Roll No.: ‘Test Date: 18-12-2022 eS) Aakash for TEST SEES Medical Entrance Exam - 2024 National Eligi ility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) Gaiep (XI Studying Students) ‘Readeach question caretly. ‘andetory 10 use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the Spproprate cre inthe answershect. Harcshould be darkand should completly filth ct. | Roughworkmustnotbe éone onthe answer shee Do nol use whit-fuis or any other rubbing materia on answer Sheet Nochengein the answer enco marked salowed. ‘Student cannot uselog tables sndealulators anyother materia intoe examination Before atemring the quostion paper, student should ensure that the test paper conlane ll pages and nopage smising. 11, Ther ae wo sections Each correct answer cares four marks. One mark wil be deducted foreach ncrret answer omthe total score. Before handing over the answer sheet othe invgiator, candidate ‘should check that Rol No, and Contre Code have been filed and marked corecty Immediately ater the prescribed examination time is over, the answorsheettaberetumedtothelavgator ach subject, Setion-A& Section 8 You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section & only 1Oquastons outo! 15 om Section. Note : itis compulsory to fil Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered,Motion ina Plane Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties & Chemical Bonding and Molecular structure The Living World, Biological Classification Digestion and Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of GasesRoC MM : 720 CUE Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: SECTION -A 1. Appatticle is projected with speed of 15 mis at an ‘angle 30° with horizontal. The range of the particle is 453 50v3 ) 38m @ & @ 8m «) Em 2. Ifthe velocity ofthe ring is vs as shown in the figure: then the velocity with which the rope is being pulled is (1) vs 6030 (2) vs sin (3) vs tang (4) vslcoso 3. A particle is projected at an angle 0 with horizontal from ground. The variation of horizontal component of velocity (v) of particle with time (1) is best represented by a oO) 6) 4) ‘The path followed by a moving body whose magnitude of acceleration is constant and always acts in a direction perpendicular to velocity is (1) Circular (2) Parabolic (3) Hellical (4) Straight fine A particle is projected from the ground at an angle 0 with horizontal with some velocity. At any position B fon the trajectory of particle the angle subtended by 08 and BC with horizontal are 30° to 45° respectively. The angle of projection is Space for Rough Work ‘Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456SUES Test CED} farlicle is moving with an acceleration of leo longa crcl of ras A ‘particle of mass 1 kg moves along acto ofradus | 11. A ae aie mare Br wth a constant tangential sccoleration, The io 7 f+ 2) then its velocity at time t= 3 sis Pred athe end of second revo ator beginning (2i+2i)mis, 0 of the motion is 20 ms. The tangential acceleration . oe a (20i-+317)nve of the particle is (1) (si+2Zi}ous ® 2a (0 sore @) D mist @) (20/-34j)m/s (si i}mvs Waco! ees 12, Among the given options choose the one which [A+ 8) =|A|=I6) then angle between A and 8 wit does not represent a uit vector. be (A and & are not a null vector) (y @ ii (1) 90° @) 120° Be a ao (4) 60° 4-3] (a) #43 8 Two stones of masses m and 2m are hited in | @) “2 herzontalcctes, theheaviorone inaadus £ and | 13. A ship Ais moving westwards wih @ speed of amr! and.a ship B 100 km south ofA, is moving lighter one in radius r. The tangential speed of even, ande.shie " northwards with a speed 40 km h-. The time after lighter one is twice the speed of the heavier one rioh ta Uuliieetoneaen tho bear cere The ratio of centripetal acceleration experienced by which the distancs them is is () 4:3 @2an (1) 10v3h (2) 5h @) 5:3 (4) 3:7 7 : 9. Angular speed of a particle is increased trom Sigh 2 spar aoa cena. Te avian 1c sa il ohne ml ited oan angle 0" wh ardut acceleration of particle is the horizontal, with velocity vo, Its kinetic energy at = rads? (2) 2010 ‘ Sn topmost point is (use kinetic energy K mv?) (8) 2 rads? (4) 3 reais? 2 (1) Zero 1D. A particle moves so that ts position vector is given _ (2) Save / where ris in 2 3 ny? ‘metres and t is in seconds. The trajectory of the () 3ma particle is (1) Circular (2) Parabolic a) ™% (@) Eliptica (4) Hyperbolic 3 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deln-1 10008. Phan: O17 ATEHSAGEees) 15, 16. 17. 18, 19. 20. For angles of projection of a projectile at angles 90° + 0 and 90° — 0, the maximum height altained by projectile are in ratio (Assume the velocity of projection of both projectiles to be same) (1) 3:5 (2) 5:3 @) ast (a) 2:5 Angulat position of a body undergoing circular motion varies with time as 0 = (4f + 3) radian. If radius of circular path is 1 m, then acceleration of body at f= 1's will be (1) 10 ms? (2) 16 mis? (8) 15 ms? (4) 5 mis? Aballis projected horizontally from the top of a wall of height 80 m with speed 10 m/s. The time taken, by the ball to reach the ground is ——> 10 mis 80m (1) 2 second (2) 8 second (8) 3 second (4) 4 second ‘The angle between velocity and acceleration of a. particle in a circular motion with increasing speed cannat be (1) 90° (2) 45° @) 30" (4) 60° ‘An zeroplane flies 400 m south and then 300 meast and then it flies 1200 m downwards. The net displacement is, (1) 1400 m (2) 1000 m. (3) 1300 m (4) 1500 m A ball is projected with a velocity of 20/3 mis at an ‘angle of 60° with horizontal. The time after which Velocity vector will make an angle of 30° with the horizontal is (g = 10 mis*) () 3s (2) 55 @) 4s (4) 25 24. 