LMRP NEET MODULE EXAM 6 PHOENIX

Important instructions :

1. The test is 3 hours in duration and the test booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics (Electro Magnetic Induction, Alternating Current),
Chemistry (Coordination Compounds), Botany (Organisms and Population) and Zoology (Molecular
Basis of Inheritance Part I). 50 questions in each subjects are divided into two sections (A and B) as
per details given below.

(a) Section A shall consist of 35 Questions in each subject.All questions are compulsory
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 numerical questions in each subject. A candidate need to attempt
any 10 questions out of 15.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.

Name of the candidate :

Roll Number :

PHYSICS
light bulb is in series with the loop as shown in
SECTION A the fig. The magnetic field is decreasing steadily
to zero over a time interval ∆ t. The bulb will
1. The magnetic flux (ϕ) versus time ( t) graph for a shine with full brightness if ∆ t is equal to
coil is shown in the figure. The magnitude of av-
erage emf induced in the coil for a time interval
of 0 s to 6 s is

(1) 20 ms (2) 0.02 ms

(3) 2 ms (4) 0.2 ms
(1) 1 V (2) 1/3 V 3. The magnetic flux (ϕ) through a metal ring varies
(3) 2/3 V (4) 2 V ( )
with time t according to: ϕ = 3 at3 − bt2 Tm2 ,
2. A square wire loop of 10.0 cm side lies at right where a = 2s−3 and b = 6s−2 . The resistance of
angles to a uniform magnetic field of 20T. A 10 V the ring is 3Ω. The maximum current induced

1
 in the ring during the interval t = 0 to t = 2 s, is
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) 6 A
4. A conducting loop of radius R is present in a uni-
form magnetic field B perpendicular the plane of
the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time
t, as R = R 0 + t. The emf induced in the loop is
(1) 2π (R0 + t) B clockwise
(2) π (R0 + t) B clockwise
(3) 2π (R0 + t) B anti-clockwise
(4) zero
5. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic
field which is directed into the paper. The mag-
netic field is increasing at a constant rate. The
directions of induced currents in wires AB and
8. Two identical conductors P and Q are placed on
CD are
(1) B to A and D to C (2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C (4) B to A and C to D
6. The current i in the straight conductor varies si-
nusoidally with time as shown. (A positive value
of i is in the direction indicated). At time t1 the
induced current in the rectangular loop is clock-
wise. What is the current in the rectangular loop
at time t2 and time t3 respectively?
9. A long metal bar of 30 cm length is aligned along
(1) zero; clockwise
(2) zero; counterclockwise
(3) clockwise; clockwise
(4) clockwise; counterclockwise
2
7. Three wire loops and an observer are positioned
as shown in the figure. From the observer’s point
of view, a current i flows counterclockwise in
the middle loop, which is moving towards the
observer with a velocity v. Loops A and B are
stationary. This same observer would notice that
(1) clockwise current are induced in loops A
and B
(2) counterclockwise current are induced in
loops A and B
(3) a clockwise current is induced in loop A,
but a counterclockwise current is induced
in loop B
(4) a counterclockwise current is induced in
loop A, but a clockwise current is induced
in loop B
two frictionless, flat, conducting rails R and S , in
a uniform magnetic field directed into the plane.
If conductor P is moved in the direction shown
in the figure with a constant speed, then the con-
ductor Q
(1) will be attracted towards conductor P
(2) will be repelled away from conductor P
(3) will remain stationary
(4) first attracted and then repelled away from
conductor P
a north-south line and moves eastward at a speed
of 10 ms−1 . A uniform magnetic field of 4.0 T
points vertically downwards. If the south end of
the bar has a potential of 0 V, the induced po-
tential at the north end of the bar is
(1) +12 V
(2) −12V
 (3) 0 V (4) charged stored in the capacitor increases
(4) cannot be determined since there is not a exponentially with time
closed circuit
13. A thin copper wire of length 100 m is wound
10. A semi-circular loop of radius R is placed in a as a solenoid of length l and radius r . Its self-
uniform magnetic field as shown. It is pulled inductance is found to be L. Now if the same
with a constant velocity. The induced emf in the length of wire is wound as a solenoid of length l
r
loop is but of radius , then its self inductance will be
2
(1) 4L (2) 2L
L
(3) L (4)
2
14. There are 10 turns in coil M and 15 turns in coil
N . If a current of 2 A is passed through coil M,
then the flux linked with coil N is 1.8 × 10−3 Wb.
If a current of 3 A is passed through coil N then
flux linked with coil M is
(1) 1.7 × 10−3 Wb (2) 2.7 × 10−3 Wb
(3) 1.7 × 10−5 Wb (4) 2.7 × 10−5 Wb
(1) Bv(πR ) cos θ (2) Bv(πR ) sin θ
(3) Bv(2R ) cos θ (4) Bv(2R ) sin θ 15. A current i = 10 sin(100π t) A is passed in first coil,
which induces a maximum emf of 5πV in second
11. A long metal rod AB has resistance of unit length coil. The mutual inductance between the coils is
λ. It moves with constant speed v(v ⊥ AB) in (1) 10mH (2) 15mH
resistanceless triangular rails from O to C in a (3) 25mH (4) 5mH
uniform magnetic field B as shown in the figure.
16. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the
The angle between the rails is α. Find the cur-
three situations shown in the figure. Their mu-
rent as a function of time:
tual inductance will be

Bv Bv (1) maximum in situation (a)

(1) (2) (2) maximum in situation (b)
λ 2λ
2Bv sin α Bv sin α (3) maximum in situation (c)
(3) (4) (4) the same in all situations
λ 2λ
12. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is mov- 17. The figure shows a part of a complete circuit.
ing with a uniform speed v = 20 m/s in a uniform The potential difference VB − VA when the cur-
magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper. rent i is 5 A and is decreasing at a rate of
A capacitor of capacity C = 10µF is connected as 103 A s−1 is given by
shown in figure. Then

(1) 15 V (2) 10 V
(3) −15V (4) 20 V
18. A time varying voltage V = 2 t volt is applied
across an ideal inductor of inductance L = 2H as
shown in figure. Then select incorrect statement
(1) q A = +800µC and q B = −800µC
(2) q A = −800µC and q B = +800µC
(3) q A = 0 = q B

