PATHOLOGY & MICROBIOLOGY b.

sudden, severe chest pain

1. The most common source of a pulmonary c. Painless swelling of the leg
embolism is d. focus of radiolucency in a long
a. Hemorrhoids bone
b. The mitral valve 10. When malignant cells resemble more
c. The portal vein primitive, undifferentiated cells than those
d. The deep leg vein from which they arose, they are said to be
e. A long bone fracture a. Anaplastic
2. An Oral disease characterized by white b. Metastatic
patches on the buccal mucous membranes c. Hypoplastic
which consist largely of pseudomycelia d. Metaplastic
with minimal erosion of the membranes is e. Desmoplastic
caused by 11. Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are
a. Candida albicans generally
b. Treponema pallidum a. Motile
c. Entamoeba histolytica b. sensitive to H₂O
d. Sporothrichum schenckii c. Insensitive to H₂O
e. Corynebacterium diapheriae d. able to ferment lactate
3. In children, the bones become bowed in e. producers of O2 and H2O from
rickets because of failure of H₂O₂
a. Osteoblasts to develop 12. A benign tumor arising from voluntary
b. Osteoid tissue to calcify muscle is a
c. Osteoid tissue to form a. Leiomyoma
d. Cartilage matrix to form b. Papilloma
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus, c. Rhabdomyoma
rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic d. Leiomyosarcoma
thrombocytopenic purpura and thyroiditis e. Rhabdomyosarcoma
are examples of 13. Tertiary syphilis is characterized by
a. Arthus reaction presence of
b. Autoimmune diseases a. A gumma
c. Anaphylactic reactions b. A chancre
d. Immediate hypersensitivity c. Mucous patches
reaction d. A maculopapular rash
5. True bacteria multiply by 14. The spherical body produced under
a. Budding appropriate conditions from certain bacilli
b. Sexual fusion by the action of lysozyme or penicillin is
c. Binary fission a. An axostyle
d. Fragmentation of mycelia b. A protoplast
e. Formation of sexual spores c. An auxotroph
6. Megaloblastic anemia may be related to d. A prototroph
a. Iron deficiency e. A chloroplast
b. Folic acid deficiency 15. Serologic and phage typing of pathogenic
c. Vitamin K deficiency bacterial species are used to
d. Aminopyrine therapy a. Provide a basis for immunization
7. Ten days after hospitalization for a large, b. Determine whether the agent is
incapacitating myocardiac infarct, a 50 motile
year old man suddenly develops paralysis c. Permit application of specific
of the right side of his body. The best therapy
explanation for his brain damage is d. Establish the genus of the
a. Rupture of congenital aneurysm infective agent
of the circle of Willis e. Identify bacterial strains in
b. Brain abscess from necrosis of disease outbreaks
myocardium 16. A common oral manifestation of Addison’s
c. Detachment of a bacterial disease is
embolus from the pulmonic valve a. Melanosis
d. Detachment of a mural thrombus b. Xerostomia
from the right ventricle c. Glossodnia
e. Detachment of a mural thrombus d. "Cotton wood bone
from the left ventricle e. Loss of lamina dura
8. The chief complication of nodular prostatic 17. Fermentation occurs when the
hyperplasia is a. Electron donor is an organic
a. Impotence compound
b. Hormonal balance b. Final electron acceptor is oxygen
c. Urinary obstruction c. Final electron acceptor is an
d. Development of carcinoma organic compound
9. A berry aneurysm may result in d. Final electron acceptor is
a. Cerebrovascular accident. inorganic compound
 e. Electron donor and the final 27. The Renal hormone associated with
electron acceptor are inorganic hypertension
compounds a. Renin
18. The principal source of endemic b. Insulin
histoplasmosis infection generally involves c. Angiotensin
a. Mosquitoes d. Parathormone
b. Food Sources e. Erythropoietin
c. Dogs and cats 28. A candidate virus for the induction of
d. Soil and dust cervical carcinoma is
e. Droplet nuclei from human a. Adenovirus
infections. b. C-type virus
19. The most active cellular structure in c. Varicella zoster
controlling the intake of solutions into d. Epstein-Barr virus
bacteria is the e. herpes virus hominis Type 2
a. Capsule 29. The most common causative organism in
b. Flagella gram-negative sepsis is
c. Cell Wall a. Pneumococcus
d. Cytoplasmic membrane b. Virus organism
20. Of the following, specific chemotherapy is c. Escherichia coli
useful for treatment of d. Streptococcus viridans
a. Measles e. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Smallpox 30. The most common etiologic agent of septic
c. Hepatitis arthritis in adults is
d. Herpes conjunctivitis a. Neisseria gonorrheae
e. Infectious mononucleosis b. Hemophilus influenzae
21. Of the following, the most common site of c. Streptococcus pyogenes
a basal cell carcinoma is the d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
a. Tongue 31. The basic effect of x-radiation upon living
b. Gingiva tissues is
c. Lower lip a. Lonization
d. Upper face b. Denaturation
e. Oral mucosa c. Agglutination
22. The fading of nuclear chromatin of a d. Precipitation
necrotic cell is e. Cauterization
a. Pyknosis 32. The histologic pattern in a renal ischemic
b. Karyolysis infarct is:
c. Karyorrhexis a. Caseous necrosis
d. Hyperchromatism b. Gummatous necrosis
23. The potent toxin called aflatoxin is c. Gangrenous necrosis
produced by d. Coagulation necrosis
a. Mucor e. liquefaction necrosis
b. Candida 33. In the normal healthy mouth, the micro
c. Aspergillus flora tends to be mainly
d. Penicillium a. Anaerobic, aerobic and
e. Tricophyton proteolytic
24. The complement system may be activated b. Anaerobic, aerobic and facultative
a. A1, C1, and C3 c. Anaerobic, facultative and
b. Only by way of C1 acidogenic
c. By interferon during viral infection d. None of the above
d. By activation of any of the nine 34. A bacterial mutation leading to the
components requirement for a single amino acid is due
e. Only when the body temperature to
exceeds 101.6 degrees F 1. Lack of RNA
25. Unlike DPT vaccine, BCO vaccine cost of 2. Loss of ability to utilize glucose
a. Killed virus 3. Absence off a single enzyme activity
b. Avirulent Virus 4. Absence of cell wall polysaccharide
c. Killed Bacteria 5. Absence of several enzyme activities
d. Avirulent Bacteria 35. Rickettsiae are similar to bacteria in that
e. A mixture of toxoids they
26. A woman has metastatic carcinoma of the a. Multiply by binary fission
jaws. The primary lesion would most likely b. Can be cultured on enriched
he found in the blood agar
a. Lung c. Are capable of producing heat-
b. Colon resistant endospores
c. Breast d. Possess an energy- yielding,
d. Cervix autonomous enzyme metabolism
 e. Are susceptible to the lethal 41. Which of the following is classified as a
effects of certain antibiotics haemolytic anemia?
1. a, b, c 1. Aplastic anemia
2. a, c, d 2. Pernicious anemia
3. a, d, e 3. Sickle-cell anemia
4. b, c, e 4. Iron deficiency anemia
5. b, d, e 42. Which of the following sequelae of fatty
6. All of the above nutritional cirrhosis is most likely to result
36. Neonatally the mectomixed mice and nude in death?
mice exhibit 1. Ascites
a. e numbers of T-lymphocytes 2. Jaundice
b. Inability to reject allografts 3. Hepatomegaly
c. Reduced antibody production to 4. Esophageal varices
most antigens 43.
1. a, b 44.
2. a, c 45.
3. b, c 46.
4. All of the above 47.
37. Cells of which of the following retain a 48.
latent capacity for mitotic division? 49.
a. Liver 50.
b. Bone Marrow 51. Dermatotropic viral diseases include
c. Cardiac Muscle a. Smallpox, chickenpox and
d. Salivary glands measles
e. Neurons b. Hepatitis, mumps and yellow
1. a, b, c fever
2. a, b, d c. Impetigo, scarlet fever and
3. a, c, d scabies
4. b, c, e d. Rabies, herpes, and
5. b, d, e encephalomyelitis
38. Which of the following are possible e. Influenza, common cold and
sequelae to acute appendicitis? primary atypical pneumonia
a. Generalized peritonitis 52. The ability of certain oral microorganisms
b. Periappendicial abscess to function as etiologic agents of dental
formation caries appears to be correlated with the
c. Pylephlebitis capacity of these organisms to produce
d. Hepatic abscess a. Proteolytic enzymes capable of
1. a, b and c hydrolyzing salivary proteins
2. a, b, and d b. Capsules which inhibit the activity
3. a, c, and d of phagocytic cells present in
4. b, c, and d saliva
5. All of the above c. Carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme
39. Which of the following is the best method active in decreasing the CO,
to avoid hepatitis B cross infections among content of saliva
dental patients? d. An extracellular polysaccharide
1. Soak instruments in a phenolic dextran-like substance involved in
disinfectant for 20 minutes. the formation of dental plaque
2. Use a two-minute surgical scrub for 53. Vitamin C deficiency will
hands and all items soiled by blood. a. Impair collagen formation
3. Autoclave or dry heat sterilize all b. Impede re-epithelialization
instruments used in treatment c. Prevent proliferation of fibroblasts
4. Boil all needles and cutting d. Delay resolution of pre-existing
instruments for five minutes in water exudates
containing anti-rust chemicals. 54. The spreading factor produced by certain
5. Autoclave or dry heat sterilize those streptococci is
instruments used to treat patients who a. Antigen
give histories of the disease. b. Toxemia
40. When horse serum is injected c. Coagulase
intravenously into a rabbit and again into d. Fibrinolysin
the skin two or three weeks later, what is e. Hyaluronidase
the necrotizing reaction that occurs at the 55. Hypothyroidism in children results in
site of the second injection? a. Myxedema
1. Atopy b. Gigantism
2. Anaphylaxis c. Cretinism
3. Serum sickness d. Acromegaly
4. Arthus phenomenon e. Diabetes insipidus
5. Prausnitz-kustner reaction
56. The genus of fungi most frequently
recovered from healthy mucous membrane
surfaces is
a. Candida
b. Aspergillus
c. Histoplasma
d. Blastomyces
e. Coccidioides
57. The greatest incidence of rubella
associated with cardiac anomalies occurs
when the infection is established
a. During the first trimester in utero.
b. During the second trimester in
utero
c. During the third trimester in utero
d. Immediately post partem
e. None of the above
58. Amphotericin B is an antibiotic used
particularly for treatment of disease
caused by
a. Fungi
b. Protozoa
c. Rickettsiae
d. Staphylococci
e. Acid-fast bacteria
59. The bacterial population in the gingival
sulcus or the pocket that influences the
course of periodontal disease has been
found to involve
a. Mostly aerobic bacteria
b. Essentially a pure culture
c. Bacteria not indigenous to the
oral cavity
d. Essentially the same organism
found in the healthy sulcus
60. Plastic items requiring sterilization should
be sterilized using
a. Dry heat
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Cationic detergents
d. 70 per cent ethanol
e. Autoclaving techniques
61. A disease characterized by persistent by
persistent painful vesicles that occur on
the skin or a mucous surface along the
distribution of a sensory nerve is
a. Psoriasis
b. Herpes zoster
c. Recurrent herpes
d. Cat- scratch fever
e. Infectious mononucleosis
62. The most common type of epithelial
metaplasia involves
a. Regeneration of epithelial in an
area of cutaneous ulceration
b. Replacement of squamous cells
by cuboidal cells
c. Replacement of cuboidal cells by
columnar cells
d. Replacement of columnar cells by
stratified squamous epithelial
63. Tetanus and diphtheria are similar in
nature with respect to
a. Bacteremias
b. Aerobic requirements
c. Production of exotoxins
d. Production of endotoxins
64. The components in the cell wall of
Mycobacteriaceae responsible for acid-
fastness are
a. Mucoproteins
b. Teichoic acids
c. Polysaccharides
d. Lipids and waxes
e. Magnesium ribonucleates
65. Histamine release from mast cells requires
a. Antibodies (IgE) attached to mast
cells and reacting with antigen
b. Antigen attached to mast cells
and reacting with antibody
c. Antibodies (IgE) attached to mast
cells but no reaction with antigen.
d. Antigen attached to mast cells but
no reaction with antibody.
66. The eclipse stage of a viral infection is
characterized by
a. Development of lysogeny
b. Absence of a demonstration virus
particle
c. A slowly increasing number of
virus particles
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
67. The most common characteristics feature
of a neoplasm as opposed to an
inflammatory overgrowth is
a. Abnormal mitosis
b. Size of the lesion
c. Tendency to growth rapidly
d. Tendency to recur after removal
e. Progressive growth after removal
of causative stimuli
68. With respect to its histologic appearance,
biologic behaviour and preinvasive states,
oral squamous cell carcinoma most closely
resembles
a. Breast cancer
b. Cervical cancer
c. Hodgkin's disease
d. Carcinoma of the lung
e. Carcinoma of the colon
69. Chest pain associated with lobar
pneumonia is attributable to
a. Coexistent pleurisy
b. Overuse of intercostals muscles
c. Inflammatory changes in alveolar
walls
d. Congestion of the pulmonary
vascular bed
e. Extension of the inflammation to
the bronchi
70. Rubeola, pertussis, poliomyelitis and
mumps have in common the fact that all
are
a. Viral diseases
b. Vector- borne disease
c. Characterized by a toxaemia
d. Primarily disease of infants
e. Prevented by active immunization
71. A group of antibiotics related both
streucturally and mode of action to the
penicillins is
a. Polymyxins
b. Cycloserines
 c. Cephalosporins 1. a, b
d. Chloramphenicols 2. a, c
72. Increased serum acid phosphatase is 3. b, c
clinically significant and aids in the 4. b, d
diagnosis of 5. c, d
a. Paget's disease of bone 87. Arrange the following types of cells or
b. Primary hyperparathyroidism tissues in decreasing order of radio
c. Secondary hyperparathyroidism sensitivity from most sensitive to least
d. Breast carcinoma with bone sensitive
metastasis a. Osteocyte
e. Prostate carcinoma with bone b. Endothelium
metastasis c. Smooth muscle
73. Liquids destroyed by temperatures over 90 d. Spermatogonium
°C may be sterilized by e. Intestinal Mucosa
a. Dry heat i. b,c,,a,e,d
b. Filtration ii. c,a,b,d,e
c. Autoclaving iii. d,b,c,a,e
d. Centrifugation iv. d,e,b,c,a
e. Fractional Sterilization v. e,d,c,a,b
74. 88.
75. 89.
76. 90.
77. 91.
78. 92.
79.
80. 93. Which of the following groups of
81. microorganisms is the most important
82. The principal antibody- producing cell is causative agent of dental caries?
the a. Aciduric
a. Mast cell b. Acidogenic
b. Lymphocyte c. Basophilic
c. Macrophage d. Proteolytic
d. Eosinophil e. Gram-negative rods
e. Plasma cell 94. Which of the following relates to lysogeny?
83. The initial bacteria observed in dental a. The lytic cycle occurs after curing
plaque are b. Curing represents loss of
a. Spirochetes repressors
b. Streptococci c. Prophage is integrated into
c. Staphylococci bacterial chromosome
d. Actinomycetes d. None of the above
84. Dextrans are extracellular polysaccharides 95. Which of the following species is found
readily produced by consistently in saliva and on oral soft
a. Streptococcus mitis tissues
b. Streptococcus mutans a. Streptococcus mutans
c. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus sanguis
d. Streptococcus salivarius c. Streptococcus pyogenes
85. Transmission of the hepatitis B virus may d. Streptococcus salivarius
be through 96. Jaundice is usually a result of each of the
a. Parental administration following EXCEPT
b. Use of contaminated instruments a. Gallstones
or injection equipment b. Hepatitis A
c. Microabrasions in skin and c. Hemolytic anemia
mucous memembranes by d. Vitamin K deficiency
contact with infected materials e. carcinoma of the common bile
(blood, sdalica, faces) duct
1. a, only 97. Osteitis deformans is characterized by
2. a, b each of the following EXCEPT
3. a, c a. Reversal lines with a
4. b, c characteristic, mosaic pattern
5. All of the above b. Decreased serum calcium and
86. Significant functions of polymorphonuclear elevated serum phosphorus
leukocytes in inflammation are c. Predisposition to development of
a. replication of new cells osteogenic sarcoma
b. Phagocytosis of bacteria d. Irregular resorption and
c. Elaboration of proteolytic replacement of bone with a poorly
enzymes mineralized osteoid matrix
d. Elaboration of antibodies
 98. The form of bacterial gene transfer that is
least susceptible to DNAase and does
NOT require cell- to cell contact is
a. Transition
b. Conjugation
c. Transduction
d. Transformation
99. Which of the following is NOT
characteristic of carcinoma in situ?
a. Pleomorphism
b. Disorderly maturation
c. Hyperchromatic nuclei
d. Disruption of the basement
membrane
100. Which of the following is NOT a
complication of untreated left-sided heart
failure?
a. Orthopnea
b. Pleural Effusion
c. Bacterial pneumonia
d. Myocardial hyperplasia
e. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea