NEET (Pre-Medical)

Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 03 December 2023 Maximum Marks: 720

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(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
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(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09 | 03 December 2023

Physics: - Full Syllabus Class 11.

Chemistry: - Full Syllabus Class 11 (Physical & Inorganic).

Biology: - Botany: Full Syllabus Class 11

Zoology: Full Syllabus Class 11 Except Neural
and Chemical Control.
 PART-A: PHYSICS (3) 5 km/h (4) 10 3 km / h
SECTION-A
1. The position of a particle moving along 5. A particle moves in x-y plane according
x-axis varies with time t as 4x + t = 4. to the law v = 3y2ˆi + 2xjˆ . The equation of
2

At what position, the particle is at rest?

trajectory is.
(1) x = 4 (2) x = –2
(1) 3y2 = 2x
(3) x = 1 (4) x = 2
y 4 x3
(2) − = constatnt
2. Figure shows a quarter circle. A particle 3 4
moves from B to O with 5 m/s, from O to y 4 x3
(3) − = constatnt
A with 7 m/s. With what speed the 3 3
particle should move from A to B so that
(4) x2 − y3 = constant
average speed for total journey is 6 m/s?
6. A block has been placed on an inclined
plane. The slope angle  of the plane is
such that the block slides down the
plane at a constant speed. The
coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to
210 210
(1) m/s (2) m/s (1) sin (2) cos
4 4
35 − 31 − (3) cot (4) tan
 
210 205 7. A block of mass m is constrained to
(3) m/s (4) m/s
  move inside a ring of radius R which is
38 − 35 −
4 4 fixed on a horizontal smooth table. At
time t = 0, block is moving along the
3. The relation between acceleration and
inside of the ring (i.e., in the tangential
velocity for a body moving in straight line
direction) with velocity v0. The
is a  v3. Choose incorrect option. (x is
coefficient of friction between the block
position and t is time)
and the ring is . Then the speed of the
1
(1) t (2) x2  t block at time t is
v2
v0 v0
1 1 (1) (2)
(3) a 2  (4) x  R + v0 t  v 0 t 
t3 v2 1+ 
 R 
4. A man running at speed of 5 km/h finds
v0 v 0R
the rain hitting his head vertically but he (3) (4)
v 0 t 1 + v 0 t
has to hold the umbrella at 30° with 1−
R
vertical while at rest. The speed of rain
is 8. A block of mass 2 kg is pulled along a
(1) 5 3 km / h (2) 10 km/h horizontal surface by applying a force at

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09 1

 an angle 30° with the horizontal. If the fragments, one going vertically upwards
block travels with a uniform velocity and with a velocity of 50 m/s, the second
has a displacement 115 cm and the one falling vertically downwards with a
coefficient of friction is 0.15, then the velocity of 50 m/s. The third fragment
work done by the applied force is will be moving with a velocity of
(1) 3.2 J (2) 320 J (1) 300 m/s in the horizontal direction
(3) 32 J (4) 0.32 J (2) 260 m/s in the direction making an
angle of 30° with the horizontal
9. A body of radius R and radius of gyration
(3) 300 m/s in the direction making an
K (about axis of rotation) is rolling
angle of 30° with the horizontal
without slipping. The fraction of its
(4) 260 m/s in the horizontal direction
kinetic energy is in form of rotational
kinetic energy is. 13. A and B are two loops made from same
K2
K 2 wire. The radii of A and B are r1 and r2
(1) 1 + (2)
R2 R + K2
2
and their moment of inertia about same
R 2
R 2 axes are l1 and l2.
(3) 1 + (4)
K2 K + R2
2
l1 1 r
If = then the value of 2 is
l2 4 r1
10. A motor of power P1 is used to deliver
water at a certain speed through a given 1 1
(1) 2
(2) 2
horizontal pipe. To increase the speed of (4) 3
( 2) 3

water through the same pipe three

2 2
times, the power of the motor is (3) 43 (4) 23
increased to P2. Then the ratio of P2 to P1
14. A wheel having moment of inertia 3 kg-
is
m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the
(1) 27 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
rate of 30 rpm about this axis. The
(3) 12 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
torque which can stop the wheel's
11. If linear density of a rod of length 4 m rotation in one minute would be
varies as =  = 4 + x, then the position  
(1) Nm (2) Nm
Of the centre Of gravity of the rod is 15 20
12 20 2 
(1) m (2) m (3) Nm (4) Nm
7 9 20 18
10 7
(3) m (4) m 15. The ratio of the density and pressure of
3 3
a fixed mass of an ideal gas is "5" at
12. A cannon ball is fired with a velocity of 10°C. Then this ratio at 110° is
100 m/s at an angle of 30° with the (1) 3.69 (2) 5
horizontal. At the highest point of its (3) 8.46 (4) 6.76
flight it explodes into three equal

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09 2

16. A mixture of n1 moles of diatomic gas (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 1
and n2 moles of monatomic gas has = (3) 3:1 (4) 1 : 3
Cp 3
== , then 21. If a spring of force constant 'k' is cut
Cv 2
into two parts, such that one part is
(1) 2n1 = 3n2 (2) n1 = n2
thrice in length of the other part. Then
(3) n2 = 3n1 (4) 3n1 = 2n2
the force constant of each part are
17. The velocity of four gas molecules are 3k 4k
(1) , 4k (2) , 4k
given by 1 km/s, 2 km/s, 6 km/s and 8 4 3
km/s respectively. The rms velocity is A. 1 4k 2k
(3) k, (4) , 3k
105 105 4 3 3
(1) (2)
17 2 22. Moment of inertia of a ring about its
105 17 diametric axis is l. Two such rings are
(3) (4)
4 4 welded as shown in figure. The new
moment of inertia about XX axis is
18. The graph of pressure and temperature
for an ideal gas is as shown in figure. The
given process is

(1) 6l (2) 3l
(3) 2l (4) l/2

23. When a constant power is delivered to

(1) Isothermal (2) Isobaric
an object initially at rest, then the graph
(3) Isochoric (4) Adiabatic
between velocity and position of the
19. A particle of mass 0.2 kg executes SHM object is (motion of object is along x-
under a force of F = – 20 x N. If speed of axis)
particle at mean position is 12 m/s then
the amplitude of oscillations is
(1) 0.6 m (2) 1.2 m (1) (2)
(3) 6 cm (4) 12 cm

