A4

1. ICAO = international civil aviation organization

2. Aircraft operation safety = annex 6
3. Aircaft nationality and registration marks = annex 7
4. License Part 65
Jawaban = License A (Airframe) & C (Avionic)
5. A1.3 = airframe airplane piston engine
6. The validity of certificate of maintenance approval (COMA) is:
a. Remain valid unless it is revoked, suspended or canceled
b. Not exceed 2 years, unless it is revoked, suspended or canceled
c. Not exceed 3 years, unless it is revoked, suspended or canceled
7. The duration of AMO certificate located in the republic of Indonesia
a. 24 months
b. 12 months
c. Still valid until is suspended or revocked
8. The duration of AMO certificate located outside the republic of Indonesia
a. 24 months
b. 12 months
c. Still valid until is suspended or revocked
9. part manufactured in complete complience with established indonesia or specification,
which include design, manufacturing and uniform identification requirement is
a. PMA part
b. TSO part
c. Standard part
10. part for which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the type design instruction of
continuing airworthiness or the maintenance manual is
a. Time limited part
b. Replacement part
c. Newly overhaul part

11. Solve the equation.

-6[-9(-8+4) – 2(7+3)] =
a. -332
b. 216
c. -96

12. What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200 gallons to one of 1680 pounds?

a. 5 : 7
b. 2 : 3
c. 5 : 42

13. Maximum life for a certain parts is 1100 hours. Recently, 15 of these parts were removed from
different aircraft with an average life of 835.3 hours. What percent of the maximum part life has
been achieved?
 a. 75.9 percent
b. 76.9 percent
c. 75.0 percent

14. The radius of a piece of round stock is 8/35. Select the ddecimal which is most nearly equal to
the diameter.

a. 0.4571
b. 0.4375
c. 0.3531

15. which statement concerning heat and/or temperature is true

a. there is inverse relationship between temperature and heat

b. temperature is measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any substance

c. temperature is measure of the potential energy of the molecules of any substance

16.

17 . if the volume of a confines gas is doubled (without the addition of more gas), the pressure will
(assume the temperature remains constant)

a. Increase indirect proportion to the volume increase

b. Remain the same
c. be reduce to one half its original volume.

18.

19. the measurement showing the ideal or perfect sizes of parts on drawings are called

a. allowances

b. dimensions

c. tolerances

20. what material symbol is frequently used in drawing to represent all metals

a. steel

b. cast iron

c. aluminum

21. What is the purpose of a morse taper on large sizes of twist drills?

a. To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling machines

b. To give ensure that the drills fitted correctly
c. To give a positive drive when fitted into a tappered chuck

22. Hammers are classified by

a. Weight and type of head

b. Weight and length of shaft
 c. Shape of head and length of shaft

23.

24.

25.

26.

27. toleran is

a. A permitted difference between new and worn dimension

b. A required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain fit

c. A permitted variation on a dimension to aalow for inaccuracy of equipment

28. The insulating material that keeps the conductors separated is called

a. The impedance
b. The cable dielectric
c. The conductor

29.

30. bend allowance

31. K factor the setback

32. Acetelyne hoses is

a. red, right hand threaded

b. red, left hand threaded

c. green, right hant threaded

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38

39.

40.

41.

42. the pressure drop in compressor discharge air ....... nozzle

 a. exhaust

b. starter

c. turbine

43.

44.

45.

46. The main unit of the accessory section is the :

a. Fuel pump
b. Fuel control
c. Gearbox

47. The ideal compressor will produce the greatest compression with the least:

a. Velocity rise
b. Pressure rise
c. Temperature rise

48. The function of inlet separators is to remove :

a. Air velocity
b. Air pressure
c. Sand and ice

49. On a dual-spool turbo-fan, the fan is normally considered:

a. The first stage of compression

b. The second stage of compression
c. Not to be a stage of compression

50. An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been obtained occurs when the mixture control
is moved to IDLE CUTOFF and manifold pressure

a. Decrease momentarily and RPM drops slightly before the engine creases to fire
b. Icreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly before the engine creases to fire
c. Decrease and RPM increases momentarily before the engine creases to fire

51. A stage of axial flow compressor is:

a. A set of rotor blades

b. A set of rotor blades followed by a set of stator vanes
c. A set of stator vanes

52. Where is air used to cool turbine blades and stator vanes extracted from?

a. The secondary combustor airflow

b. The compressor
c. Inlet ram air
53. Why is a twist present in axial flow compressor blades and fans?

a. To give the trailing edge a uniform axial flow velocity

b. To increase tip speed
c. To increase velocity of flow into stators

54. The reason air pressure increases in the engine diffuser section is that:

a. Air spreads out radially and slows down .

b. Air speeds out axialy and slows down
c. Velocity increases axially

55. Interconnectors in multiple-can and can-annular combustors function primaly:

a. At high power operation

b. At engine shutdown to drain fuel
c. During starting

56. which combustor type require the least cooling air for a given gas temp

a. multiple can

b. can-annular

c. annular through-flow .

