The nurse is counseling a couple who has sought
information about conceiving. The couple asks the nurse to
explain when ovulation usually occurs. Which statement by
the nurse is correct?
A. Two weeks before menstruation.
B. Immediately after menstruation.
C. Immediately before menstruation.
D. Three weeks before menstruation.
Correct Answer: A. Two weeks before menstruation
2. Question1 point(s)
The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow
breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers
and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer oxygen by face mask.
B. Notify the health care provider of the client's symptoms.
C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: C. Have the client breathe into her cupped
hands.
3. Question1 point(s)
When assessing a client at 12 weeks of gestation, the nurse
recommends that she and her husband consider attending
childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the
couple to attend these classes?
A. At 16 weeks of gestation.
B. At 20 weeks of gestation.
C. At 24 weeks of gestation.
D. At 30 weeks of gestation.
Correct Answer: D. At 30 weeks of gestation.
One hour following a normal vaginal delivery, a newborn
infant boy’s axillary temperature is 96° F, his lower lip is
shaking and, when the nurse assesses for a Moro reflex, the
boy’s hands shake. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A. Stimulate the infant to cry.
B. Wrap the infant in warm blankets.
C. Feed the infant formula.
D. Obtain a serum glucose level.
Correct Answer: D. Obtain a serum glucose level.
5. Question1 point(s)
Which statement made by the client indicates that the
mother understands the limitations of breastfeeding her
newborn?
A. "Breastfeeding my infant consistently every 3 to 4 hours
stops ovulation and my period."
B. "Breastfeeding my baby immediately after drinking
alcohol is safer than waiting for the alcohol to clear my
breast milk."
C. "I can start smoking cigarettes while breastfeeding
because it will not affect my breast milk."
D. "When I take a warm shower after I breastfeed, it
relieves the pain from being engorged between
breastfeedings."
Correct Answer: A. “Breastfeeding my infant consistently
every 3 to 4 hours stops ovulation and my period.”
6. Question1 point(s)
When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to
occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?
A. Sperm count
B. Sperm motility
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume
Correct Answer: B. Sperm motility
7. Question1 point(s)
A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful
during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic
procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse,
one partner states, “We know several friends in our age
group, and all of them have their own child already, Why
can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the
most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this couple?
A. Fear related to the unknown.
B. Pain related to numerous procedures.
C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
Correct Answer: D. Self-esteem disturbance related to
infertility.
8. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following urinary symptoms does the
pregnant woman most frequently experience during the
first trimester?
Correct
Correct Answer: C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
12. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following represents the average amount of
weight gained during pregnancy?

A. Dysuria A. 12 to 22 lb

B. Frequency B 15 to 25 lb

C. Incontinence C. 24 to 30 lb

D. Burning D. 25 to 40 lb

Correct Answer: B. Frequency Correct Answer: C. 24 to 30 lb

9. Question1 point(s) 13. Question1 point(s)

Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester,
are most likely the result of which of the following?
A. Increased plasma HCG levels
B. Decreased intestinal motility
C. Decreased gastric acidity
D. Elevated estrogen levels
Correct Answer: C. Decreased gastric acidity
10. Question1 point(s)
When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing
aching swollen leg veins, the nurse would explain that this
is most probably the result of which of the following?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
D. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
Correct Answer: C. Pressure on blood vessels from the
enlarging uterus

In which of the following areas would the nurse expect to 14. Question1 point(s)
observe chloasma?
Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which
A. Breast, areola, and nipples of the following?

B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs A. Diagnostic signs

C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs B. Presumptive signs

D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose C. Probable signs

Correct Answer: D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose D. Positive signs

11. Question1 point(s) Correct

A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. Correct Answer: C. Probable signs
The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following
is the cause? 15. Question1 point(s)

A. The large size of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a
presumptive sign of pregnancy?
B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles.
A. Hegar sign
C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints.
B. Nausea and vomiting
D. Excessive weight gain.
C. Skin pigmentation changes
D. Positive serum pregnancy test 19. Question1 point(s)

Correct Answer: B. Nausea and vomiting
16. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following common emotional reactions to
pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first
trimester?
A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism.
B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness.
C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion.
D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies.
Which of the following would cause a false-positive result
on a pregnancy test?
A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an
abortion.
B. The test was performed too early or too late in the
pregnancy.
C. The urine sample was stored too long at room
temperature.
D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is
impending.

Correct Answer: D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies Correct Answer: A. The test was performed less than 10
days after an abortion
17. Question1 point(s)
20. Question1 point(s)
During which of the following would the focus of classes be
mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which
sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition? of the following?

A. Prepregnant period A. 5 weeks gestation

B. First trimester B. 10 weeks gestation

C. Second trimester C. 15 weeks gestation

D. Third trimester D. 20 weeks gestation

Correct Answer: B. First trimester Correct Answer: D. 20 weeks gestation

to bond with and get support from other moms-to-be. This 21. Question1 point(s)
is also the time when screening tests or amniocentesis will A client LMP began July 5, 2020. Her estimated date of
be offered, as well as other chromosomal abnormalities, delivery (EDD) should be which of the following?
genetic disorders, and neural tube defects.
A. January 2, 2021
Option D: Third-trimester classes may focus on preparation
for birth, parenting, and newborn care. B. March 28, 2021

18. Question1 point(s) C. April 12, 2021

Which of the following would be a disadvantage of D. October 12, 2020

breastfeeding?
Correct Answer: C. April 12, 2021
A. Involution occurs more rapidly.
22. Question1 point(s)
B. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal
antibodies. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12
weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
C. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the
mother’s body. A. Uterus in the pelvis

D. There is a greater chance for error during preparation. B. Uterus at the xiphoid

Correct Answer: C. The father may resent the infant’s C. Uterus in the abdomen
demands on the mother’s body D. Uterus at the umbilicus
Correct Answer: A. Uterus in the pelvis
23. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following danger signs should be reported
promptly during the antepartum period?
A. Constipation
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Leaking amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: D. Leaking amniotic fluid
24. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values
would the nurse consider as significant?
A. Hematocrit 33.5%
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
Correct Answer: B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thus, a finding of a
titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client
may not possess immunity to rubella.
25. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following characteristics of contractions
would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true
labor?
A. Occurring at irregular intervals.
B. Starting mainly in the abdomen.
C. Gradually increasing intervals.
D. Increasing intensity with walking.
Correct Answer: D. Increasing intensity with walking
26. Question1 point(s)
During which of the following stages of labor would the
nurse assess “crowning”?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
Correct Answer: B. Second stage
27. Question1 point(s)
Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during
active labor for which of the following reasons?
A. The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia,
generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first
few days.
B. These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing
depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after
intramuscular injection.
C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and the lack of
an antagonist makes them generally inappropriate during
labor.
D. Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension,
allergic or toxic reaction, or partial or total respiratory
failure.
Correct Answer: C. They rapidly transfer across the
placenta, and the lack of an antagonist makes them
generally inappropriate during labor.
28. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following nursing interventions would the
nurse perform during the third stage of labor?
A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.
B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
C. Coach for effective client pushing.
D. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
Correct Answer: D. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
29. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s
understanding of the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?
A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.
B. Suctioning with a bulb syringe.
C. Obtaining an Apgar score.
D. Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord.
Correct Answer: A. Placing the newborn under a radiant
warmer.
30. Question1 point(s) 34. Question1 point(s)

Immediately before expulsion, which of the following Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the
cardinal movements occur? newborn?

A. Descent A. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is

diamond-shaped.
B. Flexion
B. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at
C. Extension 8 to 12 weeks.
D. External rotation C. The anterior is large in size when compared to the
Correct Answer: D. External rotation posterior fontanel.

31. Question1 point(s) D. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.

Before birth, which of the following structures connects the Correct Answer: C. The anterior is large in size when
right and left auricles of the heart? compared to the posterior fontanel.

A. Umbilical vein

B. Foramen ovale 35. Question1 point(s)

C. Ductus arteriosus Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below

are present at birth and remain unchanged through
D. Ductus venosus adulthood?

Correct Answer: B. Foramen ovale A. Blink, cough, rooting, and gag

32. Question1 point(s) B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag

Which of the following when present in the urine may cause C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough
a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?
D. Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze
A. Mucus
Correct Answer: B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
B. Uric acid crystals
36. Question1 point(s)
C. Bilirubin
Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?
D. Excess iron
A. The newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from
Correct Answer: B. Uric acid crystals the dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of the foot is
stroked upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball
33. Question1 point(s) of the foot.
When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the B. The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may
following ranges would be considered normal if the begin to cry when exposed to sudden movement or loud
newborn were sleeping? noise.
A. 80 beats per minute C. The newborn turns the head in the direction of the
B. 100 beats per minute stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck when the
cheek, lip, or corner of the mouth is touched.
C. 120 beats per minute
D. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both
D. 140 beats per minute arms and legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat
surface.
Correct Answer: B. 100 beats per minute
Correct Answer: A. The newborn’s toes will hyperextend
and fan apart from the dorsiflexion of the big toe when one
37. Question1 point(s) 40. Question1 point(s)

Which of the following statements best describes Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as
hyperemesis gravidarum? predisposing a client to placenta previa?

A. Severe anemia leading to an electrolyte, metabolic, and A. Multiple gestation

nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical
problems. B. Uterine anomalies

B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to an electrolyte, C. Abdominal trauma

metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of
other medical problems
C. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly
results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal
nutrients.
D. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause
gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal bleeding.
Correct Answer: B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to
the electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the
absence of other medical problems.
38. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic
sign of PIH?
A. Edema of the feet and ankles
B. Edema of the hands and face
C. Weight gain of 1 lb/week
D. Renal or vascular disease
Correct Answer: A. Multiple gestation.
41. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client
experiencing abruptio placenta?
A. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
C. Palpable fetal outline
D. Soft and nontender abdomen
Correct Answer: B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
42. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following is described as premature
separation of a normally implanted placenta during the
second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?

D. Early morning headache A. Placenta previa

Correct Answer: B. Edema of the hands and face B. Ectopic pregnancy

39. Question1 point(s) C. Incompetent cervix

In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions D. Abruptio placenta

would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a Correct Answer: D. Abruptio placentae
negative pregnancy test?
43. Question1 point(s)
A. Threatened
Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes
B. Imminent overstimulated by oxytocin during the induction of labor?
C. Missed A. Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds.
D. Incomplete B. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90
Correct Answer: C. Missed seconds.

C. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding.

D. Increased restlessness and anxiety.

Correct Answer: B. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more

than 90 seconds
 Correct Answer: B. PROM removes the fetus most effective
defense against infection
44. Question1 point(s)
47. Question1 point(s)
When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the
following key concepts should be considered when Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of
implementing nursing care? dystocia?

A. Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the A. Nutritional

family lounge until after the delivery.
B. Mechanical
B. Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia
department to explain what to expect postoperatively. C. Environmental

C. Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of D. Medical

either a planned or emergency cesarean birth. Incorrect
D. Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind of Correct Answer: B. Mechanical
anesthetics.
48. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: C. Modify preoperative teaching to meet
the needs of either a planned or emergency cesarean birth When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following would
be the priority?
45. Question1 point(s)
A. Limiting hypovolemic shock.
Which of the following best describes preterm labor?
B. Obtaining blood specimens.
A. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before
37 weeks gestation. C. Instituting complete bed rest.

B. Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and before
37 weeks gestation
C. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before
28 weeks gestation.
D. Inserting a urinary catheter.
Correct Answer: A. Limiting hypovolemic shock
49. Question1 point(s)

D. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when
40 weeks gestation. umbilical cord prolapse occurs?

Correct Answer: A. Labor that begins after 20 weeks
gestation and before 37 weeks gestation
46. Question1 point(s)
When PROM occurs, which of the following provides
evidence of the nurse’s understanding of the client’s
immediate needs?
A. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the
onset of labor.
A. Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR.
B. Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed.
C. Notify the physician and prepare the client for delivery.
D. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the exposed cord.
Correct Answer: B. Place the client in a knee-chest position
in bed
50. Question1 point(s)

B. PROM removes the fetus's most effective defense
against infection.
C. Nursing care is based on fetal viability and gestational
age.
Which of the following amounts of blood loss following
birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum
hemorrhage?
A. More than 200 ml

D. PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly B. More than 300 ml

incompetent cervix.
C. More than 400 ml
D. More than 500 ml
Correct Answer: D. More than 500 ml
51. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor
related to mastitis?
A. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing in
the lactiferous glands and ducts.
B. Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing in
the peri glandular connective tissue.
C. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased
perception of the urge to avoid.
D. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and
cracking of the nipples.
Correct Answer: D. Breast injury caused by overdistention,
stasis, and cracking of the nipples
52. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?
A. Inflammation and clot formation that result when blood
components combine to form an aggregate body.
B. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become
lodged within the pulmonary blood vessels.
C. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become
lodged within the femoral vein.
D. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot
formation on the vessel wall.
Correct Answer: D. Inflammation of the vascular
endothelium with clot formation on the vessel wall
53. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse
expect if the client develops DVT?
A. Mid Calf pain, tenderness, and redness along the vein.
B. Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery.
C. Muscle pain, the presence of Homans sign, and swelling
in the affected limb.
D. Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days
after delivery.
Correct Answer: C. Muscle pain the presence of Homans
sign, and swelling in the affected limb
54. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following are the most commonly assessed
findings in cystitis?
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and
flank pain.
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency, dysuria, hematuria, fever,
and suprapubic pain.
C. Dehydration, Hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain,
chills, and fever.
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria,
and frequency.
Correct Answer: B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria,
hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
55. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following best reflects the frequency of
reported postpartum “blues”?
A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
Correct Answer: C. Between 50% and 80% of all new
mothers report some form of postpartum blues
56. Question1 point(s)
For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse
informs the client about the need to take the pill at the
same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
A. Decrease the incidence of nausea.
B. Maintain hormonal levels.
C. Reduce side effects.
D. Prevent drug interactions.
Correct Answer: B. Maintain hormonal levels
57. Question1 point(s)

When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the 61. Question1 point(s)
following would the nurse include as the most effective
method for preventing sexually transmitted infections? Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for
the teaching plan when caring for a pregnant teenager
A. Spermicides concerned about gaining too much weight during
pregnancy?
B. Diaphragm
A. 10 pounds per trimester.
C. Condoms
B. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks.
D. Vasectomy
C. ½ pound per week for 40 weeks.
Correct Answer: C. Condoms
D. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds.
58. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: D. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for
discharge, recommendations for which of the following 62. Question1 point(s)
contraceptive methods would be avoided?
The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period
A. Diaphragm started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using
Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of
B. Female condom the following?
C. Oral contraceptives A. September 27
D. Rhythm method B. October 21
Correct Answer: A. Diaphragm C. November 7
59. Question1 point(s) D. December 27
For which of the following clients would the nurse expect Correct Answer: B. October 21
that an intrauterine device would not be recommended?
63. Question1 point(s)
A. Woman over age 35
When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who
B. Nulliparous woman states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter
C. Promiscuous young adult born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8
weeks,” the nurse should record her obstetrical history as
D. Postpartum client which of the following?