3
 (1) current versus time graph is a parabola (2) B1 lights up earlier and finally both the
(2) energy stored in magnetic field at t = 2 s is bulbs acquire equal brightness.
4J (3) B2 lights up earlier and finally B1 shines
(3) potential energy at time t = 1 s in magnetic brighter than B2 .
field is increasing at a rate of 1 J/s (4) B1 and B2 light up together with equal
(4) energy stored in magnetic field is zero all brightness all the time.
the time
22. In an AC circuit, the current is given by i =
19. Two resistors of 10Ω and 20Ω and an ideal in- 4 sin (100π t + 30◦ ) A . The current becomes maxi-
ductor of 10H are connected to a 2 V battery as mum first time (after t = 0 ) at t equal to
shown. The key K is inserted at time t = 0. The ( ) ( )
1 1
initial ( t = 0) and final ( t → ∞) currents through (1) s (2) s
200 300
battery are ( )
1
(3) s (4) None of these
50
p
23. An alternating voltage V = 300 2 sin(100 t) is
connected to a 1µF capacitor through an AC am-
meter. The reading of the ammeter will be
(1) 10 mA (2) 30 mA
p p
(3) 30 2 mA (4) 20 2 mA
24. A resistance of 20Ω is connected to a source of
an alternating potential V = 220 sin(100π t). The
time taken by the current to change from the
1 1 1 1 peak value to rms value, is
(1) A, A (2) A, A
15 10 10 15 (1) 0.2 s (2) 0.25 s
2 1 1 2 (3) 2.5 × 10−2 s (4) 2.5 × 10−3 s
(3) A, A (4) A, A
15 10 15 25 25. The current in a circuit varies with time as i =
20. An LR circuit with a battery is connected at t = 0. p
2 t then, the rms value of the current for the in-
Which of the following quantities is not zero just terval t = 2s to t = 4 s is
after closing the circuit? p p
(1) p 3 A (2) 2 3 A
(1) current in the circuit p
(3) 23 A (4) (4 − 2 2)A
(2) magnetic field energy in the inductor
26. In a circuit an AC current and a DC current are
(3) power delivered by the battery
supplied together. The expression of the ( instan-
(4) emf induced in the inductor π)
taneous current is given as: i = 3 + 4 sin ω t + .
21. An inductor L, a resistance R and two identi- 3
The rms value of current is
cal bulbs B1 and B2 are connected to a battery p
through a switch S as shown in the figure. The (1) 5 A (2) 17 A
resistance of coil having inductance L is also 5 7
(3) p A (4) p A
R . Which of the following statement gives the 2 2
correct description of the happenings when the 27. A direct current of 2 A and an alternating current
switch S is closed? having a maximum value of 2 A flow through
two identical resistances. The ratio of heat pro-
duced in the two resistances in the same time
interval will be
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
28. At a frequency ω0 the reactance of a certain ca-
pacitor equals that of a certain inductor. If the
frequency is changed to 2ω0 , what is the ratio of
the reactance of the inductor to that of the ca-
pacitor?
p
(1) The bulb B2 lights up earlier than B1 and (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
p
finally both the bulbs shine equally bright. (3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 2

4
29. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to 34. The secondary coil of an ideal step-down trans-
a source of alternating current. If its frequency former is delivering 500 W power at 12.5 A cur-
is increased, while keeping the voltage of the rent. If the ratio of turns in the primary coil to
source constant, then the secondary coil is 5 : 1 then the current flow-
(1) bulb will give more intense light ing in the primary coil will be
(1) 62.5 A (2) 2.5 A
(2) bulb will give less intense light
(3) 6 A (4) 0.4 A
(3) bulb will give light of same intensity as be-
35. In a step-up transformer the turn’s ratio is 10 . If
fore
the frequency of the current in the primary coil
(4) bulb will stop radiating light
is 50 Hz, then the frequency of the current in the
30. Time constant of the given circuit is τ. If the bat- secondary coil will be
tery is replaced by an AC source having voltage (1) 500 Hz (2) 5 Hz
V = V0 cos ω t, power factor of the circuit will be
(3) 60 Hz (4) 50 Hz

SECTION B
36. A circular coil of 500 turns encloses an area of
0.04 m2 . A uniform magnetic field of induc-
tion 0.25 Wb/ m2 is applied perpendicular to the
plane of the coil. The coil is rotated by 90◦ in
(1) ωτ (2) √
1 0.1 second at a constant angular velocity about
1 + (ωτ)2 one of its diameters. A galvanometer of resis-
√ tance 25Ω was connected in series with the coil.
(3) 1 − (ωτ)2 (4) zero
The total charge that will pass through the gal-
31. In series R − L − C circuit, the rms voltage across vanometer is
the resistor and inductor are 400 V and 700 V., (1) 0.4C (2) 1C
respectively. If the equation for the applied volt- (3) 0.2C (4) zero
p
age is E = 500 2 sin ω t, then the peak voltage
37. An electron is moving in a circular orbit of ra-
across the capacitor is
dius R with an angular acceleration α. At the
centre of the orbit is kept a conducting loop of
radius r, ( r < R ). The emf induced in the smaller
loop due to the motion of the electron is
µ0 er 2
(1) zero (2) α
4R
µ0 er 2
p (3) α (4) None of these
4π R
(1) 1200 V (2) 1200 2 V
p 38. The figure shows an isosceles triangle wire frame
(3) 400 V (4) 400 2 V
with apex angle equal to π/2. The frame starts
32. An L-C-R series circuit is connected to an AC entering into the region of uniform magnetic
source of variable angular frequency ω and a field B with constant velocity v at t = 0. The
fixed voltage amplitude. The current amplitude longest side of the frame is perpendicular to the
in the circuit is found to be the same for two direction of velocity. If i is the instantaneous
angular frequencies, ω1 and ω2 . The resonance current through the frame then choose the al-
angular frequency of this circuit must be ternative showing the correct variation of i with
(1) [ω1 ω2 ] 2
1
(2)
ω1 + ω2 time.
2
ω 1 ω2
(3) (4) None of these
ω1 + ω2
33. In a series resonant L-C-R circuit, the voltage
across R is 100 V and R = 1kΩ with C = 2µF. The
resonant frequency ω is 200rad/s. At resonance
the voltage across L is
(1) 2.5 × 10−2 V (2) 40 V
(3) 250 V (4) 4 × 10−3 V

5
 42. A vertical ring of radius r and resistance R falls
39. A conducting rod PQ of length 5 m oriented as
( )
shown is moving with v = 2 ms−1 î without any
rotation in a uniform magnetic field (3 ĵ + 4k̂)T .
Magnitude of emf induced in the rod is
vertically. It is in contact with two vertical rails
which are joined at the top with a conducting
wire of zero resistance. The rails are conduct-
ing, frictionless and have negligible resistance.
Horizontal uniform magnetic field of magnitude
B perpendicular to the plane of ring and rails ex-
ists. When the speed of ring is v, the current in
the section PQ is

(1) 32 V (2) 40 V 2Brv

(3) 50 V (4) None of these (1) zero (2)
R
40. The magnetic field in a region is given by B = 4Brv 8Brv
( )
B0 1 + ax k̂. A square loop of resistance R and (3) (4)
R R
edge length d is placed with its edges along X 43. A metal wire PQ slides on parallel metallic rails
and Y -axis. The loop is moved with constant ve- having separation 0.25 m, each having negligi-
locity v = v0 î . The induced current in the loop is ble resistance. There is a 2Ω resistor and 10 V
v0 B 0 d 2 v0 B 0 d 2 battery as shown in figure. There is a uniform
(1) (2) magnetic field directed into the plane of the pa-
aR 2aR
per of magnitude 0.5 T. A force of 0.5 N to the
v0 B 0 d 2
(3) (4) None of these left is required to keep the wire PQ moving with
4aR
constant speed to the right. With what speed is
41. A wire bent as a parabola y = kx2 is located
the wire PQ moving? (Neglect self-inductance
in a uniform magnetic field of induction B, the
of the loop)
vector B being perpendicular to the X Y -plane.
At the moment t = 0, a connector starts sliding
translation wise from the parabola apex with a
constant acceleration a (figure). The emf of elec-
tromagnetic induction in the loop thus formed as
a function of y is

