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PHP J1 XRG I
PHP J1 XRG I
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 06 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (03.00 p.m. to 06.00 p.m)
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SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
PART : MATHEMATICS
1. Let P be a square matrix such that P2 = I – P. For IN, if P + P = – 29P and P – P = –
13P, then – is equal to
(1) 40 (2) 24 (3) 18 (4) 22
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(2)
Sol. P + P = – 29 P ……. (1)
P – P = – 13 P
……. (2)
(1) + (2) P = I 21P ……. (3)
2
(1) – (2) P = I 8P ……….(4)
2
P2 = – P
P3 = P– P2 = P– ( – P) = 2P –
P4 = 2P2 – P = 2( – P) – P = 2 –3P
P5 = 2P – 3( – P) = 5P – 3
P6 = 5 ( – P) – 3P = 5 – 8P ………….. (5)
P7 = 5P – 8 ( – P) = 13P – 8
P8 = 13( – P) – 8P = 13 – 21P ………….. (6)
from (3) & f (6)
= 8, = 26
from (4) & (5)
= 6 , – = 10
So + + – s
= 14 + 10 = 24
Let the sets A and B denote the domain and range respectively of the function f x
1
2. , where
x x
x denotes the smallest integer greater than or equal to x. Then among the statements
(S1) : A B = (1, ) – N and
(S2) : A B = (1, )
(1) both (S1) and (S2) are true (2) only (S2) is true
(3) only (S1) is true (4) neither (S1) nor (S2) is true
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
x x 0 x x
x So A = R – I
Also 0 < x x 1 when x
So f(x) (1, ) B = (1, )
A B = (1, ) – N
& A B = (1, ) {R – }
So S1 is true & S2 is false
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
11 11
1 1
3. If the coefficient of x7 in ax 2 and x-7 in ax are equal. Then
2bx 3bx2
(1) 729ab = 32 (2) 64ab = 243 (3) 32ab = 729 (4) 243ab = 64
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans.(1)
r
1
Sol. Tr = 11Cr (ax2)11-r
2bx
22 – 2r – r = 7 3r = 15
r=5
a6
So coefficients of x7 = 11C5 …… (1)
25.b 5
r
1
Tr = 11Cr (ax)11-r 2
3bx
11 –r – 2r = –7 3r = 18 r = 6
1
So coefficients of x–7 11C6 a5 …… (2)
3 6.b 6
from (1) & (2)
11C
a6 a5
5. = 11C6
25.b 5 3 6.b 6
a 1
32 729b
729ab = 32
0 1 2 3
1
area = × (1 + 3) × 2 = 4
2
5. All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written in all possible orders and these words are written as in a
dictionary with serial number. The serial number of the word PUBLIC is
(1) 578 (2) 576 (3) 582 (4) 580
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans.(3)
'PUBLIC '
Sol. 561432
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
6. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x) + f( –x) = 2, x R. Then f x sin xdx is equal to
0
2
2
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 22
2 4
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(2)
Sol. Let I f ( x ) sin x dx ……………. (1)
0
I f ( x ) sin x dx ……………. (2)
0
(1) + (2) 2I 2 sin x dx = 22 I = 2
0
Which is not divisible by 144 for all nN but divisible by 144 for infinitely many values of n if n = 144m
where m N.
1 1 1 1 1 1
8. lim 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 5 ....... 2 2 2 2n 1 is equal to
n
1
(1) 0 (2) (3) 2 (4) 1
2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans.(1)
n n
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 ........ 2 2 2 2 n 1 2 2 2 2n 1
n n
1 1 1 1
lt 2 2
2 3
L lt 2 – 2 1
2 2n
n n
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
L
9. In a group of 100 persons 75 speak English and 40 speak Hindi. Each person speaks at least one of
the two languages. If number of persons, who speak only English is and the number of personas who
speak only Hindi is , then the eccentricity of the ellipse 25 2 x 2 2 y 2 2 2 is
117 129 119 3 15
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 12 12 12
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans.(3)
Sol.
