JAN - 2024

QUESTION BANK

JANUARY
2024
QUESTIONS BASED ON IMPORTANT ARTICLES COVERED
FROM MULTIPLE SOURCES SUCH AS THE HINDU,
THE INDIAN EXPRESS AND THE PIB.

QUESTIONS IN LINE WITH UPSC SYLLABUS AND

QUESTION PAPER TRENDS.

ALSO INCLUDES ANSWER KEY AND

EXPLANATION FOR THE PRELIMS BASED
QUESTIONS.

1
JAN - 2024
UPSC PRELIMS PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. ISRO has recently declared that 2024 is
going to be the ‘Year of Gaganyaan’. What
does this mean?
A. ISRO has confirmed it will be launching
its first manned space flight by March
2024.
B. In 2024, ISRO will be sending a few
Indian astronauts to space via manned
missions of other countries.
C. ISRO will be testing out various critical
technologies and fine-tune them for
the upcoming human space flight
programme.
D. None of the above.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Production Linked Incentive Scheme
(PLI) was conceived to scale up domestic
manufacturing capability.
2. It applies only to mobile manufacturing
and automobile sectors.
3. It can lead to the creation of jobs and as
well as reduce import dependency.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
3. ‘Simplified Certification Scheme’ of the
Department of Telecommunications is
aimed at –
A. Making spectrum auctions more
transparent and simple
B. Introducing Satellite Internet to India
C. Promoting ease of doing business
D. Encouraging emissions reduction in the
telecom sector
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Logistics Performance Index (LPI)
Report is published by the World Bank.
2. In the 2023 report, India has reached
22nd rank in the International Shipment
category as against 44th rank in 2014.
3. According to the report, Indian Ports
“Turn Around Time” has become better
than the USA, Australia and Singapore.
2
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
5. Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the
European Union is a treaty that
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit
of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European
Union to share their infrastructure
facilities
3. enables the countries of the European
Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
6. Consider the following statements:
1. India and Myanmar share an unfenced
border, and people living in these areas
can cross the border without a visa.
2. The Free Movement Regime (FMR) along
the Myanmar border was introduced in
2015 as a sign of friendship between the
two countries.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
7. The military exercise “Desert Cyclone”
is held between which of the following
countries?
A. India and Saudi Arabia
B. India and UAE
C. India and Qatar
D. India and Iran
JAN - 2024
8. Consider the following:
1. Square Kilometer Array Observatory
(SKAO) is the world’s largest radio
telescope project.
2. India has recently become a part of this
project via the National Centre for Radio
Astrophysics.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following:
1. Domestic Air passenger traffic has still not
recovered from the pandemic and remains
under the pre-pandemic high.
2. India is the largest aviation market in the
world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. By which one of the following Acts was the
Governor General of Bengal designated as
the Governor General of India?
A. The Regulating Act of 1783
B. The Pitt’s India Act of 1784
C. The Charter Act of 1793
D. The Charter Act of 1833
11. Consider the following statement:
1. The recently launched ‘SMART 2.0’
program is to promote robust clinical
studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with
Ayurveda academic institutions across the
country through mutual collaboration.
2. It has been launched by the AYUSH
ministry in collaboration with UNESCO.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
12. Recently, classical dancer and choreographer
Vasanthalakshmi Narasimhachari was
presented with?
A. Nritya Kalanidhi Award
B. Arjuna Award
C. Sangeet Natak Academy Award
D. Sahitya Academy Award
3
13. Consider the following:
1. India’s palm oil imports have steadily
declined over the past two decades.
2. Indonesia and Malaysia are the top
producers of palm oil in the world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following:
1. She published Bavan Kashi Subodh
Ratnakar.
2. In her poem, Go, Get Education, she urges
the oppressed communities to get an
education and break free from the chains
of oppression.
3. She simultaneously campaigned against
child marriage, while supporting widow
remarriage.
The above statement refers to which of the
following?
A. Pandita Ramabai
B. Ramabai Ranade
C. Savitribai Phule
D. Sarojini Naidu
15. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian
history, which one of the following statements
is correct?
A. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by
the AICC.
B. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was
expanded to include more Indians.
C. The Congress ministries resigned in seven
provinces.
D. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full
Dominion status once the Second World
War was over.
16. Consider the following statement:
1. Indian toy exports have been steadily
falling and imports have been rising.
2. The National Action Plan for Toys (NAPT)
promotes the designing of toys, using toys
as a learning resource, monitoring the
quality of toys and promoting indigenous
toy clusters.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
JAN - 2024
17. Recently, ERNET which is an integrated web 21. Consider the following statements:
portal for educational institutes in the country
was launched by?
A. Ministry of Education
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Electronics & Information
Technology
D. NITI Aayog
18. Consider the following:
1. ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar’ is
given to corporate entities, Sports Control
Boards and NGOs, who have played a
visible role in the area of sports promotion
and development.
2. It is announced by the Ministry of Youth
Affairs & Sports and presented by the
Prime Minister to the winners.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
19. Consider the following statements in the
context of Lakshadweep:
1. The region’s first on-grid solar project with
state-of-the-art Battery Energy Storage
System (BESS) technology has been
developed in Kavaratti.
2. This project will allow for a pivotal shift 23. Consider the following statements regarding
from diesel-based power to a sustainable,
eco-friendly energy source for the region.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
20. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz
Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh
Singh Dhillon are remembered as.
A. Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott
Movement
B. Members of the Interim Government in
1946
C. Members of the Drafting Committee in the
Constituent Assembly
D. Officers of the Indian National Army
4
1. India holds the position of the third-largest
fish producer globally and the second-
largest in aquaculture.
2. The “Sagar Parikrama” initiative seeks to
address the concerns of fishermen and
various stakeholders.
3. In the realm of fish production across the
country, Maharashtra holds the seventh
position, contributing approximately 5% to
the overall share.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Plasma Waves frequently manifest within
the Earth’s magnetosphere.
2. Unlike Earth, Mars lacks an intrinsic
magnetic field.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
the Bhitarkanika National Park:
1. It boasts of having one of India’s most
significant populations of critically
endangered gharial crocodiles.
2. Situated along the park’s western
boundary, Gahirmatha Beach stands as
the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea
Turtles.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
JAN - 2024
24. Consider the following statements with 27. Consider the following statements regarding
respect to the ‘Prithvi Vigyan’ initiative:
1. It includes exploration of polar and
high seas regions of the earth towards
the discovery of new phenomena and
resources.
2. It aims to strengthen the continuous
monitoring of the Earth’s atmosphere.
3. It is a comprehensive scheme by the
Ministry of Earth Sciences & spans from
2021-26.
How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
25. Consider the following statements: [UPSC
2023]
1. In Biodiversity the India, Management
Committees are key to the realization of
the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees
have important functions in determining
access and benefit sharing, including
the power to levy collection fees on the
access of biological resources within its
jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
26. Consider the following statements regarding
the Aditya-L1 mission:
1. Aditya’s coronagraph has the ability to
look very closely at Mars.
2. Its journey is shorter compared to
India’s previous Mars orbiter mission,
Mangalyaan.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Chilika Lake:
1. It is Asia’s largest and the world’s second-
largest lagoon.
2. In 1981, it was designated the first Indian
wetland of international importance under
the Ramsar Convention.
3. It is the largest brackish water lake and
wintering ground for birds.
How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
28. Consider the following statements regarding
the SVAMITVA Scheme:
1. It aims to issue property cards to tribal
people of Rajasthan, MP, Jharkhand and
north-eastern states only.
2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
3. It was launched on the National Panchayati
Raj Day in 2021.
How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. None
29. Consider the following statements regarding
the PM Gati Shakti Scheme:
1. It aims to establish defence corridors in
Jammu & Kashmir and Kerala.
2. It was launched in 2021 to provide
multimodal connectivity infrastructure to
various economic zones.
3. It aims to reduce logistics costs, enhance
cargo handling capacity and decrease
turnaround time at ports.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
5
JAN - 2024
30. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the
Central Government has a duty to protect
States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the
States from providing legal counsel
to a person being held for preventive
detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism
Act, 2002, the confession of the accused 34. Consider the following statements regarding
before the police cannot be used as
evidence.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
31. Consider the following statements regarding
India-Saudi Arabia relations:
1. India is Saudi Arabia’s third-largest trade
partner; Saudi Arabia is India’s second-
largest trade partner.
2. The India-Saudi Strategic Partnership
Council (SPC), initiated in 2019, Marks
Saudi Arabia’s first-ever establishment of 35. Which of the following statements are correct
such a strategic partnership with India.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
32. Consider the following statements regarding
Input Tax Credit (ITC):
1. This tax, paid by a business upon purchase,
serves as a credit that can be utilized to
offset tax obligations when the business
makes a sale.
2. If a business is operating under the
composition scheme, it has the option to
leverage ITC.
3. It cannot be asserted for personal use or for
goods that fall under exempt categories.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
6
33. Mannhit app is related to -
A. Translating Supreme Court judgements in
nine vernacular languages.
B. Facilitates mental health screening.
C. Storing digital documents, which promotes
paperless governance.
D. Platform for ocean data management
purpose.
India-Maldives relations:
1. India was one of the earliest nations
to acknowledge the Maldives after its
independence in 1965 and subsequently
inaugurated its mission in Male in 1972.
2. Ekuverin is a collaborative military exercise
involving both India and the Maldives.
3. India maintains a favorable Balance of
Trade with the Maldives.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
regarding the general difference between
plant and animal cells?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst
animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membranes
unlike animal cells which do.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole
whilst an animal cell has many small
vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
JAN - 2024

36. Consider the following statements: How many of the above statements is/are
1. K-shaped recovery implies a divergent rate correct?
of recovery with one section recovering A. 1 only
positively and another section declining. B. 2 only
2. The Gini Coefficient is a commonly used C. Both 1 and 2
measure of income inequality. D. Neither 1 nor 2
3. A higher Gini Coefficient indicates greater
income inequality. 40. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? Site of Ashoka’s Location in the state
A. Only one major rock edicts of
B. Only two
C. All three Dhauli Odisha
D. None Erragudi Andhra Pradesh

37. Consider the following statements regarding Jaugada Madhya Pradesh

the European Free Trade Association (EFTA): Kalsi Karnataka
1. EFTA countries are not part of the
European Union. How many pairs given above are correctly
2. It excludes Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway matched?
and Switzerland. A. Only one pair
Which of the above statements is/are B. Only two pairs
correct? C. Only three pairs
A. 1 only D. All four pairs
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 41. ‘Operation Prosperity Guardian’, recently in
D. Neither 1 nor 2 the news, is related to which of the following
areas?
38. Consider the following statements regarding A. Malacca Strait
Hypersonic Missile: B. Red Sea
1. Both ballistic and hypersonic missiles C. Mediterranean Sea
follow a ballistic trajectory and can be D. Black Sea
manoeuvred to the intended target.
2. Conventional hypersonic weapons use 42. Consider the following statements with
only potential energy. regards to Square Kilometre Array Observatory
3. It flies at the speed of Mach 10. (SKAO):
How many of the above statements is/are 1. SKAO is a new intergovernmental
correct? organization dedicated to radio astronomy
A. Only one and is headquartered in France.
B. Only two 2. Once operational, SKA would be between
C. All three 5 to 60 times more powerful than the
D. None most advanced existing radio telescopes
functioning in comparable frequency
39. Consider the following statements regarding ranges.
the Rule of Law: 3. The Square Kilometer Array will not be a
1. It means the exclusion of the existence of single large telescope, but a collection of
arbitrariness on the part of the government. thousands of dish antennas operating as a
2. It acts as a check to the executive’s single unit.
lawlessness, by ensuring that no official or How many of these statements is/are
administrator can arrest or detain a person correct?
without legislative sanction. A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above

7
JAN - 2024
43. Consider the following statements:
1. 2023 was the warmest year since records
began in 1850, beating the previous record
of 2018.
2. 2023 marked the first time on record
that every day within a year exceeded 1
degree Celsius above the 1850-1900 pre-
industrial level.
3. In 2023, greenhouse gas concentrations
reached the highest levels ever recorded
in the atmosphere.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
44. The ‘International Purple Fest’, recently in the
news, is related to which of the following?
A. Empowerment of women
B. Strengthening of democracy
C. Empowerment of people with disabilities
D. Rights of the transgenders
45. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A. In India, the same person cannot be
appointed as Governor for two or more
States at the same time.
B. The Judges of the High Court of the States
in India are appointed by the Governor of 48. Consider the following statements with
the State just as the Judges of the Supreme
Court are appointed by the President.
C. No procedure has been laid down in the
Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post.
D. In the case of a Union Territory having
a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis
of majority support.
46. Consider the following statements with
regards to Snow Leopards:
1. Snow leopards are in the “vulnerable”
category of the IUCN “Red List of
Threatened Species”, with an estimated
global population of 4,000 to 7,500.
2. The conservation breeding programme for
snow leopards was launched at Darjeeling
Zoo in 1985.
3. The Darjeeling Zoo has been the
coordinating zoo for snow leopards in the
country since 2007.
4. Darjeeling Zoo has the world’s largest
number of snow leopards in captivity.
8
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. Any three
D. All four
47. Consider the following statements with
regards to organ donation in India:
1. Offering to pay for organs or supplying
them for payment; initiating, negotiating,
or advertising such arrangements; looking
for persons to supply organs; and abetting
in preparing false documents can attract a
jail term of up to 10 years and a fine of up
to Rs 1 crore.
2. Recently, the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare modified the National Organ
Transplantation Guidelines, allowing those
above 65 years of age to receive an organ
for transplantation from deceased donors.
3. A patient requiring an organ can only
register for getting an organ in the state of
his/her domicile.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
regards to Minimum Support Price (MSP):
1. MSP is based on the recommendations of
the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP), which considers various
factors such as cost of production, demand
and supply, market price trends, inter-crop
price parity, etc.
2. The CACP recommends MSPs for 22
mandated crops and fair and remunerative
price (FRP) for sugarcane.
3. The mandated crops include 14 crops of
the rabi season, 6 kharif crops and 2 other
commercial crops.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
JAN - 2024

49. The annual maritime exercise between the 53. Consider the following statements with
Indian and British Royal Navy is named as: regards to Swachh Survekshan Awards:
A. Konkan 1. The Union Housing and Urban Affairs
B. Varuna Ministry presents the awards, which began
C. Indra as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission.
D. Malabar 2. The methodology for measuring
cleanliness rests on two main criteria –
50. Improper handling and storage of cereal citizen feedback and field assessment.
grains and oilseeds result in the production 3. Ever since the awards began in 2016,
of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not Indore has consistently been at the top of
generally destroyed by normal cooking the rankings.
process. Aflatoxins are produced by How many of these statements is/are
A. Bacteria correct?
B. Protozoa A. Any one
C. Moulds B. Any two
D. Viruses C. All three
D. None of the above

