longer small intestine while carnivores have shorter small intestine.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(ii) The lungs are designed in human beings to maximise the area for exchange of gases.
(b) The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms.
52. Draw a flow chart showing the three different pathways involved in the breakdown of glucose in
different organisms. Name the respiratory pigment present in human beings. State the function of
rings of cartilage present in our throat.
5.4 Transportation
MCQ
53. Observe the following diagram and identify the process and its significance from the following
options:
(a) Evaporation : maintains water contents in leaf cells.
(b) Transpiration : creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
(c) Excretion : helps in excreting out waste water from the plant.
(d) Translocation: helps in transporting materials from one cell to another.
(2023)
54. The process in which loss of water in the form of vapours from the aerial parts of plants takes place is
𝑋, which helps in 𝑌. Here, 𝑋 and 𝑌 respectively are
(a) transpiration and photosynthesis
(b) transpiration and temperature regulation
(c) translocation and movement of soluble products of photosynthesis in phloem
(d) translocation and absorption of water and minerals from soil by roots.
(2023)
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SOLUTIONS
55. Assertion (A) : The walls of atria are thicker than those of the ventricles.
Reason (R) : Ventricles have to pump blood into various organs at high pressure.
Assertion (A)
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason ( 𝑅 ) is false.
(2023)
56. Study the following and answer any four questions from 56 (i) to 56(v) :
Visible movements only cannot be the defining characteristic of life. Molecular movements which
are invisible to the naked eye are necessary for life. Viruses are said to be living as they also show
molecular movements but only when they are inside a living cell. Living organisms are organised
structures. They must keep repairing
and maintaining their structures. Maintenance of an organism is the collection of processes like
nutrition, respiration, etc. In absence of any one of these, life would be difficult. To remain alive,
chemical energy is needed by the living organism to perform vital process. It provides energy to (a)
maintain life processes, (b) produce molecules for repair of worn out cells, and (c) for the growth of
the body.
(i) Viruses show molecular movements when they are
(a) in crystalline form
(b) inside a dead material
(c) in air
(d) in the body of a living organism.
(ii) The process which involves intake of O2 from outside and breaking down of nutrient molecules to
produce energy is called
(a) excretion
(b) nutrition
(c) respiration
(d) reproduction.
(iii) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Energy is needed by a living organism to
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SOLUTIONS
(a) maintain life processes
(b) grow
(c) repair worn out tissues of the body
(d) synthesise waste materials.
(iv) The type of nutrition found in green plants is

(a) autotrophic
(b) heterotrophic
(c) parasitic
(d) holozoic.
(v) The function of the circulatory system of human beings is to transport

(a) food
(c) waste material
(b) oxygen
(d) all of the above.
(2021C)
57. The separation of the right side and the left side of heart is useful to
(a) keep oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood
(b) allow a slow supply of oxygen in the body
(c) supply energy to animals with low energy needs
(d) often change their body temperature.
(Term I, 2021-22)
58. In spring, sugar stored in root or stem tissue of plants is transported to the buds for
(a) the energy needs of the buds to grow
(b) temperature regulation
(c) balancing the storage in different organs
(d) diffusion process.
(Term I, 2021-22)
59. Upward movement of water in tall trees is due to

(a) translocation
(c) photosynthesis
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SOLUTIONS
(b) excretion
(d) transpiration.
(Term I, 2021-22)
60. Thin walled blood vessels are called

(a) aorta
(c) arteries
(b) capillaries
(d) vena cava.
(Term I, 2021-22)
61. Consider the following statements in connection with the functions of the blood vessels marked 𝐴
and 𝐵 in the diagram of a human heart as shown.
(i) Blood vessel A - It carries carbon dioxide rich blood to the lungs.
(ii) Blood vessel B - It carries oxygen rich blood from the lungs.
(iii) Blood vessel B - Left atrium relaxes as it receives blood from this blood vessel.
(iv) Blood vessel A - Right atrium has thick muscular wall as it has to pump blood to this blood
vessel.
The correct statements are

(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(Term I, 2021-22)
62. Identify the two components of phloem tissue that help in transportation of food in plants.
(a) Phloem parenchyma and sieve tubes
(b) Sieve tubes and companion cells
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SOLUTIONS
(c) Phloem parenchyma and companion cells
(d) Phloem fibres and sieve tubes
(Term I, 2021-22)
63. Which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
(b) Human heart has five chambers.
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(d) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
64. Name the vein which brings blood to left atrium from the lungs.
65. Define translocation in reference to plants.

SA I (2 marks)
66. What is the other name of 'tissue fluid'? Write its two functions.
(2023)
67. What will happen if:

(a) Xylem tissue in a plant is removed?
(b) We are injured and start bleeding?
(2023)
SA II (3 marks)
68. (i) What is double circulation?

(ii) Why is the separation of the right side and the left side of the heart useful? How does it help birds
and mammals?
(2023)
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SOLUTIONS
69. (a) List in tabular form two differentiating features between xylem and phloem.
(b) Write two advantages of transpiration in plants.
(2019 C)
70. Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each.
(Delhi 2019)
71. (a) Write two water conducting tissues present in plants. How does water enter continuously into the
root xylem?
(b) Explain why plants have low energy needs as compared to animals.
(Al 2019)
72. List four functions of the human heart. Why is double circulation necessary in the human body?
(2019)
73. Explain how the translocation of materials in phloem tissue in plants is achieved by utilising energy.
74. What do the following transport?

(i) Xylem
(ii) Phloem
(iii) Pulmonary vein
(iv) Vena cava
(v) Pulmonary artery
(vi) Aorta
75. Explain giving any three reasons the significance of transpiration in plants.
LA (5 marks)
76. (i) Plants absorb water from the soil. Explain how it is taken up and transported from the soil.
(ii) "When we are injured and start bleeding, it requires the loss of blood from the system to be
minimised." What will happen if the blood loss is not stopped? Is there anything the system would do
on its own to prevent the loss?
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SOLUTIONS
(2021C)
77. Give reasons:

(a) Ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
(b) Transport system in plants is slow. (c) Circulation of blood in aquatic vertebrates differs from that
in terrestrial vertebrates.
(d) During the daytime, water and minerals travel faster through xylem as compared to the night.
(e) Veins have valves whereas arteries do not.
(2020)
78. (a) "Blood circulation in fishes is different from the blood circulation in human beings". Justify the
statement.
(b) Describe "blood circulation" in human beings.
(NCERT, 2020)
79. (a) Mention any two components of blood.

(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins.
(2018)
5.5 Excretion
MCQ
80. In the given diagram, 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 respectively are
(a) A - Left kidney ; B - Aorta; C - Vena cava; D - Urethra
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SOLUTIONS
(b) A - Left kidney; B - Vena cava; C - Aorta; D - Urinary bladder
(c) A - Right kidney ; B - Aorta; C - Ureter; D - Urethra
(d) A - Right kidney; B - Vena cava; C - Aorta; D - Urinary bladder
(Term I, 2021-22)
81. Which one among the following is not removed as a waste product from the body of a plant?
(a) Resins and gums
(b) Urea
(c) Dry leaves
(d) Excess water
(Term I, 2021-22)
82. Read the following and answer the questions from 82 (i) to 82(iv).
The figure shown below represents a common type of dialysis called as haemodialysis. It removes
waste products from the blood, such as excess salts, and urea which are insufficiently removed by the
kidney in patients with kidney failure. During the procedure, the patient's blood is cleaned by
filtration through a series of semi-permeable membranes before being returned to the blood of the
patient. On the basis of this answer the following questions.
(i) The haemodialyser has semi-permeable lining of tubes which help
(a) to maintain osmotic pressure of blood
(b) to filter nitrogenous wastes from the dialysing solution
(c) in passing the waste products in the dialysing solution
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SOLUTIONS
(d) to pump purified blood back into the body of the patient.
(ii) Which one of the following is not a function of artificial kidney?
(a) To remove nitrogenous wastes from the blood.
(b) To remove excess fluids from the blood.
(c) To reabsorb essential nutrients from the blood.
(d) To filter and purify the blood.
(iii) The 'used dialysing' solution is rich in

(a) urea and excess salts (b)
(b) blood cells
(c) lymph
(d) proteins.
(iv) Which part of the nephron in human kidney, serves the function of reabsorption of certain
substances?
(a) Glomerulus
(b) Bowman's Capsule
(c) Tubules
(d) Collecting duct
(Term I, 2021-22)
SA I (2 marks)
83. Write one specific function of each of the following organs in relation with excretion in human
beings:
(i) Renal Artery
(ii) Urethra (iii) Glomerulus
(iv) Tubular part of nephron
(2023)
84. Explain in brief two ways by which leaves of a plant help in excretion.
(2023)
SA II (3 marks)
85. (a) Define the term excretion. Why should animals excrete waste matter?
(b) Name the main excretory organ of human beings and state the form in which the excretory matter
is thrown out of the body?
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SOLUTIONS
(2019 C)
86. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidneys, ureters on it.
OR
Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of human beings and label on it:
(i) Left kidney
(ii) Urinary bladder.
87. Describe the structure and function of nephron with the help of diagram.
(NCERT Intext, Board Term I, 2014)
LA (5 marks)
88. (a) Describe the structure and function of the basic filtering unit of kidney.
(b) List two factors on which reabsorption of water from urine depends.
(2020)
89. (a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human body.
(NCERT Exemplar, 2020)
90. (a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which
perform following functions:
(i) form urine
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney
(iii) store urine until it is passed out.
(2018)
91. (a) Draw a neat diagram of the human excretory system and label following parts:
(i) Urethra
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SOLUTIONS
(ii) Kidney
(iii) Ureter
(iv) Urinary bladder
(b) What are nephrons? How is a nephron involved in the filtration of blood and formation of urine?
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 6 Control and Coordination
6.1 Animals-Nervous System
MCQ
1. Sensory nerve of a reflex arc carries information from the receptor cells to the
(a) spinal cord
(b) brain
(c) muscles of the effector organ
(d) bones of the receptor organ
(2023)
2. The part in which gustatory receptors are present in our body is

(a) inner ear
(b) skin
(c) tongue
(d) inner lining of nose.
(2023)
3. Assertion (A): The brain allows us to think and take actions based on that thinking.
Reason (R): The hind brain is the main thinking part of the brain which has regions which receive
sensory impulses from various receptors.
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true, but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(2020 C)
SA I (2 marks)
4. Name the part of brain which is responsible for the following actions:
(i) Maintaining posture and balance
(ii) Beating of heart
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SOLUTIONS
(iii) Thinking
(iv) Blood pressure
(2023)
5. (a) How is the brain and spinal cord protected in human beings?
(b) State one main function of (i) Medulla and (ii) Cerebellum.
(2023)
6. What is a nerve impulse? State the direction followed by a nerve impulse while travelling in the body
of an organism.
(2019)
7. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor in human beings.
(b) Write ' 𝑎 ' and ' 𝑏 ' in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an
electrical impulse.
End point of
Dendrite → 'a' → ' 𝑏 ' →
Neuron
(2018)
8. Write the main functions of the following:
(a) sensory neuron
(b) cranium
(c) vertebral column
(d) motor neuron.
SA II (3 marks)
9. Draw a diagram of neuron and name and label the part
(a) where information is acquired,
(b) through which information travels as an electric impulse, and
(c) where the electric impulse must be converted into a chemical signal for onward transmission.
(2019 C)
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SOLUTIONS
10. Why does the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another
neuron take place but not in the reverse direction? Explain.
(NCERT, Al 2019)
11. List in tabular form three distinguishing features between cerebrum and cerebellum.
(2019)
12. "Reflex arcs continue to be more efficient for quick responses". Justify this statement giving reason.
13. (a) Define reflex arc.

(b) Trace the sequence of events which occur in our body when a bright light is focussed on your
eyes.
14. (a) Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label (i) dendrite and (ii) axon.
(b) Which part of the human brain is:
(i) the main thinking part of the brain
(ii) responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body?
15. Mention three major regions of brain. Write one function of each.
LA (5 marks)
16. What constitutes the central and peripheral nervous systems? How are the components of central
nervous system protected? Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
(2020 C)
6.2 Coordination in Plants
MCQ
17. In plants the role of cytokinin is
(a) Promote cell division
(b) Wilting of leaves
(c) Promote the opening of stomatal pore
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SOLUTIONS
(d) Help in the growth of stem.
(2023) 𝐴𝑝
18. Assertion (A) : Plant hormones are chemicals produced in plants which help to coordinate growth,
development and response to stimulus and environment.
Reason (R) : Abscisic acid is a plant hormone that promotes cell division.
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true, but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(2020 C)
VSA (1 mark)
19. State one example of chemotropism.

SA I (2 marks)
20. Where are auxins synthesised in a plant? Which organ of the plant shows:
(i) Positive phototropism
(ii) Negative geotropism
(iii) Positive hydrotropism
21. Name a plant hormone responsible for bending of a shoot of a plant when it is exposed to
unidirectional light. How does it promote phototropism? (2023) App
22. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?
(2019)
23. State the two types of movements seen in plants. Give one example of each type. (Board Term I,
2016)
SA II (3 marks)
24. Define geotropism. Draw a labelled diagram of a plant showing geotropic movement of its parts.
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
25. State the function of each of the following plant hormones:
(a) Gibberellins
(b) Auxins
(c) Abscisic acid
(2019C)
26. What are plant hormones? Name the plant hormones responsible for the following:
(i) Growth of stem
(ii) Promotion of cell division
(iii) Inhibition of growth
(iv) Elongation of cells
(NCERT, Delhi 2019)
27. Define phototropism. Name the plant hormone which is responsible for phototropism.
LA (5 marks)
28. (a) What are phytohormones? List four types of phytohormones. Where are these hormones
synthesised?
(b) What happens when a growing plant detects light? Explain in brief. (Board Term I, 2017) Ap
29. List the sequences of events that occur when a plant is exposed to unidirectional light, leading to
bending of a growing shoot. Also name the hormone synthesised and the type of movement that takes
place.
30. (a) Define reflex arc. Draw a flow chart showing the sequence of events which occur during sneezing.
(b) List four plant hormones. Write one function of each.
6.3 Hormones in Animals
VSA (1 mark)
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SOLUTIONS
31. Answer question numbers 31 (i) to 31 (iv) on the basis of your understanding of the following
information and related studied concepts:
Thyroid gland is a bilobed structure situated in our neck region. It secretes a hormone called
thyroxine. lodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine. Thyroxine regulates
carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body. It promotes growth of body tissues also. When
there is an excess of thyroxine in the body, a person suffers from hyperthyroidism and if this gland is
underactive it results in hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is diagnosed by blood tests that measure
the levels of thyroxine and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH). Hypothyroidism is caused due to
the deficiency of iodine in our diet resulting in a disease called goitre. lodised salt can be included in
our diet to control it.
(i) Where is thyroid gland situated?
(ii) State the function of thyroxine in human body.
(iii) What is hyperthyroidism?
(iv) How can we control hypothyroidism?
(2020)
32. Question numbers 32(i) to 32(iv) are based on table given below:
Study the table in which the levels of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) in women are given and
answer the questions that follow on the basis of understanding of the following paragraph and the
related studied concepts:
Age Range Normal (mU/L) Low (mU/L)
0.4
18 − 29 years < 0.4mU/L
− 2.34mU/L
30 − 49 years 0.4 − 4.0mU/L < 0.4mU/L
0.46
50 − 79 years < 0.46mU/L
− 4.68mU/L
Women are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during menstruation, while giving
birth and after going through menopause. Around 5% of women in the United States have some kind
of thyroid problem compared to 3% of men. Despite claims that high TSH increases your risk for
heart disease, a 2013 study found no link between high TSH and heart diseases. But a 2017 study
showed
that older women are especially at risk for developing thyroid cancer if they have high TSH levels
along with thyroid nodules.
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SOLUTIONS
(i) A 35 years old woman has TSH level 6.03mU/L. What change should she bring in her diet to
control this level?
(ii) When do women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level?
(iii) State the consequence of low TSH level.
(iv) Name the mineral that is responsible for synthesis of hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
(2020)
33. Question numbers 33(i) to 33(iv) are based on the table and related information in the passage given
below:
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroxine. Study the table
given below.
Table: TSH levels during pregnancy
Normal Low High

Stage of
(mU (mU (mU
pregnancy
/L) /L) /L)
2.5
First trimester 0.2 − 2.5 < 0.2
− 10
3.01
Second trimester 0.3 − 3.0 < 0.3
− 4.5
Third trimester 0.8 − 5.2 < 0.8 > 5.3
It is important to monitor TSH levels during pregnancy. High TSH levels and hypothyroidism can
especially affect chances of miscarriage. Therefore, proper medication in consultation with a doctor is
required to regulate/control the proper functioning of the thyroid gland.
(i) Give the full form of TSH.
(ii) State the main function of TSH.
(iii) Why do TSH levels in pregnant women need to be monitored?
(iv) A pregnant woman has TSH level of 8.95mU/L. What care is needed for her?
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
SA II (3 marks)
34. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away. State the
immediate changes that take place in its body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run.
(2020) An
35. Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication
between cells in a multicellular organisms?
(2020)
36. A cheetah, on seeing a prey moves towards him at a very high speed. What causes the movement of
his muscles? How does the chemistry of cellular components of muscles change during this event?
(2020)
37. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each:
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c) Pancreas.
38. (a) How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
(b) It is advised to use iodised salt. Give reason.
(NCERT Intext, Board Term I, 2017)
39. (a) An old man is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet. Name the disease from which
the man is suffering. Mention the hormone due to imbalance of which he is suffering from this
disease. Which endocrine gland secretes this hormone?
(b) Name the endocrine gland which secretes growth hormone. What will be the effect of the
following on a person
(i) deficiency of growth hormone
(ii) excess secretion of growth hormone?
40. Name the hormone required for the following. Also mention the name of endocrine gland from which
that hormone is secreted:
(a) Lowering of blood glucose.
(b) Development of moustache and beard in human males.
(c) Metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
41. (a) Complete the following table:
(b) List three characteristics of animal hormones.
LA (5 marks)
42. (a) Name the hormone secreted by (i) Pituitary, and (ii) Thyroid stating one main function of each.
Name the disorder a person is likely to suffer from due to the deficiency of the above mentioned
hormones.
(b) How is the timing and amount of hormone released regulated? Explain with an example.
(2020 C)
43. (a) Name one organ each where growth hormone is synthesised in man and plant.
(b) List the sequence of events that occur when a plant is exposed to unidirectional light, leading to
bending of a growing shoot. Also name the hormone and the type of movement.
(2020)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 7 How do Organisms Reproduce
7.1 Do Organisms Create Exact Copies of Themselves?
VSA (1 mark)
1. Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason.
(NCERT, Al 2017)
2. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA?