20. If two SHMs are represented by

equations
(3) (4)

24. Coefficient of linear expansion of a

substance along three mutually
then the ratio of their amplitudes is
perpendicular direction are 1 x 105/°C,

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09 3

 2 x 105/°C and 3 x 105/°C. The coefficient performs pure rolling along right
of cubical expansion of the substance is direction, then frictional force acting on
(1) 6  10 / C
5
(2) 2  10 / C
5 the sphere is

(3) 1.5  105 / C (4) 3  105C

25. Figure shown below is a graph of a

monoatomic gas which undergoes a
(1) In forward direction
cyclic process. If work done by gas in
(2) In backward direction
process BC is x, the heat absorbed in
(3) Zero
process CA is
(4) Can't be predicted

28. Two bodies of 5 kg and 4 kg are tied to a

string as shown in the fig. If the table
and pulley both are smooth, acceleration
of 5 kg body will be equal to-

(1) x ln2 (2) –x ln2

x −x
(3) (4)
ln2 ln2

26. A car starts from rest at time t = 0 and (1) g (2) g/4
its a-t graph is shown in figure. A coin is (3) 4g/9 (4) 5g/9
initially at rest on the floor of the car. At 29. A car is moving on a circle of radius 60
t = 1 s the coin begins to slip and it stops m and it's speed is increasing at a rate
slipping at t = 3 s. The coefficient of 8 m/sec . Then find net acceleration of
static friction between the floor and the car at the instant, when it's speed is 108
coin is (g = 10 m/s2) km/hr.
(1) 8 m/sec2 (2) 8 2m / sec2
(3) 17m / sec2 (4) 23 m / sec2

30. The force acting on a body moving along

x axis varies with the position of the
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4 particle as shown in the fig. The body is
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.2 in stable equilibrium at

27. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is

on a rough surface as shown in figure.
Two forces having magnitude 2F and F
are applied as shown. If the sphere

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 (1) x = x1 (2) x = x2
(3) both x1 and x2 (4) neither x1 nor x2

31. A ball is thrown from a height of h metre

with an initial downward velocity v0. It
hits the ground, loses half of its kinetic
(1) kmg sin  (2) smg cos 
energy and bounces back to the same
height. The value of v0 is mg
(3) (4) mg
cos 
(1) 2gh (2) gh
SECTION-B
(3) 3gh (4) 2.5gh
36. Work done for the cyclic process ABCA as
32. Two particle of 10 g and 40 g are moving shown above is
with same kinetic energy. The ratio of
the their linear momentum will be :
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2:1 (4) 1 : 2
1
(1) PV (2) −4P0 V0
33. Two particles of equal masses are revolving 2 0 0
in circular paths of radii r1 and r2 respectively 1
(3) 2P0 V0 (4) − P0 V0
with same speed. Ratio of their centripetal 2
forces is 37. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another
(1) r2 : r1 (2) r2 : r1 body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being
pulled by a string with an acceleration of 2.2
(3) r12 : r22 (4) r22 : r12
m/s2. The tension T1 will be (Take g = 9.8
34. A ball is thrown horizontally with a speed 20 m/s2)
m/s. After what time it is moving at 45° with
the horizontal?
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 2s

35. A block is set stationary on a rough inclined (1) 200 N (2) 220 N
plane as shown in the figure above, where (3) 240 N (4) 260 N
the symbols have their usual meanings.
38. A given system undergoes a change in which
Which one of the following is the net force the work done by the system equals the
exerted by the inclined plane on the block? decrease in its internal energy. System must
have undergone an
(1) isothermal change (2) adiabatic change
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 (3) isobaric change (4) isochoric change displacement of the stone from point of
release after 10 s is
39. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that
(1) 490 m (2) 510 m
its velocity varies as v =  s , where  is a
(3) 610 m (4) 725 m
constant and ‘s’ is the distance traversed. The
total work done by all the forces acting on 44. The variation of the ‘applied force’ with the
locomotive during the first ‘t’ second after distance moved along a straight line is shown
the start of motion is in the figure. If body was at rest intiallly, its
1 1 kinetic energy at a distance of 4 m is given by
(1) m4 t 2 (2) m4 t 2
2 4
1 1
(3) m 4 t 2 (4) m 4 t 2
8 9

40. A light string passing over a smooth light

pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and
m2 hanging vertically. If the acceleration of
(1) 8 J (2) 10 J
the blocks is g/8 then the ratio of the masses
(3) 12 J (4) 14 J
is
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 9 : 7 45. A particle is executing SHM according to the
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 5 : 3 equation x = A sin t. Average speed of the
(1) (2) 
particle during the interval 0  t  .
6
41. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way
that its coordinate ‘x’ varies with time ‘t’ 3A 3A
(1) (2)
2 4
according to the equation x = (2 – 5t + 6t2) m.
3A
The initial velocity of the particle is (3) (4) (2 − 3)A

(1) –5 m/s (2) 6 m/s
(3) –3 m/s (4) 3 m/s 46. A ball ‘A’ is thrown upward from ground and
another ball ‘B’ is dropped from certain
42. A body of mass ‘m’ moves with a velocity ‘v’
height at same time. Relative acceleration of
on a surface whose frictional coefficient is .
ball A with respect to the ball B is
If body covers total distance ‘s’ before
(1) g (2) 2 g
stopping, then v will be
(3) zero (4) keeps changing
(1) 2gs (2) gs
47. A uniform meter scale is balanced at the 50
(3) gs / 2 (4) 3gs
cm mark. A weight of 10 gm is suspended
43. A stone falls from a balloon that is from the 10 cm mark. The weight that should
descending at a uniform rate of 12 m/s. The be suspended at 70 cm mark to balance the
scale is
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 PART-B: CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Which of the following has highest
number of atoms? (Atomic mass of Ag =
(1) 15 gm (2) 30 gm
108 u)
(3) 20 gm (4) 40 gm
(1) 2 g of butane (C4H10)
Fv 3 (2) 2 g of nitrogen
48. A physical quantity X is defined as X = ,
P (3) 2 g of silver
where F is force, v is speed and P is pressure. (4) 2 g of water
Then the dimensions of X are 52. Choose the incorrect match regarding
(1) M–1 L4 T1 (2) M1 L0 T2 equivalent weight
(3) M0 L5 T–3 (4) M–2 L3 T2 (1) Acid: H3PO2; Equivalent wt.: M
(2) Acid: H3PO4; Equivalent wt.: M/3
49. Which of the following graphs is NOT possible (3) Acid: H3BO3; Equivalent wt.: M/3
for one dimensional motion of a particle? (4) Acid: H2SO4; Equivalent wt.: M/2

