NBTS

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs

(for NEET-2022)

Topics covered :
Physics : Current Electricity, Moving charges and Magnetism, Magnetism & Matter, Electromagnetic
Induction.
Chemistry : Surface Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, p-block elements
(Group-15 to 18).
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance.
Zoology : Reproductive Health, Evolution.

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A 2. A cube of edge length 2.5 cm and made of

material having resistivity 2.5 × 10 8 m is
1. A long rod having linear charge density is applied with a potential difference of 10 4 V
v
across its ends. The current flowing across its
through any cross section is
ends is
(1) 10 2 A

(1) (2) v2 ampere (2) 102 A

(3) 10 A
(3) (4) v ampere (4) 10 1 A

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

3. Consider the following statements 8. The equivalent emf between point A and B for
Statement 1 : Current is not a vector quantity but the circuit shown below is
current density is a vector quantity.
Statement 2 : The current density vector is
directed along electric field vector.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) Statement-1 only
(2) Statement-2 only
(3) Statement-1 and statement-2 both
(4) Neither statement-1 nor statement-2 (1) 4 V (2) 8 V

4. Match the following (symbols have usual (3) 2 V (4) 12 V

meaning) 9. In the network shown below, i
Column I Column II OE is

a. Mobility ( ) (i)

b. Current density (ii)

| vd |
c. Drift velocity (iii)
E
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (1) 12 A (2) 8 A
5. The resistance of wire of material X is 6 at ice (3) Zero (4) 4 A
point and 6.5 at steam point. The resistance at
10. In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 3 V
200°C is
gives a balance point of 25 cm. What would be
(1) 6.75 (2) 7 balance point for emf of 6 V?
(3) 7.5 (4) 8 (1) 50 cm (2) 12.5 cm
6. A battery of emf 20 V and internal resistance 8 (3) 75 cm (4) 37.5 cm
is connected to a resistor of 12 . The power
dissipated in external resistance is 11. In a region, the electric field is and the
(1) 12 W (2) 6 W magnetic field is as shown in the figure. If a
(3) 10 W (4) 18 W charged particle with velocity q
7. In given circuit, consider the arrangement of enters the region, the net force on it as soon as it
resistors and a battery of emf 10 V. The current enters is
through battery is

(1) (2)
(1) 4 A (2) 6 A
(3) 2 A (4) 8 A (3) (4)

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

12. A light metallic rod having current 2 A and length

2 m is kept in a magnetic field as shown in the
figure. If the tension in string is 50 N, find the
(3)
magnitude of magnetic field.

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(1) 12.5 T (2) 25 T

(3) 20 T (4) 40 T 16. Two long wires carrying current of 6 A and 10 A
respectively, are separated by distance of 5 cm.
13. If a charged particle enters a magnetic field such
The force on unit length of second wire is
that its velocity has a non-zero component along
magnetic field as well as perpendicular to it, then (1) 4.8 × 10 4 N/m (2) 3 × 10 4 N/m
the trajectory of particle could be (3) 2.4 × 10 4 N/m (4) 2 × 10 4 N/m
(1) Circular (2) Straight line 17. The magnetic field lines pattern inside a long
(3) Helix (4) Elliptical solenoid is best represented by
14. The time period of a particle of charge 4 mC and
mass 4 g entering a magnetic field of intensity (1)
8 T perpendicularly is

(1) (2)
(2)

(3) (4)
(3)
15. A long straight wire of a circular cross-section
carries a steady current I uniformly distributed
across cross-section. The correct graph between (4)
magnetic field and distance from centre of wire is
18. In an ideal toroid, P
and Q as shown below are BP and BQ
respectively, then
(1)

(2)

(1) BP = 0; BQ 0 (2) BP 0; BQ 0
(3) BP 0; BQ = 0 (4) BP = 0; BQ = 0

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

19. A circular coil of radius 1 cm, 100 turns and 24. A solenoid has core of material with relative
carrying a current of 5 A has a magnetic moment permeability 200. The windings of solenoid are
of magnitude insulated from core and carry a current of 5 A. If
number of turns is 1000 per metre, then the
(1) (2)
magnetic field inside is
(1) 0.4 T (2) 0.2 T
(3) (4)
(3) 0.6 T (4) 0.8 T
20. A loop having 100 turns, area of 20 m2
and a 25. Match the following (symbols have usual
current of 5 A is kept in a magnetic field of meaning)
4 × 10 4T in a specific orientation as shown in the
figure. Calculate the torque on loop. Column I Column II
a. Diamagnetic (i) 1 < r <1+
b. Paramagnetic (ii) >>> 0

c. Ferromagnetic (iii) 1 <0

Note: is small positive number

(1) (2) (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(3) (4) 2 N m
26. When a magnet is being moved towards a coil,
21. If BE represents equatorial field of bar magnet at the induced emf does not depends upon
a distance r and BA represents the axial field of (1) The number of turns of the coil
bar magnet at distance r such that r >> l, where l
(2) The motion of magnet
is size of magnet, then |BA/BE| is
(3) The magnetic moment of magnet
(1) 2 (2)
(4) The resistance of coil
27. A horizontal straight wire of length 2 m extending
(3) 1 (4) from west to east is falling with uniform speed of
10 m/s at right angle to the horizontal earth
22. Match the following
magnetic field of strength 0.5 × 10 4 T. What is
Column I Column II the value of emf induced in the wire?
a. Dynamo effect (i) Flux through (1) 2 × 10 2 V (2) 1 × 10 3 V
surface
(3) 4 × 10 3 V (4) 8 × 10 3 V
b. Magnetic (ii) Earths magnetic
monopoles field 28. A straight wire of infinite length carries a constant
c. Gauss's law (iii) current of 2 A and a rectangular loop is moved to
exist the right with uniform velocity v = 10 m/s as
shown. Then the induced emf when x = 1 m is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
23.
field at a place is 0.26 G and the dip angle is 45°,