(AI 2017)
3. What is DNA?
(Delhi 2016, Foreign 2015)
4. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.
(Al 2015) R
SA II (3 marks)
5. Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons in
support of the statement.
(Al 2017)
6. Define reproduction. How does it helps in providing stability to the population of species?
(NCERT Exemplar, Al 2016)
7. What is DNA copying? State its importance.

(NCERT Intext, Delhi 2015)
8. What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the reproduction process?
How does the amount of DNA remain constant through each new generation is a combination of
DNA copies of two individuals?
(Al 2014)
LA (5 marks)
9. (a) What is reproduction ? List its two types.
(b) How are the modes of reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms?
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(2019)
7.2 Modes of Reproduction Used by Single Organisms

MCQ
10. Assertion (A) : Amoeba always produces two daughter amoebae while Plasmodium divides into
many daughter cells.
Reason (R) : Amoeba undergoes binary fission while Plasmodium undergoes multiple fission.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (𝐴).
(2020 C)
VSA (1 mark)
11. Define fragmentation.

(2021C)
12. Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method sexual
or asexual?
(Delhi 2017)
13. How does Plasmodium reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?

(Delhi 2017)
14. Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation. (Delhi 2016)
15. What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
(AI 2016)
16. Name the method by which Hydra reproduces. Is this method sexual or asexual?
(Foreign 2016)
17. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.

(Al 2015)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
18. Name the causative agent of the disease "Kala-azar" and its mode of asexual reproduction. (Foreign
2015)
SAI (2 marks)
19. (a) Name the reproductive and non-reproductive parts of bread mould (Rhizopus).
(b) List any two advantages of vegetative propagation.
(Term II, 2021-22, Foreign 2015)
20. (a) Name the process shown below and define it:
(b) Name the type of cells present in the organisms which exhibit this process.
(Term II, 2021-22)
21. After examining a prepared slide under the high power of a compound microscope, a student
concludes that the given slide shows the various stages of binary fission in a unicellular organism.
Write two observations on the basis of which such a conclusion may be drawn.
(2019)
22. Define multiple fission. Give its one example.

(2019, Foreign 2014)
23. Write two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form.
24. List four modes of asexual reproduction other than fission in the living organisms.
(Delhi 2014)
25. List four advantages of vegetative propagation.

(Delhi 2014)
26. Draw labelled diagrams to illustrate budding in Hydra.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Al 2014)
27. How do Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce? Write one difference in their mode of reproduction.
(Foreign 2014)
SA II (3 marks)
28. What is vegetative propagation? List with brief explanation three advantages of practising this
process for growing some types of plants. Select two plants from the following which are grown by
this process:
Banana, Wheat, Mustard, Jasmine, Gram
(2020, Foreign 2016)
29. What happens when

(a) accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces
(b) Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil
(c) on maturation sporangia of Rhizopus bursts?
(NCERT Exemplar, Delhi 2017)
30. Describe reproduction by spores in Rhizopus.

(AI 2017)
31. What is vegetative propagation? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method.
(AI 2017)
32. What is multiple fission? How does it occur in an organism? Explain briefly. Name one organism
which exhibits this type of reproduction.
(Delhi 2016)
33. Explain the term "regeneration" as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly
how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.
(Al 2016)
34. In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation.
Also give one example of each.
(Al 2016)
35. What happens when

(a) Planaria gets cut into two pieces
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(b) a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length
(c) on maturation sporangia burst?
(Foreign 2016, Delhi 2016)
36. Explain budding in Hydra with the help of labelled diagrams only.
(Delhi 2015)
37. (a) Name the following:

(i) Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(ii) 'Blobs' that develop at the tips of the nonreproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(b) Explain how these structures protect themselves and what is the function of the structures released
from the 'blobs' in Rhizopus.
(Delhi 2015)
38. Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. How is this process different from reproduction?
(Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
39. On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces, it was observed that many of these pieces
developed as new individuals. Name the process and list two organisms in which this process may be
observed. Draw a schematic diagram to illustrate the changes that are likely to be observed during the
development of new individuals in any one of the organisms named.
(Delhi 2014)
40. Draw diagrams to explain the regeneration that takes place in each of the body parts of Planaria when
its body is cut into three pieces. Name any other organism in which a similar process can be
observed.
(Delhi 2014)
41. List any two modes of asexual reproduction in animals. Under which mode of reproduction is
vegetative propagation placed and why? List two advantages of vegetative propagation.
(Al 2014)
42. What is vegetative propagation? List its two advantages. Select two plants raised by this method from
the list given below:
Wheat, Tomato, Rose, Pea, Gram, Corn, Banana
(Foreign 2014)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
LA (4/5 marks)
43. (i) Name and explain the two modes of asexual reproduction observed in Hydra.
(ii) What is vegetative propagation? List two advantages of using this technique.
(2023)
44. The modes by which various organisms reproduce depend on the body design of the organisms. In
asexual reproduction, a single individual parent produces offsprings without the involvement of
gametes. This method is a common means of increasing the offsprings rapidly under favourable
conditions. Asexual reproduction occurs mostly in unicellular organisms, some plants and certain
simple multicellular animals.
(a) State the name of the organism in which binary fission takes place in a definite orientation. Also
name the disease caused by this organism.
(b) List any two advantages of producing plants through vegetative propagation.
(c) Explain the process of budding in Hydra.
OR
(c) What happens when:
(I) a Spirogyra filament matures and attains a considerable length, and
(II) a sporangia in Rhizopus bursts on maturation?
(Term II, 2021-22)
45. (a) Name the mode of reproduction of the following organisms and state the important feature of each
mode :
(i) Planaria (ii) Hydra (iii) Rhizopus
(b) We can develop new plants from the leaves of Bryophyllum. Comment.
(c) List two advantages of vegetative propagation over other modes of reproduction.
(2020)
46. (a) Although Amoeba and Leishmania, both show same mode of reproduction, but the process of
reproduction is carried out in different ways. Identify their mode of reproduction and mention the
way it is carried out in the two species.
(b) What is regeneration? Explain with the help of a diagram how this process is carried out in
Planaria.
(c) Name the part of Rhizopus in which spores are formed.
State the condition under which spores grow into a new individual.
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SOLUTIONS
(2019 C)
7.3 Sexual Reproduction
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
MCQ
47. The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species undergoing sexual
reproduction remain constant due to
(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) halving of chromosomes after zygote formation.
(c) doubling of chromosomes before gamete formation
(d) halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation.
(2023)
48. The stamen contains

(a) stigma
(b) pollen grain
(c) sepal
(d) ovule. (2020 C)
49. Seeds are called products of sexual reproduction because they
(a) give rise to new plants
(b) are formed by fusion of gametes
(c) are formed by the fusion of pollen tubes
(d) can survive for a longer period.
(2020 C)
50. Fertilisation is the process of

(a) transfer of male gamete to female gamete
(b) fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete
(c) adhesion of male and female reproductive organs
(d) the formation of gametes by a reproductive organ.
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SOLUTIONS
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
51. What are all organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one
example of such organism.
(Al 2016)
52. List two unisexual flowers.

(Foreign 2016)
53. Why is fertilisation not possible without pollination?

(NCERT Exemplar, Foreign 2016)
54. Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.
(Foreign 2015)
55. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?

(Delhi 2014)
SAI (2 marks)
56. Mention the changes that occur in the following after fertilisation in a flower :
(a) Petals
(b) Zygote
(c) Ovary
(d) Ovule
(Term-II, 2021-22 C)
57. Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located? Explain the structure
of its male reproductive part.
(Term II, 2021-22)
58. (a) Which of the following flowers will have higher possibility of self-pollination?
Mustard, Papaya, Watermelon, Hibiscus
(b) List the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower.
(Term II, 2021-22)
59. Draw labelled diagram to show the following parts in an embryo of a pea seed:
Cotyledon, Plumule, Radicle
(2019)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
SA II (3 marks)
60. In flowering plants, the pollen grains are transferred to stigma by pollination but the female germ
cells are present in the ovary. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram (only concerned parts), how
the male germ cells reaches the ovary.
(Term II, 2021-22)
61. Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination. What is the
significance of pollination?
(2020, Delhi 2016, Foreign 2016)
62. State the basic requirement for sexual reproduction. Write the importance of such reproductions in
nature.
(Delhi 2017)
63. List any two steps involved in sexual reproduction and write its two advantages.
(Delhi 2017)
64. How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome
number through several generations? Explain with the help of suitable example.
(Delhi 2016)
65. Name the parts 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 shown in the following diagram and state one function of each.
66. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual
reproduction.
(b)
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SOLUTIONS
(i) Name the part marked 𝐴 in the diagram.
(ii) How does A reaches part 𝐵 ?
(iii) State the importance of the part 𝐶.
(iv) What happens to the part marked D after fertilisation is over?
67. What is sexual reproduction? List its four significances.

(Foreign 2016)
68. Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located? Explain in brief the
structure of its female reproductive parts.
(Foreign 2016)
69. List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction.
(AI 2015) U]
70. Draw longitudinal section of a bisexual flower and label the following parts on it.
(i) Anther
(ii) Ovary
(iii) Stigma
(iv) Style
71. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely
to have comparatively better chances of survival - the one reproducing asexually or the one
reproducing sexually? Justify your answer.
(Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
72. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction? What are the advantages of
sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
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SOLUTIONS
(NCERT, Foreign 2015)
73. Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower exhibiting germination of pollen on stigma
and label (i) ovary, (ii) male germ cell, (iii) female germ cell and (iv) ovule on it.
(Foreign 2015)
74. Describe in brief the function of the various parts of the female reproductive part of a bisexual
flower.
(Foreign 2014)
75. Name the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower which contain the germ cells. State the location
and function of its female reproductive part.
(Foreign 2014)
LA (5 marks)
76. (i) What happens when:
(1) Leaves of Bryophyllum fall on the soil?
(2) Planaria is cut into many pieces?
(3) Sporangia of Rhizopus on maturation liberate spores?
Mention the modes of reproduction in each of the above three cases.
(ii) Write the changes that occur in a flower once the fertilization has taken place. (2023) An
77. Draw a neat diagram showing fertilisation in a flower and label (a) pollen tube (b) Male germ cell
and (c) Female germ cell on it. Explain the process of fertilisation in a flower. What happens to the (i)
ovary and (ii) ovule after fertilisation?
(2020)
78. (a) Identify the modes of asexual reproduction in each of the following organisms:
(i) Hydra
(ii) Planaria
(iii) Amoeba
(iv) Spirogyra
(v) Rhizopus
(b) List three advantages of vegetative propagation.
(c) Why cannot fertilisation take place in flowers if pollination does not occur?
(2020)
79. Define pollination. Explain the different types of pollination. List two agents of pollination. How
does suitable pollination lead to fertilisation?
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Delhi 2019)
80. (a) Distinguish between cross-pollination and selfpollination. Mention the site and product of
fertilisation in a flower.
(b) Draw labelled diagram of a pistil showing the following parts:
Stigma, Style, Ovary, Female germ cell.
(AI 2019)
81. (a) Identify 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 in the given diagram and write their names.
(b) What is pollination? Explain its significance.
(c) Explain the process of fertilisation in flowers. Name the parts of the flower that develop after
fertilisation into
(i) seed (ii) fruit.
(Foreign 2015)
82. (a) Name the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the diagram given below:
(b) What is pollination? State its significance.
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SOLUTIONS
(c) How does fertilisation occur in flowers? Name the parts of the flower that develop into (i) seed,
and (ii) fruit after fertilisation.
(AI 2014)
83. (a) Give one example each of unisexual and bisexual flower.
(b) Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilisation.
(c) How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of
DNA copies of two individuals? (Delhi 2014)
Sexual Reproduction in Human Beings
MCQ
84. Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction involves two parents of different sexes, a male and female, which
produce male and female gametes respectively.
Reason (R): The male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote in sexual reproduction, which
develops into a new individual.
(2021 C)
85. Which one of the following is not a part of the human female reproductive system?
(a) Ovary
(b) Oviduct
(c) Uterus
(d) Seminal vesicle
(2020 C)
86. Assertion (A): Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum.
Reason (R): Because sperm formation requires lower temperature than the normal body temperature.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(2020 C)
VSA (1 mark)
87. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
(Al 2016)
SA I (2 marks)
88. Give reasons:
(i) Placenta is extremely essential for fetal development.
(ii) Uterine lining become thick and spongy after fertilisation.
(Term II, 2021-22)
89. What is puberty? Mention any two changes that are common to both boys and girls in early teenage
years.
(Term II, 2021-22)
90. What are testes ? List two functions performed by testes in human beings.
(2019 C)
91. What is the main difference between sperms and eggs of humans? Write the importance of this
difference.
(Al 2014)
92. List two preparations shown every month by the uterus in anticipation of pregnancy in humans.
SA II (3 marks)
93. What is placenta? Explain its function in humans.
(2021 C, Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
94. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.
(2020)
95. (a) What provides nutrition to human sperms? State the genetic constitution of a sperm.
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SOLUTIONS
(b) Mention the chromosome pair present in a zygote which determines the sex of (i) a female child
and (ii) a male child.
(2020)
96. State the changes that take place in the uterus when:
(a) Implantation of embryo has occurred.
(b) Female gamete/egg is not fertilised.
(Delhi 2017)
97. What are the functions of testes in the human male reproductive system? Why are these located
outside the abdominal cavity? Who is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in
boys at the time of puberty?
(Delhi 2016)
98. (a) Mention the role of the following organs of human male reproductive system.
(i) Testes
(ii) Scrotum
(iii) Vas deferens
(iv) Prostate gland
(b) What are the two roles of testosterone?
(Foreign 2016) U]
99. Write names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in the
animals
(i) testes
(ii) sperm
(iii) ovary
(iv) egg.
(Delhi 2014)
LA (5 marks)
100. (a) In the female reproductive system of human beings, state the functions of :
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct.
(b) Mention the changes which the uterus undergoes, when
(i) it has to receive a zygote.
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SOLUTIONS
(ii) no fertilisation takes place.
(c) State the functions of placenta.
(2020)
101.(a) What is puberty?
(b) Describe in brief the functions of the following parts in the human male reproductive system.
(i) Testes (ii) Seminal vesicle
(iii) Vas deferens (iv) Urethra
(c) Why are testes located outside the abdominal cavity?
(d) State how sperms move towards the female germ cell.
(2020)
102. Based on the given diagram answer the questions given below:
(a) Label the parts A, B, C and D.
(b) Name the hormone secreted by testis and mention its role.
(c) State the functions of 𝐵 and 𝐶 in the process of reproduction.
(2020)
103. (a) Write the function of following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta.
(NCERT Exemplar, Al 2018, Delhi 2016)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
104. (a) Name the organ that produces sperms as well as secretes a hormone in human males. Name
the hormone it secretes and write its functions.
(b) Name the part of the human female reproductive system where fertilisation occurs.
(c) Explain how the developing embryo gets nourishment inside the mother's body.
(Delhi 2017)
105. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.
106. (a) State in brief the functions of the following organs in the human female reproductive system.
Ovary, Fallopian tube, Uterus
(b) What is menstruation? Why does it occur?
(NCERT, Foreign 2016) U]
107. Write the functions of the following in human female reproductive system.
Ovary, oviduct, uterus
How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother's body? Explain in brief.
(Delhi 2015)
108. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produce sperms and also secretes a hormone.
Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where, (i) fertilisation takes place (ii)
implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.
Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother's body.
(Al 2015)
OR
(a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and secretes a
hormone. Name the hormone secreted and state its functions.
(b) Write the site of fertilisation and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human female.
(c) State, in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother's body.
(Delhi 2014)
109.(a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system:
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SOLUTIONS
(i) that produces egg
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place, and
(iii) where zygote gets implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted.
(Delhi 2014)
110.(a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label that part where
(i) eggs develop
(ii) fertilisation take place
(iii) fertilised egg gets implanted
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes that uterus undergoes
(i) to receive the zygote
(ii) if zygote is not formed.
(Al 2014)
Reproductive Health
MCQ
111. The bacterial and the viral infections that may be caused due to unsafe sex respectively are
(a) Warts and HIV-AIDS
(b) HIV-AIDS and Warts
(c) Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
(d) Syphilis and Warts.
(2023)
112. Which of the following techniques is used as a contraceptive method in males only?
(a) Copper-T
(b) Oral pills
(c) Blockage of fallopian tube
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(d) Blockage of vas deferens
(2020 C)
VSA (1 mark)
113. Name two infections which can be sexually transmitted in human beings
(2020 C) R
SA I (2 marks)
114. Name the part/organ of the human female reproductive system
(a) where contraceptive devices such as loop or copper-T are placed to prevent pregnancy.
(b) which is blocked to prevent the transfer of eggs.
(c) where formation of green cells as ova takes place.
(d) from where the embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood.
(Term-II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
115.(a) Explain the surgical method of contraception used by
(i) males, and
(ii) females to prevent fertilisation.
(b) Write the role of oral pills taken by women as a contraceptive.
(2021C)
116. What are sexually transmitted diseases? List two examples each of diseases caused due to (i)
bacterial infection and (ii) viral infection. Which device or devices may be used to prevent the spread
of such diseases?
(2019, NCERT Exemplar, Delhi 2015)
117. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these
techniques is not meant for males?
How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family?
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SOLUTIONS
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential
118.
for the health and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle involved in each.
(Delhi 2016)
List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to
119.reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.
(Al 2015)
List any four methods of contraception used by humans. How does their use have a direct effect
120.
on the health and prosperity of a family?
(Delhi 2015, 2014)
OR
List four methods of contraception used by humans. Justify the following statement.
"The use of contraceptive methods has a direct effect on the health and prosperity of a family."
(NCERT, Al 2014)
On the notice board of ultrasound clinics it is generally stated. "Here prenatal sex determination
121.and disclosure of sex (boy or girl before birth) of fetus is not done. It is prohibited and punishable
under law."
(a) List two advantages of imposing ban on prenatal sex determination.
(b) What can students do to educate the society about the following?
(i) The ill-effects of indiscriminate female feticide.
(ii) Adopting small family norms.
(Foreign 2014)
LA (4/5 marks)
(i) Where are testes located in the human males and why? State two functions of the testes.
122.
(ii) In the human female, one of the ovaries releases an egg every month. State the changes that take
place if
(1) the egg is fertilized
(2) the egg is not fertilized
(iii) What is done during the surgical method in males and females to prevent pregnancy?
(2023)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
123. The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and
death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms
increase their population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place
while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily
mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children. Various
contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
(i) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls.
(ii) What is the result of reckless female feticide?
(iii) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
(iv) Write two factors that determine the size of a population.
(2020)
124. (a) List three different categories of contraceptive methods.