E H
n (EH) = 100
n (E) + n (H) – n (EH) = 100
75 + 40 – n (EH) = 100
n (EH) = 15
n (only English) = 75 – 15 = 60 =
n (only Hindi) = 40 – 15 = 25 =
Now ellipse 25(252x2 + 602 y2) = (60)2 × (25)2
x2 y2
1
602 252
25 25
eccentricity = e = 1
252
8535 =
5
17 7 =
119
602 602 60 12
10. The Sum of all values of for which the points whose position vectors are î 2 ĵ 3k̂ , 2 î 3 ĵ 4k̂ ,
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
11. If gcd (m, n) = 1 and
12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + ….. + (2021)2 – (2022)2 + (2023)2 = 1012 m2 n the m2 – n is equal to
(1) 200 (2) 180 (3) 240 (4) 220
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans.(3)
Sol. 12 + (3–2) (3+2) + (5–4) (5+4)+……….(2023–2022) (2023+2022)
= 1 + 2 + 3+ 4 + 5+….+2022+2023
2023 (2023 1) 2024 2023
2 2
= 1012 2023 = 1012 (17)2 7
M = 17, n = 7
m2 – n2 = (m+n) (m–n) = (17+7) (17–7) = 24 10 = 240
12. Let the vectors a , b, c represent three conterminous edges of a parallelepiped of volume V. Then the
volume of the parallelepiped, whose coterminous edges are represented by a, b c and a 2b 3c is
equal to:
(1) 2V (2) 6V (3) 3V (4) V
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans.(4)
Sol.
Since V abc
1 0 0
Now new volume is
a b c a
2b
3c
0
1 1 a, b, c = V
1 2 3
Let xnx = t
1 dx dt
x nx
x dy dy
1 nx dx dt
dy dy
dt
t ey
dy
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
I.F. = e dy e y
Complete solution is
e
y
t. e-y = .e y dy
xnx e-y = y +c
xnx = ey (y +c)
(1, 0)
x = 1, y = 0
0 = 1. (0 + c) c = 0
( , 2)
x = , y= 2
ln e
ln e2
2
e 2e
6 1 1 0 1 0
Dx = 10 2 10 12 1 2 = –1. (–4 –(–18)(–2)) = ( – 2) ( – 18) + 4
3 5 18 3 2
1 6 1 1 6 1
Dy = 1 10 0 4 1 = 16 – ( – 1) ( – 6)
1 5 0 –6 4
1 1 6 1 1 6
Dz = 1 2 10 0 1 4 = – 10 –4 = = 14
1 3 0 1 – 10
Option 1 : If = –3 D = 6 + 6 = 12 0 So unique solution
Option 2 : If = 3 & = 14 D = 0, Dx = 1 +(–4) + 4 = 0, Dy = 16 –2 × 8 = 0, Dz = 0
Eqn : x + y +z = 6
x +2y +3z = 10 y + 2z = 4
x + 3y +5z =14 y + 2z = 4 So infinite no of solutions
Option 3 : = 3, 14 D = 0, Dx 0 So no solution
Option 4 : = 3, 24 D = 0, Dx 0 So no solution
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
15. Among the statements
(S1) : (p q) ((~p) q) is a tautology
(S2) : (q p) ((~p) q) is a contradiction
(1) only (S2) is True (2) neither (S1) and (S2) is True
(3) Both (S1) and (S2) are True (4) only (S1) is True
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(2)
Sol. S1 : (p q) ((~p) q
(~p q) (~p q)
~p (q (~p q))
~p q t
S2 : (q p) (~p q)
= (q p) ~(p ~q)
= (q p) ~(q p) (Let q p = s)
s s
= (~s) (~s) = ~s = ~ (q p) = ~ (~q p)
= q p c
x 1 y 2 z 3
16. Let the line L pass through the point (0, 1, 2), intersect the line and be parallel to
2 3 4
the plane 2x + y – 3z = 4. Then the distance of the point P(1, –9 ,2) from the line L is.
(1) 74 (2) 69 (3) 54 (4) 9
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans.(1)
Sol. AQ is parallel to 2x + y – 3z = 4
so AQ. 2 î ĵ 3k̂ 0
2(2 + 1) + (3 + 1) – 3(4 + 1) = 0
=0
x 1 y 2 z 3
(0, 1, 2) 2 3 4
so AQ î ĵ k̂
x y 1 z 2
Line L is
1 1 1
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
P(1, –9, 2)
L
F
(, +1, + 2) î ĵ k̂
PF. î ĵ k̂ 0
-1 + + 10 += 0 = – 3
F (– 3, – 2, –1)
So PF = 16 49 9 74
p
17. Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting different numbers on the three dice is , where p and
q
q are co-prime, then q – p is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans.(1)