field at that place is (1) 1 V (2) 2 V

(1) 0.26 G (2) 0.52 G
(3) 4 V (4)
(3) 0.37 G (4) 0.13 G

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

29. P and Q are two metallic rings placed at opposite
sides of an infinite long straight conducting wire
as shown in the figure. If current in wire
increases slowly. Then the direction of induced
current will be
34. The graph gives the magnitude B(t) of a time
varying magnetic field that exist throughout a
conducting loop, perpendicular to the loop. In
which region of the graph, the magnitude of
induced emf is maximum?

(1) a (2) b
(1) Clockwise in P and Anticlockwise in Q
(2) Anticlockwise in P and Clockwise in Q (3) c (4) d

(3) Clockwise in both P and Q 35. The coefficient of mutual inductance between
coils depends upon
(4) Anticlockwise in both P and Q
(1) Number of turns of coils
30. The current across a conductor changes from
2 A to 0.5 A in 0.5 second. The inductance of (2) Medium between coils
inductor is 4 mH. The magnitude of average (3) Relative orientation of coils
potential drop across inductor is
(4) All of these
(1) 12 mV (2) 24 mV
SECTION-B
(3) 6 mV (4) 8 mV
31. The flux of magnetic field through a closed 36. In a circuit shown below having a battery of emf
conducting loop of resistance 2 change with 10 V and resistances as given. The current
time as = (2t + 4t + 6) Wb, where t is time in
2 supplied by battery is
second. Then the average induced emf in t = 0 to
t = 2 s is
(1) 6 V (2) 8 V
(3) 11 V (4) 13.5 V

32. A metallic ring of radius cm is placed

perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity

4 × 10 3 T. It is removed from the field in 0.4 s.
Then the induced emf in the ring during this time (1) 2.25 A
is
(2) 3 A
(1) 15 V (2) 10 V
(3) 5 A
(3) 20 V (4) 25 V
(4) 4 A
33. A magnet is moved with speed v towards a coil
37. In a metre bridge setup, the value of standard
which is at rest. If the speed of magnet is halved,
resistance is 4 and the balance point is in
then correct statement is
middle of bridge. If now the standard resistance
(1) Induced emf decreases
is doubled and the unknown resistance is tripled,
(2) Induced current increases the new balance point can be
(3) Induced charge increases (1) 50 cm (2) 60 cm
(4) Resistance of coil increases (3) 80 cm (4) 70 cm

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

38. If we have 5 resistors each of resistance 5 ,

then the ratio of maximum possible resistance to
the minimum possible resistance due to their (3)
combination is

(1) (2) 1

(3) 25 (4) 16
39. The equivalent resistance between points A and
B is (each resistor is identical and have
(4)
resistance R)

42. q
E and magnetic field B with velocity v and
(1) 12R (2) 9R crosses the region with same velocity, then
(3) 3R (4) 4R
(q 0, E 0, B 0)
40. If an electron moving around a central nucleus
has an angular velocity and magnetic moment (1) (2)
then moment of inertia of electron about (3) (4)
nucleus is (me mass of electron; e charge
43. A semi-circular wire carrying current of 10 A has
on electron)
radius of 3 cm. The magnetic field at centre is
(1) (2) nearly

(3) (4)

41. Which of the coil kept in magnetic field has no

torque acting on it? (I 0; B 0, symbols have (1) 10 5 T (2) 10 4 T
usual meaning) (3) 10 3 T (4) 6 × 10 4 T
44. m q

an angle as shown. The pitch of helical

(1) trajectory obtained is

(1) 2 (vcos )m/qB

(2) (2) 2 (vsin )m/qB
(3) 2 mv/qB

(4) 2 (vsin )2m/qB

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

45. In order to get an equivalent resistance of 11 , 48. In AC generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns
between A and B from 3 available resistors of has an area of 200 cm2. The coil rotates with a
resistance 3 , 6 and 9 , they should be speed of 360 rev/min in uniform magnetic field of
connected as strength 2 × 10 3 T about an axis perpendicular
(1) to field. The peak value of induced emf is
(1) 1.5 V
(2) 0.15 V
(2) (3) 0.25 V
(4) 0.50 V
49. A wheel with 20 metallic spokes each 0.4 m long
is rotated with a speed of 60 rev/min in a plane
(3) normal to a magnetic field of strength 0.5 T. What
is the induced emf between the axle and the rim
of the wheel?
(1) 0.25 V
(4) (2) 3 V
(3) 0.40 V
(4) 0.50 V
46. Match the following
50. A conductor AB of length l is moved on the
Column I Column II
rectangular rails as shown in figure from x = 0.
a. Perfect (i) Domain formation
The uniform magnetic field is perpendicular to
diamagnetism in
superconductors the plane. Then the power dissipated will be
(Resistance of the conductor is R and only
b. Paramagnetic (ii) Gets weekly
conductor AB possesses resistance)
magnetised
c. Ferromagnetic (iii) Meissner effect
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
47. A magnetic needle have magnetic moment
5 × 10 2 A m2 I
performs oscillation with time period 0.7 s in a
magnetic field of 0.01 T, then I nearly equals to
(Take 2 10) (1) (2)
(1) 6.125 × 10 6 kg m2 (2) 12.25 × 10 6 kg m2
(3) 3.25 × 10 6 kg m2 (4) 9.75 × 10 6 kg m2 (3) (4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 52. Disproportionation of HNO2 in acidic medium

gives
51. The correct decreasing order of density is
(1) NH3 and NO2
represented by
(2) HNO3 and NO
(1) N > P > As > Sb (2) Sb > P > As > N
(3) HNO3 and N2O
(3) N > As > P > Sb (4) Sb > As > P > N (4) NH3 and N2O4