(b) Why has Government of India prohibited prenatal sex determination by law? State its benefits in
the long run.
(c) Unsafe sexual act can lead to various infections. Name two bacterial and two viral infections
caused due to unsafe sex.
(2020)
125.(a) Suggest any two categories of contraceptive methods to control the size of human population
which is essential for the prosperity of a country. Also explain about each method briefly.
(b) Name two bacterial and two viral infections each that can get sexually transmitted.
(c) List two advantages of using condom during sexual act.
(2020)
126. (a) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(b) What is contraception? List three advantages of adopting contraceptive measures.
127.(a) Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts:
(i) which produce an egg (ii) where fertilisation takes place
(b) List two bacterial diseases which are transmitted sexually.
(c) What are contraceptive devices? Give two reasons for adopting contraceptive devices in humans.
(Al 2019)
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
Previous Years' CBSE Board Questions
CHAPTER 8
8.1 Accumulation of Variation During Reproduction
VSA (1 mark)
1. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings?
(2020 C)
2. All the variations in a species do not have equal chances of survival. Why?
SA I (2 marks)
3. Justify the statement "Sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father".
(Term II, 2021-22)
4. "Sex chromosomes in human males and females are 𝑋𝑌 and 𝑋𝑋 respectively. Statistical probability
of getting either a male or a female child is 50%. Justify this statement giving reason.
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
5. What is variation? List two main reasons that may lead to variation in a population.
(Term II, 2021-22)
6. (a) Label (1) and (2) in the given diagram showing sex determination in human beings.
(b) If child inherits 𝑋-chromosome from the father what will be his/her gender?
(2021 C)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
SA II (3 marks)
7. (a) Name the two types of gametes produced by men.

(b) Does a male child inherit 𝑋 chromosome from his father? Justify.
(c) How many types of gametes are produced by a human female?
(Term II, 2021-22)
LA (4/5 marks)
8. Sex of an individual is determined by different factors in various species. Some animals rely entirely
on the environmental cues, while in some other animals the individuals scan change their sex during
their life time indicating that sex of some species is not genetically determined. However, in human
beings, the sex of an individual is largely determined genetically.
(a) In what way are the sex chromosomes ' 𝑋 ' and ' 𝑌 ' different in size? Name the mismatched pair
of sex chromosome in humans.
(b) Write the number of pair/pairs of sex chromosomes present in human beings. In which one of the
parent (male/female) perfect pair/pairs of sex chromosomes are present?
(c) Citing two examples, justify the statement "Sex of an individual is not always determined
genetically".
OR
(c) Draw a flow chart to show that sex is determined genetically in human beings.
(Term II, 2021-22)
9. (a) "Sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction." Justify this
statement and explain how the viable variations affect the evolution of those organisms that
reproduce sexually.
(b) Does genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of a newborn?
Give reason to justify your answer.
(2019 C)
8.2 Heredity
MCQ
10. A cross between pea plant with white flowers (vv) and pea plant with violet flowers (VV) resulted in
F2 progeny in which ratio of violet (VV) and white (vv) flowers will be
(a) 1: 1
(b) 2: 1
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(c) 3: 1
(d) 1: 3.
(2023)
11. Assertion (A) : In humans, if gene (𝐵) is responsible for black eyes and gene (b) responsible for
brown eyes, then the colour of eyes of the progeny having gene combination Bb, bb or BB will be
black only.
Reason (R) : The black colour of the eyes is a dominant trait.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (𝑅) is true.
(2023)
12. Which one of the given statements is incorrect?

(a) DNA has the complete information for a particular characteristic.
(b) DNA is the molecule responsible for the inheritance of characters from parents to offsprings.
(c) Change in information will produce a different protein.
(d) Characteristics will remain the same even if protein changes.
(2023)
13. Consider the following two statements:

(i) The trait that expresses itself in F1 generation.
(ii) The trait that keeps on passing from one generation to another.
The appropriate terms for the statements (i) and (ii) respectively are
(a) Recessive trait ; Dominant trait
(b) Dominant trait ; Recessive trait
(c) Dominant trait ; Inherited trait
(d) Recessive trait ; Inherited trait
(2023)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
14. Assertion (A): Human population show a great deal of variations in traits.
Reason (R): All variations in a species have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which
they live.
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason ( 𝑅 ) is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A)
(2023)
15. Assertion (A): The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome
he/she inherits from the father.
Reason (R) : A child who inherits ' 𝑋 ' chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a
child who inherits a ' 𝑌 ' chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true, but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
16. What is heredity?

(2021 C, Al 2014)
17. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny?
(2018)
18. Name the information source for making proteins in the cells.
(Delhi 2014)
19. What is a gene?

(AI 2014)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
20. Why is the progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant?
(Foreign 2014)
SAI (2 marks)
21. (i) In a cross between violet flowered plants and white flowered plants, state the characteristics of the
plants obtained in the 𝐹1 progeny.
(ii) If the plants of 𝐹1 progeny are self-pollinated, then what would be observed in the plants of 𝐹2
progeny?
(iii) If 100 plants are produced in 𝐹2 progeny, then how many plants will show the recessive trait?
(Term II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
22. How do Mendel's experiments show that the traits are inherited independently? Explain.
(NCERT Intext, Term II 2021-22, Delhi 2017, AI 2016)
23. A cross was made between green-stemmed tomato plants denoted by (GG) and purple-stemmed
tomato plants denoted as (gg) to obtain F1 progeny.
(a) What colour of the stem would you expect in their F1 progeny and why?
(b) Give the percentage of purple-stemmed plants if 𝐹1 plants are allowed to self-pollinate to produce
𝐹2 progeny.
(c) Write the ratio between GG and gg plants in the F2 progeny.
(Term II, 2021-22)
24. (a) Why did Mendel carry out an experiment to study inheritance of two traits in garden pea?
(b) What were his findings with respect to inheritance of traits in F1 and F2 generation?
(c) State the ratio obtained in the 𝐹2 generation in the above mentioned experiment.
(2020)
25. A green stemmed rose plant denoted by GG and a brown stemmed rose plant denoted by gg are
allowed to undergo a cross with each other.
(a) List your observations regarding:
(i) Colour of stem in their F1 progeny
(ii) Percentage of brown stemmed plants in 𝐹2 progeny if plants are self pollinated.
(iii) Ratio of 𝐺𝐺 and 𝐺𝑔 in the 𝐹2 progeny.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(b) Based on the findings of this cross, what conclusion can be drawn?
(2020)
26. (a) Why is the 𝐹1 progeny always of tall plants when a tall plant is crossed with a short pea plant?
(b) How is 𝐹2 progeny obtained by self-pollination of 𝐹1 progeny different from 𝐹1 progeny? Give
reason for this observation.
(c) State a conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of this observation.
(2020)
27. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. What type of progeny was obtained by Mendel in F1
and 𝐹2 generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio he obtained in F2
generation plants.
(Delhi 2019)
28. "It is a matter of chance whether a couple will have a male or a female child." Justify this statement
by drawing a flow chart.
(2019, Foreign 2015)
29. How did Mendel explain that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism?
(AI 2017)
OR
With the help of an example justify the following statement: "A trait may be inherited, but may not be
expressed."
(Al 2016)
OR
"It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed." Give a suitable example to justify
this statement.
(Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
30. In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed
with a pure dwarf pea plant, in the first generation, F1 only tall plants appear.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case?
(b) When the 𝐹1 generation plants were selffertilised, he observed that in the plants of second
generation F2 , both tall plants and dwarf plants were present. Why it happened? Explain briefly.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Delhi 2016)
31. How did Mendel interpret his result to show that traits may be dominant or recessive? Describe
briefly.
32. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants (TT) and short pea plants (tt), a scientist obtained only
tall pea plants (𝑇𝑡) in the 𝐹1 generation. However, on selfing the 𝐹1 generation pea plants, he
obtained both tall and short plants in 𝐹2 generation. On the basis of above observations with other
angiosperms also, can the scientist arrive at a law? If yes, explain the law. If not, give justification for
your answer.
(Delhi 2016)
33. List two differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive traits. What percentage/
proportion of the plants in the F2 generation/progeny were round, in Mendel's cross between round
and wrinkled pea plants?
(Foreign 2016)
34. Explain Mendel's experiment with peas on inheritance of characters considering only one visible
contrasting character.
(Foreign 2016, 2014)
35. A cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other
with wrinkled and yellow seeds.
(a) Write the phenotype of 𝐹1 progeny. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Write the different types of 𝐹2 progeny obtained along with their ratio when 𝐹1 progeny was
selfed.
(Delhi 2014)
36. (a) Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants in his experiment. Write his observations
giving reasons on the 𝐹1 and 𝐹2 generations.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than height that Mendel used in his experiments in pea
plants.
(Delhi 2014)
LA (4/5 marks)
37. The most obvious outcome of the reproductive process is the generation of individuals of similar
design, but in sexual reproduction they may not be exactly alike. The resemblances as well as
differences are marked. The rules of heredity determine the process by which traits and
characteristics are reliably inherited. Many experiments have been done to study the rules of
inheritance.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(i) Why an offspring of human being is not a true copy of his parents in sexual reproduction?
(ii) While performing experiments on inheritance in plants, what is the difference between F1 and F2
generation?
(iii) Why do we say that variations are useful for the survival of a species over time?
OR
(iii) Study Mendel's cross between two plants with a pair of contrasting characters. RRYY × rryy
Round Yellow Wrinkled Green
He observed 4 types of combinations in 𝐹2 generation. Which of these were new combinations? Why
do new features which are not present in the parents, appear in F2 generation?
(2023)
38. In some families, either rural or urban, females are tortured for giving birth to a female child. They do
not seem to understand the scientific reason behind the birth of a boy or a girl. Infact the mother is
not responsible for the sex of the child and it has been genetically proved that the sex of a newborn is
determined by what the child inherits from the father.
(a) State the basis on which the sex of a newborn baby is determined in humans.
(b) Why is the pair of sex chromosomes called a mismatched pair in males?
(c) How is the original number of chromosomes present in the parents restored in the progeny?
OR
(c) Explain by giving two examples of the organisms in which the sex is not genetically determined.
(2023)
39. A student crossed pea plants having round and yellow seeds with pea plants having wrinkled and
green seeds. He found that only one type of seeds were produced in the 𝐹1 generation. When these 𝐹1
generation pea plants were self-pollinated with each other, then in addition to the seed type of 𝐹1
generation, some new types of seed combinations were also obtained in the 𝐹2 generation.
(a) Mention the dominant traits observed in 𝐹1 generation.
(b) What are the new possible combinations of seeds likely to be observed in F2 generation?
(c) Give reason why the traits which were not visible in the seeds of 𝐹1 generation reappeared in the
seeds of 𝐹2 generation. Write the ratio of different types of seeds obtained in F2 generation in this
case.
OR
(c) What is meant by the terms (I) dominant, and (II) recessive traits? Explain.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
40. The mechanism by which the sex of an individual is determined is called sex-determination. In
human beings, sex of a newborn is genetically determined, whereas in some others it is not. There are
46 (23 pairs) chromosomes in human beings. Out of these, 44 (22 pairs) control the body characters
and 2 (one pair) are known as sex chromosomes. The sex chromosomes are of two types −𝑋
chromosome and 𝑌 chromosome. At the time of fertilisation, depending upon which type of male
gamete fuses with the female gamete, the sex of the newborn child is decided.
(a) Why is a pair of sex chromosomes in human beings called a mismatched pair in terms of type and
size?
(b) If the gametes always have half the number of chromosomes, then how is the original number of
chromosomes restored in the organism?
(c) Name two animals whose sex is not genetically determined. Explain the process of their sex
determination.
OR
(c) With the help of a flowchart only, show how sex is genetically determined in human beings.
(Term II, 2021-22)
41. Mendel blended his knowledge of Science and Mathematics to keep the count of the individual
exhibiting a particular trait in each generation. He observed a number of contrasting visible characters
controlled in pea plants in a field. He conducted many experiments to arrive at the laws of
inheritance.
(a) What do the 𝐹1 progeny of tall plants with round seeds and short plants with wrinkled seeds look
like?
(b) Name the recessive traits in above case.
(c) Mention the type of the new combinations of plants obtained in 𝐹2 progeny along with their ratio,
if 𝐹1 progeny was allowed to self pollinate.
OR
(c) If 1600 plants were obtained in F2 progeny, write the number of plants having traits:
(i) Tall with round seeds
(ii) Short with wrinkled seeds
Write the conclusion of the above experiment.
(Term II, 2021-22)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
42. How do Mendel's experiments show that
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive?
(b) inheritance of two traits is independent of each other?
(NCERT Intext, 2019, Delhi 2017)
43. (a) Why did Mendel choose garden pea for his experiments? Write two reasons.
(b) List two contrasting visible characters of garden pea Mendel used for his experiment.
(c) Explain in brief how Mendel interpreted his results to show that the traits may be dominant or
recessive.
(Foreign 2016)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 9
Light – Reflection and Refraction
9.1 Reflection of Light
MCQ
1. The laws of reflection hold true for
(a) plane mirrors only
(b) concave mirrors only
(c) convex mirrors only
(d) all reflecting surface
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
2. What is the magnification of the images formed by plane mirrors and why?
(Delhi 2015)
9.2 Spherical Mirrors
MCQ
3. An optical device forms an erect image of an object placed in front of it. If the size of the image is
one half that of the object, the optical device is a
(a) concave mirror
(b) convex mirror
(c) plane mirror
(d) convex lens.
(Term I, 2021-22)
4. The image of an object placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm is of the same size
as the object. The distance between the object and its image is
(a) 15 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 60 cm
(d) zero.
(Term I, 2021-22)
5. The relation 𝑅 = 2𝑓 is valid
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(a) for concave mirrors but not for convex mirrors
(b) for convex mirrors but not for concave mirrors
(c) neither for concave mirrors nor for convex mirrors
(d) for both concave and convex mirrors.
(Term I, 2021-22)
6. In which of the following is a concave mirror used?