Correct Answer: C. Promiscuous young adult A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2

60. Question1 point(s) B. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2

A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2

constipated all the time!” Which of the following should the
nurse recommend? D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

A. Daily enemas Correct Answer: D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

B. Laxatives 64. Question1 point(s)

C. Increased fiber intake When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’
gestation, the nurse would use which of the following?
D. Decreased fluid intake
A. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus.
Correct Answer: C. Increased fiber intake
B. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region.
 C. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and 68. Question1 point(s)
the xiphoid process.
Which of the following would be the priority nursing
D. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus. diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?

Correct Answer: B. Doppler placed midline at the A. Risk for infection

suprapubic region
B. Pain

C. Knowledge Deficit
65. Question1 point(s)
D. Anticipatory Grieving
When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed
with gestational diabetes, which of the following Correct Answer: B. Pain
instructions would be the priority? 69. Question1 point(s)
A. Dietary intake Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness
B. Medication and position in relation to the umbilicus and midline, which
of the following should the nurse do first?
C. Exercise
A. Assess the vital signs.
D. Glucose monitoring
B. Administer analgesia.
Correct Answer: A. Dietary intake
C. Ambulate her in the hall.
66. Question1 point(s)
D. Assist her to urinate.
A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4
weeks. Which of the following would be the priority when Correct Answer: D. Assist her to urinate
assessing the client? 70. Question1 point(s)
A. Glucosuria Which of the following should the nurse do when a
B. Depression primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore
nipples?
C. Hand/face edema
A. Tell her to breastfeed more frequently.
D. Dietary intake
B. Administer a narcotic before breastfeeding.
Correct Answer: C. Hand/face edema
C. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere.
67. Question1 point(s)
D. Use soap and water to clean the nipples.
A client 12 weeks’ pregnant came to the emergency
department with abdominal cramping and moderate Correct Answer: A. Tell her to breastfeed more frequently
vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cm 71. Question1 point(s)
cervical dilation.The nurse would document these findings
as which of the following? The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’
postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60; temperature
A. Threatened abortion 100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which
B. Imminent abortion f the following should the nurse do first?

C. Complete abortion A. Report the temperature to the physician.

D. Missed abortion B. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff.

Correct Answer: B. Imminent abortion C. Assess the uterus for firmness and position.

D. Determine the amount of lochia.

Correct Answer: D. Determine the amount of lochia

 75. Question1 point(s)

72. Question1 point(s)
The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge
(lochia) on four clients. Which of the following assessments
would warrant notification of the physician?
Which of the following actions would be least effective in
maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the
newborn?
A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer after bathing.

A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client.
B. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days
postpartum.
C. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks
after delivery.
B. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to
weighing.
C. Placing the crib close to the nursery window for family
viewing.
D. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette.

D. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery. Correct Answer: C. Placing the crib close to the nursery
window for family viewing.
Correct Answer: D. A bright red discharge 5 days after
delivery

73. Question1 point(s)

A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a

uterus that is tender when palpated, remains unusually
large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of
the following should the nurse assess next?

A. Lochia

B. Breasts

C. Incision

D. Urine

Correct Answer: A. Lochia

74. Question1 point(s)

Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing

practice with the current early postpartum discharge?

A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health.

B. Exploring the emotional status of the family.

C. Facilitating safe and effective self and newborn care.

D. Teaching about the importance of family planning.

Correct Answer: C. Facilitating safe and effective self and

newborn care
QUIZ #2
A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours and had
ruptured membranes for 24 hours. For which of the
following would the nurse be alert?
A. Endometritis
B. Endometriosis
C. Salpingitis
D. Pelvic thrombophlebitis
Correct Answer: A. Endometritis
2. Question1 point(s)
A client at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for a routine
ultrasound prior to amniocentesis. After teaching the client
about the purpose of the ultrasound, which of the following
client statements would indicate to the nurse in charge that
the client needs further instruction?
A. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta.
B. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the
umbilical cord.
C. The test will determine where to insert the needle.
D. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid.
Correct Answer: B. The ultrasound identifies blood flow
through the umbilical cord.
3. Question1 point(s)
While the postpartum client is receiving heparin for
thrombophlebitis, which of the following drugs would the
nurse expect to administer if the client develops
complications related to heparin therapy?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Methylergonovine (Methergine)
D. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
Correct Answer: B. Protamine sulfate
4. Question1 point(s)
When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is receiving
phototherapy to treat jaundice, the nurse in charge would
expect to do which of the following?
A. Turn the neonate every 6 hours
B. Encourage the mother to discontinue breastfeeding.
C. Notify the physician if the skin becomes bronze in color.
D. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours.
Correct Answer: D. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours
5. Question1 point(s)
A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days post-term. The
client desires a bilateral pudendal block anesthesia before
delivery. After the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to
the client, which of the following locations identified by the
client as the area of relief would indicate to the nurse that
the teaching was effective?
A. Back
B. Abdomen
C. Fundus
D. Perineum
Correct Answer: D. Perineum
6. Question1 point(s)
The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and
1-week gestation. After explaining self-care measures for
common discomforts of pregnancy, the nurse determines
that the client understands the instructions when she says:
A. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few
crackers before rising.”
B. “If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse my nipples
with soap and water.”
C. “If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear nylon
underwear.”
D. “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the
area.”
Correct Answer: A. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased
if I eat a few crackers before arising”
7. Question1 point(s)
Forty-eight hours after delivery, the nurse in charge plans
discharge teaching for the client about infant care. By this
time, the nurse expects that the phase of postpartum
psychological adaptation that the client would be in would
be termed which of the following?
A. Taking in
B. Letting go
C. Taking hold
D. Resolution 11. Question1 point(s)

Correct Answer: C. Taking hold A primigravida client at 25 weeks gestation visits the clinic
and tells the nurse that her lower back aches when she
arrives home from work. The nurse should suggest that the
8. Question1 point(s) client perform:

A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. A. Tailor sitting

In explaining the diagnosis, the nurse tells the client that the B. Leg lifting
usual treatment for partial placenta previa is which of the
following? C. Shoulder circling

A. Activity limited to bed rest. D. Squatting exercises

B. Platelet infusion. Correct Answer: A. Tailor sitting

C. Immediate cesarean delivery. 12. Question1 point(s)

D. Labor induction with oxytocin.
Correct Answer: A. Activity limited to bed rest
9. Question1 point(s)
The nurse plans to instruct the postpartum client about
methods to prevent breast engorgement. Which of the
following measures would the nurse include in the teaching
plan?
A. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side
on the first day.
B. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields.
C. Breastfeeding the neonate at frequent intervals.
D. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours.
Correct Answer: C. Breastfeeding the neonate at frequent
intervals
Which of the following would the nurse in charge do first
after observing a 2-cm circle of bright red bleeding on the
diaper of a neonate who just had a circumcision?
A. Notify the neonate’s pediatrician immediately.
B. Check the diaper and circumcision again in 30 minutes.
C. Secure the diaper tightly to apply pressure on the site.
D. Apply gentle pressure to the site with a sterile gauze pad.
Correct Answer: D. Apply gentle pressure to the site with a
sterile gauze pad
13. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse most likely expect
to find when assessing a pregnant client with abruption
placenta?
A. Excessive vaginal bleeding

10. Question1 point(s) B. Rigid, board-like abdomen

When the nurse on duty accidentally bumps the bassinet, C. Tetanic uterine contractions
the neonate throws out its arms, hands open, and begins to
cry. The nurse interprets this reaction as indicative of which D. Premature rupture of membranes
of the following reflexes? Correct Answer: B. Rigid, board-like abdomen
A. Startle reflex 14. Question1 point(s)
B. Babinski reflex While the client is in active labor with twins and the cervix
C. Grasping reflex is 5 cm dilated, the nurse observes contractions occurring
at a rate of every 7 to 8 minutes in a 30-minute period.
D. Tonic neck reflex Which of the following would be the nurse’s most
appropriate action?
Correct Answer: A. Startle reflex
A. Note the fetal heart rate patterns.

B. Notify the physician immediately.

C. Administer oxygen at 6 liters by mask.
D. Have the client pant-blow during the contractions.
Correct Answer: B. Notify the physician immediately.
15. Question1 point(s)
A client tells the nurse, “I think my baby likes to hear me
talk to him.” When discussing neonates and stimulation
with sound, which of the following would the nurse include
as a means to elicit the best response?
A. High-pitched speech with tonal variations.
B. Low-pitched speech with a sameness of tone.
C. Cooing sounds rather than words.
D. Repeated stimulation with loud sounds.
Correct Answer: A. High-pitched speech with tonal
variations
16. Question1 point(s)
A 31-year-old multipara is admitted to the birthing room
after initial examination reveals her cervix to be at 8 cm,
completely effaced (100 %), and at 0 station. What phase of
labor is she in?
A. Active phase
B. Latent phase
C. Expulsive phase
D. Transitional phase
Correct Answer: D. Transitional phase
17. Question1 point(s)
A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take castor oil
for her constipation. How should the nurse respond?
A. “Yes, it produces no adverse effect.”
B. “No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions.”
C. “No, it can promote sodium retention.”
D. “No, it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble
vitamins.”
Correct Answer: B. “No, it can initiate premature uterine
contractions.”
18. Question1 point(s)
A patient in her 14th week of pregnancy has presented with
abdominal cramping and vaginal bleeding for the past 8
hours. She has passed several clots. What is the primary
nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A. Knowledge deficit
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Anticipatory grieving
D. Pain
Correct Answer: B. Fluid volume deficit
19. Question1 point(s)
Immediately after delivery, the nurse-midwife assesses the
neonate’s head for signs of molding. Which factors
determine the type of molding?
A. Fetal body flexion or extension
B. Maternal age, body frame, and weight
C. Maternal and paternal ethnic backgrounds
D. Maternal parity and gravidity
Correct Answer: A. Fetal body flexion or extension
20. Question1 point(s)
For a patient in active labor, the nurse-midwife plans to use
an internal electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) device. What
must occur before the internal EFM can be applied?
A. The membranes must rupture.
B. The fetus must be at 0 station.
C. The cervix must be dilated fully.
D. The patient must receive anesthesia.
Correct Answer: A. The membranes must rupture.
21. Question1 point(s)
A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor delivery
area. Assessment reveals that she is in the early part of the
first stage of labor. Her pain is likely to be most intense:
A. Around the pelvic girdle
B. Around the pelvic girdle and in the upper arms
C. Around the pelvic girdle and at the perineum
D. At the perineum
Correct Answer: A. Around the pelvic girdle C. Cool incubator walls

22. Question1 point(s) D. Cool room temperature

A female adult patient is taking a progestin-only oral Correct Answer: C. Cools incubator walls
contraceptive or mini pill. Progestin use may increase the
patient’s risk for: 26. Question1 point(s)

A. Endometriosis After administering bethanechol to a patient with urine

retention, the nurse in charge monitors the patient for
B. Female hypogonadism adverse effects. Which is most likely to occur?

C. Premenstrual syndrome A. Decreased peristalsis

D. Tubal or ectopic pregnancy B. Increase heart rate

Correct Answer: D. Tubal or ectopic pregnancy C. Dry mucous membranes

D. Nausea and Vomiting

23. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: D. Nausea and Vomiting

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension probably 27. Question1 point(s)

exhibits which of the following symptoms?
The nurse in charge is caring for a patient who is in the first
A. Proteinuria, headaches, vaginal bleeding stage of labor. What is the shortest but most difficult part
of this stage?
B. Headaches, double vision, vaginal bleeding
A. Active phase
C. Proteinuria, headaches, double vision
B. Complete phase
D. Proteinuria, double vision, uterine contractions
C. Latent phase
Correct Answer: C. Proteinuria, headaches, double vision
D. Transitional phase
24. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: D. Transitional phase
Because cervical effacement and dilation are not
progressing in a patient in labor, the doctor orders I.V. 28. Question1 point(s)
administration of oxytocin (Pitocin). Why should the nurse
monitor the patient’s fluid intake and output closely during After 3 days of breastfeeding, a postpartum patient reports
oxytocin administration? nipple soreness. To relieve her discomfort, the nurse should
suggest that she:
A. Oxytocin causes water intoxication.
A. Apply warm compresses to her nipples just before
B. Oxytocin causes excessive thirst. feeding.

