DAV INSTITUTIONS, ODISHA ZONE – I

CASE BASED
&
ASSERTION REASON BASED
QUESTIONS
CLASS XI
SUBJECT - PHYSICS

2020-21

WORK IS WORSHIP
 NOTES

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS

A Case Based Study in Physics is a particular instance of

something used or analyzed in order to illustrate a principle.
The purpose of case study is to describe a situation and
identify the key issues and analyze the case using relevant
concepts. A Case Based Question is a tool for deep learning
that relates Physics to daily life, enhances practical skills and
increases creativity through experiential learning.

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Assertion means a statement and Reason means an

explanation about that particular statement. The function of
assertion is to let readers to feel that they should not
disagree what they read, rather they should accept the idea
as an indisputable fact. Assertion and Reasoning questions
make the mind analytical and judge a situation with correct
explanation. It helps the learner to inculcate scientific
temperament through critical thinking and problem solving.

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 CONTENTS

Sl No. Name of the Chapter Class Page No.

01 INSTRUCTIONS 4

02 UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS XI 5

03 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE XI 8

04 MOTION IN A PLANE XI 12

05 LAWS OF MOTION XI 15

06 WORK, POWER AND ENERGY XI 18

07 MOTION OF SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND RIGID BODY XI 21

08 GRAVITATION XI 24

09 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS XI 27

10 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS XI 30

11 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER XI 34

12 THERMODYNAMICS XI 37

13 KINETIC THEORY XI 40

14 OSCILLATIONS XI 43

15 WAVES XI 47

16 ANSWERS 51

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 INSTRUCTIONS

All Case Study Based Questions are compulsory.

Attempt all the subparts from each question. Each
subpart question carries 1 mark.

In all Assertion Reasoning Questions: two

statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below.

(a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.
(b) Both A & R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

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 CLASS XI
CHAPTER 2-UNITS AND MEASUREMENT
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. UNITS & DIMENSIONS IN VAN DER WALLS EQUATION:

Van der walls equation is an equation of state that generalizes the ideal gas law based on
plausible reasons that real gases do not act ideally. The equation is given as;
(P + a/V2)(V-b) = RT
This equation is valid for real gases. Here ‘a’ is the correction for intermolecular forces and
‘b’ is the correction for the size of molecules. In this equation:

(i) The quantity (a/V2) has the unit

(a) N/m (b) N/m2 (c) J/m (d) J/m2
(ii) The unit of the quantity (b-a) is
(a) N/s (b) J/s (c) unit less (d) cannot be found
(ii) The constant ‘a’ has the dimensional formula
(a) ML2T-2 (b) ML5T-2 (c) ML-2T2 (d)ML3T-2
(iv) The dimensional formula for (a/b) is same as that of
(a) Pressure (b)force (c) work (d)momentum
(v) The dimensional formula for R is
(a) ML2T-1 mol K (b)ML2T-3 mol K. (c) ML2T-2 mol-1 K-1 (d)ML3T-3 mol-1 K-1

II. MEASUREMENT BY VERNIER CALLIPERS:

A student is given a calorimeter made of a thin copper sheet and Vernier Caliper. The
Vernier Calipers’ has 20 divisions in a centimeter on the main scale. The Vernier scale is
such that its 25 divisions coincide with 24 divisions of main scale. The student measures
the diameter, height, area and volume of the calorimeter.

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(i) The length of one division of the Vernier scale is
(a) 0.48cm (b) 0.048cm. (c) 0.048mm (d) 0.0048mm

(ii)The least count of the Vernier caliper’s is

(a) 0.001cm. (b) 0.002cm (c) 0.01cm (d) 0.02cm

(iii) As measured by the student, the height and diameter of the calorimeter are 5.250cm and
2.500cm, respectively. He calculates the area of the sheet used to make the calorimeter
with correct significant figures as
(a) 46.2 cm2 (b) 46.162 cm2 (c) 46.16 cm2 (d) 46.00 cm2

(iv) In above measurement, the relative error in the calculation of base area is
(a) 0.018 (b) 0.0018 (c) 0.016 (d) 0.0016

(v) The volume of the calorimeter with % error is

(a) 25.8 cm3± 2.0% (b) 25.8 cm3± 0.20%
(c) 25.78 cm3± 2.0% (d) 25.78 cm3± 0.20%

III. DISTANCE MEASUREMENT BY PARALLAX METHOD:

Parallax is the name given to change in the position with respect to the background, when
the object is seen from two different positions. The distance between the two positions of
observation is called the basis. Using parallax method, a person wanted to measure the
distance D of a star S from earth which is generally less than 100 light years. To measure the
distance D of the planet S (above fig.), using this method, he observed S from two different
positions A and B on earth, separated by a distance b. He measured the angle θ and then
found D as,
𝐛
𝐃=
𝛉
(i) By parallax method, usually a distance of less than 100 light years is measured. This is
because,
(a) on earth surface, one cannot get two observation points 100 light years or more apart.
(b) if distance will be 100 light years or more, the parallactic angle becomes so small that, it
cannot be measured.
(c) generally, bodies are not found which are 100 lightyears or more apart.
(d) a telescope cannot see the object whose distance from earth is 100 light years or more.

(ii) The distance ‘b’ between the two points A and B (above fig) is called,
(a) parallactic distance (b) basic distance (c) parallax distance (d) basis

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(iii) The apparent shift in the position of an object is called
(a) basis (b) base line (c) parallax (d) parallactic angle

(iv) If the person observes the star ‘S’ from two diametrically opposite points on
equator of earth and finds the parallax angle to be 2 minutes, then the distance of
S from earth is.
(a) 2x1010 m (b) 2.2x1010 m (c) 22x1010 m (d) 0.22x1010 m

(v) The person observed, by the parallax method, the angular diameter of Sun to be 1920’’.
Its linear diameter will be
(a) 1.39 x 109 m (b) 1.19 x 109 m. (c) 1.39 x 108 m. (d) 1.19 x 108 m

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

1) Assertion (A): Mass, volume and time may be taken as fundamental quantities.
Reason (R): Mass, volume and time are independent of one another.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2) Assertion (A): All derived quantities may be represented dimensionally in terms of the
base quantities.
Reason (R): The dimensions of a base quantity in other base quantities are always zero.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3) Assertion (A): The precision of measurement depends upon the least count of the
measuring instrument.
Reason (R): The smaller the least count, greater is the number of significant figures in the
measured value.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4) Assertion (A): The dimensional method cannot be used to obtain the dependence of the
work done by a force F on the angle between F and displacement r.
Reason (R): Trigonometric functions are dimensionless.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5) Assertion (A): The number of significant figures in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 is three.
Reason (R): zeroes in a number are not significant.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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 CHAPTER 3
MOTION IN A STRAIGHTLINE
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. FREE FALL OF STEEL BALL AND FEATHER

Height

GROUND

It is known that if a steel ball and a feather are dropped from the same height, the steel ball falls
faster than the feather. The following scientists have two different views on falling bodies:
Scientist 1
The steel ball falls faster because it is more massive than the feather, and thus is attracted more
strongly by earth.
Scientist 2
The mass of an object does not determine how fast an object falls, but shape does. The gravity
is not the only force acting on a falling object. Air buoys up objects falling through it. Since the
shape of the steel ball gives it less air resistance than a feather, it falls faster.

1. According to scientist 1, the property that determines how fast an object will fall is its:
(a) chemical composition (b) mass (c) shape (d) gravity

2. According to scientist 2, a crumpled piece of paper falls at a different speed from a

flat piece of paper because of its:
(a) mass (b) air resistance (c) gravitational attraction (d) texture

3. Both scientists agree that the rate at which an object falls is affected by the:
(a) force of gravity (b) mass of the object
(c) object’s resistance of air (d) shape of object

4. Scientist 2 would predict that in vacuum, two objects would fall at the same speed
even if they have different:
(a) shape and mass (b) density and shape
(c) composition and volume (d) all of the above

5. Suppose a small ball and a feather having the same weight are dropped from the
same height. Which of the following would Scientist 1 predict?
(a) The feather would fall faster than the ball
(b) The ball and the feather would fall at the same speed
(c) The ball would fall faster than the feather
(d) None of the above

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 II. ODOMETER:

Every car is fitted with an Odometer, which measures the actual distance travelled by the car or
vehicle. Most odometers work by counting wheel rotations and assume that the distance
travelled is the number of wheel rotations times the tyre circumference. In going from Ambala to
Delhi and coming back to Ambala, the odometer reading changed from 15674 km to 16124 km.
The total time was 9 hours.
1. Which is most relevant in measuring the reading of odometer in the journey?
(a) average velocity (b) average speed
(c) instantaneous velocity (d) instantaneous speed

2. The net displacement over the whole journey is

(a) 15674 km (b) 16124 km (c) 450 km (d) 0 Km

3. The average speed of the car over the journey is

(a) 450 km/h (b) 0 km/h (c) 50 km/h (d) none of the above

4. The average velocity over the journey is

(a) 450 km/h (b) 0 km/h (c) 50 km/h (d) none of the above

5. If Ambala and Delhi are connected by different routes, which of the following options the driver
must choose to start the journey from Ambala to Delhi?
(a) the route of minimum distance only
(b) the route of minimum time only
(c) the route of road having good condition only
(d) all the above
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 III. AN ELEVATOR

An elevator or lift is a type of vertical cable transportation machine that moves people or freight
between floors of a building. Elevators are typically powered by electric motors that drive traction
cables and counterweight systems. An elevator, in which a man is standing, is moving upward
with a constant acceleration of 1 m/s2. At some instant when speed of elevator is 10 m/s, the
man drops a coin from a height of 2 m. Analyse the motion of coin with respect to the observer
standing in the elevator.
G = acceleration due to gravity of earth = 9.8 m/s2.

1. As the coin is released from rest inside elevator, its velocity with respect to ground is equal to
(a) 9.8m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 1 m/s (d) 2 m/s

2. The velocity of coin with respect to observer standing in the elevator at that instant is
(a) 10 m/s (b) 1 m/s (c) 0 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s

3. The acceleration of coin with respect to the ground is

(a) 10 m/s2 (b) 1 m/s2 (c) 0 m/s2 (d) 9.8 m/s2

4. The acceleration coin with respect to the observer in the elevator is

(a) 10 m/s2 (b) 10.8 m/s2 (c) 0 m/s2 (d) 9.8 m/s2

5. The equation of motion to find the time taken by the coin to reach the floor of the elevator would
be (Where g =9.8 m/S2 and acceleration of the elevator is a = 1 m/s2)
(a) 2 = (1/2) gt (b) 2 = (1/2) gt2 (c) 2= (1/2) (g+a)t2 (d) None of the above

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant.
Reason (R): A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses direction of its velocity.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): A negative acceleration of a body can be associated with ‘speeding up’ of the
body.
Reason (R): Increase in speed of a moving body is independent of its direction of motion.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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3. Assertion (A): Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with the same
speed. They will pass through their point of projection in the downward
direction with the same speed.
Reason (R): The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection
are independent of the mass of the ball.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): The position-time graph of a uniform motion in one dimension of a body can
have negative slope.
Reason (R): When the speed of the body decreases with time, the position-time graph of the
moving body has negative slope.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Two cars A and B are moving with velocities 60 Km/h and 80 Km/h
respectively in the same direction. The driver of car B notices that he is moving
with a velocity of 140 Km/h at the instant when car A is overtaken by him.
Reason (R): Relative velocity of a body with respect to others both moving in the same
direction, is the sum of the magnitudes of the velocities of the two bodies.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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 CHAPTER 4
MOTION IN A PLANE
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. JOURNEY OF ‘CURIOSITY ROVER’ TO PLANET MARS
The space scientists are working to explore the possibility of
life on other planets. The main focus is on Red planet Mars.
The atmosphere of the Mars has 95% of carbon dioxide, 2.7
% nitrogen, 1.6% argon traces of oxygen, carbon monoxide
and other gases. It has two natural satellites known as
Phoebus and Deimos. A Robotic vehicle used to explore
Mars landed on its surface known as curiosity. The point
where the vehicle landed is considered as the origin. From
there the vehicle starts to move in arbitrary direction along
the surface Mars. Consider the plane to be a XY co-ordinate
system and the coordinates of the vehicle at any instant are
given by

X = (3.0 – 0.05 t2) m and Y = (2.0 t – 0.005 t3)m

1) The most abundant gas in the atmosphere of Mars is

(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Argon (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen

2) The distance of the robotic vehicle from the origin after 2 second is
(a) 4.00 m (b) 4.50 m (c) 4.75 m (d) 4.63 m

3) The magnitude of the average velocity of the vehicle in the time interval t=0 s to t=2 s is
(a) 1.98 m/s (b) 2.98 m/s (c) 2.89 m/s (d) 3.98 m/s

4) The magnitude of the instantaneous velocity of the vehicle at t= 2 second is

(a) 1.65 m/s (b) 1.75 m/s (c) 1.85 m/s (d) 1.95 m/ s

5) Planet Mars is known as

(a) White planet (b) Blue planet (c) Red planet (d) Dark planet

II. COUNTERFOIL OF TERRORIST ACTIVITIES.

One terrorist activity occurred in Baramula district of Jammu
and Kashmir. A security person of the base located there,
finds a group of suspected people approaching towards the
base in a vehicle. So, he made others alert. Observing the
preparedness of the security personnel, the driver of the
vehicle changed its path and went away from the base along a
horizontal road. The vehicle flew at a speed of 72km/h. When
the vehicle stopped at a distance of 500 meter from the base,
one of the gun man fired at certain angle with the horizontal.
Taking g= 10m/s2 answer the following questions:

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 1. What must be the angle so that the gun can hit the maximum distance?
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 30°

2. If the gun man fired the bullet with the horizontal so as to just hit the vehicle at that
maximum distance, what is the velocity of the bullet?
(a) 50/√2 m/s (b) 100√2 m/s
(c) 100/√2 m/s (d) cannot be found

3. At what time will the bullet hit the vehicle after being fired?
(a) 5s (b) 10s (c) 15s (d) 2s

4. If the vehicle would have been stopped at half of the distance as mentioned in the
paragraph, what would have been the angle of projection with the horizontal to hit the
vehicle?
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c)60° (d) 75°

5. For the safety of the security personnel generally sand filled bags are kept. The logic
behind it is
(a) sandbags deflect the enemy bullets
(b) sandbags protect them from hot and cold
(c) sandbags slow down the speed of the bullets
(d) sandbags are just for decorative purposes

III. “MIHIR SEN WORLD’S GREATEST LONG-DISTANCE SWIMMER”

Mihir Sen graduated with a degree in law from the

Utkal University in Bhubaneswar in Odisha was an
Indian long-distance swimmer. He was the first Indian
to swim the English Channel from Dover to Calais in
1958 and did so in the fourth fastest time (14 hrs & 45
mins). He was the only man to swim the oceans of
the five continents in one calendar year (1966). This
unique achievement earned him a place in The
Guinness Book of Records as the “world’s greatest
long-distance swimmer”. The achievements of Mihir
Sen makes us proud to be Odia and Indian.

1. If the two cities Dover and Calais are exactly oppositely placed and water in the English-
channel is not flowing how would Sen would have swum?
(a) At an angle with respect to the flow of water
(b) At an angle opposite to the flow of water
(c) Along the flow of water
(d) Straight or perpendicular to the width of the channel

2. If the distance between the two places is 59 km and water is static, with what speed Mihir
Sen must be swimming?
(a) 4 km/hr (b) 5 km/hr (c) 4.5km/hr (d) 3 km/hr

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 3. Suppose the water in the English-channel flow at the rate of 2 km/hr and taking the
velocity of Mihir Sen as found in the above question with what direction he would
have swam?
(a) at an angle of 300 with respect to flow of water
(b) at an angle of 600 with respect to flow of water
(c) at an angle of 1200 with respect to flow of water
(d) at an angle of 300 with respect opposite to flow of water

4. If he would have swam straight whether he would have reached Calais if started
from Dover with reference to previous question?
(a) yes (b) no (c) cannot be told (d) data insufficient

5. If a boat starts to move from Calais and reaches Dover in a time of 7 hours and 30 minutes,
then what is the speed of the boat?
(a) 7.5 km/hr (b) 7.87 km/ hr (c) 7.90 km/hr (d) 7.67 km/hr

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): Two projectiles of different masses thrown at an angle of 45 degree with the
horizontal direction and with same speed have same values of maximum
range.
Reason (R): Maximum range is directly proportional to the square of the mass of the body.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): The path of a projectile seen by other projectile is straight.

Reason (R): In the case of projectile motion the relative acceleration between the projectile is
zero.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): An object moving with uniform speed along a circular path has a constant
acceleration known as centripetal acceleration.
Reason (R): An object can possess acceleration even at a time when it has uniform speed.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): For a projectile the time of flight of a body becomes n times the original value if
it’s speed is made n times.
Reason (R): For a projectile this is due to the range of projectile which becomes n times.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Rain is falling vertically downwards with velocity 6 km/ hr. A man walks with a
velocity of 8 km/hr. The relative velocity of rain with respect to the man is
10km/hr.
Reason (R): Relative velocity is the ratio of the two velocities.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

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 CHAPTER 5
LAWS OF MOTION
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. BENDING OF CYCLIST IN CURVES
Cycle racing is a popular sport. In this sport cyclist compete
with each other to see who is the fastest. When a cyclist is
negotiating a circular level road of radius r with a speed v, the
cycle and the cyclist are considered as one system with
mass m. The forces acting on the system are, (i)
gravitational force (mg), (ii) normal force (N), (iii) frictional
force (f) and
(iv) centrifugal force (mv2/r). As the system is in equilibrium in
the rotational frame of reference, the net external force and
net external torque must be zero. Bending helps the cyclist to
move with greater speed while negotiating turn.