(a) A solar cooker
(b) A rear view mirror in vehicles
(c) A safety mirror in shopping malls
(d) In viewing full size image of distant tall buildings.
(Term I, 2021-22)
7.
For the diagram shown, according to the new Cartesian sign convention the magnification of the
image formed will have the following specifications :
(a) Sign - Positive, Value - Less than 1
(b) Sign - Positive, Value - More than 1
(c) Sign - Negative, Value - Less than 1
(d) Sign - Negative, Value - More than 1
(Term I, 2021-22)
8. The radius of curvature of a converging mirror is 30 cm. At what distance from the mirror should an
object be placed so as to obtain a virtual image?
(a) Infinity
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(b) 30 cm
(c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm
(d) Between 0 cm and 15 cm
(Term I, 2021-22)
9. Object
Which of the following statements is not true in reference to the diagram shown above?
(a) Image formed is real.
(b) Image formed is enlarged.
(c) Image is formed at a distance equal to double the focal length.
(d) Image formed is inverted.
(Term I, 2021-22)
10. An object of height 4 cm is kept at a distance of 30 cm from the pole of a diverging mirror. If the
focal length of the mirror is 10 cm, the height of the image formed is
(a) +3.0 cm
(b) +2.5 cm
(c) +1.0 cm
(d) +0.75 cm
(Term I, 2021-22)
11. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the
mirror. This image is
(a) real
(b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted
(d) virtual and erect
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
12. Define pole of a spherical mirror.
(2020 C)
SA I (2 marks)
13. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of
light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror.
Mark the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.
(Al 2019)
14. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always
erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your answer.
(2018)
15. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Write
four characteristics of the image formed by the mirror.
(Delhi 2017)
OR
List four specific characteristics of the images of the objects formed by convex mirrors. (Delhi 2015)
R
16. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
List four characteristics of the image formed by the mirror.
(Delhi 2017)
17. A ray of light is incident on a convex mirror as shown. Redraw the diagram and complete the path of
this ray after reflection from the mirror. Mark angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.
(Delhi 2016)
18. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is
achieved by this device.
(Al 2016)
19. "The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is −3′′ . List four informations you obtain from
this statement about the mirror/image.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Al 2016)
20. 𝐴𝐵 and 𝐶𝐷, two spherical mirrors, from parts of a hollow spherical ball with its centre at 𝑂 as shown
1
in the diagram. If arc⁡𝐴𝐵 = arc⁡𝐶𝐷,
2
what is the ratio of their focal lengths? State which of the two mirrors will always form virtual image
of an object placed in front of it and why?
(Foreign 2016)
21. List two properties of the images formed by convex mirrors. Draw ray diagram in support of your
answer.
(Foreign 2016) U]
22. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is +3. Analyse this value and state the (i)
type of mirror and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw a ray
diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(Foreign 2016)
23. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray which is
directed towards the principal focus of a convex mirror. Mark on it the angle of incidence and the
angle of reflection.
(Delhi 2014)
24. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light
parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror. Mark the angle of incidence and angle of reflection
on it.
(Delhi 2014) U
25. List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object placed
in front of it. State the difference if any between these two images.
(Al 2014)
26. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object.
Where should the position of the object be relative to the mirror? Draw ray diagram to justify your
answer.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Al 2014)
27. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is +1/3. Analysing this value state the (i)
type of mirror and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw any diagram
to justify your answer.
(Al 2014, Foreign 2014)
28. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -1. Analysing this value state the (i) type
of mirror and (ii) position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw any diagram to
justify your answer.
(Foreign 2014)
29. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is −1/5. Analysing this value state the (i)
type of spherical mirror and (ii) the position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw
ray diagram to justify your answer. (Foreign 2014) Ap
SA II (3 marks)
30. The magnification produced when an object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a spherical mirror
is +1/2. Where should the object be placed to reduce the magnification to +1/3 ?
(2023)
31. Define the following terms in the context of a diverging mirror :

(i) Principal focus
(ii) Focal length
(2023)
Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate your answer.
32. A student has focused the image of an object of height 3 cm on a white screen using a concave mirror
of focal length 12 cm. If the distance of the object from the mirror is 18 cm, find the values of the
following:
(i) distance of the image from the mirror.
(ii) height of the image.
(2023)
33. Draw ray diagrams for the following cases when a ray of light:
(i) passing through centre of curvature of a concave mirror is incident on it.
(ii) parallel to principal axis is incident on convex mirror.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(iii) is passing through focus of a concave mirror incident on it.
(2020)
34. A concave mirror is used for image formation for different positions of an object. What inferences
can be drawn about the following when an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the pole of a
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm ?
(a) Position of the image
(b) Size of the image
(c) Nature of the image
Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify your inferences.
(2020)
35. (a) To get an enlarged, real and inverted image of an object by a concave mirror, where should the
object be placed? Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify your answer.
(b) If an object is placed at the centre of curvature of this mirror, what will be the magnification
produced?
(2020 C)
36. Where should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm so as to obtain a
two times magnified virtual image of the object?
(2019 C)
37. A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a 4 cm tall
object be placed so that it forms an image at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror? Also calculate the
size of the image formed.
(Al 2019)
38. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a mirror is formed on a screen placed
in front of the mirror at a distance of 60 cm from its pole. What is the nature of the mirror? Find its
focal length. If the height of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the height of its image. State whether the image
formed is erect or inverted.
(Delhi 2017)
39. An object 4 cm in height is placed at 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. At
what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed to obtain a sharp image of the object.
Calculate the height of the image.
(Delhi 2017)
40. Draw the following diagram in which a ray of light is incident on a concave/convex mirror, on your
answer sheet. Show the path of this ray, after reflection, in each case.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Delhi 2016)
41. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -1. If the image is
at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the
object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new
position of the object to justify your answer.
(Al 2016)
42. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and its magnification is -2 . If the image is at
a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror.
List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror.
(Al 2016)
43. If the image formed by mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always virtual and
diminished, state the type of the mirror. Draw a ray diagram in support of your answer. Where are
such mirrors commonly used and why?
(Foreign 2016, Al 2015)
44. To construct a ray diagram we use two rays of light which are so chosen that it is easy to determine
their directions after reflection from the mirror. Choose these two rays and state the path of these rays
after reflection from a concave mirror. Use these two rays to find the nature and position of the image
of an object placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm.
(Delhi 2015)
45. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray in each of the following cases. A ray of light
incident on a convex mirror:
(a) strikes at its pole making an angle 𝜃 from the principal axis.
(b) is directed towards its principle focus.
(c) is parallel to its principal axis. (Foreign 2015)
46. Aspherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of 50 cm

from the mirror.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. ⁡
(Delhi 2014, Al 2014)
47. Aspherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of 40 cm

from the mirror.
(i) Write type of mirror.
(ii) What is the nature of the image formed?
(iii) How far is the object located from the mirror?
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
(Delhi 2014)
48. Aspherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1.0 on a screen placed at a distance of 30 cm
from the pole of the mirror.
(i) Write the type of mirror in this case.
(ii) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(iii) What is the nature of the images formed?
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
(Delhi 2014)
49. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48 cm in front of a mirror by
keeping the flame at a distance of 12 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
(c) How far is the image from its object?
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
(Al 2014)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
50. A student wants to obtain an erect image of an object using a concave mirror of 12 cm focal length.
What should be the range of distance of the candle flame from the mirror? State the nature and size of
the image he is likely to observe. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
(Foreign 2014)
51. A student wants to obtain an erect image of a candle flame using a concave mirror of focal length
15 cm. What should be the range of distance of the candle flame from the mirror? State the nature
and size of the image he is likely to observe. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this
case.
(Foreign 2014)
52. A student has a concave mirror of 20 cm focal length and he wants to see an erect image of his face
in the mirror. What should be the range of distance of the mirror from his face? State the nature and
size of the image he is likely to observe. Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
(Foreign 2014)
LA (5 marks)
53. An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm.
(i) At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image?
(ii) Find the size of the image.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(2020)
54. (a) A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm can produce a magnified real as well as virtual image of
an object placed in front of it. Draw ray diagrams to justify this statement.
(b) An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm.
The distance of the object from the pole of the mirror is 10 cm. Find the position of the image
formed.
(2020)
55. (a) A security mirror used in a big showroom has radius of curvature 5 m. If a customer is standing at
a distance of 20 m from the cash counter, find the position, nature and size of the image formed in
the security mirror.
(b) Neha visited a dentist in his clinic. She observed that the dentist was holding an instrument fitted
with a mirror. State the nature of this mirror and reason for its use in the instrument used by dentist.
(2020)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
56. (a) To construct a ray diagram we use two rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after reflection from the mirror. Use these two rays and draw ray diagram to locate the
image of an object placed between pole and focus of a concave mirror.
(b) A concave mirror produces three times magnified image on a screen. If the objects placed 20 cm
in front of the mirror, how far is the screen from the object?
(Delhi 2017)
57. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always
diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your
answer. Write one use such mirrors are put to and why?
(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature is +24 cm.
(Al 2017)
58. (a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors:
(i) Pole
(ii) Centre of curvature
(iii) Principal axis
(iv) Principal focus
(b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a
(i) Concave mirror
(ii) Convex mirror
(c) Consider the following diagram in which 𝑀 is a mirror and 𝑃 is an object and 𝑄 is its magnified
image formed by the mirror.
State the type of the mirror 𝑀 and one characteristic property of the image 𝑄.
(Delhi 2016)
59. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.
(i) What should be the range of distance of a object placed in front of the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw ray diagram to show the formation of
image in this case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror? Draw ray
diagram for this situation also to justify your answer.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
Show the positions of pole, principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.
(Al 2016)
60. Suppose you have three concave mirrors 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 of focal lengths 10 cm, 15 cm and 20 cm. For
each concave mirror you perform the experiment of image formation for three values of object
distances of 10 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm. By giving reason, answer the following:
(a) For the three object distances, identify the mirror/mirrors which will form an image of
magnification -1.
(b) Out of the three mirrors, identify the mirror which would be preferred to be used for shaving
purposes/make up.
(c) For the mirror 𝐵 draw ray diagram for image formation for object distances 10 cm and 20 cm.
(Foreign 2016)
61. A student has focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a concave mirror. The
situation is a given below:
Length of the flame = 1.5 cm
Focal length of the mirror = 12 cm
Distance of flame from the mirror = 18 cm
If the flame is perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror, then calculate the following:
(a) Distance of the image from the mirror
(b) Length of the image
If the distance between the mirror and the flame is reduced to 10 cm, then what would be observed
on the screen? Draw ray diagram to justify your answer from this situation.
(Foreign 2015)
62. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a
mirror.
(a) Which type of mirror should he use and why?
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ' 𝑓 ' of the mirror should he place the candle flame so as
to get the magnified image on the wall?
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(d) Can he use this mirror to project a diminished image of the candle flame on the same wall? State
'how' if your answer is 'yes' and 'why not' if your answer is 'no'
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Delhi 2014)
9.3 Refraction of Light
MCQ
63. If a lens and a spherical mirror both have a focal length of −15 cm, then it may be concluded that
(a) both are concave
(b) the lens is concave and the mirror is convex
(c) the lens is convex and the mirror is concave
(d) both are convex.
(Term I, 2021-22)
64. A student determines the focal length of a device' 𝐴′ by focussing the image of a far off object on a
screen placed on the opposite side of the object. The device ' 𝐴 ' is
(a) concave lens
(b) concave mirror
(c) convex lens
(d) convex mirror.
(Term I, 2021-22)
65. When light is incident on a glass slab, the incident ray, refracted ray and the emergent ray are in three
media, 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶. If 𝑛1 , 𝑛2 and 𝑛3 are the refractive indices of 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 respectively and the
emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray, which of the following is true?
(a) 𝑛1 < 𝑛2 < 𝑛3
(b) 𝑛1 > 𝑛2 > 𝑛3
(c) 𝑛1 < 𝑛2 = 𝑛3
(d) 𝑛1 = 𝑛3 < 𝑛2
(Term I, 2021-22)
66. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is obtained on a screen placed on the other side of the
lens. According to new cartesian sign convention, if the image is three times the size of the flame,
then the lens is
(a) concave and magnification is +3
(b) concave and magnification is -3
(c) convex and magnification is -3
(d) convex and magnification is +3.
(Term I, 2021-22)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
67. The power of a combination of two lenses in contact is +1.0D. If the focal length of one of the lenses
of the combination is +20.0 cm, the focal length of the other lens would be
(a) −120.0 cm
(b) +80.0 cm
(c) −25.0 cm
(d) −20.0 cm
(Term I, 2021-22)
68. Study the diagram given below and identify the type of the lens 𝑋𝑋 ′ and the position of the point on
the principal axis 𝑂𝑂′ where the image of the object 𝐴𝐵 appears to be formed
(a) Concave; between 𝑂′ and 𝑌
(b) Concave : between 𝑂 and 𝑌
(c) Convex; between 𝑂′ and 𝑌
(d) Convex; between 𝑂 and 𝑌 (Term I, 2021-22)
69. An object of height 3.0 cm is placed vertically on the principal axis of a convex lens. When the
object distance is −37.5 cm, an image of height −2.0 cm is formed at a distance of 25.0 cm from the
lens. Next, the same object is placed vertically at 25.0 cm from the lens. In this situation the image
distance 𝑣 and height ℎ of the image is (according to the new Cartesian sign convention)
(a) 𝑣 = +37.5 cm; ℎ = +4.5 cm
(b) 𝑣 = −37.5 cm; ℎ = +4.5 cm
(c) 𝑣 = +37.5 cm; ℎ = −4.5 cm
(d) 𝑣 = −37.5 cm; ℎ = −4.5 cm
(Term I, 2021-22)
70. A lens has a power of +4.0D. It is

(a) a convex lens of focal length 4 m
(b) a concave lens of focal length 4 m
(c) a convex lens of focal length 0.25 m
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SOLUTIONS
(d) a concave lens of focal length 0.25 m.
(Term I, 2021-22)
71. An object is placed in front of a concave lens. For all positions of the object the image formed is
always
(a) real, diminished and inverted
(b) virtual, diminished and erect
(c) real, enlarged and erect
(d) virtual, erect and enlarged. (Term I, 2021-22)
72. A ray of light starting from air passes through medium 𝐴 of refractive index 1.50, enters medium 𝐵 of
refractive index 1.33 and finally enters medium 𝐶 of refractive index 2.42. If this ray emerges out in
air from 𝐶, then for which of the following pairs of media the bending of light is least?
(a) air-A
(b) 𝐴 − 𝐵
(c) B − C
(d) C-air
(Term I, 2021-22)
73. A ray of light is incident as shown. If 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are three different transparent media, then which
among the following options is true for the given diagram?
(a) ∠1 > ∠4
(b) ∠1 < ∠2
(c) ∠3 = ∠2
(d) ∠3 > ∠4
(Term I, 2021-22)
74. In the diagram shown above 𝑛1 , 𝑛2 and 𝑛3 are refractive indices of the media 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
Which one of the following is true in this case?
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SOLUTIONS
(a) 𝑛1 = 𝑛2
(b) 𝑛1 > 𝑛2
(c) 𝑛2 > 𝑛3
(d) 𝑛3 > 𝑛1
(Term I, 2021-22)
75.
The refractive index of medium 𝐴 is 1.5 and that of medium 𝐵 is 1.33. If the speed of light in air is
3 × 108 m/s, what is the speed of light in medium 𝐴 and 𝐵 respectively?
(b) 1.33 ×8108 m/s and 2 × 1088 m/s
(a) 2 × 10 m/s and 1.33 × 10 m/s
(c) 2.25 × 108 m/s and 2 × 108 m/s
(d) 2 × 108 m/s and 2.25 × 108 m/s
(Term I, 2021-22)
76. A student wants to obtain magnified image of an object 𝐴𝐵 as on a screen. Which one of the
following arrangements shows the correct position of 𝐴𝐵 for him/ her to be successful?
(a)
(b)
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SOLUTIONS
(c)
(d)
(Term I, 2021-22)
77. The following diagram shows the use of an optical device to perform an experiment of light. As per
the arrangement shown, the optical device is likely to be a
(a) concave mirror

(b) concave lens
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SOLUTIONS
(c) convex mirror
(d) convex lens
(Term I, 2021-22)
78. If a lens can converge the sun rays at a point 20 cm away from its optical centre, the power of this
lens is
(a) +2D
(b) −2𝐷
(c) +5𝐷
(d) −5D
(Term I, 2021-22)
79. A converging lens forms a three times magnified image of an object, which can be taken on a screen.
If the focal length of the lens is 30 cm, then the distance of the object from the lens is
(a) −55 cm
(b) −50 cm
(c) −45 cm
(d) −40 cm
(Term I, 2021-22)
80. Assertion (A) : A concave lens of very short focal length causes higher divergence than one with
longer focal length.
Reason (R) : The power of a lens is directly proportional to its focal length.
Assertion (A).
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason ( 𝑅 ) is false.
(2021 C)
81. Assertion (A) : The SI unit of power of lens is 'dioptre'. Reason (𝑅) : The power of a concave lens is
positive and that of a convex lens is negative.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (𝑅) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
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SOLUTIONS
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(2021 C)
VSA (1 mark)
82. The refractive index of glass is 1.50. What is the meaning of this statement?
(2021 C)
83. What is meant by power of a lens?

