Test-3 - 11 Jan., - Final

TEST – 3
DATE: 11 JAN., 2024

M.M.: 720 TIME: 3 : 20 Hrs.
TEST SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : Rotational Motion, Gravitation
CHEMISTRY: Equilibrium, Redox reaction
BIOLOGY : Cell The Unit of Life, Cell cycle and Cell division, Biomolecules
WEIGHTAGE
Chapter No. of Questions in NEET Marks %age
ROTATIONAL MOTION 3 12 6.6
GRAVITATION 2 8 4.4
EQUILIBRIUM 2 8 4.4
REDOX REACTION 1 4 2.2
CELL THE UNIT OF LIFE 2 8 4.4
CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION 7 28 15.5
BIOMOLECULES 3 12 6.6
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Duration of test is 3 hours 20 minutes and questions paper contains 200 questions (Phy. 50,
Chem. 50 and Bot. 50 and Zoo. 50). The max. marks are 720. So the total number of question and
utilization of time will remain the same.
2. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and section B will
have 15 questions, out of these 15 question, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
So the total number of question and utilization of time will remain the same.
3. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the
centre in charge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensures that it contains all the pages and that no question
is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. Use blue or black ball point pen only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened.
1
PHYSICS SECTION - A following statement is true in respect of its

1. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3 rad angular momentum L about the origin?
s-2 and an initial angular speed of 2 rad s-1. (a) L acts along p.
In a time of 2 s, it has rotated through an (b) L acts along r.
angle (in rad) of (c) L is maximum when p and r are parallel.
(a) 6 (b) 10 (d) L is maximum when p is perpendicular
(c) 12 (d) 4 to r.
2. A particle of mass 1 kg is kept at (1m, 1m, 7. A circular disc of mass 2 kg and radius 1 m
1m). The moment of inertia of this particle is rotating about an axis perpendicular to its
about Z-axis would be plane and passing through its centre of
(a) 1 kg-m2 (b) 2 kg-m2 mass with a rotational kinetic energy of 8 J.
(c) 3 kg-m2 (d) None of these The angular momentum (in J-s) is
3. Moment of inertia of a rod of mass m and (a) 8 (b) 4
length l about its one end is I. If one-fourth (c) 2 (d) 1
of its length is cut away, then moment of 8. The angular momentum of a system of
inertia of the remaining rod about its one particles is conserved
end will be (a) when no external force acts upon the
3 9 system
(a) I (b) I
4 16 (b) when no external torque acts upon the
27 I system
(c) I (d)
64 16 (c) when no external impulse acts upon the
4. The torque of a force F = - 6iˆ acting at a system
(d) when axis of rotation remains same
point r  4 ˆj about origin will be
9. A particle performs uniform circular
(a) 24kˆ (b) 24kˆ motion with an angular momentum L. If the
(c) 24 ˆj (d) 24iˆ frequency of particle's motion is doubled
5. A disc is rotating with angular velocity  . and its kinetic energy halved, the angular
A force F acts at a point whose position momentum becomes
vector with respect to the axis of rotation is (a) 2L (b) 4L
r. The power associated with torque due to L L
(c) (d)
the force is given by 2 4
(a) (r  F )   (b) (r  F )   10. A rod is placed along the line y = 2x with
(c) r  ( F   ) (d) r  ( F   ) its centre at origin. The moment of inertia
6. A particle with the position vector r has of the rod is maximum about
linear momentum p. Which of the (a) X-axis (b) Y-axis
ADD- C2/30A, GROUND FLOOR , SERVICE LANE , YAMUNA VIHAR , DELHI -110053, MOBILE NO- 8448459294, 7011427765
2
(c) Z-axis (d) Data insufficient (c) I2 = I3 < I1 (d) I1 < I2 < I3
11. If F be a force acting on a particle having 14. A merry-go-round made of a ring-like
the position vector r and  be the torque of platform of radius R and mass M, is
this force about the origin, then revolving with angular speed  . A person
( a ) r.  0 and F .  0 of mass M is standing on it. At one instant,
(b) r    0 and F    0 the person jumps off the round, radially
(c) r.  0 and F .  0 away from the centre of the round (as seen
( d ) r    0 and F    0 from the round). The speed of the round
afterwards is
12. A thin uniform circular disc of mass M and
(a) 2  (b) 
radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane

about an axis passing through its centre and (c) (d) 0
2
perpendicular to its plane with an angular
15. A particle of mass m is moving in YZ-
velocity  . Another disc of same
plane with a uniform velocity  with its
1
dimensions but of mass M is placed trajectory running parallel to +ve Y-axis
4
and intersecting Z-axis at z = a as shown in
gently on the first disc co-axially. The
figure. The change in its angular
angular velocity of the system is
momentum about the origin as it bounces
2 4
(a)  (b)  elastically from a wall at y = constant is
3 5
3 1
(c)  (d) 
4 3
13. A square lamina is as shown in figure. The
moment of inertia of the frame about the
three axes as shown in figure are I1, I2 and
I3, respectively. Select the correct
alternative. (a) m a eˆx (b) 2 m a eˆx
(c) ym eˆx (d) 2 ym eˆx
16. O is the centre of equilateral triangle ABC.
F1, F2 and F3 are three forces acting along
the sides AB, BC and AC respectively as
shown in figure. What should be the
magnitude of F3, so that the total torque
about O is zero?
(a) I2 = I2 > I1 (b) I1 > I2 > I3
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3
same ring about that axis perpendicular to
its plane and passing through centre is
I
(a) (b) 2I
2
I
(c) (d) 4I
4
20. The torque of a force F  2iˆ  3 ˆj  5kˆ
F1  F2
(a) (b) F1-F2 acting at a point whose position vector
2
(c) F1 + F2 (d) 2(F1 + F2) r  3iˆ  3 ˆj  5kˆ about the origin is
17. A rod of length L whose lower end is fixed (a) 3iˆ  5kˆ (b) 5 ˆj  3kˆ
along the horizontal plane starts to topple
(c) 5 ˆj  3kˆ (d) 3iˆ  5 ˆj  3kˆ
from the vertical position. The velocity of
the upper end of the rod when it hits the 21. The instantaneous angular position of a
ground is point on a rotating wheel is given by the
equation  (t )  2t 3  6t 2 . The torque on the
(a) 3gL (b) 2gL
wheel becomes zero at
(c) gL (d) 5gL (a) t = 0.5 s (b) t = 0.25 s
18. Assertion If a particle moves with a (c) t = 2 s (d) t = 1 s
constant velocity, then angular momentum 22. Which of the following statements about
of this particle about any point remains the gravitational constant is true?
constant. (a) It is a force.