57. the twist in a turbine blade is presence to give which of the following conditions to axial air flow
leaving the trailing edge

a. a constant axial RPM from base to tip

b. a constant axial velocity from base to tip

c. a lower axial velocity from base to tip

58. how do the turbine nozzle stator vane become a point of increases gas velocity within the engine
?

a. their trailing edges converge to form a nozzle

b. their leading edges converge to form a nozzle

c. their trailing edges deverge to form a nozzle

59. where is air use to cool turbine blades and stator vanes extract from ?

a. the secondary combustor airflow

b. the compressor

c. inlet ram air

60. a flight engine will more likely have which type turbine wheel installed to drive its compressor ?

a. impulse-axial
 b. reaction-axial

c. impulse-reaction

61. select the correct item in regards to a dry sump engine

a. It contains no oil in its sumps

b. The entire oil supply is contained in its oil tank

c. It has a small residual oil supply in its gearbox sump

62. Select the statement most appropriate to the positive displacement oil pump

a. It has a fixed (positive) oil outlet pressure

b. It pumps a fixed (positive) oil quantity per revolution .
c. It always pumps the same quantity of oil

63. select the most appropriate location of a pressure subsystem oil filter

a. between the oil tank and the main oil pump

b. downstream the main oil pump

c. between the system relief valve and the main oil pump

64. normal oil flow through a bowl type filter is

a. through the screen, the bowl and out

b. into the filter bowl through the screen and out

c. through the filter bypass relief valve, into the filter and out

65. The shear section in a dual fuel pump refers to the fact that if

a. One pumping element fails the other will continue to operate

b. The pump fails internally the shaft will shear to prevent damage to the engine gearbox
c. The main pump fails the boost element will continue to operate

66. If fuel heat is used over the prescribe time interval, which of the following is most likely yo
occur?

a. The fuel filter could bypass

b. Vapor lock could occur
c. Thrust would deteriorate dangerously from loss of bleed air

67. Select the reason a spin chamber is present within each orifice of a duplex fuel nozzle

a. To direct fuel to the primary orifice and secondary orifice

b. To slow the axial velocity of fuel-flow
c. To rotate within the nozzle and prevent carbon buildup .

68. Which of the following forces is used to open the combustor drain valve

a. Gas
b. Fluid
 c. Spring

69. the variable angle compressor stator vane system is designed to

a. prevent overspeeding of the compressor

b. prevent rapid acceleration

c. prevent off idle stalls

70. a turbine engine starter is design to rotate the compressor to which of the following point

a. idle speed

b. above engine self accelerating speed .

c. to ignition and light off speed

71. Pneumatic staters are fitted with an overrunning clutch to prevent the engine from driving the
….. to burst speed.

a. Compressor
b. Stater
c. Turbine

72. along with the overrunning clutch a friction clutch is also provide in the electric starter to

a. prevent excessive torque to the engine gearbox

b. slip if the starter tries to overspeed

c. slip if the engine tries to overspeed

73. Select the correct statement in reference to the main ignition system:

a. After combustion occurs, ignition it terminated

b. After combustion occurs, one igniter plug remains energized
c. After combustion occurs, the system is placed in “continuous” position

74. Which of the following starting system requires no starte unit ?

a. Catridge-pneumatic
b. Impingement
c. Hydraulic .

75. of the following the oil temperature sensor would most likely be located at which point in the
engine

a. the oil cooler fuel inlet line

b. the oil pressure subsystem

c. scavange oil line .

76. inspection of propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspection is accomplished to detect

a. crack or other defect

 b. corrosion at the blade tip

c. torsional stress

77. For takeoff, a constant speed propeller is normally set in the

a. HIGH PITCH, high RPM position

b. HIGH PITCH, low RPM position
c. LOW PITCH, high RPM position

78. What controls the constant-speed rage of constant-speed propeller?

a. Engine RPM
b. Angle of climb and descent with accompanying changes in airspeed
c. The mechanical limits in the propeller pitch range .