(Delhi 2015)
SA I (2 marks)
84. State Snell's law of refraction of light. Write an expression for the absolute refractive index of a
medium in terms of speed of light.
(2019 C)
85. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. Calculate the speed of light in the glass.
Given : The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s.
(2019 C)
86. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four
characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens.
(AI 2017)
87. What is meant by power of a lens? What does its sign (+ve or -ve) indicate? State its S.I. unit related
to focal length of a lens.
(Delhi 2016)
88. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of
light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.
(AI 2016)
89. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light
in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water.
(Al 2015)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
SA II (3 marks)
90. The power of a lens is +4D. Find the focal length of this lens. An object is placed at a distance of
50 cm from the optical centre of this lens. State the nature and magnification of the image formed by
the lens and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
(2023)
91. An object of height 10 cm is placed 25 cm away from the optical centre of a converging lens of focal
length 15 cm. Calculate the image-distance and height of the image formed.
(2023)
92. Define power of a lens. The focal length of a lens is −10 cm. Write the nature of the lens and find its
power. If an object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the optical centre of this lens, according to
the New Cartesian Sign Convention, what will be the sign of magnification in this case?
(2023)
93. (a) Water has refractive index 1.33 and alcohol has refractive index 1.36. Which of the two medium
is optically denser? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a ray of light passing obliquely from water to alcohol.
(c) State the relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refraction in the above case.
(2020)
94. The refractive index of a medium ' 𝑥 ' with respect to a medium ' 𝑦 ' is 2/3 and the refractive index of
medium ' 𝑦 ' with respect to medium ' 𝑧 ' is 4/3. Find the refractive index of medium ' 𝑧 ' with respect
to medium ' 𝑥 '. If the speed of light in medium ' 𝑥 ' is 3 × 108 m s −1 , calculate the speed of light in
medium ' 𝑦 '.
(2020)
95. Study the ray diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Is the type of lens used converging or diverging?
(b) List three characteristics of the image formed.
(c) In which position of the object will the magnification be -1 ?
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(2020 C)
96. How far should an object be placed from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm to obtain its real image
at a distance of 30 cm from the lens ? Determine the height of the image if the object is 4 cm tall.
(2019 C)
97. A real image 2/3rd of the size of an object is formed by a convex lens when the object is at a
distance of 12 cm from it. Find the focal length of the lens.
(Al 2019)
98. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term 'absolute refractive index of a medium' and
write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vaccum.
(2018)
99. What is meant by power of a lens? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 cm and
another of −20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.
(2018)
100. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b) virtual image
of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of 𝑂, 𝐹 and 2𝐹 in each diagram.
(Al 2017)
101. (a) Draw a diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass slab and mark angle of
refraction and the lateral shift suffered by a ray of light while passing through the slab.
(b) If the refractive index of glass for light going from air to glass is 3/2, find the refractive index of
air for light going from glass to air.
(Delhi 2016)
102. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object
and its image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the
lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your
answer.
(Al 2016)
103. (a) Define focal length of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm
from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away from the lens?
Find the size of the image also.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
(Al 2016)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
104. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always virtual,
erect and diminished, state the type of the lens. Draw a ray diagram in support of your answer. If the
numerical value of focal length of such a lens is 20 cm, find its power in new cartesian sign
conventions.
(Foreign 2016)
105. State the laws of refraction of light. If the speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s, find the
absolute refractive index of a medium in which light travels with a speed of 1.4 × 108 m/s.
(Foreign 2015)
106. State the laws of refraction of light. If the speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m s −1 , find the
speed of light in a medium of absolute refractive index 1.5.
(Delhi 2014, Al 2014)
107. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 40 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a
screen placed on the other side of the lens at a distance of 40 cm from the lens. Identify the type of
lens and write its focal length. What will be the nature of the image formed if the candle flame is
shifted 25 cm towards the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
(Foreign 2014)
LA (4/5 marks)
108. The ability of a medium to refract light is expressed in terms of its optical density. Optical
density has a definite connotation. It is not the same as mass density. On comparing two media, the
one with the large refractive index is optically denser medium than the other. The other medium with
a lower refractive index is optically rarer. Also, the speed of light through a given medium is
inversely proportional to its optical density.
(i) Determine the speed of light in diamond if the refractive index of diamond with respect
to vacuum is 2.42. Speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s.
(ii) Refractive indices of glass, water and carbon disulphide are 1.5, 1.33 and 1.62 respectively. If a
ray of light is incident in these media at the same angle (say 𝜃 ), then write the increasing order of the
angle of refraction in these media.
(iii) The speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s and in water is 2.25 × 108 m/s.
(a) Which one of the two is optically denser and why?
(b) A ray of light is incident normally at the waterglass interface when it enters a thick glass container
filled with water. What will happen to the path of the ray after entering the glass? Give reason.
OR
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SOLUTIONS
(iii) The absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of
light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in (i) vacuum and (ii) water.
(2023)
109. Many optical instruments consists of a number of lenses. They are combined to increase the
magnification and sharpness of the image. The net power (𝑃) of the lenses places in contact is given
by the algebraic sum of the powers of the individual lenses 𝑃1 , 𝑃2 , 𝑃3 , …. as 𝑃 = 𝑃1 + 𝑃2 + 𝑃3 …..
This is also termed as the simple additive property of the power of lens, widely used to design lens
systems of cameras, microscopes and telescopes. These lens systems can have a combination of
convex lenses and also concave lenses.
(a) What is the nature (convergent/divergent) of the combination of a convex lens of power +4D and
a concave lens of power −2D ?
(b) Calculate the focal length of a lens of power −2.5D.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the nature and position of an image formed by a convex lens of
power +0.1D, when an object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from its optical centre.
OR
(c) How is a virtual image formed by a convex lens different from that formed by a concave lens?
Under what conditions do a convex and a concave lens form virtual image?
(2023)
110. (a) State Snell's law refraction of light.

(b) When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into a glass slab, it is observed that the light
ray emerges parallel to the incident ray but it is shifted sideways slightly. Draw a labelled ray
diagram to illustrate it.
(2020)
111. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show theformation of image, when
theobject is placed:
(i) between optical centre and principal focus of a convex lens.
(ii) anywhere in front of a concave lens.
(iii) at 2 F of a convex lens.
State the signs and values of magnifications in the above mentioned cases (i) and (ii).
(2020)
112. (a) Define the following terms:
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(i) Power of lens
(ii) Principal focus of a concave mirror
(b) Write the relationship among the object distance (𝑢), image distance (𝑣) and the focal length (𝑓)
of a
(i) Spherical lens
(ii) Spherical mirror
(c) An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from optical centre of a convex lens of focal length
15 cm. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(2020)
113. Rishi went to a palmist to show his palm. The palmist used a special lens for this purpose.
(i) State the nature of the lens and reason for its use.
(ii) Where should the palmist place/hold the lens so as to have a real and magnified image of an
object?
(iii) If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm, the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from the palm, use
lens formula to find the position and size of the image.
(2020)
114. An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size, erect/inverted) formed by the lens in
this case
(iii) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of pair (ii)
(Delhi 2019)
115. (a) A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the position, nature and size of
the image formed.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing object distance, image distance and focal length in the
above case.
(Al 2019)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
116. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (𝑣) with object
distance
(u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follows, without doing any calculations:
Object distance Image distance

S. No.
𝑢(𝐜𝐦) 𝑣(𝐜𝐦)
1 -90 +18
2 -60 +20
3 -30 +30
4 -20 +60
5 -18 +90
6 -10 +100
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Write the serial number of that observation which is not correct. How did you arrive at this
conclusion?
(c) Take an appropriate scale to draw ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 4 and the approximate
value of magnification.
(Delhi 2017)
117. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (𝑣) with object-
distance (𝑢) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any
calculations.
Object Image
S. No.
Distance 𝑢( cm) Distance 𝒗(cm)
1 -100 +25
2 -60 +30
3 -40 +40
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SOLUTIONS
4 -30 +60
5 -25 +100
6 -15 +120
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify your answer.
(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at
(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 2. Also find the
this conclusion?
approximate value of magnification.
(Al 2017)
118. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when an object is
placed in front of the lens between its optical centre and principal focus.
(b) In the above ray diagram mark the object distance (𝑢) and the image distance (𝑣) with their
proper sign (+ve or -ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are
related to the focal length (f) of the convex lens in this case. (c) Find the power of a convex lens
which forms a real and inverted image of magnification -1 of an object placed at a distance of 20 cm
(Delhi 2016)
from its optical centre.
119. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a concave lens when an object is
placed in front of it.
(b) In the above diagram mark the object distance (𝑢) and the image distance (𝑣) with their proper
sign (+ve or -ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are related to
the focal length (𝑓) of the concave lens in this case.
(c) Find the nature and power of a lens which forms a real and inverted image of magnification -1 at a
(Delhi 2016)
distance of 40 cm from its optical centre.
120. (a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens.
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm
from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens.
Find the size of the image also.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation.
(Al 2016)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
121. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the
same side as the object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine
the distance of the object from the lens and the size of the image formed.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
(AI 2016)
122. At what distance from a concave lens of focal length 20 cm a 6 cm tall object be placed so as to
obtain its image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size of the image formed.
Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer for the above situation and label it. (Foreign 2016) Ap
123. At what distance from a concave lens of focal length 25 cm a 10 cm tall object be placed so as
to obtain its image at 20 cm from the lens. Also calculate the size of the image formed.
Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer for the above situation and label it.
(Foreign 2016)
124. "A convex lens can form a magnified erect as well as magnified inverted image of an object
placed in front of it". Draw ray diagram to justify this statement stating the position of the object with
respect to the lens in each case.
An object of height 4 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm.
Use lens formula to determine the position of the image formed.
(Delhi 2015)
125. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a
screen placed on the other side of the lens at a distance of 60 cm from the optical centre of the lens.
Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 3 cm, find the
height of its image.
(Delhi 2015)
126. (a) State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term absolute refractive index of a medium
and write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
(b) The absolute refractive indices of two media 𝐴 and 𝐵 are 2.0 and 1.5 respectively. If the speed of
light in medium 𝐵 is 2 × 108 m/s. Calculate the speed of light in
(i) vacuum
(ii) medium 𝐴
(Delhi 2015)
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SOLUTIONS
127. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its S.I. unit. You have two lenses 𝐴 and 𝐵 of focal
lengths +10 and −10 cm respectively. State the nature and power of each lens. Which of the two
lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray
diagram to justify your answer.
(Al 2015)
128. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a lens
produce an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? Draw a ray
diagram to justify your answer.
A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length
20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm.
Find the nature, position and size of the image.
(AI 2015)
129. What is meant by the power of a lens? What is its S.I. unit? Name the type of lens whose power
is positive. The image of an object formed by a lens is real, inverted and of the same size as the
object. If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the lens, what is the nature and power of the lens?
Draw ray diagram to justify your answer.
(Foreign 2015)
130. (a) Explain the following terms related to spherical lenses:

(i) optical centre
(ii) centre of curvature
(iii) principal axis
(iv) aperture
(v) principal focus
(vi) focal length
(b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm. Calculate at what distance should the object be
placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 48 cm on the other side of the lens.
(Al 2014)
131. (i) Explain the following terms related to spherical lenses

(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Principal axis
(c) Optical centre
(d) Principal focus
(ii) At what distance from a concave lens of focal length 20 cm, should a 6 cm tall object be placed
so that it forms an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also determine the size of the image formed.
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SOLUTIONS
(Al 2014)
132. What is meant by power of a lens? Name and define its S.I. unit.
One student uses a lens of focal length +50 cm and another of −50 cm. State the nature and find the
power of each lens. Which of the two lenses will always give a virtual and diminished image
irrespective of the position of the object?
(Foreign 2014)
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 10
Human Eye and Colourful World
10.1 The Human Eye
SA I (2 marks)
1. Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens
which enables us to see the nearby objects clearly?
(Delhi 2019)
SA II (3 marks)
2. Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes.
(Delhi 2019)
3. Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image distance in the eye does
not change when we change the distance of an object from the eye?
(Delhi 2017)
LA (5 marks)
4. (a) State the role of ciliary muscles present in our eye.
(b) Identify the defect of vision in each of the following cases and suggest its corrective measure:
(i) The eye lens has become milky and cloudy.
(ii) The eye lens has excessive curvature.
(iii) The eye lens has large focal length (longer than normal).
(iv) Ciliary muscles have weakened.
(2019C)
5. Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:

(i) Cornea
(iii) Crystalline lens
(ii) Iris
(iv) Ciliary muscles
(2/5, 2018, Delhi 2016)
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SOLUTIONS
6. State the function of each of the following parts of the human eye :
(i) Cornea
(ii) Iris
(iii) Pupil
(iv) Retina
(2/5, Foreign 2015)
7. (a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain how they
perform this function?
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye.
(3/5, Al 2014)
10.2 Defects of Vision and their Correction

MCQ
8. Person suffering from cataract has

(a) elongated eyeball
(b) excessive curvature of eye lens
(c) weakened ciliary muscles
(d) opaque eye lens.
(2020)
SA I (2 marks)
9. Observe the following diagram and answer the questions following it :
(i) Identify the defect of vision shown.
(ii) List its two causes.
(iii) Name the type of lens used for the correction of this defect.
(2023)
10. Observe the following diagram showing an image formation in an eye:
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(a) Identify the defect of vision shown in the figure.
(b) List its two causes and suggest a suitable corrective lens to overcome this defect.
(2023)
SA II (3 marks)
11. A student uses spectacles of focal length −2.5 m.

(a) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(b) Which lens is used for the correction of this defect?
(c) List two main causes of developing this defect.
(d) Compute the power of this lens.
(2020)
12. (a) List two causes of hypermetropia.

(b) Draw ray diagrams showing (i) a hypermetropic eye and (ii) its correction using suitable optical
device.
(2020)
13. (a) A person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia.

(i) What kind of lenses can correct this defect?
(ii) How are these lenses prepared?
(b) A person needs a lens of power +3D for correcting his near vision and -3D for correcting his
distant vision. Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to correct these defects.
(2020)
14. A person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia defects.
(a) What is this condition called?
(b) When does it happen?
(c) Name the type of lens often required by the persons suffering from this defect. Draw labelled
diagram of such lenses.
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SOLUTIONS
(2020)
LA (5 marks)
15. A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of
approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the possible
causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it.
(3/5, 2018)
OR
A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the blackboard placed at a distance of
approximately 4 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. Explain the
method of correcting this defect. Draw ray diagram for the
(i) defect of vision and also
(ii) for its correction
(Delhi 2015)
16. A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m.
(a) List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray
diagrams, explain.
(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes?
(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by
the use of this lens?
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power
of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention.
(Al 2017)
17. Millions of people of the developing countries of world are suffering from corneal blindness. These
persons can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. A charitable
society of your city has organised a campaign in your neighbourhood in order to create awareness
about this fact. If you are asked to participate in this mission how would you contribute in this noble
cause?
(a) State the objective of organising such campaigns.
(b) List two arguments which you would give to motivate the people to donate their eyes after death.
(c) List two values which are developed in the persons who actively participate and contribute in such
programmes.
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SOLUTIONS
(VBQ, 3/5, Delhi 2016)
OR
Millions of people of the developing countries are suffering from corneal blindness. This disease can
be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. Your school has
organised a campaign in the school and its neighbourhood in order to create awareness about this fact
and motivate people to donate their eyes after death. How can you along with your classmates
contribute in this noble cause? State the objectives of organising such campaigns in schools.
(VBQ, 3/5, Foreign 2015)
18. Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due
do gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the
persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly?
Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard.
When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to
exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He
could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the
message to Akshay's parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this
defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman?
(VBQ, Al 2015)
19. Do you know that the corneal-impairment can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the
cornea of the donated eye? How and why should we organise groups to motivate the community
members to donate their eyes after death?
(2/5, Al 2014)
20. What is myopia? List two causes for the development of this defect? How can this defect be corrected
using a lens? Draw ray diagrams to show the image formation in case (i) defective eye and (ii)
corrected eye.
(Foreign 2014)
10.3 Refraction of Light Through a Prism

LA (5 marks)
21. Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation.
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SOLUTIONS
(1/5, Delhi 2017)
10.4 Dispersion of White Light by a Glass Prism
MCQ
22. In the diagram given below, 𝑋 and 𝑌 are the end colours of the spectrum of white light. The colour of
' 𝑌 ' represents the
(a) Colour of sky as seen from earth during the day
(b) Colour of the sky as seen from the moon
(c) Colour used to paint the danger signals
(d) Colour of sun at the time of noon.
(Term I, 2021-22)
SA I (2 marks)
23. Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) dispersion of a beam of white light and (ii) formation of a
rainbow.
(2023)
24. Draw a labelled diagram to explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky.
(Foreign 2015)
SA II (3 marks)
25. Define the term dispersion of white light. State the colour which bends (i) the most, (ii) the least
while passing through a glass prism. Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light.
(2023)
26. What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show its formation.

