Roll No.: {-) | Test Date: 18-12-2022 Aakash +E Medical Entrance Exam - 2024 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XI Studying Students) (Eun Siok eas) ‘Read wach question careful. It is mandatory to use BlueBla ‘snpropratecrieintne answers Mark shouldbe derkand should completely fate crcl Rough workmusinotbe done onthe answer sheet, (0 not use white-uld or any other rabhing material on answer heat No change nthe answer ence marked alowed ‘Student cannot uselo tables andealeuistors or any other mater inte examination. Before attempting the queston paper, student should ensure that thetestpapercontainsallpages and pagers missing, 1 Point Pen to darken the 18 Each correct anewer caries four marks. One mark will be deducted foreschincoreet answer fromthe otal care Before handing over the answor sheet othe invigiatr, candidate should check tat Rall No. and Cente Code have been files and marked correct, Immediately after the prescribed examination time is ove, the snswersheettobe retuned theinvigatr ‘There ae wo sectionsin each subject. Secton-A& Section 8 Yu have to atempt all 35 questons from Section-A & ony sO questonsoute! 15 om Sections, Note tis compulsory to fil Rell No, and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered,Motion in a Plane Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties & Chemical Bonding and Molecular structure The Living World, Biological Classification Digestion and Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of GasesCE ee ae Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: SECTION-A 4. A ladder rests against a smooth vertical wall as shown in figure. The floor is also smooth, Mass of ladder is 50 kg. flower end Ais moving with velocity vVhorizontally, then the vertical velocity of upper end Bat this instant is 8 3m oy ——1 am mv (2) av av oz @ > 2. Inthe given figure, a = 20 mis® represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 3 m at a given instant of time. Choose the correct cohclusion based upon the above information. (1) The tangential acceleration of the particle is greater than centripetal acceleration. (2) The tangential acceleration of the particle is smaller than centripetal acceleration. (3) The tangential acceleration of the particle is equal to centripetal acceleration. (4) Both (1) and (3) Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from roof top of two building 150 m apart and of same height of 200 m, with the velocity of 50 m/s and 25 mis. The Vertical distance from the ground where they will collide is (1) 75m (2) 180m (3) 100m (4) 170 m ‘The speed of a swimmerin still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 mis and flowing due east. I he ig standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river in shortest possible time ie., 4, then the width of river is (1) 50m (2) 100m. (3) 110m (4) 80m A particle moves in a circle of radius 2 m with speed, of particle varying as 2 where fis time in seconds. ‘The acceleration of the particle at f= 1 sis (1) 20 mise (2) a0 mis? (3) 120 mis? (4) 205 mis? ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 017-47623456Eee 6 A ground to ground projectile is projected with Speed vy at an angle 0 with ground. The radius of Curvature of trajectory of projectile at its intial point of projection is o . ) @ a dl Teast Fiend Two balls of mass § kg and 15 kg are projected horizontally from the top of a tower of height 80 m Simultaneously. Which bal will hit the ground first? (neglect air resistance) (2) The ball with heavier mass (2) The bal with tighter mass (3) Both balls will reach simultaneously (4) Cannot predict M vectors, A=2/+3]+6K and B: i +5] — 3h, ‘then unit vector in the direction of BA is Chose the correct conclusion regarding vertical component of velocity of a particle projected from ground whose position(y)-time(i) graph is as shown in the figure y 10. 11 12, 7 ECE) (1) First increases then decreases (2) First decreases then increases (3) Increases continuously (4) Remains constant A person at rest observes thatthe rain is fang with 5 mis towards east making an angle 53° with Vertical. The vololy with which he should stant walking so that rain starts appearing vertical is (1) 3mis towards east (2) 5 m/s towards east (3) 4 mm/s towards east (4) 5 mis towards north For a given velocity of projection, the horizontal range of a ground to ground projectile is maximum when itis projected al an angle of (1) 48° (2) 90° (3) 60" (4) 30° ‘A particle started revolving from rest with constant ‘angular acceleration « in a circular path of radius r. "tangential acceleration becomes numerically equal to twice the magnitude of centripetal ‘acceleration in time f, then tis equal to mt a fF of 1 sy ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dolhr-110008, Phono: 011-4 76I3a5Test2 (Cove) 13 1. 