(1) 8 m/s (2) 16 m/s

(3) 24 m/s (4) 32 m/s
44. A circular loop of radius r is placed on the axis of
a current carrying circular ring of radius R (R À
p
r ), at a distance R 3 from the centre of the ring.
The plane of the loop is making an angle of 53◦
with the plane of the ring. The coefficient of mu-
tual induction between them is
µ0 π r 2 3µ0 π r 2
(1) (2)
p p 20R 80R
(1) B y 2a/ k (2) B y a/2k 3µ 0 π R 2
p p
(3) B y 8a/ k (4) B y 4a/k (3) (4) None
80 r

6
45. When the current in a certain inductor coil is the phase through which current lags behind the
5.0 A and is increasing at the rate of 10.0 As−1 , applied emf and the wattless component of cur-
the potential difference across the coil is 140 V. rent in the circuit will be, respectively
When the current is 5.0 A and decreasing at the (1) 30◦ , 1 A (2) 45◦ , 0.5 A
rate of 10.0 A/s, the potential difference is 60 V. (3) 60 , 1.5 A
◦
(4) None of these
The self inductance of the coil is
49. An AC source of angular frequency ω is fed
(1) 2H (2) 4H
across a resistor of resistance R and a capaci-
(3) 8H (4) 12H
tor of capacitance C in series. The current reg-
46. In the given figure if i 1 = 3 sin ω t and i 2 = 4 cos ω t, istered is i . If now the frequency of the source
then i 3 is ω
is changed to (but maintaining the same volt-
3
i
age), the current in the circuit is found to be .
2
The ratio of capacitive reactance to resistance at
the original frequency is
p
1 3
(1) p (2)
2 5
√ √
3 3
(1) 5 sin (ω t + 53◦ ) (2) 5 sin (ω t + 37◦ ) (3) (4)
2 5
(3) 5 sin (ω t + 45◦ ) (4) 5 cos (ω t + 53◦ )
50. A bulb is rated of 100 V, 100 W, it can be treated
47. The potential difference V and current i flow- as a resistor. Find out the inductance of an in-
ing through the AC circuit is given by V = ductor (called choke coil) that should be con-
( )
5 cos ω t − π6 V and i = 10 sin ω t A. The average nected in series with the bulb to operate the bulb
power dissipated in the circuit is at its rated power with the help of an AC source
p
(1) 12.5 3 W (2) 12.5 W of 200 V and 50 Hz.
(3) 25 W (4) 50 W π
(1) p H (2) 100H
48. A coil has an inductance of 0.7H and is joined in 3
series with a resistance of 220Ω. When the alter- p p
2 3
nating emf of 220 V at 50 Hz is applied to it then (3) H (4) H
π π

CHEMISTRY
(1) (b) & (d) only (2) (b) only
(3) (b) & (c) only (4) (b), (c) & (d) only
SECTION A
53. The secondary valency of a complex having for-
51. Chlorophyll, haemoglobin and vitamin B12 are mula PtCl4 · 2HCl is six. Identify the correct
coordination compounds of? statement?
(1) Manganese, iron and cobalt respectively
(2) Magnesium, iron and copper respectively (a) Moles of AgCl precipitated per mole of the
(3) Magnesium, iron and cobalt respectively compounds with excess AgNO3 is 0.
(4) Magnesium, iron and copper respectively (b) The complex is a dibasic acid.
(c) The primary valency of Pt is +4 in this
52. Which of the following regarding Werner’s the- complex.
ory of coordination compounds is/are incorrect?
(d) Its aqueous solution can conduct electric-
(a) In coordination compounds metal(s) shows ity.
two types of linkages.
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (a) & (c) only
(b) The primary valences are normally non-
(3) (d) Only (4) All are correct.
ionisable.
(c) The secondary valence is equal to the coor- 54. If excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a
dination number. 0.024M solution of Dichloridobis(ethylene di-
(d) The secondary valences are satisfied by amine)cobalt(III) chloride how many moles of
neutral molecules or negative ions. AgCl will be precipitated?

7
 (1) 0.0012 (2) 0.0016 and optical isomerism
(3) 0.0024 (4) 0.0048
61. Which one of the following pairs of isomers and
55. Identify the incorrect match? types of isomerism are correctly matched?
(a) Carnallite : KCl · MgCl2 · 2H2 O [ ] [ ]
i. Co (NH3 )5 (NO2 ) Cl2 and Co (NH3 )5 (ONO) Cl2 . . .
(b) Mohr’s salt : Fe2 (SO4 )3 . (NH4 )2 SO4 · 6H2 O
(Linkage)
(c) Potash alum : KAl (SO4 )2 · 24H2 O
ii. [Cu (NH3 )4 ] [PtCl4 ] and [Pt (NH3 )4 ] [CuCl4 ] . . .
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (a) & (c) only
(Coordination)
(3) (c) Only (4) All are incorrect.
iii. [PtCl2 (NH3 )4 ] Br2 and [PtBr2 (NH3 )4 ] Cl2 . . .
56. How many of the following ligands have dentic- (Ionization)
ity one? Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) en (b) CN− below :
(c) ox (d) NO2 − (1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
(3) 3 (4) 4
62. Which one of the following exhibit(s) optical iso-
57. Among the following which are ambidentate lig- merism
ands (a) [Cr (C2 O4 )3 ]3−
(i) NO− 2 (ii) NO− 3 (b) cis-[PtCl2 (en)2 ]2+
(iii) EDTA 4− (iv) C2 O24− (c) cis - Platin
(v) SCN− (vi) en (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c).
(3) (i) and (v) (4) (iii) and (vi)
63. Which of the following statement is false?
58. Which of the following is the correct representa-
(1) Optical isomerism is observed in [Zn(gly)2 ].
tion of the complex Tetraammineaquachlorido-
(2) Geometrical isomerism does not exist
cobalt(III) chloride.
while optical isomerism exists in complex
(1) [Co (NH3 )4 (H2 O) Cl] Cl
[Fe (C2 O4 )3 ]3− .
(2) [Co (H2 O) (NH3 )4 Cl] Cl2
(3) [Co (NH3 )4 (H2 O) Cl] Cl (3) Both cis-form and trans form is optically in-
(4) [Co (NH3 )4 (H2 O) Cl] Cl2 active in [PtCl2 (NH3 )4 ]2+ complex ion.
(4) [Pt(en)2 ]2+ show geometrical isomerism as
59. The IUPAC name of the compound well as optical isomerism.
[PtCl2 (en)2 ] (NO3 )2 ?
64. Identify the homoleptic complex among the fol-
(1) Bischloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) lowing?
platinum(III) nitrate (1) [Mn(CN)6 ]3− (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]3−
(2) Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) (3) [Co (C2 O4 )3 ]3−
(4) All
platinum(IV) nitrite
(3) Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) 65. Which of the following complexes exhibit both
platinum(III) nitrate geometrical and optical isomerism?
(A) [Ru(en)3 ]3+ (B) [Co (H2 O)3 Cl3 ]
(4) Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)
(C) [PtBrCl (H2 O) NH3 ] (D) [CoBr2 (en)2 ]+
platinum(IV) nitrate
correct code is :
60. The complex [Co (NH3 )4 (NO2 )2 ] Cl exhibits (1) A, B, C (2) B, C
(3) C, D (4) Only D
(1) Ionization isomerism, geometrical iso-
[ ]
merism and optical isomerism 66. Statement I: The complex Cr(SCN) (NH3 )5 Cl2
[ ]
(2) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism is linkage isomer of Cr(NCS) (NH3 )5 Cl2 .
and optical isomerism Statement II: SCN− is an ambidentate ligand.
(3) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism (1) Statement I is true, statement II is true
and geometrical isomerism and Statement II is correct explanation for
(4) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism Statement I