(2023)
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SOLUTIONS
27. How will you use two identical glass prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one
prism emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw and label the ray diagram.
(2020)
28. Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a narrow beam of (i) a
monochromatic light and (ii) white light passes through (a) glass slab and (b) glass prism?
(2020)
29. (a) With the help of labelled ray diagram show the path followed by a narrow beam of
monochromatic light when it passes through a glass prism.
(b) What would happen if this beam is replaced by a narrow beam of white light?
(2020)
30. What is rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.
(Delhi 2019)
31. What is 'dispersion of white light'? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of
white light by a glass prism.
(Al 2017)
32. State the cause of dispersion of white light passing through a glass prism. How did Newton showed
that white light of sun contains seven colours using two identical glass prisms. Draw a ray diagram to
show the path of light when two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with
respect to each other and a narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the focus
of the first prism.
(Delhi 2016)
33. A narrow 𝑃𝑄 of white light is passing through a glass prism 𝐴𝐵𝐶 as shown in the diagram.
Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path
of the emergent beam as observed on the screen 𝐷𝐸.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
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SOLUTIONS
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of
white light.
(Al 2014)
34. Define the term dispersion of white light. Name the colour of light which bends (i) the most, (ii) the
least while passing through a glass prism. Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
(Foreign 2014)
35. What is a spectrum? How can we recombine the components of white light after a glass prism has
separated them? Illustrate it by drawing a diagram.
(Foreign 2014)
LA (5 marks)
36. (a) Why do the component colours of incident white light split into a spectrum while passing through
a glass prism? Explain.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.
(4/5, Delhi 2017)]
37. (a) What is dispersion of white light? State its cause.

(b) "Rainbow is an example of dispersion of sunlight." Justify this statement by explaining, with the
help of a labelled diagram, the formation of a
rainbow in the sky. List two essential conditions for observing a rainbow.
(Foreign 2016)
38. Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be
recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw ray diagrams to show the
recombination of the spectrum of white light.
(Al 2016)
10.5 Atmospheric Refraction

MCQ
39. Which one of the following is the correct reason for twinkling of stars?
(a) Atmospheric reflection of starlight.
(b) Atmospheric refraction of starlight.
(c) Scattering of starlight.
(d) Dispersion of starlight.
(2021 C)
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SOLUTIONS
SA I (2 marks)
40. Why do stars appear to twinkle? Explain.

(Foreign 2015)
41. Explain why the planets do not twinkle.

(Foreign 2015)
SA II (3 marks)
42. Explain in brief the reason for each of the following:

(a) Advanced sun-rise
(b) Delayed sun-set
(c) Twinkling of stars
(Foreign 2016)
43. What is meant by advance sunrise and delayed sunset? Draw a labelled diagram to explain these
phenomena.
(Foreign 2015)
LA (5 marks)
44. (a) With the help of diagram explain Isaac Newton's experiment that led to the idea that the sunlight
is made up of seven colours.
(b) What is atmospheric refraction? List two natural phenomena based on atmospheric refraction.
(2019 C)
45. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set.
Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.
(AI 2016)
10.6 Scattering of Light

MCQ
46. Which of the following statements is not true for scattering of light? (a) Colour of the scattered light
depends on the size of particles of the atmosphere.
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SOLUTIONS
(b) Red light is least scattered in the atmosphere.
(c) Scattering of light takes place as various colours of white light travel with different speed in air.
(d) The fine particles in the atmospheric air scatter the blue light more strongly than red. So the
scattered blue light enters our eyes.
(Term I 2021-22)
47. Light seems to travel along straight line paths in a transparent medium. But when light enters
obliquely from one transparent medium to another, some changes are observed. This is because
different mediums have different optical densities. The extent of the change in the direction of light
that takes place when it enters obliquely in a given pair of media is expressed in terms of a 'constant'.
Light travels the fastest in vacuum. Light gets refracted through a transparent prism. Several
phenomena are observed due to the reflection, refraction, dispersion and scattering of light by various
mediums.
(i) Rainbow is a natural spectrum. It is produced because of :
(a) dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets.
(b) refraction of sunlight by dust particles.
(c) reflection of sunlight by plane shining surfaces.
(d) scattering of sunlight by tiny water droplets. R
(ii) In the given diagram showing refraction of a narrow beam of a monochromatic light through a
glass prism, the angles marked ∠1 and ∠2 respectively are :
(a) angle of incidence and angle of refraction.
(b) angle of incidence and angle of emergence.
(c) angle of emergence and angle of refraction.
(d) angle of emergence and angle of deviation.
(iii) Blue colour of clear sky is due to :
(a) Refraction of light
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SOLUTIONS
(b) Reflection of light
(c) Absorption of light
(d) Scattering of light
(iv) The apparent flattening of the Sun's disc at sunrise and sunset is due to:
(a) Dispersion of light

(b) Scattering of light
(c) Atmospheric refraction of light
(d) Tyndall effect
(v) Consider the following statements:
I. Very fine particles scatter mainly blue light.
II. Advance sunrise and delayed sunset are due to atmospheric refraction.
III. Violet light bends the least while red light bends the most when a beam of white light passes
through a glass prism.
The correct statement(s) is/are :

(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
(2021 C)
48. The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth.
(2020)
SA I (2 marks)
49. The colour of clear sky from the earth appears blue but from the space it appears black. Why?
(2023)
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SOLUTIONS
SA II (3 marks)
50. Give reasons:
(a) Red colour is selected for danger signals.
(b) The sky appears dark in space.
(c) The time difference between actual sunset and apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. (2020) R
51. Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four instance of observing the Tyndall
effect.
(2020)
52. (a) State the relation between colour of scattered light and size of the scattering particle.
(b) The apparent position of an object, when seen through the hot air, fluctuates or waves. State the
basic cause of this observation.
(c) Complete the path of white light when it passes through two identical prisms placed as shown:
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 11
Electricity
11.1 Electric Current and Circuit
MCQ
1. The expressions that relate (i) 𝑄, 𝐼 and 𝑡 and (ii) 𝑄, 𝑉 and 𝑊 respectively are (Here the symbols have
their usual meanings)
𝑄
(a) (i) 𝐼 = 𝑡
𝑉
(ii) 𝑊 = 𝑄
(b) (i) 𝑄 = 1 × 𝑡
(ii) 𝑊 = 𝑉 × 𝑄
1
(c) (i) 𝑄 = 𝑡
𝑊
(ii) 𝑉 = 𝑄
𝑄
(d) 𝐼 = 𝑡
𝑉
(ii) 𝑄 = 𝑊
(2023)
LA (5 marks)
2. Define electric current.
(1/5, Board Term I, 2017)
3. Define one ampere.
11.3 Circuit Diagram
LA (5 marks)
4. Draw the symbols of commonly used components in electric circuit diagrams for
(i) An electric cell
(ii) Open plug key
(iii) Wires crossing without connection
(iv) Variable resistor
(v) Battery
(vi) Electric bulb
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SOLUTIONS
(vii) Resistance
11.4 Ohm's Law
MCQ
5. A student plots V-I graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 and 𝑅3 . Choose
from the following the statements that holds true for this graph.
(a) 𝑅1 = 𝑅2 = 𝑅3
(b) 𝑅1 > 𝑅2 > 𝑅3
(c) 𝑅3 > 𝑅2 > 𝑅1
(d) 𝑅2 > 𝑅1 > 𝑅3
(2020, Al 2019)
VSA (1 mark)
6. State Ohm's law.
(AI 2019)
SA II (3 marks)
7. (a) State Ohm's Law. Represent it mathematically.

(b) Define 1ohm. (c) What is the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 0.5 A flows
when a potential difference of 2 V is applied across its ends?
(Term II, 2021-22)
8. A V-I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from this graph? Draw a labelled
circuit diagram to obtain such a graph.
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SOLUTIONS
(2020)
9. Study the V-I graph for a resistor as shown in the figure and prepare a table showing the values of I
(in amperes) corresponding to four different values 𝑉 (in volts). Find the value of current for 𝑉 = 10
volts. How
can we determine the resistance of the resistor from this graph?
(Board Term I, 2016) Ap
10. V-I graph for a conductor is as shown in the figure
(i) What do you infer from this graph?
(ii) State the law expressed here.
LA (5 marks)
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SOLUTIONS
11. State Ohm's law. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to verify this law in the laboratory. If you draw a
graph between the potential difference and current flowing through a metallic conductor, what kind
of curve will you get? Explain how would you use this graph to determine the resistance of the
conductor.
12. State and explain Ohm's law. Define resistance and give its SI unit. What is meant by 1ohm
resistance? Draw V-I graph for an ohmic conductor and list its two important features.
11.5 Factors on which the Resistance of a Conductor Depends

MCQ
For question No. 13 and 14, two statements are givenone labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below.
13. Assertion (A): The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R) : Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it is not a good conductor of electricity. (2020)
R
14. Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric iron and heater.
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys
have low melting points then their constituent metals.
(2020)
15. A cylindrical conductor of length ' 𝑙 ' and uniform area of cross section ' 𝐴 ' has resistance ' 𝑅 '. The
area of cross section of another conductor of same material and same resistance but of length ' 2𝑙 ' is
𝐴
(a) 2
3𝐴
(b) 2
(c) 2𝐴
(d) 3 A
(2020)
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SOLUTIONS
VSA (1 mark)
16. How is the resistivity of alloys compared with those of pure metals from which they may have been
formed?
SA I (2 marks)
17. (i) List three factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
(ii) Write the Sl unit of resistivity. (Board Term I, 2015)
SA II (3 marks)
18. (i) In the following figure, three cylindrical conductors 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are shown along with their lengths
and areas of cross-section.
(A)
(B)
If these three conductors are made of the same material and 𝑅𝐴 , 𝑅𝐵 and 𝑅𝐶 be their respective
resistances, then find (I) 𝑅𝐴 /𝑅𝐵 , and (II) 𝑅𝐴 /𝑅𝐶 . (ii) If the conductor A is made of copper and the
conductor C is made of constantan (alloy of copper and nickel), then which one of the two will have
more electrical resistance and why?
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
19. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a uniform cylindrical conductor of a given material
depends.
(b) The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10Ω. If the resistivity of the wire is 50 × 10−8 Ωm,
find the length of this wire.
(Term II, 2021-22)
20. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity?
Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
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SOLUTIONS
(2018)
21. Calculate the resistivity of the material of a wire of length 1 m, radius 0.01 cm and resistance 20
ohms.
22. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity 1.6 × 10−8 Ωm. Calculate the length of this wire
to make it resistance 100Ω. How much does the resistance change if the diameter is doubled without
changing its length?
23. The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10Ω. If the resistivity of the material of the wire is 50 ×
10−8 ohm meter, find the length of the wire.
LA (5 marks)
24. If the radius of a current carrying conductor is halved, how does current through it change?
(2/5 Board Term I, 2014)
25. Define resistance of a conductor. State the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends. Name
the device which is often used to change the resistance without changing the voltage source in an
electric circuit.
Calculate the resistance of 50 cm length of wire of cross-sectional area 0.01 square mm and of
resistivity 5 × 10−8 Ωm.
11.6 Resistance of a System of Resistors
MCQ
26. Two LED bulbs of 12 W and 6 W are connected in series. If the current through 12 W bulb is 0.06 A
the current through 6 W bulb will be
(a) 0.04 A
(b) 0.06 A
(c) 0.08 A
(d) 0.12 A
(2023)
1
27. If a person has five resistors each of value 5 Ω, then the maximum resistance he can obtain by
connecting them is
(a) 1Ω
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SOLUTIONS
(b) 5Ω
(c) 10Ω
(d) 25Ω
(2020)
28. The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of 2Ω is
(a) 2Ω
(b) 4Ω
(c) 8Ω
(d) 16Ω
(2020)
1
29. The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance 2 Ω is
(a) 2Ω
(b) 1Ω
(c) 2.5Ω
(d) 8Ω
(2020)
SA I (2 marks)
30. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following electric circuit :
(Term II, 2021-22)
31. Three resistors of 10Ω, 15Ω and 5Ω are connected in parallel. Find their equivalent resistance.
SA II (3 marks)
32. (i) Write the formula for determining the equivalent resistance between 𝐴 and 𝐵 of the two
combinations (I) and (II) of three resistors 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 and 𝑅3 arranged as follows :
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SOLUTIONS
(I)
(II)
(ii) If the equivalent resistance of the arrangements (I) and (II) are 𝑅𝑠 and 𝑅𝑝 respectively, then which
one of the following 𝑉 − 𝐼 graphs is correctly labelled? Justify your answer.
(I)
(II)
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
33. In the circuit given below, the resistors 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 and 𝑅3 have the values 10Ω, 20Ω and 30Ω
respectively, which have been connected to a battery of 12 V. Calculate
(a) the current through each resistor,
(b) the total circuit resistance, and
(c) the total current in the circuit.
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SOLUTIONS
(2019 C)
34. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9Ω so that the equivalent resistance of
the combination is (i) 13.5Ω, (ii) 6Ω ?
(2018)
35. Three resistors of 3Ω each are connected to a battery of 3 V as shown. Calculate the current drawn
from the battery.
LA (4/5 marks)
36. (i) How is electric current related to the potential difference across the terminals of a conductor?
Draw the labelled circuit diagram to verify this relationship.
(ii) Why should an ammeter have low resistance?
(iii) Two 𝑉 − 𝐼 graphs 𝐴 and 𝐵 for series and parallel combinations of two resistors are as shown.
Giving reason state which graph shows (a) series, (b) parallel combination of the resistors.
(2023)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
37. Study the following electric circuit in which the resistors are arranged in three arms 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 :
(a) Find the equivalent resistance of arm 𝐴.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of the arms 𝐵 and 𝐶.
(c) (i) Determine the current that flows through the ammeter.
OR
(ii) Determine the current that flows in the ammeter when the arm 𝐵 is withdrawn from the circuit.
(Term II, 2021-22)
38. (a) List two disadvantages of using a series circuit in homes.

(b) Calculate the effective resistance between 𝐴 and 𝐵 in the circuit given below:
(2020 C)
39. (a) A 6Ω resistance wire is doubled on itself. Calculate the new resistance of the wire.
(b) Three 2Ω resistors 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are connected in such a way that the total resistance of the
combination is 3Ω. Show the arrangement of the three resistors and justify your answer.
(2020)
40. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of 3 cells of 2 V each, a combination of
three resistors of 10Ω, 20Ω and 30Ω connected in parallel, a plug key and an ammeter, all connected
in series. Use this circuit to find the value of the following:
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(a) Current through each resistor
(b) Total current in the circuit
(c) Total effective resistance of the circuit.
(2020)
41. (a) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of
a group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
resistances. (b) In an electric circuit two resistors of 12Ω each are joined in parallel to a 6 V battery.
Find the current drawn from the battery.
(Delhi 2019)
42. For the series combination of three resistors establish the relation 𝑅 = 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 where the
symbols have their usual meanings.
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors of 6Ω, 9Ω and 18Ω joined in
parallel.
43. State ohm's law. Represent it graphically. In the given circuit diagram calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
(ii) the current through each resistor.
44. (a) Prove that the equivalent resistance of three resistors 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 and 𝑅3 in series is 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 .
(b) You have four resistors of 8Ω each. Show how would you connect these resistors to have
effective resistance of 8Ω ?
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SOLUTIONS
45. Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing three resistors 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 and 𝑅3 connected in series with a
battery (𝐸), a rheostat (𝑅ℎ), a plug key (𝐾) and an ammeter (𝐴) using standard circuit symbols. Use
this circuit to show that the same current flows through every part of the circuit. List two precautions
you would observe while performing the experiment.
46. Two wires 𝐴 and 𝐵 are of equal length and have equal resistances. If the resistivity of 𝐴 is more than
that of 𝐵, which wire is thicker and why? For the electric circuit given below calculate:
(i) current in each resistor,
(ii) total current drawn from the battery, and
(iii) equivalent resistance of the circuit.
11.7 Heating Effect of Electric Current

MCQ
47. The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. If other parameters of the electrical
circuit remain unaltered, the amount of heat produced in the resistor will become
(a) four times
(b) two times
(c) half
(d) one fourth
(2023)
48. The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the
circuit remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become
(a) two times
(b) half
(c) one-fourth
(d) four times
(2020)
SA II (3 marks)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
49. (i) State Joule's law of heating. Express it mathematically when an appliance of resistance 𝑅 is
connected to a source of voltage 𝑉 and the current I flows through the appliance for a time 𝑡.
(ii) A 5Ω resistor is connected across a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the energy that dissipates as heat
in 10 s.
(Term II, 2021-22)
50. (a) Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 1.55 × 10−6 m2 .
(Resistivity of the metal is 2.8 × 10−8 Ωm )
(b) Why are alloys preferred over pure metals to make the heating elements of electrical heating
devices?
(Term II, 2021-22)
51. (a) Write the mathematical expression for Joule's law of heating.
(b) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulombs of charge in two hours through a
potential difference of 40 V.
(2020)
52. Write Joule's law of heating.

(1/3,2018)
53. Explain the use of an electric fuse. What type of material is used for fuse wire and why?
54. (a) Why is tungsten used for making bulb filaments of incandescent lamps?
(b) Name any two electric devices based on heating effect of electric current.
LA (5 marks)
55. (i) Draw a labelled circuit diagram of the circuit used to show the variation of potential difference
across the ends of a resistor with current flowing through it. If you use this circuit, what relation
would you find between the voltmeter reading, 𝑉 and the ammeter reading, I?
(ii) A wire of given material having length 'I' and area of cross-section 'A' has a resistance of 4Ω.
Find the resistance of another wire of the same material having length 1/2 and area of crosssection
2 A.
(2021 C)
56. A fuse wire melts at 5 A. If it is desired that the fuse wire of same material melt at 10 A, then whether
the new fuse wire should be of smaller or larger radius than the earlier one? Give reasons for your
answer.
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SOLUTIONS
11.8 Electric Power
MCQ
57. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. The minimum rating of
the fuse wire to be used for it is
(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A
(2023)
58. Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current through the 100 W bulb is 1 A.
The current through the 40 W bulb will be
(a) 0.4 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 1 A
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
59. Write the relation between resistance (𝑅) of filament of a bulb, its power (𝑃) and a constant voltage
𝑉 applied across it.
60. Power of a lamp is 60 W. Find the energy in joules consumed by it in 1 s.

SA I (2 marks)
61. An electric heater rated 1100 W operates at 220 V. Calculate (i) its resistance, and (ii) the current
drawn by it.
(Term II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
62. (a) What is the meaning of electric power of an electrical device? Write its SI unit.
(b) An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2 h. Calculate the energy consumed in
(i) kilowatt hour and
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SOLUTIONS
(ii) joules
(Term II, 2021-22)
63. (i) Define electric power and write its SI unit.

(ii) Two bulbs rated 100 W; 220 V and 60 W; 220 V are connected in parallel to an electric
mains of 220 V. Find the current drawn by the bulbs from the mains.
(Term II, 2021-22)
64. Define the term electric power. An electric device of resistance 𝑅 when connected across an electric
source of voltage 𝑉 draws a current I. Derive an expression for the power in terms of resistance R and
voltage V. What is the power of a device of resistance 400Ω operating at 200 V ?
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
65. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to
electric mains supply of 220 V. Draw a circuit diagram to show this arrangement and calculate the
current drawn by the two lamps from the mains.
(2021 C)
66. Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric
mains supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage is 220 V.
(2/3, 2018, Board Term I, 2014)
67. How much current will an electric iron draw from a 220 V source if the resistance of its element
when hot is 55 ohms? Calculate the wattage of the electric iron when it operates on 220 volts. (Board
Term I, 2016)
68. An electric iron has a rating of 750 W; 200 V. Calculate:
(i) the current required.
(ii) the resistance of its heating element.
(iii) energy consumed by the iron in 2 hours.
69. An electric bulb is connected to a 220 V generator. The current is 2.5 A. Calculate the power of the
bulb.
LA (5 marks)
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SOLUTIONS
70. (a) Define electric power and state its SI unit. The commercial unit of electrical energy is known as
'unit'. Write the relation between this 'unit' and joule.
(b) In a house, 2 bulbs of 50 W each are used for 6 hours daily and an electric geyser of 1 kW is used
for 1 hour daily. Calculate the total energy consumed in a month of 30 days and its cost at the rate of
₹ 8.00 per kWh.
(2023)
71. (a) Define power and state its SI unit.

(b) A torch bulb is rated 5 V and 500 mA. Calculate its
(i) power
1
(ii) resistance (iii) energy consumed when it is lighted for 2 2 hours.
(2020)
72. Two identical resistors, each of resistance 15Ω, are connected in (i) series, and (ii) parallel, in turn to
a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of the power consumed in the combination of resistors in each
case.
(2020)
73. (a) An electric bulb is rated at 200 V; 100 W. What is its resistance?
(b) Calculate the energy consumed by 3 such bulbs if they glow continuously for 10 hours for
complete month of November.
(c) Calculate the total cost if the rate is ₹ 6.50 per unit
(2020)
74. (a) What is meant by the statement, "The resistance of a conductor is one ohm"?
(b) Define electric power. Write an expression relating electric power, potential difference and
resistance.
(c) How many 132Ω resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line? (2020)
75. An electric lamp of resistance 20Ω and a conductor of resistance 4Ω are connected to a 6 V battery as
shown in the circuit. Calculate.
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SOLUTIONS
(a) the total resistance of the circuit
(b) the current through the circuit,
(c) the potential difference across the (i) electric lamp and (ii) conductor, and
(d) power of the lamp.
(Delhi 2019)
76. Compare the power used in 2Ω resistor in each of the following circuits.
(Al 2019)
77. A bulb is rated 40 W; 220 V. Find the current drawn by it, when it is connected to a 220 V supply.
Also find its resistance. If the given bulb is replaced by a bulb of rating 25 W; 220 V, will there be
any change in the value of current and resistance? Justify your answer and determine the change.
(AI 2019)
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 12
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
12.1 Magnetic Field and Field Lines VSA (1 mark)

1. Why do two magnetic field lines not intersect each other?
(2021C)
SA I (2 marks)
2. (a) Name the poles 𝑃, 𝑄, 𝑅 and 𝑆 of the magnets in the following figures ' 𝑎 ' and ' 𝑏 ' :
Figure 'a'
Figure ' 𝑏 '
(b) State the inference drawn about the direction of the magnetic field lines on the basis of these
diagrams.
(Term II, 2021-22)
3. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. Name the device which is used to draw magnetic
field lines.
SA II (3 marks)
4. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
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SOLUTIONS
(a) Why do the iron filings arrange in such a pattern?
(b) What does this pattern demonstrate?
(c) Why do the iron filings near the bar magnet seem to align in the shape of closed curves?
(2020𝐶)
5. Design an activity to demonstrate that a bar magnet has a magnetic field around it.
6. What are magnetic field lines? Justify the following statements:

(a) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other. (b) Magnetic field are closed curves.
LA (4/5 marks)
7. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive materials. She places
a bar magnet in the centre of it and sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet using
a salt-sprinkler. On tapping the board gently, she observes that the iron filings have arranged
themselves in a particular pattern.
(a) Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron filings.
(b) What does this pattern of iron filings demonstrate?
(c) (i) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined using the field lines? Why do two
magnetic field lines not cross each other?
OR
(ii) How are the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet drawn using a small compass needle? Draw one
magnetic field line each on both sides of the magnet.
(Term II, 2021-22)
12.2 Magnetic Field Due to a Current-Carrying Conductor Magnetic Field due to Current
through a Straight Conductor
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SOLUTIONS
MCQ
8. Assertion (A) : The magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight wire do not intersect each
other.
Reason (R) : The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point increases as the current
through the wire increases.
Assertion (A)
Assertion (A)
(2023)
VSA (1 mark)
9. Name the instrument used to detect the presence of a current in a circuit.
(2021C)
SA I (2 marks)
10. List two factors on which the strength of magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying straight
conductor depends. State the rule that determines the direction of magnetic field produced in this
case.
(Term II, 2021-22C)
11. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your observation for the
following cases and give reasons for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor.
(AI 2019)
12. State how the magnetic field produced by a straight current carrying conductor at a point depends on
(a) current through the conductor (b) distance of point from conductor.
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SOLUTIONS
Right Hand Thumb Rule
MCQ
13. The correct pattern of magnetic field lines of the field produced by a current carrying circular loop is
SA I (2 marks)
14. (i) A magnetic compass shows a deflection when placed near a current carrying wire. How will the
deflection of the compass get affected if the current in the wire is increased? What does it indicate?
(ii) State Right Hand Thumb rule.
(Term II, 2021-22C)
SA II (3 marks)
15. Draw the pattern of the magnetic field produced around a vertical current carrying straight conductor
passing through a horizontal cardboard. Mark the direction of current and the magnetic field lines.
Name and state the rule which is used to determine the direction of magnetic field associated with a
current carrying conductor.
(2023)
16. (a) State Right Hand Thumb rule to find the direction of the magnetic field around a current carrying
straight conductor.
(b) How will the magnetic field be affected on:
(i) increasing the current through the conductor
(ii) reversing the direction of flow of current in the conductor?
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SOLUTIONS
Magnetic Field due to Current through a Circular Loop and Solenoid
MCQ
17. For a current in a long straight solenoid, 𝑁 and 𝑆 poles are created at the two ends. Among the
following statements, the incorrect statement is:
(a) the magnetic field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines, which indicates that
the magnetic field is uniform at all points inside the solenoid.
(b) the strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can magnetize the soft iron placed inside it.
(c) the pattern of the magnetic field associated with a current carrying solenoid is different from the
pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(d) The 𝑁 and 𝑆 poles exchange positions when the direction of current through the solenoid is
reversed.
(2023)
VSA (1 mark)
18. What is an electromagnet?

(2021𝐶)
SAI (2 marks)
19. (i) What is a solenoid?

(ii) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of the magnetic field produced by a solenoid through
which a steady current flows.
(Term II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
20. For the current carrying solenoid as shown, draw magnetic field lines and give reason to explain that
out of the three points 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶, at which point the field strength is maximum and at which point it
is minimum?
(2023)
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SOLUTIONS
21. What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines around a current carrying solenoid.
Mark on the pattern the region where the magnetic field is uniform.
(Term II, 2021-22)
22. Give reason for the following

(i) There is either a convergence or a divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current
carrying straight solenoid.
(ii) The current carrying solenoid when suspended freely rests along a particular direction.
(2/3,2020)
23. Find the direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying circular coil held:
(i) vertically in North - South plane and an observer looking it from east sees the current to flow in
anticlockwise direction,
(ii) vertically in East - West plane and an observer looking it from south sees the current to flow in
anticlockwise direction,
(iii) horizontally and an observer looking at it from below sees current to flow in clockwise direction.
24. (a) State three factors on which the strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid
depends.
(b) Draw circuit diagram of a solenoid to prepare an electromagnet.
25. Diagram shows the lengthwise section of a current carrying solenoid. ⊗ indicates current entering
into the page, ⊙ indicates current emerging out of the page. Decide which end of the solenoid 𝐴 or
𝐵, will behave as north pole. Give reason for your answer. Also draw field lines inside the solenoid.
LA (5 marks)
26. (a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
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SOLUTIONS
(c) State the purpose of soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the material of the electromagnet
is fixed.
(2020)
27. What is solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of

(i) a current carrying solenoid and
(ii) a bar magnet.
List two distinguishing features between the two fields.
(Delhi 2019)
28. What are magnetic field lines? List three characteristics of these lines. Describe in brief an activity to
study the magnetic field lines due to a current carrying circular coil.
(Board Term I, 2017, 2016)
29. Draw the magnetic field lines through and around a single loop of wire carrying electric current.
30. What is a solenoid? Draw a diagram to show field lines of the magnetic field through and around a
current carrying solenoid. State the use of magnetic field produced inside a solenoid. List two
properties of magnetic lines of force.
12.3 Force on a Current-Carrying Conductor in a Magnetic Field
MCQ
31. An alpha particle enters a uniform magnetic field as shown. The direction of force experienced by the
alpha particle is
(a) towards right
(b) towards left
(c) into the page
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SOLUTIONS
(d) out of the page
(2023)
32. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in
the figure. The direction of the magnetic field will be north to south at a point
(a) directly above the wire
(b) directly below the wire
(c) located in the plane of the paper on the north side of the wire
(d) located in the plane of the paper on the south side of the wire
(2023)
33. Assertion : A current carrying straight conductor experiences a force when placed perpendicular to
the direction of magnetic field.
Reason : The net charge on a current carrying conductor is always zero.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 𝐴.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of 𝐴.
(c) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
(d) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true.
(2023)
34. Hans Christian Oersted (1777 - 1851) observed that a compass needle suffers a deflection when
placed near a metal wire carrying an electric current. This discovery gave the first evidence of a
connection between electric and magnetic phenomena. Andre
Ampere (1775 - 1836) grasped the significance of Oersted's discovery. He carried out a large series of
experiments to explore the relationship between current electricity and magnetism. On the basis of
experiments, he hypothesised that all magnetic phenomena are due to circulated electric currents.
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SOLUTIONS
Later on many devices such as electromagnets, electric motors, microphones, electric generators, etc.
were developed on the basis of magnetic phenomena.
(i) A magnetic needle is a/an:
(a) isolated north pole pivoted at its centre of mass.
(b) isolated south pole pivoted at its centre of mass.
(c) ordinary needle made of soft iron and pivoted at its centre of mass.
(d) small bar magnet pivoted at its centre of mass.
(ii) A freely suspended magnet always rests in geographically north and south direction because :
(a) the Earth has two poles.
(b) the Earth behaves as a huge magnet.
(c) the magnetic north pole of the Earth's magnet is located very close to its south pole.
(d) the magnetic south pole of the Earth's magnet is located very close to its south pole.
(iii) When a current flows through a straight conductor, a magnetic field is produced around it.
Consider the following statements about this field:
I. The direction of the magnetic field of a current carrying straight conductor is determined by right-
hand thumb rule.
II. A charged body placed in this field experiences a force whose direction is given by Fleming's
lefthand rule.
III. The magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor are in the form of concentric
circles with the conductor as the centre.
The correct statement(s) is/are :

(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I and II
(d) I and III
(iv) The strength of magnetic field of a current carrying solenoid is
(a) minimum at its ends
(b) uniform inside it at all points
(c) maximum at its centre
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SOLUTIONS
(d) zero at its centre
(v) Which one of the following particles would not experience a force while moving perpendicular to
a uniform magnetic field?
(a) A neutron
(b) An alpha particle
(c) An electron
(d) A proton
(2021C)
VSA (1 mark)
35. State the effect of a magnetic field on the path of a moving charged particle. (Board Term I, 2014) U]
SAI (2 marks)
36. When is the force experienced by a current - carrying straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic
field
(i) Maximum;
(ii) Minimum ?
(Term II, 2021-22)
37. (i) Name and state the rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a current carrying
straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to it.
(ii) An alpha particle while passing through a magnetic field gets projected towards north. In which
direction will an electron project when it passes through the same magnetic field?
(Term II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
38. (i) A straight cylindrical conductor is suspended with its axis perpendicular to the magnetic field of a
horse-shoe magnet. The conductor gets displaced towards left when a current is passed through it.
What will happen to the displacement of the conductor if the
(1) current through it is increased?
(2) horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another stronger horse-shoe magnet?
(3) direction of current through it is reversed?
(ii) Name and state the rule for determining the direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a
magnetic field.
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SOLUTIONS
(2023)
LA (4/5 marks)
39. A student was asked to perform an experiment to study the force on a current carrying conductor in a
magnetic field. He took a small aluminium rod 𝐴𝐵, a strong horseshoe magnet, some connecting
wires, a battery and a switch and connected them as shown. He observed that on passing current, the
rod gets displaced. On reversing the direction of current, the direction of displacement also gets
reversed. On the basis of your understanding of this phenomenon, answer the following questions:
(a) Why does the rod get displaced on passing current through it?
(b) State the rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor 𝐴𝐵.
(c) If the 𝑈 shaped magnet is held vertically and the aluminium rod is suspended horizontally with its
end 𝐵 towards due north, then on passing current through the rod 𝐵 to 𝐴 as shown, in which direction
will the rod be displaced?
OR
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor held
vertically on a horizontal cardboard. Indicate the direction of the field lines as well as the direction of
current flowing through the conductor.
(Term II, 2021-22)
40. A current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. Now answer the following.
(i) List the factors on which the magnitude of force experienced by conductor depends.
(ii) When is the magnitude of this force maximum?
(iii) State the rule which helps in finding the direction of motion of conductor.
(iv) If initially this force was acting from right to left, how will the direction of force change if:
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SOLUTIONS
(a) direction of magnetic field is reversed?
(b) direction of current is reversed?
41. State whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if (alpha particles are
positively charged particles)
(i) it is placed in the field at rest.
(ii) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
(iii) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines.
Justify your answer in each case.
42. Describe an activity with labelled diagram to show that a force acts on current carrying conductor
placed in a magnetic field and its direction of current through conductor. Name the rule which
determines the direction of this force.
Electric Generator* (A.C and D.C)
SA I (2 marks)
43. Write the frequency of alternating current (AC) in India. How many times per second it changes its
direction?
44. How is the type of current that we receive in domestic circuit different from the one that runs a clock?
(Board Term I, 2014) U]
SA II (3 marks)
45. (i) Why is an alternating current (A.C.) considered to be advantageous over direct current (D.C.) for
the long distance transmission of electric power?
(ii) How is the type of current used in household supply different from the one given by a battery of
dry cells?
(iii) How does an electric fuse prevent the electric circuit and the appliances from the possible
damage due to short circuiting or overloading.
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SOLUTIONS
(2023)
46. Define alternating current and direct current. Explain why alternating current is preferred over direct
current for transmission over long distances.
12.4 Domestic Electric Circuits

MCQ
47. At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit
(a) vary continuously
(b) does not change
(c) reduces substantially
(d) increases heavily.
(2020)
SA II (3 marks)
The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating.
(1/3,2020)
49. Justify the following statements:

(a) Tungsten is used exclusively for filaments of electric lamps.
(b) Series arrangement is not used for domestic circuits.
(c) Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission.
(2019C)
50. Give reasons for the following:

(a) It is dangerous to touch the live wire of the main supply rather than neutral wire.
(b) In household circuit, parallel combination of resistances is used.
(c) Using fuse in a household electric circuit is important.
51. (a) Fuse acts like a watchman in an electric circuit. Justify this statement.
(b) Mention the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to (i) lights and fans (ii) appliance of
2 kW or more power.
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SOLUTIONS
LA (5 marks)
52. (a) State Fleming's Left-hand rule.