Reason Angular momentum has the units (b) It has no unit.
of Planck’s constant. (c) It has same value in all systems of unit.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct (d) It does not depend on the nature of the
and Reason is the correct explanation of medium in which the bodies are kept.
Assertion. 23. If the distance between the sun and the
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct earth is increased by three times, then
but Reason is not the correct explanation of attraction between two will
Assertion. (a) remain constant
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is (b) decrease by 63%
incorrect. (c) increase by 63%
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is (d) decrease by 89%
correct.
19. Moment of inertia of ring about its
diameter is I. The moment of inertia of the
4
24. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean 28. Consider the two identical particles shown
density of earth  are related by which of in the given figure. They are released from
the following relations? rest and may move towards each other
(G = gravitational constant and R = radius under the influence of mutual gravitational
of earth) force. The gravitational potential energy of
4 gR 2 4 gR3 the two particle system
(a)   (b)  
3G 3G
3g 3g
(c)   (d)  
4 GR 4 GR 3
25. The angular speed of earth in rad s-1, so that (a) zero
the object on equator may appear (b) constant (  0)
weightless, is (radius of earth = 6400 km) (c) decreases as the separation decreases
(a) 1.23  10-3 (b) 6.20  10-3 (d) increases as the separation decreases
(c) 1.56 (d) 1.23  10-5 29. Find the potential energy of four-particles,
26. Gravitational field due to a solid sphere each of mass 1 kg placed at the four
(a) remains constant throughout the sphere vertices of a square of side length 1 m.
(b) increases inside the sphere and (a) +4.0 G (b) -7.5G
decreases outside the sphere (c) -5.4 G (d) + 6.3 G
(c) increases throughout with distance from 30. If an object of mass m is taken from the
the centre surface of earth (radius R) to a height 5R,
(d) decreases throughout with distance then the work done is
from the centre (a) 2mgR (b) mgR
27. The diagram showing the variation of 5 3
(c) mgR (d) mgR
gravitational potential of earth with 6 2
distance from the centre of earth is 31. The escape velocity of a body projected
vertically upward from the earth’s surface
is 11.2 kms-1. If the body is projected in a
direction making 30o angle to the vertical,
its escape velocity in this case will be
11.2
(a) 11.2 kms-1 (b) kms 1
2
3 11.2
(c) 11.2  kms 1 (d) kms 1
2 3
32. The escape velocity from earth is ve. A
body is projected with velocity 2ve. With
5
what constant velocity will it move in the PHYSICS SECTION - B
inter planetary space? 36. Assertion: Areal velocity of a planet around
(a) ve (b) 2ve sun will become two times, if mass of
planet is halved.
(c) 3ve (d) 5ve
L
33. The centripetal force on a satellite orbiting Reasons: Areal velocity = , where L is
2m
round the earth and the gravitational force angular momentum of planet about centre
of earth acting on the satellite both equals of sun.
to F. The net force on the satellite is (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
(a) zero (b) F and Reason is the correct explanation of
(c) F 2 (d) 2 F Assertion.
34. A satellite is revolving in circular orbit of (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
radius r around the earth of mass M. Time but Reason is not the correct explanation of
of revolution of satellite is Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is
correct.
(d) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is
correct.
37. According to Newton’s law of gravitation,
the magnitude of the force F on point
masses m1 and m2 (say) is given by
35. As observed from the earth, the sun appears Gm1m2
| F | .
to move in an approximate circular orbit. r2
For the motion of another planet like I. This equation is not directly applicable
mercury as observed from the earth, this for the gravitational force between
would extended object (like the earth) and a point
(a) be similarly true mass.
(b) not be true because the force between II. This equation can be applied to find the
the earth and mercury is not inverse square gravitational force between an extended
law object and a point mass provided r is the
(c) not be true because the major distance of the point mass from the
gravitational force on mercury is due to the geometric centre of the extended objects.
sun Which of the following statement(s) about
(d) not be true because mercury is this equation is/are correct?
influenced by forces other than (a) Only (b) Only II
gravitational forces (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I and II
6
38. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M
and radii R and 2R are released in free
space with initial separation between their
centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each
other due to gravitational force only, then Which of the above relation(s) is/are true?
the distance covered by the smaller body (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
before collision is (c) (iii) only (d) (i) and (iii)
(a) 2.5 R (b) 4.5 R 41. What is the maximum height attained by a
(c) 7.5 R (d) 1.5 R body projected with a velocity equal to
39. Two identical thin rings A and B each of one-third of the escape velocity from the
radius R are co-axially placed at a distance surface of the earth?
R. If mass of rings are m1, m2 respectively, (Radius of the earth = R)
then the work done in moving a mass m (a) R/2 (b) R/3
from centre of one ring to that of the other (c) R/5 (d) R/8
is 42. If the mass of a body is M on the surface of
Gm the earth, then mass of the same body on
(a) ( 2  1) m
m2 R the surface of the moon is
G m(m1  m2 ) M
(b) ( 2  1) (a) 6 M (b)
2R 6
(c) zero (d) M
Gm 2
(c) (m1  m2 ) 43. Two astronauts are floating in gravitation
R
free space after having lost contact with
(d) zero
their spaceship. The two will
40. Consider a satellite orbiting the earth as
(a) keep floating at the same distance
shown in the figure below. Let La and Lp
between them
represent the angular momentum of the
(b) move towards each other
satellite about the earth when at aphelion
(c) move away from each other
and perihelion, respectively. Consider the
(d) will become stationary
following relations.
