1

FINAL NEET REVISION TEST 2023-01

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 7. If A = 3iˆ + 4jˆ and B = 6iˆ + 8jˆ and A and B are the
1. If 3 cos  + 4 sin  = A sin (  + α), then value of A magnitudes of A and B , then which of the
and α are: following is not true ?
3 3 A 1
(1) 5,cos −1   (2) 5, sin-1   (1) A  B = 0 (2) =
5 5  2
4 (3) A.B = 48 (4) A = 5
(3) 7,cos −1   (4) None of these
5 8. The pressure on a square plate is measured by
measuring the force on the plate and the length of
2. Magnitude of slope of the shown graph. the sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the
measurement of force and length are respectively
4% and 2%, the maximum error in the measurement
of pressure is :
(1) 1% (2) 2%
(3) 6% (4) 8%

(1) First increase then decreases 9. A wire has a mass (0.3  0.003) g, radius
(2) First decrease then increases
(0.5  0.005) mm and length (6  0.06) cm. the
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases maximum percentage error in the measurement of
its density is:
3. The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t. time is:
(1) 0.2 cm/s (2) 0.4 cm/s 10. Which of the following has the highest number of
(3) 0.6 cm/s (4) 0.8 cm/s significant figures?
(1) 0.007 m2 (2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(3) 0.0006032 m2 (4) 6.3200 J
1 1 1
4. The sum of the series 1 + + + +…  is :
4 16 64 11. In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x
8 6
(1) (2) cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
7 5
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least
5 4
(3) (4) count (in cm) of callipers is :
4 3
 n −1  nx
5. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a (1)  x (2)
 n  (n − 1)
point is 16N. If the resultant force is 8N and its
direction is perpendicular to smaller force, then the x x
(3) (4)
forces are : n (n − 1)
(1) 6N & 10 N (2) 8 N & 8 N
(3) 4 N & 12 N (4) 2N & 14 N
12. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming the

6. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5iˆ − 0.8jˆ + ckˆ , air resistance to be constant and considerable:

then the value of ‘c’ is: (1) the time of ascent  the time of descent
(1) 1 (2) 0.11 (2) the time of ascent < the time of descent
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.39 (3) the time of ascent > the time of descent
(4) the time of ascent = the time of descent
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13. A ball is thrown upwards. Its height varies with ab ab

(1) t m/s (2) t m/s
time as shown in figure. If the acceleration due to a+b a−b
gravity is 7.5 m/s2, then the height h is : 2ab 2ab
(3) t m/s (4) t m/s
a+b a−b

18. A number of bullets are fired in all possible

directions with the same initial velocity u. The
maximum area of ground covered by bullets is :
2 2
 2u 2  u
(1)    (2) 3  
 g  g
(1) 10 m (2) 15 m 2 2
(3) 20 m (4) 25 m  u   u2 
(3) 5   (4)  
 2g   g 
14. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a
market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km/h. 19. A projectile is projected from ground with initial
Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and
velocity u = u 0 ˆi + v0 ˆj . If acceleration due to
walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. The
average speed of the man over the interval of time gravity (g) is along the negative y-direction then
0 to 40 min is equal to: find maximum displacement in x-direction.
(1) 5 km/h (2) (25/4) km/h u 02 2u 0 v0
(1) (2)
(3) (30/4) km/h (4) (45/8) km/h 2g g
v 02 4u 0 v0
15. The variation of velocity of particle moving along (3) (4)
2g g
a straight line is illustrated in the figure. The
distance traversed by the particle in 4 second is :
20. A river 4.0 miles wide is flowing at the rate of 2
miles/hr. The minimum time taken by a boat to
cross the river with a speed v = 4 miles/hr (in still
water) is approximately :
(1) 1 hr and 0 minute
(1) 60 m (2) 25 m (2) 2 hr and 7 minutes
(3) 55 m (4) 30 m
(3) 1 hr and 12 minutes
16. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, (4) 2 hr and 25 minutes
 t
at time t, given by f = fo 1 −  , where fo and T
 T 21. Assertion : A man can cross river of width d in
are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. minimum time. On increasing river velocity
The velocity of particle when its acceleration is minimum time to cross the river by man will remain
zero is : unchanged.
1 Reason : As velocity of river is perpendicular to
(1) fo T (2) f o T width of the river so time to cross the river is
2
independent of velocity of river.
1
(3) foT 2 (4) f o T 2 (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
2
Reason is a correct Explanation of the
Assertion.
17. A body starting from rest, accelerates at a constant
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
rate a m/s2 for some time after which it decelerates
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
at a constant rate b m/s2 to come to rest finally. If
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
the total time elapsed is t sec, the maximum
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false
velocity attained by the body is given by :
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22. The two masses m1 and m2 are joined by a spring as 26. A mass m is attached to the end of a rod of length
shown. The system is dropped to the ground from a . The mass goes around a vertical circular path
height. The spring will be: with the other end hinged at the centre. What should
be the minimum velocity of mass at the bottom of
the circle so that the mass completes the circle ?
(1) 4g (2) 3g
(3) 5g (4) g
(1) Stretched when m2 > m1
(2) compressed when m2 < m1
27. A stone is tied to a string of length and is whirled
(3) neither compressed nor stretched only when
m1 = m2 in a vertical circle with the other end of the string
(4) neither compressed nor stretched regardless of as the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone
the values of m1 and m2. is at its lowest position and has a speed ‘u’. The
magnitude of the change in velocity as it reaches a
23. Three blocks of masses m3, m2 and m1 are connected position where the string is horizontal (g being
by massless strings as shown in the figure on a acceleration due to gravity) is :
frictionless table. They are pulled with a force of 40
N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4kg, then (1) u2 − g (2) u − u 2 − 2g
tension T2 will be : (3) 2g (4) 2(u 2 − g )