(b) List three characteristic features of the electric current used in our homes.
(c) What is a fuse? Why is it called a safety device?
(d) Why is it necessary to earth metallic electric appliances?
(2020)
53. (a) Name two safety measures commonly used in an electric circuit and appliances. (b) What
precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
54. (a) Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic circuit showing provision of
(i) Earth wire.
(ii) Main fuse
(iii) Electricity meter and
(iv) Distribution box.
(b) Distinguish between short circuiting and overloading.
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SOLUTIONS
PREVIOUS YEAR
QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 10
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 13 Our Environment
13.1 Ecosystem - What are its Components?
MCQ/VSA (1 mark)
Consider the following ecosystems:
1.
I. Ponds
II. Forests
III. Aquariums
IV. Crop fields
Out of these, the natural ecosystems are

(a) I, II and III
(c) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
(2020C)
What will happen if the deer are missing in the following food chain?
2.
Grass → Deer → Tiger
(a) The population of tigers will increase.
(b) The amount of grass will decrease.
(c) The tigers will die.
(d) The tigers will start eating grass.
(2020 C)
A system of interdependent food chains represents

3. (a) food web
(b) trophic levels
(c) ecosystem
(d) community.
(2020 C)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
4. Answer question number 4 (i) to 4 (iv) on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts:
Human body is made up of five important components of which water is the main component. Food
as well as potable water are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants
through agriculture. Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields. These
pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water
bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not
biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The maximum concentration
of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and
body.
(i) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
(ii) Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some
extent.
(iii) Various steps in a food chain represent

(a) food web
(b) trophic level
(c) ecosystem
(d) biomagnification.
(iv) With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a
(a) consumer
(b) producer
(c) producer and consumer
(d) producer and decomposer.
(2020)
5. Food web is constituted by

(a) relationship between the organisms and the environment
(b) relationship between plants and animals
(c) various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem
(d) relationship between animals and environment.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
6. What is an ecosystem?
(Delhi 2017)
7. Why is a lake considered to be a natural ecosystem?

(Delhi 2017)
8. In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be
available to hawks from snakes?
Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks
(Al 2017)
9. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available
to the producers?
Plants → Deer → Lion
(AI 2017)
10. List two biotic components of a biosphere.

(Delhi 2016)
11. Why are green plants called producers?

(Delhi 2016)
12. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level to frog.
(Al 2016)
13. Why do producers always occupy the first trophic level in every food chain?
(Foreign 2016)
14. We often use the word environment. What does it mean?

(Foreign 2016)
15. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains?
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores
(Al 2015)
16. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of
nonbiodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it.
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
(Foreign 2015)
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
17. List two examples of natural ecosystem.
(Foreign 2015)
SA I (2 marks)
18. Use of several pesticides which results in excessive accumulation of pesticides in rivers or ponds, is a
matter of deep concern. Justify this statement.
(2023)
19. (i) Why are crop fields considered as artificial ecosystems?
(ii) Write a common food chain of four steps operating in a terrestrial ecosystem.
(Term II, 2021-22 C)
20. (i) List two human-made ecosystems.

(ii) "We do not clean a pond in the same manner as we do in an aquarium." Give reason to justify this
statement.
(Term II, 2021-22)]
21. In the following food chain, only 2 J of energy was available to the peacocks. How much energy
would have been present in Grass? Justify your answer. Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake →
Peacock
(Term II, 2021-22)
22. What are decomposers? List two important roles they play in the environment.
(Al 2014)
23. List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem. (Al 2014)
24. State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers from the earth. (Al
2014)
SA II (3 marks)
25. What are human-made ecosystems? Give an example. Can a human-made ecosystem become a self-
sustaining ecosystem? Give reason to justify your answer.
(2022)
26. (a) Name the group of organisms which form in the first trophic level of all food chains. Why are
they called so?
(b) Why are the human beings most adversely affected by biomagnification?
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(c) State oneill-effect of the absence of decomposers from a natural ecosystem.
(Term II, 2021-22)
27. What are consumers? Name the four categories under which the consumers are further classified.
(2021 C)
28. (a) From the following group of organisms create a food chain which is most advantageous for
human beings in terms of energy.
Hawk, Rat, Cereal plant, Goat, Snake, Human being
(b) State the possible disadvantage if the cereal plant is growing in soil rich in pesticides. (c)
Construct a food web using the organisms mentioned above.
(2020)
29. (a) Create a food chain of the following organisms. Insect, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
(b) Name the organism at the third trophic level of the created food chain.
(c) Which organism of this food chain will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable
chemicals?
(d) Name the phenomenon associated with it.
(e) If 10,000 Joules of energy is available to frogs, how much energy will be available to snakes in
this food chain?
(NCERT Exemplar, 2020)
30. (a) What is an ecosystem?

(b) List any two natural ecosystems.
(c) We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why?
(2020)
31. What is meant by trophic level in a food chain? Construct a terrestrial food chain with trophic levels.
The energy flow in a food chain is always unidirectional. Why?
(2020)
32. Complete the following flow chart based on ecosystem and its components.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
33. (a) Construct a terrestrial food chain comprising four trophic levels.
(b) What will happen if we kill all organisms in one trophic level?
(c) Calculate the amount of energy available to the organisms at the fourth trophic level. If the energy
available to the organisms at the second trophic level is 2000 J.
(2020) An
34. (a) A food chain generally has three or four trophic levels. Explain.
(b) What is biological magnification? Explain.
(2019 C)
35. Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
(Delhi 2019)
36. What is a food chain? Why is the flow of energy in an ecosystem unidirectional? Explain briefly.
(Al 2019)
37. "Energy flow in food chains is always unidirectional." Justify this statement. Explain how the
pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
(NCERT Exemplar, Foreign 2015, Al 2014)
38. "Our food grains such as wheat and rice, the vegetables and fruits and even meat are found to contain
varying amounts of pesticide residues." State the reason to explain how and why it happens.
(Delhi 2014)
39. What is meant by food chain?" The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited." Give reason
to justify this statement.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Foreign 2014)
13.2 How do Our Activities Affect the Environment?

Ozone Layer and How it is Getting Depleted
MCQ
40. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.
(b) Ozone shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet radiations.
(c) Ozone is deadly poisonous.
(d) Ozone gets decomposed by UV radiations.
(2020)
VSA (1 mark)
41. The depletion of ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why?
(Al 2016)
42. Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of concern?
(Foreign 2016)
43. What is the function of ozone in the upper atmosphere?
(Delhi 2015)
44. Write the full name of the group of compounds mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.
(Foreign 2015)
SA I (2 marks)
45. What is ozone? How is it formed in the upper layers of the earth's atmosphere? How does ozone
affect our ecosystem?
(Term II, 2021-22)
SA II (3 marks)
46. How is ozone formed in the higher levels of the atmosphere? "Damage to the ozone layer is a cause
of concern." Justify this statement.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(2023)
47. (a) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why? (b) Why is
ozone layer getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere? Mention one harmful effect
caused by its depletion.
(Term II, 2021-22)
48. How is ozone layer formed? State its importance to all life forms on earth. Why the amount of ozone
in the atmosphere dropped sharply in the 1980s?
(2020)
49. You have been selected to talk on "Ozone layer and its protection" in the school assembly on
"Environment Day'.
(a) Why should ozone layer be protected to save the environment?
(b) List any two ways that you would stress in your talk to bring in awareness amongst your fellow
friends that would also help in protection of ozone layer as well as the environment.
(Delhi 2017)
50. What is ozone? How and where is it formed in the atmosphere? Explain how does it affect an
ecosystem.
Managing the Garbage we Produce
MCQ
51. Disposable plastic plates should not be used because
(a) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
(b) they are made of biodegradable materials
(c) they are made of toxic materials
(d) they are made of materials with light weight.
(2020C)
VSA (1 mark)
52. Answer question numbers 52 (i) to 52 (iv) on the basis of your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts:
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
India today is facing the problem of overuse of resources, contamination of water and soil and lack of
methods of processing the waste. The time has come for the world to say goodbye to "single use
plastics". Steps must be undertaken to develop environment-friendly substitutes, effective plastics
waste collection and methods of its disposal.
Indore treated 15 lakhs metric tonnes of waste in just 3 years, through biomining and bioremediation
techniques. Bioremediation involves introducing microbes into a landfill to naturally 'break' it down
and biomining involves using trommel machines to sift through the waste to separate to 'soil' and the
waste component. The city managed to chip away 15 lakh metric tonnes of waste at a cost of around
₹ 10 crore. A similar experiment was successfully carried out in Ahmedabad also.
(i) State two methods of effective plastic waste collection in your school.
(ii) Name any two uses of 'single use plastic' in daily life.
(iii) If we discontinue the use of plastic, how can an environment-friendly substitute be provided?
(iv) Do you think microbes will work similarly in landfill sites as they work in the laboratory? Justify
your answer.
(2020)
53. Write one negative effect on the environment, of affluent lifestyle of few persons of a society.
(Al 2016, 2014)
54. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
(Delhi 2015)
SA I (2 marks)
55. "Although gardens are created by man but they are considered to be an ecosystem." Justify this
statement.
(2023)
56. What is the difference between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances? List two methods
of safe disposal of biodegradable domestic waste.
(2023)
57. Kulhads (disposable cups made of clay) and disposable paper cups both are used as an alternative for
disposable plastic cups. Which one of these two can be considered as a better alternative to plastic
cups and why?
(2022)
58. (a) What is meant by garbage? List two classes into which garbage is classified.
(b) What do we actually mean when we say that "enzymes are specific in their action"?
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(Term II, 2021-22)
59. "Industrialisation has adversely deteriorated the environment." Give four reasons in support of this
statement.
(Foreign 2016)
60. Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives
to these bags and explain how this ban is likely to improve the environment.
(Delhi 2014)
61. In some states of our country there is a ban on the use of polythene bags for shopping. Why? List
three advantages of using jute or cloth bags over polythene bags.
(Delhi 2014)
62. "Affluent lifestyle has a negative effect on the environment." Justify this statement with the help of
an example.
(Delhi 2014)
63. Give one example each from your daily life where the domestic waste can be effectively reused and
recycled.
(Al 2014)
64. "To discard the household waste we should have two separate dust-bins, one for the biodegradable
waste and the other for the non-biodegradable waste." Justify this statement suggesting the proper way
of disposal of these wastes.
(Foreign 2014)
65. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways
to make the residents realise that the improper disposal of their waste is harmful to the environment.
(Foreign 2014)
OR
Suppose you find a heap of domestic waste, in a nearby park, which is decomposing. What would
you do to make the people of the surrounding area realise that such type of disposal of domestic
waste is harmful to the environment?
(Foreign 2014)
SA II (3 marks)
66. Write one difference between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. List two impacts of each
type of the accumulated waste on environment if not disposed off properly.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
(2023)
67. (a) Write two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to the
usage of plastic bags.
(b) List any two practices that can be followed to dispose off the waste produced in our homes.
(2020)
68. After the examinations, Rakesh with his friends went on a picnic to a nearby park. All friends carried
cooked food packed in plastic bags or plastic cans. After eating the food some friends collected the
leftover food and plastic bags etc., and planned to dispose them off by burning. Rakesh immediately
checked them and suggested to segregate the leftover food and peels of fruits from the plastic
materials and respectively dispose them off separately in the green and red dustbins placed in the
corner of the park.
(a) In your opinion, is burning plastic an ecofriendly method of waste disposal? Why? State the
advantage of method suggested by Rakesh.
(b) How can we contribute in maintaining the parks and roads neat and clean?
(Delhi 2015)
69. Differentiate between biodegradable and nonbiodegradable substances with the help of one example
each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable waste, for saving
the environment.
CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
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2023-24
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Previous Years Questions

1.1 Chemical Equations

(b) 2Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝑙) → 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + H2(𝑔)

(c) 2Na(𝑠) + 2H2 O(𝑙) → NaOH(aq) + 2H2( g)

(d) 2Na(𝑠) + H2 O(𝐼) → 2NaOH(𝑎𝑞) + 2H2(𝑔)

3. In which of the following, the identity of initial substance remains unchanged?

(b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation

(c) Fermentation of grapes

(d) Digestion of food

(a) 𝑥 = gas; 𝑦 = reaction condition; 𝑧 = gas

(b) 𝑥 = solid; 𝑦 = liquid; 𝑧 = gas

(c) 𝑥 = number of moles of KClO3 ; 𝑦 = reaction condition; 𝑧 = number of molecules of oxygen

(c) (A) is true, but (𝑅) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

7. Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation :

(b) Lead + Copper chloride → Lead chloride + Copper

(c) Zinc oxide + Carbon → Zinc + Carbon monoxide

(Board Term I, 2014)

1.2 Types of Chemical Reactions

(b) 2KI + Pb(NO3 )2 ⟶ PbI2 + 2KNO3

(c) KI + Pb(NO3 )2 ⟶ Pbl + KNO3

(d) KI + PbNO3 ⟶ PbI2 + KNO3

Type of reaction = Decomposition

(b) 𝑋 = Mg; Y = MgO;

Type of reaction = Combination

(c) 𝑋 = 𝐴Al; Y = Al2 O3 ;

Type of reaction = Thermal decomposition

(d) 𝑋 = Zn; 𝑌 = ZnO;

Type of reaction = Endothermic

(b) CaO + H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2 + Heat

(c) CaO + H2 O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + Heat

(d) 2CaO + 3H2 O ⟶ 2Ca(OH)3 + O2 + Heat

14. Study the following chemical reaction:

The reducing agent in this reaction is

15. Assertion (𝐴): In the following reaction

ZnO undergoes reduction.

Reason (R): Carbon is a reducing agent that reduces ZnO to Zn.

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is False.

(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason ( 𝑅 ) is true.

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is False.

(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

(b) endothermic reaction

(c) exothermic reaction

(d) neutralisation reaction.

MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2 O + Cl2

(i) HCl is oxidized to Cl2 .

(ii) MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2 .

(iii) MnCl2 acts as an oxidizing agent.

(iv) HCl acts as an oxidizing agent.

(b) 2AgBr(𝑠) → 2Ag (𝑠) + Br2(𝑔)

(c) 2AgCl(𝑠) → 2Ag (𝑠) + Cl2(𝑔)

(d) CaCO3( s) → CaO(s) + CO2( g)

21. Assertion (A) : Burning of natural gas is an endothermic process.

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but ( 𝑅 ) is true.

22. Consider the following processes