51. Consider the following statements with 54. Consider the following statements with
regards to the International Court of Justice:
1. Unlike the six principal organs of the
United Nations, it is the only one not
located in New York (USA)
2. The Court is composed of 15 judges, who
are elected for terms of office of nine years
by the United Nations General Assembly
and the Security Council. These organs
vote simultaneously but separately.
3. Its official languages are English and
Mandarin.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
52. Consider the following statements with
regards to Cervical cancer:
1. India contributes the largest share of the
global cervical cancer burden; nearly 1 in
every 4 deaths globally due to cervical
cancer.
2. Almost all cervical cancer cases (99%)
are linked to infection with high-risk HPV
(human papillomavirus), an extremely
common virus transmitted through sexual
contact.
3. Cervical cancer originates in the cervix,
the lower part of the uterus.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
9
regards to the Generalised System of
Preferences:
1. GSP is the largest and oldest US trade
preference programme, designed to
promote economic development by
allowing duty-free entry for thousands
of products from designated beneficiary
countries.
2. It is an umbrella that comprises the
bulk of preferential schemes granted
by industrialized nations to developing
countries.
3. It involves reduced Most Favoured Nations
(MFN) Tariffs or duty-free entry of eligible
products exported by beneficiary countries
to the markets of donor countries.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
55. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A. Indians never wanted the review of the
working of the Act of 1919.
B. The Simon Commission recommended
the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the
Provinces.
C. There was no Indian member in the Simon
Commission.
D. The Simon Commission suggested the
partition of the country.
JAN - 2024

56. Consider the following pairs: Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
Harvest Festival State A. 1 only
B. 2 only
Magh Bihu Assam
C. Both 1 and 2
Wangala Kerala D. Neither 1 nor 2
Nuakhai Gujarat
60. Consider the following pairs
Nabanna West Bengal

How many pairs given above are correctly King Dynasty

matched? Nannuka Chandela
A. Only one pair Jayashakti Paramara
B. Only two pairs
Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
C. Only three pairs
D. All four pairs Bhoja Rashtrakuta

57. Consider the following statements regarding How many pairs given above are correctly
Swami Vivekananda: matched?
1. In response to Maharaja Ajit Singh of the A. Only one pair
Khetri State’s request in 1893, he adopted B. Only two pairs
the name ‘Vivekananda.’ C. Only three pairs
2. In 1899, he founded the Belur Math. D. All four pairs
3. He served as the principal disciple of
the 19th-century mystic, Ramakrishna 61. Consider the following statements regarding
Paramhansa. the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
How many of the above statements is/are (PMFBY):
correct? 1. It is largest crop insurance scheme in the
A. Only one history of independent India and globally,
B. Only two the third largest scheme in terms of
C. All three premium.
D. None 2. It was launched in 2016.
3. All farmers (both loanee and non-loanee)
58. Consider the following statements regarding including sharecroppers and tenant
Consumer Price Index: farmers growing the notified crops in
1. It measures the average change in the notified areas are eligible for coverage.
prices of goods at the wholesale level. How many statements given above is/are
2. Base year for CPI is 2004-05. correct?
Which of the above statements is/are A. Only one
correct? B. Only two
A. 1 only C. All three
B. 2 only D. None
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

59. Consider the following statements regarding

appointment in the Election Commission in
India:
1. The CEC can be removed from office only
through a process of removal similar to
that of an SC judge by Parliament.
2. The Constitution does not lay down
a specific legislative process for the
appointment of the CEC and ECs.

10
JAN - 2024
62. Consider the following statements regarding 65. Which one of the following statement about
the Cervical Cancer:
1. It starts in the cells of the cervix, which
is the lower, narrow end of the uterus &
connects the uterus to the vagina.
2. Before cancer appears in the cervix, the
cells of the cervix go through changes
known as dysplasia, in which abnormal
cells begin to appear in the cervical tissue.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
63. Consider the following statements regarding
the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR):
1. Clause 35 of the Companies Act, 2016,
oversees the implementation of CSR.
2. India became the first country to enforce
mandatory CSR expenditure and establish
a structured approach for identifying
suitable CSR initiatives.
3. Companies Act, 2016 motivates companies
to allocate 2% of their average net profit
from the preceding three years towards
CSR endeavors.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
64. Operation Sarvashakti, recently seen in the
news, pertains to-
A. Fully immunize more than 89 lakh children
who are either unvaccinated or partially
vaccinated under Universal Immunisation
Programme.
B. Involving security forces from both sides
of the Pir Panjal range in J&K to flush out
terrorists.
C. Provide income support to all landholding
Farmers’ families.
D. None
11
Sangam literature in ancient South India is
correct?
A. Sangam poems are devoid of any
reference to material culture.
B. The social classification of Varna was
known to Sangam poets
C. Sangam poems have no reference to
warrior ethic.
D. Sangam literature refers to magical forces
as irrational.
66. Consider the following statements regarding
the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri - Jan
Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY):
1. It provides a cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family
per year for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization across public and private
empanelled hospitals in India.
2. It provides cashless access to health care
services for the beneficiary at the point of
service, that is, the hospital.
3. There is no restriction on the family size,
age or gender.
4. It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization
and 15 days post-hospitalization expenses
such as diagnostics and medicines.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
67. Consider the following statements regarding
the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya
Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN):
1. It was launched for the socio-economic
welfare of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs) on 15th November 2023,
on the occasion of Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas.
2. PM-JANMAN, with a budget of
approximately Rs 24,000 crore, focuses
on 11 critical interventions through 9
Ministries.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
JAN - 2024
68. Which of the following are India’s Intermediate-
Range Ballistic Missiles?
1. Prithvi-III
2. Agni-II
3. Prahaar
4. Agni-III
5. Trishul
6. MILAN
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
A. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
69. Assertion (A): Shield volcanoes are not
steep. They become explosive if somehow
water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are
characterized by low-explosivity.
Reason (R): These volcanoes are mostly
made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very
fluid when erupted.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
70. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by
Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of: (PYQ
2022)
A. Akbar
B. Humayun
C. Shah Jahan
D. Aurangzeb
71. Consider the following statements with
regards to Prime Minister’s Awards for
Excellence in Public Administration:
1. These awards are designed
acknowledge, recognize, and reward
exemplary work done by civil servants
across the country.
2. The 2023 awards shall consist of a trophy,
a scroll and an incentive of Rs. 20 lac to
the awarded District/Organization to be
utilized for the implementation of a project/
program or bridging the resource gap in 74. Consider the following statements with
any area of public welfare.
3. The PM’s Awards are conferred by the
President of India on Civil Services Day.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
72. Consider the following statements with
regards to MPLADS e-SAKSHI Mobile
Application:
1. The mobile app would offer convenience
and accessibility, allowing MPs to propose,
track, and oversee the projects at their
fingertips.
2. This real-time access enhances decision-
making processes, enabling swift
responses to emerging needs or issues.
3. The application will streamline the
communication between MPs and relevant
authorities, facilitating a more efficient
exchange of information.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
73. Consider the following statements with
regards to the famous Tamil poet and
philosopher Thiruvalluvar or Valluvar:
1. His most famous work, the Tirukkural, is a
collection of couplets addressing morality,
politics, the economy, and love.
2. In January 1935, the Tamil Nadu
government officially recognized 31 BCE
as the year of Valluvar.
3. The Government of Tamil Nadu celebrates
the 15th (16th on leap years) of January as
Thiruvalluvar Day in the poet’s honour, as
to part of Pongal celebrations.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
regards to the Punganur cow species in India:
1. They are a unique dwarf breed, considered
the shortest-humped cattle in the world.
2. In the 2012 livestock census, Punganur
were found only in Karnataka.
3. Males have slightly longer horns than the
stumpier ones in females.
12
JAN - 2024

How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
75. The Government enacted the Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act
in 1996.Which one of the following is not
identified as its objective? [PYQ 2013]
A. To provide self-governance
B. To recognize traditional rights
C. To create autonomous regions in tribal
areas
D. To free tribal people from exploitation
76. Consider the following statements with
regards to BOT (Build Operate Transfer)
model:
1. A private company (or consortium) agrees
with the government to invest in a public
infrastructure project. The company then 79. Consider the following statements with
secures their own financing to construct
the project.
2. The government then operates, maintains,
and manages the facility for an agreed
period and transfers the income to the
private company.
3. After the concessionary period the
company transfers ownership and
operation of the facility to the government
or relevant state authority.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
77. How many of the following nations share their
land border with Iran?
1. Turkey
2. Turkmenistan
3. Syria
4. Kuwait
Choose the correct code:
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. Any three
D. All four
78. Consider the following statements with
regards to the FCRA (Foreign Contribution
Regulation Act):
1. FCRA was enacted during the Bangladesh
war in 1971 amid apprehensions that
foreign powers were interfering in India’s
affairs by pumping money into the country
through independent organisations.
2. FCRA registration is valid for 3 years, and
NGOs are expected to apply for renewal
within six months of the date of expiry of
registration.
3. Once the registration of an NGO is
cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration
for 5 years.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any 1
B. Any 2
C. All 3
D. None of the above
regards to the Food Corporation of India (FCI):
1. FCI is a statutory body set up in 1965 under
the Food Corporations Act 1964.
2. FCI coordinates its functions through
a country-wide network of offices with
Headquarters in New Delhi with five Zonal
Offices.
3. FCI delivers food grains to State Govt./
State Agencies from its base depots for
distribution by the latter through Fair Price
Shops.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any 1
B. Any 2
C. All 3
D. None of the above
80. Disguised unemployment generally means,
A. large number of people remain
unemployed
B. alternative employment is not available
C. marginal productivity of labour is zero
D. productivity of workers is low
81. Consider the following statements:
1. The SBI has recently issued AT1 bonds
which are considered to be part of Tier 1
Capital.
2. The total capital with a bank is the sum
total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital.
3. No bank in India has so far issued Tier 2
bonds.
13
JAN - 2024

How many of these statements is/are 85. From the ecological point of view, which one
correct? of the following assumes importance in being
A. Only one a good link between the Eastern Ghats and
B. Only two the Western Ghats?
C. All three A. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
D. None B. Nallamala Forest
C. Nagarhole National Park
82. Consider the following statements regarding D. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
the WTO Peace Clause:
1. It was introduced at the Bali conference. 86. Consider the following statements regarding
2. The clause provides protection to both the National Institute of Oceanography (NIO):
developed and developing countries. 1. It is one of the 37 constituent laboratories
3. India is the first country to invoke the of the Council of Scientific & Industrial
peace clause. Research (CSIR), New Delhi.
How many of these statements is/are 2. It has numerous state-of-the-art
incorrect? laboratories at its headquarters in Goa as
A. Only one well as the regional centres.
B. Only two 3. It operates two research vessels RV
C. All three Sindhu Sankalp and RV Sindhu Sadhana.
D. None 4. It provides consultancy on marine
environmental protection and coastal
83. In which of the following Latin American zone regulations.
countries is there a large presence of the How many statements given above is/are
Indian community which can be attributed to correct?
the indentured labour system of the British? A. Only one
1. Suriname B. Only two
2. Jamaica C. Only three
3. Bolivia D. All four
4. Guyana
5. Trinidad & Tobago 87. Consider the following statements regarding
Options: wheat:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only 1. This rabi crop requires a cool growing
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only season and bright sunshine at the time of
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only ripening.
D. 2, 3, 4 and 5 2. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall
evenly distributed over the growing
84. India’s decision to quit RCEP was based on: season.
1. Concerns about the flooding of cheap 3. There are two important wheat-growing
imports. zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj
2. Impact on domestic producers and plains in the north-west and the black soil
industries. region of the Deccan.
3. Fears that India’s trade deficit with China 4. The major wheat-producing states are
would increase. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
How many of these statements is/are Pradesh, Bihar and Rajasthan.
correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one A. 1 and 2 only
B. Only two B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. All three C. 3 and 4 only
D. None D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

14
JAN - 2024
88. Consider the following statements regarding
Nagara & Dravida temples:
1. Nagara temples are built on a raised plinth,
with the Garbha Griha.
2. In the Dravida-style temples, vimanas are
typically smaller than the gopurams.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements regarding
Maldives and Lakshadweep:
1. Both archipelagos are part of the same
chain of coralline islands that extend
southward beyond the equator to the
Chagos archipelago.
2. The Maldives offers visa-free arrivals to its
major source markets, which include India,
Russia, and China except Kazakhstan.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
90. The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting
pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the
Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently.
Which one of the following statements
correctly represents the teachings of
Ramanuja?
A. The best means of salvation was devotion.
B. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly
authoritative.
C. Logical arguments were essential means
for the highest bliss
D. Salvation was to be obtained through
meditation.
91. Consider the following statements about the
India International Science Festival (IISF):
1. IISF is an initiative jointly organized by
the Ministry of Science and Technology,
Ministry of Earth Sciences, Department of
Space, and Department of Atomic Energy
in association with Vijnana Bharati.
2. The primary objective of IISF is to provide
a platform for international scientific
collaboration and it is not open to the
general public.
15
3. The primary aim of IISF is to celebrate
science, make it accessible to all, and foster
collaboration for scientific advancement
within India and internationally.
Which of the following is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
92. Consider the following statements:
1. Neutron stars are formed by the
gravitational collapse of massive stars
after a supernova.
2. Supermassive black holes, found at the
centres of galaxies, are believed to be
formed by the accumulation of gas and
dust over billions of years.
3. The density of a neutron star is comparable
to that of a supermassive black hole.
Which of the following is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
93. Consider the following statements:
1. Adequate forex reserves are crucial for a
country to meet its international financial
obligations and influence the exchange
rate of its currency.
2. High levels of forex reserves lead to
inflationary pressures within the country.
Which of the following is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
94. Consider the following statements regarding
antibiotic resistance:
1. Antibiotic resistance occurs when
bacteria mutate in response to the use
of antibiotics, making the standard
treatments ineffective.
2. The overuse of antibiotics in livestock and
agriculture is a contributor to the rise in
antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
3. The indiscriminate use of ‘last mile’
antibiotics accelerates the development
of antibiotic resistance.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
JAN - 2024
95. Why does the Government of India promote 99. Consider the following statements regarding
the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?
A. Release of Neem oil in the soil increases
nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms
B. Neem coating slows down the rate of
dissolution of urea in the soil
C. Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas,
is not at all released into the atmosphere
by crop fields
D. It is a combination of a weedicide and a
fertilizer for particular crops
96. Consider the following statements:
1. Chile has the world’s largest copper
reserves , while Zambia is the second
largest producer of copper in Africa.
2. Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer
of copper in India, followed by Manipur.
3. Chalcocite, Chalcopyrite and Bauxite are
some popular ores of copper.
How many of these is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. All the above
D. None of the above
97. Consider the following statements:
1. The Suez Canal is the first canal directly
connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the
Red Sea.
2. It is a human-made waterway that cuts
north-south across the Isthmus of Suez in
Egypt.
Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. All the above
D. None of the above
98. Consider the following statements:
1. All forms of Naxalite organizations have 101. Consider the following statements:
been declared as terrorist organizations
under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act of India (1967).
2. The area affected by Naxalism, often
referred to as the “Red Corridor,”
spans parts of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Telangana,
and West Bengal.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. All the above
D. None of the above
the Smart Lander for Investigating Moon
(SLIM) mission:
1. With this achievement, Japan has become
the fifth country to successfully soft-land a
spacecraft on the Moon.
2. The mission, nicknamed “Moon Sniper,”
aimed for unprecedented landing
accuracy, targeting within 100 meters of
its designated site.
3. One of the objectives of the SLIM mission
is to explore regions of the Moon for
potential sources of oxygen and water,
which are vital for sustaining life and as
rocket fuel.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
100. The establishment of “Payment Banks’ is
being allowed in India to promote Financial
inclusion. Which of the following statements
is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and
supermarket chains that are owned and
controlled by residents are eligible to be
promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards
and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending
activities.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
1. The Rewa Solar Project in Madhya Pradesh
was the first solar project in the country to
break the grid parity barrier.
2. The world’s largest solar park is located in
India.
3. In the context of the International Solar
Alliance, sunshine countries are those
which lie either completely or partly
between the Tropic of Cancer and the
Equator.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
16
JAN - 2024
102. Consider the following statements:
1. Initially, SEBI was a non-statutory body.
Only after the SEBI Act by Parliament
in 1992, it was given autonomous and
statutory powers.
2. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) is a
statutory body to hear and dispose of
appeals against orders passed by the
Securities and Exchange Board of India or
by an adjudicating officer under the Act.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
103. Consider the following statements with
respect to Foreign Contribution Regulation 107. Consider the following statements:
Act (FCRA):
1. FCRA controls foreign funding or donations
and ensures that they do not compromise
the nation‘s domestic security.
2. The Ministry of Finance oversees the
implementation of this act.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of the above
104. Consider the following statements:
1. Kumki (Kunki) is a term used in India for
trained captive Asian elephants, used in
operations to trap wild elephants.
2. The Asian elephant is the largest living
land animal in Asia and has been listed as
“endangered” in the IUCN Red List.
3. Assam is home to India’s highest
population of wild elephants, followed by
Karnataka.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
105. Which of the following National Parks 109. Consider the following statements:
is unique in being a swamp with floating
vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
A. Bhitarkanika National Park
B. Keibul Lamjao National Park
C. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
D. Sultanpur National Park
106. Consider the following statements:
1. Disease X is a name adopted by the
World Health Organization (WHO) on
their shortlist of blueprint priority diseases
to represent a hypothetical, unknown
pathogen that could cause a future
epidemic.
2. The World Health Assembly (WHA) is the
WHO’s decision-making body attended
by delegations from all of WHO’s member
states.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
1. Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian product
to get the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
2. Lanjia Saura paintings are a unique style
of wall mural art from Uttar Pradesh.
3. The GI-tagged popular art form Tarkashi
belongs to the state of Odisha.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3
C. 1 & 2
D. 3 only
108. Consider the following statements:
1. The Haber process, also called the Haber–
Bosch process, is a popular industrial
procedure for the production of ammonia.
2. Japan is the largest producer of ammonia
globally.
3. Green ammonia has applications in the
production of carbon-neutral fertiliser
products and also has potential as a future
climate-neutral shipping fuel.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2
C. 2 & 3
D. 1 & 3
1. U Thant Cup and Corbillon Cup are
associated with the game of lawn tennis.
2. FIH (International Hockey Federation)
is the international governing body of
field hockey, indoor field hockey and ice
hockey.
17
JAN - 2024

Which of these statement(s) is /are correct? 114. Consider the following statements:
A. 1 only 1. A unique feature of the International
B. 2 only Labour Organisation (ILO) is its tripartite
C. 1 & 2 character.
D. None of the above 2. India has ratified the Equal Remuneration
Convention (No.100) of ILO.
110. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of 3. The Worst Forms of Child Labour
the following? (UPSC 2018) Convention (No.182) of ILO, has not been
A. Amnesty International ratified by India.
B. International Court of Justice Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
C. The Office of the UN Commissioner for A. 1 only
Human Rights B. 2 only
D. World Justice Project C. 1 & 2
D. 2 & 3
111. Consider the following statements:
1. The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is 115. Which of the following gives the ‘Global
a foundation initiated by the International Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries
Olympic Committee to promote, of the world?
coordinate, and monitor the fight against A. World Economic Forum
drugs in sports. B. UN Human Rights Council
2. ‘Operation Refuge’, a report published by C. UN Women
WADA, is an analysis and examination of D. World Health Organization
doping amongst minors in sports.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct? 116. Consider the following statements with
A. 1 only regards to India – France relationship:
B. 2 only 1. A DRDO office was opened in the French
C. 1 & 2 Embassy in 2023 for strengthening
D. None of the above technology cooperation.
2. The main imports from France are aviation
112. Which one of the following committees is products, machine equipment, electrical
associated with Panchayati Raj in India? equipment and chemical products.
A. L M Singhvi Committee 3. In July 2022, Unified Payments Interface
B. Abid Hussain Committee (UPI) was launched from the Eiffel
C. Damodaran Committee Tower, offering secure and convenient
D. Shivaraman Committee transactions for Indian visitors and NRIs.
How many of these statements is/are
113. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. Gasification is a technological process that A. Any one
can convert any carbonaceous (carbon- B. Any two
based) raw material such as coal into fuel C. All three
gas, or synthesis gas (syngas). D. None of the above
2. Anthracite is a hard, compact variety of
mineral coal that has the highest carbon 117. How many of the following sarees have been
count and contains very few impurities. given the GI (Geographical Indicator) tag in
3. Anthracite is also referred to as blind coal. India?
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct? 1. Uppada Jamdani Sarees
A. 1 only 2. Venkatagiri Sarees
B. 1 & 2 3. Mangalagiri Sarees
C. 1 & 3 4. Dharmavaram Handloom Pattu Sarees
D. All of the above Choose the correct code:
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. Any three
D. All four

18
JAN - 2024
118.Consider the following statements with 120. A rise in general level of prices may be
regards to the VAIBHAV fellowship:
1. The Vaibhav Fellowship, initiated in June
2023, is designed to attract Indian-origin 2. A decrease in the aggregate level of
scientists residing abroad for short-term
collaborations with Indian institutions.
2. Each selected Vaibhav fellow receives a
stipend of ₹5 lakh per month, along with
accommodation during their stay in India.
3. Fellows commit to spending a month or
two annually in India for a maximum of
five years, collaborating with host Indian D. 1, 2 and 3
institutions.
How many of these statements is/are 121. Consider the following statements with regard
correct?
A. Any 1
B. Any 2
C. All 3
D. None of the above
119. Consider the following statements with
regards to the gallantry awards in India:
1. Post-Independence, the first three
gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra,
Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra were
instituted by the government of India on
26th January 1950 and were deemed to
have effect from 15th August 1947.
2. Thereafter, three other gallantry awards
— the Ashoka Chakra Class-I, the Ashoka
Chakra Class-II, and the Ashoka Chakra
Class-III — were instituted in 1952 and
were deemed to have effect from 15th
August 1947. These awards were renamed
Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya 122. Consider the following statements
Chakra respectively in January 1967.
3. Order of precedence of these awards is
the Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra,
the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the
Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any 1
B. Any 2
C. All 3
D. None of the above
19
caused by
1. An increase in the money supply
output
3. An increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
to the National Assessment and Accreditation
Council:
1. If a higher education institution gets a
score between 3.51 and 4, it gets an A++
grade.
2. A score between 3.26 and 3.50 gets an
A+ grade, and a score between 3.01 and
3.25 gets an A grade.
3. There are eight grades in total, including
C for scores between 1.51 and 2, which
means basic accreditation, and D for
scores below 1.51, indicating unaccredited
status.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
with regard to ISRO’s POEM (PSLV Orbital
Experimental Module):
1. The POEM is a platform that will help
perform in-orbit experiments using the
final, and otherwise discarded, stage
of ISRO’s workhorse rocket, the Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
2. POEM derives its power from solar panels
mounted around the PS4 tank, and a Li-Ion
battery.
3. The PSLV is a four-stage rocket where the
first three spent stages fall back into the
ocean, and the final stage (PS4) — after
launching the satellite into orbit — ends up
as space junk.
How many of these statements is/are
correct?
A. Any one
B. Any two
C. All three
D. None of the above
JAN - 2024

123. Consider the following missions to Mars with How many of these statements is/are
their respective nations: correct?
1. MAVEN – UK A. Any one
2. Psyche – USA B. Any two
3. Mariner 4 – USSR C. All three
4. Nozomi – China D. None of the above
How many of these statements is/are
correct? 128. Which of the following was created through
A. Any 1 the Treaty of Lagos?
B. Any 2 A. Economic Community of West African
C. Any 3 States (ECOWAS)
D. All 4 B. African Union
C. Forum on China Africa Cooperation
124. Consider the following statements with D. Organisation of African, Caribbean and
regard to seaweed: Pacific States (OACPS)
1. Seaweed is a source of vitamins, minerals,
and fibre, and can be tasty. 129. Which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure
2. Large seaweeds form dense underwater effective implementation of the Scheduled
forests known as kelp forests, which act as Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
underwater nurseries for fish, snails and (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 at
sea urchins. the national level?
3. Seaweeds absorb the excess nutrients A. Ministry of Rural Development
and balance out the ecosystem. B. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
How many of these statements is/are C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and
correct? Climate Change
A. Any 1 D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
B. Any 2
C. All 3 130. Satya Shodhak Samaj organized:
D. None of the above A. A movement for upliftment of tribals in
Bihar
125. Recently, a series of uprisings of people B. A temple-entry movement in Gujarat
referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started C. An anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
from D. A peasant movement in Punjab
A. Egypt
B. Lebanon 131. Consider the following statements:
C. Syria 1. Sustainable Development Goal 5 (SDG 5)
D. Tunisia concerns quality education and is the fifth
of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals
126. Which of these articles of the Indian established by the United Nations in 2015.
Constitution talks about the Uniform Civil 2. The Global Gender Gap Report is an index
Code? designed to measure gender equality and
A. Article 40 is released by UN Women.
B. Article 44 Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
C. Article 49 A. 1 only
D. Article 51 B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
127. Consider the following statements with D. None of the above
respect to International Court of Justice (ICJ):
1. The judges of ICJ are elected for terms 132. Consider the following statements:
of office of 5 years by the UN General 1. Malabar Exercise is a multilateral naval
Assembly and the Security Council. wargaming exercise that began as a
2. Its members are independent judges. bilateral exercise between the navies of
3. No member of ICJ can be dismissed India and the United States.
unless, in the unanimous opinion of the 2. The Exercise Desert Eagle is a bilateral
other members, he/she no longer fulfills exercise between India and Saudi Arabia.
the required conditions.
20
JAN - 2024
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
133. Consider the following statements:
1. The Montreux Record is a register of
wetland sites on the List of Ramsar 137. Consider the following statements:
wetlands of international importance
where changes in ecology have occurred,
are occurring, or are likely to occur as a
result of technological developments,
pollution or other human interference.
2. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat
has been declared a Ramsar Wetland of
International Importance.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
134. Consider the following statements:
1. Khangchendzonga National Park was
inscribed as India’s first “Mixed World
Heritage Site” on the UNESCO World
Heritage List.
2. The Blue Shield is an international
organization to protect the world’s cultural
heritage from threats such as armed
conflict and natural disasters.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
135. Which one of the following Schedules of
the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection? [PYQ 2014]
A. Second Schedule
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Eighth Schedule
D. Tenth Schedule
136. Consider the following statements:
1. The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 140. International Labour Organization’s
is an index which ranks countries “by
their perceived levels of public sector
corruption”, as determined by expert
assessments and opinion surveys.
2. For the sixth consecutive year, Denmark
has secured the top position as per the
Global Corruption Index 2023.
3. The index is published annually by the non-
21
governmental organization Transparency
International since 1995.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 3
D. All of the above
1. Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat is
known for housing Indian peafowl.
2. Known to be the largest lake of Goa, the
Carambolim or Karmali Lake is a man-
made freshwater lake.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
138. Consider the following statements:
1. The Finance Commission is constituted
by the President under Article 280 of the
Constitution.
2. The commission is appointed every six
years and consists of a chairman and four
other members.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
139. Consider the following statements:
1. TRAI is a statutory body that governs the
country’s telecommunications sector and
was established by an Act of Parliament
called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of
India Act (1997).
2. Japan had launched the world’s first full-
fledged 5G mobile networks in 2019.
Which of these statement(s) is /are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
Conventions 138 and 182 are related to?
A. Child labour
B. Adaptation of agricultural practices to
global climate change
C. Regulation of food prices and food security
D. Gender parity at the workplace
JAN - 2024

22
JAN - 2024
SEPTEMBER - 2022
24

23
JAN - 2024

ANSWER KEYS
1 C 38 D
2 B 39 C
3 C 40 B
4 C 41 B
5 A 42 B
6 A 43 C
7 B 44 C
8 C 45 C
9 D 46 D
10 D 47 C
11 A 48 B
12 A 49 A
13 B 50 C
14 C 51 B
15 A 52 C
16 B 53 B
17 C 54 C
18 A 55 C
19 C 56 B
20 D 57 C
21 C 58 D
22 D 59 C
23 D 60 B
24 D 61 C
25 C 62 C
26 B 63 A
27 D 64 B
28 B 65 B
29 B 66 D
30 B 67 D
31 C 68 B
32 C 69 A
33 B 70 A
34 C 71 B
35 C 72 C
36 C 73 C
37 A 74 A
24
JAN - 2024

75 C 114 C
76 B 115 A
77 B 116 B
78 D 117 D
79 C 118 A
80 C 119 C
81 B 120 D
82 A 121 C
83 C 122 C
84 C 123 A
85 A 124 C
86 D 125 D
87 D 126 B
88 C 127 B
89 A 128 A
90 A 129 D
91 C 130 C
92 B 131 D
93 A 132 A
94 D 133 A
95 B 134 C
96 A 135 D
97 C 136 D
98 C 137 B
99 D 138 A
100 B 139 A
101 C 140 A
102 C
103 A
104 B
105 B
106 C
107 A
108 D
109 D
110 D
111 C
112 A
113 D