79. Where are the hight and low pitch stops of a Hamilton standard constant-speed or two-position
counterweight propeller located

a. In the hub and blade assembly

b. In the counterweight assembly
c. In the dome assembly

80. Which of the following statements about constant-speed counterweight propellers is also true
when referring to two-position counterweight propellers?

a. Blade angle canges are accomplished by the use of two forces, one hydraulic and the
other centrifugal
b. Since an infinite number of blade angle positions are possible during flight, propeller
efficiency is greatly improved
c. The pilot selects the RPM and the propeller canges pitch to maintain the selected RPM

81. most engine propeller combination have one or more critical ranges within which continuous
operation is not permitted. Critical ranges are established to avoid.

a. severe propeller vibration

b. low or negative thrust condition

c. inefficient propeller pitch angle

82. Which of the following defects is cause for rejection of wood propeller?

a. Solder missing from screw heads securing metal tipping

b. An oversize hub or bolthole, or elongated boltholes.
c. No protective coating on propeller

83. An aircraft’s propeller system beta rage

a. Is used to produce zero or negative thrust

b. Is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff
c. Refers to the most fuel efficient pith range to use at a given engine RPM

84. The primary purpose of a cuff on a propeller is to

 a. Distribute anti-icing fluid
b. Strengthen the propeller
c. Increase the flow of cooling air to the engine nacelle

85. The purpose of a tree-way propeller valve is to

a. Direct oil from the engine oil system to te propeller cylinder

b. Direct oil from the engine through the governor to te propeller
c. Permit constant-speed operation of te propeller

86. one of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in
a carburetor is

a. pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow through the carburetor increases.

b. a progressively richer mixture as airflow through the carburetor increases.

c. better fuel vaporization and control of fuel discharge, especially at lower engine speeds.

87. what component is use to ensure fuel delivery during period of rapid engine acceleration

a. acceleration pump

b. water injection pump

c. power enrichment unit

88. which of the following cause a single diaphragm accelerator pump to discharge fuel

a. an increase in venturi suction when the throttle valve is open

b. an increase in manifold pressure that occur when the throttle valve is open

c. a decrease in manifold pressure that occur when the throttle valve is opened

89. blank

90. blank

91. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed

a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired

b. To properply position the power levers
c. To adjust the idle RPM

92. During idle mixture adjustment, which of the following is normally observed to determine when
the correct mixture has been achieved?

a. Changes in fuel/air pressure ratio

b. Fuel flowmeter
c. Changes in RPM or manifold pressure

93. an indication that optimum idle mixture has been obtained occurance the mixture control is
moved to IDLE CUT OFF and manifold pressure

a. decreases momentarily and RPM drop slightly before the engine creases to fire
 b. increases momentarily and RPM drop slightly before the engine creases to fire

c. decreases and RPM increases momentarily before the engine creases to fire

94. The use of less than normal throttle opening during starting will cause

a. A rich mixture
b. A lean mixture
c. Backfire due to lean fuel / air ratio

95. in turbine engine that utilize a pressurization and dump valve, the dump portion of the valve

a. cut off the fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold and dump the manifold fuel into the
combustor to burn just before the engine shutdown

b. drain the engine manifold line to prevent fuel boiling and subsequent deposit in the line
as a result of residual engine heat (at engine shut down) .

c. dump extra fuel into the engine in order to provide for quick engine acceleration during
rapid throttle advancement

96. the ability to maintain attention and remain allert offer long period of time, often no one task is
called

a. selective attention

b. divided attention

c. sustained attention .

97. choose the most appropriate statement relate to some motivation

a. delay punishment creates positive efect

b. immadiate reward creates negative effect

c. immediate punishment create doubtful effect

98. highly motivated people tend to show the following characteristic except :

a. unstinting co-operation in overcoming problem

b. the energy, enthusiasm and determination to succed

c. high performance and result being inconsistenly achieved

99. People who are de-motivated can be categorized as :

a. Lack of motivation
b. Lack of teamwork
c. Lack of awareness

100. the motivated people tend to demonstrate the following characteristics except:

a. poor record and time keeping and high absenteeism

b. lack of cooperation
c. willingness of accomodate change