C. Oxytocin is toxic to the kidneys.
D. Oxytocin has a diuretic effect.
Correct Answer: A. Oxytocin causes water intoxication.
25. Question1 point(s)
Five hours after birth, a neonate is transferred to the
nursery, where the nurse intervenes to prevent
hypothermia. What is a common source of radiant heat
loss?
A. Low room humidity
B. Cold weight scale
B. Lubricate her nipples with expressed milk before
feeding.
C. Dry her nipples with a soft towel after feeding.
D. Apply soap directly to her nipples, and then rinse.
Correct Answer: B. Lubricate her nipples with expressed
milk before feeding
29. Question1 point(s)
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is
8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she
can expect to feel the fetus move at which time?

A. Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation
B. Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.
C. Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation.
D. Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation.
Correct Answer: B. Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.
30. Question1 point(s)
Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery
include:
A. Bright red blood
B. Large clots or tissue fragments
C. A foul odor
D. The complete absence of lochia
Correct Answer: A. Bright red blood
31. Question1 point(s)
Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to
the labor and delivery area. The client states that she is in
labor and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal
care. Which question should the nurse ask her first?
A. “Do you have any chronic illness?”
B. “Do you have any allergies?”
C. “What is your expected due date?”
D. “Who will be with you during labor?”
Correct Answer: C. “What is your expected due date?”
32. Question1 point(s)
A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage,
how frequently should the nurse in charge assess her
uterine contractions?
A. Every 5 minutes.
B. Every 15 minutes.
C. Every 30 minutes.
D. Every 60 minutes.
Correct Answer: B. Every 15 minutes
33. Question1 point(s)
A patient is in her last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Vickie
should instruct her to notify her primary health care
provider immediately if she notices:
A. Blurred vision
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Increased vaginal mucus
D. Shortness of breath on exertion
Correct Answer: A. Blurred vision
34. Question1 point(s)
The nurse in-charge is reviewing a patient’s prenatal
history. Which finding indicates a genetic risk factor?
A. The patient is 25 years old.
B. The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis.
C. The patient was exposed to rubella at 36 weeks’
gestation.
D. The patient has a history of preterm labor at 32 weeks’
gestation.
Correct Answer: B. The patient has a child with cystic
fibrosis
35. Question1 point(s)
An adult female patient is using the rhythm (calendar-basal
body temperature) method of family planning. In this
method, the unsafe period for sexual intercourse is
indicated by:
A. Return preovulatory basal body temperature.
B. Basal body temperature increase of 0.1 degrees to 0.2
degrees on the 2nd or 3rd day of cycle.
C. 3 full days of elevated basal body temperature and clear,
thin cervical mucus.
D. Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz.
Correct Answer: C. 3 full days of elevated basal body
temperature and clear, thin cervical mucus.
36. Question1 point(s)
During a nonstress test (NST), the electronic tracing displays
a relatively flat line for fetal movement, making it difficult
to evaluate the fetal heart rate (FHR). To mark the strip, the
nurse in charge should instruct the client to push the
control button at which time?

A. At the beginning of each fetal movement.
B. At the beginning of each contraction.
C. After every three fetal movements
D. At the end of fetal movement.
Correct Answer: A. At the beginning of each fetal
movement
37. Question1 point(s)
When evaluating a client’s knowledge of symptoms to
report during her pregnancy, which statement would
indicate to the nurse in charge that the client understands
the information given to her?
A. “I’ll report increased frequency of urination.”
B. “If I have blurred or double vision, I should call the clinic
immediately.”
C. “If I feel tired after resting, I should report it
immediately.”
D. “Nausea should be reported immediately.”
Correct Answer: B. “If I have blurred or double vision, I
should call the clinic immediately.”
38. Question1 point(s)
When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit, the
nurse discovers that the client had a reduction
mammoplasty. The mother indicates she wants to breast-
feed. What information should the nurse give to this
moTher regarding breastfeeding success?
A. “It’s contraindicated for you to breastfeed following this
type of surgery.”
B. “I support your commitment; however, you may have to
supplement each feeding with formula.”
C. “You should check with your surgeon to determine
whether breast-feeding would be possible.”
D. “You should be able to breastfeed without difficulty.”
Correct Answer: B. “I support your commitment; however,
you may have to supplement each feeding with formula.”
39. Question1 point(s)
Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the client’s
vagina reveals a fourth-degree laceration. Which of the
following would be contraindicated when caring for this
client?
A. Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24
hours.
B. Instructing the client to use two or more peri pads to
cushion the area.
C. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered.
D. Instructing the client about the importance of perineal
(Kegel) exercises.
Correct Answer: B. Instructing the client to use two or more
peri pads to cushion the area
40. Question1 point(s)
A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal clinic. Although
she is 14 weeks pregnant, the size of her uterus
approximates that in an 18- to 20-week pregnancy. Dr.
Charles diagnoses gestational trophoblastic disease and
orders ultrasonography. The nurse expects ultrasonoraphy
to reveal:
A. An empty gestational sac.
B. Grapelike clusters.
C. A severely malformed fetus.
D. An extrauterine pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B. Grapelike clusters.
41. Question1 point(s)
After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in
labor, the nurse-midwife determines that the fetus is in the
right occiput anterior position and at (–1) station. Based on
these findings, the nurse-midwife knows that the fetal
presenting part is:
A. 1 cm below the ischial spines.
B. Directly in line with the ischial spines.
C. 1 cm above the ischial spines.
D. In no relationship to the ischial spines.
Correct Answer: C. 1 cm above the ischial spines.
42. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in
a mother who’s breastfeeding?
A. The attachment of the baby to the breast.
B. The mother’s comfort level with positioning the baby.
C. Audible swallowing.
D. The baby’s lips smacking.
Correct Answer: D. The baby’s lips smacking
43. Question1 point(s)
During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation, a pregnant
client asks whether tests can be done to identify fetal
abnormalities. Between 18 and 40 weeks gestation, which
procedure is used to detect fetal anomalies?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villi sampling
C. Fetoscopy
D. Ultrasound
Correct Answer: D. Ultrasound
44. Question1 point(s)
A client, 30 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for a biophysical
profile (BPP) to evaluate the health of her fetus. Her BPP
score is 8. What does this score indicate?
A. The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours.
B. The client should repeat the test in 24 hours.
C. The fetus isn’t in distress at this time.
D. The client should repeat the test in 1 week.
Correct Answer: C. The fetus isn’t in distress at this time.
45. Question1 point(s)
A client who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a
prenatal checkup. To assess the client’s preparation for
parenting, the nurse might ask which question?
A. “Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia?”
B. “Have you begun prenatal classes?”
C. “What changes have you made at home to get ready for
the baby?”
D. “Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each
day?”
Correct Answer: C. “What changes have you made at home
to get ready for the baby?”
46. Question1 point(s)
A client who’s admitted to labor and delivery has the
following assessment findings: gravida 2 para 1, estimated
40 weeks gestation, contractions 2 minutes apart, lasting 45
seconds, vertex +4 station. Which of the following would be
the priority at this time?
A. Placing the client in bed to begin fetal monitoring.
B. Preparing for immediate delivery.
C. Checking for ruptured membranes.
D. Providing comfort measures.
Correct Answer: B. Preparing for immediate delivery.
47. Question1 point(s)
The nurse is caring for a client in labor. The external fetal
monitor shows a pattern of variable decelerations in fetal
heart rate. What should the nurse do first?
A. Change the client’s position.
B. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
C. Check for placenta previa.
D. Administer oxygen.
Correct Answer: A. Change the client’s position.
48. Question1 point(s)
The nurse in charge is caring for a postpartum client who
had a vaginal delivery with a midline episiotomy. Which
nursing diagnosis takes priority for this client?
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to hemorrhage.
B. Risk for infection related to the type of delivery.
C. Pain related to the type of incision.
D. Urinary retention related to periurethral edema.
Correct Answer: A. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to
hemorrhage
49. Question1 point(s)
Which change would the nurse identify as a progressive
physiological change in the postpartum period?
A. Lactation
B. Lochia
C. Uterine involution 53. Question1 point(s)

D. Diuresis What is the approximate time that the blastocyst spends

traveling to the uterus for implantation?
Correct Answer: A. Lactation
A. 2 days
50. Question
B. 7 days
1 point(s)
C. 10 days
A 39-year-old at 37 weeks gestation is admitted to the
hospital with complaints of vaginal bleeding following the D. 14 weeks
use of cocaine 1 hour earlier. Which complication is most
likely causing the client’s complaint of vaginal bleeding? Correct

A. Placenta previa Correct Answer: B. 7 days

B. Abruptio placentae 54. Question1 point(s)

C. Ectopic pregnancy After teaching a pregnant woman who is in labor about the
purpose of the episiotomy, which of the following purposes
D. Spontaneous abortion stated by the client would indicate to the nurse that the
teaching was effective?
Correct Answer: B. Abruptio placentae
A. Shortens the second stage of labor.
51. Question1 point(s)
B. Enlarges the pelvic inlet.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is a multigravida
visits the clinic at 27 weeks gestation. The nurse should C. Prevents perineal edema.
instruct the client that for most pregnant women with type
1 diabetes mellitus: D. Ensures quick placenta delivery.

A. Weekly fetal movement counts are made by the mother. Correct Answer: A. Shortens the second stage of labor

B. Contraction stress testing is performed weekly. 55. Question1 point(s)

C. Induction of labor begins at 34 weeks’ gestation. A primigravida client at about 35 weeks gestation in active
labor has had no prenatal care and admitted to cocaine use
D. Nonstress testing is performed weekly until 32 weeks’ during the pregnancy. Which of the following persons must
gestation. the nurse notify?

Correct Answer: D. Nonstress testing is performed weekly A. Nursing unit manager so appropriate agencies can be
until 32 weeks’ gestation notified.

52. Question1 point(s) B. Head of the hospital’s security department.

When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with C. Chaplain in case the fetus dies in utero.
preeclampsia, the nurse understands that this drug is given
to: D. Physician who will attend the delivery of the infant.

A. Prevent seizures. Correct Answer: D. Physician who will attend the delivery of
the infant.
B. Reduce blood pressure.
56. Question1 point(s)
C. Slow the process of labor.
When preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to
D. Increase diuresis. receive a rubella vaccine during the postpartum period, the
nurse in charge should include which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Prevent seizures
 A. The vaccine prevents a future fetus from developing
congenital anomalies.
B. Pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months after the
immunization.
C. The client should avoid contact with children diagnosed
with rubella,
D. The injection will provide immunity against the 7-day
measles.
Correct Answer: B. Pregnancy should be avoided for 3
months after the immunization
57. Question1 point(s)
A client with eclampsia begins to experience a seizure.
Which of the following would the nurse in charge do first?
A. Pad the side rails.
B. Place a pillow under the left buttock.
C. Insert a padded tongue blade into the mouth.
D. Maintain a patent airway.
Correct Answer: D. Maintain a patent airway
58. Question1 point(s)
While caring for a multigravida client in early labor in a
birthing center, which of the following foods would be best
if the client requests a snack?
A. Yogurt
B. Cereal with milk
C. Vegetable soup
D. Peanut butter cookies
Correct Answer: A. Yogurt
59. Question1 point(s)
The multigravida mother with a history of rapid labor who
is in active labor calls out to the nurse, “The baby is
coming!” Which of the following would be the nurse’s first
action?
A. Inspect the perineum.
B. Time the contractions.
C. Auscultate the fetal heart rate.
D. Contact the birth attendant.
Correct Answer: A. Inspect the perineum
60. Question1 point(s)
While assessing a primipara during the immediate
postpartum period, the nurse in charge plans to use both
hands to assess the client’s fundus to:
A. Prevent uterine inversion.
B. Promote uterine involution.
C. Hasten the puerperium period.
D. Determine the size of the fundus.
Correct Answer: A. Prevent uterine inversion
61. Question1 point(s)
Which behaviors would be exhibited during the letting-go
phase of maternal role adaptation. Select all that apply.
A. Emergence of the family unit.
B. Dependent behaviors.
C. Sexual intimacy continues.
D. Defining one's individual roles.
E. Being talkative and excited about becoming a mother.
Correct Answer: Answer: A, C, & D
62. Question1 point(s)
While making a visit to the home of a postpartum woman 1
week after birth, the nurse should recognize that the
woman would characteristically:
A. Express a strong need to review the events and her
behavior during the process of labor and birth.
B. Exhibit a reduced attention span, limiting readiness to
learn.
C. Vacillate between the desire to have her own nurturing
needs met and the need to take charge of her own care and
that of her newborn.
D. Have reestablished her role as a spouse or partner.
Correct Answer: C. Vacillate between the desire to have her
own nurturing needs met and the need to take charge of
her own care and that of her newborn.
63. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following is the most common kind of
placental adherence seen in pregnant women?
A. Accreta
B. Placenta previa
C. Percreta
D. Increta
Correct Answer: A. Accreta
64. Question1 point(s)
A 40-year-old woman with a high body mass index (BMI) is
10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool is appropriate to
suggest to her at this time?
A. Biophysical profile
B. Amniocentesis
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: D. Transvaginal ultrasound
65. Question1 point(s)
A nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should
understand that the contraction stress test (CST):
A. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation.
B. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated.
C. Is considered to have a negative result if no late
decelerations are observed with the contractions.
D. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the
membranes have already been ruptured.
Correct Answer: C. Is considered to have a negative result if
no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.
66. Question1 point(s)
In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was
likely to have a high-risk pregnancy were evaluated
primarily from a medical point of view. A broader, more
comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been
adopted. There are now four categories based on threats to
the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy.
Which of the options listed here is not included as a
category?
A. Biophysical
B. Psychosocial
C. Geographic
D. Environmental
Correct Answer: C. Geographic
67. Question1 point(s)
A woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation is having a
nonstress test. Which statement indicates her correct
understanding of the test?
A. "I will need to have a full bladder for the test to be done
accurately."
B. "I should have my husband drive me home after the test
because I may be nauseated."
C. "This test will help to determine whether the baby has
Down syndrome or a neural tube defect."
D. "This test observes for fetal activity and an acceleration
of the fetal heart rate to determine the well-being of the
baby."
Correct Answer: D. “This test observes for fetal activity and
an acceleration of the fetal heart rate to determine the
well-being of the baby.”
68. Question1 point(s)
What is an appropriate indicator for performing a
contraction stress test?
A. Increased fetal movement and small for gestational age.
B. Maternal diabetes mellitus and postmaturity.
C. Adolescent pregnancy and poor prenatal care.
D. History of preterm labor and intrauterine growth
restriction.
Correct Answer: B. Maternal diabetes mellitus and
postmaturity.
69. Question1 point(s)
The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30
weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the
pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are
suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to
ultrasound to measure fetal size, what would be another
tool useful in confirming the diagnosis?
A. Doppler blood flow analysis
B. Contraction stress test (CST)
C. Amniocentesis
D. Daily fetal movement counts
Correct Answer: A. Doppler blood flow analysis
70. Question1 point(s)
A nurse is providing instruction for an obstetrical patient to
perform a daily fetal movement count (DFMC). Which
instructions could be included in the plan of care? Select all
that apply.
A. The fetal alarm signal is reached when there are no fetal
movements noted for 5 hours.
B. The patient can monitor fetal activity once daily for a 60-
minute period and note activity.
C. Monitor fetal activity two times a day either after meals
or before bed for a period of 2 hours or until 10 fetal
movements are noted.
D. Count all fetal movements in a 12-hour period daily until
10 fetal movements are noted.
Correct Answer: B, C, & D
71. Question1 point(s)
A patient has undergone an amniocentesis for evaluation of
fetal well-being. Which intervention would be included in
the nurse’s plan of care after the procedure? Select all that
apply.
A. Perform ultrasound to determine fetal positioning.
B. Observe the patient for possible uterine contractions.
C. Administer RhoGAM to the patient if she is Rh-negative.
D. Perform a mini catheterization to obtain a urine
specimen to assess for bleeding.
Correct Answer: B & C
72. Question1 point(s)
With regard to small-for-gestational-age (SGA) infants and
intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), nurses should be
aware that:
A. In the first trimester, diseases or abnormalities result in
asymmetric IUGR.
B. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for
normal growth and development.
C. In asymmetric IUGR, weight is slightly more than SGA,
whereas length and head circumference are somewhat less
than SGA.
D. Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the
potential for normal growth and development.
73. Question1 point(s)
A client who delivered by cesarean section 24 hours ago is
using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for pain
control. Her oral intake has been ice chips only since
surgery. She is now complaining of nausea and bloating,
and states that because she had nothing to eat, she is too
weak to breastfeed her infant. Which nursing diagnosis has
the highest priority?
A. Altered nutrition, less than body requirements for
lactation.
B. Alteration in comfort related to nausea and abdominal
distention.
C. Impaired bowel motility related to pain medication and
immobility.
D. Fatigue related to cesarean delivery and physical care
demands of infant.
Correct Answer: C. Impaired bowel motility related to pain
medication and immobility
74. Question1 point(s)
The nurse is teaching care of the newborn to a childbirth
preparation class and describes the need for administering
antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the newborn. An
expectant father asks, “What type of disease causes
infections in babies that can be prevented by using this
ointment?” Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A. Herpes
B. Trichomonas
C. Gonorrhea
D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: C. Gonorrhea
75. Question1 point(s)

A new mother is having trouble breastfeeding her newborn.

The child is making frantic rooting motions and will not
grasp the nipple. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?

A. Encourage frequent use of a pacifier so that the infant

becomes accustomed to sucking.

B. Hold the infant's head firmly against the breast until he

latches onto the nipple.

C. Encourage the mother to stop feeding for a few minutes

and comfort the infant.

D. Provide a formula for the infant until he becomes calm,

and then offer the breast again.

Correct Answer: C. Encourage the mother to stop feeding

for a few minutes and comfort the infant.
Quiz 3
1. Question1 point(s)
A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response
should be further assessed for which of the following?
A. Talipes equinovarus
B. Fractured clavicle
C. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct Answer: B. Fractured clavicle
2. Question1 point(s)
During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing
for which of the following is the priority?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Discomfort
D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: B. Hemorrhage
3. Question1 point(s)
The mother asks the nurse. “What’s wrong with my son’s
breasts? Why are they so enlarged?” Which of the following
would be the best response by the nurse?
A. “The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma
experienced with birth.”
B. “A decrease in material hormones present before birth
causes enlargement,”
C. “You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a
malignancy.”
D. “The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the
uterus.”
Correct Answer: B. “A decrease in material hormones
present before birth causes enlargement,”
4. Question1 point(s)
Immediately after birth, the nurse notes the following on a
male newborn: respirations 78; apical heart rate 160 BPM,
nostril-flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at
the end of expiration. Which of the following should the
nurse do?
A. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention
B. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C. Suction the infant’s mouth and nares.
D. Recognize this as a normal first period of reactivity.
Correct Answer: D. Recognize this as normal first period of
reactivity
5. Question1 point(s)
The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone
about umbilical cord care. Which of the following
statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
A. “Daily soap and water cleansing is best.”
B. “Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs.”
C. “An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents
infection.”
D. “He can have a tub bath each day.”
Correct Answer: B. “Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
6. Question1 point(s)
A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding every 4 hours
needs 120 calories/kg of body weight every 24 hours for
proper growth and development. How many ounces of 20
cals/oz formula should this newborn receive at each
feeding to meet nutritional needs?
A. 2 ounces
B. 3 ounces
C. 4 ounces
D. 6 ounces
Correct Answer: B. 3 ounces
7. Question1 point(s)
The post-term neonate with meconium-stained amniotic
fluid needs care designed to especially monitor for which of
the following?
A. Respiratory problems
B. Gastrointestinal problems
C. Integumentary problems
D. Elimination problems
Correct Answer: A. Respiratory problems
8. Question1 point(s) D. Gluteus maximus muscle

When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the Correct Answer: C. Vastus lateralis muscle
following techniques denotes the correct method of
measurement used by the nurse? 12. Question1 point(s)

A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes
a red swollen area on the right side of the vaginal orifice.
B. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process. The nurse would document this as enlargement of which of
the following?
C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus.
A. Clitoris
D. From the fundus to the umbilicus.
B. Parotid gland
Correct Answer: C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus.
C. Skene’s gland
9. Question1 point(s)
D. Bartholin’s gland
A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with BP
160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting edema. Which of Correct Answer: D. Bartholin’s gland
the following would be most important to include in the
client’s plan of care? 13. Question1 point(s)

A. Daily weights To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of

the embryo that must occur involves which of the
B. Seizure precautions following?

C. Right lateral positioning A. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion

D. Stress reduction B. Decrease in maternal androgen secretion.

Correct Answer: B. Seizure precautions C. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad.

10. Question1 point(s) D. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad.

A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have Correct Answer: D. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad.
sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following would be
the nurse’s best response? 14. Question1 point(s)

A. “Anytime you both want to.” A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight
nausea in the morning hours. Which of the following client
B. “As soon as you choose a contraceptive method.” interventions should the nurse question?

C. “When the discharge has stopped, and the incision is A. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce
healed.” glass of water.

D. “After your 6 weeks examination.” B. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of
bed.
Correct Answer: C. “When the discharge has stopped and
the incision is healed.” C. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours.

11. Question1 point(s) D. Eating six small meals a day instead of three large meals.

When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a Correct Answer: A. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of
neonate, the nurse would select which of the following sites soda in an 8-ounce glass of water.
as appropriate for the injection?

A. Deltoid muscle

B. Anterior femoris muscle

C. Vastus lateralis muscle

15. Question1 point(s)
The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s
prenatal record. The nurse understands that this indicates
which of the following?
A. Palpable contractions on the abdomen.
B. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus.
C. Fetal kicking felt by the client.
D. Enlargement and softening of the uterus.
Correct Answer: B. Passive movement of the unengaged
fetus.
16. Question1 point(s)
During a pelvic exam, the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of
the cervix. The nurse documents this as which of the
following?
A. Braxton-Hicks sign
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Goodell’s sign
D. McDonald’s sign
Correct Answer: B. Chadwick’s sign
17. Question1 point(s)
During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for
breathing techniques during preparation for labor based on
the understanding that breathing techniques are most
important in achieving which of the following?
A. Eliminate pain and give expectant parents something to
do.
B. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing
uteroplacental perfusion.
C. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of
pain.
D. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are
needed.
Correct Answer: C. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing
the perception of pain.
18. Question1 point(s)
After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the
contractions of a primigravida client are not strong enough
to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse
anticipate doing?
A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion.
B. Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest
for several hours
C. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
Correct Answer: A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin
infusion.
19. Question1 point(s)
A multigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted with
painless, bright red bleeding and mild contractions every 7
to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments should
be avoided?
A. Maternal vital sign
B. Fetal heart rate
C. Contraction monitoring
D. Cervical dilation
Correct Answer: D. Cervical dilation
20. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would be the nurse’s most
appropriate response to a client who asks why she must
have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta
previa?
A. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”
B. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
C. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
D. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and
blocking your baby.”
Correct Answer: D. “The placenta is covering the opening of
the uterus and blocking your baby.”
21. Question1 point(s)
The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the
following positions with a face presentation?
A. Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially extended
D. Partially flexed
Correct Answer: B. Completely extended
22. Question1 point(s) D. Sharing of a common chorion.

With a fetus in the left anterior breech presentation, the Correct Answer: A. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm
nurse would expect the fetal heart rate would be most
audible in which of the following areas? 26. Question1 point(s)

Which of the following refers to the single cell that

reproduces itself after conception?
A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of
midline. A. Chromosome

B. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant. B. Blastocyst

C. In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant. C. Zygote

D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of the D. Trophoblast

midline.
Correct Answer: D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the
left of midline
23. Question1 point(s)
The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse
interprets this to be the result of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Zygote
27. Question1 point(s)
In the late 1950s, consumers and health care professionals
began challenging the routine use of analgesics and
anesthetics during childbirth. Which of the following was an
outgrowth of this concept?

A. Lanugo A. Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)

B. Hydramnios B. Nurse-midwifery

C. Meconium C. Clinical nurse specialist

D. Vernix D. Prepared childbirth

Correct Answer: C. Meconium Correct Answer: D. Prepared childbirth

24. Question1 point(s) 28. Question1 point(s)

A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech A client has a mid pelvic contracture from a previous pelvic
presentation. The nurse should be particularly alert for injury due to a motor vehicle accident as a teenager. The
which of the following? nurse is aware that this could prevent a fetus from passing
through or around which structure during childbirth?
A. Quickening
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
B. Sacral promontory
C. Pica
C. Ischial spines
D. Prolapsed umbilical cord
D. Pubic arch
Correct Answer: D. Prolapsed umbilical cord
Correct Answer: C. Ischial spines
25. Question1 point(s)
29. Question1 point(s)
When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on which of
the following would the nurse base the explanation? When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in
the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands
A. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm. that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which
of the following phases?
B. Sharing of a common placenta.
A. Menstrual phase
C. Each ova with the same genotype.
B. Proliferative phase
C. Secretory phase 33. Question1 point(s)

D. Ischemic phase The infant of a substance-abusing mother is at risk for

developing a sense of which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Proliferative phase
A. Mistrust
30. Question1 point(s)
B. Shame
When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone
production, which of the following would the nurse include C. Guilt
as being produced by the Leydig cells?
D. Inferiority
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: A. Mistrust
B. Testosterone

C. Luteinizing hormone
34. Question1 point(s)
D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Which of the following toys should the nurse recommend
Correct Answer: B. Testosterone for a 5-month-old?

31. Question1 point(s) A. A big red balloon

While performing a physical assessment of a 12 month-old,
the nurse notes that the infant’s anterior fontanel is still
slightly open. Which of the following is the nurse’s most
appropriate action?
A. Notify the physician immediately because there is a
problem.
B. Perform an intensive neurological examination.
C. Perform an intensive developmental examination.
D. Do nothing because this is a normal finding for the age.
B. A teddy bear with button eyes
C. A push-pull wooden truck
D. A colorful busy box
Correct Answer: D. A colorful busy box
35. Question1 point(s)
The mother of a 2-month-old is concerned that she may be
spoiling her baby by picking her up when she cries. Which
of the following would be the nurse’s best response?

Correct Answer: D. Do nothing because this is a normal A. “ Let her cry for a while before picking her up, so you
finding for the age. don’t spoil her.”

32. Question1 point(s)
When teaching a mother about introducing solid foods to
her child, which of the following indicates the earliest age
at which this should be done?
B. “Babies need to be held and cuddled; you won’t spoil her
this way.”
C. “Crying at this age means the baby is hungry; give her a
bottle.”

A. 1 month D. “If you leave her alone she will learn how to cry herself
to sleep.”
B. 2 months
Correct Answer: B. “Babies need to be held and cuddled;
C. 3 months you won’t spoil her this way.”

D. 4 months 36. Question1 point(s)

Correct Answer: D. 4 months When assessing an 18-month-old, the nurse notes a

characteristic protruding abdomen. Which of the following
would explain the rationale for this finding?

A. Increased food intake owing to age.

B. Underdeveloped abdominal muscles.

C. Bow Legged posture. D. Increase in appetite

D. Linear growth curve. Correct Answer: A. Food “jags.”

Correct Answer: B. Underdeveloped abdominal muscles 41. Question1 point(s)

37. Question1 point(s) Which of the following suggestions should the nurse offer
the parents of a 4-year-old boy who resists going to bed at
If parents keep a toddler dependent in areas where he is night?
capable of using skills, the toddler will develop a sense of
which of the following? A. “Allow him to fall asleep in your room, then move him to
his own bed.”
A. Mistrust
B. “Tell him that you will lock him in his room if he gets out
B. Shame of bed one more time.”
C. Guilt C. “Encourage active play at bedtime to tire him out so he
D. Inferiority will fall asleep faster.”

Correct Answer: B. Shame D. “Read him a story and allow him to play quietly in his
bed until he falls asleep.”
38. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: D. “Read him a story and allow him to play
Which of the following is an appropriate toy for an 18- quietly in his bed until he falls asleep.”
month-old?
42. Question1 point(s)
A. Multiple-piece puzzle
When providing therapeutic play, which of the following
B. Miniature cars toys would best promote imaginative play in a 4-year-old?

C. Finger paints A. Large blocks

D. Comic book B. Dress-up clothes

Correct Answer: C. Finger paints C. Wooden puzzle

39. Question1 point(s) D. Big wheels

When teaching parents about the child’s readiness for toilet Correct Answer: B. Dress-up clothes
training, which of the following signs should the nurse
instruct them to watch for in the toddler? 43. Question1 point(s)

A. Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours.
B. Demonstrates ability to sit and walk.
C. Has a new sibling for stimulation.
D. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom.
Correct Answer: D. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom
40. Question1 point(s)
When teaching parents about typical toddler eating
patterns, which of the following should be included?
Which of the following activities, when voiced by the
parents following a teaching session about the
characteristics of school-age cognitive development would
indicate the need for additional teaching?
A. Collecting baseball cards and marbles.
B. Ordering dolls according to size.
C. Considering simple problem-solving options.
D. Developing plans for the future.
Correct Answer: D. Developing plans for the future

A . Food “jags.”

B. Preference to eat alone

C. Consistent table manners

44. Question1 point(s) B. In a year from now

A hospitalized school age child states: “I’m not afraid of this C. At age 10
place, I’m not afraid of anything.” This statement is most
likely an example of which of the following? D. At age 13

A. Regression Correct Answer: C. At age 10

B. Repression 48. Question1 point(s)

C. Reaction formation The adolescent’s inability to develop a sense of who he is

and what he can become results in the sense of which of
D. Rationalization the following?

Correct Answer: C. Reaction formation A. Shame

45. Question1 point(s) B. Guilt

After teaching a group of parents about accident C. Inferiority

prevention for school agers, which of the following
statements by the group would indicate the need for more D. Role confusion
teaching? Correct Answer: D. Role confusion
A. “School Agers are more active and adventurous than According to Erikson, role cunfusion develops when the
younger children.” adolescent does not develop a sense of identity and a sense
B. “School Agers are more susceptible to home hazards of where he fits in.
than are younger children.” 49. Question1 point(s)
C. “Schoolagers are unable to understand potential Which of the following would be most appropriate for a
dangers around them.” nurse to use when describing menarche to a 13-year-old?
D. “Schoolargers are less subject to parental control than A. A female’s first menstruation or menstrual “periods.”
are younger children.”
B. The first year of menstruation or “period."
Correct Answer: C. “Schoolagers are unable to understand
potential dangers around them.” C. The entire menstrual cycle or from one “period” to
another.
46. Question1 point(s)
D. The onset of uterine maturation or peak growth.
Which of the following skills is the most significant one
learned during the school-age period? Correct Answer: A. A female’s first menstruation or
menstrual “periods”.
A. Collecting
50. Question1 point(s)
B. Ordering
A 14-year-old boy has acne and according to his parents,
C. Reading dominates the bathroom by using the mirror all the time.
D. Sorting Which of the following remarks by the nurse would be least
helpful in talking to the boy and his parents?
Correct Answer: C. Reading
A. “This is probably the only concern he has about his body.
47. Question1 point(s) So don’t worry about it or the time he spends on it.”

A child age 7 was unable to receive the measles, mumps,
and rubella (MMR) vaccine at the recommended scheduled
time. When would the nurse expect to administer the MMR
vaccine?
A. In a month from now
B. “Teenagers are anxious about how their peers perceive
them. So they spend a lot of time grooming.”
C. “A teen may develop a poor self-image when
experiencing acne. Do you feel this way sometimes?”
D. “You appear to be keeping your face well washed. When assessing a child with a cleft palate, the nurse is
Would you feel comfortable discussing your cleansing aware that the child is at risk for more frequent episodes of
method?” otitis media due to which of the following?

Correct Answer: A. “This is probably the only concern he has A. Lowered resistance from malnutrition.
about his body. So don’t worry about it or the time he
spends on it.” B. Ineffective functioning of the Eustachian tubes.

51. Question1 point(s) C. Plugging of the Eustachian tubes with food particles.

Which of the following should the nurse suspect when D. Associated congenital defects of the middle ear.
noting that a 3-year-old is engaging in explicit sexual Correct Answer: B. Ineffective functioning of the Eustachian
behavior during doll play? tubes
A. The child is exhibiting normal preschool curiosity. 55. Question1 point(s)
B. The child is acting out personal experiences. While performing a neurodevelopmental assessment on a
C. The child does not know how to play with dolls. 3-month-old infant, which of the following characteristics
would be expected?
D. The child is probably developmentally delayed.
A. A strong Moro reflex.
Correct Answer: B. The child is acting out personal
experiences B. A strong parachute reflex.

52. Question1 point(s) C. Rolling from front to back.

Which of the following statements by the parents of a child D. Lifting of head and chest when prone.
with school phobia would indicate the need for further Correct Answer: D. Lifting of head and chest when prone
teaching?
56. Question1 point(s)
A. “We’ll keep him at home until the phobia subsides.”
By the end of which of the following would the nurse most
B. “We’ll work with his teachers and counselors at school.” commonly expect a child’s birth weight to triple?
C. “We’ll try to encourage him to talk about his problem.” A. 4 months
D. “We’ll discuss possible solutions with him and his B. 7 months
counselor.”
C. 9 months
Correct Answer: A. “We’ll keep him at home until the
phobia subsides.” D. 12 months

53. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: D. 12 months

When developing a teaching plan for a group of high school 57. Question1 point(s)
students about teenage pregnancy, the nurse would keep
in mind which of the following? Which of the following best describes parallel play between
two toddlers?
A. The incidence of teenage pregnancies is increasing.
A. Sharing crayons to color separate pictures.
B. Most teenage pregnancies are planned.
B. Playing a board game with a nurse.
C. Denial of the pregnancy is common early on.
C. Sitting near each other while playing with separate dolls.
D. The risk for complications during pregnancy is rare.
D. Sharing their dolls with two different nurses.
Correct Answer: C. Denial of the pregnancy is common early
on. Correct Answer: C. Sitting near each other while playing
with separate dolls
54. Question1 point(s)
58. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse identify as the initial
priority for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia?
A. Instituting infection control precautions.
B. Encouraging adequate intake of iron-rich foods.
C. Assisting with coping with chronic illness.
D. Administering medications via IM injections.
Correct Answer: A. Instituting infection control precautions
59. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following information, when voiced by the
mother, would indicate to the nurse that she understands
home care instructions following the administration of
diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis injection?
A. Measures to reduce fever.
B. Need for dietary restrictions.
C. Reasons for subsequent rash.
D. Measures to control subsequent diarrhea.
Correct Answer: A. Measures to reduce fever
60. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following actions by a community health nurse
is most appropriate when noting multiple bruises and burns
on the posterior trunk of an 18-month-old child during a
home visit?
A. Report the child’s condition to Protective Services
immediately.
B. Schedule a follow-up visit to check for more bruises.
C. Notify the child’s physician immediately.
D. Don nothing because this is a normal finding in a toddler.
Correct Answer: A. Report the child’s condition to
Protective Services immediately.
61. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following is being used when the mother of a
hospitalized child calls the student nurse and states, “You
idiot, you have no idea how to care for my sick child”?
A. Displacement
B. Projection
C. Repression
D. Psychosis
Correct Answer: B. Projection
62. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following should the nurse expect to note as a
frequent complication for a child with congenital heart
disease?
A. Susceptibility to respiratory infection
B. Bleeding tendencies
C. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D. Seizure disorder
Correct Answer: A. Susceptibility to respiratory infection
63. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse do first for a 3-year-
old boy who arrives in the emergency room with a
temperature of 105 degrees, inspiratory stridor, and
restlessness, who is leaning forward and drooling?
A. Auscultate his lungs and place him in a mist tent.
B. Have him lie down and rest after encouraging fluids.
C. Examine his throat and perform a throat culture.
D. Notify the physician immediately and prepare for
intubation.
Correct Answer: D. Notify the physician immediately and
prepare for intubation.
64. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse need to keep in
mind as a predisposing factor when formulating a teaching
plan for a child with a urinary tract infection?
A. A shorter urethra in females.
B. Frequent emptying of the bladder.
C. Increased fluid intake.
D. Ingestion of acidic juices.
Correct Answer: A. A shorter urethra in females
65. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following should the nurse do first for a 15-
year-old boy with a full leg cast who is screaming in
unrelenting pain and exhibiting right foot pallor signifying
compartment syndrome?
A. Medicate him with acetaminophen.
B. Notify the physician immediately. A. Slow to feed self.

C. Release the traction. B. Lack of speech.

D. Monitor him every 5 minutes. C. Marked motor delays.

Correct Answer: B. Notify the physician immediately D. Gait disability.

66. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: A. Slow to feed self.

At which of the following ages would the nurse expect to 70. Question1 point(s)
administer the varicella zoster vaccine to a child?
Which of the following assessment findings would lead the
A. At birth nurse to suspect Down syndrome in an infant?

B. 2 months A. Small tongue

C. 6 months B. Transverse palmar crease

D. 12 months C. Large nose

Correct Answer: D. 12 months D. Restricted joint movement

67. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: B. Transverse palmar crease

When discussing normal infant growth and development
with parents, which of the following toys would the nurse
suggest as most appropriate for an 8-month-old?
A. Push-pull toys
71. Question1 point(s)
While assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the nurse would
be alert that which of the following will most likely be
compromised?

B. Rattle A. Sucking ability

C. Large blocks B. Respiratory status

D. Mobile C. Locomotion

Correct Answer: C. Large blocks D. GI function

68. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: A. Sucking ability

Which of the following aspects of psychosocial 72. Question1 point(s)

development is necessary for the nurse to keep in mind
when providing care for the preschool child? When providing postoperative care for the child with a cleft
palate, the nurse should position the child in which of the
A. The child can use complex reasoning to think out of following positions?
situations.
A. Supine
B. Fear of body mutilation is a common preschool fear.
B. Prone
C. The child engages in competitive types of play.
C. In an infant seat
D. Immediate gratification is necessary to develop
initiative. D. On the side

Correct Answer: B. Fear of body mutilation is a common Correct Answer: B. Prone

preschool fear

69. Question1 point(s) 73. Question1 point(s)

Which of the following is characteristic of a preschooler While assessing a child with pyloric stenosis, the nurse is
with mild-mental retardation? likely to note which of the following?
A. Regurgitation

B. Steatorrhea

C. Projectile vomiting

D. “Currant jelly” stools

Correct Answer: C. Projectile vomiting

74. Question1 point(s)

Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be

inappropriate for the infant with gastroesophageal reflux
(GER)?

A. Fluid volume deficit

B. Risk for aspiration

C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements

D. Altered oral mucous membranes

Correct Answer: D. Altered oral mucous membranes

75. Question1 point(s)

Which of the following parameters would the nurse

monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of thickened feedings
for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A. Vomiting

B. Stools

C. Uterine

D. Weight

Correct

Correct Answer: A. Vomiting

\
 Correct Answer: A. Hirschsprung disease

1. Question1 point(s) 5. Question1 point(s)

Discharge teaching for a child with celiac disease would When assessing a child for possible intussusception, which
include instructions about avoiding which of the following? of the following would be least likely to provide valuable
information?
A. Rice
A. Stool inspection
B. Milk
B. Pain pattern
C. Wheat
C. Family history
D. Chicken
D. Abdominal palpation
Correct Answer: C. Wheat
Correct Answer: C. Family history
2. Question1 point(s)
6. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in
a child with celiac disease having a celiac crisis secondary to Nurse Barry is performing Leopold’s maneuver and found
an upper respiratory infection? the following: breech presentation, fetal back at the right
side of the mother. Based on these findings, the nurse can
A. Respiratory distress hear the fetal heartbeat (PMI) best in which location?
B. Lethargy A. Left lower quadrant
C. Watery diarrhea B. Right lower quadrant
D. Weight gain C. Left upper quadrant
Correct Answer: C. Watery diarrhea D. Right upper quadrant
3. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: B. Right lower quadrant
Which of the following should the nurse do first after noting 7. Question1 point(s)
that a child with Hirschsprung disease has a fever and
watery explosive diarrhea? In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, the nurse palpated a soft,
broad mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The
A. Notify the physician immediately. correct interpretation of this finding is:
B. Administer antidiarrheal medications. A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
C. Monitor child every 30 minutes. B. The presentation is breech.
D. Nothing, this is characteristic of Hirschsprung disease. C. The mass palpated is the back.
Correct Answer: A. Notify the physician immediately. D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.
4. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.
A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within the first 24 8. Question1 point(s)
hours after birth may indicate which of the following?
In Leopold’s maneuver step #3, the nurse palpated a hard
A. Hirschsprung disease round movable mass at the suprapubic area. The correct
B. Celiac disease interpretation is that the mass palpated is:

C. Intussusception A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.

D. Abdominal wall defect B. The mass palpated is the head.

C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the small fetal part.
Correct Answer: B. The mass palpated is the head.
9. Question1 point(s)
The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
A. Estrogen
D. The woman may be experiencing complications of
pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing
the diaphragm upwards
13. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following findings in a woman would be
consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?

B. Progesterone A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of striae

gravidarum.
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency.
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening.
Correct Answer: C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement.
10. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: B. Fullness of the breast and urinary
The hormone responsible for the maturation of the frequency.
Graafian follicle is
14. Question1 point(s)
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
B. Progesterone
A. Fetal movement felt by mother
C. Estrogen
B. Enlargement of the uterus
D. Luteinizing hormone
C. (+) pregnancy test
Correct Answer: A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. (+) ultrasound
11. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: D. (+) ultrasound
The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is:
15. Question1 point(s)
A. Transverse position
What event occurring in the second trimester helps the
B. Vertical position expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?

C. Oblique position A. Lightening

D. None of the above B. Ballotment

Correct Answer: B. Vertical position C. Pseudocyesis

12. Question1 point(s) D. Quickening

In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may Correct Answer: D. Quickening
experience shortness of breath. This complaint may be
explained as: 16. Question1 point(s)

A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will
using more oxygen. prevent which prenatal discomfort?

B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm A. Backache

upwards. B. Vertigo
C. The woman is having an allergic reaction to the C. Leg cramps
pregnancy and its hormones.
D. Nausea C. 7th month

Correct Answer: A. Backache D. 8th month

17. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: C. 7th month

When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the 21. Question1 point(s)
correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps
is: The following are ways of determining the expected date of
delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
A. Allow the woman to exercise.
A. Naegele’s rule
B. Let the woman walk for a while.
B. Quickening
C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards
the knees. C. McDonald’s rule

D. Ask the woman to raise her legs. D. Batholomew’s rule of 4

Correct Answer: C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex Correct Answer: A. Naegele’s rule
the foot towards the knees 22. Question1 point(s)
18. Question1 point(s) If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is:
From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy A. Oct. 7
mother should have a prenatal check-up every:
B. Oct. 24
A. Week
C. Nov. 7
B. 2 weeks
D. Nov. 8
C. 3 weeks
Correct Answer: C. Nov. 7
D. 4 weeks
23. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: A. Week
Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:
19. Question1 point(s)
A. Strengthen perineal muscles.
The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy during the
3rd trimester is: B. Relieve backache.

A. 1 pound a week C. Strengthen abdominal muscles.

B. 2 pounds a week D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema.

C. 10 lbs a month Correct Answer: A. Strengthen perineal muscles

D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester 24. Question1 point(s)

Incorrect Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to

relieve which discomfort?
Correct Answer: A. 1 pound a week
A. Leg cramps
20. Question1 point(s)
B. Urinary frequency
In Bartholomew’s Rule of 4, when the level of the fundus is
midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process the C. Orthostatic hypotension
estimated age of gestation (AOG) is:
D. Backache
A. 5th month
Correct Answer: D. Backache
B. 6th month
 A. Asking her to void.

B. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings.

25. Question1 point(s) C. Giving the client perineal care.

The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in
pregnancy is:
A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the
increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal
requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow.
B. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite.
C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the
mother must supply.
D. Doing a vaginal prep.
Correct Answer: A. Asking her to void.
29. Question1 point(s)
When preparing the mother who is in her 4th month of
pregnancy for an abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should
instruct her to:
A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting.

D. The mother may have a problem with digestion because
of pica.
Correct Answer: A. The mother may have physiologic
anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell mass,
as well as the fetal, requires about 350-400 mg of iron to
grow.
26. Question1 point(s)
The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should be
high in:
A. Protein, minerals, and vitamins
B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
B. Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure.
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the
procedure and not void until the procedure is done.
D. Void immediately before the procedure for better
visualization.
Correct Answer: C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours
before the procedure and not void until the procedure is
done.
30. Question1 point(s)
The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a
pregnant woman is by giving:

C. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers

D. Fats and minerals B. Low sodium diet

Correct Answer: A. Protein, minerals, and vitamins C. Intravenous infusion

27. Question1 point(s) D. Antacid

Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek Correct Answer: A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
immediate medical attention? 31. Question1 point(s)
A. When the first fetal movement is felt. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the
B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month. uterus is:

C. Mild uterine contraction. A. Upper uterine portion

D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation. B. Mid-uterine area

Correct Answer: B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th C. Lower uterine segment
month. D. Lower cervical segment
28. Question1 point(s) Correct Answer: A. Upper uterine portion
You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your 32. Question1 point(s)
pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure
by:
Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of
abortion in the 4th pregnancy, and the first pregnancy was
a twin. She is considered to be:
A. G 4 P 3
36. Question1 point(s)
You are performing an abdominal exam on a 9th-month
pregnant woman. While lying supine, she felt breathless,
had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The correct
assessment of the woman’s condition is that she is:

B. G 5 P 3
A. Experiencing the beginning of labor.
C. G 5 P 4
B. Having supine hypotension.
D. G 4 P 4
C. Having sudden elevation of BP.
Correct Answer: B. G 5 P 3
D. Going into shock.
33. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: B. Having supine hypotension.
The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:
37. Question1 point(s)
A. Chloasma
Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because:
B. Striae gravidarum
A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s blood
C. Linea negra vessels.
D. Chadwick’s sign B. Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the
Correct Answer: D. Chadwick’s sign mother reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus.

34. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following statements is TRUE of conception?
A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse, conception is
possible in a fertile woman.
B. Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after ovulation.
C. Conception is possible during menstruation in a long
menstrual cycle.
C. The smoke will make the fetus, and the mother feels
dizzy.
D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood
vessels.
Correct Answer: B. Carbon monoxide binds with the
hemoglobin of the mother reducing available hemoglobin
for the fetus.
38. Question1 point(s)

D. To avoid conception, intercourse must be avoided 5 days Which of the following is the most likely effect on the fetus
before and 3 days after menstruation. if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
conception is possible in a fertile woman.
B. Hemorrhage
35. Question1 point(s)
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
Which of the following are the functions of amniotic fluid?
Select all that apply. D. Erythroblastosis fetalis

A. Cushions the fetus from abdominal trauma 39. Question1 point(s)

B. Serves as the fluid for the fetus Which of the following signs and symptoms will most likely
make the nurse suspect that the patient has hydatidiform
C. Maintains the internal temperature mole?

D. Facilitates fetal movement A. Slight bleeding

Correct Answer: A, B, C, & D B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina

C. Absence of fetal heartbeat
D. Enlargement of the uterus
Correct Answer: B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per
vagina
40. Question1 point(s)
Upon assessment, the nurse found the following: fundus at
2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, last menstrual period
(LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heartbeat (FHB) not appreciated.
Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis of this
condition?
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: A. Hydatidiform mole
41. Question1 point(s)
When a pregnant woman goes into a convulsive seizure, the
MOST immediate action of the nurse to ensure the safety
of the patient is:
A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall out of bed.
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not bite her
tongue and the tongue will not fall back.
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the secretions
to drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration.
D. Check if the woman is also having precipitate labor.
Correct Answer: C. Position the mother on her side to allow
the secretions to drain from her mouth and prevent
aspiration.
42. Question1 point(s)
A gravidocardiac mother is advised to observe bed rest
primarily to:
A. Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine growth.
B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can aggravate the
condition of the compromised heart of the mother.
C. Prevent perinatal infection.
D. Reduce incidence of premature labor.
Correct Answer: B. Minimize oxygen consumption which
can aggravate the condition of the compromised heart of
the mother.
43. Question1 point(s)
A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with the chief
complaint of profuse vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not in
labor. The nurse must always consider which of the
following precautions:
A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under
strict asepsis with a double set-up.
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal.
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be
made ready before examining the patient.
D. Internal exams must be done following routine
procedures.
Correct Answer: A. The internal exam is done only at the
delivery under strict asepsis with a double set-up.
44. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following signs will distinguish threatened
abortion from imminent abortion?
A. Severity of bleeding.
B. Dilation of the cervix.
C. Nature and location of pain.
D. Presence of uterine contraction.
Correct Answer: B. Dilation of the cervix
45. Question1 point(s)
The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to
maternal supine hypotension is:
A. Place the mother in semi-Fowler's position.
B. Put the mother on the left side-lying position.
C. Place mother on a knee-chest position.
D. Any of the above.
Correct Answer: B. Put the mother on left side-lying
position.
46. Question1 point(s)
To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are
usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs commonly
given are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline C. Fallopian tubes

B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin D. Breast

C. Progesterone and estrogen Correct Answer: A. Cervix

D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin

Correct Answer: A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline

47. Question1 point(s) 51. Question1 point(s)

In placenta previa marginalis, the placenta is found at the: Which of the following causes of infertility in the female is
primarily psychological in origin?
A. Internal cervical os partly covering the opening.
A. Vaginismus
B. External cervical os slightly covering the opening.
B. Dyspareunia
C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges near the
internal cervical os. C. Endometriosis

D. Lower portion of the uterus completely covering the D. Impotence

cervix.
Correct Answer: A. Vaginismus
Correct Answer: C. Lower segment of the uterus with the
edges near the internal cervical os 52. Question1 point(s)

48. Question1 point(s) Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate to a pre-
eclamptic patient, the nurse should assess the patient’s
In which of the following conditions can the causative agent condition. Which of the following conditions will require the
pass through the placenta and affect the fetus in utero? nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat dose of magnesium
sulfate?
A. Gonorrhea
A. 100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
B. Rubella
B. Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C. Candidiasis
C. Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D. Moniliasis
D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
Correct Answer: B. Rubella
Correct Answer: A. 100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
49. Question1 point(s)
53. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following can lead to infertility in adult males?
Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?
A. German measles
A. The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+) and the
B. Orchitis fetus is Rh(-).
C. Chickenpox B. Every pregnancy of an Rh(-) mother will result in
D. Rubella erythroblastosis fetalis.

Correct Answer: B. Orchitis C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the fetus will
not be affected.
50. Question1 point(s)
D. RhoGam is given only during the first pregnancy to
Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer of: prevent incompatibility.

A. Cervix Correct Answer: C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-)

mother, the fetus will not be affected
B. Ovaries
54. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following are the most commonly assessed B. 25-27 weeks
findings in cystitis?
C. 28-30 weeks
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and
flank pain D. 38-40 weeks

B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever, Correct Answer: A. 21-24 weeks
and suprapubic pain

C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, 58. Question1 point(s)

chills, and fever
A nurse in the labor room is monitoring a client with
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, dysfunctional labor for signs of maternal or fetal
and frequency compromise. Which of the following assessment findings
Correct Answer: B. Manifestations of cystitis include, would alert the nurse to a compromise?
frequency, urgency, dysuria, hematuria nocturia, fever, and A. Coordinated uterine contractions
suprapubic pain.
B. Meconium in the amniotic fluid
55. Question1 point(s)
C. Progressive changes in the cervix
Which of the following best reflects the frequency of
reported postpartum “blues”? D. Maternal fatigue

A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
Correct Answer: B. Meconium in the amniotic fluid
59. Question1 point(s)
While assessing a G2P2 client who had a normal
spontaneous vaginal delivery 30 minutes ago, the nurse
notes a large amount of red vaginal bleeding. What would
be the initial priority nursing action?

D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues.
Correct Answer: C. According to statistical reports, between
50% and 80% of all new mothers report some form of
postpartum blues.
56. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following conditions will lead to a small-for-
gestational-age fetus due to less blood supply to the fetus?
A. Diabetes in the mother
B. Maternal cardiac condition
A. Notify the physician.
B. Encourage breastfeed soon after birth.
C. Monitor vital signs
D. Provide fundal massage.
Correct Answer: D. Provide fundal massage
60. Question1 point(s)
The preferred manner of delivering the baby in a gravido-
cardiac is vaginal delivery assisted by forceps under epidural
anesthesia. The main rationale for this is:

C. Premature labor A. To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby.

D. Abruptio placenta B. To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into the maternal
circulation.
Correct Answer: B. Maternal cardiac condition
C. To make the delivery effort-free and the mother does
57. Question1 point(s) not need to push with contractions.

The lower limit of viability for infants in terms of age of D. To prevent perineal laceration with the expulsion of the
gestation is: fetal head.

A. 21-24 weeks
Correct Answer: C. To make the delivery effort-free and the
mother does not need to push with contractions.
61. Question1 point(s)
When giving narcotic analgesics to a mother in labor, the
special consideration to follow is:
A. The progress of labor is well established reaching the
transitional stage.
B. Uterine contraction is progressing well, and delivery of
the baby is imminent.
C. Cervical dilatation has already reached at least 8 cm. and
the station is at least (+)2.
D. Uterine contractions are strong and the baby will not be
delivered yet within the next 3 hours.
Correct Answer: D. Uterine contractions are strong and the
baby will not be delivered yet within the next 3 hours.
62. Question1 point(s)
The cervical dilatation taken at 8:00 AM in a G1P0 patient
was 6 centimeters. A repeat I.E. done at 10 A. M. showed
that cervical dilation was 7 cm. The correct interpretation
of this result is:
A. Labor is progressing as expected.
B. The latent phase of Stage 1 is prolonged.
C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted.
D. The duration of labor is normal.
Correct Answer: C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted
63. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following techniques during labor and delivery
can lead to uterine inversion?
A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother in bearing
down during delivery of the fetal head.
B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to deliver the
placenta and hasten placental separation.
C. Massaging the fundus to encourage the uterus to
contract.
D. Applying light traction when delivering the placenta that
has already detached from the uterine wall.
Correct Answer: B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to
deliver the placenta and hasten placental separation.
64. Question1 point(s)
The fetal heart rate is checked following rupture of the bag
of waters in order to:
A. Check if the fetus is suffering from head compression.
B. Determine if cord compression followed the rupture.
C. Determine if there is uteroplacental insufficiency.
D. Check if the fetal presenting part has adequately
descended following the rupture.
Correct Answer: B. Determine if cord compression followed
the rupture.
65. Question1 point(s)
Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: two
(2) perineal pads highly saturated with blood within 2 hours
postpartum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft, and boundaries not
well defined. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
A. Normal blood loss
B. Blood volume deficiency
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
Correct Answer: D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
66. Question1 point(s)
The following are signs and symptoms of fetal distress
EXCEPT:
A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) decreases during a contraction
and persists even after the uterine contraction ends.
B. The FHR is less than 120 bpm or over 160 bpm.
C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm, FHR during
contraction is 118 bpm, and FHR after uterine contraction
is 126 bpm.
D. FHR is 160 bpm, weak and irregular.
Correct Answer: C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm,
FHR during contraction is 118 bpm, and FHR after uterine
contraction is 126 bpm.
67. Question1 point(s)
If the labor period lasts only for 3 hours, the nurse should
suspect that the following conditions may occur. Select all
that apply.
A. Laceration of cervix
B. Laceration of perineum Correct Answer: B. From the beginning of one contraction
to the beginning of the next contraction.
C. Cranial hematoma in the fetus
71. Question1 point(s)
D. Fetal anoxia
The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the:
Correct Answer: A, B, C, & D
A. Acceleration
68. Question1 point(s)
B. Acme

C. Deceleration
The primary power involved in labor and delivery is:
D. Axiom
A. Bearing down ability of a mother.
Correct Answer: B. Acme
B. Cervical effacement and dilatation.
72. Question1 point(s)
C. Uterine contraction.
When determining the duration of a uterine contraction the
D. Valsalva technique. right technique is to time it from:
Correct Answer: C. Uterine contraction A. The beginning of one contraction to the end of the same
69. Question1 point(s) contraction.