22. LUI The coordinates of a particle moving in x-y plane vary with time as per the following relation, y= Sy and x= 24 The locus ofthe particle can be best represented by y ” ve y @ —e. y Ne y ae VN, ‘A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of 4 mis while the river is flowing at a speed of 5 mis. Ifthe swimmer wants to reach just opposite point of the bank then he should swim at an angle of (1) sinr* [3/5] with the vertical (2) sin-' [4/5] with the horizontal (3) Swimmer would never be able to reach opposite point (4) sin [3/4] with the vertical ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deihi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456CO Tést-2(Code-D) 23. A panicle of mass 5 kg is moving in circular path with constant speed of 30 nvs. The change in magnituge of velocity when particle travels from A to Bwillbe (1) 20V3 (8) Zero (4) 103 24, A particle started revolving from rest with constant ‘angular acceleration « in a circular path of radius f. 1 Yangential acceleration becomes numerically equal to twice the magnitude of centripetal ‘acceleration in time f, then tis equal to of iS od (2) 3045 mi 7 a [2 @ ie 25. For 2 given velocity of projection, the horizontal Tange of a ground to ground projectile is maximum, when itis projected at an angle of (1) 45° (2) 90° (@) 60" (4) 30° 25. A person at rest observes that the rainis falling with 5 mis towards east making an angle 53° with vertical. The velocity with which he should start walking so that rain starts appearing vertical is (3) 3 ms towards east (2) Sim's towards east (2) 4mis towards east (6) Smis towards north 2 0 caret conclusion regarding veriel 2 component wlcty 0! 2 parce projected om ground whose position(y)-time(‘) graph is as shown, inthe gue y t (1) Fret increases thon decreases (2) First decreases then increases (3) Increases continuously (4) Remains constant 243]+6% and then unit vector inthe direction of BA is 28, If vectors, 4i +5] -3k, 21 +2}+9% 6i+8j-3k OSs @) "Fs j + 2] -9 2 42j-9% @) 2] +2j-9k ny 2 28. Two balls of mass § kg and 15 kg are projected horizontally from the top of a tower of height 80 m simultaneously. Which ball will hit the ground first? (neglect air resistance) (1) The ball with heavier mass (2) The ball with ighter mass (3) Both balls will reach simultaneously (4) Cannot predict 30. A ground to ground projectile is projected with ‘speed Wo at an angle 8 with ground. The radius of Curvature of trajectory of projectile at its initial point of projection is ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Ofce: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deli 110005, Phone: 01 1-ATSZS4SS3 33, vi Find vi ® oe otand A particle moves ina circle of radius 2m with speed of particle varying as 2° where tis time in seconds. ‘The acceleration of the particle at t= 1 sis (1) V20 mis? (2) 40 mis? (3) VT20 mis? (4) 205 mis? ‘The speed of a swimmer in sill water is 20 mis, The ‘speed of river water is 10 mis and flowing due east. Ihe is standing on the south bank and wishes 10 cross the riverin shortest possible time Le,, 4s, then. the width of river is (Som (2) 100m @) Om (4) 80m Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from roof top of two building 150 m apart and of same height of 200 m, with the velocity of 50 mls and 25 mis. The veriical distance from the ground where they will colide is, () 73m (2) 180m (3) 100m (4) 170m In the given figure, a = 20 mis? represents the total ‘acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R= 3m at a given instant of time. Choose the correct conclusion upon the above information, foo 36. 37. (1) The tangential acceleration of the particle is greater than centripetal acceleration. Q The tangential acceleration of the particle is smaller than centripetal acceleration (3) The tangential acceleration of the particle is equal to centripetal acceleration. (4) Both (1) and (3) . A ladder rests against a smooth vertical wall a5: shown in figure. The floor is also smooth, Mass of ladder is 50 kg. lower end A is moving with velocity horizontally, then the vertical velocity of upper end Bat this instant is 8 3m wy eee am wy @ 2 av @ % « % SECTION-B Choose the scalar quantity among the following (1) Displacement (2) Speed (3) Acceleration (4) Velocity For a particle undergoing uniform circular motion (1) The speed of particle is constant (2) The velocity of the particle is variable (3) The acceleration of the particle is constant (4) Both (1) and (2) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhir1 10005, Phono: 01747623456MESS 38. 