28. A particle is moving along a circular path. The

(1) 10 N (2) 20 N angular velocity, linear velocity, angular
(3) 32 N (4) 40 N
acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the
24. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as particle at any instant respectively are , v, ,a c .
shown in the figure. The coefficient of static Which of the following relation is/are correct?
friction between the blocks and the cart is µ. The (a) ⊥ v (b) ⊥
acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the block
from falling satisfies: (c) v ⊥ a c (d) ⊥ a c
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d (4) a, c, d

29. In a uniform circular motion, the velocity vector

and acceleration vector are:
g mg
(1)   (2)  (1) Perpendicular to each other
µ µ (2) In same direction
g g (3) In opposite direction
(3)   (4) 
µm µ (4) Not related to each other

25. Assertion: The weighing machine measures the 30.
weight of a body
Reason: Weightlessness means the absence of
weight.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct Explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 72 km/hr
on a flat road takes a turn on the road at a point
where the radius of curvature of the road is 20
meters. The acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. At
what angle θ with the vertical plane should he bend
to negotiate the turn?
(1)  = tan −1 (6)
(2)  = tan −1 (2)
(3)  = tan −1 (25.92)
(4)  = tan −1 (4)
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31. The coordinate of the centre of mass of a system as 35. A ball moving with velocity of 9 m/s collides with
shown in figure would be: another similar stationary ball. After the collision
both the balls move in directions making an angle
of 30o with the initial direction. After the collision
their speed will be :
(1) 2.6 m/s (2) 5.2 m/s
(3) 0.52 m/s (4) 52 m/s

SECTION - B
36. In an inelastic collision between two bodies, the
physical quantity that is conserved is:
a  a a (1) Kinetic energy
(1)  ,0  (2)  , 
3  2 2 (2) Momentum
(3) Potential energy
a a  a
(3)  ,  (4)  0,  (4) Kinetic energy and momentum
3 3  3
37. Assertion : In case of bullet fired from a gun, the
32. A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet is equal to
equal mass fragments. The velocities of two ratio of mass of bullet and gun.
fragments are (3iˆ + 2j)
ˆ m/s and (− ˆi − 4j)
ˆ m/s. The Reason : In firing, momentum is conserved.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
velocity of the third fragment (in m/s) is:
Reason is a correct Explanation of the
(1) 2iˆ + 2jˆ (2) 2 ˆi − 2 ˆj Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(3) −2 ˆi + 2 ˆj (4) −2 ˆi − 2 ˆj
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
33. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant (4) Both Assertion & Reason are false
velocity collides with another stationary sphere of
same mass. The ratio of final velocity of first sphere 38. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls on a
to that of second sphere after collision will be, (if horizontal surface without slipping. The ratio of
the co-efficient of restitution is e): rotational K.E. to total K.E. is :
1− e e −1 1 3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
1+ e e +1 2 7
1+ e e +1 2 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
1− e e −1 7 10

39. Four particles each of mass m are placed at the

34. A bullet of mass m moving with a speed v strikes a
corners of a square of side length . The radius of
wooden block of mass M and gets embedded into
gyration of the system about an axis perpendicular
the block. The final speed is :
to the square and passing through centre is :
(1) (2)
2 2
(3) (4) 2

40. The moment of inertia of a rod of mass M and edge

length L, about an axis passing through one edge
M m
(1) v (2) v and perpendicular to its length will be :
M+m M+m
ML2 ML2
m v (1) (2)
(3) v (4) 12 6
M+m 2 2
ML
(3) (4) ML2
3
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41. The angular momentum of body remains conserved 46. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular
if: wheel changes its angular momentum from A0 to 4
A0 in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this torque is :
(1) applied force on body is zero.
3A 0
(2) applied torque on body is zero. (1) (2) A0
4
(3) applied force on body is constant (3) 4 A0 (4) 12 A0
(4) applied torque on body is constant
47. The torque of force F = 2iˆ − 3jˆ + 4kˆ newton acting
42. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius ‘r’ is at a point r = 3iˆ + 2jˆ + 3kˆ metre about origin is :
rotating about its axis with a constant angular (1) 6iˆ − 6jˆ + 12kˆ N − m
velocity  . Four object each of mass m, are kept
(2) −6iˆ + 6jˆ − 12kˆ N − m
gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
(3) 17iˆ − 6jˆ − 13kˆ N − m
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the
ring will be : (4) −17iˆ + 6jˆ − 13kˆ N − m
M M
(1) (2) 48. The moment of inertia of a circular ring (radius R,
4m M + 4m
mass M) about an axis which passes through
(M + 4m) (M + 4m) tangentially and perpendicular to its plane will be :
(3) (4)
M M + 2m MR 2
(1) (2) MR 2
2
43. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls 3
(3) MR2 (4) 2 MR2
without slipping down an inclined plane of length 2

L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of

49. A uniform rod AB of length and mass m is free to
mass when the cylinder reaches bottom? rotate about A. The rod is released from rest in the
3 horizontal position. Given that the momentum of
(1) 2gh (2) gh
4 m 2
inertia of the rod about A is , the initial angular
3
4 acceleration of the rod will be :
(3) gh (4) 4gh
3

44. A wheel has moment of inertia 5 × 10-3 kg m2 and

is making 20 rev/sec. the torque needed to stop it in
10 sec is Y × 10-2 N-m. The value of Y is: 3g 2g
(1) (2)
2 3
(1) 2π (2) 2.5 π
3
(3) 4π (4) 4.5 π (3) mg (4) g
2 2

45. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc 50. If the earth were to suddenly contract to half its
about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and present size, without any change in its mass, the
of a circular ring of the same radius about a duration of the new day will be :
tangential axis in the plane of the ring is : (1) 18 hours
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 30 hours
(2) 5: 6 (3) 6 hours
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 12 hours
(4) 1: 2
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A Choose the most appropriate answer from the
51. Morphine (C17H19NO3), which is used medically to options given below:
relieve pain, is a base. Which one is its conjugate (1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (B), (D), (E) only
acid? (3) (A), (C) only (4) (D) only
(1) C17 H18 NO3+ (2) C17H18NO3
58. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will
(3) C17 H20 NO3– (4) C17 H20 NO3+ have permanent dipole moments for both
members?
52. Choose the incorrect relation on the basis of Bohr’s (1) PCl3F2 and XeF6 (2) PCl2F3 and XeF4
theory for given H-like species. (3) PCl2F3 and XeF6 (4) SiF4 and NO2
(1) Velocity of electron ∝1/n
(2) Frequency of revolution ∝1/n3 59. Mark out the wrong expression
(1) Boyle’s temperature, TB = (b/aR)
(3) Radius of orbit ∝n2 Z
(2) Critical pressure, Pc = (a/27b2)
(4) Electrostatic force on electron ∝1/n4
(3) Critical temperature, Tc = (8a/27Rb)
(4) Critical volume, Vc = 3b
53. A α - particle is accelerated through a potential
difference of V volts starting from rest. The de- 60. a and b are van der Waals’ constants for gases.
Broglie wavelength associated with it is (in Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane
angstrom): because
12.3 0.286
(1) 𝜆 = (2) 𝜆 = (1) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6
√𝑉 √𝑉
0.101 0.856 (2) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6
(3) 𝜆 = (4) 𝜆 =
√𝑉 √𝑉 (3) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 and b for Cl2 > b for C2H6
(4) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2H6
54. What is the minimum pH necessary to cause a
precipitate of Pb(OH)2 (Ksp = 1.2 × 10–5) to be 61. 1 cc of 0.1 N HCl is added to 99 cc solution of
formed in a 0.12 M PbCl2 solution? NaCl. The pH of the resulting solution will be
(1) 12.4 (2) 10.8 (1) 7 (2) 3
(3) 12.0 (4) 11.1 (3) 4 (4) 1

55. For the equilibrium: LiCl.3NH3(s) ⇌ LiCl.NH (s)

3
62. There are two isotopes of an element with atomic
mass Z. Heavier one has atomic mass Z+2 and
+ 2NH3(g); KP = 9 atm2 at 27°C. A 8.21 L vessel
lighter one has Z-1, the abundance of lighter one is
contains 0.1 mole of LiCl⋅NH3(s). How many moles
(1) 66.6% (2) 69.7%
of NH3(g) should be added to the flask at this
(3) 6.67% (4) 33.3%
temperature to drive the backward reaction for
completion?
63. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated, the bond
(1) 0.8 (2) 1.0
order and magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule
(3) 1.2 (4) 1.1
B2 is
(1) 1 and diamagnetic
56. Which combinations of quantum numbers n, l, m
(2) 0 and diamagnetic
and s for the electron in an atom does not provide a
(3) 1 and paramagnetic
permissible solution of the wave equation?
(4) 0 and paramagnetic
(1) 3,2,1,1/2 (2) 3,1,1,-1/2
(3) 3,3,1,-1/2 (4) 3,2,-2,1/2 64. A solution of 2M formic acid (HCOOH) is 0.95%
ionized. What is the Ka of formic acid?
57. Bonding in which of the following diatomic (1) 1.9 × 10–2 (2) 1.8 × 10–4
molecule(s) become weaker, on the basis of MO (3) 9 × 10–5 (4) 4.5 × 10–5
Theory, by removal of an electron?
(A) NO (B) N2 65. The percentage of P2O5 in diammonium hydrogen
(C) O2 (D) C2 phosphate, (NH4)2HPO4 is
(E) B2 (1) 23.48 (2) 46.96
(3) 53.78 (4) 71.00
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66. If the distribution of molecular speeds of a given 72. For the real gases reaction,
gas is as per the figure shown below, then the ratio 2CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g); ΔH = –560 kJ/mol.
of the most probable, the average, and the root In 10 litre rigid vessel at 500 K the initial pressure
mean square speeds, respectively, is is 70 bar and after the reaction it becomes 40 bar.
The change in internal energy is (1 L-bar = 100 J)
(1) – 557 kJ (2) – 530 kJ
(3) – 563 kJ (4) None of these

73. In alkaline solution, the following equilibrium exist

a. S 2− + S → S22− equilibrium constant 𝐾1
b. S22− + S → S32− equilibrium constant 𝐾2
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 1.224 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 have values 12 and 11, respectively?
(3) 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 (4) 1 : 1.128 : 1 What is the value of equilibrium constant for the
reaction
67. To what extent must a given solution containing 40 S32− → S 2− + 2S ?
mg AgNO3 per mL be diluted to yield a solution
(1) 132 (2) 7.58 × 10−3
containing 16 mg AgNO3 per mL?
(3) 1.09 (4) 0.918
(1) Each mL must be diluted to 2.5 mL
(2) To each mL of solution, 2.5 mL of water
74. The standard heat of combustion of solid boron is
should be added
given by:
(3) To 1.5 mL of solution, 2.5 mL of water should
be added (1)  f H° ( B2O3 )
(4) To 1.5 mL of solution, 1.5 mL of water should 1
be added. (2)  f H° ( B2O3 )
2
68. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B exert a (3) − f H° ( B2O3 )
pressure of 200 Pa in a container of volume 10 m3 1
at 1000K. Given R is the gas constant in JK–1mol–1, (4) −  f H° ( B2O3 )
2
then value of x is
2R 2R
(1) (2) 75. If the mass of proton is doubled and that of neutron
4+R 4−R is halved, the molecular weight of CO2 consisting
4+R 4−R of only C12 and O16 atoms, will:
(3) (4)
2R 2R (1) not change (2) increase by 25%
(3) increase by 35% (4) increase by 50%
69. The root mean square speed of the molecules of
diatomic gas is u. When the temperature is doubled,
the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new 76. In a chemical reaction A + 2B ⇌ 2C + D, the initial
RMS speed of the atom is: concentration of B was 1.5 times of the
(1) √2 u (2) u concentration of A, but the equilibrium
(3) 2u (4) 4u concentration of A and B were found to be equal.
The equilibrium constant (K) for the aforesaid
70. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 chemical reaction is:
(w/v) and has a density of 1.80 gmL–1. Molarity of (1) 4 (2) 16
solution is: (3) 1/4 (4) 1
(1) 1 M (2) 18 M
(3) 10 M (4) 1.5 M 77. Identify the incorrect match.
Name IUPAC Official
71. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral Name
series of hydrogen spectrum is found to be about 9.
(A) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
The spectral series are:
(B) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(1) Lyman and Paschen
(C) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(2) Balmer and Brackett
(D) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(3) Brackett and Pfund
(4) Paschen and Pfund
 8