Sol. Total number of outcomes = 6 6 6
Total number of favourable out comes = 6 5 4
5 p
So probability =
9 q
18. A plane P contains the line of intersection of planes r .( î ĵ k̂ ) 6 and r . (2 î 3 ĵ 4k̂ ) 5 .
If P passes through the point (0,2,-2), then square of distance of point (12,12,18) from the plane P is
(1) 310 (2) 1240 (3) 620 (4) 155
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans.(3)
Sol. Given planes
P1 : x y z 6 0
P2 : 2x + 3y + 4z +5 =0
Equation of plane passing through line of intersection of
P1 = 0 & P2 = 0 is P1 + P2 = 0
(1 +2) x+ (1+3) y+ (1+4)z +(5 -6)=0
It passes through (0, 2,–2)
2(1+3) + 6(1+4) (–2) + 56 = 0
2 + 6–2-+5–6 = 0
3 -6 =0, = 2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
So plane : 5x +7y + 9z + 4 = 0
5 12 7 12 9 18 4
distance of (12,12,18)=
25 49 81
310
d= = 2 155
155
d2 = 4 × 155 =620
19. Let a b be two non-zero real numbers. Then the number of elements in the set X = { z C :
Re(az2 + bz) = a and Re(bz2 + az) = b} is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 3
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(Infinite)
Sol. Let z = x + iy
So Re (az2 + bz) = a
a(x2 – y2) + bx = a
b
x2 – y2 + x 1 …….(1)
a
& Re (bz2 + az) = b
b (x2 – y2) + ax = b
a
x2 – y2 + x 1 ……. (2)
b
b a
(1) – (2) x = 0 x = 0 or a = –b (as a b)
a b
C– I. If x = 0
b
From (1) x2 – y2 + x = 1 – y2 = y2 = – 1 y
a
so z.
Case–II. if a = –b
then from (1) x2 – y2 – x = 1
has infinite solutions
9
20. If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle x2 + y2 – 2x + y = 5 meet at the point R ,2 , then
4
the area of the triangle PQR is:
5 5 13 13
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 8 4
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(2)
81 9
Sol. Length of tangent from R on circle 4 25
16 2
81 72 16 5
L
16 4
1
Radius of circle is r 1 5
4
25 5
4 2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
125 52
.
64 2 = 625 16 5 L3r
Hence area of PQR is = 2
L r2 25 25 128 125 8
16 4
, x IR 1,n N,n 2.
x
21. Let f(x) =
1
1
x2 n
1
If fn (x) = (fofof…. upto n times) (x), then lim x n 2 f n x dx is equal to ______ .
n 0
NTA Ans. (0)
Reso Ans.(0)
x
Sol. fn(x) =
1 nx
1
n n
lim x f x d x =
1 x n 1
n2 n
lt
dx (1+nxn + tn n2. xn–1 dx = ntn-1dt)
n n 0 1
0 1 nx n n
1
1
n 1 n
n 1
n 1 n 1 n 1
n
tn 1 tn 1
=
1 n.t
dt
nn 1 1
= lt
n nn 1
n 1 1
1
lt
n 1n =0
n nn 1
xi 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
fi 4 4 15 8 4 5
are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value of 2 + 2 – is ______ .
NTA Ans. (25)
Reso Ans.(25)
Sol. Subtract 9 in all obs.
xi –7 –5 –3 –1 1 3 5 7
fi 4 4 15 8 4 5
has x 0 & 15.08
x 0 28 20 3 15 8 3 20 35 0 =
Now 2 = 15.08
fi x i2 x 2 15.08
fi
4 49 4 25 .9 15 1 8 1 9 4 25 5 49
= 15.08
40 2
= 5 = 25
Now2 +2 – = 2 + 2 – 2 = 2 = 25
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
23. If + 2 (21)(20)18 + 3(21)2(20)17 + ….. + 20(21)19 = k (20)19, the k is equal to ______ .
(20)19
NTA Ans. (400)
Reso Ans.(400)
2 19
21 21 21
Sol. k = 1 +2 3 .......... 20
20 20 20
21
k = 1 +2r + 3r2 + 4r3 + ………. 20r19 where r = ………… (1)
20
kr = r + 2r2 + 3r3 + …….. +20r20 …………..(2)
by (1) – (2)
(1 –r) k = 1 +r +r2 + …….. + r19 – 20r20
1
k 1
r 20 1
20r 20
20 r 1
20
21
1 20
1 20 21
k 20
20 21 20
1
20
20 20
1 21 21
k 20 20 20
20 20 20
k = 400
x2 y2
24. Let the eccentricity of an ellipse 1 is reciprocal to that of the hyperbola 2x2 – 2y2 = 1. If the
2 2
a b
ellipse intersects the hyperbola at right angles, then square of length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse
is…….
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(2)
x2 y2
Sol. Let e1 be eccentricity of ellipse 1
a2 b2
Let e2 be eccentricity of hyperbola 2x2 – 2y2 = 1
1
e2 = 2 e1 =
2
focus of ellipse S1 (ae1, 0)
1
focus of hyperbola S2 = . 2,0 (1, 0)
2
since both are orthogonal so S1 & S2
are coincident
ae1 = 1 a = 2
1 1
b2 = a2 a 2 1 2 1
2 2
2b2 2
LL’= length of latus rectum = 2
a 2
(LL’)2 = 2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
2 2
25. For , z C and > 1, if 1 is the radius of the circle z z 2 , then is equal
to_____ .
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans.(2)
Ans. z 2 Rez z – 2 Re z 2
2 2 2 2
2 2
2
z z z 0
2 2 2
2 2 2
radius = – 1
2 2
2
2
1 4
2
2
x 1 2 y z 3 x 4 y 1 z
26. If the lines and intersect, then the magnitude of the minimum value
2 3 5 2
of is _____ .
NTA Ans. (18)
Reso Ans.(18)
x 1 2 y z 3
Sol. Let
2 3
x 4 y 1 z
5 2
So (1+2, 2+3, 3 +) = (4+5, 1+2,)
3 5 2 1
1 +2= 4 +5 9 15 4 2 1 )
2 3
2 +3= 1 +2 2+3 = 1 – 2 = –1)
3 + =
3–=–
= – 3
Now 8 = ( –3) = (2 – 3)
D 9
= × 18 Ans. 18
4a 4
27. The number of points, where the curve y = x5 – 20x3 + 50x +2 crosses the x–axis, is ______ .
NTA Ans. (5)
Reso Ans.(5)
Sol. y = x5 – 20x3 + 50 x + 2
Y' = 5x4 – 60x2 + 50
= 5(x4 – 12x2 + 10) = 0
= 5((x2 – 6)2 – 26) = 0
= 5(x2 – 6 – 26 ) (x2 – 6 + 26 )
= 5(x – 6 26 ) (x + 6 26 ) (x – 6 – 26 ) (x + 6 – 26 )
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
– 6 26 – 6 – 26 6 – 26 6 26
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
3 3
= 0
2 2
3
So, f(b) =
2b
1
it passes through a,
2
1 3
So, a3
2 2a
3 1
So, P 1, and Q 3,
2 2
2
So, PQ = 4 + 1 = 5
30. The number of 4-letter words, with or without meaning, each consisting of 2 vowels and 2 consonants,
which can be formed from the letters of the word UNIVERSE without repetition is ______.
NTA Ans. (432)
Reso Ans.(432)
sol. Vowels Consonants
UIEE NVRS
All different = 3C2.4C2 × 4! = 432
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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 06 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
PART : PHYSICS
31. A student is provided with a variable voltage source V, a test resistor R T = 100 , two identical
galvanometers G1 and G2 and two additional; resistors, R1 = 10M and R2 = 0.001. For conducting an
experiment to verify ohm's law, the most suitable circuit is :
G1
R2
G2
(1) RT
R1
G1
R1
G2
(2) RT
R2
G1
R2
G2
(3) RT R1
G1
R1
G2
(4) RT R2
V
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. Voltmeter required high resistance in series to galvanometer and connected parallel with test resistance
Ammeter required small resistance in parallel to galvanometer and connected series with test resistance
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| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude if the junction
is forward biased.
Reason R : Diffusion current in a p-n junction is form the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward
biased.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. Diffusion current through diode is from P side to N side
33. The energy density associated with electric field E and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic wave in
free space is given by (0 – permittivity of free space, 0 – permeability of free space)
E2 B2 E2 B2
(1) UE = 0 , UB = 0 (2) UE= 0 , UB =
2 2 2 2 0
E2 B2 E2 B2
(3) UE = , UB = (4) UR = , UB = 0
2 0 2 0 2 0 2
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
34. As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed m/s. Considering its motion from A to
B, the magnitude of the average velocity is :
B
v
v 120º
A
v =
v 120º
2 / 3
2R sin
s dsiplacmen t 2R sin / 2 2 3 v 3 3v
Vav = = = = 2R 1 .5 3
t time R 2 2 2 2
R R
v 3 3
v
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| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
35. A capacitor of capacitance 150.0 F is connected to an alternating source of emf given by E = 36 sin
(120 t) V. The maximum value of current in the circuit
1
(1) A (2) 2 A (3) 2 2 A (4) 2A
2
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
1 1 1 103
Sol. xC = = =
C 150 10 6 120 18000 10 6 18
Vmax 36 18
max = = = 2.03 2
xC 10 3
36. Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The phase difference of two light waves change if they travel through different media
having same thickness, but different indices of refraction.
Reason R : The wavelengths of waves are different in different media. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
1 n 2
Sol.
2 n1
37. Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The potentials at points a, b and c are 30 V, 12 V and 2 V
respectively. The current through the 20 resistor will be
b
20
a
10
c
30
(1) 0.4 A (2) 1.0A (3) 0.6 A (4) 0.2 A
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.
12V
20
30V
x
10
2V
30
Using KCL
30 x 12 x 2 x
0
10 20 30
220
6 (30 – x) + 3 (12 – x) + 2 (2 – x) = 0 180 – 6x + 36 – 3x + 4 – 2x = 0 x = x = 20 Volt
11
so current in 20 resistance is
20 12 8
i= = 0.4 A
20 20
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38. For an amplitude modulated wave the minimum amplitude is 3 V, while the modulation index is 60%. The
maximum amplitude is 3V, while the modulation index is 60% . The maximum amplitude of the modulated
wave is :
(1) 10V (2) 5 V (3) 12 V (4) 15V
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
A
Sol. m 0.6 A m 0.6A C
Ac
(Aeq)min = AC – Am = AC – 0.6AC = 0.4 Ac
Am = 1.5 Volt
(Aeq)max. = AC + Am = 0.6AC + AC = 1.6AC
A max 1.6A C
4
A min 0.4A C
Amax = 12
39. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 100 N. The gravitational force on it when taken at a
height, from the surface of earth equal to one-fourth the radius of the earth is :
(1) 64 N (2) 25 N (3) 50 N (4) 100 N
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
g
Sol. g' = 2
h
1
R
g 16 16 16
g' = 2
g' = g mg' = mg mg' = 100 = 64 N
R/4 25 25 25
1
R
40. The work function of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the stopping
potential versus frequency plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.24 (4) 1
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. KEmax = h – W
W h W
eVst = h ; Vst =
h e h
slope = h/e = same for each material
Vst
h
Slope = tanq =
e
W
Vth =
h
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41. A particle start with an initial velocity of 10.0 ms –1 along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate
of 2.0 ms–2. The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 ms –1 is____.
(1) 3s (2) 30s (3) 25 s (4) 6s
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. V = 4 + at
60 = 10 + (2) (t)
50
t= = 25 m/s
2
42. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same temperature
is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. T1 = T2 and 1 = 2 (Both diatomic)
VH2 MO2 32 4
VO2 MH2 2 1
44. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from the other end, Pascal's
principle is observed.
Reason R : A change in the pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted
undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of its container.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. Theory based
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1
45. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that its potential energy U = m r2 where is constant
2
and r is the distance of the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr's quantization of momentum and circular
orbit, the radius of nth orbit will be proportional to.
1
(1) n2 (2) n (3) (4) n
n
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
nh
Sol. mvr =
2
nh
mr2 =
2
r n
46. A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry -go round that makes 1 rotation in 3.14 s. The radius of the
merry-go-round in 2m. The centrifugal force on the child will be
(1) 100 N (2) 80 N (3) 40 N (4) 50 N
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
2
2
Sol. Fc m 2R m R
T
Here T= 3.14 =
2
2
= 5 2 40 N
47. A dipole comprises of two charged particles of identical magnitude q and opposite in nature. The mass
'm' of the positive charged particle is half of the mass of the negative charged particle.