38, 40. at. 24) A particle is projected with speed u at an angle 0 with horizontal from ground, The average velocity of the particle in time interval o to 2USINO (1) usino (2) weoso @) urano (4) ucot0 IT and H are the horizontal range and maximum height attained by a projectile projected from ‘ground, then its angle of projection is oo or] ey anf on (E] w on [22 ‘Two particles A and C are moving with constant ‘speed v each. At an instant shown the relative velocity of A with respect to Cis in direction a Ua a @ N (4) | ‘Acar starts from origin at the rate of § mis? A man standing on the car fires a bullet at ¢= 2, which hits the bird at = 8 s having postion’ vector of (707 +60j+364)m. The velocity (in mis) of projection of bullet is [consider the car to be only moving in the positive direction and g=~10j m/s?) 42 43, 44, 46, r Tes CE (1) 107 +40j+6% (2) 407-30) + 10% (3) 307 +407 +15% — (4) 107 +67 + 40k The magnitude of vector /+3)+V6 & is (1) 2units (2) 3units (3) 4 units (4) 5 units Velocity of particles A and & are v, =(4i-+9) mis and vg = by Ais (1) -G+7j)ms* (2) (+7])ms* (@) G+3/yms* (4) +(i+3])ms Choose the vector quantity among the following (1) Distance (2) Angular Momentum () Heat (4) Energy For the given arrangement of vectors choose the Correct expression for the law of sines. i +2/) m/s. Velocty of 8 as observed a @ @) “ ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008, Phone: 011 AS23456Eo eae 46, Choose the correct conclusions regarding the (1) 130°, 120° (2) 50", 50° properties of vectors among the following options. (3) 50", 130" fay asian () AsBaBsA 48. A particle is projected with a velocity of 50 mis at an : Ree angle of 53° with horizontal. The magnitude of (2) A+(B +€)=(448) 46 position vector of particle, from point of projection, ater 2s willbe © [pA=0f4 (1) 50m (2) 303 m (8) Allor these (3) 603m (4) 50/2 m 47, The angle between the vectors A and & in two | 49. Toa stationary man rains falling on his back with a given cases respectively are velety van anal Dit horizon Tomake rain Case-t velocity appear vertical to the man, the man must move (1) Forward with velocity v sino wo /S (2) Backward with velocity v sino (3) Forward with velocity vcoso (@) Backward with velocity v cos a . 50. Horizontal range of a particle thrown from the a ground is twice the maximum height. The angle of ES projection is = (1) 60" (2) tart (2) (3) 45" (4) tare (5) [CHEMISTRY] SECTION - A (9) F> 0% > Nat > Mgr? 51. Electron gain enthalpy of which of the given (4) OF > F>> Nat > Mg elements is postive? 54. Most electropositive element among the following is. MH @« mu (2) Be @ ar (8) He (@) Na (4) Mg 52. General outer electronic configuration of a-block | 55: Consider the following statemonts elements is 2, Eka-aluminium is called gallium (1) (n= tains? (2) (a—tjoronse b. pblock and diblock elements are called he representative elements @ nee, OC ans ¢. Tellurium and arsenie are semi-metals 53. Correct order of ionic size of the given ions is oad neers (1) Mg® > Nav > F-> OF (1) aandb only (@) band conly (2) OF > F-> Mg? > Nat (3) aand.c only (4) a.bande ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005. Phone: 011-4762345656. sv. 59, 60. 8 82. 63. Incorrect statement among the following Is is linear in shape 1, each carbon is sp? hybridised (3) G2Hs contains 3e bonds and 2x bonds (8) Percentage s character in sp? hybrid orbital is. 25% ‘The compound which is non planar in shape is (1) 0 (2) Beck: @) BCk (4) CHC In which of the following species the central atom is, not sp* hybridised?, (a) CO (2) COz (3) NO; (4) So2 ‘Aluminium shows diagonal relationship with (1) Germanium (2) Carbon @) Berytim (4) Lithium ‘Maximum number of atoms that lie in a plane in PCs, me 23 @4 (4) 5 180° bond angle is absent in (1) PFs (2) SFe (3) Xe: (4) Sic, Correct order of lattice enthalpy of the given ‘compounds (1) KCI>NaCl> LiCl (2) LiCl> NaCl> Kol (8) LICI> KCI> NaCl (4) KCI> Licl> Nact ‘Match the oxides given in List I with their chemical nature given in [Lists 2 [NOx | | Amphotere b.}CO | (ii) _| Basic sc. | CaO | (ili) | Neutral d. | AlzOs | (iv) | Acidic 64, 65, 66. 67 66. 69, 70. (1) ac{i, b-(v), (9, C0) (2) ati), bi), 6), di) ) av), bai), ei), 4-0) (4) atid, BQ), ei), 0) Correct order of bond angle in the given molecules is (1) H20 > NHs> CHs (2) CHe> NH3> HzO (8) NHy>H:0 > CHe (4) HiO > CHe> NH Highest occupied molecular orbital of O} ion is (a (6 (3) (@) Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy of siven elements is (1) O>S>Se (2) 8e>S>0 (3) 8>Se>0 (4) S>O>Se In which of the following molecules only x bond is present? (1) © (2) Ne (@) ce (4) He Consider the following statements {Octet theory does not account for the shape of the molecules b._ Expanded octet is observed in SFe ©. Octet theory does not explain the relative stability of the molecules The correct statements are (1) aandb only (2) band conly (3) aand conly (4) aband Correct order of stability of the given species is (1) 02> 05> 03 (2) OF >02> 05 (3) 05> 05>02 (4) O2> OF > 0; Bond order of CIO bond in CIO; is (1) 1.66 215 (@) 1.25 (4) 1.75 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10008, Phone: 011-47623456" 72. 73. 74, 75, 76. 