44. Reason of weightlessness in a satellite is
(a) zero gravity
(b) no atmosphere
(c) zero reaction force by satellite surface
(d) None of the above
45. Both the earth and the moon are subject to
the gravitational force of the sun. As
7
observed from the sun, the orbit of the 2 4 ML 2
(a) ML2 (b)
moon 3 3
(a) will be elliptical 5ML2 ML2
(b) will not be strictly elliptical because the (c) (d)
3 3
total gravitational force on it is not central
(c) is not elliptical but will necessarily be a CHEMISTRY SECTION - A
closed curve 51. If the value of equilibrium constant for a
(d) deviates considerably from being particular reaction is 1.6 1012 , then at
elliptical due to influence of planets other equilibrium, the system will contain
then the earth (a) mostly products
46. What will be a body's angular momentum if (b) similar amounts of reactants and
the time period is doubled and its moment products
of inertia is kept constant? (c) all reactants
(a) remain constant (d) mostly reactants
(d) become half 52. For the reaction
(c) doubles PCl3 ( g )  Cl2 ( g ) PCl5 ( g ) the value
(d) quadruples
of Kc at 250oC is 26. The value of Kp at
47. L2 / 2 I expresses:
this temperature will be
(a) rotational K.E of a body
(a) 0.61 (b) 0.57
(b) P.E of a body
(c) 0.83 (d) 0.46
(c) torque
53. In a reversible reaction, two substances
(d) power
are in equilibrium. If the concentration of
48. The moment of inertia (I) and the angular
each one is doubled, the equilibrium
momentum (L) are related by the
constant will be
expression
(a) Reduced to half its original value
(a) I = L  (b) L = I 
(b) Reduced to one fourth of its original
(c) L = I2  (d)  = LI value
49. Moment of inertia of a body depends upon (c) Doubled
(a) axis of rotation (b) torque (d) Constant
(c) angular momentum (d) angular 54. Consider the reaction where Kp = 0.497
velocity at 500 K PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
50. Three thin rods each of length L and mass
If the three gases are mixed in a rigid
M are placed along X, Y and Z –axes such
container so that the partial pressure of
that one end of each rod is at origin. The
each gas is initially 1 atm, which is true?
moment of inertia of this system about Z-
(a) More PCl5 will be produced
axis is
(b) More PCl3 will be produced
8
(c) Equilibrium will be establisehd when each reactant and product is 1 mole, then
50% of the reaction is complete at equilibrium
(d) None of the above (a) [I2] = [H2], [I2] > [HI]
55. Which of the following statements is (b) [I2] < [H2], [I2] = [HI]
correct for a reversible process in a state (c) [I2] = [H2], [I2] < [HI]
of equilibrium? (d) [I2] > [H2], [I2] = [HI]
59. If concentration of OH- ions in the
reaction
Fe (OH)3 (s) Fe3+ (aq) + 3 OH- (aq)
1
is decreased by times, then equilibrium
4
56. The following equilibrium constants are concentration of Fe3+ will increase by
given: (a) 8 times (b) 16 times
(c) 64 times (d) 4 times
60. The reaction
2 A (g)  B (g) 3 C (g)  D (g)
is begun with the concentrations of A and
B both at an initial value of 1.00 M.
The equilibrium constant for the When equilibrium is reached, the
oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO concentration of D is measured and
is. found to be 0.25 M. The value for the
(a) K1K2/K3 (b) K 2 K 33 / K1 equilibrium constant for this reaction is
(c) K 2 K 32 / K1 (d) K 22 K 3 / K1 given by the expression
57. An open beaker of water in equilibrium
with water vapour is in a sealed
container. When a few grams of glucose
are added to the beaker of water, the rate
at which water molecules 61. For the reaction C (s) + CO2 (g)  2 CO
(a) leave the vapour decreases (g), Kp = 63 atm at 100 K. If at
(b) leave the solution decreases equilibrium, pCO  10 pCO2 , then the total
(c) leave the vapour increases pressure of the gases at equilibrium is
(d) leave the solution increases (a) 6.3 atm (b) 6.93 atm
58. For the reaction, H2 + I2 2 HI, K = (c) 0.63 atm (d) 0.693 atm
47.6. If the initial number of moles of 62. The values of K p1 and K p2 for the
reaction
9
X Y+Z …(1) (d) If (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
and A 2B …(2) 65. Assertion. If standard free energy change
are in the ratio of 9: 1. If the degree of of reaction is zero, this implies that
dissociation of X and A be equal, then equilibrium constant of the reaction is
total pressure at equilibrium (1) and (2) unity.
are in the ratio Reason. For a reaction in equilibrium,
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 9 equilibrium constant is always unity.
(c) 36 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
63. Assertion. For the reaction, N2 (g) + 3 H2 True; Statement-2 is the correct
(g) 2 NH3 (g), units of Kc = L2 mol-2. explanation of Statement-1.
Reason. For the reaction, N2 (g) + 3 H2 (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
(g) 2 NH3 (g), True; Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation of Statement-1.
[ NH 3 ]2
Equilibrium constant, K c  . (c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
[ N 2 ][ H 2 ]3
False.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is (d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is the correct True,
explanation of Statement-1. 66. pH value of which of the following is
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is NOT equal to one?
True; Statement-2 is not a correct (a) 0.1 M CH3COOH
explanation of Statement-1. (b) 0.1 M HNO3
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is (c) 0.05 M H2SO4
False. (d) 50 cm3 0.4 M HCl + 50 cm3 0.2 M
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is NaOH
True, 67. Volume of 0.1 M NaOH needed for the
64. Assertion (A) : A catalyst does not neutralisation of 20 mL of 0.05 M oxalic
influences the values of equilibrium acid is
constant (a) 10 mL (b) 15 mL
Reason (R) : Catalyst influences the rate of (c) 20 mL (d) 30 mL
both forward and backward reactions M M
equally. 68. 30 cc of HCl , 20 cc of HNO3 and
3 2
(a) If both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) M
is the correct explanation for (A) 40 cc of NaOH solutions are mixed
4
(b) If both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) and the volume was made up to 1 dm3.
is not the correct explanation of (A) The pH of the resulting solution is
(c) If (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect (a) 2 (b) 1
10
(c) 3 (d) 8 (c) On addition of catalyst, the
69. Assertion. The pH of an acidic buffer equilibrium constant value is not
solution becomes double if concentration affected.
of salt and acid are doubled. (d) Equilibrium constant for a reaction
Reason. pH of a buffer solution depends with negative H value decreases as the
upon the concentration of the acid as well temperature increases.
as the salt. 72. What will be the value of pH of 0.01 mol
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the dm-3 CH3COOH (Ka = 1.74  10-5)?
correct explanation of A. (a) 3.4 (b) 3.6
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not (c) 3.9 (d) 3.0
the correct explanation of A. 73. Which of the following options will be
(c) A is correct but R is wrong. correct for the stage of half completion of
(d) A is wrong but R is correct. the reaction A B.
70. Assertion. Solutions of strong acids and (a) G   0 (b) G   0
strong bases also act as buffers. (c) G   0 (d)
Reason. Addition of a few drops of a
G    RT ln 2
dilute acid or a dilute base have
74. Assertion (A): Increasing order of acidity
negligible effect on their H+ ion or OH-
of hydrogen halides is HF < HCl < HBr <
ion concentration
HI.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
Reason (R) : While comparing acids
correct explanation of A.
formed by the elements belonging to the
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not
same group of periodic table, H-A bond
the correct explanation of A.
strength is a more important factor in
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
determining acidity of an acid than the
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.
polar nature of the bond.