The two charges
are separated by a distance 'I' .If the dipole is placed in a uniform electric field ' E ': in such a way that
dipole axis makes a very small angle with the electric field ' E . The angular frequency of the oscillations
of the dipole when released is given by :
8qE 4qE 4qE 8qE
(1) (2) (3) (4)
ml ml 3m l 3m l
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. Bonus
Sol Icm = 2
m( 2m) 2 m g 2
= =
m 2m 3
–PEsin=
PE
=
PE qE 3qE 1.5qE
= =
2 2m m
m 2
3
4qE 1.33qE
Closest option will be (3) =
3m l m
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48. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60ºC to 40ºC. The temperature of the surrounding is 10ºC. The
temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes
(1) 34ºC (2) 32ºC (3) 28ºC (4) 30ºC
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
dQ loss dT
Sol. ms KA T T0
dt dt
(60 40) 60 40
ms KA 10 …..(i)
7 m in 2
40 Tf 40 Tf
ms KA 10 …(ii)
7 min 2
Dividing: Tf = 28°C
49. A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an optical
bench. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex lens are placed
at 80 cm make and 1m mark, respectively. The image of the object pin on the other side of lens coincides
with image pin that is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the estimation of focal length is
(1) 0.85 (2) 1.02 (3) 0.51 (4) 1.70
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
1 1 1
Sol.
f v u
1 1 1 1
=
f 80 20 16
f = 16
error in f
df du dv
2
2 2
f u v
df 0.4 0.4
2
2 16
f 2.0 80
df 6400 400
100 16 0.4 100%
f 6400 400
68 1
= 16 0.4 %
64 4
6 .8 1
% = ± 1.7%
4 4
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50. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200 K is v 0.
Then, r.m.s. speed of the gas at 800 K will be
v0
(1) (2) v0 (3) 2v0 (4) 2v0
4
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
3RT
Sol. Crms = Crms = T
m0
51. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 and 5500 Å is used to obtain interference pattern in
Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2.5 mm and the distance between the
plane of slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance from the central fringe, where the bright fringes
due to both the wavelengths coincide, is n × 10–5 m. The value of n is_______.
NTA Ans. 462
Reso Ans. 462
Sol. n11 = n22
n1 × 70 = n2 × 55
So n1 = 11 and n2 = 14
52. Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and
an electron. So the orbital radius of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 9/x × 10–10 m. The value of the x
1
is : _______ (1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J , = 9 × 109 Nm2/C2 and electronic charge = 1.6 × 10–19C)
4 0
Ans. 16
Ke 2
Sol. = 12.8 eV
2r
Ke
= 12.8
2r
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53. As shown in the figure, the voltmeter reads 2V across 5 resistor. The resistance of thee voltmeter
is_______
3V
5 V
2
NTA Ans. 20
Reso Ans. 20
Sol.
3 3V 0
5 V
0.4
3 0.5 2 0.1
2
32 1
Current in 2 resistance is = = = 0.5
2 2
20 2
Current in 5 resistance is = = = 0.4
5 5
So current in voltmeter = 0.5 – 0.4
= 0.1 A
So for voltmeter V = iR
= 0.1 × R R = 20
54. A metal block of mass m is suspended from a rigid support through a metal wire of diameter 14 mm. The
tensile stress developed in the wire under equilibrium state is 7 × 10 5 Nm–2. The value of mass m
is_____kg. (Take, g = 9.8 ms–2 and = 22/7)
NTA Ans. 11
Reso Ans. 11
mg 4mg
Sol. tensile stress = 2
;
r d2
d2
m = 11 kg
4g
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55. A body is dropped on ground from a height 'h1' and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a height 'h2'. If
the ratio of velocities of the body just before and after hitting ground is 4, then percentage loss in kinetic
x
energy of the body is . The value of x is ––––
4
NTA Ans. 375
Reso Ans. 375
2gh1
Sol. 4
2gh2
h1 = 16h2
mg(h1 h2 ) x
percentage loss in kinetic energy = 100
mgh1 4
x = 375
56. A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis passing through their centres have same radii of gyration.
2
The axis of rotation is perpendicular to place of ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that of sphere is .
x
The value of x is –––––
NTA Ans. 5
Reso Ans. 5
Sol. MR 12 = MK 2
2
MR 22 = MK2
5
2 2
R12 = R
5 2
R1 2
=
R2 5
57. A proton with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV moves into a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude
× 10–3T. The angle between the direction of magnetic field and velocity of proton is 60º. The pitch of
2
the helical path taken by the proton is –––– cm. (Take, mass of proton = 1.6 × 10–27 kg and Charge on
proton = 1.6 × 10–19C).