53. The molarity of NaN03 solution is 1M. The

(1) (2) density of solution is 1.20 g/mL. Molality
of same solution is (mol. mass of NaNO3
= 85 g/mol)
(3) (4) All of these (1) 0.24 m (2) 3m
(3) 0.89 m (4) 0.1 m

50. A point mass ‘m’, suspended from a point O 54. Bohr's atomic model could not explain
by a light thread of length L, is whirled in a (i) Zeeman & Stark effect
horizontal circle at constant speed as shown. (ii) Spectrum of multielectronic species
(iii) Transition of electron in H-atom
At the position shown, the forces on the
(1) (i) & (iii) (2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
mass, as seen from the ground, are
(3) only (i) (4) (i) & (ii)

55. Which of the following set of quantum

numbers is impossible for an electron in
an atom?
1
(1) n = 1, = 0,m = 0, s = +
2
(1) (2)
1
(2) n = 1, = 2,m = −1, s = −
2
1
(3) n = 2, = 1,m = 0, s = +
2
(3) (4)
1
(4) n = 4, = 2,m = −3, s = −
2

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56. A neutral atom Ar is converted to Ar 3+ by
60. Some solid NH4HS is kept in flask
the following process :
containing NH3 gas at 0.5 atm pressure.
E E
Ar(g) ⎯⎯⎯
1
−e
→ Ar + (g) ⎯⎯⎯
2
−e
→ Ar 2+ (g) The pressure of NH3 and H2S at
⎯⎯⎯
3E
→ Ar 3 + (g) equilibrium will be
−e
NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g),
The correct order of E1, E2 and E3
KP = 0.14 atm2
energies are
(1) E1 < E2 < E3 (2) E1 > E2 > E3 (1) PNH = 0.70atm, PH S = 0.20atm
3 2

(3) E1 = E2 = E3 (4) E1 > E2 < E3 (2) PNH = 0.64 atm, PH S = 0.25atm

3 2

57. Which of the following pairs is having (3) PNH = 0.80 atm, PH S = 0.26 atm
3 2
non-zero dipole moment?
(4) PNH = 0.45atm, PH S = 0.32atm
3 2

(1) (2)
61. When 5 mol of an ideal gas expands
from 10 L to 20 L, temperature of the
gas changes from 300 K to 400 K. If the
(3) (4) PCl3F2, PCl2F3
heat capacity Cp of the gas is 4.0 cal
mol-1 K-1, then entropy change (in cal K-1)
58. Which reaction involves a change in of the gas is (log2 = 0.30, log3 = 0.47 and
hybridization of underlined atom? R 2 cal mol-1 K-1)
(1) 9.81 (2) 7.82
(1) BF3 + F− → BF4
(3) 8.26 (4) 4.25
+
(2) H2 O3 + H+ → H3 O
62. Calculate the change in entropy ( r So ) at
− −
(3) PCl5 + Cl → PCl 6
298 K for the reaction in which urea is
(4) Both (1) & (3) formed from NH3 and CO2
59. For the decomposition reaction,
SO2Cl 2 (g) SO2 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
The standard entropy of NH2CONH2(aq),
the equilibrium constant at constant
CO2(g), NH3(g) and H2O(l) are 1740.0,
P2 213.7, 195 and 75 JK-1 mol-1 respectively
temperature is expressed as KP = ,
1 − 2 (1) -354.7 JK-1mol-1 (2) -387 JK-1mol-1
where P is total pressure at equilibrium (3) -390 JK mol
-1 -1
(4) -375 JK-1mol-1
and  is degree of dissociation. Select
63. Arsenic can show oxidation states in the
the correct statement among the
range of
following.
(1) +3 to -5 (2) -3 to +5
(1) Kp decreases with increase in P
(3) +1 to -5 (4) +3 to -3
(2) Kp decreases with decrease in P
(3) Kp decreases with increase in  64. Which compound does not contain any
(4) Kp remains constant with change and atom with zero oxidation state?
 (1) C3O2 (2) Na2S406
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 (3) CaOCl2 (4) C(CH3)4 71. If shortest wavelength in Lyman series of
H-atom be 'x' Å, then the longest
65. Which of the following is redox reaction?
wavelength in Balmer series of would be
(1) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(in Å)
(2) CaC03 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + CO2 + H2O
36x
(3) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 (1) (2) x
5
(4) Cu(OH)2 + 2HCl → CuCl2 + 2H2O
9x 27x
(3) (4)
5 20