71. Which of the following statements is
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
incorrect?
(a) In equilibrium mixture of ice and
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
water kept in perfectly insulated flask,
mass of ice and water does not change
(c) A is true but R is false.
with time
(d) Both A and R are false.
(b) The intensity of red colour increases
75. Conjugate bases for Bronsted acids H2O
when oxalic acid is added to a solution
and HF are
containing iron (III) nitrate and
(a) H3O+ and H2F+ respectively
potassium thiocyanate.
(b) OH- and H2F+ respectively
11
+ -
(c) H3O and F respectively (c) 7.2 (d) 6.9
(d) OH- and F- respectively 80. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is
76. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of
(a) contains replaceable H+ ion Ca(OH)2 is
(b) gives up a proton (a) 0.5  10-10 (b) 0.5  10-15
(c) accepts OH- from water releasing (c) 0.25  10-10 (d) 0.125  10-15
proton 81. In which of the following reactions H2O2
(d) combines with proton from water is a reducing agent?
molecule (a) 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2  2FeCl3 +
77. How many times 1 M CH3COOH 2H2O
solution should be diluted so that pH of (b) Cl2 + H2O2  2HCl + O2
the solution is doubled (c) 2HI + H2O2  2H2O + I2
(Ka of acetic acid = 1.8  10-5) (d) H2SO3 + H2O2  H2SO4+ H2O
(a) 20 times 82. The oxidation states of sulphur in the
(b) 200 times anions SO32 , S 2O42 and S2O62 follow the
(c) 5.55  102 times
order
(d) 5.55  104 times
78. Following solutions were prepared by
mixing different volumes of NaOH and
HCl of different concentrations:
83. ( I ) H 2O2  O3  H 2O  2O2

( II ) H 2O2  Ag2O  2 Ag  H 2O  O2
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above
reactions is respectively
(a) oxidizing in (I) and reducing in (II)
(b) reducing in (I) and oxidizing in (II)
(c) reducing in (I) and (II)
pH of which one of them will be equal to
(d) Oxidizing in (I) and (II)
1?
84. HNO2 acts both as reductant and oxidant,
(a) (2) (b) (1)
while HNO3 acts only as oxidant, it is due
(c) (4) (d) (3)
to their
79. pKa of weak acid (HA) and pKb of weak
(a) solubility ability
base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4 respectively.
(b) maximum oxidation number
The pH of their salt (AB) solution is
(c) minimum oxidation number
(a) 7.0 (b) 1.0
12
(d) minimum number of valence
electrons
85. Assertion: Fluorine exists only in -1
oxidation state.
Reason: Fluorine has 2s22p5 88. The dissociation constant of acetic acid
configuration and HCN at 25oC are 1.5  0-5 and 4.5 
(a) If both assertion and reason are true 10-10 respectively. The equilibrium
and reason is the correct explanation of constant for the equilibrium CN- +
the assertion. CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO- would
(b) If both assertion and reason are true be
and reason is not the correct explanation (a) 3.0  10-5 (b) 3.0  10-4
of the assertion. (c) 3.0  104 (d) 3.0  105
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. 89. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the
(d) If the assertion false and reason is following reaction
true. Sucrose + H2O Glucose + Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2  1013
CHEMISTRY SECTION - B
86. Assertion. If free energy change, G o of at 300 K, the value of  r G o at the same
a reaction is negative, equilibrium temperature will be
constant (K) of the reaction is greater
than 1.
Reason. For spontaneous reaction the
free energy change is negative and
equilibrium constant positive. 90. The conjugate base of OH- is
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the (a) O2- (b) O-
correct explanation of A. (c) H2O (d) O2
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not 91. If pKb for fluoride ion at 25oC is 10.83,
the correct explanation of A. the ionisation constant of hydrofluoric
(c) A is correct but R is wrong. acid at this temperature is
(d) A is wrong but R is correct. (a) 1.74  10-5 (b) 3.52  10-3
87. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and (c) 6.75  10-4 (d) 5.38  10-2
92. Arrange
K p' are the equilibrium constants at
NH 4 , H 2O, H 3O  , HF and OH  in
temperatures T1 and T2 respectively.
Assuming that heat of reaction is increasing order of acidic nature.
constant in temperature range between T1
and T2, it is readily observed that.
13
(IV) decrease in oxidation number
Select the correct terms
(a) II and III (b) I and III
(c) I and IV (d) I and II
97. Values of p, q, r, s and t are in the
following redox reaction
93. Which of the following will produce a
buffer solution when mixed in equal pBr2  qOH   rBr   sBrO3  tH 2O
volumes? (a) p-3 q-6 r-1 s-5 t-3
(a) 0.1 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm- (b) p-3 q-6 r-5 s-3 t-1
3 (c) p-3 q-6 r- 5 s-1 t-3
HCl
(b) 0.05 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol (d) p-3 q-5 r-1 s-6 t-3
dm-3 HCl 98. Equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 in the
(c) 0.1 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.05 mol following reaction is
dm-3 HCl Cr2O72  Fe2  Fe3  Cr 3
(d) 0.1 mol dm-3 CH3COONa and 0.1 M M
mol dm-3 NaOH (a) (b)
3 6
94. Three reactions involving H 2 PO4 are M M
(c) (d)
given below: 5 4
99. Which is the best description of the
behaviour of bromine in the reaction
given below?
H 2O  Br2  HOBr  HBr
In which of the above does H 2 PO4 act as (a) Proton acceptor only
an acid? (b) Both oxidised and reduced
(a) (iii) only (b) (i) only (c) Oxidised only
(c) (ii) only (d) (i) and (ii) (d) Reduced only
95. 250 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is added to 500 100. Following reaction describes the rusting
mL of 1 M HCl. What is the final of iron 4 Fe  3O2  4 Fe3  6O 2
concentration of the remaining HCl? Which one of the following statements is
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.5 m incorrect?
(c) 50 m (d) 5 m (a) This is an example of a redox reaction
96. Reduction is defined in terms of (b) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe3+
(I) electronation and hydrogenation (c) Fe3+ is an oxidising agent
(II) de-electronation and gain of oxygen (d) Metallic iron is a reducing agent
(III) increase in oxidation number
14
BIOLOGY SECTION - A 105. Identify the figure given below
101. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
I. Unicellular organisms are
incapable of independent
existence.