8
 (2) Statement I is true, statement II is true and 72. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
Statement II is NOT the corre explanation crystal field theory?
for Statement I
(a) Crystal field theory is an electrostatic
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false model which considers the metal-ligand
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true bond to be ionic.
[ ]3+ (b) Ligands are treated as point charges in case
67. The hybridisation involved in Co (NH3 )6 is
of anions.
(1) sp3 d2 (2) sp3 d3
(c) Ligands are treated as point dipoles in case
(3) dsp 3
(4) d2 sp3
of neutral molecules.
68. Match the examples given in column I with the (d) Crystal field splitting pattern depends upon
shapes of the compounds given in column II with the geometry of the complex.
and mark the appropriate choice. (1) All are correct (2) All except (c)
Column I Column II (3) All except (b) (4) All except (b) & (c)
d2 sp3 ,
(A) [Ag (NH3 )2 ]+ (i)
octahedral 73. Which of the following is the correct crystal field
dsp2 , square splitting potential order?
(B) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− (ii) (a) I − < SCN− < S2− < F−
planar
(C) [Ni(CO)4 ] (iii) sp, linear (b) OH− < C2 O4 2− < H2 O < NCS−
sp3 (c) edta 4− < NH3 < en < CN− < CO
(D) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− (iv) (1) Only (b) (2) Only (c)
tetrahedral
(3) Only (b) & (c) (4) All are correct
(1) A → iii, B → i, C → iv, D → ii
(2) A → iii, B → ii, C → iv, D → i
74. Which of the following is correct about d4 ions
(3) A → iii, B → ii, C → i, D → iv
in octahedral field?
(4) A → iii, B → i, C → ii, D → iv
(a) If ∆o < P, the fourth electron enters one
3− is
69. [CoF6 ] of the eg orbitals giving the configuration
t2g 3 eg 1 (high spin complex)
(1) Paramagnetic and undergoes sp3 d2 hybridi-
sation (b) If ∆o > P , the fourth electron to occupy a
t2g orbital with configuration t2g 4 eg 0 (Low
(2) Diamagnetic and undergoes d2 sp3 hybridi-
spin complex).
sation
(c) d4 low spin complexes are more stable than
(3) Paramagnetic and undergoes sp3 d hybridi-
d4 high spin complexes.
sation
(d) For the same metal, the same ligands and
(4) Diamagnetic and undergoes sp3 hybridisa-
metal-ligand distances, ∆o = 9/4∆t .
tion.
(1) All except (d)
70. Of the following, which one is an inner orbital (2) All except (c)
complex with diamagnetic character? (3) All are correct
(1) [Mn(CN)6 ]3− (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− (4) All except (c) & (d)
(3) [Co (C2 O4 )3 ]3−
(4) [MnCl6 ]3−
75. Which of the following complex does not absorb
71. Arrange the following cyano complexes in in- radiation from visible region for d-d transition?
[ ]3+
creasing order of magnetic moment. (1) Co (NH3 )6
(2) [Co(CN)6 ]3−
(1) [Fe(CN)6 ]4− < [Fe(CN)6 ]3− < [Mn(CN)6 ]3− <
(3) [Ti (H2 O)6 ]3+
[Cr(CN)6 ]3−
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− < [Cr(CN)6 ]3− < [Mn(CN)6 ]3− <
[Fe(CN)6 ]4− 76. Assertion: Removal of water from
(3) [Mn(CN)6 ]3− < [Fe(CN)6 ]3− < [Fe(CN)6 ]4− < [Ti (H2 O)6 ] Cl3 on heating renders it colourless.
[Cr(CN)6 ]3− Reason: In the absence of ligand, crystal field
(4) [Fe(CN)6 ]3− < [Cr(CN)6 ]3− < [Fe(CN)6 ]4− < splitting does not occur and hence the substance
[Mn(CN)6 ]3− become colourless.

9
 (1) Both assertion and reason are true and rea-
son is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but rea-
son is not the correct explanation of asser-
tion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
77. In ruby and emerald, the colours produced by
electronic transitions within the d orbitals is re-
spectively due to the presence of?
(1) Cr3+ & Co3+ (2) Cr3+ & Cr3+
(3) Cr & Al
3+ 3+
(4) Al3+ & Cr3+
78. Which of the following is incorrect about metal
carbonyls?
(1) The metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls
possess both σ and π character.
(2) The M − C σ bond is formed by the donation
of lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom
of carbonyl ligand into a vacant orbital of
the metal.
(3) The M-C π bond is formed by the donation
of a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital
of metal into the vacant antibonding π∗ or-
bital of carbon monoxide.
(4) The metal to ligand bonding creates a syn-
ergic effect which strengthens the bond be-
tween CO and the metal.
79. Incorrect match is :
(1) EDTA4− : Estimation of Hardness of water
(2) DMG : Analysis of Ni2+ (aq)
(3) α-nitroso-β- naphthol: Lead poisioning
[ ]
(4) RhCl (PPh3 )3 : Wilkinson’s catalyst
80. In black and white photography, the developed
film is fixed by washing with ........ solution
which dissolves the undecomposed ....... to form
a complex ion, ........
(1) Hypo, AgBr, [Ag (S2 O3 )2 ]
(2) Hypo, AgBr, [Ag (S2 O3 )2 ]3−
(3) Hypo, AgCl, [Ag (S2 O3 )2 ]−
(4) Hypo, AgCl, [Ag (S2 O3 )2 ]2−
81. Gold can be separated in metallic form from
[Au(CN)2 ]− by the addition of ?
(1) Zn
(2) EDTA
(3) DMG
(4) α-nitroso- β-naphthol
10
82. The value of the ’spin only’ magnetic moment of
an octahedral complex is 3.87 BM. The correct
configuration is
(1) d7 (in weak ligand field)
(2) d 7 (in weak as well as strong field)
(3) d 3 (in weak as well as in strong field)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
83. In which compound synergic bonding is present
(1) [Ni(CO)4 ] (2) [Fe(CO)5 ]
(3) (1) only (4) Both (1) & (2)
84. The colour of [Ti (H2 O)6 ]3+ is due to
(1)Excitation of electron from t2g 2 eg 0 → t2g 1 eg 1
(2)Excitation of electron from t2g 1 eg 1 → t2g 0 eg 2
(3) Excitation of electron from t2g 1 eg 0 → t2g 0 eg 1
(4)Excitation of electron from t2g 0 eg 1 → t2g 1 eg 0
85. For an octahedral complex, which of the follow-
ing d-electron configuration will give maximum
Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy?
(1) High spin d6 (2) Low spin d4
(3) Low spin d 5
(4) High spin d7
SECTION B
86. Find out wrong statement for an octahedral com-
plex
(1) Central metal cation with d6 configuration
is diamagnetic in strong ligand field.
(2) Central metal cation with d 5 configuration
has one unpaired electron in both weak and
strong ligand field.
(3) Central metal cation with d8 configuration
has two unpaired electrons in weak, strong
and also in mixed ligand field.
(4) Central metal cation with d4 , d5 , d6 and d7
configuration have different number of un-
paired electrons in weak and strong ligand
field.
87. Identify the complex which are expected to be
coloured
(1) [Ti (H2 O)6 ]4+ (2) [Sc (H2 O)6 ]3+
(3) [VF6 ]− (4) [Mn (H2 O)6 ]3+
88. The IUPAC name of Wilkinson’s catalyst is :
(1) Chloridotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium(I)
(2) Chloridotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium(IV)
(3) Chloridotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium(0)
(4) Chloridotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium(VI)
89. Which is not true about Mn2 (CO)10 ? 94. How many of the following ligand(s) have both
the donor atoms same?
(1) Here CO acts as a Lewis base as well as
(i) gly (ii) en
Lewis acid
(iii) dmg (iv) ox
(2) Here Mn acts as Lewis base as well as Lewis
(1) 3 (2) 2
acid
(3) 1 (4) 4
(3) It has a Mn - Mn bond bridged by two CO
groups. 95. What will be the correct order of ab-
(4) It is made up of two square pyramidal sorption of wavelength of light in
Mn(CO)5 units joined by a Mn − Mn bond. the visible region for the complexes,
[ ]3+
Co (NH3 )6 , [Co(CN)6 ]3− , [Co (H2 O)6 ]3+ ?
90. Assertion: During tetrahedral complex forma- [ ]3+
tion, the d-orbitals split and form two sets of or- (1) [Co(CN)6 ]3− > Co (NH3 )6 > [Co (H2 O)6 ]3+
[ ]3+
bitals e and t2 . (2) Co (NH3 )6 > [Co (H2 O)6 ]3+ > [Co(CN)6 ]3−
Reason: Tetrahedral complexes lack centre of [ ]3+
(3) [Co (H2 O)6 ]3+ > Co (NH3 )6 > [Co(CN)6 ]3−
symmetry, ’ g’ subscript is not used with energy [ ]3+
levels. (4) [Co(CN)6 ]3− > [Co (H2 O)6 ]3+ > Co (NH3 )6