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

53. Select the correct statement among the 60. Which among the following oxoacids has highest
following reducing power?
(1) NH3 does not exhibit hydrogen bonding in (1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3
solid state (3) H3PO4 (4) H4P2O7
(2) N2O5 is more acidic than N2O3 61. Select the correct statement among the
(3) PCl3 is more covalent than PCl5 following
(4) PH3 has higher boiling point than NH3 (1) SO2 has more reducing property than TeO2
54. Thermal decomposition of ammonium (2) TeO3 is basic in nature
dichromate gives
(3) SeO2 is a blue coloured gas
(1) N2, Cr2O3 and H2O
(4) SCl6 is more stable than SF6
(2) N2O, CrO5 and H2O
62. Select the correct order of pKa of hydrides of
(3) NO, CrO4 and H2O group 16 elements
(4) N2O3, CrO4 and O2 (1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
55. Amphoteric oxide among the following is (2) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(1) N2O3 (2) P2O3 (3) H2Te > H2O > H2S > H2Se
(3) As2O3 (4) Bi2O3 (4) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
56. Select the incorrect statement about nitric acid 63. Thermal decomposition of Pb3O4 gives
among the following
(1) Pb and O2 (2) PbO2 and O3
(1) It is colourless liquid
(3) PbO and O2 (4) Pb and O3
(2) It can oxidise gold
64. Select the correct statement(s) about ozone
(3) Laboratory grade nitric acid contains 68% among the following
of the HNO3 by mass
(a) Its formation from oxygen is an endothermic
(4) Its concentrated form on reaction with Cu process
gives NO2 as one of the product
(b) Its quantitative estimation is carried out by
57. White phosphorus is reacting with K2Cr2O7 resulted in yellow
(1) A translucent white waxy liquid colour solution
(2) Insoluble in water (c) High concentrations of it can be dangerously
(3) Insoluble in carbon disulphide explosive since its decomposition reaction
involves H < 0 and S > 0
(4) Non-poisonous in nature
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only
58. In which of the following reaction, the given
product(s) is/are incorrect? (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
65. Dominant species and its magnetic nature of
(1)
sulphur allotrope, at elevated temperature
(2) POCl3 + H2O H3PO2 + HCl ( 1000 K) are
(3) Sn + PCl5 SnCl4 + PCl3 (1) S6, diamagnetic (2) S6, paramagnetic
(4) Ag + PCl5 AgCl + PCl3 (3) S2, diamagnetic (4) S2, paramagnetic
59. 66. Which among the following oxoacids of sulphur
pyrophosphoric acid are has peroxy linkage?
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 4 and 2 (1) H2SO4 (2) H2S2O8
(3) 4 and 3 (4) 5 and 1 (3) H2S2O7 (4) H2SO3

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

67. Which among the following reactions shows 73. Which of the following is an example of
dehydrating nature of conc.H2SO4? heterogeneous catalysis?
(1) Cu + 2H2SO4 CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O (1)
(2) S + 2H2SO4 3SO2 + 2H2O
(2)
(3) C12H22O11 12C + 11H2O
(3)
(4) CaF2 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + 2HF
68. The correct composition of bleaching powder is CH3COOH (aq) + CH3OH (aq)

(1) Ca(OCl)2.Ca(OH)2.CaCl2.2H2O (4)

(2) CaCl2.CaBr2.2H2O C6H12O6 (aq) + C6H12O6 (aq)
(3) Ca(OCl)2.CaSO4.2H2O 74. The enzyme used for the breakdown of starch
(4) Ca(ClO3)2·CaCl2·2H2O into maltose is
69. Complex anions formed when gold and platinum (1) Invertase (2) Zymase
separately dissolved in aqua regia respectively (3) Maltase (4) Diastase
are
75. Which of the following is not an example of
(1) , (2) , emulsion?
(1) Milk (2) Hair cream
(3) , (4) ,
(3) Cheese (4) Butter
70. Select the correct statement among the
76. The correct composition of collodion solution is
following
(1) 4% solution of nitro-cellulose in alcohol and
(1) ICl is more reacting than I2
ether
(2) CIF5 is bent T-shaped ruby red solid
(2) 2% solution of nitro-cellulose in acetone and
(3) BrF3 is used for the production of UF3 in the toluene
enrichment of fluorine
(3) 4% solution of methyl-cellulose in acetone
(4) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction and hexane
71. The incorrect statement regarding the (4) 2% solution of methyl-cellulose in alcohol
chemisorption is and methanol
(1) It is highly specific in nature 77. The brownian movement of colloidal solutions is
(2) Enthalpy of adsorption is high independent of the
(3) It increases with increase in temperature (1) Size of particles
(4) It results into multimolecular layers (2) Viscosity of solution
72. Which among the following is the correct (3) Temperature of solution
expression for Freundlich adsorption isotherm? (4) Nature of colloid

(1) 78. When AgNO3 is added to a highly dilute KI

solution, a charged colloidal sol is formed due to
the adsorption of
(2)
(1)

(3) (2) I
(3) K+
(4) (4) Ag+

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

79. The correct order of decreasing flocculating SECTION-B

power for the coagulation of positive sol is
86. Upon heating of oxides of iron in blast furnace,
(1) (2) which of the following reaction does not occur in
temperature range of 500 800 K?
(3) (4)
(1) 3Fe2O3 + CO 2Fe3O4 + CO2
80. Which among the following is used as an
(2) Fe3O4 + CO 3FeO + CO2
emulsifying agent for W/O emulsions?
(1) Lampblack (2) Gums (3) CaCO3 CaO + CO2

(3) Natural Soap (4) Proteins (4) FeO + CO Fe + CO2

81. The negatively charged sol among the following 87. Select the incorrect statement among the
is following.

(1) Haemoglobin (2) TiO2 sol (1) The iron obtained from blast furnace is pig
iron
(3) Methylene blue (4) Latex
(2) The purest form of commercial iron is
82. Which of the following process is not used for wrought iron
coagulation of colloidal solution?
(3) The carbon content in pig iron is about 4%
(1)
(4) Wrought iron is extremely hard and brittle
(2) Electrophoresis
88. The depressant used in the froth floatation
(3) Addition of electrolyte process of ZnS and PbS is
(4) Mixing oppositely charged sols (1) NaCN (2) Aniline
83. Which among the following statements is true for (3) Cresol (4) Fatty acids
spontaneous adsorption of gas on solid surface?
89. Match the column I with column II
(1) H should have sufficiently high negative
Column I Column II
value as T S is positive
(2) H should have sufficiently high positive a. Liquation (i) Hg
value as T S is positive b. Distillation (ii) Zr
(3) H should have sufficiently high positive
c. Mond process (iii) Ni
value as T S is positive
(4) H should have sufficiently high negative d. van Arkel method (iv) Sn

value as T S is positive Choose the correct answer from the options

84. The incorrect statement regarding lyophobic given below
colloids is (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Special methods are required for the (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
preparation
90. German silver is composed of which of the
(2) They are reversible sols following elements?
(3) They need stabilizing agent for their (1) Cu, Zn, Sn (2) Cu, Zn, Ni
preservation (3) Ag, Sn, Ni (4) Zn, Sn, Ag
(4) They are solvent-repelling in nature 91. Metallic copper is obtained during extraction by
85. Which of the following is an ore of zinc? the reduction of cuprous sulphide with
(1) Siderite (2) Malachite (1) FeS (2) Cu2O
(3) Calamine (4) Kaolinite (3) O2 (4) SO2

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

92. In the leaching process of Ag with NaCN in 96. The cathode and anode used in Hall-Heroult
presence of air, the metal forms process respectively are
(1) [Ag(CN)2] (1) Copper vessel with carbon lining and copper
rods
(2) [Ag(CN)4]3
(2) Copper rods and copper vessel with carbon
(3) AgCN lining
(4) AgNC (3) Steel vessel with carbon lining and graphite
93. The role of Na3AlF6 in electrolytic extraction of rods
aluminium from Al2O3 is (4) Graphite rod and steel vessel with carbon
lining
(1) To lower the melting point of the mixture
97. Slag formed during the smelting process of
(2) To increase the electrical conductivity copper is
(3) To bring the electrical neutrality (1) FeSiO3 (2) FeS + SiO2
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) CuFeS2 (4) Cu2S + FeS
94. The principle of refining of metal through liquation 98. Froth floatation process is based upon the
is principle of
(1) Metal has lower boiling point than that of (1) Adsorption (2) Absorption
impurities (3) Coagulation (4) Precipitation
(2) Metal has lower melting point than that of 99. The incorrect statement regarding the enzymes
impurities is
(3) Impurities are more soluble in the melt than (1) They are highly active in the pH range of
in the solid state of metal 5 7
(4) Metal and impurities are not very different in (2) Coenzymes increases the activity of
enzymes
chemical properties
(3) One enzyme can catalyse multiple reactions
95. Which of the following process is most suitable to
produce highly pure semiconductors? (4) They are protein molecules with high
molecular mass
(1) Chromatography
100. The correct range of diameter for the colloid
(2) Electrolytic refining particles is
(3) Vapour phase refining (1) 10 12 to 10 9 m (2) 10 9 to 10 6 m
(4) Zone refining (3) 10 10 to 10 8 m (4) 10 8 to 10 3 m

BOTANY
SECTION-A

101. The experiment shown in the figure has been

carried out by T.H. Morgan to show the
phenomenon of linkage and recombination in
Drosophila. It was seen that genes y and w are
more tightly linked as compared to, genes w and
m. What is the percentage of parental type
(1) 1.3% and 37.2%
offspring produced in cross A and B respectively?
(2) 98.7% and 62.8%

(3) 1.3% and 62.8%

(4) 98.7% and 37.2%

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

102. Match the terms in column-I with their description 106. What will be possible blood groups in children
in column-II and select the correct option. from the parents with AB and O blood groups?
(1) AB and O (2) A, B, AB and O
Column-I Column-II
(3) A and B (4) Only AB
A. Co- (i) F1 resembles either
107. Mark the correct match w.r.t. genetic disorders
dominance of the two parents.
and their chromosomal complement.
B. Incomplete (ii) F1 resembles both
(1) 45 + XO
dominance parents
(2) 45 + XY
C. Dominance (iii) F1 phenotypes do
(3) 44 + XO
not resemble either
of the two parents (4) Phenylketonuria 44 + XXY
108. If a cross is made between F1 progeny (Pink
A B C
coloured flowered plants) and white flower
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) bearing snapdragon plants then what will be the
percentage of red flowered plants in their
(2) (ii) (iii) (i)
progeny?
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) 25% (2) 50%
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) 100% (4) 0%

103. Which of the given traits w.r.t. pea plants express 109. Genotype of an individual of F 1 generation is
only in homozygous condition? Ppqq and genotype of its one of the parents is
PpQq. Which of the given genotype cannot be of
(A) Constricted pod (B) Violet flower
the other parent?
(C) Axial flower (D) Yellow pod
(1) PPqq (2) PpQq
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) ppQQ (4) Ppqq
(3) C and D (4) A and D
110. Select the incorrect
104. Read the given statements and select the
correct option.
(1) It was developed by a British geneticist,
Statement A: Inheritance is the basis of heredity.
Reginald C. Punnett
Statement B: Inheritance is the process by
(2) It is a graphical representation to calculate
which characters are passed on from parents to
the probability of all possible genotypes of
progeny.
offspring in a genetic cross.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) It contains squares that have possible
(2) Only statement B is correct gametic combination
(3) Both statements are correct (4) It shows only the parental genotype
(4) Both statements are incorrect 111. Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp. is
105. Consider the following Mendelian cross: an example of
Aa × aa (1) Incomplete dominance
What will be the phenotype of offspring? (2) Co-dominance
(1) 100% recessive (2) 75% recessive (3) Pleiotropy
(3) 50% dominant (4) 100% dominant (4) Polygenic inheritance

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

112. Read the given statements stating them true (T) 117. Which of the given statements are correct w.r.t.
or false (F) and select the correct option. mutation?
(A) ABO blood groups are controlled by the (A) It results in alteration of DNA sequences
gene I.
(B) It results in change in genotype
(B) The allele IA and i produce a slightly different
(C) It results in change in phenotype
form of sugar.
(C) The gene (I) has three alleles IA, IB and i. (D) It never alter chromosome structure or
function
A B C
(1) Only (A)
(1) T T T
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(2) T F T (3) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) F F F (4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

(4) F T T 118. Given below are two statements. Answer the

question by selecting the correct option.
113. How many genotypes and phenotypes
Statement A: DNA is transmitted from one
respectively are possible in human ABO blood
group system? generation to the other without any change or
alteration.
(1) 6 and 4 (2) 6 and 6
Statement B: DNA is carrier of genetic
(3) 4 and 4 (4) 4 and 6
information.
114. Which of the given are polygenic traits?
(1) Both A and B are true and B is correct
(A) Human skin colour
explanation of A.
(B) Height in humans
(2) Both A and B are true and B is not correct
(C) Starch synthesis in pea
explanation of A.
(1) Only A (2) Both A and B
(3) A is true but B is false.
(3) Only C (4) Both B and C
(4) A is false but B is true.
115. When a single gene exhibits multiple phenotypic
expression, it is called 119. The pedigree below tracks the presence of
dimples in a family. Having dimples is an
(1) Pleiotropy
autosomal dominant trait.
(2) Polygenic inheritance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Co-dominance
116. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. sex
determination in honey Bee.
(1) It is based on the number of sets of
chromosomes an individual receives
(2) An offspring formed by the union of a sperm
and an egg develops as a female bee If individuals II-1 and II-2 would have a fourth
child, what is the percentage that the child will
(3) An offspring formed by unfertilized egg
have dimples?
develops as a worker bee
(4) Males have half the number of (1) 0% (2) 50%
chromosomes than that of a female (3) 25% (4) 100%

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

120. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. sickle-cell A B C

anaemia.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) It can be transmitted from parents to
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
offspring when both the partners are carrier
for the gene. (3) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) It is controlled by a single pair of allele, Hb A (4) (iii) (i) (ii)

and HbS. 124. The physical association of genes on
(3) The defect is caused by substitution chromosome is called
mutation. (1) Linkage (2) Pleiotropy
(4) The defect appears due to single base (3) Multiple allelism (4) Recombination
substitution at sixth codon of beta globin 125. Which of the given has maximum number of
gene from GUG to GAG. nucleotides in its genome?
121. Mark the incorrect match (1) × 174 bacteriophage
(1) -thalassemia Controlled by a single (2) Lambda ( ) phage
gene HBB on (3) Escherichia coli
chromosome 11
(4) Human
(2) -thalassemia Production of -globin
126. A cytidine consists of all of the given
chain is affected components, except
(3) Phenylketonuria An autosomal recessive (1) Cytosine
disorder
(2) Pentose sugar
(4) Haemophilia Transmits from
(3) N-glycosidic linkage
unaffected carrier
(4) Phosphate
female to some of the
male progeny. 127. Which of the given nitrogenous bases are found
in both RNA as well as DNA?
122. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia as
that the former is a/an (A) Cytosine (B) Uracil

(1) Quantitative problem of synthesizing too few (C) Thymine (D) Adenine
globin molecules (1) A and D (2) B and C
(2) Qualitative problem of synthesizing an (3) A and B (4) C and D
incorrectly functioning globin 128. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. salient
(3) Autosomal recessive trait features of Double-helical structure of DNA.
(4) X-linked recessive disorder (1) The backbone is constituted by sugar-
123. Match the column-I with column-II and select the phosphate and the bases project outside.
correct option. (2) It consists of two polynucleotide chains
Column-I Column-II (3) The strands of DNA run in anti-parallel
fashion
(A) (i) Sterile females with
syndrome underdeveloped (4) Cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with
feminine characters guanine

(B) (ii) Gynaecomastia 129. In a double stranded DNA, the proportion of

syndrome adenine was found to be 30%, then calculate the
proportion of pyrimidine.
(C) (iii) Individuals with broad
syndrome palm with characteristic (1) 70% (2) 20%
palm crease. (3) 50% (4) 30%

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

130. If E.coli containing light DNA is allowed to SECTION-B

replicate its DNA for one generation in medium
containing N15 and for second generation in 136. Translation in bacteria differs from eukaryotes as
medium containing N14 then the proportion of in bacteria
light, heavy and hybrid DNA respectively are (1) mRNA requires post transcriptional
(1) 50%, 0% and 50% (2) 25%, 75% and 0% processing
(3) 0%, 75% and 25% (4) 25%, 50% and 25% (2) Translation can begin much before the
mRNA is fully transcribed
131. The main enzyme responsible for polymerisation
of DNA during its replication is (3) First larger subunit binds with mRNA to
begin the translation
(1) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(4) Translation is terminated by termination
(2) Primase factor ( )
(3) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 137. Some amino acids are coded by more than one
(4) DNA ligase codon, hence the codon is said to be

132. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by (1) Nearly universal (2) Degenerate
the following stretch of DNA? (3) Triplet (4) Always universal
3 A T G G A A C T A 5 Template strand 138. In frameshift mutation, there is

5 T A C C T T G A T 3 Coding strand (1) No change in the reading frame

(2) Insertion or deletion of one or two bases
(1) 3 A T C C G A A C U 5
(3) Addition of single amino acid in the
(2) 5 U A C C U U G A U 3
polypeptide
(3) 5 A U G G A A C U A 3 (4) Conversion of purine to pyrimidine or vice
(4) 3 A U A A G G C U A 5 versa

133. Polycistronic structural gene is seen in 139. Select the incorrect statement for tRNA.

(1) Euglena (2) Bacteria (1) It is also called sRNA (soluble RNA)
(2) It has anticodon loop
(3) Amoeba (4) Humans
(3) It is specific for each amino acid
134. Select the incorrect statement.
(4) There is specific tRNA for stop codons
(1) All three RNAs are needed to synthesize a
protein in a cell 140. The secondary structure of tRNA looks like
(1) Inverted L (2) Clover leaf
(2) rRNAs play catalytic and structural role
during translation (3) Double helical (4) Inverted M
(3) tRNA reads the genetic code during 141. In bacteria, which of the following acts as
translation ribozyme?

(4) RNA polymerase II synthesizes hnRNA in (1) 28 S rRNA (2) 23 S rRNA

prokaryotes (3) 16 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA
135. Mark the incorrect statement for RNA 142. Select the wrong statement about the operon
polymerase. (1) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
(1) Binds to promoter during transcription referred to as negative regulation
(2) Lactose is transported into the bacterial cells
(2) Uses nucleosides triphosphates as
through the activity of permease
substrate
(3) i-gene shows constitutive expression
(3) Facilitates opening of the DNA double helix
(4) A monocistronic structural gene is regulated
(4) Polymerises in template independent by a common promoter and regulatory
fashion genes

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

143. During sequencing of human genome, identifying (1) a c d b (2) b d a c

all the genes that are expressed as RNA are
(3) b d c a (4) c a b d
referred to as
(1) Bioinformatics 148. Select the incorrect about translational unit in
mRNA
(2) Expressed sequence tags (ESTs)
(3) Sequence annotation (1) Is flanked by the start codon
(4) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) (2) Is flanked by the stop codon
144. Variations at the genetic level is called (3) Codes for a polypeptide
polymorphism. It arises due to
(4) Includes UTRs at both 5 and 3 ends which
(1) Repetitive DNA (2) Satellite DNA are required for efficient transcription
(3) Coding DNA (4) Mutations process
145. Mark the odd one w.r.t. VNTR (variable number 149. Choose the correct sequence w.r.t. translation
of tandem repeats) process
(1) Varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb
(a) Ribosome moves from codon to codon.
(2) Show very high degree of polymorphism
(b) Initiation tRNA binds to codon in mRNA.
(3) Belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred
to as micro-satellite (c) Ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start
(4) Copy number varies from chromosome to codon.
chromosome in an individual (d) Release factor binds to stop codon.
146. Portion of the human genome codes for proteins (1) b c d a (2) c b d a
is
(3) c b a d (4) b c a d
(1) More than 50 percent
(2) More than 60 percent 150. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option.
(3) Less than 2 percent
(4) Less than 1 percent only Statement A : Regulation of lac operon can also
be visualised as regulation of enzyme synthesis
147. Choose the correct sequence for steps of DNA
by its substrate.
fingerprinting technique.
(a) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe. Statement B : Glucose cannot be the inducer for
lac operon.
(b) Digestion of DNA by restriction
endonucleases. (1) Only statement A is correct.
(c) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by (2) Only statement B is correct.
autoradiography.
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(d) Separation of DNA fragments by
electrophoresis. (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. Choose the odd one w.r.t. in-vivo fertilisation.
(1) GIFT
151. How many characters from the box given below
(2) IUI
are related to diaphragms?
(3) AI
Cover cervix during coitus, Protect from STIs,
Used by both males and females, Block entry of (4) IUT
sperms, Barrier made of rubber 153. Mode of action of oral pills is similar to

(1) Two (1) Hormone releasing IUDs

(2) Three (2) Copper releasing IUDs

(3) Four (3) Sterilisation method

(4) One (4) Withdrawal method

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

154. Arrange the following human ancestors on the 160. Mr. and Mrs. Ghanshyam went to an awareness
basis of increase in their cranial capacity and programme which was carried out by local
select the correct option. authorities over family planning. After attending
a. Homo erectus the programme they came onto a decision to
b. Australopithecines have no more children as they were already
blessed with two kids. Mr. Ghanshyam went to
c. Neanderthal man
government health care centre to enquire about
d. Homo habilis
permanent contraception. The doctor assured
(1) d c a b (2) b d a c him that his male characteristics will remain intact
(3) b d c a (4) b a d c after opting for permanent contraception. Which
155. of the following procedure will Mr. Ghanshyam be
going through?
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Speciation (1) His prostate gland will be removed and
testes will be cut and tied
(3)
(2) His seminal vesicle will be removed
(4) Convergent evolution
(3) His vasa deferentia will be cut and tied
156. Which of the following is not an avian character
of Archaeopteryx? (4) Tubectomy
(1) Presence of feathers on the body 161. Read the following statements
(2) Fore limbs are modified into wings A. Medical termination of pregnancy during
(3) Intimate fusion of skull bones second trimester is generally safe.
(4) Jaws are modified into beak and contain B. Contraceptives are regular requirement for
teeth reproductive health.
157. C. Inability to conceive or produce children
(1) More individuals acquire mean character even after 2 years of protected sexual
value cohabitation is called infertility.
(2) More individuals acquire value other than D. In embryo transfer techniques, embryos are
the mean character value always transferred into the uterus.
(3) More individuals with low fitness levels
Choose the option that includes only incorrect
outlive individuals with high fitness levels
statement(s).
(4) More individuals acquire peripheral
(1) Only A and C
character value at both ends of a distribution
curve (2) Only B
158. Industrial melanism supports evolution by natural (3) A, B, C and D
selection and the agent of natural selection in
(4) Only B and D
given example is
162. In India, the action plans for family planning were
(1) Man (2) Bird
initiated in the year
(3) Pollution (4) Moth
(1) 1950
159. Theory of panspermia attempts to explain the
origin of (2) 1951

(1) Earth (2) Universe (3) 1972

(3) Life on earth (4) Solar system (4) 1945

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

163. Assertion (A): Oral pills are very well accepted
by females.
Reason (R) : Oral pills are very effective with
lesser side effects and inhibit ovulation and
implantation.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
168. Which of the following is not a probable reason
for population explosion in India?
(1) Rapid decline in death rate
(2) Decline in MMR
(3) Increase in number of people in post-
reproducible age
(4) Increase in natality rate
169. Hepatitis-B can be transmitted through
(i) Transfusion of contaminated blood from
infected person

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (ii) Sharing of infected needles

164. Progestogen based contraceptives include all (iii) Sharing of infected surgical instruments and
except clothes
Choose the correct option.
(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload 375
(1) (i) and (ii)
(3) Implants (4) Progestasert
(2) Only (ii)
165. Which of the following is not true w.r.t. male
condoms? (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
(1) Protect the user from contracting STIs
170. Periodic abstinence is a method in which the
(2) They are reusable and cover the penis
couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day
(3) They offer privacy to the user ______ to _____ of 28 days menstrual cycle.
(4) Prevent entry of ejaculated semen into Choose the correct option to fill the blanks
female reproductive tract respectively.
166. All the following statements are correct about (1) 7,14 (2) 9,14
(3) 10,17 (4) 14,21
(1) It is a type of oral contraceptive pill. 171. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used
(2) It is once a week pill with few side effects within
and high contraceptive value. (1) 36 hours of menstruation

(3) It inhibits ovulation and implantation as well (2) 72 hours of menstruation

as alter the quality of cervical mucus to (3) 72 hours of coitus
prevent/retard entry of sperms. (4) 100 hours of coitus
(4) It was developed at Central Drug Research 172. Conventional religious literature tells us about the
Institute (CDRI), Lucknow, India. theory of special creation. This theory has all of
167. As per 2017 amendment of MTP act, opinion of the given connotations except
two medical practitioners is mandatory if (1) All the living organisms that we see today
pregnancy has lasted for were created as such.

(1) 8 weeks (2) The diversity was always the same since
creation.
(2) 12 weeks
(3) There had been extinctions of different life
(3) More than 28 weeks forms on earth.
(4) More than 12 weeks but less than 24 weeks (4) The earth is about 4000 years old.

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

173. Match the organisms listed in column I w.r.t. their 178. What is the reason behind the survival of
time of origin listed in column II. pouched mammals in Australia?
Column I Column II (1) Due to different continental drift
(a) Ichthyosaurs (i) 500 mya (2) Lack of competition from any other
(b) Invertebrates (ii) 350 mya mammals

(c) Sea weeds (iii) 200 mya (3) Better adaptability than other mammals

(d) Jawless fish (iv) Probably around (4) Due to absence of continental drift
320 mya 179. The example of structures which are not similar
Select the correct option. anatomically though perform similar functions
exclude
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Eye of the octopus and of mammals
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
174. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. evolution of
Australian marsupials and corresponding (3) Sweet potato and potato
placental mammals. (4) Forelimbs of man and cheetah
(1) Anteater Numbat 180. All of the given are extinct vertebrates except
(2) Lemur Spotted cuscus (1) Pelycosaurs (2) Tuataras
(3) Bobcat Tasmanian tiger cat (3) Thecodonts (4) Therapsids
(4) Flying squirrel Marsupial mole 181. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg
175. Read the statements given below w.r.t. equilibrium, 64 out of 400 individuals are Rh ve.
evolutionary process. Choose the option Calculate the percentage of heterozygotes.
representing correct statements only.
(1) 16% (2) 60%
A. S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a
closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and (3) 48% (4) 40%
water vapour at 800°C. 182. Which of the following statements is true for
B. The first cellular forms of life could have theories/evidences of evolution?
originated 3 billion years back. (1) Embryological support for evolution was
C. Big bang theory explained the origin of life. proposed by Ernst Haeckel which was later
D. The universe is very old-almost 10 billion disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer.
years. (2) Darwin was influenced by the work of
(1) A only (2) B and C Lamarck.

(3) C and D (4) C only (3)

given by Hugo deVries.
176. Which of the following plants were predominant
in Silurian period? (4) Work of Thomas Malthus on populations
(1) Lycopods (2) Ferns discouraged Darwin.

(3) Gnetales (4) Psilophyton 183. For a very long time it was believed that life came
out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud
177. Select the biggest carnivorous land reptile from
etc. This theory was later on dismissed once and
the options given below which was about 20 feet
for all due to careful experimental demonstration
in height and had huge fearsome dagger like
teeth. of

(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Brachiosaurus (1) Louis Pasteur (2) Ernst Haeckel

(3) Triceratops (4) Tyrannosaurus (3) Aristotle (4) Hugo de Vries

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NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022 Test-8

184. During his journey to Galapagos islands, Darwin 190. Lizards are considered to be phylogenetically
observed an amazing variety of finches with closer to
altered beaks which were originated from _____ (1) Turtles (2) Snakes
eating birds. Select the correct option to fill the
(3) Crocodiles (4) Birds
blank.
191. Charles Darwin concluded that forms who are
(1) Meat (2) Fruit better fit in an environment leave more progeny
(3) Seed (4) Insect than others. These, therefore will survive more
and hence are selected by nature. The similar
185. Select the correct
conclusions around the same time was given by
effect.
(1) Alfred Wallace (2) Ernst Haeckel
(1) The old population after dispersion of few
(3) William Harvey (4) Karl Ernst von Baer
individuals become founders
192. In a procedure, some of the amniotic fluid of the
(2) It is due to change in gene frequency by developing foetus is taken to analyse the fetal
chance in a large population cells and dissolved substances to test for the
(3) No change in allele frequency presence of following disorders to determine the
survivability of the foetus. Choose the option that
(4) The original drifted population becomes includes the set of disorders accessed by this
founders procedure.
SECTION-B a. Jaundice
b. Thalassemia
186. The mode of action of contraceptive method
c. Phenylketonuria
which is highly effective but has poor reversibility
is d. Exopthalmic goitre

(1) Prevent gametogenesis e. Haemophilia

(1) a, b, c, d and e (2) b, c and e
(2) Inhibit ovulation
(3) b, c, d and e (4) Only b and c
(3) Block gamete transport
193. Which of the following disease, whose
(4) Alter quality of cervical mucus complications may include pelvic inflammatory
187. All the given tasks are performed by diseases, still birth, infertility etc., is not curable if
detected early and treated properly?
(1) Genital warts (2) Genital herpes
(1) Post-natal care of mother and child (3) Syphilis (4) Gonorrhoea
(2) Discouraging social evils and sex education 194. Which of the following contraceptive methods
in schools has longer effective period?
(1) OCPs (2) Condoms
(3) Importance of equal opportunities for male
and female child (3) Implants (4) Vaults

(4) Benefits of massive child immunisation 195. Choose the incorrect statement about lactational
amenorrhea as natural method of contraception.
188. Hardy weinberg equilibrium is maintained in the
(1) It is associated with intense lactation and
absence of all except
absence of menstruation.
(1) Mutation (2) Random mating (2) It has high chances of failure.
(3) Gene flow (4) Genetic drift (3) It usually does not have any side effect.
189. Dicots evolved prior to (4) It is reported to be effective only upto a
(1) Monocots (2) Seed ferns maximum period of three months following
parturition when mother breast-feeds the
(3) Progymnosperms (4) Psilophyton child fully.

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Test-8 NCERT Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET-2022

196. Select the correct option.

which is easily recognizable due to its large body (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
and select the
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
correct option.
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(1) Tyrannosaurus (2) Brachiosaurus
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Triceratops
197. Read the statements given below carefully and 199. Read the statements given below with reference
select the correct answer. to origin and evolution of man. Select the correct
option.
Statement A : Evolution is a stochastic process
based on chance events and chance mutations (1) Dryopithecus hunted with stone weapons
in nature. but essentially ate fruits.

Statement B : Evolution is a directed process in (2) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
the sense of determinism. (3) Fossils of Homo erectus was discovered in
(1) Both statements A and B are correct Java in 1981.

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Pre-historic cave art developed about 18000
years ago.
(3) Only statement A is correct
200. During industrialisation in England, it was
(4) Only statement B is correct
observed that black coloured peppered moths
198. Match the column I with column II with respect to became dominant over the white coloured moths,
human evolution. whereas before emergence of industrialisation,
Column I Column II white winged moths were more in number than
dark-winged moths. This is an example of
(a) Dryopithecus (i) 2 mya
(1) Accumulation of pollutants on their body
(b) Australopithecus (ii) 1.5 mya over a period of time

(c) Home erectus (iii) 15 mya (2) Disruptive natural selection

(3) Artificial selection
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 75000-10000 years
ago (4) Directional selection

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