1.

Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies phagolysosome Phagolysosome

The following are work practice controls except: 4. Digestion and release of 6. Digestion
debris to the outside 7. Excretion
a. Splash guards
Rodak’s 5th Edition
b. Handwashing
1. Recognition and Attachment
c. Avoid recapping 2. Ingestion
d. Warning signage 3. Killing and Digestion
4. Formation of Neutrophil Extracellular Traps
Laboratory Hazard Prevention Strategies

Work Practice Controls

1. Handwashing after each patient contact
2. Cleaning surfaces with disinfectants
3. Avoiding unnecessary use of needles and sharps and not
recapping
4. Red bag waste disposal
5. Immunization for hepatitis
6. Job rotation to minimize repetitive tasks
7. Orientation, training, and continuing education
8. No eating, drinking, or smoking in laboratory
9. Warning signage

Engineering Controls
1. Puncture-resistant containers for disposal and transport of
needles and sharps
1. After engulfment of the organism, what will be formed inside
2. Safety needles that automatically retract after removal
3. Biohazard bags the cell? _________________
4. Splash guards
5. Volatile liquid carriers
6. Centrifuge safety buckets
7. Biological safety cabinets and fume hoods
8. Mechanical pipetting devices
9. Computer wrist/ arm pads
10. Sensor- controlled sinks or foot/knee/ elbow-controlled faucets

Emergency equipment in preventing laboratory hazards

1. Chemical-resistant gloves; subzero (freezer) gloves; thermal
gloves
2. Hearing protection (earplugs or earmuffs)
3. Eyewash stations
4. Safety shower
5. Fire extinguisher
6. Laboratory spill kit
7. First aid kit

PPE 2. Phagosome fused with cytoplasmic granules is

Nonlatex gloves isolation gowns, masks including particulate called______________
respirators, face shields, protective eyewear (goggles, safety glasses) 3. Capillary Blood Collection for adults and children

2. The following are engineering controls except:

a. Biohazard bags
b. Immunization for hepatitis
c. Puncture resistant containers for disposal
d. Centrifuge safety cabinets
3. Phagocytosis
Last stage of phagocytosis: ______________________

4. Venipuncture
Most commonly used size and length of syringe
_____________________

A. Physical contact
B. Outflowing of cytoplasm
5. Needle used to transfer blood from syringe to tube has a
C. Phagosome
gauge of?
D. Phagolysosome
a. 18
E. Digestion
b. 20
F. Excretion
c. 19
d. 21

Steven’s 3rd Edition Steven’s 4th edition

1. Physical contact between 1. Adherence

the WBC and the foreign 2. Engulfment
particle 3. Formation of
2. Formation of phagosome Phagosome
3. Fusion with cytoplasmic 4. Granule contact
granules to form a 5. Formation of
6. When performing venipuncture, one enters the vein at an
angle of approximately ___ degree to the arm.
a. 15
b. 30
c. 20
d. 40

7. Which are tested when there is a new laboratory machine?

1. Linearity
2. Accuracy
3. Precision
a. 1 only
b. 2,3 Turgeon’s 5th ed. pg. 84
c. 1,3
d. 1,2,3 11. Which is a general; description of cytoplasmic color in
younger cells?
a. Lighter blue
b. Pinkish
8. Platelet Structure c. Grayish
Main energy source of platelets d. Dark blue

a. Phosphsolipids
b. Fatty acids
c. Glucose
d. Protein

General Maturational Sequences

12. Shift to the left except

a. Segmented
b. Band
c. Metamyelocyte
d. Myelocyte
9. Microtubules and microfilaments: ________________

13. Color of eosinophil cytoplasm

a. Orange
b. Lavender
c. Colorless
d. Dark purple

14. Granulocyte Kinetics

Promyelocyte stage lasts about _________ in the bone
marrow
a. 15 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 46 hours
d. 36 hours
10. The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte (platelet) is:
a. Megakaryoblast- promegakaryocyte-megakaryocyte-
metamegakaryocyte-thrombocyte
b. Promegakaryocyte-megakaryocyte-metamegakaryocyte-
thrombocyte
c. Megakaryoblast-promegakaryocyte-megakaryocyte-
15. Granulocytic Granules
thrombocyte
Tertiary granules are formed in
d. Megakaryoblast-promegakaryocyte-metamegakaryocyte-
a. Promyelocyte
thrombocyte
b. Metamyelocyte and Band
c. Myelocyte and Metamyelocyte
d. Bands and Segmenters
 23. In what disease would Howell-jolly bodies are usually found?
a. Liver disease
b. G6PD deficiency
c. PA
d. Lead Poisoning

16. WBCs are increased in ___, and decreased in _____.

Rodak’s 5th ed. Pg.20

17. Dendritic cells originates at 24. Acanthocyte is seen in which of the following conditions?
a. CMP ______________
b. Eosinophil
c. Granulocyte
d. CLP
18. Which of the following has a different cell lineage
a. Monocyte Rodak’s 5th ed. Pg 288
b. Lymphocytes
c. Thrombocytes
d. Neutrophils

Rodak’s 5th ed. Pg 3

19. Erythrocyte Grading

Abnormal erythrocytes, reported as MANY. What is the
numerical counterpart?
a. 2+
b. 1+
c. 4+
d. 3+
25. 3 stages of hematopoietic development
20. Abnormal erythrocytes, reported as MARKED What is the
Hgb produced during embryogenesis
numerical counterpart?
26. Gower I, Gower II, Portland are produced from
a. 2+
a. Primitive stage
b. 1+
b. Myeloid stage
c. 4+
c. Secondary Stager
d. 3+
d. Hepatic Stage
21. Red cell inclusions
27. What is the secondary organ for adult hematopoiesis?
Which medical conditions are associated with round, solid
a. Liver
staining, dark blue to purple inclusions, frequently seen in
b. Pancreas
mature RBC but may also be seen in immature RBC?
c. Kidney
a. Hemolytic anemia, pernicious anemia
d. Bone marrow
b. Physical atrophy of the spleen and defective heme
synthesis
c. Hemolytic anemia, pernicious anemia, physical
atrophy of the spleen, defective heme synthesis
d. Hemolytic anemia, pernicious anemia, physical
atrophy of the spleen
28. Which is/are sites of active marrow in adults?
22. An rbc with a membrane folded over may be seen in patient
a. Skull, spleen, liver, proximal ends of logn bones
with
b. Vertebrae, yolk sac, pelvis, thymus, tibia
a. Hb C disease
c. Pelvis, vertebrae, ribs, proximal ends of long
b. Sickle cell
bones, sternum
c. Stomatocyte
d. Ribs, liver, spleen, shoulder blades, tibia
d. Schistocyte
29. What is the major site of erythropoietin production? 33. Total area of counting chamber
a. Bone marroiw a. 3mm2
b. Spleen b. 3mm2
c. Kidney c. 9mm2
d. Liver d. 9mm

34. Most commonly used counting chamber

a. Levy
b. Fuchs
c. Petraff

Turgeon 5th ed. Pg 90-91

35. A 1:20 dilution of blood is made. The four WBC corner

squares counted: 20, 23, 22, 19. Calculate for the WBC
count
a. 4,200
b. 8,600
c. 420
d. 860

Formula for Manual Cell Counts

36. After how many minutes should counting of the WBCs

commence after charging the hemocytometer with diluted
30. oxygen dissociation curve
blood?
shift to the left in ODC
a. 15
a. Increased oxygen affinity
b. 5
b. Acidosis
c. 20
c. Increased pCO2’
d. 10
d. Increased temperature

37. Dilution factor for platelet ____________

31. normal variant of hemoglobin

1. Methemoglobin
2. Carboxyhemoglobin
3. Sulfhemoglobin
4. Glycosylated

a. 1,3
b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3
d. 1,4

WBC corrected count

32. Hemogram also refers to ____________.

38. Estimation factors and differential counts criteria

Platelet estimation factor
a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 10000
d. 20000
Estimation Factors and Differential Counts Criteria

39. Blood Smear Preparation

Size of blood drop for smear preparation
a. 1-2mm
b. 2-3mm
c. 3-4mm 43. ESR
d. 3-5mm What would be the expected ESR when a specimen tested
without rewarming after refrigeration?
a. False increase
b. False decrease
c. No change
d. Variable

40. Expected appearance of the smear when the slide used is

unclean
a. Has holes
b. Wavy
c. Tails on edges

44. Which of the following can cause decrease in ESR?

A. Polycthemia vera
B. Anemia
C. Macrocytosis
D. Fibrinogen

41. ESR
If the ESR is increased, what condition related to WBC does
the patient have?
a. Leukemoid reaction
b. Leukocytosis
c. Leukemia
42. ESR
What would cause a falsely elevated ESR?
a. Tilting of the tube 45. Most preferred anticoagulant for ESR (Westergren method )
b. Hyperfibrinogenemia a. EDTA
c. Hypoalbuminemia b. Potassium oxalate
d. Acanthocytosis c. Citrate
d. Heparin
 1. Silent carriers
2. Hgb H
3. Thalassemia minor
4. Hydrops fetalis
a. 1,2
b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3,4
d. 1,2,3,4
51. RBC histogram
If the rbcs are larger than normal, to which side of the
histogram will the cells expected?
a. Intermediate
b. Right
c. Left
d. Middle
46. Reticulocyte Count
52. Flow cytometry
Retics count: Ratio of Blood to NMB
Main parts of flow cytometry
a. 1:2
1. Fluidics
b. 2:1
2. Optics
c. 1:1
3. Computer
d. 3:1
4. Electronic
47. An algorithm for initial morphologic classification of anemia
a. 1,2,3
based on the MCV
b. 1,2,4
The patient has normocytic anemia. What test should be
c. 2,3,4
performed next?
d. 1,2,3,4
a. Indices
b. Absolute reticulocyte
c. Hemoglobinm
d. Hematocrit
48. What are the parameters used to compute for MCV?
a. A. rbc count and hemoglobin
b. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
c. Hematocrit and rbc count
d. Hematocrit and rdw

53. Flow cytometry

1. Forward light scatter
2. Right angle
3. Forward scatter
4. Side scatter
a. 1,2
b. 1,4
c. 3,4
d. 2,3

49. Examples of selected hemoglobinopathies

Abnormal molecular structure
1. Hgb SS
2. Hgb SA
3. Hgb C
4. Alpha Thalassemia

a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4

54. Relationship of leukemias and lymphoma

Stem cell leukemia
a. Lymphoma, undifferentiated
b. Lymphoma, poorly differentiated
c. Lymphoma, well differentiated
d. Reticulum sarcoma

50. Classification of Alpha Thalassemia 55. Leukemoid reaction vs CML

Alpha thalassemia How to differentiate CML from Leukemoid Reaction
__________
 c. Tissue factor
d. Prothrombin
59. Basic Terminologies for clinical findings in bleeding disorders
Leakage of large amount of blood around the puncture site
causes the are to rapidly swell
a. Hematoma
b. Bruise
c. Ecchymosis
d. Purpura

60. It is caused by leakage of a small amount of blood in the

tissue around the puncture site. The most common vascular
complication in venipuncture.
a. Ecchymosis
b. Purpura
c. Hematoma
d. Petechiae

61. Menorrhagia associated with what factor deficiency

a. VWF
b. Factor IX
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor V
56. In which of the following conditions are flower cells
observed?
a. T-cell leukemia
b. Hairy cell leukemia
c. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d. Sezary syndrome

62. Qualitative Abnormalities: Changes in Platelet Function

Platelet adhesion defect except:
a. Vwd
b. Bernard Soulier
c. Chronic liver disease
d. Acquired anemia

57. MPO is used to differentiate

a. AML and ALL
b. AML and CML
c. ALL and CLL
d. CML and AML

63. Known as Giant Platelet Syndrome

a. WAS
b. May Hegglin Anomaly
c. Bernard Soulier Syndrome
d. Alport Syndrome

58. Building block of hemostatic plug

a. A. fibrin
b. Thrombin
 b. VII
c. VIII
d. IX
68. Labile Factor
69. Labile Factors
70. Fletcher Factor
71. Other name for thrombin
72. Which of the following is a transglutaminase?
64. Reticulated platelets is also known as a. III
a. Stress platelets b. V
b. Proplatelet c. VIII
c. Circulating platelet d. XIII

65. Cylindrical and beaded platelets may be seen when what

anticoagulant is used? 73. What is the other name of factor XII?
a. Citrate a. Hageman
b. Heparin b. Fletcher
c. EDTA c. Laki Lorand
d. Oxalate d. Stuart Prower
74. Results of clot based screening assays in Congenital Single
Factor Deficiencies
Factor I Deficiency
75. Factor X Deficiency
76. What deficient factor has a normal Thrombin Time, PT, &
APTT?
a. I
b. II
c. XIII
d. XII

Compensation for thrombocytopenia

66. Associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease

1. Reticulated 77. What is the dilution used in Clauss Assay
2. Stress a. 1:10
3. Circulating b. 1:15
a. 1,2 c. 1:20
b. 2,3 d. 1:5
c. 1 only
d. 1,2,3

78. Which of the following is the correct effect of above room

temperature environment on the following coagulation
factors?
a. Deterioration of FV & VIII
67. Clotting Factors b. Activation of FVII
Stable factor c. Loss of VWF
a. V
 84. Potential; causes of erroneous results to automated cell
counters
Effect of cold agglutinin to rbc and rbc indices

85. Effect of hemolysiss to rbc and hct

86. Effect of lysis resistant rbcs with abnormal hgb to wbc and
hemoglobin
87. Effect of nucleated rbcs, megakaryocyte fragments or
micromegakaryocyte to wbc count

79. PT vs APTT
Reagents used for PT
80. Normal reference range of PTT
a. 26-38
b. 15-20
c. 60-100
d. 12-14

81. Therapeutic Range for PTT

a. 60-100
b. 48-80
c. 26-38
d. 12.6-14.6

82. If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests

should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the
child’s coagulation mechanism
a. aPTT
b. PT
c. Fibrinogen assay
d. Thrombin Time

83. INR for DVT

a. 2.0-3.0
b. 2.5-4.5
c. 1.0-2.0
d. 0.5-1.0