15, A particle of mass § kg is moving in circular path with constant speed of 30 mis. The change in magntue of velocity when particle travels from A Ww B will be @) 208 (2) 3045 (3) Zero (4) 1043 A swimmer can swim in stil water at a speed of 4 mis while the river is flowing ata speed of 5 mis, It the swimmer wants to reach just opposite point of the bank then he should swim at an angle of (1) ‘sin* [318] withthe vertical (2) sin [2/8] wth the horizontal (3) Swimmer would never be able to reach opposite point (2) sin~* [32] with the vertical The coordinates of a particle moving in »-y plane vary wih time as per the following relation, y= 5\f and x= 21, The locus of the particle can be dest represented by @ 16, 17, 18, 19, CTE ORE Eau y oT — A ball is projected with a velocity of 20/3 mis at an ‘angle of 60" with horizontal. The time after which velocity vector will make an angle of 30° with the horizontal is (g = 10 m/s?) (1) 3s (2) 5s (3) 4s (4) 28 ‘An aeroplane flies 400 m south and then 300 m east ‘and then it flies 1200 m downwards. The net displacement is (1) 1400 m (2) 1000 m (3) 1300 m (4) 1500 m The angle between velocity and acceleration of 2 particle in a circular motion with increasing speed ‘cannot be (1) 90° (2) 45" (3) 30° (4) 60° A ball is projected horizontally rom the top of a wall (of height 80 m with speed 10 mis. The time taken. by the ball to reach the ground is —>10ms 0m (1) 2 second (2) 5 second (3) 3 second (4) 4 second ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delii-110008, Phone: 011-47623456OSES Ma) 20. Angular position of a body undergoing circular ‘motion vanes with time as 0 = (4 + 3) radian. If radius of circular path is 1 m, then acceleration of, body at t= 11s will be (1) 10 ms? (2) 16 mis? 8) 15 nv (4) S mis? 21. For angles of projection of a projectile at angles 90" + 0 and 90° ~ 0, the maximum height attained by projectile are in ratio (Assume the velocity of projection ofboth projectiles to be same) () 3:5 5:3 @ant (4) 225 22, Acricket ball of mass mis hitted atan angle 30° with the horizontal, with velocity vs Its kinetic energy at lpm pot sei energy K= im) Vn? (1) Zero. (2) amg 3 mz @ 5me ( Se 23. A ship A is moving westwards with a speed of '30km ht and a ship B 100 km south of A, is moving northwards with a speed 40 km h-!, The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest, is (1) 102 (2) 5h (4) 2n 24 Among the given options choose the one which does not represent a unit vector. 4i-3j 4i+3j @) 4) 25. A particle is moving with an acceleration of (227+ 3i)nvs?. IF at 0, its velocity is (2i + 2j) mis, then its velocity at time ¢= 3s is ) (si-Z))mvs @) (201+ 2j)ms nor 20 () (20/-Fi}s (si-2j)ws 26. A patie moves s0 that its position vector is given at at) BV asin(2)j, where ¢ is i by 4eoe(%)i 4s (2); ere Fis in metres and { is in seconds. The trajectory of the particle is (1) Circular (2) Parabolic (3) Elliptical (4) Hyperbolic 27. Angular speed of a particle is increased from 360 rpm to 420 rpm in 10 seconds. The average angular acceleration of particle is (1) Sn radis? (2) Zero x an & radis? 3 radis? (3) 3 raat (4) & raats 28. Two stones of masses m and 2m are whirled in horizontal ices, he heavier one in aragius £ and lighter one in radius r. The tangential speed of lighter one is twice the speed of the heavier one. The ratio of centripetal acceleration experienced by them is (3 @ 2:4 (3) 5:3 (4) 3:7 29, It |A+8)=|A\=[8) then angle betwoen A and 8 wil be (A and & are nota null vector) (1) 90° (2) 120° 3) 0 (4) 60" ‘Space for Rough Werk Corporate Office: Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-4762345630. Apatticle of mass 1 kg moves along a circle of radius 10 my with a constant tangential acceleration. The ‘speed at the end of second revolution after beginning of the motion is 20 mvs. The tangential acceleration of the particle is (1) 60x mis? (2) &2 mise (3) Sms? (4) 30x mis? 31. Apparticleis projected from the ground at an angle 0 ‘with horizontal with some velocity. At any position B con the trajectory of particle the angle subtended by OB and BC with horizontal are 30° to 45° respectively. The angle of projection is y (4) tan| Se 32. The path followed by 2 moving body whose magnitude of acceleration is constant and always ‘acts in a direction perpendicular to velocity is (1) Circular (2) Parabolic (3) Helical (4) Straight tine 23. A particle is projected at an angle 0 with horizontal from ground. The variation of horizontal component of velocity (v) of particle with time (1) is best represented by 36. 36. ones ay ) (@) (4) ‘ ' Ifthe velocity of the ring is vs as shown in the figure then the velocity with which the rope is being pulled is (1) v1 c0s0 (2) vs sino (3) vstano (4) vilcoso ‘A particle is projected with speed of 18 mis at an angle 30° with horizontal. The range of the particle is SECTION -B Horizontal range of @ particle thrown from the {ground is twice the maximum height. The angle of projection is (1) 60° (3) 45° (2) tant (2) (4) tan-* (5) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 011-47623456CU 37. 38, 40. To a stationary man rain is falling on his back with a velocity vat an angle 0 with horizontal, To make rain velocity appear vertical to the man, the man must move (1) Fonward with velocity v sind) 2) Backward with velocity vsinid (8) Fonvard with velocity vcos0 (8) Backward with velocity v cost) . Aparticle is projected with a velocity of 50 mis at an angle of 53° with horizontal, The magnitude of Position vector of particle, from point of projection, after 2s will be (1) 50m (2) 30/3 m_ (3) 602m (4) 50/2 m The angle between the vectors A and B in two given cases respectively are Case-t 30 / S a Case-2 507 (1) 130", 120° (2) 50", 50° (3) 50", 130° (4) 130°, 50° Choose the correct conclusions regarding the roperties of vectors among the following options. (1) A+B=B+A (4) Allof these M1. 42. 