7. pr=de bond is absent in (1) Sos 2) PO} (3) COF (4) Sop Which among the following contains highest number of lone pairs around the central atom? (1) CFs (2) Ses (8) NH (a) XeFs Element (E) having atomic number 49 belongs to (1) sblock (2) prblock (8) eblock (4) block. IUPAC nomenclature of an element having atomic number 111 is (1) Uni (2) Ununnitium (3) Unununnium (4) Unnitbium Assertion (A): BrFs is Trigonal bipyramidal in shape. Reason (R): In B/Fs, the central atom is spd? hybridised In the light of the above statements, choose the ‘most appropriate answer from the options given below (1) (A)is correct but (R) is not correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (8) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) Is the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A)is not correct but (R) is correct Correct order of bond length for the given bonds is, (1) C-C>C-N>N-0 (2) N-O>C-N>C-C (3) C-C>N-O>C-N (4) N-O>C-C>C-N Polar molecule among the following is (1) BCh (2) Coz (8) SFe (4) cok Lee 78. Statement |: NOz is an odd electron molecule. ‘Statement I: Octet rule is not applicable to NOz ‘molecule. In the light of above statements choose the correct, answer (1) Statement I is correct but statement Il is Incorrect, (2) Statement | is correct (9) Both statement | and statement I! are correct (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect 79. ‘The species having bond angle of 120° is (1) Ni (2) SOs (3) BF (4) Hao 80. Which among the following forms intramolecular hydrogen bonding? \correct but statement Il is “Cl oO ‘CHO ‘CH, ‘OCH, CH, oC oC ‘OCH, ‘COOH (1) Al>Si> BoC (2) A>Si>c>B (8) Si>al>B>c (4) Si>Al> o> “Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dalhi-1 10005. Phone: O11-47623456Test Series for NEET=202 83. Paramagnetic molecule among the following Is. (1) Ns (2) Or (8) He (4) Ge ‘84. Which of the following is isostructural with PCL? (1) SOs (2) Bel, (3) NFs (4) cars, Which of the following species does not exist ‘according to molecular orbital theory? ay A (2) Ber @) Ny (4) By SECTION -B. ‘86. Statement I: Metallic character increases as we Move from left to right across a period, ‘Statement I: Non-metallic character increases as ‘we go down the group. Im the light of the above statement choose the correct answer (1) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect, (2) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (8) Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct 87. Which of the following pair of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural? (1) POY andS0% (2) NO and 810; (3) POF andicr, (4) SO} and coz 28. Number of 90° bond angles in SeFsis 2 Qe @ 2 4) 10 89, 90. ot. 92, 93. 94, 95, Total number of r-2lectrons in the following structure Is 228 aa (1) 4 (2) 6 @e (4) 12 Which among the following belongs to chaleogen family? (1) Br (2) Se @) As (4) Ge An element has electronic configuration 1s? 2s? 2p 38%3p30°4s2. To which group of periodic table this, element belongs? (1) Second (2) Fourth (8) Fifth (4) Seventh For given Lewis structure of Os, the formal charge ‘on central oxygen atom is 6. fe wa @) Zero (3) +4 (4) +2 Correct order of dipole moment of the given ‘compounds is (1) CO2>HaS>H:0 (2) HeS > CO2> H:0 (3) HO >COs>HeS (4) H20 > HzS > COz |i which of the given molecules XeOs, PCls, BrFs ‘and BFs, the central atoms are sp? hybridized? (1) XeOs and BFs (2) PCI and BrFs (3) XeOs and BrFs (4) PCI and XeOs ‘Which among the following is insoluble in water? (1) Methanol (CHsOH) (2) Acetone (CHsCOCHs) (8) Hexane (CoH) (4) Ethylene glycol (HO ~ CH — CH — OH) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delh-1 10005, Phone: O11-AT62S465Pee) 98. Which among the following has longest carbon- carbon bond length? (1) Ethane (2) Ethene @) Ethyne (4) Benzene 97. Statement I: Dipole moment of HF is greater than HCl. Statement Il: HF molecules are associated with each other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Inthe light of above statements, choose the correct answer (1) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect. (2) Statement 1 is correct but statement II is incorrect. (8) Statement | is incorrect but statement I is correct, (4) Both statement and statement Il are correct 98. Match atomic number given in Column | with IUPAC. official name given in Column tt RUE b. | 102 (ii) | Rutherfordium e. | 103 (ii) | Mendetevium 4. | 108 (iv) | Lawrencium The correct match is (i), civ), ti) bell), ei), div) be(i), ei), div) (4) activ), b-( 99. Number of bonding electrons in Nz and antibonding electrons in O; respectively are (1) 10and7 (2) Band7 (3) 10nd 5 (4) Bands 100. Correct order of covalent character of the given compounds is (1) NaCl> Mgcle > AlCl (2) MgClz > AlCls> Nac (3) AlCl > MgCh > NaCl (4) MgCl > NaCl > AlCl [BOTANY] Column t Column 101 (| Nobelium SECTION-A 101. Select the wrong statement. (1) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan (2) Members of Monera lack nuciear membrane (3) Desmids are golden algae (4) Cyanobacteria contain flagellated cells 4102.Lichens (1) Are symbiotic associations (2) Grow wall in air polluted area (3) Contain only heterotrophic organisms (4) Were classified in kingdom Plantae by Whittaker ‘Space for 103, Which of the given features of prions is similar to viruses? (1) Genetic material type 2) Se (3) Type of infectious material (4) Type of capsomeres 104, Choose the wrong statement for viroids. (1) They are smaller than viruses (2) They have DNA of low molecular weight (8) They are infectious in nature (4) They tack capsid Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623405(1) Pathogenicity, (2) Proteinaceous coat (8) Both DNA and RNA. (4) Property to form crystal 108. Mark the incorrect match. Fungus Used asiin (1) Yeast — Bread and beer Production (2) Aspergillus — Source of many alkaloids and LSD (3) Trufte — Edible delicacy (4) Neurospora — Biochemical and genetic work 107. Who for the first time prepared the crystals of virus? (1) Pasteur (2) Iwanovsky (8) Bejerinck (4) Stanley 108.Mark the statement which is not tue about members of kingdom Plantae. (1) Includes eukaryotic organisms (2) Few members of Plantae are partially heterotrophic such as Cuscuta and bladderwort (3) They show alternation of generation (4) Their cell wall is mainly made up of cellulose 109. Fungus commonly popularised as smut fungus is (1) Ustitago (2) Puccinia (3) Alternaria (4) Aspergitus 110. large number of fungi of which class help in mineral cycling and are decamposer of liter? (1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes. (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes 111. Colletotrichum is an imperfect fungus as it (1) Lacks chitinous cell wall (2) Reproduce asexually only (3) Lacks sex organs (4) Has features of both fungi and protists chlorophyll containing Test: (Code-py 112. Read the below given features of a fungus x’ a, Sex organs absent b. Sexual spores formed c. Karyogamy is delayed after plasmogamy ‘The fungus 'X’ should be (1) Ustitago (2) Alternaria (3) Albugo (4) Mucor 413, Mark the features similar between morels and Agaricus. a. Form edible fruiting bodies b. Presence of dikaryophase c. Mainly reproduce by asexual spores 4. Exogenously produce melospores (1) a and b only (2) a, bande (3) b,candd (4) cand d only 4114, Identity the odd one w.rt. Basidiomycetes. (1) Trichoderma (2) Toadstools (@) Ustilago (4) Puccinia 4115. Both zoospores and sporangiospores are (1) Motile spores (2) Produced endogenously in sporangium (3) Diploid spores (4) Produced by club fungi 116. The fungi form _A_ in which reduction division occurs, leading to formation of B. Choose the correct option to fill up the blanks. A B () | Hyphae ‘Asexual spores (2) | Sexorgan | Gamete (@) | Gamete Spores (4) | Fruiting boay Haploid spores 117. Allof these are sexual spores, except (1) Zoospores (3) Ascospores (2) Oospores (4) Basidiospores ‘Space for Rough Work ‘kash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi 10005, Phone: OT 1-a76O3d56118. Mark the wrong statement for fungi (1) They are cosmopolitan in nature (2) They prefer to grow in warm and humid places (3) They show great diversity in morphology (4) They are multicellular and filamentous without any exception. 119. The fungus responsible for forming white spots on mustard leaves. 1a, Belongs to class Phycomycetes b. Isa parasite c. Has septate hyphae d. Has short dikaryophase Choose the incorrect one(s). (1) conly (2) bande (3) cand d only (4) a,candd 120. Sporozoans lack (1) Spore formation (2) Pathogenic nature (3) Locomotory structure (4) Membrane bound organelles 121. Identify the wrongly matched pair. (1) Trypanosoma — Flagellated parasite (2) Paramoecium ~ Possesses gullet (3) Plasmodium — Malarial parasite (4) Entamoeba — Cilated parasite 122. All protozoans are (1) Predators (2) Found in fresh water (3) Heterotrophs (4) Motile and have locomotory structures 423. Select the odd one w.r.. slime moulds. (1) Saprophytic protists (2) Produce spores under favourable conditions (3) Their spores possess true cell wall (4) Form an aggregation called plasmodium REL eS 124, Match the given columns and select the correct option. Column ‘Column tl a. | Diatom () | Fresh water wall- less protist b. | Dinontagellate | (i) c. | Euglena (iy ‘Smallest living cells Red tide formation ‘Soap box like body d. | Mycoplasma | (iv) alelela Oy a fafa @ {ii fv [afi @ fw fa [fa @ fw fi [a fv 125,Which of the following human diseases is not caused by bacteria? (1) Cholera (2) Typhoid (3) Cr-Jacob disease (4) Tetanus 126, Bacterium that fixes nitrogen in legume plants is (1) Anautotroph (2) Aheterotroph (3) Achemosynthetic autotroph (4) Asaprophyte 127, Organisms that have pigments identical to those present in higher plants is (1) Anabaena (2) Euglena (8) Chiorobium (4) Nitvococcus 128, Mark the wrongly matched pair. (1) Methanogens ~ Produce biogas (2) Nostoc - Fix almospheric nitrogen (3) Mycoplasma — Pathogenic to plants (4) Gonyaulax — Produces diatomaceous earth ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005. Phone: 011-47623456CUTE 129, The organisms showing the most extensive ‘metabolic diversity (1) Belong to kingdom Plantae (2) Are simple in structure but very complex in behaviour {G) Are found in extreme habitats only (4) Lack cell wall 130. ari Woese placed all prokaryotes in (1) Asingle domain, Bacteria (2) Two domains, Bacteria and Archaea (8) Asingle domain, Archaea (@) Allthe three domains 131: In five kingdom classification system. ‘a. Prokaryotes are placed in one kingdom only >. Organisms with cell wall are grouped in four kingdoms, &. Autotrophic organisms are keptin two kingdoms only 4d. Nuclear membrane is seen in members of all the five kingdoms Choose the incorrect ones (1) aandb 2) bande (8) candd (4) aande 182. Self-consciousness is a defining feature of (1) Humans (2) Animats (3) Plants (4) Prokaryotes 133. Mark the incorrect one for taxonomical key (1) Itis used for both plants and animals (2) It is based on similarities as well as dissimilarities ) Itis analytical in nature (4) It is based on set of contrasting characters generally in a pair called lead Rea 4134. Mark the pair of taxonomic categories that occupy the same position in taxonomic hierarchy. (1) Primata, Insecta (2) Hominidae, Dicotyledonae (3) Arthropoda, Angiospermae (4) Diptera, Poaceae 495.Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive ‘events in (1) Yeast (2) Amoeba (3) Bacteria (4) Moses: SECTION -B 196. Which of the given is wrongly matched? (1) Diatom — indestructible cell wall (2) Dinoflagellates — Stif cellulosic plates (3) Rhizopus ~ Reproduce sexually (4) Aspergillus ~ Produce motile asexual spores 197. Dikaryotic mycelium is seen in (1) Common mushroom (2) Atemaria (3) Rhizopus (4) Colletotrichum 198. Bacteriophages have (1) Helically arranged protein units (2) dsDNA as genetic material (3) Twelve tal bres (4) Genetic material inside tail 199. Viroids were/are (1) Discovered by T.O. Diener (2) Causal agent of tobacco mosaic disease (8) Known to cause diseases mostly in animals (4) Viruses without genetic material ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhr-110005, Phone: 077-a7623456Test 2 (Coded) |All Widia Aakash Test Seyles for NEET-2024 120.____can survive without oxygen. Choose the correct option to fill up the blank, (1) Slime moulds (2) Diatoms. (3) Mycoplasma (2) Desmids ‘145, Statement A: Dinoflagellates are mostly fresh water organisms, ‘Statement B: Chrysophytes ate found in fresh as, well as marine water. Read the above statements and select the correct ‘option. (1) Only statement Ais incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorrect (3) Both the statements A and B are incorrect, (@) Both the 442, Onygen is evolved during photosynthesis of all of the given organisms, except (1) Gonyaulex (2) Euglena (3) Nostoc (2) Green sulphur bacteria 443.Read these statements and select the correct option. AM jements A and B are correct cor is popularly known as bread mould. B. Claviceps is a pathogenic sac fungus. C. Bracket fungi and puffballs are placed in class. Basidiomycetes. (1) Aan Bonly (2) Band C only (2) Aand C only (4) AIA, B and 464. Which of the given structures makes the body of Eugiens flexible? (1) Cell watt (2) Petite (2) Plasma membrane (4) Flagella 145, Match the following columns and select the correct, ontion or Fa. Nostoc | (i) | Multiply rapidly and make the sea appear red To] ameate | a) | Mrotopnie modo of | rutation ©. | Gonyaulax | (ji) | Heterocyst | 4. | Eugtona _ | (w) | Freshwater heterotrophs a[blela afm [a @wli [ala wl alivfi fi wole tefl 146, Which one of the following is correctly matched? (1) Monera— Non cellulosic cell wall (2) Protista - Cell wall present in all members (3) Fungi — Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan (4) Animalia ~ Cell wall is absent in some 147, Binomial nomenclature was given by (1) Aristotle (2) Carolus Linnaeus (3) Theophrastus (4) Whittaker 148.|dentity the incorrect match for categories of mango. (1) Family ~ Sapindales (2) Class ~ Dicotyledonae (3) Division ~ Angiospermae (4) Genus ~ Mangitera taxonomic ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, B, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10008, Phone: O11-47629456CUT 149, Mark the wrong match. i ee 450, The most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living beings is (1) Metabolism (2) Consciousness (3) Growth (4) Reproduction [ZOOLOGY] Taxonomical aids | Used for (1) | Zoological park | Animals (2) | Museum Plants, animals and insects [0 | Flora’ Plants and animals [@[ Monograph Animals ‘SECTION -A 151.Which of the following is not associated with asthma? (1) AWveolsr walls are damaged (2) Wheezing (8) Difficulty in breathing (4) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles 152, The total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is () TV+IRV+ERV (2) TVonly (@) TV+IRV (4) TV+ERV 183.Select the correct option w.rt the sequence of layers that form the diffusion membrane in lungs. (1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli > basement membrane of bronchioles —> endothelium of blood capillaries (2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli > basement substance -> endothelium of alveolar capillaries | (8) Basement substance —> stratified epithelium of alveoli -> columnar epithelium of blood capillaries (4) Columnar epithelium of alveoli - endothelium of alveolar capillaries -> basement substance 154, The value of pO2in alveoli and tissues under normal physiological conditions respectively is (1) 104 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg (2) 95 mm Hg and 160 mm Hg (3) 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg (4) 45 mm Hg and 104 mm Hg 155. Special vascularised structures called _A are Used by most ofthe aquatic _B and _C_forthe exchange of gases. Here ‘A, ‘8 and'C' are ane lees ace (1) | its Mammals | Reptiles @ | Gis Arthropods | Molluscs [@) [tongs [Arthropods | Motuses (4) [Lungs | Mammats | Fishes 186. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) ©2 is utiised by the organisms to indirectly breakdown nutrient molecules like glucose. (2) CO2 which is harmful is also released during ‘anabolic reactions like breakdown of nutrients, ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi 10005. Phone: O11-A7623456ESET) (3) Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on their habitats and levels of organisation, (4) The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO» produced by the cells is called breathing, Frog and human exhibit pulmonary respiration. Which one of the following is not correct regarding pulmonary respiration seen in frogs and humans? (1) Respiration occurs due to pressure gradient (2) Lungs are respiratory organs in both () Larva of frog and human baby respire through same respiratory organ (4) Frogs exhibit additional methods of respiration 158.Select the odd one among the following w.rt enzymes of succus entericus. (1) Dipeptidase (2) Sucrase (3) Nucteosidase (4) Nuclease 159, Select the incorrect match among the following. o 2600-3000 mL inspiratory reserve |— volume @ [Expraton capacly [= (3) |Expiratory reserve |= volume 1800-1600 mt 1400-1200 mi (@) |Inspiratory capacity |— [3000-3500 mL 1480. Rate of breathing in an adult human under normal ‘physiological conditions is (1) 25-30/min (2) 20-25!min (8) 12-16imin (4) 9414/min 4161. Select the correct pair of muscles involved in the ‘normal breathing in humans. (1) External and internal inter-costal muscles (2) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles (8) Diaphragm and pectoralis major muscles (4) Diaphragm and external inter-costal muscles LOE 162, The structure which does not contribute to breathing In mammals is (1) Diaphragm (2) Moist skin (3) Ribs (4) Inter-costal muscles 163. The mode of respiration in rabbits is (1) Cutaneous (2) Pulmonary (3) Tracheal (4) Branchial 1G4,Human trachea does not collapse due to the presence of (1) Bony rings (2) Ossicles (3) Cartilaginous rings (4) Chitinous rings 165. Chylomicrons are concerned with the (1) Digestion of fats. (2) Absorption of proteins (3) Digestion of proteins (4) Absorption of fats 166. About 'X’ percent of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood and Y' percent of COzis carried by RBCs, Solect the correct option for'X’ and ‘Y' respectively. (1) 97 and 70 (2) 70 and 20-25 (3) 97 and 20-25 (4) 2and 70 467. Consider the following carefully. a, The liveris affected b. Eyes turn yellow c.Deposition of bile pigments in skin ‘The above mentioned signs and symptoms are associated with (1) Diarrhoea (2) Indigestion (3) Typhoid (4) Jaundice 168.Under normal physiological conditions, every 400 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately to the alveol. Select the correct option to fil in the blank. (1) 18 ml of Cor (2) 4 mL of COz (3) SmL of Os (4) 10 mL of O» ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delh-110005, Phone: 011-47623456‘All dia Aakash Test Serlos for NEET:2024 169, Various parts of human alimentary canal absorb various substances, Mouth in humans absorbs (1) Fatty acids (2) Cortain drugs (9) Glycerol (4) Mattose 170, Respiratory rhythm centre is present in the medulla oblongata and is primarily responsible for regulation of respiration as per demands of the body tissues. centre is directly or indirectly regulated by all of the following, except (1) Peripheral chemoreceptors present in aortic arch and carotid artery (2) Central chemoreceptors adjacent to respiratory rhythm centre (3) Preumotaxic centre present in pons region (4) Pneumotaxic centre present oblongata 171. Consider the chemical reaction given below. Stare —Salvaryamyase in medulla HES ‘The product Ais (1) Sucrose (2) Maltose (3) Galactose (4) Glucose 172, Choose the correct statement among the flowing (1) Liver is the largest gland of the body. (2) Itis situated in the abdominal cavity, just above the diaphragm. (3) Glisson’s capsule is the functional unit of liver. (4) Each lobule of liver is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called falciform ligament. 173, Match column | with column I [column Column [A. [Mucus neck eels [()_|HCI B. | Chiet colts G)_| Intrinsic factor C. [Parietal cols Gi) |Pepsinogen wy [Mucus ‘Select the correct option. ee) A 8 c (1) tw i) (i) and (i) (2) (and (wy Gi) (i) (3) tw) (and (i) Gi) (4) tw) (i) and (ii) 174, The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a sphincter called (1) Sphincter of Boyden (2) Cardiac sphincter (@) Sphincter of Odi (4) Pyloric sphincter 175. The proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants for the digestion of milk protein is (1) Renin (2) Sucrase (3) Trypsin (4) Rennin 4176. Intestinal vili are mainly concerned with (1) Reabsorption (2) Absorption (@) Ultrafitration (4) Assimilation 177. What is true regarding appendix in humans? Narrow finger-like tubular projection b. Arises from the caecum ©. Vestigial organ Select the correct option. (1) and b only (2) band c only (3) aandconly (4) a bande. 178. Arrange the following histological layers present in the wall of human alimentary canal from outside to Inside in the correct order. Select the correct option. A. Serosa 8. Muscularis ©. Submmucosa D.-- Mucosa () A5B5C50 @) B5A505¢0 2) C+D+A>B (4) C5A5D5B ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456,179.A cartilaginous fap called entry of food into the glottis during swallowing, Select the correct option to fil in the blank, prevents the (1) Guttet (2) Epigiottis (3) Frenutum (4) Lacteals 180. How many deciduous teeth are found in humans? (1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 32 (4) 24 181. Identity A, B,C, D and E in the given figure and select the correct option. e ° ‘| a * w x 3B © D = Ti) [Sockets of [Premolars [Molars | Canine [incisors aw @ |Sockets a [Motors [Promoters [incisor [Canines @ |welaw | Premolare | Sockets of [Carine | Incsors TH) [Malas | Premlare [Canines | Socket of | ncsors jaw 482.Read the following statements and choose the correct option w.rt, humans. 2. Digestion occurs with the help of physical and chemical processes inside the cell b. Biomacromolecules in food can be utilised by ‘our body in their original form. . Mechanical digestion involves chewing. 1. Biochemical digestion involves enzyme action. (1) Statements a and b are true (2) Statements a, b and c are true (3) Statements c and d are true (4) Statements a, b, ¢ and d are true 183.The process of conversion of complex food substances into simple absorbable forms is called (1) Egestion (2) Ingestion 3) Digestion (4) Assimilation 184, The amount of heat liberated from the complete combustion of 1 gm of food in a bomb calorimeter is known as its (1) Netealorite value (2) Gross energy value (8) Physiological value (4) Nutritional value 485, The role of water in our body is to @, Act as a medium for transport of substances b. Provide a medium for metabolic reactions ©. Cause dehydration in our body Which of the above statements are correct? (1) abandc (2) aandc (3) band (4) aandb SECTION -B 186. In the given question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Choose the correct option. Assertion: CO is transported in the blood mainly in the form of bicarbonate ions. Reason: Blood plasma contains the highest concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason Is the correct explanation of assertion (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion (3) Assertion is true but reason is false (4) Both assertion and reason are false ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456,CUES TRO 487. Consider the options given below w.r.t kwashiorkor, Select the incorrect one. (1) PEM accompanied by caloric deficiency (2) Occurs in a child more than one year in age (8) Extensive oedema is seen (8) Failure of growth and brain development 188. When oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve gets shifted towards the right side, itreflects the following features, except (1) Decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (2) Increase in Ps value (8) Facilitates dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin (4) Percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen increases 189. Which of the following statements is incorrect about bile? (1) Reontains bilirubin and biliverdin, that utimately pass out with digestive wastes (2) Bile salts help in emulsification of fats (9) Bile activates enzyme lipase (4) Bile contains digestive enzymes 190.Choose the option which correctly states the statements given below as true (T) or false (F), 8. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is total volume of air ‘accommodated in the lungs at the end of forced expiration. FRC (Functional Residual Capacity) is volume Of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration. c. Residual volume is volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration, 4. Inspiratory capacity is total volume of air a person can inspire after @ normal expiration. eC a b © d = ay} F Tt @l F F T iv eds) ake |e | F F F 191, Consider the statements A and B carefully. Select the correct option Statement A: The thoracic chamber is formed thin walled bag tke stucure | (4) 30 for exchange of gases Hee (2) A = Trachea — long tube supported by @ complete cartilaginous rings for conduction of (3) 70 repred air (90 (@) B—Larymx—+ common passage forfood and ait | "199, al1 of the folowing are the constituents, of (8) D— Diaphragm > Decreases inta-pulmonary | conducting part of respiratory system except prossure during inhalation oo meee 196. The food that has fully undergone mechanical and chemical digestion inside the stomach is called (2) Initial bronchioles (8) Tertiary bronchi (1) Chyle (2) Bolus {@) Chylomicron (4) Chyme (4) Terminal bronchioles 497. Match the two columns and select the correct option | 299. Human digestive system consists of among the followin one. : (1) Alimentary canal only Columat Column i (2) Associated glands only 2 | Stomach | (| Deficiency causes weak bones . | Thecodont | Gi) | J-shaped bagrike stucture (4) Gastrointestinal tract only (3) Alimentary canal and associated glands qgaa For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash.ac.in ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-i10005, Phone: 011-47623456