NTA Ans. 40
Reso Ans. 40
Sol. Pitch = Vcos (T)
2m
= Vcos
qB
2Ek 2m
= cos = 0.4 m = 40 cm
m qB
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58. As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm 2 are joined in such
a way that a b. The equivalent capacitance of the combination is x 0 F. The value of x is ––––
c = 1 mm d=5m
NTA Ans. 5
Reso Ans. 5
C1C 2
Sol. C=
C1 C 2
0 A 0 A
4
= a b = 0 A = 0 200 10 5 F
0
1 1 ab 4 10 3
0 A
a b
59. Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm and 1000 cm, and number of turns 10 and 200 respectively
are placed coaxially with centres coinciding. The mutual inductance of this arrangement will be
____ × 10–8 H.
NTA Ans. 4
Reso Ans. 4
Sol. = MI
m0N2I
IM = (N1) ( R12 )
2R2
m 0N1N2 R12 4 107 10 200 (.01)2
M= = = 4 × 10–4 × 10–4 = 4 × 10–8H
2R 2 2 10
60. A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 10 cm.
x
The maximum tension in the string is found to be N. The value of x is ––––
40
NTA Ans. 99
Reso Ans. 99
2 g 10
Sol. T 2 n 10 rad/sec.
g n 1
g
Vmax = A = A
2
mVmax v2 A2
Tmax = mg + m g max = mg1 2
0.01
Tmax = 0.25 9.8 1 98.98 N 99
1
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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 06 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.)
w
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
PART : CHEMISTRY
61. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH) 2 is
(Assume complete neutralization)
(1) 2.5 mL (2) 5.0 mL (1) 10.0 mL (1) 7.5 mL
Ans. NTA - (3)
RESO - (3)
Sol. Ba(OH)2 + 2HBr BaBr2 + 2H2O
mmol 0.1
required mmol of HBr = 0.2 = 0.02 × Vml
Vml = 10
62. The product, which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is :
(1) HCl (2) H2 (3) NaOH (4) Cl2
Ans. NTA - (1)
RESO - (1)
Sol. NaCl Na+ + Cl–
H2O H+ + OH–
At Cathode At Anode
2H+ + 2e– H2 2Cl– Cl2 + 2e–
NaOH will be formed in solution
HCl is not obtained.
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Sol.
H
+
OH +
+
65. During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by
value of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction.
(1) Both aqueous acidic and neutral (2) Both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline
(3) aqueous acidic (4) aqueous neutral
Ans. NTA - (4)
Sol. In neutral or Faintly alkaline solution
7
4
MnO4 MnO2 + 2H2O
67. Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water ?
(1) Br (2) Li (3) Ga (4) Cs
Ans. NTA - (3)
RESO – (3)
Sol. Boiling point of Br is 60oC, so it vaporise in Boiling water while Ga does not react with boiling water upto
100oC.
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69. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as "Assertion A" and the other is labelled as
"Reason R"
Assertion A : In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5, the metals have zero oxidation state.
Reason R : Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of -donor character in
addition to the -bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
Ans. NTA - (4)
Sol. CO is not a donar ligand rather it is donar & acceptor ligand.
70. Find out the major product from the following reaction.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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71. Structures of BeCl2 in solid state, vapour phase and at very high temperature respectively are :
(1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric (2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
(3) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric (4) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric
Ans. NTA - (1)
RESO – (1)
Sol. BeCl2 in solid state exist as polymeric structure while in vapour state exist as dimeric molecule and in at
high temperature It exist as linear monomer molecule.
72. From the figure of column chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements.
(A) Compound 'c' is more polar than 'a' and 'b'
(B) Compound 'a' is least polar
(C) Compound 'b' comes out of the column below 'c' and after 'a'
(D) Compound 'a' spends more time in the column
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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73. Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below :
Choose the correct option
74. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is a 0, then de Broglie's wavelength of electron in 3 rd orbit
is
a 0 a 0
(1) 3r0 (2) (3) (4) 6r0
6 3
Ans. NTA - (4)
Sol. r3 = 90
2r3 = 33
2 × 90 = 33
3 = 60
75. Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb 2+ ions
(1) lead iodide (2) lead nitrate (3) lead sulphate (4) lead chromate
Ans. NTA - (2)
Sol. Lead nitrate is soluble salt & colourless.