43, 44 46 SEI For the given arrangement of vectors choose the correct expiession forthe law of sines. P. Q R ©) Snfi gino “sina pP_Q_R @ sina sind sinfs P_ QR Sno “snp “dina Choose the vector quantiy among the following (1) Distance (2) Angular Momentum (9) Heat (4) Energy Velociy of particles A and Bare, = (47-+97) mis and We =(9i+2}) m/s. Velocity of 8 as observed by Ais () ~F+7/ms" (2) i+7j)ms" (3) (7+3j)ms* (4) ~G+3])ms The magnitude of vector /+3]+J6 & is (1) 2units (2) 3units (3) 4 units: (4) S units A car starts from origin at the rate of 5 mis2, A man Standing on the carfires a bullet at '= 2's, which hits the bird at t= 6 s having position vector of (707 +60j36%)m. The velocty (in mis) of Projection of bullet is [consider the car to be only moving inthe postive xcdireution = ony 9 =-10j m/s?) (1) 107 +40) +68 (8) 307 +10) +186 (2) 407-30] +10% (4) 107 +6] + 40k ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Offic: Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dolh-1 T0005, Phone: 01 -ATEZSASSSSE) 46, Two particles. A and C are moving with constant speed v each. AL an instant shown the relative velocity of A with respect to Cis in direction / a Lf @ S 8 | “ | 47, If Rand H are the horizontal range and maximum height attained by a projectile projected from ‘ground, then its angle of projection is [CHEMI SECTION -A 51. Which of the following species does not exist according to molecular orbital theory? {LAN InBla Aakash 1f4R “[# wwf] w(t] [aR [aH] 3) tant] A (4) tant] SE ow] 0 of] 48. A particle is projected with speed u at an angle 0 ‘itn horizontal from ground, The average velocity of the particle in time interval 0 io 24800 (1) usino (2) w00s0 (3) utano (4) weot0 49. For a parlicle undergoing uniform circular motion (1) The speed of particle is constant (2) The velocity of the particle is variable (3) The acceleration of the particle is constant (4) Both (1) and (2) 50, Choose the scalar quantity among the following (1) Displacement (2) Speed (9) Acceleration (8) Velocity ISTRY] 54. The correct order of atomic radii of the given elements is (1) A> Siz Be (2) A> Si>C>B aM (2) Bez em ae (3) Sir Al>B>C (4) Si>Al>c>B 52, Which ofthe following is isostructural with PCL? 55. Correct order of ionization enthalpy of the given (1) SOs (2) Bch clements is (@) NFS (4) CFs (1) F>0>N 153, Paramagnetic molecule among the following is (2) N>F>0 (1) Ne (2) Or (3) N>O>F (@) He (4) Ce (4) F>N>O ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Olfice: Rakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456ROSIN Ta 58. Which among the following forms intramolecular hydrogen bonding? oe “s ano; 0 te @) “ ‘CHO # ‘GH, CH, Ww ‘COOH of ‘Och, (1) NRs (2) Sos (8) BrFs (4) Hao SS. Statement I: NOs is an odd electron molecule, Statement Il: Octet rule is not applicable to NOz molecule, {mn the light of above statements choose the correct answer (2) Statement 1 is correct but statement Il is incorrect. 2) Statement 1 correct incorrect but statement Il is (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement and statement Il are incorrect 58. Polar molecule among the following is (1) BChs (2) COs (3) SF () CCh 80. Correct order of bond length for the given bonds is () CO>CN>N-0 (2) NO>CNSC @) C-C>N-O>C-N (4) NO>CC>ON 61. Assertion (A): BrFs is Trigonal bipyramidal in shape. Reason (R): In BrFs, the central atom is spa? hybridised In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below 62, 63. 64, 65. 68. 67. 68, 7 i (Cod (1) (A)Is correct but (R) is not correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A)is not correct but (R) is correct IUPAC nomenclature of an element having atomic number 111 is (1) Unnitunium (3) Unununnium (2) Ununnitium (4) Unnilbium Element (E) having atomic number 49 belongs to (1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) block Which among the following contains highest ‘number of lone pairs around the central atom? (1) CHF (2) SeF« (3) Nis () xere xd bond s absent in (1) S05 (2) Pos (3) coe (@) soz Bond order of CI-O bond in CIO; is (1) 1.68 (2) 15 (3) 1.25 (4) 1.75 Correct order of stability of the given species is (1) O2>05>05 (2) OF s02> 3 (4) 02> 0; > 0; Consider the following statements Octet theory does not accoun the molecules b, Expanded octet is observed in SFe © Octet theory does not explain the relative stability of the molecules (8) 0; > Of >0, for the shape of ‘Space for Rough Work wakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-t 10005, Phone: 07 -a76I3a65cTest2(Code:c)) ‘The correct statements are (1) aandb only (2) band conly (3) aand c only (4) a, band 69. In which of the following molecules only x bond is present? (1) Oz (2) Na @) ce (4) He 70. Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy of given elements is, (1) O>S>Se (2) Se>s>0 (@) S>Se>0 (4) $>O>Se 71. Highest occupied molecular orbital of O} ion is Me ac @= @) 72. Correct order of bond angle in the given molecules (1) HsO>NHs> CH. (2) CHe> NHs > H2O (@) NHs>Hz0>CHs (4) HO > CHe> NHs 73. Match the oxides given in List I with their chemical nature given in List II List a (| Amphoteric b. @)_[ Basic | cao | Gi) | Neutral 3d. [AO | (iv) | Acicic , Biv), (0, Gi) 2), bil), €-(), di) 2), bei, ci), d() bev), ei), 0) 74. Correct order of lattice enthalpy of the given ‘compounds is (1) KCl> NaCl > LICL (8) Licl> KCI > NaCl (2) Licl> NaCl > KCI (4) KC1> Lil > Nac 75. 76. 7. 78. 79. 