The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a uterine B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of another
contraction is: contraction.

A. Place the palm of the hands-on the abdomen and time C. The acme point of one contraction to the acme point of
the contraction. another contraction.
B. Place the fingertips lightly on the suprapubic area and D. The beginning of one contraction to the end of another
time the contraction. contraction.

Correct Answer: A. The beginning of one contraction to the

C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and end of the same contraction.
try to indent the abdominal wall at the height of the
contraction. 73. Question1 point(s)

D. Put the palm of the hands-on the fundal area and feel When the bag of water ruptures, the nurse should check the
the contraction at the fundal area. characteristic of the amniotic fluid. The normal color of
amniotic fluid is:
Correct Answer: C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the
fundal area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the A. Clear as water
height of the contraction.
B. Bluish
70. Question1 point(s)
C. Greenish
To monitor the frequency of the uterine contraction during
labor, the right technique is to time the contraction is: D. Yellowish

A. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the
same contraction.
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning
of the next contraction.
C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the
next contraction.
Correct Answer: A. Clear as water
74. Question1 point(s)
When the bag of waters ruptures spontaneously, the nurse
should inspect the vaginal introitus for possible cord
prolapse. If there is part of the cord that has prolapsed into
the vaginal opening the correct nursing intervention is:

D. From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of A. Push back the prolapsed cord into the vaginal canal.
the next contraction.
 B. Place the mother in a semi fowlers position to improve
circulation.

C. Cover the prolapsed cord with sterile gauze wet with

sterile NSS and place the woman in Trendelenburg position.

D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place the woman
in Sim's position.

Correct Answer: C. Cover the prolapsed cord with sterile

gauze wet with sterile NSS and place the woman in
Trendelenburg position.

75. Question1 point(s)

The fetal heartbeat should be monitored every 15 minutes

during the 2nd stage of labor. The characteristic of a normal
fetal heart rate is:

A. The heart rate will decelerate during a contraction and

then go back to its pre-contraction rate after the
contraction.

B. The heart rate will accelerate during a contraction and

remain slightly above the pre-contraction rate at the end of
the contraction.

C. The rate should not be affected by the uterine

contraction.

D. The heart rate will decelerate at the middle of a

contraction and remain so for about a minute after the
contraction.

Correct Answer: A. The heart rate will decelerate during a

contraction and then go back to its pre-contraction rate
after the contraction.
Mechanism of labor, also known as the cardinal
movements, refers to the sequencing of events involved in
posturing and positioning that allows the baby to find the
easiest to come out of the birth canal. Arrange the following
mechanisms of labor in the order during the course of labor
and fetal delivery.
View Answers:
Engagement
Descent
Flexion
Internal rotation
Extension
External rotation
Expulsion
2. Question1 point(s)
The first thing that a nurse must ensure when the baby’s
head comes out is
A. The cord is intact
B. No part of the cord is encircling the baby’s neck
C. The cord is still attached to the placenta
D. The cord is still pulsating
Correct Answer: B. No part of the cord is encircling the
baby’s neck
3. Question1 point(s)
To ensure that the baby will breathe as soon as the head is
delivered, the nurse’s priority action is to
A. Slap the baby’s buttocks to make the baby cry.
B. Suction the nose and mouth to remove mucous
secretions.
C. Clamp the cord about 6 inches from the base.
D. Check the baby’s color to make sure it is not cyanotic.
Correct Answer: B. Suction the nose and mouth to remove
mucous secretions.
4. Question1 point(s)
When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the
nurse should observe the following, except?
A. Use up-down technique with one stroke.
B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus.
C. Use mild soap and warm water.
D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area.
Correct Answer: D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the
perineal area
5. Question1 point(s)
What are the important considerations that the nurse must
remember after the placenta is delivered? Select all that
apply.
A. Check if the placenta is complete including the
membranes
B. Check if the cord is long enough for the baby
C. Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels
D. Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion
Correct Answer: A & C
6. Question1 point(s)
The following are correct statements about false labor,
except?
A. The pain is irregular in intensity and frequency.
B. The duration of contraction progressively lengthens over
time.
C. There is no bloody vaginal discharge.
D. The cervix is still closed.
Correct Answer: B. The duration of contraction
progressively lengthens over time
7. Question1 point(s)
The passageway in labor and delivery of the fetus include
the following, except?
A. Distensibility of lower uterine segment
B. Cervical dilatation and effacement
C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus
D. Flexibility of the pelvis
Correct Answer: D. Flexibility of the pelvis
8. Question1 point(s)
The normal umbilical cord is composed of: 12. Question1 point(s)

A. 2 arteries and 1 vein When the shiny portion of the placenta comes out first is
called which of the following mechanisms?
B. 2 veins and 1 artery
A. Marmets
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
B. Ritgens
D. None of the above
C. Duncan
Correct Answer: A. 2 arteries and 1 vein
D. Schultze
9. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: D. Schultze
At what stage of labor and delivery does a primigravida
differ mainly from a multigravida? 13. Question1 point(s)

A. Stage 1 When the baby’s head is out, the immediate action of the
nurse is
B. Stage 2
A. Cut the umbilical cord
C. Stage 3
B. Wipe the baby’s face and suction mouth first
D. Stage 4
C. Check if there is a cord coiled around the neck
Correct Answer: A. Stage 1
D. Deliver the anterior shoulder
10. Question1 point(s)
Correct Answer: C. Check if there is a cord coiled around the
The second stage of labor begins with ___ and ends with neck.
__?
14. Question1 point(s)
A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends with
delivery of placenta. When delivering the baby’s head the nurse supports the
mother’s perineum to prevent a tear. This technique is
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with delivery of called
the baby.
A. Marmet’s technique
C. Begins with complete dilatation and effacement of cervix
and ends with delivery of the baby. B. Ritgen’s technique

D. Begins with passage of show and ends with full dilatation C. Duncan maneuver
and effacement of cervix.
D. Schultze maneuver
Correct Answer: C. Begins with complete dilatation and
effacement of cervix and ends with delivery of baby Correct Answer: B. Ritgen’s technique

11. Question1 point(s) 15. Question1 point(s)

The following are signs that the placenta has detached, The basic delivery set for normal vaginal delivery includes
except? the following instruments/articles, except?

A. Lengthening of the cord A. 2 clamps

B. Uterus becomes more globular B. Pair of scissors

C. Sudden gush of blood C. Kidney Basin

D. Mother feels like bearing down D. Retractor

Correct Answer: D. Mother feels like bearing down Correct Answer: D. Retractor
16. Question1 point(s)

As soon as the placenta is delivered, the nurse must do A. Terbutaline

which of the following actions?
B. Pitocin
A. Inspect the placenta for completeness including the
membranes. C. Magnesium sulfate

B. Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal. D. Lidocaine

C. Label the placenta properly. Correct Answer: B. Pitocin

D. Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the nursing 20. Question1 point(s)
aide to dispose properly. The partograph is a tool used to monitor labor. The
Correct Answer: A. Inspect the placenta for completeness maternal parameters measured/monitored are the
including the membranes. following, except?

17. Question1 point(s) A. Vital signs

In vaginal delivery done in the hospital setting, the doctor B. Fluid intake and output
routinely orders oxytocin to be given to the mother C. Uterine contraction
parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given after the placenta
has been delivered and not before because: D. Cervical dilatation

A. Oxytocin will prevent bleeding. Correct Answer: B. Fluid intake and output

B. Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus trap the
placenta inside.
C. Oxytocin will facilitate placental delivery.
D. Giving oxytocin will ensure complete delivery of the
placenta.
Correct Answer: B. Oxytocin can make the cervix close and
thus trap the placenta inside
Option D: The central feature of the partogram is a graph
where cervical dilatation is plotted. Along the left side,
there are squares from 0 to 10, each representing 1-cm
dilatation. Along the bottom of graph are numbers 0–24
each presenting 1 h. The first stage of labor is divided into
latent and active phases. The latent phase is from 0 to 3 cm,
and it lasts up to 8 h. The active phase is from 3 to 10 cm
(full cervical dilatation). The dilatation of the cervix is
plotted with “x.”

18. Question1 point(s) 21. Question1 point(s)

In a gravido-cardiac mother, the first 2 hours postpartum The following are natural childbirth procedures, except?
(4th stage of labor and delivery) particularly in a cesarean
section is a critical period because at this stage A. Lamaze method

A. There is a fluid shift from the placental circulation to the B. Dick-Read method
maternal circulation which can overload the compromised C. Ritgen’s maneuver
heart.
D. Psychoprophylactic method
B. The maternal heart is already weak and the mother can
die. Correct Answer: C. Ritgen’s maneuver

C. The delivery process is strenuous to the mother. 22. Question1 point(s)

D. The mother is tired and weak which can distress the The following are common causes of dysfunctional labor.
heart. Which of these can a nurse, on her own manage?

19. Question1 point(s) A. Pelvic bone contraction

This drug is usually given parenterally to enhance uterine B. Full bladder

contraction:
C. Extension rather than flexion of the head
D. Cervical rigidity Correct Answer: A. LOA

Correct Answer: B. Full bladder 27. Question1 point(s)

23. Question1 point(s) The following are types of breech presentation, except:

At what stage of labor is the mother advised to bear down? A. Footling

A. When the mother feels the pressure at the rectal area. B. Frank

B. During a uterine contraction. C. Complete

C. In between uterine contraction to prevent uterine D. Incomplete

rupture.
28. Question1 point(s)
D. Anytime the mother feels like bearing down.
When the nurse palpates the suprapubic area of the mother
Correct Answer: B. During a uterine contraction and found that the presenting part is still movable, the right
term for this observation that the fetus is
24. Question1 point(s)
A. Engaged
The normal dilatation of the cervix during the first stage of
labor in a nullipara is B. Descended

A. 1.2 cm./hr C. Floating

B. 1.5 cm./hr. D. Internal Rotation

C. 1.8 cm./hr Correct Answer: C. Floating

D. 2.0 cm./hr 29. Question1 point(s)

Correct Answer: A. 1.2 cm./hr The placenta should be delivered normally within how
many minutes after the delivery of the baby?
25. Question1 point(s)
A. 5 minutes
When the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spine, it is
said that the station of the head is B. 30 minutes

A. Station –1 C. 45 minutes

B. Station “0” D. 60 minutes

C. Station +1 Correct Answer: B. 30 minutes

D. Station +2 30. Question1 point(s)

Correct Answer: B. Station “0”
26. Question1 point(s)
During an internal examination, the nurse palpated the
posterior fontanel to be at the left side of the mother at the
upper quadrant. The interpretation is that the position of
the fetus is:
When shaving a woman in preparation for cesarean section,
the area to be shaved should be from:
A. Under breast to mid-thigh including the pubic area.
B. The umbilicus to the mid-thigh.
C. Xiphoid process to the pubic area.

A. LOA D. Above the umbilicus to the pubic area.

B. ROP Correct Answer: A. Under breast to mid-thigh including the

pubic area.
C. LOP

D. ROA
31. Question1 point(s)
During the postpartum period, the fundus of the uterus is
expected to go down normally about how many
centimeters per day?
Correct Answer: B. Prevent the mother from producing
antibodies against the Rh(+) antigen that she may have
gotten when she delivered to her Rh(+) baby
35. Question1 point(s)

A. 1.0 cm To enhance milk production, a lactating mother must do the

following interventions, except:
B. 2.0 cm
A. Increase fluid intake including milk.
C. 2.5 cm
B. Eat foods that increase lactation which is called
D. 3.0 cm galactagogues.
Correct Answer: A. 1.0 cm C. Exercise adequately like aerobics.
32. Question1 point(s) D. Have adequate nutrition and rest.
The lochia on the first few days after delivery is Correct Answer: C. Exercise adequately like aerobics.
characterized as
36. Question1 point(s)
A. Pinkish with some blood clots
The nursing intervention to relieve pain in breast
B. Whitish with some mucus engorgement while the mother continues to breastfeed is
C. Reddish with some mucus A. Apply cold compress on the engorged breast.
D. Serous with some brown tinged mucus B. Apply warm compress on the engorged breast.
Correct Answer: C. Reddish with some mucus C. Massage the breast.
33. Question1 point(s) D. Apply analgesic ointment.
Lochia normally disappears after how many days Correct Answer: B. Apply warm compress on the engorged
postpartum? breast
A. 5 days 37. Question1 point(s)
B. 7-10 days A woman who delivered normally per vaginam is expected
C. 18-21 days to void within how many hours after delivery?

D. 28-30 days A. 3 hrs

Correct Answer: B. 7-10 days B. 4 hrs

34. Question1 point(s) C. 6-8 hrs

After an Rh(-) mother has delivered her Rh (+) baby, the D. 12-24 hours
mother is given RhoGam. This is done in order to: Correct Answer: C. 6-8 hrs
A. Prevent the recurrence of Rh(+) babies in future 38. Question1 point(s)
pregnancies.
To ensure adequate lactation the nurse should teach the
B. Prevent the mother from producing antibodies against mother to:
the Rh(+) antigen that she may have gotten when she
delivered to her Rh(+) baby. A. Breastfeed the baby on self-demand day and night.

C. Ensure those future pregnancies will not lead to B. Feed primarily during the day and allow the baby to
maternal illness. sleep through the night.

D. To prevent the newborn from having problems of C. Feed the baby every 3-4 hours following a strict
incompatibility when it breastfeeds. schedule.
D. Breastfeed when the breasts are engorged to ensure
adequate supply.
Correct Answer: A. Breastfeed the baby on self-demand day
and night
39. Question1 point(s)
An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a
postpartum mother with thrombophlebitis is:
A. Encourage the mother to ambulate to relieve the pain in
the leg.
B. Instruct the mother to apply elastic bondage from the
foot going towards the knee to improve venous return flow.
C. Apply warm compress on the affected leg to relieve the
pain.
D. Elevate the affected leg and keep the patient on bedrest.
CorrectCorrect Answer: D. Elevate the affected leg and keep
the patient on bed rest.
40. Question1 point(s)
The nurse should anticipate that hemorrhage related to
uterine atony may occur postnatally if this condition was
present during the delivery:
A. Excessive analgesia was given to the mother.
B. Placental delivery occurred within thirty minutes after
the baby was born.
C. An episiotomy had to be done to facilitate delivery of the
head.
D. The labor and delivery lasted for 12 hours.
Correct Answer: A. Excessive analgesia was given to the
mother.
41. Question1 point(s)
According to Rubin’s theory of maternal role adaptation,
the mother will go through 3 stages during the postpartum
period. These stages are:
A. Going through, adjustment period, adaptation period
B. Taking-in, taking hold and letting-go
C. Attachment phase, adjustment phase, adaptation phase
D. Taking-hold, letting-go, attachment phase
Correct Answer: B. Taking-in, taking-hold and letting-go
42. Question1 point(s)
The neonate of a mother with diabetes mellitus is prone to
developing hypoglycemia because:
A. The pancreas is immature and unable to secrete the
needed insulin.
B. There is rapid diminution of glucose level in the baby’s
circulating blood and his pancreas is normally secreting
insulin.
C. The baby is reacting to the insulin given to the mother.
D. His kidneys are immature leading to a high tolerance for
glucose.
Correct Answer: B. There is rapid diminution of glucose level
in the baby’s circulating blood and his pancreas is normally
secreting insulin.
43. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following is an abnormal vital sign in
postpartum?
A. Pulse rate between 50-60/min
B. BP diastolic increase from 80 to 95mm Hg
C. BP systolic between 100-120mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 16-20/min
Correct Answer: B. BP diastolic increase from 80 to 95mm
Hg
44. Question1 point(s)
The uterine fundus right after delivery of placenta is
palpable at
A. Level of Xiphoid process
B. Level of umbilicus
C. Level of symphysis pubis
D. Midway between umbilicus and symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: B. Level of umbilicus
45. Question1 point(s)
A nurse is monitoring the amount of lochia drainage in a
client who is 2 hours postpartum and notes that the client
has a saturated perineal pad in 1 hour. The nurse reports
the amount of lochial flow as:
A. Scanty
B. Light
C. Heavy A. Make the baby suck the breast regularly.

D. Excessive B. Apply ice cap on fundus.

Correct Answer: C. Heavy C. Massage the fundus vigorously for 15 minutes until
contracted.
46. Question1 point(s)
D. Give oxytocin as ordered.
In a woman who is not breastfeeding, menstruation usually
occurs after how many weeks? Correct Answer: C. Massage the fundus vigorously for 15
minutes until contracted.
A. 2-4 weeks
50. Question1 point(s)
B. 6-8 weeks
The following are nursing interventions to relieve
C. 6 months episiotomy wound pain, except:
D. 12 months A. Giving analgesic as ordered
Correct Answer: B. 6-8 weeks B. Sitz bath

C. Perineal heat
47. Question1 point(s) D. Perineal care
The following are nursing measures to stimulate lactation, Correct Answer: D. Perineal care
except:
51. Question1 point(s)
A. Frequent regular breastfeeding
Postpartum blues is said to be normal provided that the
B. Breast pumping following characteristics are present. These are
C. Breast massage A. Within 3-10 days only
D. Application of cold compress on the breast B. Woman exhibits the following symptoms- episodic
Correct Answer: D. Application of cold compress on the tearfulness, fatigue, oversensitivity, poor appetite
breast C. Maybe more severe symptoms in primipara
48. Question1 point(s) D. All of the above
When the uterus is firm and contracted after delivery but Correct Answer: D. All of the above
there is vaginal bleeding, the nurse should suspect which of
the following? 52. Question1 point(s)

A. Uterine hypercontractility The neonatal circulation differs from the fetal circulation
because
B. Uterine atony
A. The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an organ and most
C. Uterine inversion of the blood in the fetal circulation is mixed blood.
D. Laceration of soft tissues of the cervix and vagina B. The blood at the left atrium of the fetal heart is shunted
Correct Answer: D. Laceration of soft tissues of the cervix to the right atrium to facilitate its passage to the lungs.
and vagina. C. The blood in the left side of the fetal heart contains
49. Question1 point(s) oxygenated blood while the blood on the right side contains
unoxygenated blood.
The following are interventions to make the fundus
contract postpartally, except: D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A. The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an D. Middle third of the thigh
organ and most of the blood in the fetal circulation is mixed
blood. Correct Answer: D. Middle third of the thigh

53. Question1 point(s) 56. Question1 point(s)

The normal respiration of a newborn immediately after At what APGAR score at 5 minutes after birth should
birth is characterized as: resuscitation be initiated?

A. Shallow and irregular with short periods of apnea lasting A. 1-3

not longer than 15 seconds, 30-60 breaths per minute. B. 7-8
B. 20-40 breaths per minute, abdominal breathing with C. 9-10
active use of intercostals muscles.
D. 6-7
C. 30-60 breaths per minute with apnea lasting more than
15 seconds, abdominal breathing. Correct Answer: A. 1-3

D. 30-50 breaths per minute, active use of abdominal and 57. Question1 point(s)
intercostal muscles.
Right after birth, when the skin of the baby’s trunk is pinkish
Correct Answer: A. Shallow and irregular with short periods but the soles of the feet and palm of the hands are bluish
of apnea lasting not longer than 15 seconds, 30-60 breaths this is called:
per minute.
A. Syndactyly

B. Acrocyanosis
The baby is checked at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth
for heart and respiratory rates, muscle tone, reflexes, and C. Peripheral cyanosis
color. A baby who needs help with any of these issues is D. Cephalo-caudal cyanosis
getting constant attention during those first 5 to 10
minutes. Correct Answer: B. Acrocyanosis

54. Question1 point(s) 58. Question1 point(s)

The anterior fontanelle is characterized as: The minimum birth weight for full-term babies to be
considered normal is:
A. 3-4 cm anteroposterior diameter and 2-3 cm transverse
diameter, diamond shape. A. 2,000 gms

B. 2-3 cm anteroposterior diameter and 3-4 cm transverse B. 1,500 gms

diameter and diamond shape.
C. 2,500 gms
C. 2-3 cm in both anteroposterior and transverse diameter
and diamond shape. D. 3,000 gms

D. None of the above. Correct Answer: C. 2,500 gms

Correct Answer: A. 3-4 cm anteroposterior diameter and 2- 59. Question1 point(s)

3 cm transverse diameter, diamond shape.
This procedure is done to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum
55. Question1 point(s) is:

The ideal site for vitamin K injection in the newborn is: A. Marmet’s technique

A. Right upper arm B. Ophthalmic wash

B. Left upper arm C. Ritgen’s method

C. Either right or left buttocks D. Crede’s method

Correct Answer: D. Crede’s method

60. Question1 point(s)
Which of the following characteristics will distinguish a
postmature neonate at birth?
A. Plenty of lanugo and vernix caseosa.
B. Lanugo mainly on the shoulders and vernix in the skin
folds.
C. Pinkish skin with good turgor.
D. Almost leather-like, dry, cracked skin, negligible vernix
caseosa.
Correct Answer: D. Almost leather-like, dry, cracked skin,
negligible vernix caseosa
61. Question1 point(s)
What would be the appropriate first nursing action when
caring for a 20-year old G1P0 woman at 39 weeks gestation
who is in active labor and for whom an assessment reveals
mild variable fetal heart rate deceleration
A. Notify the physician
B. Prepare the client for immediate delivery
C. Readjust the fetal monitor
D. Change the maternal position
Correct Answer: D. Change the maternal position
62. Question1 point(s)
In basal body temperature (BBT) technique, the sign that
ovulation has occurred is an elevation of body temperature
by
A. 1.0-1.4 degrees centigrade
B. 0.2-0.4 degrees centigrade
C. 2.0-4.0 degrees centigrade
D. 1.0-4.0 degrees centigrade
Correct Answer: B. 0.2-0.4 degrees centigrade
63. Question1 point(s)
Lactation Amenorrhea Method(LAM) can be an effective
method of natural birth control if
A. The mother breastfeeds mainly at night time when
ovulation could possibly occur.
B. The mother breastfeeds exclusively and regularly during
the first 6 months without giving supplemental feedings.
C. The mother uses mixed feeding faithfully.
D. The mother breastfeeds regularly until 1 year with no
supplemental feedings.
Correct Answer: B. The mother breastfeeds exclusively and
regularly during the first 6 months without giving
supplemental feedings.
64. Question1 point(s)
The intrauterine device prevents pregnancy by the ffg
mechanism, except:
A. Endometrium inflames.
B. Fundus contracts to expel uterine contents.
C. Copper embedded in the IUD can kill the sperms.
D. Sperms will be barred from entering the fallopian tubes.
Correct Answer: D. Sperms will be barred from entering the
fallopian tubes.
65. Question1 point(s)
Oral contraceptive pills are of different types. Which type is
most appropriate for mothers who are breastfeeding?
A. Estrogen-only
B. Progesterone only
C. Mixed type- estrogen and progesterone
D. 21-day pills mixed type
Correct Answer: B. Progesterone only
66. Question1 point(s)
The natural family planning method called Standard Days
(SDM), is the latest type and easy to use method. However,
it is a method applicable only to women with regular
menstrual cycles between how many days?
A. 21-26 days
B. 26-32 days
C. 28-30 days
D. 24- 36 days
Correct Answer: B. 26-32 days
67. Question1 point(s) D. Undergo a complete medical check-up to rule out any
debilitating disease
Nurse Lesley is conducting health teachings to a group of
first-time mothers. Which of the following are signs of Correct Answer: A, B, & D
ovulation? Select all that apply.
71. Question1 point(s)
A. Mittelschmerz
In the sympto-thermal method, the parameters being
B. Spinnbarkeit monitored to determine if the woman is fertile or infertile
are:
C. Thin watery cervical mucus
A. Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical consistency
D. Elevated body temperature of 4.0 degrees centigrade
B. Release of ovum, temperature, and vagina
Correct Answer: A, B, & C
C. Temperature and wetness
68. Question1 point(s)
D. Temperature, endometrial secretion, mucus
The following methods of artificial birth control works as a
barrier device, except Correct Answer: A. Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical
consistency
A. Condom
72. Question1 point(s)
B. Cervical cap
The following are important considerations to teach the
C. Cervical Diaphragm woman who is on a low dose (mini-pill) oral contraceptive
D. Intrauterine device (IUD) except:

Correct Answer: D. Intrauterine device (IUD) A. The pill must be taken every day at the same time.

69. Question1 point(s) B. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she must take
2 pills for added protection.
Which of the following is a true statement about normal
ovulation? C. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she needs to
take another temporary method until she has consumed
A. It occurs on the 14th day of every cycle. the whole pack.

B. It may occur between 14-16 days before next D. If she is breastfeeding, she should discontinue using
menstruation. mini-pill and use the progestin-only type.

C. Every menstrual period is always preceded by ovulation. Correct Answer: B. If the woman fails to take a pill in one
day, she must take 2 pills for added protection.
D. The most fertile period of a woman is 2 days after
ovulation. 73. Question1 point(s)

Correct Answer: B. It may occur between 14-16 days before To determine if the cause of infertility is a blockage of the
next menstruation. fallopian tubes, the test to be done is

70. Question1 point(s) A. Huhner’s test

If a couple would like to enhance their fertility, the following B. Postcoital test
means can be done. Select all that apply.
C. Rubin’s test
A. Monitor the basal body temperature of the woman
every day to determine peak period of fertility. D. None of the above

B. Have adequate rest and nutrition Correct Answer: C. Rubin’s test

C. Have sexual contact only during the dry period of the

woman
74. Question1 point(s)

Infertility can be attributed to male causes such as the

following except:

A. Cryptorchidism

B. Orchitis

C. Sperm count of about 20 million per milliliter

D. Premature ejaculation

Correct Answer: C. Sperm count of about 20 million per

milliliter

75. Question1 point(s)

Spinnbarkeit is an indicator of ovulation which is

characteized as:

A. Thin watery mucus which can be stretched into a long

strand about 10 cm.

B. Thick mucus that is detached from the cervix during

ovulation.

C. Thin mucus that is yellowish in color with fishy odor.

D. Thick mucus vaginal discharge is influenced by high

levels of estrogen.

Correct Answer: A. Thin watery mucus which can be

stretched into a long strand about 10 cm