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and rea- 96. The CFSE for tetrahedral dM (NH3 )4 en+ is
son is the correct explanation of assertion. 16, 00 cm−1 . The CFSE for octahedral
[ ]n+
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but rea- M (NH3 )6 will be
son is not the correct explanation of asser-
(1) 1200 cm−1 (2) 800 cm−1
tion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) 1800 cm−1 (4) 3600 cm−1
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
97. Which of the following ligands will not show
91. Coordination compounds have great importance chelation?
in biological systems. In this context which of (1) EDTA (2) DMG
the following statements is incorrect?
(3) Ethene-1,2-diamine (4) Triphenylphosphine
(1) Carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme and con-
tains zinc 98. Which of the following is called beryl?
(2) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood (1) Be3 Al2 Si6 O18
and contains iron
(2) BeSO4
(3) Cyanocobalamin is Vitamin B-12, the anti-
pernicious anaemia factor, contains Cu. (3) Al2 O3
(4) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants (4) Al2 O3 having Cr3+ in some places of Al3+ .
and contain Mg.
99. Select correct pair of complexes that exhibit
92. The correct IUPAC name of the following com- same type of isomerism.
[ ]
pound is Cr (NH3 )5 (NCS) [ZnCl4 ] [ ]
(1) CoBr (NH3 )5 Cl2 , [IrBr3 (H2 O)3 ]
(1) Pentaamminethiocyanato-S-chromium(II)
(2) [Cr (NO2 )2 (en)2 ]+ , [Rh(SCN) (H2 O) (ox)2 ]2−
tetrachloridozincate(III) [ ]+ [ ]+
(2) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-chromate(III) (3) Pt (gly) (NH3 ) (H2 O) , Zn( gly ) (NH3 )2
tetrachloridozincate(II) (4) [CoCl2 (NH3 )4 ]+ , [CrBr (H2 O)5 ] Br2
(3) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-chromium(III)
tetrachloridozincate(II) 100. For which of the following complex, the ratio of
(4) Pentaamminethiocyanato-S-chromium(III) observed osmotic pressure to calculated osmotic
tetrachloridozinc(II) pressure is unity?
(1) K3 [Mn(CN)6 ]
93. The magnitude of magnetic moment (spin only) [ ]
of [Ni(CN)4 ]2− will be (2) Fe(CN)3 (NH3 )3
[ ]
(1) 2.84 B.M. (2) 0 (3) Co (NH3 )6 Cl3
(3) 1.73 B.M. (4) 5.92 B.M.
(4) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3
11
 BOTANY

SECTION A

101. Diapause is a stage of

(1) Developmental stage
108. What percentage of animals on the earth are reg-
(2) Delayed aestivation stage ulators and conformers, respectively?
(3) Suspended development (1) 2%, 98% (2) 1%, 99%
(4) Hibernation (3) 4%, 96% (4) 5%, 95%

102. Which of the following is incorrect match 109. Homeostasis is

(1) Fish - Aestivation (1) Maintaining a constant internal environ-
(2) Bears - Hibernation ment.
(2) Maintaining a constant external environ-
(3) Snail - Diapause
ment.
(4) Plants - Adaptation (3) Maintaining circulation of blood
(4) None of these
103. .......Rules state that ....... from colder climate
generally have shorter ears and limbs to min-
110. Desert lizard lack the .......(i)...... ability that
imise heat loss
mammals have to deal with the .....(ii).... tem-
(1) Blackman’s, mammals perature of their habitat, but manage to keep
(2) Allen’s, mammals their body temperature fairly constant by......
means
(3) Gause, placental animals (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Chargaff’s, placental animals (1) Behavioural low physiological
(2) Physiological high behavioural
104. The most ecologically relevant environment fac- (3) Behavioural high physiological
tor is (4) Physiological low behavioural

(1) Soil (2) Water 111. Ecological age groups of population are
(3) Temperature (4) Light I) Pre reproductive

105. Average temperature of thermal springs and II) Reproductive

deep sea hydrothermal vents exceed III) Infertile age group
(1) 100 C
◦
(2) 60 C
◦
IV) Post reproductive
(3) 70◦ C (4) 50◦ C V) Dead group
(1) I, II, IV (2) I, III, IV
106. Organisms which are restricted to narrow range
of temperature are called (3) II, III, IV (4) III, IV, V
(1) Euryhaline
112. The age pyramid with broad base indicates
(2) Stenothermal
(1) High percentage of old individuals
(3) Stenohaline (2) High percentage of young individuals
(4) Eurythermal (3) Low percentage of young individuals
(4) All of these
107. The organism which tolerates wide range of
salinity is called.....(i)...... The organism which 113. Pseudocopulation occur in
tolerate narrow range of salinity is called (1) Ophrys (2) Papaya
.....(ii)..... (3) Maize (4) Mango

12
114. Lichen is an example of 120. Fill the option a, b, c, d given below:
Name of Species Species
(1) Mutualism
Interactions A B
(2) Parasitism Mutualism a +
(3) Commensalism Competitions - b
Predation + -
(4) Predation
Parasitism c -
115. The principle of competitive exclusion was Commensalism + d
stated by
(1) C. Darvin (2) G. P Gause
(3) Mac Arthur (4) Verhulst and Pearl

116. In ........ one species is harmed where as the

other is unaffected
(1) Predation
(2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism
121. Assertion (A): In commensalism, one organism
(4) Parasitism is benefitted and other is unaffected.
Reason (R): Cattle egret bird and cattle is an
117. Ecology at the organismic level is essentially
example of commensalism.
(1) Physiological ecology
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Psychological ecology explanation of A
(3) Physio-chemical ecology (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the cor-
rect explanation of A
(4) Morphological ecology
(3) A is true, but R is false
118. Which one is correct statement for logistic model (4) A is false, but R is true
of population growth?
122. If ‘N’ is the population density at time (t), then
(I) Population rate increase as the size of pop-
its density at time t+1 is
ulation approaches the carrying capacity.
(1) N t+1 = N t + [(B + I ) − (D + E )]
(II) All individuals have same effect on popula- (2) N t = N t+1 + [(B + I ) − (D + E )]
tion growth. (3) N t+1 = N t − [(B + I ) + (D + E )]
(III) There are unlimited natural resources. (4) N t = N t+1 − [(B + I ) + (D + E )]
(IV) As population increases the competitions
goes on increasing. 123. Population is the total number of
(1) I and II (2) Only IV (1) Interbreeding individuals of a same species
found in a same geographical area.
(3) IV and III (4) I and III
(2) Interbreeding individuals of a same species
119. Choose the incorrect statements? found in different geographical area.
(3) Interbreeding individuals of different
(1) The most spectacular and evolutionarely
species found in different geographical
fascinating examples of mutualism are
area.
found in plant-animal relationships
(4) Both 2&3.
(2) Negative interaction is interaction of one or
both interacting organisms are negatively
124. If in a pond, there are 10 lotus plants last
affected.
year and through reproduction 4 new plants are
(3) Commensalism, when two species live to- added. Then the birth rate is
gether and if there is no physiological de-
pendence between them. (1) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year
(4) None of the above. (2) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year

13
 (3) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year 131. Carrying capacity is the capacity of
(4) 0.6 offspring per lotus per year (1) Habitat that has resources to sustain certain
number of individual
125. If the age distribution is plotted for a populations (2) Population to reproduce and competitive-
the resulting structure is called ness.
(1) Age curve (2) Age diagram (3) Population to reproduce
(3) Age graph (4) Age pyramid (4) None of these

126. Select the correct option with respect to age 132. Logistic growth is represented by which equa-
pyramids. tion?
( )
dN K−N
(1) = rN
dt K
( )
dN K−N
(2) = rN
dt N
( )
dN K +N
(3) = rN
dt K
(1) A- Expanding, B-Stable, C- Declining ( )
dN K
(4) = rN
(2) A- Stable, B-Expanding, C- Declining dt K +N
(3) A- Stable, B-Declining, C- Expanding
133. Which of the following is true regarding expo-
(4) A- Declining, B-Stable, C- Expanding nential growth.
(1) Any species growing exponentially under
127. Population size is more technically called
unlimited resource conditions can reach
(1) Population density
enormous population densities in a short
(2) Demography
time
(3) Population growth
(2) Exponential growth slows down as the pop-
(4) Population dynamics
ulation nears its log phase.
128. In some cases, population density is measured in (3) Bacteria colonies have been observed to
terms of biomass rather than in terms of number maintain exponential growth always.
because. (4) Exponential growth is commonly observed
in large, slow growing species such as ele-
(1) It is more meaningful measure when the phants in the presence of checks
considered organism vary greatly in size.
(2) It is more convenient when population is 134. Life history traits of organisms have evolved in
huge and counting is impossible or very relation to the constraints imposed by which
time consuming. components of habitat?
(1) Organic components
(3) It is relatively constant.
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Abiotic components
(3) Biotic components
129. ‘r’ values for the Norway rat is
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) 0.12 (2) 0.0205
(3) 0.21 (4) 0.015 135. Choose incorrect match for life history varia-
tions in various organisms.
130. For which of the following cases, population (1) Breeds only once in their life time - Pacific
density can be easily determined by utilising salmon fish, Bamboo.
non-biological parameter? (2) Breads many times during life time- Most
birds, Mammals.
(1) Fish density
(3) Produces large number of small sized off-
(2) Density of bacteria in culture plate
spring - Birds.
(3) Siberian cranes in Bharatpur wet lands. (4) Produce small number of large sized off-
(4) Tiger census. spring - Mammals.

14
 140. Choose the incorrect statement.
SECTION B (1) Parasite might render the host more vulner-
able to predation by making it physically
136. Population evolve to maximize their reproduc- weak.
tive fitness also called Darwinian fitness with. (2) Majority of parasites harm the host and re-
(1) High r value duce the population density.
(2) Low r value (3) Ideal parasite should be able to thrive
(3) High k value within host by harming it.
(4) High
K −N
value. (4) Malarial parasite does not need a vector
K
141. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is
137. In an area, there are 200 parthenium and a single
due to.
banyan tree. For the information given above
which of the following conclusive statement(s) (1) Interspecific competition.
is/are correct (2) Mutualism
(1) Population density of banyan tree is high. (3) Commensalism
(2) Percentage cover of banyan tree is high. (4) Amensalism
(3) In above case the percentage cover or
142. Which type of association is found in between
biomass is more meaningful than popula-
entemophilous flower and pollinating agent?
tion size.
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism
(1) Only 1 (2) 1 and 2 (3) Co operation (4) Amensalism
(3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3
143. Which of the following is not a parasitic adapta-
138. Match the following columns tion.
Column - I (1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
Column - II
(Population (2) Development of adhesive organ.
(Examples)
interaction) (3) Loss of digestive organs.
A. Mutualism 1. Ticks on dogs (4) Loss of reproductive capacity.
2. Balanus and
B. Commensalism
Chathamalus 144. A high density of deer population in an area can
3. Sparrow and result in.
C.Parasitism
any seed (1) Predation on one another.
4.Epiphyte on a (2) Mutualism.
D. Competition
Mango branch (3) Intraspecific competition.
E. Predation 5. Lichens (4) Interspecific competition.
A B C D E
145. Assertion (A): Predation is an intraspecific in-
(1) 1 5 4 3 2
teraction with a feeding strategy.
(2) 2 1 5 4 3
Reason (R): Biological control methods adopted
(3) 3 2 1 5 4
in agricultural pest control are based on the abil-
(4) 5 4 1 2 3
ity of the predator to regulate prey population
139. Match the following columns (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Column - I Column - II explanation of A
(Parasitism) (Examples) (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the cor-
A. Ecto parasite 1. Cuckoo rect explanation of A
B. Endo parasite 2. Lice (3) A is true, but R is false
C. Brood parasite 3. Ascaris (4) A is false, but R is true
A B C
(1) 3 1 2 146. Assertion (A): The prickly pear cactus intro-
(2) 2 1 3 duced into Australia in early 1920’s caused
(3) 3 2 1 havoc by spreading rapidly into million of
(4) 2 3 1 hectares of rangeland.

15
 Reason (R): When certain exotic species are in-
troduced into a geographical area, they become
invasive and start spreading fast because the in-
vaded land does not have its natural predators.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the cor-
rect explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true
147. In general ....(A).....and plants appear to be more
adversely affected by competition than....(B)....
(1) A-Carnivore, B-Herbivore
(2) A-Carnivore, B-Phytoplanktons
(3) A-Herbivore, B-Carnivore
(4) None of these
148. Pollination in Ophrys [a Mediterranean
Orchid] occurs by
(1) Insect through predation.
(2) Insect through parasitism.
ZOOLOGY
SECTION A
151. Assertion (A): RNA has some additional
functions other than its function as a genetic
material.
Reason (R): RNA acts as messenger, adapter,
catalytic molecule and has structural role
(1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation
of A
(2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(3) A & R are false.
(4) A is true, but R is false.
152. Match the column I with column II
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
16
(3) Insect through pseudocopulation.
(4) Insect through competition
149. Statement I: Predators acting as conduit for en-
ergy transfer across trophic levels
Statement II : Predators in nature are prudent
(1) Both statement I and statement II are cor-
rect
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incor-
rect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is in-
correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
correct
150. Which of the following population share a com-
mon characteristic - the interacting species live
closely together?
(1) Predation, Parasitism, Mutualism
(2) Predation, Mutualism, Commensalism
(3) Parasitism, Mutualism, Commensalism
(4) Predation, Parasitism, Commensalism
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
153. N - glycosidic linkage to get a nucleoside is
formed by
(1) Nitrogen base and OH group of 5th
carbon in sugar.
(2) Nitrogen base and OH group of 1st
carbon in sugar
(3) Nitrogen base and OH group in
phosphate
(4) OH in phosphate group and OH in 1st
carbon in sugar.
154. 50 -end and 30 -end of a polynucleotide chain is
respectively made of
(1) Phosphate group in 5th carbon of sugar and
OH group in 3rd carbon of sugar
(2) Phosphate group in 3rd carbon of sugar and
OH group in 5th carbon of sugar.
(3) Phosphate group in 1st carbon of sugar and
OH group in 2nd carbon of sugar.
(4) Phosphate group in 2nd carbon of sugar and
OH group in 1st carbon of sugar.
155. Find out the true statements. (1) A & R are true, R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) The nitrogen bases linked to sugar moiety
project from the sugar phosphate (2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
backbone of nucleic acid. explanation of A
(2) Deoxyadenylic acid is a nucleotide present (3) A & R are false
in RNA. (4) A is true, R is false.
(3) Uracil is present in DNA at the place of
Thymine in RNA 159. A single turn in a B-form double helical DNA
consist of:
(4) There are only two types of nitrogen bases
- Adenine and Thymine, in a DNA molecule (1) 10 bases (2) 20 bases
(3) 10 base pairs (4) Both (2) & (3)
156. Find out the incorrect statements regarding
DNA. 160. The distance between two consecutive base pairs
(a) Both strands in a DNA are identical to each in a DNA double helix is approximately
other. (1) 0.34 Å (2) 0.34 nm
(b) Both strands in DNA are complementary to (3) 3.4 nm (4) All of the above
each other
(c) Both strands in DNA run parallel to each 161. Pick out the correct option for a, b and c
other.
(d) Both strands in DNA run anti- parallel to
each other
(e) Only one strand in a dsDNA can act as (1) a -Translation, b -Transcription,
template during DNA replication. c-protein
(f) If the sequence of bases in one strand (2) a -Transcription, b - Translation,
is known then the sequence in the other c - protein
strand can be predicted. (3) a - Protein Synthesis, b -Translation,
c-protein
(1) a, b, c and f
(4) a - Replication, b -Transcription,
(2) a, c and e c-tRNA.
(3) b, d and f
162. Assertion (A): Central dogma states that the
(4) All of the above except f
genetic information flows from DNA → RNA →
protein
157. Find out the correct answer
Reason (R) : Self replicated DNA is
(A) The nitrogen bases in the two strands of a transcribed to mRNA which is translated into
dsDNA are paired through hydrogen bonds protein
(B) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with
(1) A & R are true, R is the correct
Thymine of the opposite strand
explanation of A.
(C) Guanine is bonded with Cytosine through
(2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
three hydrogen bonds.
explanation of A.
(1) Statements A, B and C are correct (3) A is true, R is false.
(2) Only statement A is correct (4) A and R are false.
(3) Statements A and B only are correct
163. In a diploid mammalian cell, the length of DNA
(4) Only statements B and C are correct is approximately 2.2 m. If the distance between
two consecutive bp is 0.34 ,then what is the
158. Assertion (A): In a dsDNA, both strands keep a total number of bp?
uniform distance throughout its length
Reason (R): Purine always pairs with (1) 3.3 × 109 bp (2) 3.3 × 106 bp
pyrimidine (3) 6.6 × 106 bp (4) 6.6 × 109 bp

17
164. Find out the true and false statements:

(1) Prokaryotes do not have a defined

nucleus, but the DNA is contained in a
region inside the cell called nucleoid
(2) In a nucleoid, negatively charged DNA is
held with some positively charged
proteins.
(3) A typical nucleosome consist of 200bp of
DNA helix (1) A- Continuous strand, B - Discontinuous
strand, C-Template strand
(4) Euchromatin stains light and is (2) A - leading strand, B - lagging strand,
transcriptionally active C-parental strand
(3) A−50 → 30 strand, B−30 → 50 strand,
(1) T T F F (2) F T F F C- parental strand.
(3) T T T T (4) F F F F
(4) All the above
165. Assertion (A): Histones are positively charged
169. Match the column I and II
basic proteins
Reason (R) : Histones are rich in amino acids
arginine and lysine carrying positive charges in
their side chains.

(1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation

of A
(2) A & R are true, R is not the correct A B C D
explanation of A (1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) A & R are true (3) 4 3 2 1
(4) A is true R is false (4) 2 1 3 4

166. In the experiment, conducted by Meselson and 170. Promoter site and terminator site for
Stahl to prove semi-conservative nature of DNA transcription are located at:
replication, the second generation was found to (1) Downstream end and upstream end of
have : transcription unit respectively
(2) Upstream end and downstream end of
(1) N15 DNA only transcription unit respectively
(2) N14 DNA only (3) The upstream end
(4) The downstream end
(3) N14 −N15 hybrid DNA only
(4) N14 −N15 hybrid DNA and 171. Sequence of AAT GCT TAG GCA on
N14 −N14 DNA template strand of DNA will be represented over
transcribed mRNA as :
167. DNA in chromosome replicate (1) UUA CGA AUC CGU
semiconservatively, was proved by Taylor in (2) UUA CGT TUC CGU
Vicia faba by using (3) AAT GCT AAG GCA
(1) Radio active thymidine (4) TTA CGA ATC CGT
(2) Radio active Nitrogen
(3) Heavy nitrogen 172. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at the
(4) Radio active phosphorous. 50 end of hnRNA in a process of
(1) Tailing (2) Splicing
168. Identify the correct option (3) Capping (4) Initiation

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173. snRNA is transcribed with the help of (1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation
(1) RNA polymerase I of A.
(2) RNA polymerase II & III together (2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
(3) RNA polymerase II explanation of A
(4) RNA polymerase III (3) A & R are false
(4) A is true but R is false
174. Consider following pairs :

(i) Monocistronic - E.coli 179. Match the following

(ii) Polycistronic - Honey bee

(iii) RNA polymerase II - hnRNA
(iv) Split genes - Streptococcus
(v) Sigma factor - Translation initiation
factor

How many of the above pairs is/are wrongly

matched? A B C D
(1) 1 (2) 5 (1) 4 1 2 3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (2) 1 3 4 2
(3) 2 3 4 1
175. If the coding strand has the sequence (4) 3 2 1 4
50 - ATCGATCG - 30 , then find the sequence in
non-coding strand 180. Match the following.

(1) 30 − TAGCTAGC −50

(2) 50 − TACGTACG −30
(3) 50 − UAGGUACG −30
(4) 50 − AUCGAUCG −30

176. What happens in the tailing process of A B C D

transcription? (1) 1 3 2 4
(1) Adenylate residue added at 30 end (2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 1 4 2 3
(2) Adenine residue added at 30 end
(4) 4 1 2 3
(3) Guanylate residue added at 50 end
181. Assertion (A): In Hershey and Chase
(4) Guanine residue added at 30 end.
experiment, Streptococcus pneumoniae
177. Assertion (A): hnRNA is longer than mRNA bacteria are grown in a culture plate, some
Reason (R): hnRNA has non-coding introns produces smooth shiny colony while others
which are absent in mRNA produce rough colony
Reason (R): R strain bacteria have a
(1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation mucous coat while S strain does not
of A.
(1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation
(2) A & R are true, R is not the correct of A.
explanation of A (2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
(3) A & R are false explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false (3) A & R are false
(4) A is true but R is false
178. Assertion (A): In eukaryotes, transcription
occur inside the nucleus. 182. Assertion (A): Deoxyribonucleoside
Reason (R): In Bacteria, transcription and triphosphate serves dual purpose in DNA
translation occur in cytoplasm. replication process.

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 Reason (R): Deoxyribonucleoside (4) 5 - Methyl uracil
triphosphate act as substrate and provide
energy for replication SECTION B

(1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation

of A.
(2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A & R are false
(4) A is true but R is false
183. Replication of DNA do not involve:
(1) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
provide energy as well as act as substrate,
during DNA replication
186. Why Adenine is making pair with Thymine and
not with Cytosine?
(1) Non polar nature of A & C
(2) A-C pair would be narrower than A-T pair.
(3) Polar nature of A & C
(4) H-bond forming functional groups are not
complementary between A & C
187. In a dsDNA, the amount of Adenine is 21%. Find
out the amount of purines

(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (1) 29% (2) 21%

synthesises new DNA strand in 50 → 30 (3) 50% (4) 100%
direction
(3) After replication, one of the parental strand 188. The beads on string structure in chromatin is
is retained as such in the new molecule packaged to form chromatin fibres that are
(4) In the lagging strand , polymerization takes further coiled and condensed at ....... stage of
place in the 30 → 50 direction cell division to form chromosomes.
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
184. A diagrammatic representation of
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
Hershey-Chase experiment is given below.
Identify A, B and C
189. Identify the correct option

(1) 4 - DNA
(2) 2 - Histone octamer
(3) 2 - H1 Histone
(4) 2 - H2 Histone

190. Pick out the correct option.

(1) A-infection, B-centrifugation,C-blending.
(2) A-blending, B-infection, C-centrifugation
(3) A - Infection, B-blending,C-centrifugation
(4) A-Infection, B-blotting, C-centrifugation
185. Cap in hnRNA usually is:
(1) 200-300 adenylate residues
(a) S strain −→ Inject into mice −→ Mice alive
(b) R strain −→ Inject into mice → Mice alive
(c) Heat killed S strain + R strain → Inject into
mice → Mice die
(d) S strain (heat killed)−→ Inject into mice →
Mice alive

(2) Methylene guanine triphosphate (1) a only (2) a,b and c

(3) Methyl guanosine triphosphate (3) b, c, d (4) All of the above

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191. Match the column - I with column - II
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(iii) (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv)
192. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) During DNA-replication, 50 − 30 strand and
30 − 50 strand act as template
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
the polymerisation in 50 − 30 direction
(3) A failure in cell division after DNA
replication results into polyploidy
(4) Haploid content of human DNA is
9
6.6 × 10 bp
193. Match the columns I and II.
(1) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-T, E-S
(2) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-T, E-S
(3) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S, E-T
(4) A-Q, B-R, C-T, D-P, E-S
194. Properties of a molecule acting as genetic
material are given below. Choose the incorrect
property/properties.
(i) It should be able to generate its replica
(Replication)
(ii) It should be stable chemically, and
structurally
(iii) It should provide the scope for slow
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changes (mutation) that are required for
evolution
(iv) It should be able to express itself in the form
of Mendelian Characters
(1) i only
(2) ii only
(3) iii only
(4) None of the above
195. Select the correct statement (s)
(i) In a dsDNA , the amount of purines will be
equal to the amount of pyrimidines
(ii) RNA, being a catalyst is highly reactive
(iii) DNA and RNA has ability to direct their
duplication
(iv) Only DNA can replicate itself, RNA and
protein cannot
(1) Only i and iv are correct
(2) i, ii, and iii are correct
(3) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
(4) Only iii is correct
196. Assertion (A): RNA can directly code for the
synthesis of proteins, and DNA, however, is
dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins
Reason (R): DNA evolved from RNA with
chemical modifications that make it more stable
(1) A & R are true, R is the correct explanation
of A.
(2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A & R are false
(4) A is true but R is false
197. Select the correct statement (s)
(a) RNA being more stable is preferred for
storage of genetic information.
(b) DNA being more stable is preferred for
storage of genetic information.
(c) For the transmission of genetic
information, DNA is better.
(d) For the transmission of genetic
information, RNA is better
(1) a and c are true
(2) a and d are true
(3) b and c are true
(4) b and d are true
198. Find the mismatched pairs (3) DNA ligase (4) Primase

(i) RNA polymerase I - transcribes rRNA 200. Match the columns and find out the correct
(28S, 18S, 5.8S) combination:
(ii) RNA Polymerase II - transcribes hnRNA
(iii) RNA Polymerase III - transcribes tRNA,
5 srRNA, snRNA
(iv) Initiation of transcription - DNA
Polymerase and Sigma factor
(v) Termination of transcription - DNA
Polymerase and Rho factor

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are false

(2) (iv) and (v) are false
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v) are false
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are false (1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
199. In DNA Polymerisation, the enzyme that is used
(3) (a)-(i) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
to join Okazaki fragments is :
(1) Helicase (2) Topoisomerase (4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(ii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iv)

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