1. A cyclist while negotiating a circular path with speed 20 ms-1 is found to bend at an
angle of 30o with vertical. What is the radius of the circular path?
(a) 69.28m (b) 35.23m (c) 42m (d) 46.87m

2. A cyclist bends while taking a turn in order to

(a) sit comfortably (b) to reduce friction
(c) to provide necessary centripetal force (d) to reduce apparent weight

3. The angle of bending depends on

(a) mass of the cycle (b) radius of turn (c) mass of cyclist (d) none of these

4. Centripetal force does not depend on which factor

(a) mass of body (b) velocity of body (c) radius of track (d) none of these

5. Cyclist can bend the cycle maximum

(a) to any angle (b) to particular angle so that equilibrium not fail
(c) 900 (d) cannot predict

II. RECOIL OF GUN

Recoil (often called knockback, kickback or
simply kick) velocity is the backward velocity
experienced by a shooter when one shoots a
bullet. Due to the recoil velocity the shooter
experiences a backward jerk. In fact, every
projection system experiences a recoil
velocity whether it is gun, crossbow, bow and
arrow, rocket launchers. You might have
marked while firing soldiers hold gun on their
shoulders.
1.Recoil velocity of gun is
(a) equal to velocity of bullet (b) much less than velocity of bullet
(c) much greater than velocity of bullet (d) cannot say
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2. Recoil velocity of gun is an example of conservation of
(a) momentum (b) energy (c) heat (d) charge

3. What is the recoil velocity of the gun of mass 8 kg when a bullet of mass 10 g is fired from it
with a velocity of 400 m/s?
(a) 5m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 50m/s (d) 0.5m/s

4. Which one based on the same principle of recoil of gun

(a) bending of cyclist while negotiating turn (b) explosion of bomb
(c) centrifuge machine (d) falling of rain drop

5. Recoil velocity does not depend on which factors

(a) mass of gun (b) mass of bullet (c) velocity of bullet (d) none of these

III. FRICTION: A NECESSARY EVIL

It has been observed that the boxes and
luggage placed in trucks with open rear
ends fall down if these vehicles are
accelerated. To avoid such a situation, the
rear ends of the trucks or trolleys are
closed. Consider a box of mass 40 kg
placed at a distance of 2 m from the open
rear end of a long trolley. Trolley started from rest and it was accelerated uniformly at
the rate of 20 ms-2. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface of the
trolley is 0.2. It was observed that the box falls down, when trolley moved through
some distance.

1. How much force of friction acts on the box?

(a) 50 N (b) 60 N (c) 70 N (d) 80N

2. The net force acting on the box towards the rear end of the trolley is
(a) 700 N (b) 720 N (c) 740 N (d) 760 N

3. The time after which the box to fall off from the rear end of the trolley is
(a) √2 s (b) 2s (c) √2/3 s (d) 4s

4. The distance travelled by the trolley from its starting point during the time, the box fell
off the trolley is
(a) 2.0 m (b) 2.22m (c) 2.52m (d) 2.82m

5. What should be the coefficient of friction between the box and the surface of the
trolley, so that the box does not experience any net force and hence does not fell off
the trolley is?
(a) 0.02 (b) 2.0 (c) 0.03 (d) 3.0

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 ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A)- If net external force acting on a body is zero, then the body must be at rest.
Reason (R) - When Acceleration is zero then a body must be at rest.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A)-If two bodies of different masses have the same momentum, then the lighter
body has greater velocity.
Reason (R) - Momentum is equal to product of mass and velocity.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A)-A cyclist always bends inward while negotiating a turn.

Reason (R) -When a cyclist bends from vertical friction decreases.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A)–When a bullet is fired from a rifle, later recoils back.

Reason (R) -Inertia is the property of a body by virtue of which body continues its state of
rest of uniform motion unless it is acted by a net external force.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A)–When one pedals a bicycle, friction in the rear wheel acts in forward
direction.
Reason (R)- Friction not only opposes relative motion, sometimes also helps in motion.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

17
 CHAPTER 6
WORK, POWER AND ENERGY
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. NON-SPILLING WATER FROM BUCKET
A child was playing with a bucket filled with water tied at the end of a long string, is trying it to
whirl in a vertical circle. He was noticing the water used to spill. He used to increase the
speed of bucket, after some time he noticed that the water didn’t spill even if the bucket rises
to maximum height.
(length of string = l, mass of bucket with water = m)

O B

1. What should be the minimum speed at C so that the water from the bucket does not spill,
when the bucket is at C
(a) 5 gl (b) 3gl (c) gl (d) Not possible

2. What is the minimum tension in the string at C such that it can reach to top A
(a) 6mg (b) 3 mg (c) mg (d) 10 mg

3. If velocity of the bucket at C is 3gl and is rotated anticlockwise then

(a) the bucket will follow complete circular motion.
(b) tension in string become zero somewhere at B
(c) the bucket leaving circular path will follow parabolic trajectory.
(d) speed of bucket will be zero at A

4. By how much the tension of the string at the lowest point exceeds the tension at the
topmost point
(a) 2 mg (b) 4 mg (c) 6 mg (d) 8 mg

5. The ratio of velocities at points A, B and C in vertical circular motion is

(a) 1 : 9 : 25 (b)1 : 2 : 3 (c)1 : 3 : 5 (d)1 : 3 : 5

II. WORK DONE DURING RAIN FALL

It is well known that a raindrop falls under the influence of the downward gravitational force
and the opposing resistive force. The latter is known to be proportional to the speed of the
drop but is otherwise undetermined. Consider a drop of mass 1.00 g falling from a height
1.00 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50.0 m s -1. Assume the drop initially falls from rest
and take g = 10 ms-2.

18
 1. What is the change in kinetic energy?
(a)1.25J (b)12.5J (c) -1.25J (d) 0

2. If W g and W r represent the work done by gravitational force and resistive force and
∆K is the change in kinetic energy, then
(a) ∆K =Wg +Wr (b) ∆K =Wg (c) ∆K =Wr (d) ∆K =Wg -Wr

3. What is the work done by the gravitational force?

(a)10J (b) -10J (c)1.25J (d)-1.25J

4. What is the work done by the unknown resistive force?

(a) 8.75J (b) -8.75J (c) -1.25J (d) -10J

5. Work-energy theorem is applicable for

(a) conservative forces only (b) non-conservative forces only
(c) both conservative and non-conservative forces (d) neither conservative nor non
conservative forces

III. COLLISION BETWEEN TRUCK AND CYCLIST

A cyclist of mass 60 kg (along with the cycle) is riding a bicycle with speed 10km/h
on the road as shown in the figure. A truck of mass10 3 kg moving with high speed
120km/h strikes the cyclist from his back. Consider the collision of truck and cycle is
head on elastic collision.
1. In elastic collision
(a) only linear momentum is conserved
(b) only kinetic energy is conserved
(c) both linear momentum and kinetic
energy are conserved but total energy is
not conserved
(d) both linear momentum and kinetic energy along with total energy are conserved

2. The velocity of the truck after collision will be nearly

(a) 120 km/h (b) 240 km/h (c) 10 km/h (d) 65km/h

3. The speed of the cyclist will be nearly

(a) 230 km/h (b) 10km/h (c) 120km/h (d) 65km/h

4. If the cycle would be replaced by another identical truck but moving with same
speed as that of cycle, then the speed of the first truck would be
(a) 65 km/h (b) 10 km/h (c) 120km/h (d) 130km/h

5. If the truck and the cycle would move together with a common velocity, then it would be
nearly
(a) 240km/h (b) 65km/h (c) 10km/h (d) 120km/h

19
 ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): Comets move around the sun in elliptical orbits. The gravitational force on
the comet due to the sun is not normal to the comet’s velocity but the work
done by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is
zero.
Reason (R): Gravitational force is a non-conservative force.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): In case of bullet fired from gun, the ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet
is equal to ratio of mass of bullet and gun.
Reason (R): In firing, momentum is conserved.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): Mountain roads rarely go straight up the slope.

Reason (R): Slope of mountains are large and hence more chances of vehicles to slip
from roads.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): According to the law of conservation of mechanical energy, change in

potential energy is equal and opposite to the change in kinetic energy.
Reason (R): Mechanical energy is not a conserved quantity.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Mass and energy are not conserved separately, but are conserved as a
single entity called mass-energy.
Reason (R): Mass and energy conservation can be obtained by Einstein’s equation for
energy.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

20
 CHAPTER 7
MOTION OF SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND RIGID BODY
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. SWINGING AN ARM
Extend your arm straight up overhead and then swing it in a vertical
plane so that your hand follows a circular path. If you rotate your arm as
fast as possible, you should be able to achieve a rate of 2.0 revolutions
per second.

1. Calculate the acceleration of the blood in your fingertips, assuming your arm
is 65cm long.
(a) 102.7ms-2 (b) 104.2 ms-2 (c) 103.7 ms-2 (d) 100.7 ms-2

2. How this acceleration is comparable to acceleration due to gravity ‘g’.

(a) ac = 20g (b) ac = 40g (c) ac = 10g (d) ac = 30g

3. Which law of conservation can you apply here?

(a) conservation of linear momentum (b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy principle (d) conservation of mass

4. How angular momentum relates to moment of inertia?

(a) L=I/𝜔 (b) L=Iα (c) L=I 𝜔 (d) L=I 𝜔 2

5. In this case if angular speed is increased what happens to its moment of inertia?
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remaining same (d) none of the above

II. SHIFTING OF CENTRE OF MASS

A uniform bar of length 12L and mass 48m is supported horizontally on two smooth tables as
shown in the diagram .A small moth(an insect) of mass 8m is sitting one end A of the rod and
a spider( an insect)of mass 16m is sitting on the other end B .Both the insects start moving
towards each other along the rod with moth moving at speed 2v and the spider at half of this
speed .They meet at a point P on the rod and the spider eats the moth. After this the spider
moves with a velocity v/2 relative to the rod towards the end A. The spider takes negligible
time in eating the other insect. Also, let v=L/T, where T is a constant having value 4sec.

1. Displacement of the rod by the time when the insects meet is:
(a) L/2 (b) L (c) 3L/4 (d) zero

21
 2. The point P is at:
(a) the center of the rod (b) the edge of the table supporting the end B
(c) close to the edge of the table supporting (d) none of the above
the end A

3. The speed of the bar after the spider eats up the moth and moves towards A is:
(a) v/2 (b) v (c) v/6 (d) 2v

4. After starting from end B of the rod the spider reaches the end A at a time:
(a) 40s (b) 20s (c) 80s (d) 10s

5. By what distance the center of mass of the roe shifts during this time
(a) 8L/3 (b) 4L/3 (c) L (d) L/3

III. ROLLING MECHANICS

Three bodies A(ring), B (solid cylinder), C(solid sphere)
rolls down the same inclined plane of angle α and
height H without slipping .The radius of the bodies are
identical and equal to R .The mass of bodies are
M1,M2,M3 respectively. The relation between the
masses is given as M1 > M2 > M3

1. Which one will have least center of mass velocity at the

bottom of the incline plane
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) data insufficient

2. At any time during the motion, the velocity of the point in contact of the body with the
incline plane is:
(a) 0 (b) 2Vcm (c) V cm (d) none of the above

3. At any time during the motion, the velocity of the uppermost point of the body
(a) 0 (b) 2Vcm (c) V cm (d) none of the above

4. The angular velocity will be maximum at the bottom of the incline plane for the body
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) data insufficient

5. While rolling the energy of the body is:

(a) linear kinetic (b) rotational kinetic
(c) both linear and rotational kinetic energy (d) none of the above

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): If the ice on the polar caps of the earth melts, then length of day will increase.
Reason (R): Moment of inertia of earth increases as ice on polar caps melts.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

22
2. Assertion (A): It is more difficult to open the door by applying the force near the hinge.
Reason (R): Torque is maximum at hinge.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): At the centre of earth, a body has centre of mass, but no centre of gravity.
Reason (R): Acceleration due to gravity is zero at the centre of the earth.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): A ladder is more likely to slip when a person is near the top than when he is
near the bottom.
Reason (R): The friction between the ladder and the floor decreases as he climbs up.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Moment of inertia of a rigid body is not unique.

Reason (R): Moment of inertia of a rigid body depends on the distribution of mass about the
axis of rotation.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

23
 CHAPTER 8
GRAVITATION
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. LAUNCHING OF SATELLITE:
We launch things into space by putting them on rockets with enough fuel – called propellant –
to boost them above most of earth’s atmosphere. Once a rocket reaches the right distance
from earth, it releases the satellite or spacecraft. The principle of launching of rocket is that if
we go on increasing the projection speed of a rocket, then a stage will come when it just
crosses the gravitational field of earth and never returns back to earth on his own.

1. A satellite is in an orbit around the earth. If its kinetic energy is doubled, then
(a) it will maintain its path (b) it will fall on the earth
(c) it will rotate with a great speed (d) it will escape out of earth’s gravitational field

2. A missile is launched with a velocity less than escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic
energy and potential energy is
(a) zero (b) negative (c) positive (d) first (a) then (b)

3. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. if the gravitational
force suddenly disappears, the satellite will
(a) continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit.
(b) move with a velocity v tangentially to the original orbit.
(c) fall down with increasing velocity.
(d) ultimately come to rest, somewhere on the original orbit.

4. Two satellites of earth s1 and s2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of s1 is four times
the mass of s2. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) the potential energies of earth and satellite in two cases are equal.
(b) s1 and s2 are moving with the same speed.
(c) the kinetic energies of two satellites are equal.
(d) the time period of s1 is four times that of s2.

5. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above that surface of the
earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a
height of 2R from the surface of earth is
6
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 6 √2 (d)
√2

24
 II. PECULIARITY OF GRAVITATION:

Gravity, also called gravitation in mechanics, the universal force of attraction acting between
all matter. It is by far the weakest known force in nature and thus plays no role in determining
the internal properties of every matter. On the other hand, through its long reach and universal
action, it controls the trajectories of bodies in the solar system and elsewhere in the universe
and the structures of evolution of stars, galaxies and the whole cosmos.

1. The force of gravitation is

(a) repulsion (b) electrostatic (c) conservative (d) non - conservative

2. Which of the following is in evidence to show that there must be force acting on earth and
directed toward the sun?
(a) deviation of the falling bodies towards east (b) revolution of earth round the sun
(c) phenomenon of day and night (d) apparent motion of sun round the earth

3. A man waves his arms, while walking. This is

(a) to keep constant velocity (b) to ease the tension
(c) to increase the velocity (d) to balance the effect of earth’s gravity

4. Gravitational force is required for

(a) stirring of liquid (b) convection (c) conduction (d) radiation

5. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between F.
The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The
gravitational force will now be:
(a) 3F (b) F (c) F/3 (d) F/9

III. ESCAPE VELOCITY:

Escape velocity is the minimum speed needed for a free,

non-propelled object to escape from the gravitational
influence of a massive body that is to achieve an infinite
distance from it. A rocket, continuously accelerated by its
exhaust, need not reach ballistic escape velocity at any
distance since it is supplied with additional kinetic energy
by the expulsion of its reaction mass. It can achieve escape
at any speed, given a suitable mode of propulsion and
sufficient propellant to provide the accelerating force on the
object to escape.

25
1. The velocity with which a projectile, must be fired so that it escapes earth’s gravitation, does
not depend on
(a) mass of the earth (b) mass of the projectile
(c) radius of the projectile’s orbit (d) gravitational constant

2. If ve is escape velocity and v0 is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s
surface, then these are related by
(a) 𝑣0 = √2𝑣𝑒 (b) 𝑣0 = 𝑣𝑒 (c) 𝑣𝑒 = √2𝑣0 (d) 𝑣𝑒 = √2𝑣0

3. For a planet having mass equal to the mass of the earth, the radius is one fourth of the radius
of the earth. Then escape velocity for this planet will be
(a) 11.2 km/s (b) 22.4 km/s (c) 5.6 km/s (d) 44.8 km/s

4. For satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. if the satellite is launched at an angle of 600 with the
vertical then escape velocity will be
(a) 11 km/s (b) 11√3 km/s (c) 11/√3 km/s (d) 33 km/s

5. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from

the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is Fv. Where v is its
escape velocity from the surface of earth. The value of F is
(a) ½ (b) √2 (c) 1 / √2 (d) 1/3

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A) - The earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold.
Reason (R) - All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A) - An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a space satellite.

Reason (R) - When a body falls freely, it does not experience gravity.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A) - At the centre of earth a body has centre of mass, but no centre of gravity.
Reason (R) - This is because g = 0 at the centre of earth.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A) - A planet moves faster, when it is closer to the sun in its orbit and vice
versa.
Reason (R) - Orbital velocity in orbit of the planet is constant.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A) - The length of the day is slowly increasing.

Reason (R) - The dominant effect causing a slow-down in the rotation of earth is the
gravitational pull of other planets in the solar system.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

26
 CHAPTER 9
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLID
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. DESIGNING BRIDGE
Bridge is so designed that apart from its own load, it should be able to withstand: (i) the load
of the traffic flowing over it. (ii) the force of the wind. For this we use beams and columns.
The beams may bend, and the column may buckle under the load. If the length of the beam is
l, breath b and depth d having load W at its center, Y is the Young’s modulus of elasticity of
𝑊𝑙3
the material of the beam, the depression (𝛿) at its middle is given by 𝛿 = . To reduce
4𝑏𝑑3𝑦
bending, increasing depth is more effective than increasing breadth.

1. The material chosen for bridge should be

(a) highly elastic (b) highly flexible
(c) independent of elastic nature (d) highly plastic

2. What is the dimension of Young’s modulus of elasticity?

(a) [M1 L1 T-2] (b) [M1 L -1 T-2]
(c) [M-1 L1 T-2] (d) dimensionless

3. What is the value of Y for a perfectly rigid body?

(a) zero (b) infinity (c) cannot be told (d) one

4. Four identical rods are stretched by the same force. Maximum extension is produced in
(a) l = 10 cm, D =1mm (b) l = 100 cm, D = 2mm
(c) l = 200 cm, D = 3mm (d) l = 300 cm, D = 4 mm

5. Which of the following affects the elasticity of a substance?

(a) hammering and annealing (b) change in temperature
(c) impurity in substance (d) all of the above

II. SELECTION OF MATERIAL FOR CRANE ROPE

The thickness of metal ropes used in cranes to lift heavy loads is decided
from the knowledge of the elastic limit of the material and the factor of
safety. Suppose a crane having steel rope is required to lift a load of ten
ton. The rope is usually designed for a safety factor 10 i.e. it should not
break even when a load of 104x 10 = 105kg is applied to it. The ultimate
stress should not exceed the elastic limit. Accordingly, we can determine
the radius of the rope to be used.

1. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased, the ratio of

stress to strain
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) becomes zero (d) remains constant

27
 2. Which of the following is not a unit of Young’s modulus?
(a) Nm-1 (b) Nm-2 (c) dyne cm-2 (d) Pascal

3. A wire of diameter 1mm breaks under a tension of 1000N. Another wire of same material
as that of the first one but of diameter 2mm breaks under a tension of
(a) 500N (b) 100N (c) 1000N (d) 4000N

4. Find the radius of the rope used in the given case if its elastic limit is 30x10 7Nm-2. (Load
to be lifted is 10 ton)
(a) 6.4cm (b) 3.2cm (c) 1.6cm (d) data is insufficient

5. A wire elongates by l mm, when a load w is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley
and two weights W each hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)
(a) l/2 (b) l (c) 2l (d) zero

III. HOLLOW SHAFT IS STRONGER THAN SOLID SHAFT

Hollow shaft is stronger than a solid shaft made of equal

quantity of same material. The torque required to produce unit
twist in a solid shaft of radius r, length l is found to be smaller
than that in case of a hollow shaft of same material, same length
and same mass. That is why electric poles are given hollow
structure.

1. Shear modulus of elasticity is found in

(a) liquids only (b) gases only (c) solids only (d) all the three states of matter

2. Bulk modulus is relevant for

(a) solids only (b) liquids only (c) gases only (d) all the three states of matter

3. For two different materials it is given that Y1> Y2 and B1 < B2. Here Y is Young’s modulus
of elasticity and B is Bulk modulus of elasticity. Then we can conclude that
(a) 1 is more ductile (b) 2 is more ductile
(c) 2 is more malleable (d) data is insufficient

4. Young’s modulus of elasticity of ideal liquid is

(a) infinity (b) zero (c) unity (d) some finite non-zero constant value

5. The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking, when its length is reduced to
half of its original length, will
(a) be double (b) be half (c) be four times (d) remain same

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): stress is the restoring force per unit area of the body.
Reason (R): steel is less elastic than rubber.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

28
2. Assertion (A): Steel is preferred to copper in manufacturing of springs.
Reason (R): Steel is readily available.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): Young’s modulus of a wire made of steel can be increased by increasing
its length.
Reason (R): Young’s modulus of a material is dependent on the dimension of the
material.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): Elastomers are those materials for which strain produced is much larger
than stress provided.
Reason (R): Elastomers do not obey Hooke’s law.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Bridges are declared unsafe after a long use.

Reason (R): Bridge loses its elastic strength due to repeated strains.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

29
 CHAPTER 10
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. HYDRAULIC LIFT:
A number of devices such as hydraulic lift and hydraulic
brakes are based on Pascal’s law. In these devices’
fluids are used for transmitting pressure. In hydraulic lift
two pistons are separated by the space filled with liquid.
One piston is of smaller area of cross section while
other is of larger area of cross section so that the force
applied on the smaller piston increases on the other
piston due to its larger area of cross section.

1. According to Pascal’s law, which of the following physical quantities applied at one point
remain unchanged throughout the fluid?
(a) force (b) pressure (c) kinetic energy (d) pressure energy

2. Another example showing application of Pascal’s law in daily life is

(a) injection syringe (b) barometer (c) stethoscope (d) venturi meter

3. In a Hydraulic lift the two pistons are having area of cross section 5 cm2 and 25 cm2
respectively. If force F is applied on the smaller piston, then how much force will be
produced on the piston with larger area of cross section?
(a) F/5 (b) F (c) 5 F (d) 25 F

4. In the above case if the smaller piston is pushed in by 10 cm, then by how much distance
will the larger piston be moved out?
(a) 10 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 25 cm

5. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The
area of the cross section of the piston carrying the load is 425 cm 2. What maximum
pressure would the smaller piston have to bear?
(a) 6.92 x 105 Pa (b) 6.92 x 103 Pa (c) 3.92 x 105 Pa (d) 3.92 x 103 Pa

30
II. DYNAMIC LIFT:
Dynamic lift is the force that acts on a body such as airplane wings, a hydrofoil or a spinning
ball, by virtue of its motion through a fluid. It is observed that a spinning ball deviates from
its parabolic trajectory as it moves through air. This deviation can be partly explained on the
basis of Bernoulli’s principle.

1. Bernoulli’s Principle is only applicable to the fluids in a

(a) streamlined flow (b) turbulent flow
(c) both streamlined and turbulent flow (d) static condition

2. For a ball moving in air with spin,

(a) velocity of the air above the ball is larger than that below it.
(b) velocity of the air above the ball is smaller than that below it.
(c) velocity of air above and below the ball at corresponding points is the same.
(d) velocity of the air in front of the ball is smaller than that behind it.

3. The difference of pressure between the lower and upper region of the ball results in a
(a) net downward force on the ball (b) net upward force on the ball
(c) net forward force on the ball (d) net backward force on the ball

4. A plane is in level flight at a constant speed and each of its two wings has an area of 25
m2. If the speed of air is 180 km/h over the lower wing and 234 km/h over the upper wing
surface, determine the plane’s mass. Density of air is 1 kg/m3
(a) 4393 kg (b) 9343 kg (c) 4500 kg (d) 3349 kg

5. In a test experiment on a model airplane in a wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper
and lower surfaces of the wing are 70 m/s and 63 m/s respectively. What is the lift on the
wing if the area is 2.5 m/s2?
(Density of air 1.3 kg /m3)
(a) 5 x 103N (b) 1.5 x 105N (c) 5 x 105N (d) 1.5 x 103N

31
III. OPEN TUBE MANOMETER:
An open tube manometer is a useful instrument for measuring pressure differences. It
consists of a U-tube consisting of a suitable liquid ie a low-density liquid for measuring
small pressure difference and high-density liquid for measuring large pressure
differences. Here we generally measure the gauge pressure which is proportional to
the difference of height of the liquid in the two limbs of the U tube.

1. Which of the following liquids is suitable for measuring a high-pressure difference?

(a) alcohol (b) oil (c) mercury (d) water

2. Calculate the approximate height of the atmosphere if the atmospheric pressure at

a place is 1.01 x 105 Pa and density of air is taken constant at 1.3 kg/m3
(a) 5 km (b) 8 km (c) 800 m (d) 500 m

3. At what depth below the surface of water will the pressure be equal to two atmospheres?
Take atmospheric pressure = 10 N/cm2 density of water = 1000 kg/m3 and g =
9.8 m/s2
(a) 11.3 m (b) 9.4 m (c) 13.6 m (d) 10.2 m

4. In an open manometer, the bulb contains a gas under pressure so that the mercury
in the open tube rises 0.120 m more than that in the other tube. What is the gauge
pressure of the gas in the bulb?
(a) 1.01 x 105 Pa (b) 1.17 x 105 Pa
5
(c) 1.01 x 10 Pa (d) 0.16 x 105 Pa

5. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?

(a) pascal (b) torr (c) bar (d) poise

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): A bigger raindrop falls faster than a smaller raindrop.
Reason (R): The terminal velocity of a solid sphere in a fluid is directly proportional to the
square of its radius.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): Deep water runs slow.

Reason (R): Viscosity of water increases with depth.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

32
3. Assertion (A): Accumulation of snow on the aeroplane wing may reduce the lift.
Reason (R): Dynamic lift of an aeroplane can be explained by Bernoulli’s theorem.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): Equation of continuity is based on the law of conservation of energy

Reason (R): Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the equation of continuity.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Machine parts get jammed in winter.

Reason (R): The viscosity of liquids increases with decrease in temperature.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

33
 CHAPTER 11
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. REGELATION
It observed that a wire with 5 kg of blocks attached to it on
either side gradually penetrates and passes through the ice
slab. This happens due to the fact that the ice melts at a
lower temperature due to the increase in pressure just
below the wire. When the wire has crossed, water above
the wire solidifies. Hence, the wire passes through the slab
without splitting it. This phenomenon of refreezing is known
as regelation. Thus, Regelation is defined as the
phenomenon in which the ice melts to the water below 0°C
on the application of pressure and refreezes back to ice on
the removal of pressure. Regelation demonstrates the idea
of compressing the ice and turning it into water under
pressure and when the pressure is removed, it solidifies
again.

1. A block of ice
(a) cannot radiate heat (b) can radiate heat but cannot absorb heat
(c) can absorb heat but cannot radiate heat (d) can radiate as well as absorb heat

2. If boiling water is taken to the dark side of the moon it will

(a) immediately vaporize (b) immediately freeze
(c) continue to boil (d) stop boiling but remain hot

3. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it reaches 0° C. It is because

(a) water does not solidify at 0° C
(b) a certain amount of heat must be supplied to the glass of water so as to solidify
(c) a certain amount of heat must be taken out from the glass of water so as to solidify
(d) water solidifies at 0° K only

4. During melting process, the heat given to a body is utilized in

(a) increasing the temperature (b) increasing the density of material
(c) increasing the average distance of the molecules (d) decreasing the mass of the body

5. Melting point of ice

(a) increases with increasing pressure (b) decreases with increasing pressure
(c) is independent of pressure (d) is proportional to pressure

II. CALORIMETER
Calorimetry is the science or act of measuring changes in state variables of a body for
the purpose of deriving the heat transfer associated with changes of its state due, for
example, to chemical reactions, physical changes, or phase transitions under specified
constraints. Calorimetry is performed with a calorimeter. Principle of calorimetry states
that in a closed and isolated environment, if heat is exchanged between two objects then
the heat gained by the colder object should be equal to heat lost by the hotter object.

34
 1. 5 g of ice at 0° C is mixed with 10 g of water at 10° C. The temperature of the mixture is:
(a) 2o (b) 0o (c) 5o (d) 2.5o

2. Water is used as coolant in automobiles radiators because

(a) it has high specific heat capacity (b) it is easily available
(c) it is easy to carry (d) it is cheap
3. A piece of iron of mass 0.2 kg is kept inside a furnace, till it attains the temperature of the
furnace. The hot piece of iron is then dropped into a calorimeter containing 0.24 kg of water
at 20 °C. The mixture attains an equilibrium temperature of 60°C. The temperature of the
furnace is
(a) 500 °C (b) 506.80 °C (c) 400 °C (d) 406.80 °C

4. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of an ideal monoatomic
gas through 2°C at constant pressure is (universal gas constant = R)
(a) 5R/2 (b) 3 R (c) 2 R (d) 5 R

5. Among the following substances, which one has the highest specific heat capacity?
(a) kerosene (b) water (c) edible oil (d) ice

III. LATENT HEAT

The quantity of heat absorbed or released by a substance
undergoing a change of state, such as ice changing to liquid water or
liquid water changing to ice, at constant temperature and pressure.
The latent heat absorbed by air when water vapour condenses is
ultimately the source of the power of thunderstorms and hurricanes.
Suppose a solid substance is changing to a liquid, it needs to absorb
energy to push the molecules into a wider, more fluid volume.
Similarly, when a substance changes from a gas phase to a liquid,
their density levels also need to go from lower to a higher level
wherein the substance then needs to release or lose energy so that the molecules come closer
together. In essence, this energy that is required by a substance to either freeze, melt or boil is
said to be latent heat.

1. During the process of boiling, what causes the liquid to turn into gas?
(a) the weakness of intermolecular bonds (b) the decrease in the rate of kinetic energy
(c) the decrease in the rate of vibration of particles (d) the increase in the collision of particles

35
2. 80g of water at 30°C is poured on a large block of ice which is at 0°C. The mass of ice
that melts is
(a) 30g (b) 80g (c) 150g (d) 1600g

3. During the process of evaporation, the temperature

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) may increase or decrease

4. During the process of boiling, what energy conversion takes place?

(a) kinetic energy to thermal energy (b) thermal energy to kinetic energy
(c) potential energy to kinetic energy (d) kinetic energy to potential energy

5. The potential component of internal energy is due to

(a) the stretch and compression of intermolecular bonds as the particles are heated
(b) the stretch and compression of intermolecular bonds as the particles vibrate
(c) the stretch and compression of intermolecular bonds as the particle collide
(d) the stretch of the intermolecular bonds as the particles are heated

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): A change in the temperature of a body causes change in dimensions.
Reason (R): The dimensions of a body decrease due to the increase in its temperature.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): Water is considered unsuitable for use in thermometers.

Reason (R): Thermal expansion of water is uniform.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): Liquids usually expand more than solids.

Reason (R): The intermolecular forces in liquids are weaker than in solids.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): Melting of solids causes no change in internal kinetic energy.

Reason (R): Latent heat is the heat required to melt a unit mass of solid.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of the moon.
Reason (R): The temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point of
water.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

36
 CHAPTER 12
THERMODYNAMICS
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. HEAT PUMP WATER HEATER
Heat pump water heaters use electricity to move heat from one place to
another instead of generating heat directly. Therefore, they can be two to
three times more energy efficient than conventional electric resistance water
heaters. Heat pump water heaters will not operate efficiently in a cold space.
The range of temperature where this device is functioning is 25-40 Fahrenheit.
To move the heat, heat pumps work like a refrigerator in reverse. While a
refrigerator pulls heat from inside a box and dumps it into the surrounding
room, a stand- alone air-source heat pump water heater pulls heat from the
surrounding air and dumps it -- at a higher temperature -- into a tank to heat water

1. At what temperature is a heat pump not effective?

(a) 25 Fahrenheit (b) more than 40 Fahrenheit (c) 35 Fahrenheit (d) 38 Fahrenheit

2. Which one of the following is an advantage of a heat pump?

(a) significant work (b) cold weather (c) difficult to install (d) carbon emissions

3. A heat pump,
(a) extracts energy at low temperature heat source
(b) gives energy to high temperature heat source
(c) both of the mentioned
(d) none of the mentioned

4. A vapour compression heat pump has

(a) compressor (b) evaporator (c) condenser (d) all of the mentioned

5. Which of the following can be used to transfer heat to the refrigerant passing through the
evaporator?
(a) outside air (b) water from rivers (c) the ground (d) all of the mentioned
II.STEAM ENGINE
A steam engine is a heat engine that performs
mechanical work using steam as its working fluid. The
steam engine uses the force produced by steam
pressure to push a piston back and forth inside a
cylinder. This pushing force is transformed, by a
connecting rod and flywheel, into rotational force for
work.

1.At 270C, a gas is compressed suddenly such that its pressure becomes 1/8th of its
original pressure final temperature will be (γ=5/3):
(a) 420 K (b) 300 K (c) -1420C (d) 327 0C

2. Out of solid, liquid and gas of the same mass and at the same temperature, which one
has the least internal energy?
(a) solid (b) liquid (c) gas (d) all three have same internal energy

37
 3. When the amount of work done is 333 cal and change in internal energy is 167 cal, then
the heat supplied is
(a) 166 cal (b) 333 cal (c) 500 cal (d) 400 cal

4. If the temperature of source is increased, the efficiency of Carnot engine:

(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remain constant (d) first increases and then becomes constant

5. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient, only if its exhaust temperature is:
(a) 00C (b) 0 K
(c) equal to its input temperature (d) half of its input temperature

III. REFRIGERATOR
Refrigerators work by causing the refrigerant circulating
inside them to change from a liquid into a gas. This
process, called evaporation, cools the surrounding area
and produces the desired effect. To give more clarity, the
teacher asked a student to put a few drops of alcohol on
skin & allow it to evaporate.
Working of a refrigerator involves all thermodynamic
processes. It absorbs heat from the cold body & pumps it
into hot body. The cold body is thus cooled more & more.
A perfect refrigerator is one which transfers heat from cold
to hot without doing work.

1. The process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called

(a) isobaric (b) isothermal (c) isentropic (d) isochoric

2. Work done by an expanding gas under adiabatic condition results in

(a) no change in temperature (b) temperature increase
(c) temperature decrease (d) temperature decreases first and then increase

3. An amount of heat given to a gas under isothermal conditions will be

(a) for a temperature rise
(b) for doing external work
(c) for doing external work and also for a temperature rise
(d) for increasing the internal energy of the gas

4. In an adiabatic compression the decrease in volume is associated with

(a) decrease in temperature and increase in pressure
(b) decrease in temperature and decrease in pressure
(c) increase in temperature and decrease in pressure
(d) increase in temperature and increase in pressure

38
 5. If the door of a refrigerator is kept open, then which of the following is true?
(a)Room is cooled (b) Room is either cooled or heated
(b) Room is heated (d) Room is neither cooled nor heated

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): The Carnot cycle is useful in understanding the performance of a heat engine.
Reason (R): The Carnot cycle provides a way of determining the maximum possible efficiency
available with reservoirs at given temperatures.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): In an isothermal process, whole of heat energy supplied to the body is converted
into internal energy.
Reason (R): According to the first law of thermodynamics, ∆Q =∆U

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): The efficiency of a heat engine cannot be 100%.

Reason (R): This is because a sink of heat cannot be maintained at 0 K.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): Reversible systems are difficult to find in the real world.
Reason (R): Most processes are dissipative in nature.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): In an adiabatic compression, the internal energy and temperature of the system
get decreased.
Reason (R): An adiabatic compression is a slow process.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

39
 CHAPTER 13
KINETIC ENERGY
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. HYDROGEN GAS CONTAINER

The given figure shows a cubical vessel which contains hydrogen gas at absolute
temperature T. The molecules are in a state of random motion. They can exert a finite force
and hence a finite pressure on the wall of the vessel. The rms speed vrms of the gas
molecules depends on its temperature and other factors.
1. If the hydrogen gas is replaced by oxygen gas keeping temperature constant how does the
rms speed changes?
(a) increases ( b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of these
3kT
2. What is the unit of constant k from the equation vrms
= where k is Boltzmann
m
Constant and m is the mass of each molecule of the gas?
(a) N.m-1.K-1 (b) N.K-1 (c) J. K-1 (d) J.Kg-1.K-1

3. The sample of hydrogen gas is at 0oC. At what temperature it must be raised in order to
double its rms speed?
(a) 103 (b) 273 oC (c) 819 oC (d) 1092 oC

4. On any planet if ve be the escape velocity, the presence of atmosphere implies

(a) vrms <<ve (b) vrms > ve (c) vrms = ve (d) vrms = 0

5. If v rms
is doubled keeping volume constant the pressure of the gas as compared to the
previous value becomes
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times (c) remains same (d) none of these.

II. FREE PATH OF A HELIUM GAS MOLECULE.

The given figure shows the path followed by a helium gas molecule during its motion.
Between two successive collisions the molecule travels in a straight line called path free path.
The average distance a molecule travels before it suffers a collision with another molecule is
called mean free path (𝜆). Suppose 𝑣̅ be the average speed of a molecule of diameter 𝑑. In
one second this molecule sweeps out a volume 𝜋𝑑2𝑣̅. If it finds any other molecules in this
volume, it will suffer collisions with them. If 𝑥 be the number density of the molecules, the
number of molecules in this volume = 𝜋𝑑2𝑣̅ 𝑥.

40
The number of collisions per second (𝜐) = 𝜋𝑑2𝑣 𝑥 and the average time between two
1 1
consecutive collisions are = = .
𝜐 𝜋𝑑2 𝑣𝑥
1
The mean free path 𝜆 = 𝑣 𝜏 = .
𝜋𝑑2 𝑥
1. The mean free path of a molecule helium gas increases with
(a) decrease in number density of the molecules
(b) increase in the number density of the molecules
(c) decrease in diameter of the molecules
(d) both a and c

2. If the mean free path of the atom is doubled then the pressure of the gas whose initial value
was P will become
(a) P/4 (b) P/2 (c) P/8 (d) P

3. On increasing the temperature, the average time between two successive collisions
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of these

4. What happens to the mean free path if the density of the gas increases?
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) none of these

5. On decreasing the temperature, the mean free path

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of these.

III. α-HELICAL PEPTIDE

Thermal motion of a helical peptide (a bio-molecule) is random and complex. However the
equipartition theorem allows the average kinetic energy and average potential energies of
each atom to be computed. The grey, red and blue spheres
represent atoms of carbon, oxygen and nitrogen, respectively; the smaller white spheres
represent atoms of hydrogen. The oxygen molecule is a rigid rotator at moderate temperature
but not always. The total energy of a gas depends on the temperature and the number of
degrees of freedom. The molecule of argon gas can only translate. The atoms of Copper can
only vibrate about their mean positions.

1. What is the molar specific heat at constant pressure of the argon gas?
a) 3 𝑅 b) 5 𝑅 c) 7 𝑅 d) 1 𝑅
2 2 2 2

2. The specific heat ratio of oxygen molecule as a rigid rotator is

5 9 7 3
a) b) c) d)
3 7 5 2

41
3. The total energy of one mole of oxygen gas as nonrigid rotator is
a) 7 𝑅𝑇 b) 3 𝑅𝑇 c)5 𝑅𝑇 d) none of these
2 2 2

4. A polyatomic molecule has 3 translational, 3 rotational degrees of freedom and a certain

number (f) of vibrational modes. Then the specific heat ratio of the molecule is
4−𝑓 4+𝑓 3+𝑓 4+𝑓
a) 𝛾 = b) 𝛾 = c) 𝛾 = d) 𝛾 =
3+𝑓 3+𝑓 4+𝑓 3−𝑓

5. For a mole of Copper the specific heat capacity is

a) 5R b) 6R c) 4R d) 3R

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): A real gas behaves as an ideal gas at high temperature and low pressure.
Reason (R): At low pressure and high temperature intermolecular forces vanish away
and volume of gas molecules is negligible.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): All molecular motions cease at -273.15 oC.

Reason (R): Temperature 0 K cannot be attained.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): Cp(molar heat capacity at constant pressure) can be less than Cv (molar
heat capacity at constant volume).
Reason (R): Cp - Cv = R is valid only for ideal monatomic gases.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): When an electric fan is switched on in a closed room, the air of the room is
cooled.
Reason (R): When the fan is switched on the density of air decreases which lowers the
temperature and makes one feel cool.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): The pressure exerted by an enclosed ideal gas does not depend on the
shape of the container.
Reason (R): The pressure of an ideal gas depends on the number of moles, temperature
and volume of the enclosure.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

42
 CHAPTER 14
OSCILLATIONS
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. SWING:

It is common knowledge that the swing

moves forward and backwards when
pushed. If a series of regular pushes are
given to the swing, its motion can be built.
The person pushing the swing has to sync
with the timing of the swing. This results in
the motion of the swing to have increased
amplitude so as to reach higher. Once
when the swing reaches its natural
frequency of oscillation, a gentle push to
the swing helps to maintain its amplitude
due to resonance. But, if the push given is irregular, the swing will hardly vibrate, and this
out-of-sync motion will never lead to resonance, and the swing will not go higher.

1. In case of forced vibration, the resonance peak becomes very sharp when the
(a) damping force is small (b) restoring force is small
(c) applied periodic force is small (d) quality factor is small

2. Four pendulums A, B, C and D are suspended from the

same elastic support as shown in the figure. A and C are
of the same length, while B is smaller than A and D is
larger than A. If A is given a transverse displacement,
(a) D will vibrate with maximum amplitude.
(b) C will vibrate with maximum amplitude.
(c) B will vibrate with maximum amplitude.
(d) all the four will oscillate with equal amplitude.

3. The displacement time graph of a particle executing

S.H.M. is shown in the figure. Which of the following
statements is false?
(a) the force is zero at t = (3t/4)
(b) the acceleration is maximum at t = (4t/4)
(c) the velocity is maximum at t = (t/4)
(d) the P.E. is equal to K.E. of oscillation at t = (T/2)

4. Calculate the amplitude for a SHM using the equation x = 3sin2pt + 4cos3pt
(a) 3 (b)5 (c) 4 (d) 7

5. A particle executing S.H.M. has a maximum speed of 30 cm/s and a maximum acceleration of
60 cm/s2. The period of oscillation is
(a) π s (b) (π/2) s (c) 2π s (d) (π/t) s

43
II. PENDULUM CLOCK
You all must have seen the pendulum in the clocks moving to
and fro regularly. When we pull a simple pendulum from its
equilibrium position and then release it, it swings in a vertical
plane under the influence of gravity. It begins to oscillate about
its mean position. Therefore, the motion is oscillatory and is
simple harmonic motion.

1. A Second’s pendulum is placed in a space laboratory

orbiting around the earth at a height 3R from earth’s surface
where R is earth’s radius. The time period of the pendulum
will be
(a) zero (b) 2√3 (c) 4s (d) infinte

2. The shape of L - T graph of simple pendulum is,

(a) curve (b) parabola (c) straight line (d) hyperbola

3. A simple pendulum has a period T. it is taken inside a lift moving up

with uniform acceleration g/3. now its time period will be
a) √2𝑇
b) 2𝑇/√3
c) √3 𝑇
2
3
d) 𝑇
√2

4. A pendulum suspended from the roof of a train has a period T (When

the train is at rest). When the train is accelerating with a uniform
acceleration ‘a’, the time period of the pendulum will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain unaffected (d) become
infinite

5. The length of second’s pendulum on the surface of earth is 1 m.

the length of same pendulum on the surface of moon, where
acceleration due to gravity is (1/6)th of the g on the surface of
earth is
(a) 36 m (b) 1 m (c) 1/36 m (d) 1/6 m

III. VEHICLE SHOCK ABSORBERS

A shock absorber or damper is a mechanical or hydraulic
device designed to absorb and damp shock impulses. It does
this by converting the kinetic energy of the shock into another
form of energy (typically heat) which is then dissipated.
In a vehicle, shock absorbers reduce the effect of traveling
over rough ground, leading to improved ride quality and
vehicle handling.
Springs/Shockers are attached to the wheel of the cars to
ensure a safe ride to the passengers. Every time the car hits a bumpy road, these
springs/shockers act as shock absorbers, leading to a smooth ride. The restoring force
on the spring will push the car wheel back into place. Spring rates are chosen by the
manufacturer based on the weight of the vehicle, loaded and unloaded.

44
 1. The time period of a spring pendulum is
𝑚
a) T=2𝜋√
𝑘
2𝑘
b) T=2𝜋√
𝑚
2𝑘
c) T=2𝜋√
𝑚
2𝑚
d) T=𝜋√
𝑘

2. A particle of mass m is hanging vertically by an ideal spring of force constant k. If the

mass is made to oscillate vertically, its total energy is
(a) maximum at extreme position (b) maximum at mean position
(c) minimum at mean position (d) same at all positions

3. The maximum velocity for a particle in S.H.M is 0.16 m/s and maximum acceleration
is 0.64 m/s2. The amplitude is
(a) 4 x 10-2 m (b) 4 x 10-1 m (c) 4 x 10 m (d) 4 x 100 m

4. The equation of displacement of a particle performing SHM is X = 0.25 sin (200t).

The maximum velocity is
(a) 100 m/s (b) 200 m/s (c) 50 m/s (d) 150 m/s

5. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is

(a) periodic but not simple harmonic
(b) non-periodic
(c) simple harmonic and time period are independent of the density of the liquid
(d) simple harmonic and time period are directly proportional to the density of the liquid

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): When a simple pendulum is made to oscillate on the surface of moon,
its time period increases.
Reason (R): Moon is much smaller as compared to earth.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): Acceleration is proportional to the displacement. This condition is not

sufficient for motion in simple harmonic.
Reason (R): In simple harmonic motion direction of displacement is also considered.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): The graph of total energy of a particle in SHM w.r.t., position is a
straight line with zero slope.
Reason (R): Total energy of particles in SHM remains constant throughout its
motion.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

45
4. Assertion (A): For an oscillating simple pendulum, the tension in the string is maximum
at the mean position and minimum at the extreme position.
Reason (R): The velocity of the oscillating bob in simple harmonic motion is
maximum at the mean position.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Assertion (A): The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum decreases gradually with time.
Reason (R): The frequency of the pendulum decreases with time.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

46
 CHAPTER 15
WAVES
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. BEATS IN TUNING FORK
Two tuning forks of exactly the same frequency on two sound boxes placed with their
open ends facing each other. Now stick a little wax to the prong of one of them so as
to slightly reduce its frequency. Set the tuning forks into vibrations. The intensity of
the resulting sound will increase and decrease periodically with time. When they
interfere, we hear alternate maxima and minima in the resultant intensity of sound.
The maximum of sound is called ‘Waxing’ and the minimum of sound is called
‘Waning’ called beats. Beats can be produced by two methods one is “loading” and
other one is “filing”. When the prongs are loaded, their inertia increases, resulting in
decrease of vibrational frequency.
Similarly, when the mass is removed by filing the prongs, their inertia decreases
resulting in an increase of vibrational frequency. The number of beats heard per
second is called the frequency of beats

1. For production of beats the two sources must have

(a) different frequencies and same amplitude
(b) different frequencies
(c) different frequencies, same amplitude and same phase
(d) different frequencies and same phase

2. Two speakers are arranged so that sound waves with the same frequency are
produced and radiate through the room. An interference pattern is created (as
represented in the diagram at the right). The thick lines in the diagram represent
wave crests and the thin lines represent wave troughs. Use the diagram to answer
the next question.
At which of the labelled point(s) would constructive interference occur?
(a) B only
(b) A, B, and C
(c) D, E, and F
(d) A and B

3. A tuning fork with a frequency of 440 Hz is played simultaneously with a fork with a
frequency of 437 Hz. How many beats will be heard over a period of 10 seconds?
(a) 30 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 0.3

4. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fork

(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) increases or decreases depending on the material (d) remains the same

47
5. A tuning fork of unknown frequency gives 4 beats with a tuning fork of frequency
310Hz. It gives the same number of beats on filing. The unknown frequency will be
(a) 314 Hz (b) 318 Hz (c) 306 Hz (d) 302 Hz

II. HARMONICS IN GUITAR STRING

A Guitar string has a number of frequencies at which it will naturally vibrate. These
natural frequencies are known as the harmonics of the guitar string. The natural
frequency at which an object vibrates will depends upon the tension of the string, the
linear density of the string and length of the string. Each of the natural frequencies or
harmonics is associated with a standing wave pattern. The graphic below depicts the
standing wave patterns for the lowest three harmonics of frequencies of guitar string.

1. The wave produced in the guitar string is–

(a) longitudinal wave (b) standing wave (c) travelling wave (d) matter wave

2. When Stationary wave is formed then its frequency is–

(a) same as that of the individual waves (b) twice as that of the individual waves
(c) half that of individual waves (d) none of the waves

3. Standing wave is –
(a) transport energy (b) doesn’t transport energy
(c) have node and antinodes (d) both (b) & (c)

4. At Antinodes –
(a) pressure is maximum and velocity is minimum
(b) pressure is minimum and velocity is maximum
(c) pressure and velocity both are maximum
(d) pressure and velocity both are minimum

5. A1m long string vibrates with fundamental frequency of 256Hz.If the length is
reduced to 1/4 m keeping the tension unaltered, the new fundamental frequency
(in Hz) will be–
(a) 64 (b) 256 (c) 512 (d) 1024

III. MODES OF VIBRATION IN SONOMETER

The sonometer is a long hollow wooden box along the
top of which are stretched one or more strings rigidly
attached to the box at one end. In this instrument one
can study the vibrational mode of a stretched string.
The dependence of the fundamental frequency on
length and tension is determined. In addition,
resonance effects and the nature of harmonic modes
are investigated. Basically, a sonometer is a device
based on the principle of Resonance. It is used to verify the laws of vibration of
stretched string and also to determine the frequency of a tuning fork.
48
6. Which types of waves are produced in the Sonometer experiment?
(a) longitudinal wave (b) matter wave (c) transverse wave (d) stationary transverse wave

7. Stationary waves are so called because in them

(a) the particle of the medium is not distributed at all
(b) the particles of the medium don’t execute SHM
(c) there occurs no flow of energy along the wave.
(d) the interference effect cannot be observed.

8. Which formula is correct for frequency of vibration of string ( = mass per unit
length)?
1 𝑇
(a) 𝑓 = √
4𝑙 𝜇
1 𝑇
(b) 𝑓 = √
𝑙 𝜇
1 𝑇
(c) 𝑓 = √
2𝑙 𝜇
1 𝜇
(d) 𝑓 = √
4𝑙 𝑇

9. To increase the frequency from 100Hz to 400Hz, the tension in the string has to be
changed by
(a) 4 times (b) 16 times (c) 2 times (d) 8 times

10. When the string of a Sonometer of length ‘L’ between the bridges vibrates in the
second overtone, the amplitude of vibration is maximum at
(a) L/2 (b) L/4 and 3L/4 (c) L/6 and 3L/6 (d) L/8, 3L/8 and 5L/8

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): Transverse waves are possible in solid and string but not in fluid.
Reason (R): Solid and string can sustain shearing stress but not in fluid.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Assertion (A): A motorboat sailing in water produces both longitudinal and transverse
waves.
Reason (R): Longitudinal and transverse waves cannot be produced simultaneously.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Assertion (A): Longitudinal Waves are called pressure waves

Reason (R): Propagation of longitudinal waves through a medium involves change in
pressure (density of medium particles) when compressions and
rarefactions are formed.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Assertion (A): Closed organ pipe contains only odd harmonic

Reason (R): Open organ pipe contains all odd and even harmonic.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

49
5. Assertion (A): When two vibrating tuning forks having frequencies 256Hz and 512 Hz
are held near each other, beats cannot be heard.
Reason (R): The principle of superposition is valid if the frequencies of the oscillators
are nearly equal.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

50
 ANSWERS
XI
CHAPTER 2 UNITS AND MEASUREMENT
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. b
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. c
II. 1. b
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. d
III.1. b
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. a
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. d
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. c

CHAPTER 3 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. b
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. b
II. 1. b
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. d
III.1. b
2. c
3. d
4. b
5. c
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. b
3. a
4. c
5. d

51
CHAPTER 4 MOTION IN A PLANE
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. c
2. d
3. a
4. d
5. c
II. 1. b
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. c
III.1. d
2. a
3. c
4. b
5. b
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. c

CHAPTER 5 LAWS OF MOTION

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. a
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. b
II. 1. b
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. d
III.1. d
2. b
3. c
4. b
5. b
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. d
2. a
3. c
4. b
5. a

CHAPTER 6 WORK, POWER AND ENERGY

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. a
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. d
II. 1. a 52
 2. a
3. a
4. b
5. c
III.1. d
2. a
3. a
4. b
5. d
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. c
2. a
3. a
4. c
5. a

CHAPTER 7 MOTION OF SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND RIGID BODY

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. a
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. b
II. 1. d
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. a
III.1. a
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. c
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. a

CHAPTER 8 GRAVITATION
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. d
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. c
II. 1. c
2. b
3. d
4. b
5. b
III.1. b
2. d
3. b
4. a 53
 5. c
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. b
3. a
4. c
5. d

CHAPTER 9 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. a
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. d
II. 1. d
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. b
III.1. c
2. d
3. b
4. b
5. d
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. c
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. a

CHAPTER 10 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. b
2. a
3. c
4. c
5. a
II. 1. a
2. a
3. b
4. a
5. d
III.1. c
2. b
3. d
4. d
5. d
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. a
54
CHAPTER 11 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. d
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. b
II. 1. b
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. b
III.1. a
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. b
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. c
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. a

CHAPTER 12 THERMODYNAMICS
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. b
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. d
II. 1. c
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. b
III.1. c
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. c
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. d
3. a
4. a
5. c

CHAPTER 13 KINETIC THEORY

CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. b
2. c
3. c
4. a
5. a
II. 1. d 55
 2. b
3. b
4. a
5. c
III.1. b
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. d
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. a

CHAPTER 14 OSCILLATIONS
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. a
2. b
3. d
4. b
5. a
II. 1. d
2. b
3. c
4. b
5. d
III.1. a
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. c
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. b
3. a
4. b
5. c

CHAPTER 15 WAVES
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
I. 1. b
2. d
3. a
4. b
5. c
II. 1. b
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. d
III.1. d
2. c
3. c
4. b 56
 5. b
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. c

57
SPACE FOR NOTE
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