(1) (B), (ii) (2) (C), (iii) 82. Among the following, the species having the
(3) (D), (iv) (4) (A), (i) smallest bond is:
(1) NO (2) NO+
78. Consider the following pairs of electrons (3) NO 2+
(4) NO–
(I) (a) 83. Which of the following is the correct order of non-
1 metallic character for Si, Be, Mg, Na and P?
n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = + (1) P < Si < Be < Na < Mg
2
(2) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
(b) (3) Na > Mg > Be > Si > P
1 (4) Na > Si > Mg > Be > P
n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = +
2
84. Which of the following series of elements have
(II) (a)
nearly the same atomic radii?
1
n = 3, l = 2, ml = −2, ms = − (1) F, Cl, Br, I (2) Na, K, Rb, Cs
2
(3) Li, Be, B, C (4) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu
(b)
1 85. The molecule having the smallest bond angle is:
n = 3, l = 2, ml = −1, ms = −
2 (1) PCl3 (2) NCl3
(III) (a) (3) AsCl3 (4) SbCl3
1
n = 4, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
2 SECTION - B
(b) 86. A particle A moving with a certain velocity has the
1 de-Broglie wavelength of 1 A°. For particle B with
n = 3, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +
2 mass 25% of A and velocity 75% of A, calculate
The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals the de-Broglie wavelength of B
is/are (1) 3Å (2) 5.33 Å
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) 6.88 Å (4) 0.48 Å
(3) Only C (4) (B) and (C)
87. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected
79. A process with negative entropy change is: from a metal surface after the irradiation of light
(1) Dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) & SO3(g) having wavelength , then for 1.5 p momentum of the
(2) Sublimation of dry ice photoelectron, the wavelength of the incident light
(3) Dissolution of iodine in water should be:
(4) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2 (Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be
very high in comparison to work function)
3 1
80. Which of the following equations does not correctly (A)  (B) 
4 2
represent the first law of thermodynamics for the
2 4
given processes involving an ideal gas? (C)  (D) 
3 9
(Assume non-expansion work is zero)
(1) Cyclic process : q = –w 88. The correct order of second ionization potential of
(2) Adiabatic process : U = –w carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(3) Isochoric process: U = q (1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C
(4) Isothermal process: q = –w (3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > C > N

(I) (II)
81. The difference between H and U (i.e., H – U),
89. H – N − − − −N − − − −N
when the combustion of one mole of heptane
(l) is carried out at a temperature T, is equal to: In hydrogen azide (above) the bond orders of bond
(I) and (II) are:
(1) 4RT (2) –3RT
(1) (I) < 2, (II) > 2 (2) (I) > 2, (II) < 2
(3) –4RT (4) 3RT
(3) (I) > 2, (II) > 2 (4) (I) < 2, (II) < 2
 9

90. Critical temperature and critical pressure of a gas 96. A 4 : 1 mixture of helium and methane is contained
are 400 K and 41 atm respectively. Critical volume in a vessel at 10 bar pressure. Due to a hole in the
of the gas will be: vessel, the gas mixture leaks out. The ratio of
41R 400 R composition of mixture effusing out initially is:
(1) (2)
400 41 (1) 8 : 1 (2) 8 : 3
300 R 150 R (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(3) (4)
41 41 97. The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and
91. How many mole of Zn(FeS2) can be made from 2 weak base in its 0.1 M solution is found to be 50%.
mole zinc, 3 mole iron and 5 mole sulphur. If the molarity of the solution is 0.2 M, the
percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be
(1) 2 mole (2) 3 mole
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 4 mole (4) 5 mole
(3) 25% (4) 10%
98. For one mole of a van der Waals' gas when b = 0
92. For the reaction
and T = 300 K, the pV vs 1/V plot is shown below.
X(g) ⇌ 2Y(g) .…(i) The value of the van der Waals' constant a
(atm L mol–2) is
Z(g) ⇌ P(g)+Q(g) ….(ii)
Given, 𝐾𝑃1 : 𝐾𝑃2 = 1: 9
If the degree of dissociation of X(g) and Z(g) be
same then the total pressure at equilibrium of (i)
and (ii) are in the ratio:
(1) 1 : 36 (2) 36 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 0.5: 1
(A) 1.0 (B) 4.5
93. In which of the following pairs hybridisation of the (C) 1.5 (D) 3.0
central atom is different?
(1) ClF3, ClF3O (2) ClF3O, ClF3O2 99. For a reaction A (g) ⇌ B(g) at equilibrium. The
+ – –
(3) [ClF2O] , [ClF4O] (4) [ClF4O] , [XeOF4] partial pressure of B is found to be one eighth of
the partial pressure of A. The value of ΔG° of the
94. When one mole of monoatomic ideal gas at T K reaction A → B is
(1) RT ln 4 (2) – RT ln 4
temperature undergoes adiabatic change against a
(3) 3 RT ln 2 (4) – RT log 8
constant external pressure of 1 atm from 1L to 2L,
the final temperature in Kelvin would be 100. Statement-1 : Two identical balloons A and B
T 2 being inflated in open with equal moles of He and
(1) ( 2/3)
(2) T+
2 3  0.0821 Ar respectively will have same volume initially.
Statement-2 : After sometime balloons A will have
2
(3) T (4) T− more number of moles than balloon B.
3  0.0821
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
95. A gas expands isothermally against a constant
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 10 dm3 statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
to a volume of 20 dm3. It absorbs 800 J of thermal statement-1.
energy from its surroundings. The ∆U is (3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(1) -312 J (2) +123 J (4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(3) -213 J (4) +231 J
 10

BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Which type of aestivation is found in Cassia? 108. Gametes are pyriform & have two apically
(1) Valvate (2) Twisted attached flagella
(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary Statement-I: Isolated metabolic reactions In- Vitro
are living things but surely not living reactions.
102. Which feature is found in Mycoplasma? Statement-II: Isolated metabolic reactionsoutside
the body of organism, performed in a test tube is
(1) Presence of nucleus
neither living nor non-living.
(2) Can survive without oxygen
(1) Statement I is correct & II is wrong.
(3) Presence of cell wall (2) Statement I is wrong & II is correct.
(4) It causes diseases in animals only (3) Statement I & II both are correct.
(4) Statement I & II both are wrong.
103. Select the wrong pair-
(1) Endospermic seed - Castor 109. Haplodiplontic life cycle is absent in-
(2) Half inferior ovary - Plum (1) Polysiphonia
(3) Whorled phyllotaxy - Alstonia (2) Ectocarpus
(4) Stem tendrils - Pea & Grapevine (3) Kelps
(4) Fucus

104. Petunia, Sesbania, Lily, Tomato, Trifolium, Arhar,

110. Which feature is not related with viroid?
Chilli, Tobacco, Tulip, Asparagus, Lupin, (1) ssRNA
Sunhemp, Datura, Brinjal, Soyabean. (2) Potato spindle tuber disease
How many plants have marginal placentation? (3) Discovered by T.O. Diener
(1) 5 (2) 6 (4) Composed of millions of nucleotides
(3) 7 (4) 10
111. Match the Column-I & Column-II
105. Which of the following is/are not a part of endo- Column-I Column-II
membrane system? (i) Phycomycetes (a) Sex organs absent
(1) Chloroplast (2) Golgi body but sexual
reproduction
(3) Vacuole (4) ER
takes place

106. (a) Membrane bound vesicular structures (ii) Ascomycetes (b) Mycelium
coenocytic and
(b) Acidic pH
Aseptate
(c) Presence of carbohydrases, Lipases and
(iii) Basidiomycetes (c) Fungi imperfecti
proteases enzymes
(d) Site of synthesis of glycoprotein (iv) Deuteromycetes (d) Mycelium branched
& Septate
(e) Part of endomembrane system
How many above features are related with (1) i – b, ii – d, iii – c, iv – a
(2) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
Lysosome?
(3) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
(1) a, d, e (2) a, b, d
(4) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
(3) b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, e
107. Which feature is not related with Brown algae? 112. Which feature is not related with Chrysophytes?
(1) Presence of chl-a, chl-c, Fucoxanthin (1) Cell walls form two thin overlapping shells
(2) Two unequal flagella are attached at lateral that fit together as in a soap box.
position on zoospores. (2) All of them are photosynthetic
(3) Reserve food material Laminarin or Mannitol. (3) Diatomous earth is used in polishing,filtration
(4) Gametes are pyriform & have two apically of oils and syrups.
attached flagella. (4) Chief producers in the oceans.
 11

113. Which feature is correct about monocot root? 120. Which feature is not related with Nucleus?
(1) Presence of cambium (1) Discovered by Robert Brown
(2) Presence of casparian strips as monocotstem.
(2) Double membrane bounded organelle
(3) Presence of 2-6 xylem bundles
(3) Mature RBCs and sieve tube have distinct
(4) Presence of well developed pith as dicotstem.
nucleus
114. Statement-I: Spring wood is light in colourwith (4) The material of nucleus is stained by the
high density & lumen of vessels is broad. basic dyes.
Statement-II: Late wood is dark in colour with
narrow lumen of vessels & low density.
121. Zygomorphic flower is absent in-
(1) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I & statement-II both are wrong. (1) Cassia (2) Gulmohar
(3) Statement-I is wrong; statement-II iscorrect. (3) Beans (4) Chilli
(4) Statement-I is correct; statement-II is wrong.
122. Which type of placentation has false septum?
115. Which has flagellated gametes?
(1) Marginal (2) Axile
(1) Porphyra (2) Spirogyra
(3) Ectocarpus (4) Anabaena (3) Parietal (4) Free central

116. White spots on Mustard is due to - 123. Which of the following is a member of Solanaceae?
(1) Algae (2) V i r u s (1) Lupin
(3) Fungi (4) V i r o i d
(2) Cassia
117. Which feature is not related with Liliaceae? (3) Petunia
(1) Trimerous flower (2) Axile Placentation (4) Mustard
(3) Inferior Ovary (4) Perianth 6

118. Statement-I: Centrosome usually has two

cylindrical structures called Centrioles.
Statement-II: Centrioles are not a part of
endomembrane system.
(1) Statement-I is correct; statement-II is wrong.
(2) Statement-I & statement-II both are wrong.
(3) Statement-I is wrong; statement-II is 124.
correct.
(4) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct.