80. ar. 82, 180° bond angle is absent in (1) PFs (2) SFs (3) XeF (4) Sick Maximum number of atoms that lie in a plane in PCs 6 3 (3) 4 4s ‘Aluminium shows diagonal relationship with (1) Germanium (2) Carbon (3) Beryllium (4) Lithium In which ofthe following species the central atom is not sp? hybridised? (1) COS” (2) COz (3) NO5 (4) S02 The compound which is non planar in shape is (1) Ho (2) BeCle (8) Bch. (4) CHC Incorrect statement among the following is (1) Cate istinear in shape (2) In C2He, each carbon is sp? hybridised (3) C2He contains 3c bonds and 2x bonds (4) Percentage s character In sp? hybrid orbital is 25% Consider the following statements a. Eka-aluminium is called gallium b. prblock and dblock elements are called representative elements ¢. Tellorium and arsenic are semi-motals The cortect statements are (1) aandb only (2) bande only (@) aandc only (4) a,bande Most electropositive element among the following is wu 2) Be (3) Na (4) Mg “Space for Rough Work = Aakash Tower, 8, Pasa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456OEIC SSS 83. Correct order of ionic size ofthe given ions is The correct match is (1) Nigh » Nat > Fee (1) ati, bi, ot (2) OFS > ng > Nar (2) arti, bei, c(i) 0) (8) FS OFS Nat > Mgt (9) arti), BD, oH), (0) (8) OFS Fs Nat > Mg™ (4) av(iv}, bei), i), 40) 84. General outer electronic configuration of d-block | 89, Statement |: Dipole moment of HF is greater than elements is Hcl. ©) (= ens) (n= NYS? Statement I: HF molecules are associated with B) (= NIMH = Nase? teach other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding, 85, Elecvon gain enthalpy of which of the given Inthe light of above statements, choose the correct ‘elements is positive? — an (2) K (1) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect. @ Br (4) He (2) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect SECTIONS) (3) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is 86. Correct order of covalent character of the given correct. compounds is (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct, (1) NaCi> MgCl: > AIC, 90. Which among the following has longest carbon- (2) MgCl: > AIH > NaCl carbon bond length? (3) AIC > MgCl: > Nact (1) Ethane (2) Ethene (4) MgCl: > NaCl > AICls (3) Ethyne pete 87. Number of bonding elections in Ne and anthonding | 2 Which among the folowing is inolube in water? electrons in O} respectively are 1 ptranol (CHsOH) (2) Acetone (CHsCOCHs) (1) 10ane7 (2) 8and7 (2) Hexane (Cette) Oand (4) Banas (4) Ethylene glycol (HO ~ CH: ~ CH» — OH) 58. Match stomic number givenin Column with IUPAC | 92. In which ofthe given molecules XeOs, PCs, Fs official name given in Column II and BF, the central atoms are sp? hybridized? | [eetumnt | | Coumn (1) XeO and BF: (2) PCs and BrFs [a [sor [| Nobemm | go, OD 2eCr an BFS (4) Pots and Xe0s ul Correct order of dipole moment of the given [B02 | ep | Rutertorium compound i, 7 {Oe Moment of the ge [e [103 | (i | Mendetevium (1) COz>HaS>H20 (2) HeS > CO2> HzO [e109 [4 | Levrenciam (8) H:0>CO2>HeS (4) H:0 > HrS > COr ‘Space for Rough Wark ‘Corporate Office: Kakash Tower, Pusa Road, New Delt 10005, Phone; O11 -ATGOS45694, For given Lewis structure of Os, the formal charge fon central oxygen atom is 6, No: aa (2) Zero et (4) +2 95. An element has electronic configuration 1s? 2s? 2p" ‘3s? 3p® 3cP 42, To which group of periodic table this ‘element belongs? fi 98, Number of 90° bond angles in SeF is Me 28 (3) 12 (4) 10 99. Which of the following pair of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural? (1) POY and SOF (3) POY andict; (4): SO and CO 100, Statement I: Metalic character increases as we move from lft o right across a period Statement I: Non-metalic character increases a8 we go down the group. In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer (1) Both statement | and statement II are incorrect (2) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (3) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement I is correct [BOTANY] (1) Second (2) Fourth () Fifth (4) Seventh 96 Which among the following belongs to chalcogen family? () Br (2) Se @) As (4) Ge 97. Total number of r-electrons in the following structure is Lf rer ama a6 @s (ay 12 SECTION -A 101.Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in (1) Yeast (2) Amoeba (8) Bacteria (4) Mosses: 4102. Mark the pair of taxonomic categories that occupy the same position in taxonomic hierarchy. (1) Primata, Insecta (2) Hominidae, Dicotyledonae (3) Arthropoda, Angiospermae (4) Diptera, Poaceae 403. Mark the incorrect one for taxonomical key (1) Itis used for both plants and animals (2) It is based on. similarities dissimilarities as well as (3) Itis analytical in nature (4) It is based on set of contrasting characters generally in a pair called lead 4104, Self-consciousness is a defining feature of (2) Animals (4) Prokaryotes (1) Humans. (3) Plants Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New DeIni-110005. Phone: 077-47623456eC 105. In five kingdom classification system, (2) A chemosynthetc autotroph A saproptvte 2. Prokaryotes are placed in one kingdom only “) eee oe ®. Stgansms wth cet wal are groupes in fur | 11.Which of the folaving man se ct ri on () Chote Typha Auta ricms are keptin two kingdoms 7 Cte ee = (3) CrJacob disease (4) Tetanus ; 4. Nuear membrane & seen in members ot a | 112M the given columns and selec he correc the five kingdoms ooton _ Choose the incorrect ones Column Column (3) aendb @) bande = [Biatom [| Fresh wator wal @) eanda (@) aande less prot 106.Cart Woese placed all prokaryotes ®, | Dinofagatate | i) | Smallest ving cells (1) Asingle domain, Bacteria Seema oll eee era (2) Two domains, Bacteria and Archaea (8) Asingle domain, Archaea (4) Allthe three domains ajbiela 107.The organisms showing the most extensve | [tO [w [a [wi metabolic diversity (2) (1) Belong to kingdom Plantae Mycoplasma _| (iv) | Soap box like body ate ti [i fa @) Are simple in stucue but very complex in | Hay To hte te behaviour t aon amar 119. Select th odd oe wt. sme moulds 6) Are found inex habiats only bel ao (©) Lackeel wat (2) Produce spores under favourable conditions (3) Their spores possess true cell wall (4) Form an aggregation called plasmodium 114, All protozoans are 108. Mark the wrongly matched pair. (1) Methanogens ~ Produce biogas (2) Nostoc— Fix atmospheric nitrogen (3) Mycoplasma — Pathogenic to plants (1) Predators (4) Gonyaulax ~ Produces diatomaceous earth (2) Found in fresh water 109. Organisms that have pigments identical to those (3) Heterotrophs present in higher plants is (4) Motile and have locomotory structures (1) Anabaena (2) Euglena 115. dent the wrongly matched pair (8) Chiorobium (4) Nitrococcus (1) Trypanosoma ~ Flagellated parasite 110. Bacterium that fixes nitrogen in legume plants is. (2) Paramoecium ~ Possesses gullet (1) An autotroph (3) Plasmodium — Malarial parasite (2) Aheterotroph (4) Entamoeba ~Ciiated parasite ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi10005. Phone: 011 AT6ZOI56Cs) 146. Sporozoans lack (1) Spore formation (2) Pathogenic nature (3) Locomotory structure (8) Membrane bound organelles. 197, The fungus responsible for forming white spots on mustard leaves a, Belongs to class Phycomycetes b. Isaparasite Has septate hyphae 4. Has short dikaryophase Choose the incorrect one(s). (1) conly (2) band (8) cand donly (4) a,candd 118. Mark the wrong statement for fungi. (1) They are cosmopolitan in nature (2) They prefer to grow in warm and humid places (3) They show great diversity in morphology (2) They are muticellular and filamentous without any exception, 118. All of these are sexual spores, except (1) Zoospores (2) Oospores (8) Ascospores, (4) Basidiospores 120. The fungi form _A_ in which reduction division cours, leading to formation of 8 Choose the correct option to fil up the blanks, [Tua B a 7) | Hyphae | Asexual spores @ | Serowen | Gamete @) | Game! Spores (@) | Fruiting body_| Hoploid spores 121, Both zoospores and sporangiospores are (1) Motile spores (2) Produced endogenously in sporangium (3) Diploid spores (4) Produced by club fungi 122, Identify the odd one w.rt. Basidiomycetes. (1) Trichoderma (2) Toadstools (3) Ustilago (4) Puccinia 423.Mark the fealures similar between morels and Agaricus. a. Form edible fruiting bodies b. Presence of dikaryophase 6, Mainly reproduce by asexual spores 4d. Exogenously produce meiospores (1) aand b only (2) a,bandc (3) b.candd (4) cand d only 124, Read the below given features of a fungus a. Sex organs absent b. Sexual spores formed c. Karyogamy is delayed after plasmogamy ‘The fungus °X’ should be (1) Ustfago (2) Alteraria (3) Albugo (4) Mucor 125, Colletotrichum is an imperfect fungus as it (1) Lacks chitinous cell wall (2) Reproduce asexually only (3) Lacks sex organs (4) Has features of both fungi and protists 126.A large number of fungi of which class help in mineral cycling and are decomposer of litter? (1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes. 127. Fungus commonly popularised as smut fungus is (1) Ustitago (2) Puccinia (3) Atemaria (4) Aspergitus ‘Spa Tor Rough Wark Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dalhi-110005, Phone: 011-47623456SEMIIOMESA 28.Mark the statement which is not tue about members of kingdom Plantae. (1) Inetudes eukaryotic chlorophyll containing ‘organisms (2) Few members of Plantae are partially heterotrophic such as Cuscuta and bladderwort (8) They show alternation of generation (8) Their cet wall is mainly made up of cellulose 128. Who forthe first time prepared the erystals of virus? (1) Pasteur (2) anovsky @) Boijerincs. (4) Stanley 180. Mark the incorrect match. Fungus Used astin (1) Yeast — Bread and beer production (2) Aspergilus — Source of many alkaloids and LSD (@) Trtte = (8) Neurospora — Edible delicacy Biochemical and genetic Work 191.No virus contains: (1) Pathogenicity, (2) Proteinaceous coat (3) Both DNA and RNA. (4) Property to form crystal 132. Choose the wrong statement for voids. (1) They are smaller than viruses (2) They have DNA of low molecular weight (3) They are infectious in nature (2) They lack capsia 133, Which of the given features of prions is similar to (2) Genetic material type (2) Sze (3) Type of infectious material (4) Type of capsomeres 134, Lichens (1) Are symbiotic associations (2) Grow well in air polluted area (3) Contain only heterotrophic organisms kingdom Plantae by (4) Were classified in Whittaker 195, Select the wrong statement. (1) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan (2) Members of Monera lack nuclear membrane (3) Desmids are golden algae (4) Cyanobacteria contain flagellated cells SECTION-B 196.The most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living beings is (1) Metabolism (2) Consciousness 3) Growth (4) Reproduction 197. Mark the wrong match. ‘Taxonomical aids | Used for (1) | Zoological park | Animals (2) | Museum Plants, animals and : insects (3) | Flora Plants and animals (4) | Monograph ‘Animals 198. Identify the incorrect match for taxono: categories of mango. (1) Family ~ Sapindales (2) Class ~ Dicotyledonae (3) Division ~ Angiospermae (4) Genus ~ Mangifera 139, Binomial nomenclature was given by (1) Aristotle (3) Theophrastus (2) Carolus Linnaeus (4) Whittaker ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dain T0008, Phone! O71-47623455eo) 140, Which one of the following is correctly matched? (1) Monera~ Non cellulosic cell wall (2) Protista ~ Cet wall present in all members. (3) Fungi - Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan (8) Animatia Cell wall is absent in some, 441, Match the following columns and select the correct option. [ [cotumnt Golumn tt Ja. | Nostoc — | () | Multiply rapidly and make the sea appear red b.| Amoeba | (i) | Mixotrophic mode of | |_| nutrition c. | Gonyautax | (ii) | Heterocyst | Euglena _| (uv) | Freshwater hetertrophs ADC mle i fa @ [eli [elm @ melt @/i ale li 142, Which of the given structures makes the body of Euglena flexible? (1) Cell walt (2) Plasma membrane (8) Pellicle (4) Flagelia 143.Read these statements and select the correct option. A. Mucor'is popularly known as bread mould. B. Clavicepsis a pathogenic sac fungus. C. Bracket fungi and puffballs are placed in class Basidiomycetes. (1) znd B only (3) Aend C only (2) Band C only (4) AIA, Band C RU 144, Oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis of all of the given organisms, except (1) Gonyauiox (2) Euglena (3) Nostoc (4) Groen sulphur bacteria 145.Statement A: Dinollagellates are mostly fresh water organisms Statement 8: Chrysophytes are found in fresh as well as marino water. Read the above statements and select the correct ontion (1) Only statement Ais incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorrect (3) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (4) Both the statements A and B are correct 146,__can survive without oxygen. Choose the correct option to fil up the blank. (1) Slime moulds (2) Diatoms. (3) Mycoplasma (4) Desmids 147. Viroids were/are (1) Discovered by 7.0. Diener (2) Causal agent of tobacco mosaic disease (3) Known to cause diseases mostly in animals (4) Viruses without genetic material 148, Bacteriophages have (1) Helically arranged protein units (2) dsDNA as genetic material (3) Twelve tal fibres (4) Genetic material inside tail ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005. Phone: 011-47623456OE ea 149, Dikaryotic mycelium is seen in (1) Common mushroom (2) Attermaria (3) Rhizopus (4) Colletotrichum ey 150. Which of the given is wrongly matched? (1) Diatom - indestructible cell wall (2) Dinoflagellates - Sti cellulosic plates, (3) Rhizopus - Reproduce sexually (4) Aspergilus ~ Produce motile asexual spores [ZOOLOGY] SECTION -& 181. The role of water in our body is to 3 Act as a medium for transport of substances ». Provide a medium for metabolic reactions © Cause dehydration in our body Which of the above statements are correct? (1) a,bande 2) aande @) bande (4) aandb 152. The amount of heat liberated from the complete combustion of 1 gm of food in a bomb calorimeter is known as its (1) Netcalorie value (2) Gross energy value @) Physiological value (4) Nutritional value 183.The process of conversion of complex food substances into simple absorbable forms is called (1) Egestion (2) Ingestion 9) Digestion (4) Assimilation 154.Read the following statements and choose the correct option w.r.t. humans. Digestion occurs with the help of physical and ‘chemical processes inside the cell b. Biomacromolecules in food can be utilised by ‘our body in their original form. © Mechanical digestion involves chewing 4. Biochemical digestion involves enzyme action. (1) Statements a and b are true (2) Statements a, b and c are true (3) Statements c and d are true (4) Statements a, b, ¢ and ¢ are true 185. Identity A, B, C, D and E in the given figure and select the correct option. a 8 © D E (9) [ Socks ot |Prematars | otare [canine [incisors (2) | Sockets or | alas [Promote incisor [Canines a (9) [Mots [Premotars [Sockets of [Ganne |incaore jaw (4) |motars|Premotars [Canines |Soatar| inca iow 186. How many deciduous teeth are found in humans? (1) 20 (2) 30 @) 32 (4) 26 ‘Space for Rough Work ‘Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6; Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone: 01 1-47EDa456Soo) 457.A cartilaginous flap called __provents the entry of food into the glottis during swallowing. Select the correct option to fill in the blank (1) Gallet (2) Epiglotis, (3) Frenulum (4) Lacteals 4158. Arrange the following histological layers present in the wall of human alimentary canal from outside to inside in the correct order. Select the correct option A. Serosa B. Muscularis ©. Sub-mucosa —-D.- Mucosa ()ASB3C5D Q)C3D5A5B ) BSAS3D3C (4) CHA5D>B 459, What is true regarding appendix in humans? a. Narrow fingertike tubular projection b. Arises from the caecum cc. Vestigial organ ‘Select the correct option. (1) aandbonly (3) aandconly 480. Intestinal vill are mainly concerned with (1) Reabsorption (2) Absorption (3) Utrefitration (4) Assimiation 461. The proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants for the digestion of milk protein is, (1) Renin (2) Sucrase (3) Trypsin (4) Rennin 462. The bile cuct 2nd pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as hepato-pancreatic duct which is ‘guarded by 2 sphincter called (1) Sphincter of Boyden (2) Cardiac sphincter (2) Sphincter of Oddi (4) Pylorie sphincter (2) band c only (4) abande 163, 164, 168 166. TURIN ee Match column | with column II fCoumol ~ [eolumn th [a [Mucus necks [t) [He ®. [chet cots [Inns factor [Part cae (a) [Ponsinagen L [ren [Mucus | Select te correet option A 8 c 9) wo (ena i @) Wendi) wa @ W) {and (i) (4) (iv) (ii) and (ili) (i) Choose the correc statement arnong the folowing wrt ver (1) Livers te largest gland ofthe bod. {2)Itis stated inthe abdominal cavity, just above the diaphragm. (9) Glsson's capsules the functional (4) Each lobule of liver is covered by a thin Comeclve tissue sheath called faleiform figement Consider the chemical reaction given below. Savaryamiase Starcn —Saibaryamase a The product Ais (1) Sucrose (2) Matiose (8) Galactose (4) Glucose Respiratory rhythm centre is present in the medulla Sblongeta andi primarily cesponsibe for reguation of reapration 2s per demands ofthe body tissues ‘his centre directly or indirectly regulated by all of the folowing, except (1) Peripheral chemoreceptors present in aortic arch and carotid artery (2) Central chemoreceptors acjacent to respiratory rythm centre (2) Pneumotaxic centre present.in pons region (4) Pneumotaxic centre present in medulla oblongata unit of liver. “Space for Rough Work Torporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005. Phone: 011-47623456EIS of human alimentary canal absorb Various substances. Mouth in humans absorbs (1) Fatty acids (2) Certain drugs (8) Gycero! (2) Maltose 188.Under_normal physiological conditions, every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately. tothe alveoli. Select the correct option to fin the blank, (1) 1SMLot cK (2) Amb ot coe @) SmLoto: (4) 10 mL of os 188. Consider the following carefully. 8. The Iveris affected b. Eyes tum yeliow ©. Deposition of bile pigments in skin ‘The above mentioned signs and symptoms are associated with (1) Diarthoea 2) Indigestion @) Typhoid (4) Jaundice 170, About % percent of O: is transported by RBCs in the Blood and “Y percent of CO2is carries by RECs. ‘Select the correct option for'X’ and Y' respectively (3) 87 ang 70 (2) 70 and 20-25, (3) 97 and 20-25 (4) 2and 70 171. Chylomicrons are concerned with the (2) Absorption of proteins tion of proteins (4) Absorption of fats 172, Human trachea does not collapse due to the presence of (1) Bony rings (2) Ossicles (2) Carilaginous rings (4) Chitinous rings 173. The mode of respiration in rabbits is (1) Cutaneous (2) Pulmonary (2) Tracheal (4) Branchial 174, The structure which does not contribute to breathing ifest2 (Code-cy inmammals is (1) Diaphragm (2) Moist skin (3) Ribs (4) Inter-costal muscles 175, Select the correct pair of muscles involved in the ‘normal breathing in humans. (1) External and internal inter-costal muscles (2) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles (3) Diaphragm and pectoralis major muscles (4) Diaphragm and external inter-costal muscles 176, Rate of breathing in an adult human under normal physiological conditions is (1) 25-30/min (2) 20-25/min (3) 12-16)min (4) 9-444min 177. Select the incorrect match among the following, (1) [Inspiratory reserve |— volume 2500-3000 mL (2) |Expiratory capacity |— 1500-1600 mL. (3) |Expiratory reserve |- volume 1400-1200 mL [2 [Inspiratory capacity | 3000-3500 mt 176.Select the odd one among the following wart enzymes of succus entericus. (1) Dipeptidase (2) Sucrase (3) Nucleosidase (4) Nuclease 178. Frog end human exhibit pulmonary respiration Which one of the following is net correct regarding pulmonary respiration seen in frogs and humans? (1) Respiration occurs due to pressure gradient (2) Lungs are respiratory organs in both (3) Larva of frog and human baby respite through same respiratory organ (4) Frogs exhibit additional methods of respiration ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Now Dolhi-1 10008, Phone: 011 AT62S456480. Choose the incorrect statement (1) O2 is utilised by the organisms to indirectly breakdown nutrient molecules like glucose. (2) COz which is harmful is also released during anabolic reactions like breakdown of nutrients, (3) Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on their habitats and levels of organisation. (4) The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO: produced by the cells is called breathing. 181.Special vascularised structures called _A_are used bymostofthe aquatic Band _C_forthe ‘exchange of gases. Here ‘Ai, B' ang C’ are eae c co [eae | Mammats_| Reptiles (a) [a | atwopods | Motes @) | Lungs Arthropods | Molluscs (@) [ngs | Manmats | Fishes 4182, The value of pOz in alveoli and tissues under normal physiological conditions respectively is (4) 104 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg (2) 95mm Hg and 160 mm Hg (8) 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg (4) 45mm Hg and 104 mm Hg 483. Select the correct option w-rt the sequence of layers that form the diffusion membrane in lungs. DUE ue (1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli -> basement membrane of bronchioles > endothelium of blood capillaries (2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli basement substance — endothelium of alveolar capillaries (3) Basement substance —> stratified epithelium of alveoli > columnar epithelium of blood capillaries (4) Columnar epithelium of alveoli -> endothelium of alveolar capillaries —» basement substance 484, The total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is (1) TV+IRV+ERV (2) TVonly (3) TV+ IRV (4) TV+ERV 485.Which of the following is not associated with asthma? (1) Alveolar walls are damaged (2) Wheezing (3) Difficuty in breathing (4) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles SECTION -B 4186, Human digestive system consists of (1) Alimentary canal only (2) Associated glands only (3) Alimentary canal and associated glands (4) Gastrointestinal tract only 487.Al of the following are the constituents of conducting part of respiratory system except (1) Alveolar duct, (2) Initial bronchioles (3) Tertiary bronchi (4) Terminal bronchioles ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Rakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005. Phone: 01147623456REE 188. Approximately, how much percentage of starch is hydrolysed in the mouth? @) 30 (2) 50 @) 70 (4) 90 188, Match the two columns and select the correct option among the following. lu nt Column a. | Stomach | @ Deficiency causes weak bones | Thecodont | (iy [ J-shaped bagrike stuctore & | Vtarsin-d | (ii) | Works as both endocrine and exocrine gland | Pancreas | (iv) [ Reduces absorption of food © | Dianthoea | (¥) | Teeth embedded in jaw bones (1) ai, bi), ei, dv), e(¥) 2) a0), B-(), Ov), (i, e-Giiy (8) ai), bY), e, di), efi) (4) i), B(), ei, de), eriv) 190. The food that has fully undergone mechanical and chemical digestion inside the stomach is called (1) Chyte (2) Bolus (3) Chytomicron (4) Chyme ‘181. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human ‘respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and ‘main function/characteristic, (1) C-Bronchiole -> thin walled bag lke structure for exchange of gases (2) A = Trachea - long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conduction of Inspired alr (3) B~ Larynx ~> common passage for food and air (4) D ~ Diaphragm — Decreases intra-pulmonary pressure during inhalation 192.Which of the following respiratory volumes/ capacities can be measured with the help of a simple spirometer? (1) FRO (2) TLe (3) RV (4) IRV 193. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin. The patient has been inhaling polluted air containing a high content of (1) Carbon disulphide (2) Chloroform (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide 194. Which one ofthe folowing pairs of food components reaches the stomach totally undigested in an adult human? (1) Proteins and starch (2) Proteins and cellulose (3) Starch and cellulose (4) Fats and starch 198. Consider the statements A and B carefully. Select the correet option. Statement A: The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column and laterally by the tbs. ‘Statement B: The contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic cavity in the antero-posterior axis, (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct, (4) Only statement 8 is correct ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, Naw Delli-110005, Phone: O11 47623456ae 496.Choose the option which correctly states. the statements given below as true (T) or false (F). a. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of forced expiration. b. FRC (Functional Residual Capacity) is volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration. . Residual volume is volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. 4. Inspiratory capacity is total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration. a » fe] 4 Mm) re | t | tft cen) ee (3) T T 7 | @{ oT F F F | 487.Which of the folowing statements is incorrect about bile? (1) RReontains birubin and bilverin, that utimately pass out with digestive wastes {@) Bile salts help in emsiication of fats @) Bile activates enzyme lipase (2) Bile contains digestive enzymes a 498, When oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve gets shifted towards the right side, itreflects the following features, except (1) Decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (2) Increase in Pso value (3) Facilitates dissociation of oxyhaemogiobin (4) Percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen increases 4199, Consider the options given below w.r.t kwashiorkor- Select the incorrect one. (1) PEM accompanied by caloric deficiency (2) Occurs in a child more than one year in age (3) Extensive oedema is seen (4) Failure of growth and brain development 200.1n the given question, a statement of assertion 1° followed by a statement of reason. Choose the correct option. ‘Assertion: CO: is transported in the blood mainly in the form of bicarbonate ions. Reason: Blood plasma contains the highest ‘Concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. J reason are true and the (1) Both assertion anc reason is the correct explanation of as: wnd reason are true but the the correct explanation of sertion (2) Both assertion ar reason is not assertion (3) Assertion is true but reason is false (4) Both assertion and reason are false a For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash.ac.in ‘Space for Rough Work