25
JAN - 2024
EXPLANATION FOR THE PRELIMS QUESTIONS
1. Explanation:
● The Chairman of ISRO, S Somanath,
has designated 2024 as the ‘Year of
Gaganyaan’.
● Gaganyaan is India’s first human
spaceflight programme.
● ISRO aims to conduct crucial technology
tests in 2024 to prepare for the upcoming 5. Explanation:
Gaganyaan mission.
● The Gaganyaan mission was initiated
with the TV-D1, also known as the abort
mission, and was successfully carried out
in October 2023.
● The series includes a total of four missions,
and ISRO plans to execute at least two
more in the year 2024.
2. Explanation:
● The PLI initiative was designed with the
aim of expanding domestic manufacturing
capacity, fostering increased import
substitution, and generating employment.
● While initially focused on three
sectors—mobile and allied component
manufacturing, electrical component
manufacturing, and medical devices—the 6. Explanation:
scheme was later expanded to encompass
14 sectors.
3. Explanation:
● The Department of Telecommunications’
Simplified Certification Scheme (SCS) seeks
to enhance the business environment by
streamlining the certification process.
● Its objective is to shorten the certification
duration from 8 weeks to just 2 weeks,
thereby promoting a more business-
friendly atmosphere.
4. Explanation:
● The World Bank releases the Logistics
Performance Index (LPI) Report, and in
the 2023 edition, India achieved the 22nd
position in the International Shipment
category, a significant improvement from
its 44th rank in 2014.
● As per the report, Indian Ports exhibit a
“Turn Around Time” of 0.9 days, surpassing
that of the USA (15. days), Australia (1.7
days), and Singapore (1.0 days).
26
● Furthermore, the average container
dwell time in India has decreased to 3
days, contrasting with the 4 days seen in
countries like the UAE and South Africa, 7
days in the USA, and 10 days in Germany,
demonstrating a commendable efficiency.
● The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a
binding diplomatic agreement among
European Union (EU) member states.
● It sets up a fiscal framework designed to
uphold fiscal discipline and stability across
its member nations.
● Originating in 1997, the pact was established
in response to worries regarding elevated
government deficits and public debt levels
within the Eurozone.
● Its primary objective is to forestall member
countries from amassing disproportionate
deficits and public debt, as such
accumulation could pose a potential threat
to the stability of the shared currency and
the overall economic well-being of the EU.
● The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a
unique agreement which allows visa-free
movement for individuals belonging to hill
tribes, who are citizens of either India or
Myanmar and reside within a 16 km radius
on either side of the border.
● They can stay up to 72 hours with effective
and valid permits issued by the designated
authorities on either side. They can cross
the border on the production of a border
pass, usually valid for a year, and can stay
for up to two weeks per visit.
● The Free Movement Regime (FMR) was
initially introduced in the 1970s and
underwent multiple revisions. However, in
2018, it was reinstated under the Central
Government’s Act East policy amid
improving diplomatic relations between
India and Myanmar. Originally planned for
implementation in 2017, it was postponed
due to the Rohingya refugee crisis.
JAN - 2024

7. Explanation: ● Lord William Bentinck, who was the

● The inaugural edition of the “Desert Governor General of Bengal, became the
Cyclone” joint military exercise between first Governor General of India under this
India and the UAE commenced on January act.
2nd and will continue until January 15th,
2024, in the Mahajan ranges of Rajasthan, 11. Explanation: The Central Council for Research
India. in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) along with
● The “Desert Cyclone” exercise Marks a the National Commission for Indian System
deepening of friendship and trust between of Medicine (NCISM) has, on January 3,
India and the UAE. launched ‘SMART 2.0’. The recently launched
● The goal of the exercise is to accomplish ‘SMART 2.0’ program is to promote robust
mutual security objectives, strengthen clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda
bilateral relations between the two nations, with Ayurveda academic institutions across
and boost cooperation and interoperability the country through mutual collaboration.
for Peace Keeping Operations.
12. Explanation: Classical dancer and
8. Explanation: choreographer Vasanthalakshmi
● The Square Kilometer Array Observatory Narasimhachari was presented with the
(SKAO) is the world’s largest radio ‘Nritya Kalanidhi’ award at the 17th Dance
telescope project. Its construction is Festival of The Music Academy.
underway in Australia and South Africa, 13. Explanation: India is among the top importers
aiming to unlock the secrets of the Universe of palm oil in the world. Indonesia and Malaysia
through its unprecedented sensitivity and account for 85% of global palm oil exports,
resolution. and would be heavily impacted by the EU
● India joined SKAO recently through the Deforestation-Free Regulation (EUDR), which
National Centre for Radio Astrophysics prohibits imports into the EU of commodities
(NCRA). This marked a significant sourced by clearing forests.
development in Indian astronomy, granting
access to this cutting-edge facility and 14. Explanation: Savitribai Phule published
allowing Indian scientists to contribute to Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar. In her poem,
groundbreaking research. Go, Get Education, she urges the oppressed
communities to get an education and break
9. Explanation: free from the chains of oppression. She
● According to a recent study by the simultaneously campaigned against child
analytics firm Network Thoughts, India marriage, while supporting widow remarriage
achieved a record domestic air passenger
traffic of 152 million in 2023, exceeding 15. Explanation: On August 8, 1942, the Quit India
pre-pandemic levels and marking a full Resolution was passed at the Bombay session
recovery from COVID-19, one year earlier of the All India Congress Committee (AICC).
than the International Air Transport On the same day, Mahatma Gandhi urged
Association’s (IATA) initial 2024 estimate. Indians to act as a free nation and follow non-
● India, ranked third globally, is the fastest- violent civil disobedience. This took place in
growing aviation market, following China August Kranti Maidan.
and the USA. The study also says that 16. Explanation: The National Action Plan for Toys
with substantial untapped potential due to (NAPT) promotes the designing of toys, using
the large population, India has immense toys as a learning resource, monitoring the
prospects for growth. quality of toys and promoting indigenous toy
clusters. The Indian Toy industry witnessed
10. Explanation: a 52% decline in imports and a 239% rise
● It was the Charter Act of 1833 that officially in exports in FY 2022-23 in comparison to
designated the Governor General of FY 2014-15. Government efforts for the toy
Bengal as the Governor General of India. industry lead to a doubling of manufacturing
● This act aimed at centralizing and units, a reduction in imported inputs from 33%
consolidating British rule in India, leading to 12% and an increase in gross sales value by
to the establishment of a single authority a CAGR of 10%
for the entire British Indian territories.
27
JAN - 2024
17. Explanation: The Ministry of Electronics &
Information Technology (MeitY) Secretary
launched ERNET India’s newly developed
integrated web portal for educational
institutes in the country.
18. Explanation: ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan
Puruskar’ is given to corporate entities,
Sports Control Boards and NGOs, who have
played a visible role in sports promotion
and development. Ministry of Youth Affairs &
Sports announced ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan
Puruskar’ 2023. The awardees will receive
their awards from the President of India at a
specially organized function at Rashtrapati
Bhavan on 09 January 2024.
19. Explanation: The region’s first on-grid solar
project with state-of-the-art Battery Energy
Storage System (BESS) technology has been
developed in Kavaratti. This project will allow
for a pivotal shift from diesel-based power to
a sustainable, eco-friendly energy source for
the region.
20. Explanation: Prem Kumar Sehgal, Shah
Nawaz Khan and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon
were officers of the Indian National Army
whose trials were held in 1945 at the Red Fort
in Delhi. This was the first trial of INA prisoners
of war.
21. Explanation:
● Fisheries Sector in India- India is the 23. Explanation:
third-largest global producer of fish ● Bhitarkanika National Park – 672 square
and the second-largest in aquaculture.
Significance of the Blue Revolution –
Fisheries and Aquaculture sector. The
“Sagar Parikrama” initiative embarks on
a transformative sea journey along the
coastal belt, symbolizing solidarity with
fishermen, fish farmers, and stakeholders,
in celebration of the 75th Azadi Ka Amrit
Mahotsav.
● In March 2022, from Mandvi, Gujarat,
the “Sagar Parikrama” journey unfolded
under the theme “KRANTI se SHANTI.”
Maharashtra – 720 km coastline,
ranks seventh nationally, contributing
approximately 5% to the country’s
fish production. Fish holds paramount
importance in the diet of over 90% of
Goa’s population, representing an integral
aspect of Goan life and culture.
● With an annual average per capita fish
consumption of 15-17 kg, the marine
fishery sector in Goa provides livelihoods
for a significant portion of the population.
22. Explanation:
● Plasma waves frequently manifest within
the Earth’s magnetosphere, a magnetic
field enclosure encircling the planet.
Generally, these waves are recognized as
brief fluctuations in electric and magnetic
fields. These plasma waves play a
crucial role in both the energization and
transportation of charged particles within
the Earth’s magnetosphere.
● Specific waves, such as electromagnetic
ion cyclotron waves, function as a cleansing
mechanism for the Earth’s radiation belt, a
potential threat to our satellites.
● Unlike Earth, Mars lacks an intrinsic magnetic
field. Consequently, the high-speed solar
wind from the Sun directly interacts with
the Martian atmosphere. Plasma waves, a
category of electromagnetic waves, travel
through plasma in a distinct state of matter.
Over 99% of the observable matter in the
universe exists in the form of plasma.
● Elements such as our Sun, solar wind, the
interplanetary medium, the near-Earth
region, the magnetosphere, and the upper
layers of our atmosphere all predominantly
comprise plasma.
kilometres in Odisha stands as the second-
largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
Due to its proximity to the Bay of Bengal,
the soil in the area is enriched with salts,
fostering vegetation and species typically
found in tropical and subtropical intertidal
regions. It is a crucial breeding ground for
the endangered Saltwater Crocodiles. It
is a habitat for eight varieties of Kingfisher
birds, a rarity that adds to the park’s unique
biodiversity. Along the eastern boundary
of the sanctuary lies Gahirmatha Beach,
hosting the largest colony of Olive Ridley
Sea Turtles.
28
JAN - 2024

24. Explanation: resources within their territorial jurisdiction.

● The Indian government has initiated This capability enables BMCs to generate
the ambitious PRITHVI (PRITHvi VIgyan) their own financial resources, which can
program, a comprehensive scheme by then be utilized to fulfil the objectives laid
the Ministry of Earth Sciences. With a out in the Act.
substantial budget of Rs. 4,797 crore, this
initiative spans from 2021-26, ushering 26. Explanation: Aditya-L1 Mission – Aditya’s
in a new era in Earth sciences study and coronagraph has the ability to look very
understanding in India. close to the Sun. Aditya-L1, India’s first solar
● Objectives – Long-Term Observations: observatory, was successfully placed in the
Strengthening continuous monitoring final orbit, its desired destination from where it
of the Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, will make observations of the Sun for the next
geosphere, cryosphere, and solid earth to five years. Its journey is shorter compared
track and document crucial changes. to India’s previous Mars orbiter mission,
● Model Development: Creating advanced Mangalyaan.
models to enhance the forecasting of
weather, oceanic, and climatic hazards, 27. Explanation: Chilika Lake is Asia’s largest and
deepening the understanding of climate the world’s second-largest lagoon. In 1981,
change. it was designated the first Indian wetland of
● Polar and Oceanic Exploration: Exploring international importance under the Ramsar
the uncharted polar regions and high Convention. It is the largest brackish water
seas to uncover new phenomena and lake and wintering ground for birds.
resources.
● Technology Advancement: Innovating 28. Explanation: SVAMITVA, a Central Sector
technologies for the sustainable Scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj
exploitation of oceanic resources, was launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister
benefiting society. on National Panchayati Raj Day, 24th April
● Knowledge Translation: Translating 2021 after the successful completion of the
scientific insights into practical services pilot phase of the scheme (2020-2021) in 9
for societal, environmental, and economic states. The scheme is only applicable to 6
advantages. states: Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
25. Explanation: It is a central sector scheme.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Nagoya
Protocol is a legal framework for the 29. Explanation: The Gati Shakti National Master
implementation of one of the objectives Plan, introduced in 2021, aims to establish
of the Convention on Biological Diversity, multimodal connectivity infrastructure for
which is the fair & equitable sharing of diverse economic zones. This strategic
benefits arising out of the utilization of plan represents a transformative initiative
genetic resources. The protocol was to accelerate economic growth, advance
adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. It infrastructure development, and ensure the
entered into force in October 2014. In timely completion of projects. Additionally, the
alignment with the Biological Diversity objective is to establish 11 industrial corridors
Act of 2002, each local body within and introduce two new defense corridors, with
the State is mandated to establish a one located in Tamil Nadu and the other in
Biodiversity Management Committee Uttar Pradesh. In addition to reducing logistics
(BMC) in its jurisdiction. The BMC’s role is costs, the initiative focuses on enhancing
to promote conservation, sustainable use, cargo handling capacity and decreasing
and documentation of biological diversity. turnaround time at ports, ultimately fostering
Essentially, in India, BMCs act as the trade growth.
implementing agency for the objectives
outlined in the Nagoya Protocol.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Biological
Diversity Act empowers BMCs with the
independent authority to levy collection
fees on those gathering biological
29
JAN - 2024
30. Explanation:
● Statement 1 stands true. Article 355
explicitly outlines that “It shall be the
duty of the Union to protect every State
against external aggression and internal
disturbance and to ensure that the
government of every State is carried on
in accordance with the provisions of this
Constitution.”
● Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 22
(Protection against arrest and detention in
certain cases):
○ No person who is arrested shall be
detained in custody without being
informed, as soon as may be, of the
grounds for such arrest nor shall he be
denied the right to consult, and to be 32. Explanation: Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
defended by, a legal practitioner of his
choice.
○ Every person who is arrested and
detained in custody shall be produced
before the nearest magistrate within
a period of twenty-four hours of such
arrest excluding the time necessary for
the journey from the place of arrest to
the court of the magistrate and no such
person shall be detained in custody
beyond the said period without the
authority of a magistrate.
○ Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply
(a) to any person who for the time being
is an enemy alien; or (b) to any person
who is arrested or detained under any
law providing for preventive detention.
Therefore, as per Clause (3) of Article
22 in the Constitution of India, states
are not obligated to grant access to
legal counsel to individuals detained
for preventive reasons.
● Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 32 (1) of
the Prevention Of Terrorism Act (POTA)
2002 specifies that “Notwithstanding 33. Explanation:
anything in the Code 12 or in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), but subject to
the provisions of this section, a confession
made by a person before a police officer
not lower in rank than a Superintendent
of Police shall be admissible in the trial of
such person.”
30
31. Explanation: Both statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is Saudi
Arabia’s second-largest trade partner, and
Saudi Arabia is India’s fourth-largest trade
partner.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The India-Saudi
Strategic Partnership Council (SPC), initiated
in 2019, Marks a significant strategic
partnership, but it is not Saudi Arabia’s first-
ever establishment of such a partnership with
India. Saudi Arabia had similar partnerships
with the UK, France, and China before
engaging in the strategic partnership with
India.
Statement 1 is correct: Input Tax Credit (ITC)
is a credit mechanism where businesses can
offset the tax paid on purchases against their
tax liability when making sales. This helps in
avoiding double taxation and promotes a fair
and efficient tax system by recognizing and
crediting the taxes already paid in the supply
chain. It contributes to the overall simplification
and transparency of the taxation process for
businesses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: If a business is
operating under the composition scheme,
it cannot leverage Input Tax Credit (ITC).
It forfeits the option to leverage Input Tax
Credit, simplifying the tax process for smaller
businesses.
Statement 3 is correct: Input Tax Credit
(ITC) cannot be claimed for personal use or
for goods falling under exempt categories.
This ensures that the credit mechanism
is specifically applied to business-related
transactions and taxable supplies, maintaining
the integrity of the tax credit system.
The Mannhit app is designed for facilitating
mental health screening, providing users with
a platform to assess their mental well-being.
It is not involved in translating Supreme Court
judgments or serving purposes related to
storing digital documents or managing ocean
data. This app contributes to mental health
awareness and support, offering a valuable
resource for individuals seeking mental health
screening and assistance.
JAN - 2024
34. Explanation: All three statements are correct: 37. Explanation:
India was one of the earliest nations
to acknowledge the Maldives after its
independence in 1965 and subsequently
inaugurated its mission in Male in 1972.
Ekuverin is indeed a collaborative military
exercise involving both India and the Maldives.
India maintains a favorable Balance of Trade
with the Maldives.
35. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Plant cells have
cellulose cell walls, while animal cells
do not. Plant cells are characterized by
cellulose cell walls providing structural
support, while animal cells lack such rigid
cell walls.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Both plant and
animal cells have plasma membranes.
Both plant and animal cells possess
plasma membranes, which are essential
for controlling the passage of substances
into and out of the cell.
● Statement 3 is correct: A mature plant
cell typically has one large vacuole, while
an animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Mature plant cells typically feature a single
large vacuole that aids in storage, structural
support, and waste management, whereas
animal cells may contain multiple smaller
vacuoles with varied functions.
36. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is Correct: A K-shaped
recovery signifies a divergent rate of
recovery, with one segment experiencing
positive growth while another faces a
decline. This pattern is often observed in
economic rebound scenarios.
● Statement 2 is Correct: The Gini
coefficient is a commonly used measure of
income inequality, providing a numerical 39. Explanation:
representation of the distribution of
income within a population.
● Statement 3 is Correct: A higher Gini
coefficient indicates greater income
inequality, with values closer to 1
representing a more unequal distribution
of income across the population.
31
● Statement 1 is correct: EFTA countries
are indeed not part of the European Union
(EU). EFTA is a separate trade organization
consisting of countries that are not EU
members but seek to participate in the
European single market.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Iceland,
Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland
are actually part of the EFTA. These
nations, while not EU members, participate
in EFTA agreements, contributing to the
organization’s role in facilitating free trade
among its member states.
● Therefore, the correct answer is “1 only.”
38. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Ballistic
missiles and hypersonic missiles follow
different trajectories. Ballistic missiles
follow a predictable parabolic trajectory,
while hypersonic missiles use sustained
aerodynamic lift, allowing for more
unpredictable and manoeuvrable flight
paths.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Conventional
hypersonic weapons typically use a
combination of aerodynamic lift and
propulsion, harnessing kinetic energy
rather than relying solely on potential
energy.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The speed of
hypersonic missiles is generally much
higher than Mach 10, often reaching
speeds above Mach 20. These missiles
travel at extremely high velocities, making
them faster than conventional ballistic
missiles.
● Therefore, none of the statements is
correct.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Rule of Law
does entail the exclusion of arbitrariness
on the part of the government. It implies
that governmental actions should be
based on established laws and principles,
rather than being arbitrary or discretionary.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Rule of Law
serves as a check on the executive’s
lawlessness by ensuring that no official or
administrator can arrest or detain a person
without legislative sanction. This principle
emphasizes that legal procedures and
due process must be followed in any
deprivation of individual liberty.
JAN - 2024
40. Explanation:
● Dhauli is a vital early historic urban centre
in Odisha, with archaeological findings
dating back to the 3rd century BCE,
particularly during Ashoka’s era.
● In 2013, the Archaeological Survey of India
(ASI) took steps to protect the Ashoka
rock edict site near Erragudi on the Gooty-
Pathikonda road in Kurnool district, Andhra
Pradesh.
● Jaugada is notable for being the second
location in Odisha with a significant
Ashokan rock edict, commonly known as
the Kalinga edict.
● The Ashoka edict at Kalsi eloquently
depicts Ashoka’s humane approach
post his embrace of Buddhism after the
war. Situated in the buffer zone between
Uttaranchal and Himachal Pradesh, Kalsi
hosts this impactful historical inscription.
41. Explanation: ‘Operation Prosperity Guardian’
is related to the Red Sea. The operation aims
to enhance maritime security and stability in
the Red Sea region. It involves cooperative
efforts among nations to address common
challenges and threats in the maritime
domain. The Red Sea holds strategic
significance due to its vital shipping routes 44. Explanation: The ‘International Purple Fest’ is
and geopolitical importance. The operation
reflects a collaborative approach to ensure
prosperity and safeguard maritime interests
in the Red Sea.
42. Explanation:
● The first statement is incorrect. SKAO
(Square Kilometre Array Observatory)
is not headquartered in France; it is
headquartered near Manchester, United
Kingdom.
● The second statement is correct. Once
operational, SKA (Square Kilometre Array)
is expected to be between 5 to 60 times
more powerful than the most advanced
existing radio telescopes functioning in
comparable frequency ranges.
● The third statement is correct. The Square
Kilometre Array will not be a single large
telescope; instead, it will be a collection of
thousands of dish antennas operating as a
single unit.
32
43. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Copernicus
Climate Change Service (C3S), a part of
the European Centre for Medium-Range
Weather Forecasts (ECMWF), reported
that 2023 was the warmest year on record,
exceeding the previous record set in 2018.
● Statement 2 is correct: 2023 marked the
first time on record that every day within
a year exceeded 1 degree Celsius above
the 1850-1900 pre-industrial level.
○ The statement highlights the sustained
and pervasive nature of elevated
temperatures throughout the year.
This information is derived from global
temperature datasets, and it signifies
a notable departure from historical
temperature norms.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Copernicus
Atmosphere Monitoring Service
(CAMS), reported that greenhouse
gas concentrations in 2023 reached
unprecedented levels. Specifically, carbon
dioxide (CO2) concentrations increased by
2.4 parts per million (ppm), and methane
(CH4) concentrations increased by 11 parts
per billion (ppb).
related to the empowerment of people with
disabilities. It is a festival aimed at celebrating
and empowering individuals with disabilities,
promoting inclusivity and showcasing their
talents. The event includes various activities
and initiatives focused on creating awareness,
providing support, and fostering an inclusive
environment for people with disabilities.
The colour purple is often associated with
disability awareness, and the festival serves
as a platform to highlight and address the
challenges faced by this community. Overall, it
is a significant event dedicated to advocating
for the rights and well-being of people with
disabilities
45. Explanation: The Indian Constitution does
not lay down a specific procedure for the
removal of a Governor from his/her post. The
President of India has the power to remove
a Governor at any time without giving him or
her any reason.
JAN - 2024
46. Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Snow leopards are in
the “vulnerable” category of the IUCN “Red
List of Threatened Species”, with an estimated
global population of 4,000 to 7,500 is the
correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct: Darjeeling Zoo initiated
a conservation breeding program for snow
leopards in 1985, reflecting proactive efforts
to contribute to the species’ preservation.
This highlights the zoo’s early commitment
to addressing the challenges faced by snow
leopards through captive breeding, aiming to
enhance their survival prospects.
Statement 3 is correct: Since 2007,
Darjeeling Zoo has played a pivotal role as the
coordinating zoo for snow leopards in India,
showcasing its central position in national
conservation efforts.
This designation signifies the zoo’s leadership
and collaboration in managing the captive
snow leopard population across the country.
Statement 4 is correct: After almost forty 49. Explanation:
years since the commencement of the
conservation breeding program at Darjeeling
Zoo, it currently boasts the highest number
of snow leopards in captivity. The total count
stands at 14, evenly distributed between 7
males and 7 females.
47. Explanation:
● All statements are correct:
○ Organ donation in India is governed by
the Transplantation of Human Organs 50. Explanation: Aflatoxins, toxins found in
and Tissues Act, 1994. This legislation
permits both deceased and living
donors to contribute their organs.
Engaging in activities like offering
payment for organs, supplying organs
for payment, initiating, negotiating, or
advertising such transactions, seeking
individuals to provide organs, and
participating in the creation of false
documents may result in imprisonment
for up to 10 years and a fine of up to Rs
1 crore.
○ The Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare recently revised the National 51. Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: UN
Organ Transplantation Guidelines,
enabling individuals aged 65 and above
to receive organs for transplantation
from deceased donors.
○ Patients in need of an organ can only
register for transplantation within the
state of their domicile.
33
48. Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: MSP is
based on the recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP), which considers various
factors such as cost of production, demand
and supply, market price trends, inter-crop
price parity, etc. Statement 1 is correct.
The CACP recommends MSPs for 22
mandated crops and fair and remunerative
price (FRP) for sugarcane.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The list of 22
mandated crops encompasses 14 Kharif
crops, including paddy, jowar, bajra,
maize, ragi, tur (arhar), moong, urad,
groundnut, soybean (yellow), sunflower
seed, sesamum, nigerseed, and cotton.
Additionally, it comprises 6 Rabi crops,
namely wheat, barley, gram, masur (lentil),
rapeseed and mustard, safflower, and 2
commercial crops, jute and copra.
The annual maritime exercise between
the Indian and British Royal Navy is named
“Konkan.” This joint exercise, initiated in 2004,
focuses on enhancing interoperability and
mutual understanding between the two naval
forces. The exercise is a significant platform
for both nations to share expertise in maritime
operations and strengthen bilateral defense
cooperation.
improperly handled and stored cereal grains
and oilseeds, are produced by moulds. These
moulds, specifically Aspergillus flavus and
Aspergillus parasiticus, thrive in warm and
humid conditions, contaminating crops like
maize, peanuts, and cotton seeds. Aflatoxins
are highly resistant and are not typically
eliminated during normal cooking processes,
posing serious health risks such as stunted
growth in children and an increased likelihood
of liver cancer. The answer to the question is
(c) Moulds.
Headquarters in New York accommodates five
of the UN’s six principal organs—the General
Assembly (GA), the Security Council (SC), the
Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), the
Trusteeship Council, and the UN Secretariat.
The sixth organ, the International Court
of Justice, is situated in The Hague, the
Netherlands.
JAN - 2024
Statement 2 is correct: The ICJ consists of 15
judges who are elected for nine-year terms
by the UN General Assembly and the Security
Council, voting separately but simultaneously.
To be elected, a candidate needs an absolute
majority in both bodies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The official
languages of the ICJ are English and French,
not Mandarin.
52. Explanation: All three statements are correct.
● India plays a significant role in the global 55. Explanation: The people of India protested
cervical cancer burden, contributing the
largest share with nearly 1 in 4 deaths
worldwide attributed to cervical cancer,
making it a critical health concern for the
country.
● The overwhelming majority of cervical
cancer cases, around 99%, are associated
with high-risk HPV (human papillomavirus) 56. Explanation: Magh Bihu is a harvest festival
infection, a common virus transmitted
through sexual contact, emphasizing
the crucial role of preventive measures,
including vaccination.
● Cervical cancer has its origins in the
cervix, the lower part of the uterus. Early
detection and intervention strategies are
important.
53. Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The 57. Explanation: In response to Maharaja Ajit
Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry
presents the Swachh Survekshan Awards,
which originated as part of the Swachh
Bharat Mission. The methodology for
measuring cleanliness relies on two
primary criteria – citizen feedback and
field assessment.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: While Indore 58. Explanation: CPI measures changes in the
has been a top performer in Swachh
Survekshan rankings, it has not
consistently held the top position since
the awards began in 2016. In 2016, the top
performer was Mysuru.
54. Explanation:
● All statements are correct. GSP
(Generalized System of Preferences) is the
largest and oldest US trade preference
program, aiming to foster economic
development. It achieves this by providing
duty-free entry for a wide array of products
from designated beneficiary countries.
● The GSP acts as an umbrella encompassing
a substantial portion of preferential
schemes that developed nations extend
34
to developing countries, creating a
framework for facilitating international
trade on favourable terms.
● The essence of GSP lies in offering reduced
Most Favoured Nations (MFN) Tariffs or
even duty-free entry for eligible products
exported by beneficiary countries,
fostering economic ties and aiding the
growth of the beneficiary nations in the
markets of the donor countries.
against the Simon Commission primarily
because it lacked Indian representation, as
there was no Indian member in the commission.
The absence of Indian involvement was
seen as an affront to India’s right to self-
determination and constitutional reform.
celebrated in Assam. Wangala Festival is
the famous harvest festival celebrated in the
Indian state of Meghalaya by the Garo tribe.
Nuakhai is an agricultural festival mainly
observed by people of Western Odisha in
India. Nuakhai is observed to welcome the
new rice of the season. Nabanno is a Bengali
harvest celebration usually celebrated with
food and dance.
Singh of the Khetri State’s request in 1893,
Swami Vivekananda adopted the name
‘Vivekananda.’ In 1899, he founded the Belur
Math. He served as the principal disciple
of the 19th-century mystic, Ramakrishna
Paramhansa.
average retail prices paid by consumers for
a basket of goods and services over time.
Base Year – 2012. Retail inflation is also called
Consumer price inflation- i.e., the price rise that
consumers have to deal with. Retail inflation
data is critical to policymaking because it is
this measure of inflation that the central bank
– RBI- takes into account when it decides
whether to raise or cut interest rates in the
economy. The RBI’s action, in turn, affects
what EMIs people pay for their car loans or
home loans, and for how long. Inflation in this
context refers to increase in the general price
level – not the increase in the price of any one
commodity.
JAN - 2024
59. Explanation: The CEC can be removed from
office only through a process of removal
similar to that of an SC judge by Parliament.
The Constitution does not lay down a specific
legislative process for the appointment of the
CEC and ECs.
60. Explanation:
● Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela
dynasty of India.
● Jayashakti was a 9th-century ruler from
the Chandela dynasty of Central India.
● Nagabhata II was an Indian Emperor from
the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.
● Bhoja was an Indian king from the
Paramara dynasty.
61. Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):It
is largest crop insurance scheme in the history
of independent India and globally, the third
largest scheme in terms of premium.
It was launched in 2016. All farmers (both loanee
and non-loanee) including sharecroppers and
tenant farmers growing the notified crops in
notified areas are eligible for coverage.
62. Explanation:
Cervical Cancer: It starts in the cells of the
cervix, which is the lower, narrow end of the
uterus & connects the uterus to the vagina.
Before cancer appears in the cervix, the cells
of the cervix go through changes known as
dysplasia, in which abnormal cells begin to
appear in the cervical tissue.
63. Explanation:
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Involves
corporate initiatives aimed at evaluating
and assuming responsibility for a company’s
impact on the environment and its influence
on social welfare. In the Indian context, the
framework for CSR is defined by clause 135
of the Companies Act, 2013.India – inaugural
country worldwide to enforce mandatory
CSR spending, accompanied by a structured
approach for identifying potential CSR
activities.
The CSR provisions within the Act are
applicable to companies with an annual 67. Explanation: Both statements are correct
turnover of 1,000 crore or more, a net worth
of Rs. 500 crore or more, or a net profit of Rs.
5 crore or more. The legislation mandates
companies to establish a CSR committee
responsible for recommending a Corporate
Social Responsibility Policy to the Board of
35
Directors and monitoring its implementation.
As per the Act, companies are encouraged
to allocate 2% of their average net profit from
the preceding three years to CSR activities.
64. Explanation: Operation Sarvashakti- Involving
security forces from both sides of the Pir
Panjal range in J&K to flush out terrorists.
65. Explanation:
Tamil scholars assert the existence of three
Sangams, or academies of Tamil poets,
in ancient Tamil Nadu, also known as
Muchchangam.
The Sangam literature, a collection of poems,
emerged over a span of six centuries,
spanning from approximately 300 BCE to 300
CE, crafted by Tamils representing diverse
social backgrounds.
Compiled into anthologies several centuries
later, these literary pieces offer glimpses into
the material culture of the times and provide
vivid descriptions of significant warriors.
They serve as a valuable source shedding
light on early Tamil culture and illuminating
the trade connections between South India
and regions such as the Mediterranean, West
Asia, and Southeast Asia.
Sangam poets were cognizant of the social
classification system known as Varna. Within
Tolkappiyam’s Purattinai, a Sutra (74) stands
out, employing the term “Vahai” to signify four
Varnas, thereby reflecting the awareness of
social categories among the poets of that era.
66. Explanation: All four statements are correct.
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri – Jan
Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) provides a cover
of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary
and tertiary care hospitalization across public
and private empanelled hospitals in India.
It ensures cashless access to health care
services for the beneficiary at the point of
service, i.e., the hospital. There is no restriction
on the family size, age, or gender, and it covers
up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15
days post-hospitalization expenses, including
diagnostics and medicines.
regarding Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi
Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN). The
initiative was launched on 15th November
2023, specifically aimed at the socio-
economic welfare of Particularly Vulnerable
Tribal Groups (PVTGs) on Janjatiya Gaurav
JAN - 2024
Diwas. The program carries a substantial
budget of approximately Rs 24,000 crore,
indicating a significant financial commitment
from the government.
It strategically focuses on 11 critical
interventions, encompassing various aspects
of development, through the coordination of 70. Explanation:
9 Ministries.
These interventions are designed to improve
socio-economic conditions of the PVTGs by
saturating PVTG households and habitations
with basic facilities such as safe housing,
clean drinking water and sanitation, improved
access to education, health and nutrition,
electricity, road and telecom connectivity, and and the principles of Yoga. The translation
sustainable livelihood opportunities.
68. Explanation:
Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missiles (IRBMs)
are missiles with a range between 3,000–
5,500 kilometers. In the provided list, Agni-II Mughal era.
and Agni-III fall under this category. Prithvi-
III, Prahaar, Trishul, and MILAN are not 71. Explanation:
Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missiles.
Ballistic missiles are propelled by rockets
during the initial phase, followed by an
unpowered, descending trajectory toward
their intended destinations.
They are categorized based on their range:
● Short-range ballistic missiles, covering
distances of less than 1,000 kilometers
(approximately 620 miles).
● Medium-range ballistic missiles, with
travel distances between 1,000–3,000
kilometers (approximately 620-1,860
miles).
● Intermediate-range ballistic missiles,
ranging from 3,000–5,500 kilometers
(approximately 1,860-3,410 miles).
● Intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs),
designed for distances exceeding 5,500
kilometers.
Intermediate-Range Ballistic Missile – Agni II,
Agni III and Agni IV
69. Explanation: Shield volcanoes, such as those
found in Hawaii, are indeed characterized by 72. Explanation:
their low steepness. The lava they erupt is
primarily basalt, which has high fluidity. Due
to the fluid nature of basaltic lava, it tends
to flow more easily, resulting in the gradual,
gentle slopes typically associated with shield
volcanoes.
The reason (R) correctly explains why shield
volcanoes are not steep and are characterized
36
by low-explosivity. If water were to somehow
enter the vent, it could lead to steam-driven
explosive eruptions, but this is not the typical
behavior of shield volcanoes under normal
conditions.
During the reign of
Akbar, Nizamuddin Panipati translated
“Yogavasistha” into Persian. This
translation took place as part of Akbar’s
efforts to promote cultural exchange
and understanding. “Yogavasistha” is a
significant Hindu philosophical text that
explores topics related to non-duality, Maya,
reflects Akbar’s inclusive policies, fostering
intellectual engagement between different
religious and cultural traditions in his empire.
Nizamuddin Panipati’s work contributed
to the cross-cultural dialogue during the
● Statement 1 is correct: The Prime
Minister’s Awards for Excellence in
Public Administration are instituted to
acknowledge and reward outstanding
work by civil servants throughout the
country. These awards aim to recognize
exemplary contributions to public
administration.
● Statement 2 is correct: The 2023 awards
include a trophy, a scroll, and a monetary
incentive of Rs. 20 lakh for the awarded
District/Organization. This incentive is
intended to be used for the implementation
of projects/programs or addressing
resource gaps in public welfare areas.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Prime
Minister’s Awards for Excellence in Public
Administration are conferred by the Prime
Minister of India, not the President. The
awards ceremony usually takes place
on Civil Services Day, but it is the Prime
Minister who presents these awards to
deserving civil servants.
● Statement 1 is correct: The MPLADS
e-SAKSHI Mobile Application is designed
to provide convenience and accessibility
to Members of Parliament (MPs). It allows
them to propose, track, and oversee
various projects directly from their mobile
devices, making the process more efficient
and accessible.
JAN - 2024
● Statement 2 is correct: The real-time
access provided by the mobile application
enhances the decision-making processes
for MPs. It enables them to receive timely 75. Explanation:
updates and information, allowing for swift
responses to emerging needs or issues in
their constituencies.
● Statement 3 is correct: The MPLADS
e-SAKSHI Mobile Application aims to
streamline communication between MPs
and relevant authorities. It facilitates
an efficient exchange of information,
ensuring that MPs can communicate
effectively with the authorities involved in
the implementation of projects.
73. Explanation:
All three statements are correct.
● His most famous work, the Tirukkural, is a
collection of couplets that cover various
aspects, including morality, politics, the
economy, and love.
● In January 1935, the Tamil Nadu
government officially recognized 31 BCE
as the year of Valluvar. This recognition
is based on historical assessments and
traditions associated with Thiruvalluvar’s
life.
● The Government of Tamil Nadu celebrates
the 15th (16th on leap years) of January as
Thiruvalluvar Day in the poet’s honour,
as part of the Pongal celebrations. This
celebration is a tribute to Thiruvalluvar’s
contributions to Tamil literature and
philosophy.
74. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Punganur
cow species in India is a distinctive dwarf
breed, recognized as the shortest-humped
cattle globally. Males have slightly longer
horns than females, contributing to the
characteristic features of this breed.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Punganur cows
are not limited to Karnataka; they are
indigenous to the Punganoor, Vayalapadu,
Madanapalli, and Palamaneer talukas of
Chittoor district in Rayalaseema region,
southern Andhra Pradesh.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The breed is
characterized by small crescent-shaped
horns, typically measuring 10-15 cm in
length. In male cattle, these horns often
curve both backward and forward, while
in female cattle, they curve laterally and
forward. Notably, females possess slightly
37
longer horns compared to the more
compact horns of males in this breed.
The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas
(PESA) Act was enacted in 1996 with the
objective of empowering tribal communities.
The act primarily focuses on:
● Providing self-governance: PESA aims to
decentralize power and promote local self-
governance among tribal communities.
● Recognizing traditional rights: It
emphasizes the recognition and
protection of the traditional rights of tribal
communities over their resources and
territories.
● Freeing tribal people from exploitation:
PESA seeks to protect tribal communities
from exploitation by providing them with
the authority to manage their resources.
● However, creating autonomous regions
in tribal areas is not explicitly identified
as an objective of the PESA Act. The act
concentrates more on empowering local
self-governance rather than establishing
autonomous regions within tribal areas.
76. Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
● In a Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model,
a private company or consortium enters
into an agreement with the government
to invest in and construct a public
infrastructure project. The private entity
secures its own financing for the project.
● At the end of the agreed concession
period, which is the duration the private
company operates the facility, ownership
and operation are typically transferred
back to the government or relevant
state authority. This transfer is a key
characteristic of the BOT model.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
● The government typically does not
operate, maintain, and manage the facility.
Instead, it allows the private company to
operate and maintain it.
● After the concessionary period, the
company often transfers ownership and
operation of the facility to the government
or relevant state authority.
JAN - 2024
77. Explanation:
Iran shares its land border with the following
nations: Afghanistan, Armenia, Azerbaijan,
Iraq, Pakistan, Turkey and Turkmenistan.
78. Explanation:
All three statements are incorrect.
● FCRA was enacted in 1976, not during
the Bangladesh war in 1971. The purpose
was to regulate foreign contributions 82. Explanation:
and hospitality to Indian individuals,
associations, and companies.
● FCRA registration is valid for 5 years, and
NGOs are required to apply for renewal
within six months of the date of expiry.
● If the registration of an NGO is cancelled,
it is not eligible for re-registration for 3
years, not 5 years.
79. Explanation:
All three statements are correct.
● FCI is indeed a statutory body established
in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act
of 1964.
● FCI operates through a network of offices
across the country, with its headquarters
located in New Delhi and five Zonal
Offices.
● FCI is responsible for delivering food 84. Explanation: India’s decision to withdraw
grains to State Governments or State
Agencies from its base depots, and these
commodities are then distributed through
Fair Price Shops.
80. Explanation:
● Disguised unemployment refers to a 85. Explanation: Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
situation where a large number of people
are engaged in a task, but the marginal
productivity of labour is essentially zero.
● This occurs when more people are
employed in a particular job than actually
required, leading to inefficiency.
● It does not necessarily imply a high level
of visible unemployment but rather a 86. Explanation:
situation where additional workers do
not contribute meaningfully to the overall
output.
● In such cases, alternative employment may
not be readily available, contributing to the
persistence of disguised unemployment.
● The productivity of workers in such a
scenario is low as the excess labour does
not contribute significantly to the overall
productivity of the task.
38
81. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The SBI has
recently issued AT1 bonds which are
considered to be part of Tier 1 Capital.
● Statement 2 is correct: The total capital
with a bank is the sum total of Tier 1 and
Tier 2 capital.
● Statement 3 is incorrect.
● Statement 1 is correct: The peace clause
was introduced at the Bali ministerial
conference in 2013.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The peace
clause primarily provides protection to
developing countries. It allows them
to exceed the 10% limit on the value
of agricultural production for domestic
support without facing legal action from
other WTO members.
● Statement 3 is correct: India is the first
country to invoke the peace clause.
83. Explanation: The Indian community in
Suriname, Jamaica, Guyana, and Trinidad &
Tobago has a significant presence due to the
British indentured labour system.
from RCEP was based on concerns about a
potential flood of cheap imports, the impact
on domestic producers and industries, and
fears that its trade deficit with China would
increase.
is the crucial link, as it straddles both the
Eastern and Western Ghats, facilitating
migration and genetic exchange for diverse
species. Its location in Tamil Nadu, where the
two mountain ranges converge, makes it a
vital ecological corridor.
National Institute of
Oceanography (NIO) – It is one of the 37
constituent laboratories of the Council
of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR),
New Delhi. It has numerous state-of-the-art
laboratories at its headquarters in Goa as
well as the regional centres. It operates two
research vessels RV Sindhu Sankalp and
RV Sindhu Sadhana. It provides consultancy
on marine environmental protection and
coastal zone regulations. Multi-disciplinary
oceanographic research institution and
stands as one of the constituent laboratories
JAN - 2024
under the Council of Scientific & Industrial
Research (CSIR), New Delhi. The main office
is situated in Dona Paula, Goa, with additional
regional centres located in Kochi (Kerala),
Mumbai (Maharashtra), and Visakhapatnam
(Andhra Pradesh). Established on January 1,
1966, in the wake of the International Indian
Ocean Expedition (IIOE). It is dedicated to 90. Explanation: Ramanuja, also known as
comprehensively studying the distinctive
oceanographic features of the Indian Ocean.
87. Explanation: Wheat – This is the second
most important cereal crop. It is the main
food crop, in the north and north-western
parts of the country. This rabi crop requires
a cool growing season and bright sunshine
at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to 75
cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over
the growing season. There are two important
wheat-growing zones in the country – the
Ganga-Satluj plains in the northwest and the
black soil region of the Deccan. The major
wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana,
Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and
Rajasthan.
88. Explanation: Nagara temples – Built on a
raised plinth, with the Garbha Griha (sanctum
sanctorum) — where the idol of the deity rests
— the most sacred part of the temple. Towering
over the Garbha Griha is the shikhara (literally
‘mountain peak’), the most distinguishable
aspect of Nagara-style temples. Comprises
a circumambulatory passage around the
Garbha Griha, and one or more mandapas
(halls) on the same axis. Elaborate murals and
reliefs often adorn its walls. In the Dravida- 91. Explanation: IISF is an initiative jointly
style temples, vimanas are typically smaller
than the great gatehouses or gopurams,
which are the most immediately striking
architectural elements in a temple complex.
89. Explanation: Maldives – An archipelago of
1,190 coral islands and sandbanks clustered in
20-odd atolls, sprawls over a patch of North
Central Indian Ocean southwest of Kerala and
Sri Lanka; Male, the capital, lies about 600 km 92. Explanation: Neutron stars are formed by
southwest of Thiruvananthapuram. Today, the
Maldives is an international tourism hotspot.
Tourism directly contributes almost 30% of
the country’s GDP, and generates more than
60% of its foreign currency earnings. The
Maldives offers visa-free arrivals to its major
source markets, which include India, Russia,
China, and Kazakhstan.
Lakshadweep – Translates into Sanskrit and
39
Malayalam as “hundred thousand islands”, is
a group of 36 coral islands with a total area
of only 32 sq km — India’s smallest Union
Territory. The islands, which are at distances
between 220 km and 440 km from Kochi, lie
to the north of the Maldives.
Ramanujacharya or Ilaiya Perumal – South
Indian theologian and philosopher. Hinduism’s
significant thinker. Landed in Srirangam after
a long journey, where he established temple
worship and founded centres to spread
his theory of devotion to God Vishnu and
his consort Shri (Lakshmi). In three major
commentaries, he laid an intellectual basis
for the practice of bhakti (devotional worship):
the Vedartha-samgraha (on the Vedas), the
Shri-bhashya on The Bhagavadgita bhashya,
and the Brahma-sutras (on the Bhagavadgita).
Ramanuja believed that the existence of souls
and matter is reliant on Brahman. Brahman
is the ultimate Soul, which may be found in
both finite souls and matter. Brahman resides
in unknown souls till it attains emancipation.
Although finite souls become aware of their
divine essence, they do not become identical
to God. Ramanuja surrounded himself with
a group of followers who were his closest
colleagues. KurathAzhwan, Mudaliandan, and
KidambiAcchan, as well as his five followers
who were also his gurus, were among them.
Koorathazhwan, also known as Kuresa and
Srivatsanka Mishra, was Acharya Ramanuja’s
primary disciple.
organized by the Ministry of Science and
Technology, Ministry of Earth Sciences,
Department of Space, and Department of
Atomic Energy in association with Vijnana
Bharati. The primary aim of IISF is to celebrate
science, make it accessible to all, and foster
collaboration for scientific advancement
within India and internationally.
the gravitational collapse of massive stars
after a supernova. Supermassive black holes,
found at the centres of galaxies, are believed
to form by the accumulation of gas and dust
over billions of years. Neutron stars are way
more dense than black holes.
JAN - 2024
93. Explanation: Adequate forex reserves are
crucial for a country to meet its international
financial obligations and influence the
exchange rate of its currency. The high
reserves will bring macroeconomic stability to
the country.
94. Explanation: Antibiotic resistance occurs
when bacteria mutate in response to the use
of antibiotics, making the standard treatments
ineffective. The overuse of antibiotics in
livestock and agriculture is a contributor to
the rise in antibiotic-resistant bacteria. The
indiscriminate use of ‘last mile’ antibiotics
accelerates the development of antibiotic
resistance.
95. Explanation: One of the major transformational
decisions taken by the Government was
to introduce 100% Neem Coating on all
subsidized agricultural grade urea in the
country in order to increase the nutrient
efficiency, crop yield, soil health and check
the diversion of agricultural grade urea for
non-agricultural activities. Neem coating
slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in
the soil.
96. Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Chile is known for
having significant copper reserves with the
largest copper production and Zambia is
one of the major copper producers in Africa. 100. Explanation:
Zambia was the second largest producer of
copper in the continent(2021), at some 880.8
thousand metric tons.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The leading copper-
producing states in India include Rajasthan,
Jharkhand, and Madhya Pradesh. Madhya
Pradesh is the leading producer of copper in
India. It accounts for producing 53% of copper
in this country. Rajasthan accounts for 43%,
and Jharkhand accounts for 4% of copper
production in India.
Manipur is not known for copper production.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Chalcocite and
Chalcopyrite are ores of copper, but Bauxite 101. Explanation:
is not. Bauxite is an ore of aluminum.
97. Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal is a
crucial artificial waterway that directly links
the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea,
providing a vital shipping route.It is a human-
made waterway that cuts north-south across
the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt.
40
Statement 2 is correct: The Suez Canal is a
man-made canal that traverses the Isthmus of
Suez in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean
Sea to the Red Sea in a north-south direction.
98. Explanation:
Both the statements are correct:
Naxalite organizations have been
declared as terrorist organizations.
The region known as the “Red Corridor” in
India is affected by Naxalism, characterized
by the presence of various Naxalite groups
and insurgencies. The listed states are among
those affected by Naxal activities.
99. Explanation:
All the statements are correct.
Japan has become the fifth country to achieve
a successful soft landing on the Moon with the
Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM)
mission.
The mission, nicknamed “Moon Sniper,”
aimed for unprecedented landing accuracy,
specifically targeting within 100 meters of its
designated site.
Additionally, one of the primary objectives
of the SLIM mission is to explore regions of
the Moon for potential sources of oxygen and
water, crucial for sustaining life and serving as
rocket fuel. Therefore, the correct answer is 1,
2 and 3.
Statement is correct: As per the guidelines,
entities like mobile telephone companies
and supermarket chains, under resident
ownership and control, are eligible to be
promoters of Payment Banks.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Payment Banks are
not permitted to issue credit cards; they can
only issue debit cards.
Statement 3 is correct: Payment Banks are
restricted from engaging in lending activities;
their focus is on providing basic financial
services and promoting digital transactions
Statement 1 is correct. The Rewa Solar
Project, located in Madhya Pradesh, was
the first solar project in India to achieve grid
parity. Grid parity is a situation where the
cost of generating solar power becomes
equal to or less than the cost of power
generated from conventional sources like
coal or natural gas. The Rewa Solar Project
achieved this milestone, making solar power
JAN - 2024
more competitive. ​It is a 750 MW (three units 104. Explanation:
generating 250 MW each) project which was
inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
in 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: Bhadla Solar Park is
the world’s largest solar park located in India
which is spread over a total area of 14,000
acres in Bhadla, Phalodi tehsil, Jodhpur
district, Rajasthan, India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The International
Solar Alliance (ISA) is an alliance of countries IUCN Red List categorizes the Asian elephant
that receive abundant sunlight and are located
either completely or partly between the
Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
These countries are referred to as “sunshine
countries.” The ISA aims to promote solar
energy and reduce the cost of solar power
generation in these regions.
102. Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: SEBI, the Securities
and Exchange Board of India, was initially
set up as a non-statutory body through a
resolution of the Government of India in
1988. However, recognizing the need for a
statutory basis and more regulatory powers,
the SEBI Act was enacted in 1992. This Act
conferred autonomous and statutory powers
to SEBI, granting it the authority to regulate
and oversee the securities market in India.
Statement 2 is correct: SAT is a statutory
body established under the SEBI Act, 1992.
It serves as an appellate tribunal to hear and
dispose of appeals against orders passed by
SEBI or by an adjudicating officer under the 106. Explanation:
Act. SAT provides an avenue for aggrieved
parties to challenge regulatory decisions in
the securities market.
103. Explanation:
This first statement is correct as the Foreign
Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) is designed
to regulate the acceptance and utilization of
foreign contributions and foreign hospitality
to ensure that they do not adversely affect the 107. Explanation:
country’s security or strategic interests.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The implementation
and monitoring of FCRA are overseen by the
Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry
of Finance. The Ministry of Home Affairs is
responsible for granting registration to NGOs
under FCRA, and it monitors compliance to
prevent any misuse of foreign contributions
for activities detrimental to national security.
41
Statement 1 is correct: Kumki elephants are
trained captive elephants used in various
operations, including managing and guiding
wild elephants. They are employed in tasks
like capturing or herding wild elephants in a
controlled manner, especially during human-
elephant conflict situations.
Statement 2 is correct: The Asian elephant
is the largest living land animal in Asia. The
as “endangered.” This status reflects the
species’ vulnerability to extinction due to
factors such as habitat loss, fragmentation,
and human-elephant conflicts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Karnataka has the
highest population of wild elephants in India,
followed by Assam.
105. Explanation: Keibul Lamjao National Park
is distinct for its unique swampy environment
with floating vegetation, supporting a rich
biodiversity. Located in Manipur, India, it is
the only floating national park globally. This
park is renowned for the endangered Sangai
deer and various species thriving in its
marshy ecosystem. The floating phumdis, or
heterogeneous mass of vegetation, contribute
to the park’s ecological uniqueness. Keibul
Lamjao National Park’s conservation efforts
are crucial for preserving not only the Sangai
deer but also the diverse flora and fauna
adapted to its specialized wetland habitat.
Disease X is a term used by the World Health
Organization (WHO) to denote a placeholder
for a hypothetical, unknown pathogen that
could potentially lead to a future epidemic.
The World Health Assembly (WHA) is
WHO’s decision-making body attended by
delegations from all WHO member states,
aligning with the second statement.
Statement 1 is correct: Darjeeling Tea holds
the distinction of being the first Indian product
to be granted the Geographical Indication
(GI) tag, signifying its unique origin and
characteristics associated with the Darjeeling
region. In 2004, the famous beverage got
recognition.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Lanjia
Saura paintings are not from Uttar Pradesh
but are a distinctive style of wall mural art
originating from Odisha. It is associated with
JAN - 2024
the Saura tribe of Odisha. Tarkashi, the GI-
tagged art form, does not belong to the state
of Odisha. Tarkashi, a popular art form from
Mainpuri in Uttar Pradesh, is primarily brass
wire inlay work on wood.
112. Explanation:
108. Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The Haber
process, also known as the Haber–Bosch
process, is a widely used industrial procedure
for the production of ammonia. It involves
the synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen
and hydrogen gasses. Green ammonia,
derived from renewable energy sources,
has applications in producing carbon-neutral
fertilizer products. Additionally, it holds
potential as a future climate-neutral shipping
fuel, making statement 3 correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Japan is not the
largest producer of ammonia globally. China 113. Explanation:
is the leading global producer of ammonia.
109. Explanation:
Both the statements are incorrect: U Thant
Cup and Corbillon Cup are not associated
with the game of lawn tennis. U Thant Cup is
associated with table tennis, and the Corbillon
Cup is a table tennis trophy for women’s
national teams. The FIH (International Hockey
Federation) is the international governing
body for field hockey and indoor field hockey
but not for ice hockey. Ice hockey is governed
by the International Ice Hockey Federation
(IIHF).
110. Explanation:
The “Rule of Law Index” is released by the
World Justice Project. This comprehensive
assessment evaluates the adherence of
countries to the rule of law based on various
factors such as government accountability, 114. Explanation:
absence of corruption, respect for fundamental ● The International Labour Organisation
rights, and access to justice. It provides a
global perspective on the effectiveness of
legal systems and the extent to which the rule
of law is upheld in different nations.
111. Explanation:
● The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is
a foundation initiated by the International
Olympic Committee (IOC) to promote,
coordinate, and monitor the fight against
drugs in sports.
42
● ‘Operation Refuge’ is a report published by
WADA, and it focuses on the analysis and
examination of doping amongst minors in
sports.
● The committee associated with Panchayati
Raj in India is the L M Singhvi Committee.
This committee played a crucial
role in recommending constitutional
amendments to strengthen and empower
the Panchayati Raj institutions.
● Its recommendations led to the 73rd
Amendment Act of 1992, which formalized
the constitutional status of Panchayati
Raj institutions, defining their powers,
functions, and devolution of authority to
the local level.
All statements are correct:
● Gasification is a technological process
that converts carbonaceous raw materials,
such as coal, into fuel gas or synthesis gas
(syngas). This process involves reacting
the raw material at high temperatures
with a controlled amount of oxygen or
steam. The resulting syngas can be used
for various purposes, including power
generation and chemical production.
● Anthracite is a hard, compact variety of
mineral coal known for having the highest
carbon content and containing very
few impurities. It is considered a high-
rank coal due to its maturity and carbon
concentration, making it a valuable energy
resource.
● Anthracite is sometimes referred to as
“blind coal.”
(ILO) possesses a unique tripartite
character, involving the participation of
governments, employers, and workers
in its decision-making processes. This
tripartite structure ensures that the views
of all key stakeholders are considered in
the development of international labour
standards and policies.
● India has ratified the Equal Remuneration
Convention (No.100) of ILO. This
convention aims to promote the principle
of equal remuneration for men and women
workers for work of equal value.
JAN - 2024
● India has also ratified the Worst Forms of 119. Explanation: Post-Independence, the first
Child Labour Convention (No.182) of ILO.
This convention is designed to eliminate
the most egregious forms of child labour
and provide protection to children from
exploitation and abuse in the world of
work.
● Therefore, the correct answer is 1 & 2.
115. Explanation:
● The ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking
of countries is provided by the World
Economic Forum.
● It is an annual report released by the
World Economic Forum that assesses
gender-based gaps in various aspects,
including economic participation,
educational attainment, health, and
political empowerment.
● The index aims to highlight disparities 120. Explanation: The increase in the general
between men and women and track
progress over time.
● The World Economic Forum plays a
crucial role in promoting awareness and
addressing gender inequalities on a global
scale.
116. Explanation: A DRDO office was opened in
the French Embassy in 2023 for strengthening
technology cooperation. The main imports
from France are aviation products, machine
equipment, electrical equipment and chemical
products. In July 2023, Unified Payments
Interface (UPI) was launched from the Eiffel
Tower, offering secure and convenient
transactions for Indian visitors and NRIs.
117. Explanation: GI (Geographical Indicator) tag
in India is given to Uppada Jamdani Sarees,
Venkatagiri Sarees, Mangalagiri Sarees and
Dharmavaram Handloom Pattu Sarees.
118.Explanation: The Vaibhav Fellowship, initiated
in June 2023, is designed to attract Indian-
origin scientists residing abroad for short-
term collaborations with Indian institutions.
Fellowship would include a fellowship grant
(INR 4,00,000 per month), international
and domestic travel, accommodation and
contingencies. The VAIBHAV Fellow would
identify an Indian Institution for collaboration 123. Explanation: Missions to Mars:
and may spend up to two months in a year for
a maximum of 3 years.
43
three gallantry awards namely Param Vir
Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra
were instituted by the government of India on
26th January 1950 and were deemed to have
effect from 15th August 1947.
Thereafter, three other gallantry awards — the
Ashoka Chakra Class-I, the Ashoka Chakra
Class-II, and the Ashoka Chakra Class-III —
were instituted in 1952 and were deemed
to have effect from 15th August 1947. These
awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti
Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra respectively in
January 1967.
Order of precedence of these awards is the
Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the
Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir
Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra.
level of prices may be caused by many
factors like an increase in the money supply, a
decrease in the aggregate level of output, an
increase in the effective demand, an increase
in income, the rapid growth of population, etc.
121. Explanation: National Assessment and
Accreditation Council: If a higher education
institution gets a score between 3.51 and 4, it
gets an A++ grade. A score between 3.26 and
3.50 gets an A+ grade, and a score between
3.01 and 3.25 gets an A grade. There are
eight grades in total, including C for scores
between 1.51 and 2, which means basic
accreditation, and D for scores below 1.51,
indicating unaccredited status.
122. Explanation: ISRO’s POEM (PSLV Orbital
Experimental Module): The POEM is a platform
that will help perform in-orbit experiments
using the final, and otherwise discarded,
stage of ISRO’s workhorse rocket, the Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) POEM derives
its power from solar panels mounted around
the PS4 tank, and a Li-Ion battery. The PSLV is
a four-stage rocket where the first three spent
stages fall back into the ocean, and the final
stage (PS4) — after launching the satellite into
orbit — ends up as space junk.
● MAVEN – USA
● Psyche – USA
● Mariner 4 – USA
● Nozomi – JAPAN
JAN - 2024
124. Explanation: Seaweed is a source of 131. Explanation:
vitamins, minerals, and fibre, and can be tasty.
Large seaweeds form dense underwater
forests known as kelp forests, which act as
underwater nurseries for fish, snails and
sea urchins. Seaweeds absorb the excess
nutrients and balance out the ecosystem.
125. Explanation: A series of uprisings of people
referred to as the ‘Arab Spring’ originally
started in Tunisia.
126. Explanation:
● Uniform Civil Code (UCC) comes under
Article 44 of the Indian constitution which 132. Explanation:
refers to directive principles of state policy.
● The Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP) states that the state shall undertake
to offer a unified set of laws to its citizens
within the Indian boundaries.
127. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The International
Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges
elected to nine-year terms of office by the
United Nations General Assembly and the 133. Explanation:
Security Council.
● Statements 2 and 3 are correct: In order
to guarantee his or her independence, no
Member of the Court can be dismissed
unless, in the unanimous opinion of the
other Members, he/she no longer fulfils
the required conditions.
128. Explanation:
● Economic Community of West African
States (ECOWAS) was established on
May 28 1975 via the treaty of Lagos. It is a
15-member regional group with a mandate
of promoting economic integration in
all fields of activity of the constituting
countries.
129. Explanation: The Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is being implemented
by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA),
which is the designated nodal agency.
At the national level, the ministry oversees the
goals related to forests and livelihood.
130. Explanation: Mahatma Phule founded the
Satyashodhak Samaj on September 24,
1873. Through the society, he opposed caste
system, idolatry and denounced the need for
priests.
44
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sustainable
Development Goal 5 (SDG 5) does not
concern quality education; rather, it focuses on
achieving gender equality and empowering
all women and girls. Quality education is
addressed under Sustainable Development
Goal 4 (SDG 4).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Global Gender
Gap Report is indeed an index designed to
measure gender equality, but it is not released
by UN Women. It is released annually by the
World Economic Forum (WEF).
● Malabar Exercise is a multilateral naval
wargaming exercise that initially began as
a bilateral exercise between the navies of
India and the United States.
● There is no exercise known as Desert
Eagle conducted between India and Saudi
Arabia. The Exercise Desert Eagle is a
bilateral exercise between India and the
United Arab Emirates.
● The Montreux Record is a register of
wetland sites listed under the Ramsar
Convention, which is an international treaty
for the conservation and sustainable use
of wetlands. These sites are considered
to be of international importance. The
Montreux Record lists wetlands where
ecological changes have occurred or are
likely to occur due to human interference
such as technological developments,
pollution, or other factors.
● Statement 2 is incorrect as Bakhira Wildlife
Sanctuary is not in Gujarat but in Uttar
Pradesh.
134. Explanation:
● Khangchendzonga National Park was
inscribed as India’s first “Mixed World
Heritage Site” on the UNESCO World
Heritage List. This park, located in the
Indian state of Sikkim, is renowned for
its unique biodiversity, including various
species of flora and fauna. The mixed
designation signifies that the site has both
natural and cultural significance, making
it a valuable asset for conservation and
heritage preservation.
● Blue Shield is an international organization
dedicated to safeguarding cultural heritage
from armed conflicts and natural disasters.
JAN - 2024

Its mission is to protect cultural and natural Statement 2 is incorrect: While Japan is
heritage globally through advocacy and known for its advancements in technology,
emergency response efforts. South Korea was the first country to launch
full-fledged 5G mobile networks in April 2019,
135. Explanation: The Tenth Schedule of the followed by countries like the United States
Constitution of India contains provisions and China.
regarding anti-defection. It was added by
the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 to curb 140. Explanation:
the issue of legislators switching parties for International Labour Organization’s
personal gains, thereby ensuring stability in Conventions 138 and 182 are related to child
the political system. The Tenth Schedule lays labour. Convention 138 sets the minimum
down the disqualification criteria for defection age for employment, while Convention 182
and the procedure for disqualification. addresses the worst forms of child labour,
including slavery, trafficking, and hazardous
136. Explanation: All statements are correct. work. These conventions aim to protect
● The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) children from exploitation and ensure their
ranks countries based on their perceived right to education and a safe childhood. They
levels of public sector corruption. provide a framework for governments and
● Denmark has consistently secured the top organizations to combat child labour globally.
position in the Global Corruption Index for
six years.
● The index has been published annually
by Transparency International, a non-
governmental organization, since 1995.

137. Explanation:
Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary is not located in
Gujarat; it is situated in Goa. Renowned as the
largest lake in Goa, Carambolim or Karmali
Lake presents breathtaking scenery. This
man-made reservoir serves as a sanctuary for
various birds, enhancing its allure for nature
lovers.

138. Explanation: The Finance Commission is

constituted by the President under Article 280
of the Constitution. The Finance Commission
is not appointed every six years; rather, it is
constituted every five years or at such earlier
time as the President considers necessary.

139. Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: TRAI (Telecom
Regulatory Authority of India) is a statutory
body established by an Act of Parliament called
the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act
(1997). It regulates the telecommunications
sector in India, ensuring fair competition,
protecting consumer interests, and promoting
the orderly growth of the industry.

45
JAN - 2024
UPSC MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Describe the grave economic challenge 9. Antimicrobial resistance is a health issue that
faced by India in 1990-91 and how the RBI
also played a pivotal role along with the LPG
reforms of the government to help navigate
the crisis.
(15 Marks, 250 Words) (GS-3, Economy)
2. What concerns have been raised by Virtual
Digital Asset Service Providers? How has 10. Is the Indian Constitution secular? If yes,
India regulated the industry?
(15 Marks, 250 Words) (GS-3, Security)
3. Discuss the main objectives of Population
Education and point out the measures to
achieve them in India in detail.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– I, Indian Society)​
4. “If the last few decades were of Asia’s growth
story, the next few are expected to be of
Africa’s.” In the light of this statement, examine 12. What are some of the strategies used by the
India’s influence in Africa in recent years.
(150 Words, 10 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International Relations)​
5. Discuss the issue of rising debt levels in
developing nations. Elaborate upon the debt
levels in India and the issues associated with
rising debt.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Economy)​
6. What is Antimicrobial resistance? Discuss the
causes and the impact of it in the developing
world.
(150 Words, 10 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Science and Technology)​
7. Discuss the importance of having an urban
planning structure in place for the socio-
economic development of a nation.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Infrastructure)​ 15. “Analyse the implications of EU’s Carbon
8. Discuss the importance of revitalizing the
space of higher education in order to capitalize
upon the demographic dividend of India.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– I, Social Issues)​
46
will negate advances in medicine. In light of
this statement, discuss the role of healthcare
institutions and the government in tackling
the emerging crisis.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Science and Technology)​
how is it distinct from Western secularism?
Illustrate.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Polity)​
11. Changes in hit-and-run law alone can’t solve
India’s road safety problem. Do you agree?
Critically analyze.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Governance)​
Government of India to negotiate with the
insurgent organizations in different parts of
the nation? Also, assess the success of such
strategies.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Security)​
13. Despite stringent laws prohibiting child
marriages in India, our society has failed to
get rid of this social evil. Why?
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Polity)​
14. Fast expanding Indian aviation scene would
invariably increase the risk of mishaps as well.
Keeping this in mind, what are some of the key
areas of concern regarding aviation safety in
the country?
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Economy )​
Border Tax on India, and discuss the strategic
responses that India can undertake to address
these challenges.”
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Economy)​
JAN - 2024

16. Access to timely surgeries has always been 25. International Court of Justice (ICJ) hasn’t been
the Achilles heel of the Indian healthcare able to fulfill its mandate mainly due to lack of
system. Comment. implementation power. In this regard, suggest
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies reforms needed in the working of the ICJ.
– II, Social Justice)​ (250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International Relations)​
17. Explain the concept of remission in criminal
justice. What issues persist with its application? 26. Describe the Government of India’s efforts to
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies ensure safety of civil aviation in India.
– II, Polity)​ (250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Economy)​
18. International law and its attendant structures
are not ideal. But the world would be worse 27. What is meant by the term ‘global surgery’?
off if they weren’t there. Critically examine. Discuss its role in improving the healthcare
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies conditions in developing countries.
– II, International Relations)​ (150 Words, 10 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Social Justice)​
19. The rapid decline in India-Maldives ties is a
major concern for India’s regional diplomacy. 28. Discuss the need to regulate the online
Examine in detail. gaming industry in India.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies (150 Words, 10 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International Relations)​ – II, Governance)

20. What does the recent election in Bangladesh 29. It is time for the anti-defection law to be either
portend for India and South Asia? Critically removed or reformed. Critically analyze.
evaluate. (250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies – II, Polity)​
– II, International Relations)​
30. The recent Bangladesh election results have
21. As long as defection disputes are in the far-reaching consequences for India and the
hands of Speakers, and not any independent region. Do you agree? Discuss.
authority, political considerations will (250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
undoubtedly cast a shadow on such rulings. – II, International Relations)
Critically evaluate.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies 31. Iran’s recent escalatory attacks in the region
– II, Polity)​ further destabilise West Asia. Comment.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
22. Examine how dam projects in India have – II, International Relations)​
adversely impacted the linkages between
development and extremism. 32. The demand to delist Kuki-Zomi tribes could
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies have social and security implications. Discuss.
– III, Security)​ (250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Internal Security)
23. Police reform is the need of the hour to
make the Indian justice delivery system more 33. Write a note on the India-UK naval partnership.
efficient. Comment. (15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-2, IR]
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General
Studies – III, Internal security)​ 34. Critically examine the findings of ASER 2023
and bring out the deficiencies in India’s
24. Having a settled refugee policy in India has education system.
the potential to reduce the burden of such (15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-2, Social
cases on the judiciary. In this context, assess Justice]
the need to have such a policy and how would
it impact the refugee problem in India.
GS II – (250 Words, 15 Marks) (General
Studies – II, Polity)​
47
JAN - 2024
35. How do the changing monsoon patterns 42. Examine the factors influencing the Labour
in India impact livelihoods across various
sectors, and what policy measures can be
implemented to mitigate the adverse effects
and promote sustainable development in the
face of evolving climatic conditions?
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General
Studies – III, Economy)​
36. Analyse the current state of science
management in India, highlighting the
challenges and opportunities.
(150 Words, 10 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Science and Technology)​
37. The recent spat of conflicts in West Asia is
another challenge for India’s foreign policy.
Underline some of the challenges India’s
foreign policy minds are facing to tackle the
existing crisis in West Asia.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International Relations)​ 44. Examine the strategic importance of the
38. How does the Government of India ensure the
welfare of labour migrating to other nations to
earn their livelihood? Explain.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Social Justice)​
39. Discuss the significance of the India-
Middle East-Europe economic corridor and
its potential impact on India’s trade and
diplomacy. Identify the challenges in its
implementation and suggest solutions.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International Relations)​
40. India’s ties with Bangladesh may will be the 46. Examine the evolving dynamics of the India-
true test of India’s ‘neighbourhood first’ policy.
Comment.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International Relations)​
41. Analyse the concept of ‘One Nation, One
Election’ in the context of Indian democracy.
Discuss its potential impact on the political,
administrative, and social fabric of India.
Critically evaluate the advantages and 47. Examine the impact of recent climatic changes
challenges associated with its implementation.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Polity)​ the winter months. Analyze the potential long-
48
Force Participation Rate in India with a special
focus on gender and caste dynamics. Discuss
the implications of these factors on India’s
socio-economic fabric and suggest measures
that can be taken to improve women’s
participation in the workforce, especially in
the informal sector.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, Social Justice)​
43. Analyze the current state of gender disparity
in education in India, with a focus on the
widening gap in educational attainment
and dropout rates between boys and girls.
Discuss the implications of these trends on
socio-economic development and suggest
measures to address these disparities.
(15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-2, Social
Justice]
semiconductor industry in the global context
and discuss the challenges and opportunities
for India in establishing itself as a key player
in this sector.
(10 Marks, 150 Words) [GS-3, Economy]
45. Discuss the strategic significance of the
bilateral relationship between India and
Myanmar in light of recent developments,
including the implementation of the Free
Movement Regime and the challenges posed
by the political situation in Myanmar. Evaluate
how these dynamics impact India’s role and
objectives in the broader Indo-Pacific region.
(15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-2, IR]
Maldives relations. Discuss the implications
of these changes for India’s foreign policy
and regional strategy, particularly in light of
the ‘Neighbourhood First’ policy. Analyze the
potential challenges and opportunities for
India in maintaining a strategic balance in the
region.
(15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-2, IR]
in the Himalayan region, particularly focusing
on the unusual dryness experienced during
term implications of these changes on the
region’s ecology, water resources, and local
communities.
[15 Marks, 250 Words] (General Studies
– I, Geography)​
JAN - 2024

48. Analyze the factors that have contributed to

the significant increase in higher education
enrolment in India, as highlighted in the All
India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE)
2021-22. Evaluate the impact of these
increased enrolment numbers on India’s
socio-economic landscape.
[15 Marks, 2150 Words] (General Studies
– II, Social issues)

49. Border management is a complex task due to

difficult terrain and hostile relations with some
countries. In light of the above statement,
examine the jurisdiction of the Border Security
Force (BSF).
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Internal Security)​

50. Rising advancements in nuclear energy have

their advantages but pose several challenges.
Discuss.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, Science and Technology)

51. India must play its cards carefully in Myanmar’s

internal conflict to secure its interests in the
neighbouring state. Analyze.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– III, International relations)​

52. China’s increasing clout in Africa presents a

challenge to India’s African strategy. Do you
agree? Discuss.
(250 Words, 15 Marks) (General Studies
– II, International relations)

53. Public health is unglorified, yet the most

important aspect of a nation’s healthcare
infrastructure. Do you agree? Elaborate.
(15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-2,
Governance]

54. Making batteries safer, affordable and long-

lasting holds the key towards faster EV
adoption in India. In this context, highlight
how EV batteries can resolve these issues in
the coming years.
(15 Marks, 250 Words) [GS-3, Science &
Technology]

49