II. Unicellular organisms cannot
perform the essential functions of
life. (a) Tracheid
III. Anything less than a complete (b) Nerve cell
structure of a cell does not ensure (c) Lipid bilayer
independent living. (d) None of these
IV. Cell is the fundamental structural 106. How many of the following organelles
and functional unit of all living are found in prokaryotic cells?
organisms. ER, Golgi complex, Lysosome,
(a) II and III Mitochondria, Microbodies,
(b) I and II Vacuoles.
(c) IV and II (a) 1
(d) III and IV (b) 3
102. ‘Omnis cellula-e cellula’ was given in (c) 4
the year ____________. (d) None of these
(a) 1756 (b) 1855 107. Where is the genetic material located
(c) 1945 (d) 1839 in prokaryotes?
103. Who proposed the hypothesis that the (a) Nucleus
bodies of animals and plants are (b) Enveloped by nuclear membrane
composed of cells and product of cells? (c) Naked in cytoplasm
(a) Schleiden (d) None of these
(b) Schwann 108. Select the incorrect statement from the
(c) Both a and b following.
(d) None of these (a) Glycocalyx differs in composition
104. Which of the following statement is not and thickness among different
a part of final cell theory? bacteria.
(a) Cell has a thin outer layer called (b) All organisms are made of cells
plasma membrane. aggregates of cells.
(b) All living organisms are made up (c) ER helps in synthesis of proteins,
cells and products of cells lipoproteins and glycogen
(c) All cells arise from pre-existing (d) Cells of all living organisms have
cells nucleus.
(d) All the above.
15
109. Which of the following is not the (vii) External protein
function of cell wall? The correct matching of components is
(a) Provide barrier to undesirable (a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
molecule. (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) Provides structural support and (c) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(vi)
shape. (d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(vii)
(c) Prevents from bursting and 113. The ability of proteins to move laterally
collapsing within the membrane is measured as
(d) Exchange of nutrition takes place (a) Mobility (b) Flexibility
through it. (c) Fluidity (d) None of the
110. In a 70S prokaryotic ribosomes, what 114. How many of the following are not
are the subunits present in them. included in endo-membranes system?
(a) 50S and 20S Endocrine reticulum, Golgi complex,
(b) 50S and 30S Lysosome,Mitochondria,Chloroplast,
(c) 40S and 30S Vacuoles, Peroxisomes.
(d) 60S and 30S (a) 2 (b) 3
111. Gas vacuoles are found in (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) Blue green bacteria 115. Golgi apparatus is an important site for
(b) Purple bacteria the formation of which of the following
(c) Green photosynthetic bacteria constituents?
(d) All of these (a) Protein and lipids
112. Identify A, B, C and D in the given (b) Glycoprotein and glycolipids
figure (c) Carbohydrates and proteins
(d) Glucose and lipid
116. Which of the following is not true
about vacuole?
(a) Single membrane bound cell
organelle
(b) Contain water soluble pigments
anthocyanin
(c) Occupy 90% of the volume of
animal cell.
Components:
(d) It contains cell sap.
(i) Sugar
117. Which of the following statement is
(ii) Protein
correct about vacuole?
(iii) Lipid bilayer
(a) Vacuole contains water sap,
(iv) Integral protein excretory product and other
(v) Cytoplasm material not useful for the cell.
(vi) Cell wall
16
(b) In plant cell, the vacuole can 122. Select the correct matching:
occupy up to 90% of the volume Column I Column II
of the cell. (Type of (Stored food)
(c) Vacuole is bounded by tonoplast leucoplast)
(d) All the above. A. Amyloplast 1. Oil and fat
B. Elaioplast 2. Protein
118. In plants the tonoplast facilitates the
C. Aleuroplast 3. Carbohydrate
transport of a number of ions and
other materials (a) A:3, B:1, C:2
(a) Against concentration gradient (b) A:1, B:2, C:3
into vacuole (c) A:3, B:2, C:1
(b) Along concentration gradient into (d) A:2, B:3, C:1
vacuole 123. Select the incorrect statement from the
(c) Along concentration gradient into following
gas vacuoles (a) The chloroplast contains
(d) Against concentration gradient in chlorophyll and carotenoid
contractile vacuole pigments.
119. The amount or number of (b) Chromoplast contains water
mitochondria in a cell depends on soluble carotenoid pigments like
(a) Anatomical structure of the cell carotene and xanthophylls.
(b) Size of the cell (c) Plastid is easily observed under
(c) Colour and contour of the cell microscope
(d) Physiological activity of cell. (d) Chloroplast is a double
120. What is the main function of cristae? membrane bound organelle.
(a) To hold the vesicles formed 124. Thylakoid of adjacent grana connected
by flat membranous tubules is known
(b) Increase the surface area
as
(c) Increase the density of organelles
(a) Cisternae
(d) All of these
(b) Vesicles
121. Each mitochondrion is a double
(c) Vacuoles
membrane bound structure with outer
and inner membrane dividing in lumen (d) Stroma lamellae
distinctly into two aqueous 125. Ribosomes are granular structure first
compartments, the inner compartment observed under the electron
is called microscope as dense particle by which
(a) Cristae scientist?
(b) Peri-mitochondrial space (a) Robert Brown (1831)
(c) Matrix (b) George Palade (1953)
(d) F0-F1 particle (c) Camillo Golgi (1898)
(d) Singer and Nicolson (1972)
17
126. In 70S ribosomes, ‘S’ stands for (d) Nuclear pore does not allows the
(a) Svedberg’s unit movement of RNA.
(b) Sedimentation coefficient 130. Match the columns
(c) Both and b Column I Column II
(d) None of these A. Metacentric 1. Middle
127. Find out the incorrect statement from chromosomal centromere
the following B. Sub- 2. Centromere
metacentric slightly away
(a) Centrioles forms basal bodies of
from middle
cilia or flagella
C. Acrocentric 3. Centromere
(b) Centriole gives rise to spindle close to its end.
fibres at the time of cell division D. Telocentric 4. Terminal
in animal cell centromere
(c) Centrosome is an organelle (a) A:1, B:2, C:3, D:4
usually containing two cylindrical (b) A:2, B:1, C:3, D:4
structures called centrioles. (c) A:1, B:2, C:4, D:3
(d) Peripheral fibril of centriole is (d) A:4, B:3, C:2, D:1
doublet. 131. Select the incorrect statement from the
128. Select the incorrect statement from the following
following (a) Microbodies contain various
(a) Cilia and flagella are hair – like enzymes and are present in both
outgrowths of the cell membrane. plant and animal cells.
(b) Cilia causes the movement of (b) Few chromosomes have non-
either the cell or the surrounding staining secondary constriction of
medium. constant location. This gives the
(c) Bacterial flagella are structurally appearance of a small fragment
similar to eukaryotic flagella called the satellite.
(d) Flagella is responsible for cell (c) Nucleoli are spherical structures
movement. present in nucleoplasm and it is a
129. Find out the incorrect statement from site for ribosomal RNA synthesis.
the following (d) Every chromosome essentially
(a) Nuclear pore allows the has a secondary constriction or
movement of protein in both the the centromere on the sides of
direction between nucleus and which disc shaped structure
cytoplasm. called kinetochores are present.
(b) There is generally one nucleus
per cell
(c) Chromatin fibres are
nucleoprotein
18
132. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given 134. Assertion: ‘s’ in ‘80s’ represent the
figure sedimentation coefficient.
Reason: Sedimentation coefficient is
the direct measure of density and size
of ribosome.
(a) If both assertion and reason is
true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason is
true but reason is not the correct
(c) If assertion is true but reason is
(a) A: Satellite, B: Centromere, C: false.
short arm , D: Long arm, E: (d) If both assertion and reason are
Secondary constriction false.
(b) A:Secondary constriction, B: 135. Assertion: Mesosome in bacteria helps
Satellite, C: Long arm, D: in respiration.
Centromere, E: Short arm Reason: Mesosome contains
(c) A: Centromere, B: Satellite, C: respiratory enzyme
Long arm, D: Short arm, E: (a) If both assertion and reason is
Secondary constriction. true and reason is the correct
(d) A:Satellite, B: Short arm, C: Long explanation of assertion
arm, D: Centromeres, E: (b) If both assertion and reason is
Secondary constriction. true but reason is not the correct
133. Assertion: Mitochondria are the sites of explanation of assertion
aerobic respiration. (c) If assertion is true but reason is
Reason: Mitochondria contains 80S false.
type of ribosome. (d) If both assertion and reason are
(a) If both assertion and reason is false.
explanation of assertion BIOLOGY SECTION - B
true but reason is not the correct 136. Assertion: Ribosomes were discovered
explanation of assertion after the discovery of electron
(c) If assertion is true but reason is microscope
false. Reason: Ribosomes can be observed by
(d) If both assertion and reason are the electron microscope.
false.
19
(a) If both assertion and reason is 140. Identify a, B, C and D in the below
true and reason is the correct diagram.
false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are
false.
137. Select one which is not true for
ribosome
(a) Made of two sub-units (a) A:G1, B:S, C:G2, D: M phase
(b) Form polysome (b) A:G2, B: M phase, C:G1, D: S
(c) May attach to mRNA (c) A:S, B:G2, C:G1, D: M phase
(d) Have no role in protein synthesis. (d) A:M phase, B:G1, C:G1, D: S
138. Different cells have different sizes. 141. Select the correct matching
Arrange the following cells in an
Column I Column II
ascending order of their size. Choose
A. G1 phase 1. Gap 1 phase
the correct option among the
B. Cytokinesis 2. Nuclear
followings division
(i) Mycoplasm C. Karyokinesis 3. Cytoplasmic
(ii) Ostric eggs division
(iii) Human RBC’s D. S phase 4. Synthesis phase
(iv) Bacteria (a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(a) i, iv, iii and ii (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(b) i, iii, iv and ii (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) ii, i, iii and iv (d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(d) iii, ii, i and iv 142. S phase is not characterized by
139. Which of the following statements is (a) DNA duplication
not true for plasma membrane? (b) No increase in chromosome
(a) It is present in both plant and number
animal cells (c) DNA replication
(b) Lipid is present as a bilayer in it. (d) Duplication of centriole in nucleus
(c) Proteins are present in integrated of eukaryotic animal cell.
as well as loosely associated with 143. Which of the following is continuously
the lipid bilayer occurring in diving G1, S and G2 phase
(d) Carbohydrate is never found in it. (a) DNA replication
(b) DNA duplication
20
(c) Centriole duplication (d) All the above.
(d) Growth of cells. 146. Interphase is also called resting stage
144. Identify A, B, C and D in the below because
mitosis diagram. (a) Cell has stopped differentiation
(b) Cell is metabolically inactive
(c) No visible changes occur in the
nucleus.
(d) Cell is not growing.
147. Mitosis different from meiosis in
(a) Forming four haploid cells
(b) Pairing of homologus
chromosomes and their
subsequent separation
(c) Doubling of each chromosome
and each pair showing four
(a) A: Transition to metaphase, chromatids.
B: Metaphase, C: Early prophase, (d) Duplication of chromosome and
D: Late prophase. subsequent separation of the
(b) A: Late prophase duplicates
B: Transition to metaphase 148. Which of the following holds true
C: Metaphase about meiosis?
D: Early prophase (I) It ensures production of haploid
phase in the life cycle of sexually
(c) A: Early prophase,
reproducing organism where
B: Late prophase,
fertilization restores the diploid
C: Transition to metaphase phase.
D: Metaphase (II) It involves two sequential cycle of
(d) A: Metaphase, nuclear and cell division called
B: Early prophase, meiosis I and II but only a single
C: Late prophase, cycle of DNA replication
D: Transition to metaphase. (III) It involves pairing of homologous
145. Events of telophase are chromosomes and recombination
(a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite between them.
spindle poles and their identity is (IV) Four haploid cells are formed at
lost as discrete elements. the end of meiosis II.
(b) Nuclear envelope assembles (a) I, II, IV only
around the chromosome cluster (b) IV only
(c) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER (c) I and III only
reforms. (d) All of these
21
149. Select the correct statement from the 153. Which of the following statement is
following incorrect?
(a) In leptotene stage, chromosomes (a) Prophase II is simpler than
become gradually visible under prophase I.
light microscope. (b) Prophase I is longer and complex
(b) During zygotene heterologous than prophase of meiosis.
chromosome shows pairing (c) Nuclear membrane reappears in
(c) Chiasmata is J-shaped structure telophase I
formed in diplotene (d) Anaphase II is not characterized
(d) Pachytene is characterized by the by splitting of centromere.
formation of synaptonemal 154. Meiosis involves
complex. (a) Two nuclear divisions and two
150. Recombination is seen in chromosome divisions.
(a) Diplotene (b) Two nuclear divisions and one
(b) Zygotene or synaptotene chromosomal division.
