REVIEW NOTES IN EE 411- MATERIAL SCIENCES AND ENGINEERING

ENGINEERING MATERIALS QUESTIONAIRES

1. What property of an element is determined by the number of protons in its nucleus?
A. Atomic weight C. Isotopes
B. Atomic number D. Atomic mass unit

2. What do you call the electrons at the outermost shell of an atom?

A. Holes C. Valence electrons
B. Isotopes D. Neutrons

3. The mass of a neutron is approximately how many times greater than the mass of an
electron?
A. 1839 C. 1863
B. 1836 D. 1893

4. The mass of a proton is approximately how many times greater than the mass of an
electron?
A. 1839 C. 1863
B. 1836 D. 1893

5. What is the mass (in grams) of an electron?

A. 9.107 x 10 -28 C. 1.672 x 10 -24
B. 1.675 x 10 -24 D. 1.079 x 10 -28

6. What is the mass (in grams) of a proton?

A. 9.107 x 10 -28 C. 1.672 x 10 -24
B. 1.079 x 10 -28 D. 1.675 x 10 -24

7. What is the mass (in grams) of a neutron?

A. 9.107 x 10 -28 C. 1.672 x 10 -24
B. 1.675 x 10 -24 D. 1.079 x 10 -28

8. What is the charge of an electron?

A. -1.601 x 10 -19coulombs C. -1.501 x 10 -19coulombs
B. -1.801 x 10 -19coulombs D.-1.401 x 10 -19coulombs

9. What is the charge of a proton?

A. -1.401 x 10 -19coulombs C. -1.601 x 10 -19coulombs
B. -1.501 x 10 -19coulombs D. -1.701 x 10 -19coulombs
10. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?
A. Crystals C. Ferromagnetic materials
B. Amorphous materials D. Metalloids
11. What do you call the distinct pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged
themselves when they combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?
A. Space- lattice C. Grain
B. Crystal D. Unit Cell

12. What are considered as the `building blocks” for engineering materials?
A. Atoms C. Matters
B. Elements D. Compounds

13. What is a pure substance that cannot be broken down by chemical means to a simpler
substance?
A. Atom C. Compound
B. Element D. Matter

14. What determines the ability of atoms to combine with other atoms?
A. The valence electrons C. The atomic number
B. The number of electrons D. The atomic weight

15. What is the generally accepted nominal mass of a proton?

A. 1 AMU C. 0.1 AMU
B. 10 AMU D. 5 AMU

16. What is the term used to described the amount of energy that is given off
when an electron moves from one orbit to a lower orbit?
A. Valency C. Fusion
B. Quantum D. Fission

17. What refers to a metal combined with one or more other elements?
A. Mixture C. Alloy
B. Compound D. Molecule

18. What refers to chemically combined elements with definite proportions

of the component elements?
A. Mixture C. Compound
B. Molecule Alloy

19. What refers to a physical blend of two or more substances?

A. Molecule C. Alloy
B. Mixture D. Compound

20. What is the smallest part of a compound that still retains the properties of that
compound?
A. Allloy C. Molecule
B. Elements D. Unit cell
21. When a solid has a crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures
called .
A. Lattice C. Crystal
B. Unit cell D. Domain

22. What type of bonding refers to the sharing of electrons?

A. Covalent bonding C. Metallic bonding
B. Van der waals bonding D. Ionic bonding

23. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic

Misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?
A. Discrystallization C. Slip step
B. Dislocation D. Dispertion

24. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in
fiber form?
A. Metalloids C. Metal lattices
B. Matrix alloys D. Metal matrix composites

25. What is the usual valence of nonmetallic elements?

A. 5 C. 7
B. 6 D. All of the choices

26. Metalloids have a valence of ________.

A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D, unity

27. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Metalloid C. Inert
B. Matrix composite D. Ceramics

28. What do you call an atom that has lost or gain an electron?
A. Ion C. Hole
B. Cat ion D. Neutron

29. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros”
which means__________.
A. Metal C. Part
B. Material D. Plastic

30. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called_______.
A. Polyvinyl chloride C. Polyethylene
B. Polymers D. Mers
31. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the
Components materials do not have by themselves?
A. Compound C. Mixture
B. Composite D. Matrix

32. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering
materials?
A. Periodic table C. Building blocks of Materials
B. Truth table Structure of Materials

33. Who has been accepted as the author of the periodic table which was developed
chemists in the mid-nineteenth century?

A. Vickers C. Rockwell
B. Knoop D.Mendeleev

34. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies
on heating or solidifies on cooling?

A. Melting point C. Refractive index

B. Curie point D. Specific heat

35. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?
A. Melting point C. Thermal expansion
B. Thermal conductivity D. Curie point

36. What is the ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to its velocity in another material?
A. Refractive index C. Density
B. Poisson ratio D. Mach Number
37. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced
in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

A. Dielectric strength C. Water absorption

B. Electric resistivity D. Thermal conductivity

38. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogenous material under steady-state conditions, per unit area, per unit temperature
gradient in a direction perpendicular to area?

A. Thermal expansion C. Heat distortion temperature

B. Thermal conductivity D. Water absorption

39. What is the absolute value of the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial
strain in a body subjected to uniaxial stress?
 A. Poisson’s ratio C. Reflective index
B. Euler’s ratio D. Dielectric index

40. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage)
that an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without
occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk?

A. Thermal expansion C. Dielectric strength

B. Conductivity D. Electric resistivity

41. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to
raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1. Degree to the heat required to
raise the same mass of water to 1 degree?

A. Specific Heat C. Heat of fusion

B. Latent Heat D. Heat of fission

42. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

A. Curie temperature C. Heat distortion temperature

B. Specific heat D. Thermal Conductivity

43. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a
tension test at constant load and constant temperature?

A. Creep strength C. Compressive yield strength

B. Stress capture strength D. Hardness

44. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

A. Rigidity C. Ductility
B. Plasticity D. Hardness

45. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell harness test?

A. 10 mm ball C. 1.6 mm diameter ball

B. 120⁰ diamond (brale) D. 20⁰ needle

46. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops
below some predetermined value, usually 15 ft-lb?

A. Ni ductility temperature C. Thermal conductivity

B. Curie temperature D. Heat distortion temperature

47. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?
A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material
C. Creep
 D. All of the choices
48. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?

A. Lay C. Camber
B. Out of flat D. Waviness

49. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect
surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface
roughness?

A. Lay C. Surface finish

B. Waviness D. Out of flat

50. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called___________.
A. plastic C. mer
B. lignin D. additive
51. What is polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing
two different monomers?

A. Copolymerization C. Alloying
B. Blending D. Cross-linking

52. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”?

A. Polyacetals C. Cellulose
B. Polyamide D. Polyester

53. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _________ elongation in tensile test
and is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is
removed.

A. 100% C. 200 %
B. 150% D. 250%

54. What is a method of forming polymer sheets of firms into three dimensional shapes, in
which the sheets is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in
contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

A. Calendering C. Thermoforming
B. Blow molding D. Solid phase forming

55. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a
metal die?

A. Calendering C. Lithugraphv
B. Thermoforming D.Extrusion

56. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?
 A. Stereospecificity C. Conductivity
B. Corrosion resistance D. Electrical resistance

57. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to form with an
ordered, spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

A. Stereospecificity C. Retentivity
B. Conductivity D.Spatial configuration

58. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area
of the test bar?

A. Tensile strength C. Shear strength

B. Yield strength D. Flexural strength

59. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within is elastic range?

A. Poissson’s ratio C. Modulus of elasticity

B. Refractive index D. Percent elongation

60. What is a measure of rigidity?

A. Stiffness C. Strength
B. Hardness D. Modulus of elasticity

61. EE Board April 2001

The greatest stress which material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called_________. .

A. Elongation C. Yield point

B. Proportional limit D. Elastic limit

62. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

A. Tensile strength C. Yield strength

B. Shear strength D. Flexural strength

63. What is the amount of energy required top fracture a given volume of material?

A. impact strength C. Creep strength

B. Endurance strength D. Stress rupture strength

64. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain

under stress?

A. Elongation C. Creep
B. Elasticity D. Rupture
65. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures
within the gage length is called .

A. Percent elongation C. Elasticity

B. Creep D. Elongation

66. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

A. Hardness C. Creepage
B. Stiffness D. Rigidity

67. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

A. Endurance state C. Endurance limit

B. Endurance test D. Endurance strength

68. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

A. Conductor C. Magnet
B. Semiconductor D. All of the choices

69. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

A. Steel C. Lodestone
B. Magnesia D. Soft iron

70. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials

B. Non-magnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials

71. What materials has permeabilities slighter greater than that of free space?

A. Paramagnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials

B. Non-magnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials

72. Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities?

A. Paramagnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials

B. Non-magnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials

73. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

A. A370 C. E292
B. D638 D.C674

74. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastics?

A. D638 C. D790
B. D695 D. D732
75. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastic?

A. D732 C. D695
B. D790 D.638

76. What is the ASTM tension testing designated for standard methods for steel products?

A. A370 C. E8
B. E345 D. C674

77. What is defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic
substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and at some stage in
its manufactured or in it’s processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?

A. Metal C. Plastic
B. Metalloid D. Ceramic

78. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called ____.

A. Metallic bond C. Cross linking bond

B. Van der waals bond D. Covalent Bond

79. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another
polymer?

A. Homopolymer C. Polyethylene
B. Ethenic polymer D. Copolymer

80. EE Board April 2001

A large molecule with two alternating mers is known as?

A. Monomer C. Mers
B. Elastomer D. Copolymer or interpolymer

81. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

A. Vulcanizer C. Polychloroprene
B. Elasticmer D. Elastomer

82. What is defined as an iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted with certain
concentration limits?

A. Steel C. Cast iron

B. Wrought iron D. Tendons

83. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of
steel from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?
A. Vacuum arc refining (VAR) C. Electron beam refining
B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM) D. Electroslag refining

84. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal’s is poured down a tundish
(chute) into an ingot mold?

A. Electroslag refining C. Vacuum induction melting

B. Vacuum arc remelting D. Electron beam refining

85. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

A. Alloy steel C. Galvanized steel

B. Stainless steel D. Carbon steel

86. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?

A. Austenite C. Hyper-eutectoid
B. Eutectoid D. Stainless steel

87. EE Board September 2003

What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?

A. Group S C. Group O
B. Group W D. Group T

88. EE Board April 2001

What group of steel are molybdenum high-speed steels?

A. Group A C. Group M
B. Group D D. Group H

89. EE Board April 2003

Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high
hardness and hard strength are known as?

A. Medium-carbon steel C. Very high-carbon steel

B. Low-carbon steel D. High-carbon steel

90. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with_____.

A. Carbon C. Zinc
B. Sulfur D. Nickel

91. low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for nonstructural
application is classified as_____.

A. Merchant quality C. Drawing quality

 B. Commercial quality D. Special quality

92. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steel is known as _____.

A. Tempering C. Machining
B. Picking D. Galvanizing

93. EE Board 2001

The purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying is to?

A. Increase brittleness
B. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness
C. Reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
D. Increase corrosion and resistance

94. Indicate the false statement.

A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron.

B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it too weak and soft.
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount carbon (less than
2%)
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron thermochemical reaction in a blast
furnace or direct reduction vessel.

95. What does AISI stands for?

A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries

B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries
D. American Iron and Steel Institute

96. What does SAE stands for?

A. Society of Automotive Engineers

B. Society of American Engineers
C. Society of Architects and Engineers
D. Society of Alloy Engineers

97. What does ASTM stands for?

A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials

B. American Society for Testing and Materials
C. Asian society for Testing and Materials
D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

98. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?
 A. E C. X
B. H D. B

99. What prefix steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

A. E C. X
B. H D. B

100. What letter suffix in steel identification means that It is steel in boron as an alloying
element?

A. xxLxx C. xxHxx
B. xxBxx D. xxKxx

101. What do you call tin mill steel without a coating?

A. White plate C. Black plate

B. Tin steel free D.Dichromate

102. EE Board April 2001

What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance,
and high strength at red heat temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating/

A. Aluminum bronze C. Hastelloy

B. Nichrome D. Alnico

103. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?

A. 10% C. 25%
B. 20% D. 5%

104. EE Board September 2003

What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the steel?

A. Deorizers C. Deterrent
B. Deoxidizers D.Detoxifiers

105. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloys?

A. Gray iron C. White iron

B. Malleable iron D. Alloy iron

106. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

A. Gray iron C. White iron

B. Malleable iron D. Ductile iron
107. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

A. Gray iron C. White iron

B. Ductile iron D. Malleable iron

108. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?

A. Gray iron C. Alloy iron

B. Ductile iron D. Malleable iron

109. EE Board September 2003

The effect of manganese in cast iron is to?

A. Effect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending of form

B. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above
0.5%
C. Dioxide molten cast iron
D. Increase fluidility and lower melting temperature

110. EE board April 2003

The effect of aluminum in cast iron is to?

A. Increase hardness above 0.5%

B. Dioxide molten cast iron
C. Effect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending of form
D. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

111. EE board April 2003

The effect of silicon in cast iron is to?

A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness
above 0.5%
B. Increase fluidility and lower melting temperature
C. Soften iron and increase ductility below 3.25%, hardens iron above 3.25% and
increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%
D. Dioxide molten cast iron

112. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth’s crust is
iron?

A. 10% C. 20%
B. 5% D. 8%

113. What is advantage of quench hardening?

A. Improve strength C. Wear characteristics

B. Hardness D. All of the above
114. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a
quench?

A. Carburizing C. Nitriding
B. Tempering D. Heat-treating

115. The following statements are true except one, which one?

A. Carburizing does not harden a steel

B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

116. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

A. Heating to the proper temperature

B. Sufficient carbon content
C. Adequate quench
D. All of the Choice

117. What fields of study encompass the procurement and production of metals?

A. Metallurgy C. Material Science

B. Geology D. Metalgraphy

118. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?

A. Hematite C. Gangue
B. Magnetite D. Ore

119. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?

A. Tuyere C. Diamond
B. Coke D. Hematite

120. What is the common alloying ingredient in copper?

A. Brass C. Nickel
B. Zinc D. Aluminum

121. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near
the surface of a part is increased?

A. Carburizing C. Normalizing
B. Annealing D. Martempering

122. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower
critical temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?

A. Normalizing C. Carburizing
 B. Spheroidizing D. Tempering

123. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a
definite composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?

A. Pearlite C. Austernite
B. Eutectoid D. Delta solid solution

124. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

A. Sulfur C. Silicon
B. Phosphorus D. Manganese

125. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes
unworkable at high temperature?

A. Sulfur C. Manganese
B. Silicon D. Phosphorous

126. what is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be

casehardened is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to be
about 1000°F?

A. Annealing C. Carburizing
B. Normalizing D. Nitriding

127. What is the process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficient high carbon
content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?

A. Cyaniding C. Flame hardening

B. Nitriding D. Induction hardening

128. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?

A. Boron C. Graphite
B. Ceramic D. Glass fiber

129. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of ________.

A. ion C. proton
B. electron D. anode

130. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to the
metal?

A. Oxidation C. Reduction
B. Corrosion D. Ionization

131. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode C. At the electrode
B. At the cathode D. At both anode and cathode

132. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anode C. At the electrode

B. At the cathode D. At both cathode and anode

133. What do you call fluid that conducts electricity?

A. Electrolyte C. Solution
B. Water D. Acid

134. The_______ of an environment serves as measure of the strength of acids or bases.

A. pH measurement C. passivity
B. humidity D. impurities

135. What is the pH value for a neutral solution?

A. 3 C. 7
B. 5 D. 9

136. The solution with pH from 1 to 6 are ____.

A. Base C. Neutral
B. Alkaline D. Acid

137. The solutions with pH values from 7 to 12 are_____.

C. Base C. Neutral
D. Alkaline D. Acid

138. “pH” stands for ____.

A. Positive helium ion C. Polyhelium

B. Positive hydrogen ion D. Polyhydrate

139. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

A. Cracking C. Cavitation
B. Pitting D. Erosion

140. What do you call removal of zinc from brasses?

A. Dezincification C. Stabilization
B. Graphitization D. Dealloying

141. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

A. Expoliation C. Scaping
B. Corrosion fatigue D. Fretting

142. What corrosion occurs under organic coating on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

A. Stray current corrosion C. Filiform corrosion

B. Microbiological corrosion D. Fretting corrosion

143. What refer to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small
amplitude (20 to 100 um) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

C. Stray current corrosion C. Filiform corrosion

D. Microbiological corrosion D. Fretting corrosion

144. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not
good conductors of electricity
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

145. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ____
percent.

A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 1% to 5%

146. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

A. 12% to 18% C. 16% to 20%

B. 10% to 12% D. 20% to 24%

147. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low alloy steels.
B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat
C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity
D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

148. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

149. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as ____ times that of carbon
steel.

A. 5 C. 10
 B. 6 D. 15

150. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

A. Casting C. Forming
B. Molding D. All of the above

151. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

A. Water-cooled metal cavities

B. Machined metal holding blocks
C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (maching halves)

152. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite?

A. Ductile iron C. gray iron

B. wrought iron D. white iron

153. What is a process for making glass-reinforcement shapes that can be generated by
pulling resin-impregnated glass strands through a die?

A. Continues pultrusion C. Vacuum bag forming

B. Bulk molding D. Resin transfer molding

154. What is natural substance that makes up a significant portion of all plant life?

A. Cellulose C. Polycarbonate
B. Polycetal D. Polyimides

155. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction
products of alcohols and acids?

A. Alkaline C. Alcocids
B. Alkydes D. Aldehyde

156. 138. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

A. 13XX C. 25XX
B. 23XX D. 31XX

157. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?

A. 13XX C. 23XX
B. 31XX D.12XX

158. The group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

A. 600°C to 1100°C C. 1100°C to 1500°C

B. 1000° to 1500°C D. 200° to 800°C
159. The following are primary alloying ingredients of group H steels except.

A. Molybdenum C. Cobalt
B. Tungsten D. Chromium

160. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

A. 0.10 C. 0.30
B. 0.20 D. 0.40

161. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

A. 0.15 to 0.30 C. 0.30 to 0.45

B. 0.05 to 0.15 D. 0.45 to 0.60

163. The wear resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _________, that is, the
hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

A. Cold harden C. Cool-temperature resistant

B. Stress harden D. Strain harden

164. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of
chromium?

A. 4 to 8 C. 11 to 17
B. 9 to 10 D. 17 to 21

165. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so
that it will become hard?

A. Carburizing C. Annealing
B. Case hardening D. Surface hardening

166. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?

A. Malleability C. Spheroidability
B. Hardenability D. Rigidity

167. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

A. 1000°F C.1666°F
B. 1333°F D. 1222°F

168. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee
of the curve?

A. Pearlite C. Austenite
B. Bainite D.Martensite
169. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room
temperature to 1670°F?

A. Beta iron C. Delta iron

B. Gamma iron D. Alpha iron

170. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above .

A. 770°C C. 660°C
B. 550°C D. 440°C

171. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000°F for up to 100 hours in
an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

A. Nitriding C. Precipitation hardening

B. Flame hardening D. Carburizing

172. What is the chief ore of tin?

A. Cassiterite C. Limanite
B. Bauxite D. Galena

173. What is the chief ore of zinc?

A. Cassiterite C. Limanite
B. Bauxite D. Galena

174. What is the chief ore of titanium?

A. Sphalerite C. Bauxite
B. Limanite D. Cassiterite

175. What is a mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

A. Bauxite C. Galena
B. Rutile D. Sphalerite

176. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designated any alloy
primarily _____and______.

A. Copper and zinc C. Copper and aluminum

B. Aluminum and iron D. Zinc and nickel

177. The term “bronze” is used to designated any alloy containing:

A. Copper and zinc C. Copper and nickel

B. Copper and aluminum D. Copper and tin

178. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What
does the first digit indicates?
 A. The purity of aluminum C. The alloy group
B. The identity of the alloy D. The strength of the alloy

179. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit
represents?

A. The purity of aluminum C. The alloy group

B. The identity of the alloy D. The strength of the alloy
180. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the
number indicates what condition of the alloy?

A. As fabricated C. Annealed
B. Strain hardened D. Artificially aged

181. The following alloys are bthe chief alloys that are die-cast except:

A. Zinc alloys C. Manganese alloys

B. Magnesium alloys D. Aluminum alloys

182. What is the minimum tensile strength of gray cast iron class 50?

A. 25000 lbf/in² C. 50000 lbf/in²

B. 35000 lbf/in² D. 100000 lbf/in²

183. What is the carbon content of wrought iron/

A. Less than 0.1 percent

B. Exactly 0.1 percent
C. More than 0.1 percent
D. Ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

184. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

A. 10% C. 18%
B. 14% D. 22%

185. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called
________.

A. Yellow brass C. Muntz metal

B. Red brass D. White brass

186. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

A. 10% C. 20%
B. 15% D. 25%

187. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

 A. 20% C. 30%
B. 50% D. 40%

188. Indicate the false statement.

A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.

B. Silicon bronzes are usually use for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
C. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

189. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

A. Aluminum C. Iron
B. Steel D. Copper

190. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.

A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.

B. Is has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.
C. It has high strength-to-weight radio.
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity

191. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?

A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

B. Improve conductivity
C. Lowers castability
D. Improves machinability

192. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

A. Increases strength up to about 12%

B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability
D. Increases fluidity in casting

193. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal
for permanent magnets?

A. Invar and Nilvar

B. Nichorme and Constantan
C. Elinvar and Invar
D. Alnico and Cunife

194. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except.

A. Lime C. Alumina
B. Silica D. Asphalt
195. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear
region in the stress-strain diagram?

A. Modulus of elasticity C. Secant modulus

B. Proportionality limit D. Tangent modulus

196. What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding strain?

A. Poisson`s ratio C. Resilience

B. Ductility D. Fatigue

197. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

A. Jominy end-quench test C. Gibb`s phase test

B. The lever rule D. Stress relief test

198. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite into
pearlite?

A. Tempering C. Annealing
B. Normalizing D. Spheroidizing

199. What is another term for tempering?

A. Recrystallization C. Spheroidizing
B. Annealing D. Drawing or toughening

200. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?

A. Carburizing C. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening D. Annealing