119. Match the Column-I & Column-II-

Column-I Column-II Select the option that has correct labelling of
(i) Heart wood (a) Maize stem (a), (b), (c) respectively for vascular bundles-
(ii) Sap wood (b) Above the phloemas
(1) a-Conjoint, Closed, b-Conjoint, Open, c-
patches of
sclerenchyma Radial
(iii) Watercavity (c) Conduction of water& (2) a-Conjoint, Open, b-Conjoint, Closed, c-
mineral Radial
(iv) Pericycle (d) Provides mechanical (3) a-Conjoint, Bicollateral, b-Conjoint & Open,
support to old dicot
c-Radial & Closed
stem.
(4) a-Radial, b-Conjoint, Closed, c-Conjoint,
(1) i–b, ii–a, iii–c, iv–d
(2) i–c, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a Open
(3) i–d, ii–c, iii–a, iv–b
(4) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
 12

125. Statement-I: Cilia and flagella are hair like 130. Which of the following belongs to same
outgrowth of cell membrane in eukaryotes. catagories?
Statement-II: Prokaryotic bacteria also possess (1) Muscidae, Poales, Insecta
flagella that are structurally similar from (2) Anacardiaceae, Hominidae, Muscidae
eukaryotic flagella. (3) Primata, Sapindales, Insecta
(1) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct. (4) Poaceae, Mammalia, Diptera
(2) Statement-I & statement-II both are wrong.
(3) Statement-I is wrong; statement-II 131. Given below the following statements-
iscorrect. (a) Flora contains actual account of habitat and
(4) Statement-I is correct; statement-II is wrong. distribution of plants of a given area.
(b) Each statement of key is called couplet.
126. Select the wrong pair- (c) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant
(1) Pili & Fimbriae Do not play any role in specimens that are dried, pressed and
motility preserved on sheets.
(2) Inclusionbodies Reserve material of (d) Museums have collections of preserved plant
prokaryotes in and animal specimens for study and reference.
cytoplasm How many above statements are correct?
(3) Polysome Several ribosomes + (1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
Protein (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c
(4) Mesosome Essential infolding ofcell 132. Which is incorrect about Ascomycetes?
membrane in (1) Morels and Truffles are edible fungi as
prokaryotes mushrooms.
(2) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical
127. Assertion: Both chloroplast and mitochondriahave and genetic work.
circular DNA, 70S ribosomes and RNA. (3) Conidia are asexual spores formed
Reason: Both of them are double membrane exogenously on branched or unbranched
bounded and proceed synthesis of ATP. conidiophore.
(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct (4) Sexual spores are ascospores formed
explanation of A. exogenously on ascus.
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not thecorrect
explanation of A. 133. Which of the following cell organelle lacks 70S
(3) A is correct but R is wrong. ribosomes?
(4) R is correct but A is wrong. (1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria
128. Which feature is not related with Gymnosperms? (3) Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Heterosporous, seed bearing, non-flowering (4) Bacteria
vascular plants. 134. Which is not true about Fabaceae
(2) Male gametophyte and female gametophyte (1) Presence of diadelphous stamens
are not independent. (2) Flower zygomorphic
(3) Life cycle is diplontic as angiosperm (3) Monocarpellary
(4) Pollination by wind & water (4) Presence of cymose inflorescence.
129. Match the Column-I & Column-II- 135. Oogamous type of sexual reproduction is found in
Column-I Column-II (1) Spirogyra (2) Ulothrix
(a) Pinus (i) Dioecious, gammae (3) Eudorina (4) Volvox
for asexual
reproduction
(b) Marchantia (ii) Coralloid roots have
SECTION-B
cyanobacteria 136. Statement-I: Nucleolus continuous
(c) Cycas (iii) Horse tail with nucleoplasm & site of r-RNA synthesis.
Statement-II: Nucleolus is membrane less as
(d) Equisetum (iv) Mycorrhiza
centrioles and ribosomes.
(1) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
(1) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct.
(2) a–iv, b–i, c–iii, d–ii (2) Statement-I & statement-II both are wrong.
(3) a–i, b–iv, c–ii, d–iii (3) Statement-I is wrong; statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct; statement-II is wrong.
(4) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
 13

137. Which is correctly matched? (1) i–b, ii–c, iii–a, iv–d

(1) Prop roots – Maize (2) i–b, ii–c, iii–d, iv–a
(3) i–c, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a
(2) Palmately – Neem (4) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
compound leaves
142. Spines are formed in
(3) Storage leaves – Onion (1) Bougainvillea (2) Garden pea
(3) Cacti (4) Citrus
(4) Cylindrical – Opuntia
phylloclade

138. Select the wrong pair? 143. (a) (b)

(1) Carrageen – Red algae
Here a & b are aestivation and found in-
(2) Agar – Gelidium & (1) (a) China rose (b) Calotropis
Gracillaria (2) (a) Cassia (b) Cotton
(3) Chlorella – Used by space (3) (a) Calotropis (b) Pea
travellers (4) (a) Gulmohar (b) Mustard
(4) Algin – Present in 144. (i) Extensive metabolic diversity
Porphyra (ii) Asexual reproduction by binary fission
(iii) Presence of membrane bounded cellorganelles
139. (i) Multicellular rhizoids (iv) Presence of nuclear membrane
(ii) Protonema stage How many above statements are related with
(iii) Sporophyte is independent kingdom Monera?
(1) (i) & (iii) (2) (ii) & (iv)
(iv) Haplontic life cycle
(3) (i) & (ii) (4) (i) & (iv)
(v) Water is required for fertilisation
How many above statements are correct for 145. Dumb-belled shaped guard cells can be observed
mosses? in-
(1) i, iii, v (2) ii, iii, iv (1) Funaria (2) Equisetum
(3) Pinus (4) Grass
(3) i, ii , v (4) ii, iii, v
146. Statement-I: Double fertilization involves
140. Given below the following statements- syngamy and triple fusion.
(a) Euglena has pigments similar as higher Statement-II: Double fertilisation is unique
plants. feature of angiosperms.
(b) Red tide is due to Gonyaulax (1) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct.
(c) Slime moulds form Plasmodium in (2) Statement-I & statement-II both are wrong.
unfavourable conditions (3) Statement-I is wrong; statement-II is correct.
(d) Boundaries of kingdom Protista are well (4) Statement-I is correct; statement-II is wrong.
defined.
147. Haplontic life cycle is found in-
(e) The most notorious sporozoan is
(1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra
Paramecium.
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) All of the above
How many above statement are wrong?
(1) a, b, c (2) c, d, e 148. Which has information about any taxon?
(3) a, b, d, e (4) b, c, d, e (1) Manuals (2) Monograph
(3) Flora (4) Catalogue
141. Match the Column-I & Column-II- 149. Sclereids are found in-
Column-I Column-II (1) Pulp of fruits like guava, sapota, pear
(i) Prion (a) ds-DNA (2) Fruit wall of nuts
(3) Seed coat of legumes
(ii) Viroid (b) Rust of wheat
(4) All of the above
(iii) Puccinia (c) Bovine
150. Select the wrong pair-
spongiform
(1) Liverwort - Marchantia
encephalopathy (2) Red algae - Polysiphonia
(iv) T2 bacteriophage (d) Potato spindle (3) Green algae - Volvox
tuber disease (4) Brown algae - Chara