(c) Pachytene (c) One nuclear division and one
(d) Diakinesis chromosome division
(d) One nuclear division and two
BIOLOGY SECTION - C chromosome division.
155. which of the following statements is
151. Crossing over is an exchange of genetic correct for meiosis?
material between (a) First division is equational and
(a) Homologous chromosome second reduction.
(b) Heterologous chromosome (b) First division is reductional and
(c) Non-homologous chromosome second equational.
(d) All of these (c) Both divisions are equational.
152. In some oocyte, which stage of (d) Both divisions are reductional
prophase I can last for month or years 156. Which of the following represents the
and in such case chromosome correct order in prophase I?
decondenses and gets engaged in RNA (a) Zygotene, diplotene, pachytene,
synthesis (Example: Lampbrush leptotene, diakinesis.
chromosomes) (b) Diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene,
(a) Laptotene pachytene, zygotene.
(b) Pachytene (c) Leptotene, Zygotene, pachytene,
(c) Diplotene diplotene, diakinesis.
(d) Zygotene (d) Pachytene, leptotene, zygotene,
diplotene, diakinesis.
22
157. Synaptonemal complexhas a role in (b) Non-sister chromates of
(a) Chromosome pairing homologous chromosomes.
(b) Chromosome movement (c) Sister chromatids of non-
(c) Chromosome segregation homologous chromosomes.
(d) Chromosome organization. (d) Non-homologous chromatids of
158. Tetrad is made of homologous chromosomes.
(a) Four non-homologous chromatids 163. Pick out the correct statements from
(b) Four non-homologous the following
chromosomes (I) Synapsis of homologous
(c) Four homologous chromosomes chromosomes takes place during
with four chromatids prophase I of meiosis.
(d) Two homologous chromosomes (II) Division of centromere takes
each with two chromatids. place during anaphase I of
159. In meiosis I, the centromere undergoes meiosis.
(a) No division (III) Spindle fibres disappear
completely in telophase of
(b) Division between anaphase and
mitosis.
interphase
(IV) Nucleoli reappear at telophase I
(c) Division between prophase and
of meiosis.
metaphase
(a) I only
(d) Division but the daughter
chromosomes do not separate. (b) III only
160. Meiosis II performs (c) I and II only
(a) Synthesis of DNA and centromere. (d) I, III and IV only
(b) Separation of sex chromosomes. 164. Assertion: Chromatid separation
occurs in anaphase stage.
(c) Separation of chromatids
Reason: Centromere splitting occurs in
(d) Separation of homologous
anaphase stage.
chromosomes.
161. G1 phase is
(a) End of mitosis and start of S
phase
(b) End of S phase and start of
mitosis
(c) Start of S phase and start of
mitosis
false.
(d) End of S phase and end of mitosis.
(d) If both assertion and reason is
162. During meiosis, crossing over occurs
false
between
(a) Sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes.
23
165. Assertion: Stage between two meiotic (b) If both assertion and reason is
divisions (I and II) is referred as true but reason is not the correct
interkinesis. explanation of assertion
Reason: Interkinesis is a short lived (c) If assertion is true but reason is
phase. false.
(a) If both assertion and reason is (d) If both assertion and reason is
true and reason is the correct false
explanation of assertion 168. Cells which are not dividing are likely
(b) If both assertion and reason is to be at
true but reason is not the correct (a) G1 (b) G2
explanation of assertion (c) G0 (d) S phase
(c) If assertion is true but reason is 169. Which of the events listed below is not
false. observed during mitosis?
(d) If both assertion and reason is (a) Chromatin condensation
false. (b) Movement of centrioles to
166. Assertion : G1 phase is the interval opposite poles.
between mitosis and initiation of DNA (c) Appearance of chromosomes with
replication. two chromatids joined together at
Reason: The cell is metabolically the centromere.
inactive during G1 phase. (d) Crossing over.
(a) If both assertion and reason is 170. Select the correct statement about G1
true and reason is the correct phase.
explanation of assertion (a) Cell is metabolically inactive
(b) If both assertion and reason is (b) DNA in the cell does not replicate
true but reason is not the correct (c) It is not a phase of synthesis of
explanation of assertion macromolecules.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is (d) Cell stops growing.
false. 171. Select the incorrect statement that
(d) If both assertion and reason is compounds we get from living tissues
false can be called
167. Assertion: Kinetochore is essential for (a) Elemental analysis of living
cell division. tissues gives elemental
Reason: Kinetochore serves as the composition of living tissue
sites of attachment of spindle fibres to (b) Analysis of chemical compounds
the chromosomes. of living tissue give the idea of
(a) If both assertion and reason is organic and inorganic constituent
true and reason is the correct of living tissue.
24
(c) Weight of small amount of living (c)Phospholipids are never part of
fresh tissue is known as we the cell membrane
weight. (d) Lipids are strictly a
(d) Acid soluble pool contains lipids, macromolecule.
nucleic acid and polysaccharide 176. Match the columns
only. Column I Column II
172. Chemically, carbohydrates are (A) Acidic (1) Valine
(a) Polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketones (B) Basic (2) Lysine
(b) Polyamino alcohols (C) Neural (3) Glutamic
(c) Polyhydroxy acids acid
(d) Polyethers. (D) Aromatic (4) Tyrosine,
173. Select the incorrect statement from the Phenylalanin
following e,
(a) Cellulose does not contain Tryptophan
complex helices (a) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1, D - 4
(b) Cellulose does not give colour (b) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
with I2 (c) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(c) Cotton fibre and plant cells wall is (d) A – 1, B – 2, c – 2, D – 4
made up of cellulose
177. Essential amino acids are those which
(d) Cellulose is heteropolysaccharide. are
174. Which of the following is the (a) Not synthesized by our body
representation of ribose?
(b) Not required by our body
(c) Synthesized by our body
(d) Only used to form proteins
178. In primary structure of protein
(a) (b) (a) Left end represents – 1st amino
acid (C – terminal amino acid)
(b) Right end represents – Last amino
acid (N-terminal amino acid)
(c) Left end represents – 1st amino
(c) (d)
acid (N-terminal amino acid
175. Which of the following is correct about (d) Right end represents – 1st amino
lipids? acid (C – terminal amino acid
(a) On basis on melting points they
are divided into fats and oils
(b) Neural tissues are made of simple
lipids only
25
179. Which of the following is correct about (b) Vinblastine + Curcumin
secondary structure? (c) Anthocyanin
(d) Monoterpenes
183. Plants produces an enormous diversity
of substances that have no apparent
roles in growth and development
processes and are classified under the
heading of
(a) Helix is primary structure (a) Primary metabolites
(b) In proteins, left handed helices are (b) Secondary metabolites
observed (c) Necessary metabolites
(c) In proteins, right handed helices (d) Tertiary metabolites.
184. Match the columns
are observed
(d) None of the above Column I Column II
(Category) (Secondary
metabolites)
180. The linkage represented by arrow is A. Pigments i. Concanavalin A
B. Terpenoids ii. Monoterpenes,
Diterpenes
C. Alkaloids iii. Morphine,
Codeine
D. Lectins iv. Carotenoids,
Anthocyanin
E. Toxins v. Abrin, Ricin
F. Drugs vi. Vinblastine,
Curcumin
(a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv, E-v, F-vi
(b) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i, E-v, F-vi
(a) Peptide linkage (c) A-vi, B-iii, C-v, D-ii, E-iv, F-i
(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v, F-vi
(b) Phosphodiester linkage
185. Select the incorrect statement from the
(c) Glycosidic linkage following
(d) N-glycosidic linkage (a) Acetic acid becomes cholesterol is
181. At each step of ascent in B-DNA double an example of biosynthetic or
helical structure, the strand turns______ anabolic pathway
(a) 36º (b) 72 º (b) Glucose becoming lactic acid in
(c) 90º (d) 18 º our skeletal muscles is an
182. Which of the following secondary example of degradation or
metabolites are used as drugs? catabolic pathway.
(a) Abrin + Ricin
26
(c) Flow of metabolite through accordingly by a three-digit
metabolic pathway does not have number
a definite rate and direction. (d) 6 classes, each with 4-20
(d) Anabolic pathway requires subclasses and named
energy, whereas catabolic accordingly by a four-digit
pathway releases energy. number
189. Enzymes which catalyse the transfer of
BIOLOGY SECTION - D group other than hydrogen belongs to
the class
186 Living state is (a) Oxidoreductases
(a) Non-equilibrium and non-steady (b) Transferases
state (c) Hydrolases
(b) Equilibrium and steady state (d) Ligases
(c) Non-equilibrium and steady state 190. Which of the following combinations is
(d) Equilibrium and non-steady state. correct?
187. Which one of the following statements (a) Metal ions loosely attached with
about enzyme is true? Apoenzyme – Activators
1. Enzymes are proteins whose (b) Non-protein organic part
three dimensional shape is key to attached tightly to Apoenzyme-
their functions. prosthetic group.
2. Enzymes speed up reactions by (c) Non protein organic part attached
lowering activation energy. loosely to Apoenzyme –
3. Enzymes are highly specific for Coenzyme
reactions. (d) All the above
4. Enzyme activity is affected by 191. Which of the following statements is
changes in temperature and pH. correct?
(a) All except 2 (b) All except 1 1. Catalytic activity is lost when the
(c) All except 3 (d) All of these cofactor is removed from the
188. Enzymes are divided into enzyme
(a) 6 classes, each with 4-13 2. Coenzyme nicotinamide adenine
subclasses and named dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP
accordingly by a four-digit contains the vitamin niacin.
number 3. Biomacromolecules have a
(b) 7 classes, each with 3-13 hierarchy of structure, such as
subclasses and named primary, secondary, tertiary and
accordingly by a four-digit quaternary.
number 4. Enzymes lower activation energy
(c) 7 classes, each with 4-13 of reactions and enhance greatly
subclasses and named the rate of the reactions.
27
5. Nucleic acids carry hereditary B: Transition state,
information and are passed on C: Activation energy without
from parental generation to enzyme
progeny. D: Potential energy
(a) 1 and 5 only 193. Assertion: Biomacromolcules are those
(b) 2 and 3 only which are found in acid soluble
(c) 2 and 5 only fraction.
(d) All of these Reason: Biomacromolecules gave
192. The figure given below shows the molecular weight less than 1000
conversions of a substrate into product Dalton.
by an enzyme. In which one of the (a) If both assertion and reason is
option (a-d) the components of true and reason is the correct
reaction labeled as A, B, C and D are explanation of assertion
identified correctly? (b) If both assertion and reason is
false.
(d) If both assertion and reason is
false
194. Assertion: Chitin is a homopolymer
Reason: Chitin is made up of only one
type of monomer, i.e., N-
acetylglucosamine.
(a) A: potential energy, B: Transition (b) If both assertion and reason is
state, C : Activation energy with true but reason is not the correct
enzyme, D : Activation energy explanation of assertion
without enzyme (c) If assertion is true but reason is
(b) A: Transition state. B: Potential false.
energy, C: Activation energy (d) If both assertion and reason is
without enzyme, D: Activation false
energy with enzyme 195. Assertion: Enzyme increases the rate of
(c) A:Potential energy, B:Transition biochemical reactions.
state, C:Activation energy with Reason: Enzymes lowers down the
enzyme, D:Activation energy energy of activation.
without enzyme.
(d) A:Activation energy with enzyme,
28
false. What do the two axes (X and Y)
(d) If both assertion and reason is represent?
false
196. An amino acid under certain conditions X-axis Y-axis
would have both positive and negative (a) TemperatureEnzyme
charges simultaneously in the same activity
molecule. Such a form of amino acid is (b) Substrate Enzymatic
called concentration activity
(a) Positively charged form (c) Enzymatic Temperature
(b) Negatively charged form activity
(c) Neutral form (d) Enzymatic pH
(d) Zwitterionic form activity
197. Proteins perform many physiological 199. Glycogen is a homopolymer made of
functions. For example, some functions (a) Glucose units
as enzymes. One of the following
(b) Galactose units
represents an additional function that
(c) Ribose units
some proteins discharge.
(d) Amino units.
(a) Antibodies
200. The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen
(b) Pigments conferring colour to
molecule would be
skin
(a) Equal to the number of branches
(c) Pigments making colours of
plus one
flower
(b) Equal to the number of branch
(d) Hormones.
points
198. The curve given below shows
(c) One
enzymatic activity with relation to
three conditions (pH, temperature and (d) Two one on the left side and
substrate concentration) another on the right side.

Test-3 - 11 Jan., - Final

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TEST – 3

DATE: 11 JAN., 2024

PHYSICS SECTION - A following statement is true in respect of its

(a) I2 = I2 > I1 (b) I1 > I2 > I3

83. ( I ) H 2O2  O3  H 2O  2O2

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