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79. Group-13 elements react with O2 in amorphous form to form oxides of type M 2O3 (M = element). Which
among the following is the most basic oxide ?
(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3 (3) Tl2O3 (4) Ga2O3
Ans. NTA - (3)
RESO – (3)
Sol. B2O3
Al2O3 (Basic
Ga2O3 Character)
Tl2O3
80. Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the given alkaline earth metal ions is :
(1) Ba2+ (2) Sr2+ (3) Be2+ (4) Ca2+
Ans. NTA - (3)
RESO – (3)
1
Sol. Hydration enthalpy
Size of ion
81. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below :
– – –
NO3 + 4H+ + 3e NO(g) + 2H2O E = 0.97 V
– –
V (aq) + 2e V
2+
E = –1.19 V
– –
Fe (aq) + 3e Fe
3+
E = –0.04 V
– –
Ag (aq) + e Ag(s)
+
E = 0.80 V
– –
Au (aq) + 3e Au(s)
3+
E = 1.40 V
–
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by NO3 in aqueous solution is______.
Ans. NTA - (3)
Sol. N O 3 can oxidise V, Fe & Ag.
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82. Among the following, the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is______
(a) 1-Phenylbutan-2-one (b) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(c) 3-Mcthylbutan-2-ol (d) 1-Phenylethanol
(e) 3,3-dimethylbutan-2-one (f) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
Ans. NTA - (4)
RESO – (4)
Sol. (C), (D), (E), (F) will give positive iodoform reaction.
83. The equilibrium composition for the reaction PCl3 + CI2 PCI5 at 298 K is given below :
[PCI3]eq = 0.2 mol L–1, [C2]eq = 0.1 mol L–1, [PCl5]eq = 0.40 mol L–1
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of PCl 5 is______
×10–2 mol L–1
Given: KC for the reaction at 298 K is 20
Ans. NTA - (48)
Sol. PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) PCl5(g)
Mole Mole
At equilibrium 0.2 0.1 0.4 Mole/Lit
Lit Lit
New equilibrium (0.1 - x) (0.3 - x) (0.4 + x)
KC =
0.4 0.4 x
=
0 .2 0. 1 ( 0.1 x ) ( 0.3 x )
0.4 x
= 20 =
(0.1 x ) (0.3 x )
(2 – 20 x) (6 – 20 x) = 0.4 + x
12 – 120 x – 40 x + 40x2 = (0.4 + x)
40x2 – 159x + 11.6 = 0
x = 0.48
84. Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of
pairs of solutions is/are_________
(A) 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. urea
(B) 1 M aq. CaCI2 and 1.5 M aq. KCl
(C) 1.5 M aq. AICl3 and 2 M aq. Na2SO4
(D) 2.5 M aq. KCI and 1 M aq. Al2(SO4)3
Ans. NTA - (4)
Sol. For isotonic solution i1c1 = i2c2
Solution i1c1 i2c2
0.2 0.2
0.2 0.1
0.5 0.5
V 0.8 0.8
85. The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have 'liquid’ as the dispersion medium, is
_____________
Gem stones, paints. smoke, cheese, milk, hair cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather
Ans. NTA - (5)
Sol. Paints, Milk, hair cream, froth, soap lather have liquid dispersion medium.
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86. The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is _______
– – – 2–
XeF4, SF4, SiF4, BF4 , BrF4 , [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [FeCl4]2 , [PtCl4]
Ans. NTA - (4)
Sol. Compound Structure Shape
F F
(i) XeF4 Square Planar
Xe
F F
F F
(ii) [BrF4]– Square Planar
Br–
F F
F –
B
(iii) [BF4] Tetrahedral
F F
F
H3N NH3
Cu
(iv) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ Square Planar
H3N NH3
Si
(v) SiF4 F F Tetrahedral
F
F
F
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88. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C 8H11N, which can be synthesized by
Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is________
Ans. NTA - (5)
RESO – (6)
Sol. C8H11N
DU = 4
Aromatic =
Formed by
Gabriel pthallimided = Only primary aliphatic amine.
CH3
CH2–CH2–NH2 CH–CH3
CH3 NH2
CH3
(R+S)
89. Number of crystal systems from the following where body centred unit cell can be found, is______
Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, Rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic
Ans. NTA - (3)
Sol. Cubic, Tetragonal & Orthorhombic crystal system have body centered unit cell.
90. In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to______ neighbouring molecules.
Ans. NTA - (4)
Sol. Theory based
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