66. IUPAC name of the compound is 72. The increasing order of the ionic radii of
(1) 6-Hydroxycyclohex-2-enone the given isoelectronic species is
(2) 2-Hydroxycyclohex-5-enone (1) Cl-, Ca2+, K+, S2- (2) S2-, Cl-, Ca2+, K+
(3) 6-HydroxycycIohex-5-enone (3) S , Cl , K , Ca
2- - + 2+
(4) Ca2+, K+, Cl-, S2-
(4) 2-Hydroxycyclohex-3-enone 73. Graph of radial wave function (R) against
67. 5 g of a piece of marble was treated with distance of electron from nucleus (r) is
excess of dil. HCl. When reaction was given as
complete 448 ml of CO2 was obtained at
STP. The percentage of CaCO3 in the
marble is [Molar mass of CaCO3 = 100
g/mol]
(1) 20% (2) 80%
(3) 60% (4) 40% Which of the following is correct about
68. Percentage of weight by volume of 0.6 M this graph?
AgNO3(aq) (molar mass of AgNO3 = 170 (1) There is one region of negative wave
g/mol) is function in the graph
(1) 17% (2) 10.2% (2) Above graph is for 3s orbital
(3) 8.6% (4) 5.1% (3) There are three regions of high
probability density
69. What will be the molarity of pure ethanol (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
if density of pure ethanol is 789 kg/m3
at 298 K? 74. What electronic transition in Li2+
(1) 17.15M (2) 23 M produces the radiation of same
(3) 11.5 M (4) 5.75 M wavelength as the first line in the Balmer
series of H-spectrum?
70. Law of conservation of mass is not (1) n2 = 3 to n1 = 2 (2) n2 = 6 to n1 = 3
applicable in (3) n2 = 9 to n1 = 6 (4) n2 = 9 to n1 = 8
(1) Physical change
(2) Chemical reaction 75. Correct ratio of KE of electron in ground
(3) Nuclear reaction state of H-atom and 1st excited state of
(4) Both (1) and (3) He+ will be
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
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 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 81. The total value of magnetic quantum number
76. The pH value of 0.20 M solution of for n = 4 :-
CH3NH2 at 298 K is [Given that its (1) 9 (2) 16
ionisation constant Kb is 5.0 x 10-5] (3) 12 (4) None of these
(1) 12.23 (2) 11.50
(3) 10.90 (4) 12.45 82. Which one is linear and having maximum no.
of lone pair :-
77. For the reaction xA C + D, at
(1) C2H2 (2) HCN
equilibrium, it has been found that the
(3) IC (4) CS2
expression for equilibrium constant (Kc)
doesn't have the initial concentration of 83. 10–2 mole of NaOH was added to 10 litre of
A, then the value of x is water. The pH will change by:
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 11 (4) 7
78. Dissociation constant (Ka) of formic acid
84. M(OH)x has KSP 4  10–12 and solubility 10-4 M.
and acetic acid are 2.5 x 10-4 and 0.5 x
Then the value of x is:
10-5 respectively. The ratio of their
relative strengths at the same (1) 1 (2) 2
concentration is (3) 3 (4) -4
(1) 2.09 (2) 7.07 85. The pH of an aqueous solution of 0.1M
(3) 4.26 (4) 6.03
solution of a weak monoprotic acid which is
79. The favourable conditions for the 1% ionised is:
reaction, (1) 1 (2) 2
2H(g) H2(g) are (3) 3 (4) 11
(1) Low temperature, low pressure
(2) High temperature, low pressure SECTION-B
(3) High temperature, high pressure 86. Equal volumes of 1 M each of KMnO4 and
(4) Low temperature, high pressure K2Cr2O7 are used to oxidise Fe(II) solution in
acidic medium. The amount of Fe oxidized
80. For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
will be:
The two reaction constants Kp and Kc are
(1) more with KMnO4
related to each other by the expression :-
(2) equal with both oxidizing agents
Kp
(1) log − log RT = 0 (3) more with K2Cr2O7
Kc
(4) cannot be determined
(2) Kp (RT) = KC
(3) Kp = KC (RT)–1 87. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al,
(4) None of the above and Si are in the order:
(1) Na < Al < Mg < Si (2) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(3) Na < Mg < Al > Si (4) Na > Al > Mg > Si
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88. Atom with Highest electron affinity and 94. The intensive property among these
electro negativity in the periodic table is quantities, is:
(1) Mass (2) Volume
respectively:
(3) Concentration (4) None of these
(1) fluorine, fluorine (2) chlorine, fluorine
(3) chlorine, chlorine (4) None of these 95. Bohr model is applicable to:
(1) He (2) He+
89. In 2HI H2 + I2 , the forward reaction is (3) H +
(4) H–
affected by change in: 96. Oxidation number of O in KO2, H2O2, O2F2
(1) Catalyst (2) Pressure O2 and OF2
(3) Volume (4) None of these (1) –1/2, –1, +1, 0 and +2
90. In the gaseous reaction (2) –1, –1/2, +1, 0 and +2
(3) 2, –1, +1, 0 and +2
A + 2B C + Heat , the forward reaction
(4) –1/2, +3, +1, 0 and +2
is forward by
(1) low temperature and low pressure 97. Shape of SF4 is similar to:
(1) PF4 (2) BF4-
(2) low pressure
(3) XeO2F2 (4) None of these
(3) high temperature and high pressure
(4) high pressure and low temperature 98. Hybridization of S in H2SO4 and Shape of
XeF4 respectively:
91. For the equilibrium
(1) sp and Square planner
MgCO3 ( s) MgO ( s) + CO2 ( g )


(2) sp2 and Triangular planner

which of the following expressions is (3) sp3 and Square planner
correct? (4) sp4 and Pyramidal
PMgO  PCO PMO  PCO 99. In which of the following process does
(1) Kp = 2
(2) Kp = 2

PMgCO PMgCO the entropy decrease?

3 3

(1) dissolving of NaCl in water

[MgO] CO2 
(3) Kp = (4) Kp = PCO (2) evaporation of water
MgCO3  2
(3) conversion of CO2 (g) into dry ice
(4) none
92. What is true for the reaction?
PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) 100. For the reaction,
(1) H = E (2) H > E C7H8(/) +9O2(g) → 7CO2(g) + 4H2O(/) ,
(3) H < E (4) None of these the calculated heat of reaction is 232
kJ/mol and observed heat of reaction is
93. Heat of neutralization of H2C2O4 (oxalic 50.4 kJ/mol, then the resonance energy
acid) is – 26 Kcal/mole. The dissociation is:
energy of H2C2O4 C2O4−2 (1) – 182.2 kJ / mol (2) + 232.2 J / mol
(1) 12.3 Kcal/mole (2) 1.4 Kcal/mole (3) 172 kJ/ mol (4) None
(3) –13.7 Kcal/mole (4) –1.4 Kcal/mole

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 PART-C: BIOLOGY (BOTANY) 107. Match the figures in column I with the type
SECTION-A of placentation in column II.
101. Reproduction and growth are synonymous in Column-I Column-II
(1) Unicellular algae (2) Amoeba
(3) Bacteria (4) All of these (a) (p) Axile
102. Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for
synchronising fruit set in
(1) Cotton (2) Pineapples (b) (q) Free central
(3) Tomatoes (4) Walnut

103. Flowers are zygomorphic in

(1) Tomato (2) Datura (c) (r) Parietal
(3) Chilli (4) Gulmohur

104. Which disease is caused by viroid? (1) a-r, b-p, c-q (2) a-p, b-r, c-q
(1) Cauliflower mosaic (3) a-q, b-r, c-p (4) a-r, b-q, c-p
(2) Potato spindle tuber
108. In five kingdom classification of Whittaker,
(3) Tobacco mosaic
eukaryotes were assigned to
(4) Tulip mosaic
(1) 3 out of 5 kingdoms
105. RQ value for tripalmitin is (2) 2 out of 5 kingdoms
(1) 0.7 (2) more than 1 (3) 4 out of 5 kingdoms
(3) 0.9 (4) zero (4) all the 5 kingdoms

106. Which of the following is incorrect? 109. Photorespiration occurs in C3 plants begins
(1) Bacteria are the sole members of the with
kingdom monera. (1) Glycerate (2) Phosphoglycolate
(2) Compared to many other organisms, (3) OAA (4) Glycine
bacteria as a group show the most 110. Organisms taking energy by the oxidation of
extensive metabolic diversity. reduced inorganic compounds are called
(3) Archaebacteria differ from other (1) Photoautotrophs (2) Chemoautotrophs
bacteria in having a different cell wall (3) Saprophytes (4) Symbiotic
structure and this feature is responsible
111. Excess water is removed in the form of
for their survival in extreme conditions.
droplets through vein endings of leaves by
(4) The cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a
the process called
different from green plants.
(1) Guttation (2) Transpiration
(3) Hydathodes (4) Both (1) and (2)
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112. Which of the following step of TCA cycle 118. Bacteriophage is the name given to
showing substrate level phosphorylation? (1) an organelle of a bacterium
(1) Succinyl CoA → fumarate (2) a virus that infects a bacterium
(2) Succinyl CoA → succinate (3) a bacterium which infects an animal cell
(3) Fumarate → Malate (4) a bacterium that infects higher plant cells
(4) Malate → oxaloacetate
119. Which of the following plant hormone
113. Sac fungi is characterised by all except induces cell division?
(1) Unicellular or multicellular organisms (1) Gibberellin (2) Ethylene
(2) Branched & septate mycelium (3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin
(3) Produce asexual spores called conidia
120. How many ATP will be produced during the
(4) Sex organs are absent
production of two molecules of acetyl CoA
114. One of the following is not an internal factor
from two molecules of pyruvic acid?
affecting transpiration
(1) 3 ATP (2) 6 ATP
(1) Canopy structure (2) Leaf size
(3) 36 ATP (4) 38 ATP
(3) Leaf anatomy (4) Wind velocity
121. Match the fungus in column I with effects in
115. Protonema is
column II.
(1) haploid and is found in mosses
Column I Column II
(2) diploid and is found in liverworts
a. Parasitic p. disease in plants &
(3) diploid and is found in pteriodophytes
(4) haploid and is found in pteridophytes animals
b. Yeast q. white spots on mustard
116. Which of the following is a defining leaf
characteristic of all living organisms?
c. Albugo r. source of antibiotics
(1) Growth
d. Penicillium s. used to make bread and
(2) Ability to make sound
beer
(3) Reproduction
(1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r (2) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(4) Response to external stimuli
(3) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r (4) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
117. One of the main reasons to include
cyanophyceae (cyanobacteria) in prokaryote 122. Respiratory ETC operates in
is (1) Matrix of mitochondria
(1) presence of mucilage sheath (2) Perimitochondrial space
(2) presence of nucleoid (3) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(3) absence of sexuality (4) Cell membrane
(4) absence of flagellation

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123. Which of the following is incorrect? 128. Where does reaction H2O → 2H+ + 1/2O2 +
(1) There is net gain of 36 or 38 ATP 2e– occur during photosynthesis ?
molecule in aerobic respiration. (1) Outer membrane of thylakoids
(2) Fatty acids are broken down to acetyl (2) Inner side of thylakoid membrane
CoA before entering Kreb cycle. (3) Stroma of chloroplasts
(3) The protein without breaking into amino (4) Cytoplasm
acid directly enters Kreb cycle.
129. During alcoholic fermentation
(4) O2 act as final acceptor of hydrogen in
(1) NAD+ is reduced to produce NADH as end
ETC chain.
product
124. Sugarcane stores carbohydrate as sugar in (2) RQ is zero
their stems. Spraying sugarcane crop with (3) O2 is not used but CO2 is liberated
gibberellins increases the length of the stem, (4) Complete breakdown of glucose occur
thus increasing the yield by as much as
130. A group of organisms that freely float
(1) 20 tonnes/acre (2) 10 tonnes/acre passively in water current and its cell
(3) 5 tonnes/acre (4) 2 tonnes/acre walls form two thin overlapping shells
which fit together as a soap box refers
125. Which of the following is not an accessory
to
pigment?
(1) Dinoflagellates
(1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b
(2) Diatoms
(3) Xanthophylls (4) Carotenoids (3) Amoeboid protozoans
126. The photosynthetic carbon reduction cycle (4) Blue green algae

occurs in the presence of products of light 131. Match the following columns and select
reactions like the correct option.
(1) ATP Column I Column II
(2) ATP and NADPH (a) Epiphyllous (i) Stamens attached
(3) ATP, NADPH and O2 to the petals
(4) ATP, NADPH and light (b) Apocarpous (ii) Stamens attached
to the perianth
127. Phaeophyceae differ from Rhodophyceae in (c) Monoadelphous (iii) Carpels are free
having (d) Epipetalous (iv) Stamens are united
(1) cellulose & pectin in cell wall in a single bundle.
(2) cellulose & algin in cell wall (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) reserve food material as floridean starch (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) all of these (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

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132. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at 139. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) zygotene (2) diplotene (1) The gametophyte of Pteris is more
(3) pachytene (4) leptotene developed than that of Polytrichum
133. At metaphase, chromosomes are (2) In Ginkgo, the female gametophyte is
attached to the spindle fibres by their retained on the parent sporophyte
(1) satellites (3) Sexual reproduction in Fucus is
(2) secondary constrictions anisogamous
(3) kinetochores (4) The spores of slime moulds lack cell wall
(4) centromeres
140. Which of the following statements is
134. Concentration of a number of ions and
incorrect about sieve tube elements?
excretory products in the sap vacuoles is
(1) They are long, tube-like structures,
usually
(1) Considerably higher than in cytoplasm
arranged longitudinally and are
(2) Considerably lower than in cytoplasm associated with the companion cells
(3) Always equal to that in cytoplasm (2) Their end walls are perforated in a sieve-
(4) Slightly lower than in cytoplasm like manner to form the sieve plates
(3) Mature sieve element posseses a
135. Porins are not found in
(1) Mitochondria
peripheral cytoplasm and a small
(2) Golgi complex vacuole
(3) Chloroplast (4) The functions of sieve tubes are
(4) Gram -ve bacteria controlled by the nucleus of companion
cells
SECTION-B
136. Who has been called the ‘Darwin of the 20th 141. How many organisms in the list given below
century’? are autotrophs?
(1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Melvin Calvin Salmonella, Cassia, Nitrocystis, Chromatium,
(3) Alfonso Corti (4) Ernst Mayr Spirulina, Albugo, Funaria, Felis, Eucalyptus,
Chara, Alstonia, Equisetum, Nitrosomonas,
137. Most green euglenoids store their Sacharomyces
carbohydrates as (1) 4 (2) 8
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen (3) 9 (4) 10
(3) Cellulose (4) Paramylum
142. Which of the following pair is wrongly
138. Which is a useful product of epidermal matched?
origin? (1) Pinus – archegonia
(1) Jute (2) Cotton (2) Riccia – protonema
(3) Coir (4) Tea (3) Selaginella – microphyll
(4) Viroid – RNA

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 (1) The leaf is a lateral generally flattened
143. Which one of the following is not a
structure borne on the stem
characteristic of sunflower?
(2) It develops at node and bears a bud in its
(1) Vexillary aestivation
(2) Capitulum inflorescence axil
(3) alternate phyllotaxy (3) Leaves originate from lateral meristems
(4) Epigynous flower and are arranged in acropetal order
(4) They are the most important vegetative
144. Under dry conditions, xerophytic species of
organs for photosynthesis
Selaginella role into brown balls, this
phenomenon is known as 148. How many molecules of NADH + H+ and
(1) resurrection FADH + H+ are respectively produced
during the complete oxidation of one
(2) cespitose habit
molecule of pyruvic acid in
(3) organ sui-generis
mitrochondria?
(4) both (2) and (3)
(1) 3 and 1
145. Which of the following is the correct (2) 2 and 2
sequence of phellogen, phelloderm and (3) 8 and 2
(4) 4 and 1
phellem in a plant starting from the
periphery? 149. Complex IV of mitochondria involved in
(1) phelloderm → phellem → phellogen ETS is associated with all except
(2) phellogen → phelloderm → phellem (1) Cytochrome c oxidase
(2) Cytochrome a & a3
(3) phellem → phellogen → phelloderm
(3) Cytochrome bC1
(4) phellem → phelloderm → phellogen
(4) Two copper centres
146. Which of the following is the floral formula of
150. Match the following columns
above floral diagram? Column I Column II
(A) Rudolf Virchow (i) German Botanist
(B) Anton Von (ii) British Zoologist
Leeuwenhoek
(C) Theodor Schwann (iii) Omnis cellula e
cellula
(1) (2) (D) Matthias Schlieden (iv) Living cell
(1) A (iv), B (i), C (iii), D (ii)
(3) (4) none of these
(2) B (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv)
147. Which one of the following is incorrect w.r.t (3) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii)
leaf? (4) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)

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 PART-D: BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY) 156. If Lectins : Concanavalin A :: Toxins :
SECTION-A (1) Monoterpenes (2) Codeine
151. Simple cuboidal epithelium is present in (3) Curcumin (4) Abrin
(1) Trachea
157. Match the columns and choose the
(2) Large bronchi
correct option
(3) Ducts of glands
Column A Column B
(4) Lining of stomach and small intestine
1. Earthworm a. Paurometabolous
152. Read the following statements and 2. Cockroach b. Radula
choose the correct option 3. Star fish c. Mesodermal skeleton
Statement A: Notochord is dorsal to 4. Devil fish d. Hermaphrodite
nerve cord in chordates. (1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
Statement B: Urochordates are (2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
exclusively marine. (3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
(2) Only statement B is correct
158. Given below is a list of tissues
(3) Both the statements are correct
Cartilage, Bone, Areolar tissue, Adipose
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
tissue, Cardiac muscles, Columnar
153. The gap between ‘dub’ and ‘lubb’ in a epithelium, Compound epithelum
normal cardiac cycle is How many belong to solid connective
(1) 0.7 sec (2) 0.5 sec tissue.
(3) 0.3 sec (4) 0.1 sec (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 7
154. Which of the following statement is
incorrect with respect to cellulose ? 159. Which of the following cells and their
(1) Cellulose gives blue colour with functions are incorrectly matched ?
iodine (1) Plasma cells : Produce antibodies
(2) It serves as structural element in (2) Histiocytes : Phagocytosis
plant cell wall (3) Fibroblasts : Secrete leptin hormone
(3) Paper made from plant pulp and (4) Mast cells : Produce histamine,
cotton fibre is cellulosic. heparin and serotonin
(4) It is unbranched polymer of -
160. Which of the following is incorrect with
glucose
respect to ctenophores ?
155. In a nucleic acid, the bond present (1) Exclusively marine
between the phosphate and ribose sugar (2) Have comb plates that help in
is locomotion
(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Hydrogen bond (3) Indirect development
(3) Ester bond (4) Disulphide bond (4) They are dioecious

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161. Which of the following occurs when
166. All of the following are functions of
malonate inhibits succinic
Angiotensin II except
dehydrogenase ?
(1) It causes constriction of arterioles
(1) Km unchanged ; Vmax increased
(2) It stimulates adrenal gland to
(2) Km increased ; Vmax unchanged
release aldosterone
(3) Km decreased ; Vmax unchanged
(3) It stimulates excretion of Na+
(4) Km unchanged; Vmax decreased
(4) Stimulates increase of blood
162. Which of the following is correct match pressure
pair?
167. If the tidal volume of a healthy individual
(1) Echinodermata – Balanoglossus
is 500 ml, dead space volume is 150 ml,
(2) Hemichordata – Echinus
and breathing rate is 12 times/min. The
(3) Urochordata – Amphioxus
alveolar ventilation rate will be
(4) Osteichthyes – Exocoetus
(1) 4.2 lit/min (2) 6 lit/min
163. Which of the following statement is (3) 5 lit/min (4) 7 lit/min
incorrect with respect to cardiac cycle?
168. Listed below are few conditions
(1) Atrial diastole and ventricular
(i) High pO2
diastole overlap each other partiall
(ii) High H+ concentration
(2) 20% of the ventricular filling occurs
(iii) High pH
during atrial systole
(iv) High 2, 3 BPG [Bisphospho glyceric
(3) When ventricular diastole occurs,
acid]
the ventricular pressure falls,
(v) Low pCO2
causing closure of semi-lunar valves
How many of these factors will shift the
(4) During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle
oxygen dissociation curve to right?
pumps out 70 ml of blood
(1) 3 (2) 4
164. Which of the following heart diseases (3) 2 (4) 1
may be caused due to congestion of
169. Which of the following shows
lungs?
ammonotelism?
(1) Coronary artery disease
(1) Reptiles (2) Spiders
(2) Heart attack
(3) Tadpole (4) Frog
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) Heart failure 170. Which of the following is a correct
difference w.r.t general features of
165. Minimum reabsorption occurs in which
cartilaginous and bony fishes?
part of nephron ?
(1) Cartilaginous fish : Cycloid scales;
(1) PCT
Bony fish : Placoid scales
(2) DCT
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
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 (2) Cartilaginous fish : Swim bladder 174. What would be the immediate result, if
present; Bony fish : Swim bladder the chordae tendineae of mitral valves
absent are cut?
(3) Cartilaginous fish : Ammonotelic; (1) Opening and closing of valves
Bony fish : Uricotelic remains unaffected
(4) Cartilaginous fish : Viviparous; Bony (2) Decrease in the flow of blood in
fish : Oviparous pulmonary artery
(3) Decrease in the flow of blood in
171. Which of the following set of animals
aorta
contain dicondylic skull ?
(4) Increase in flow of blood in
(1) Chelone, Columba, Pteropus
pulmonary veins
(2) Bufo, Trygon, Macropus
(3) Pteropus, Macropus, Balaenoptera 175. During muscle contraction
(4) Chameleon, Balaenoptera, Ichthyophis (1) Chemical energy is changed into
mechanical energy
172. Identify the outermost protective layer
(2) Mechanical energy is changed into
of the human kidney from the given
chemical energy
options, which attaches kidney with
(3) Temperature of muscle decreases
abdominal wall.
(4) Hydrolysis of ATP does not occur
(1) Renal capsule (2) Renal calyx
(3) Renal pelvis (4) Renal cortex 176. Read the statements given below and
select the correct option.
173. Read the statements carefully and
a. The number of wrist bones of each
choose the correct option with respect
limb is equal to the number of
to one strand of DNA
cranial bones.
(a) Phosphate moiety in the 5 end gives
b. In humans, 14 facial bones are
acidic nature to nucleotide
present.
(b) 3 end of polynucleotide chain
c. There is one extra phalanx in each
contains free 3–OH group
lower limb than the upper limb.
(c) Nitrogenous bases are projected
(1) a and b are correct while c is
outside of the helices
incorrect
(d) Phosphate moiety is projected
(2) b and c are correct while a is
towards inner side and pentose is
incorrect
projected towards outside of the
(3) a and c are correct while b is
strand
incorrect
(1) Both a and b are correct
(4) a, b and c are correct
(2) c and d are correct
(3) b and c are correct 177. Choose the correct statement w.r.t.
(4) Only d is correct micturition reflex.

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 (1) It is initiated by stretch receptors of Choose the correct option.
ureters. (1) a → c → b → d (2) a → c → d → b
(2) Sympathetic supply causes (3) c → a → d → b (4) c → d → a → b
relaxation of internal urethral
180. Assertion: A portal vein does not carry
sphincter.
blood directly to the heart but forms a
(3) Parasympathetic supply causes
network of capillaries in another or
relaxation of urinary bladder
intermediate organ before reaching the
muscles.
heart.
(4) CNS passes on motor messages to
Reason: Two portal systems are present
initiate relaxation of urethral
in humans.
sphincters.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
178. Choose the correct match. and the Reason is the correct
(1) Psittacula and Neophron – Air sacs explanation of the Assertion
connected to lungs to supplement (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
respiration but the Reason is not the correct
(2) Ornithorhynchus and Pteropus – explanation of the Assertion
Show external fertilization and (3) Assertion is true statement but
viviparity Reason is false
(3) Chelone and Testudo – Poikilotherms (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
with external fertilization statements
(4) Physalia and Ctenoplana –
181. Assertion (A): SAN is called the
exclusively marine with
pacemaker of the heart.
bioluminiscence and sexual
Reason (R): SAN generates the maximum
reproduction only
number of action potentials, and is
179. Arrange the events which occur during responsible for initiating and maintaining
muscle contraction. the rhythmic contractile activity of the
a. Action potential causes the release heart.
of Ca 2+
ions into the sarcoplasm. Choose the correct answer from the
b. Activated myosin head binds to the options given below.
exposed active sites on actin to form (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
cross bridge. the correct explanation of (A)
c. A neural signal at neuromuscular (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
junction causes the release of ACh not the correct explanation of (A)
which generates action potential. (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
d. Increase in Ca2+ levels leads to the (4) (A) is false, (R) is true
binding of calcium with TPC on actin
182. Read the following statements carefully
filaments thereby unmasking active
sites for myosin on actin.
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 a. The ascending limb of loop of Henle Statement A: Reptiles have a 3-
allows transport of electrolytes chambered heart, except crocodiles
actively or passively. which have a 2-chambered heart.
b. Excessive loss of body fluid activates Statement B: Superclass Pisces shows
osmoreceptors which stimulate single circulation as opposed to class
neurohypophysis to synthesise ADH. Aves which shows double circulation.
c. An increase in body fluid can switch (1) Both statements are incorrect
off the osmoreceptors. (2) Only statement A is correct
d. GFR decreases on increasing blood (3) Only statement B is correct
pressure due to peripheral (4) Both statements are correct
vasoconstriction.
185. Assertion (A): Thoracic chamber is
e. Decrease in blood pressure can
anatomically an air-tight chamber and
activate the JG cells to release
any change in its volume has no effect
renin.
whatsoever on the pulmonary cavity.
Choose the option which represents only
Reason (R): Lungs are situated in the
correct statements.
thoracic cavity and this arrangement is
(1) a, b and c are correct
essential for breathing.
(2) b, c and d are correct
With respect to the above mentioned
(3) a, c and d are correct
statements, choose the correct answer
(4) a, c and e are correct
from the following options.
183. Read the following statements. (1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Statement A: The main differentiating correct explanation of A
factor between cortical and (2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
juxtamedullary nephrons is the length of correct explanation of A
loop of Henle. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Statement B: Vasa recta is absent or (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
highly reduced in cortical nephrons.
SECTION-B
Select the correct option from the
186. Assertion: Upon stimulation of a muscle
following.
cell, calcium ions are released from the
(1) Only statement A is correct
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(2) Only statement B is correct
Reason: In reacting with a protein
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
complex, calcium ions uncover active
(4) Both statements A and B are
sites on the actin filaments.
incorrect
(1) Assertion and Reason are true and
184. Read the following statements and the Reason is the correct
choose the correct option. explanation of the Assertion.

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09 21

 (2) Assertion and Reason are true but Column I Column II
the Reason is not a correct (A) Ball and (p) Knee
explanation of the Assertion. socket joint
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is (B) Hinge joint (q) Carpal and
metacarpal of
false.
thumb
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.
(C) Pivot joint (r) Humerus and
187. Assertion: Body muscles are arranged in pectoral girdle
antagonistic pairs to move the body (D) Saddle joint (s) Atlas and axis
parts. (1) A → (r); B → (s); C → (q); D → (p)
(2) A → (r); B → (s); C → (p); D → (q)
Reason: A muscle can move by a body
(3) A → (r); B → (p); C → (s); D → (q)
part in one direction by its contraction
(4) A → (s); B → (q); C → (r); D → (p)
and another muscle moves that part in
opposite direction by its contraction. 190. Which of the following does not favor
(1) Assertion and Reason are true and the formation of large quantities of
dilute urine?
the Reason is the correct
(1) Alcohol
explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Caffeine
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but
(3) Renin
the Reason is not a correct (4) Atrial natriuretic factor
explanation of the Assertion.
191. Which one of the following is a matching
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is
pair ?
false.
(1) Lub-Sharp closure of AV valves at
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false. the beginning of ventricular systole
(2) Dub-Sudden opening of semilunar
188. Match the area in Column I to the
valves at the beginning of ventricular
number of bones in Column II.
diastole
Column I Column II (3) Pulsation of the radial artery values
(A) Sternum (p) 14 in the blood vessels
(B) Ribs (q) 1 (4) Initiation of the heart beat —
(C) Pelvis (r) 24 Purkinje fibers
(D) Face (s) 2 192. Match the items given in Column I with
(1) A → (q); B → (r); C → (s); D → (p) those in Column II and select the correct
(2) A → (q); B → (r); C → (p); D → (s) option given below:
Column I Column II
(3) A → (q); B → (p); C → (r); D → (s)
(A) Fibrinogen (p) Osmotic balance
(4) A → (s); B → (r); C → (q); D → (p)
(B) Globulin (q) Blood clotting
189. Match the type of joint in Column I to its (C) Albumin (r) Defense mechanism
place of occurrence in Column II. (1) A → (p); B → (r); C → (q)
(2) A → (p); B → (q); C → (r)
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-09 22

 (3) A → (r); B → (q); C → (p) (3) C: Arterial capillary-passes oxygen to
(4) A → (q); B → (r); C → (p) tissues
(4) D: Capillary wall-exchange of O2 and
193. Match the disease in Column I to the
CO2 takes place here
manifestation in Column II.
Column I Column II 196. An organic substance bound to an
(A) Asthma (p) Inflammation of enzyme and essential for its activity is
nasal tract (1) Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme
(B) Bronchitis (q) Spasm of tracheal (3) Apoenzyme (4) Isoenzyme
muscle 197. Nitrogenous bases present in DNA are
(C) Rhinitis (r) Full blown out alveoli (1) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
(D) Emphysema (s) Inflammation of (2) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
bronchii (3) Adenine, thymine, uracil
(1) A → (r); B → (s); C → (q); D → (p) (4) Guanine, uracil
(2) A → (q); B → (p); C → (s); D → (q)
198. Assertion: Glycine, an amino acid, comes
(3) A → (p); B → (q); C → (s); D → (r)
under the category of non-essential
(4) A → (q); B → (s); C → (p); D → (r)
amino acids.
194. The direction of concentration gradient Reason: The fact behind it is that glycine
for CO2 is from cannot be synthesized in the body.
(1) Tissue to blood and blood to alveoli (1) Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) Blood to tissue and tissue to alveoli the Reason is the correct
(3) Alveoli to blood and blood to tissue explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Tissue to blood and alveoli to blood (2) Assertion and Reason are true but
the Reason is not a correct
195. Figure given below shows a small part
explanation of the Assertion.
human lung where exchange of gases
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is
takes place. In which one of the options
false.
given below, the one part A, B, C or D is
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.
correctly identified along with its
function? 199. Goblet cells are a type of
(1) Multicellular gland
(2) Intracellular gland
(3) Unicellular gland
(4) Intercellular gland

200. The inability to absorb digested nutrients

may be due to damage of which type of
epithelium?
(1) A: alveolar cavity-main site of (1) Ciliated columnar
exchange of respiratory gases (2) Simple columnar
(2) B: Red blood cell-transport of CO2 (3) Simple squamous
mainly (4) Simple cuboidal

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