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
151. Statement – I: Aplysia belongs to second largest
phylum.
Statement – II: It possess a segmented body which
is covered by a calcareous shell.
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct.
(2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect.
(3) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect.
(4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct.
152. Mesoderm first appeared in
(1) Roundworms
(2) Cnidarians
(3) Earthworms
(4) Flatworms
153. Chaetopleura possess all the characters, except
(1) Radula
(2) Mantle
(3) Gills
(4) Antennae
154. Read the following and select correct one
(1) In Balanoglossus, body is divided into anterior
proboscis, a collar and a short trunk.
(2) The larva of brittle star is bilaterally
symmetrical.
(3) Pinctada shows direct development.
(4) Prawns belongs to second largest phylum.
155. Read the following and select incorrect one
(1) The function of parapodia is swimming.
(2) Statocysts help in balancing the body.
(3) Radula helps in feeding.
(4) Gills in molluscs helps only in respiration.
156. Statement – I: In Cnidarians, Cnidoblasts help in
anchorage, defense and for the capture of prey.
Statement – II: In comb jellies, Cnidoblasts help
in bioluminescence.
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct
(2) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
(3) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
(4) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
14
157. Match the following.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Sycon (I) Vector
(B) Meandrina (II) Intra cellular digestion
(C) Planaria (III) Regeneration
(D) Apis (IV) Economically
important
(V) Coral
(1) A → II, B → V, C → III, D → IV
(2) A → II, B → V, C → III, D → I
(3) A → IV, B → V, C → II, D → III
(4) A → II, B → I, C → VI, D → V
158. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(1) Tendon → Specialized muscular tissue
(2) Adipose tissue → Dense connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue → Loose connective tissue
(4) Cartilage → Loose connective tissue
159. Identify a mismatch from the following:
(1) Outer ear joints → chondrocytes
(2) Bone marrow → Blood cells
(3) Tendon → collagen fibres
(4) Biceps → Fusiform muscle fibres
160. How many of the following statements are correct?
(1) Neural tissue exerts greatest control over the
body’s responsiveness to changing conditions.
(2) All the cells in neural tissue are not excitable
cells.
(3) Nerve fibres can contract in response to
stimulation.
(4) Excitable cells make up less than one half the
volume of neural tissue in our body.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 4
161. This is the difference between a nerve and a neuron
(1) consists of different number of cells
(2) one has motor and other has sensory function
(3) nerves are made of grey matter while neurons
of white matter
(4) nerves are present in central nervous system
only
 15

162. Which cells have capability to form glandular 169. _______ is the most abundant protein in animal
epithelium in which they get specialized for world and _______ is the most abundant protein in
secretion of substances like mucus, saliva? the whole biosphere.
(1) Columnar and cuboidal cells (1) Insulin, PEP-case
(2) Insulin, RuBisCO
(2) Squamous cells
(3) Collagen, PEP-case
(3) Compound epithelial cells
(4) Collagen, RuBisCO
(4) Both (2) and (3)
170. Which of the following category of secondary
163. Which of the following is rightly matched? metabolites is correctly matched with suitable
(1) Physalia – Portuguese man of war examples:
(2) Pennatula – sea fan (1) Alkaloids → Morphine, Codeine
(3) Adamsia – sea-pen (2) Pigments → Abrin, Ricin
(4) Aorgonia – sea anemone (3) Drugs → Lemon grass oil
(4) Lectins → Vinblastin and curcumin
164. The mosaic vision of cockroaches is with 171. Arrange the following components of cells in
(1) more sensitivity and high resolution descending percentage of the total cellular mass.
(2) less sensitivity but more resolution (A) Lipids (B) Proteins
(3) more sensitivity but less resolution (C) Nucleic acids (D) Carbohydrates.
(4) Less sensitivity and less resolution (1) B → C → D → A
(2) B → C → A → D
(3) B → D → C → A
165. α - Helix and β - plated sheet represents
(4) A → D → C → B
(1) Primary structure of protein
(2) Quaternary structure of protein 172. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells
(3) Tertiary structure of protein and their secretion is correctly matched?
(4) Secondary structure of protein (1) Oxyntic cells→ Pepsinogen
(2) Chief cells→ Intrinsic factor for absorption of
166. Read the following statements: vitamin B12
(3) Kupffer cells → A digestive enzyme that
(i) Chitin, starch, glycogen are homopolymers.
hydrolyses nucleic acids
(ii) In a glycogen, the left end is called the non-
(4) Goblet cells → Mucus
reducing end.
(iii) Starch forms helical secondary structures but 173. The initial step in the digestion of milk protein –
cellulose does not contain complex helices. casein, in infants, is carried out by?
(iv) Cellulose is a structural polysaccharide (1) Lipase (2) Renin
(v) Chitin is a storage polysaccharide. (3) Rennin (4) Carboxypeptidase
How many of the above statements are correct? 174. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an
(1) Two (2) Three otherwise normal human, may lead to
(3) Four (4) Five (1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting
(3) Indigestion (4) Jaundice
167. GLUT-4 is a polymer of
(1) Glucose units (2) Amino acids 175. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive
(3) Fatty acids (4) Nucleotides food low in proteins and calories the infants below
the age of one year are likely to suffer from
(1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus
168. Enzymes which catalyze joining of C - O, C - S,
(3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorkor
C - N, P - O, bonds are known as
(1) Oxidoreductases 176. Which layer of the small intestine forms the crypts
(2) Hydrolases in between the bases of villi?
(3) Ligases (1) Serosa (2) Mucosa
(4) Lyases (3) Muscularis layer (4) Submucosa
 16

177. Saliva contains: 185. Which of the following region is primarily

(1) Na+ and K+ (2) Cl -
responsible for regulation of respiration?
(3) HCO3- (4) All of these
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla
178. Gall bladder contracts due to the effect of oblongata of hindbrain
(1) Secretin (2) CCK (2) Pneumotaxic centre in pons of hind-brain
(3) Gastrin (4) GIP (3) RRC in the midbrain
179. Which of the following is not true for human (4) Hypothalamus of forebrain
beings?
(1) Both external intercostal muscles and
SECTION - B
diaphragm contract during forceful expiration.
(2) Mammals have negative pressure breathing. 186. Assertion: Limulus is the living fossil in
(3) Forceful expiration is an active mechanism. Arthropods
(4) Change in the volume of the thoracic cavity Reason: Limulus does not undergo any
will be reflected in the lung cavity.
evolutionary changes over millions of years.
180. An individual faces difficulty in breathing with (1) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and correct explanation of (A).
bronchioles. The disorder is (2) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Silicosis (4) Asbestosis
(3) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
181. Which of the following is true? (4) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
(1) RBC contain a very high concentration of the
enzyme carbonic anhydrase.
187. Identify the organism on the basis of following
(2) Carbonic anhydrase is also present in minute
amount in the plasma. features
(3) At the tissue site whereas partial pressure of (A) Absence of scales (B) Presence of cloaca
CO2 is higher due to catabolism, CO2 diffuses (C) Oviparous
into blood (RBCs and plasm(a) and forms (1) Clarias (2) Bangarus
HCO3−and H+.
(3) Hyla (4) Aptenodytes
(4) All of the above are true.

182. The conducting part of the human respiratory 188. In which of the following given vertebrate, genus is
system not correctly matched with one of the character or
(1) Transports the atmospheric air to the alveoli. its class?
(2) Clears foreign particles from air. Vertebrate Characters Class
(3) Humidifies and brings the air to body Genus
temperature (1) Calotes Epidermal Reptilia
(4) Performs all the above function
scales on
183. Trachea body
(1) Divides into left and right primary bronchi at (2) Neophron Skin Aves
the level of 5th lumbar vertebra usually
(2) Extends up to the mid-thoracic cavity with oil
(3) Is lined by complete cartilaginous rings gland
(4) Is partially cartilaginous and partly bony (3) Pristis Streamlined Osteichthyes
184. The factor that affects the rate of alveolar diffusion is body
(1) Pressure gradient (4) Ichtyophis Cloaca Amphibia
(2) Thickness of the membrane
(3) Solubility of gases
(4) All of these
 17

189. Given figures (I and II) show two specialised 193. The chemical properties and physical properties of
connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the amino acids are essentially of the
parts labelled as A and B. (1) Amino group (2) Carboxyl group
(3) The R-group (4) All of these

194. The essential chemical components of many

coenzymes are
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Vitamins
(3) Proteins (4) Nucleic acids
I II A B
195. Assertion (A): - Certain drugs coming in contact
(1) Cartilage Bone Collagen Chondroblast
fibres with the mucosa of mouth and lower side of the
(2) Cartilage Bone Collagen Chondrocyte tongue are absorbed into the blood capillaries lining
Fibres them.
(3) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast Reason (R): - Most of the simple digested
(4) Bone Cartilage Collagen Osteoblast components of food are absorbed in the jejunum
Fibres and ileum.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
190. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. junction (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
and its function? correct explanation of (A).
(1) Tight junction → Promotes leaking of (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
substances across a tissue. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(2) Adhering junction → Keep neighbouring cells
196. Chylomicrons:-
together.
(1) Are transported by the blood stream only
(3) Gap junction → Connecting the cytoplasm of
(2) Are very small protein-coated fat globules
adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions and
(3) Are formed in the lumen of the small intestine
small molecules.
(4) Are formed in the enterocytes of large intestine
(4) Gap junction → Facilitates the cells to
communicate with each other. 197. Trypsin differs from pepsin in, that
191. The tissue given below is found in (1) Trypsin digests protein in an alkaline medium
while pepsin does so in an acidic medium
(2) Trypsin is secreted from the gastric glands
while pepsin is secreted from the pancreas
(3) Trypsin digests protein in an acidic medium
while pepsin does so in an alkaline medium
(4) Trypsin is released from its source gland in an
active form and pepsin is released in active
(1) Dry surface of skin form
(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) Pharynx 198. Assertion (A): Inspiration occurs when intra-
(4) All the above pulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric
pressure.
192. Choose the incorrect statement: Reason (R): Inspiration is initiated by the
(1) Carbon and hydrogen are relatively abundant contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of external
in living organisms than in earth's crust. intercostal muscles.
(2) Earth's crust has more silicon than in the body (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
of human beings. explanation of (A).
(3) Nitrogen is relatively very little in the earth's (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
crust than in living tissues. correct explanation of (A).
(4) Oxygen is more abundantly present in earth's (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
crust than in the tissues of man. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
 18

199. Read the following statements and choose the 200. Choose the correct path of CO2 diffusion:
correct option. A. Capillary endothelial membrane
Statement A. Alveoli and their ducts constitute the B. Basement membrane
respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory C. Blood
system. D. Alveolar cavity
Statement B. The diffusion membrane is made of E. Alveolar epithelium
three major layers but is less than a millimeter in (1) A→ B →C →D →E
thickness. (2) C →A →B →E →D
(1) Statement A is correct and B incorrect (3) D →E →B →A →C
(2) Statement B is correct and A incorrect (4) C →D →B →A →E
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect