Biology Cuet Exam

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CUET UG - 2022 Question Paper

18th August 2022 (Slot - 2)

1. Which of the following appropriately describes In the light of the above statements, choose the
colour blindness? correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Chromosomal disorder (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Recessive autosomal disorder (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) X-linked recessive disorder (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

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(D) Dominant disorder false
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2. Five closely related species of warblers living on
true
the same tree show behavioural differences in
their foraging activities. This is called _______. 7. The most suitable method for a human female

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(A) Allen’s rule who cannot produce gamete, but can provide
(B) Competitive exclusion Principle suitable environment for fertilisation, and
(C) Resource partitioning mechanism further develops into foetus would be:

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(D) Hardy Weinberg equilibrium (A) Intracytoplasmic sperm Injection
(B) Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer
3. Under dry condition Amoeba withdraws its
(C) In-Vivo Fertilization
pseudopodia and secretes a three layered hard
(D) Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
termed as:
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covering around itself. This phenomenon is
8. Bioactive molecule, Cyclosporin A is produced
(A) Binary fission (B) Encystation by:
(C) Sporulation (D) Multiple fission (A) Monascus purpureus
(B) Trichoderma polysporum
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4. In F2 generation of a Mendelian dehybrid cross (C) Aspergillus niger
the number of phenotypes and genotypes are: (D) Acetobacter aceti
(A) 4 phenotypes and 16 genotypes
(B) 9 phenotypes and 4 genotypes 9. Which one of the following have evolved
(C) 4 phenotypes and 9 genotypes characters like loss of unnecessary sense organs,
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(D) 4 phenotypes and 8 genotypes presence of suckers, loss of digestive system


and high reproductive capacity?
5. Match List - I with List - II. (A) Hosts (B) Ecto-parasites
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List - I List - II (C) Endo-parasites (D) Brood parasites


i. Perisperm a. Production of seeds without 10. Mule is an example of which one of the
fertilization following breeding procedures?
ii. Parthenocarpy b. The wall of fruit
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(A) Out-breeding
iii. Pericarp c. Development of fruits (B) Out-crossing
without fertilization (C) Cross-breeding
iv. Apomixis d. Residual persistent nucellus (D) Interspecific hybridisation
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present in some seeds


11. AIDS is caused by Human Immune Deficiency
Choose the correct answer from the options virus. The genome of these viruses is:
given below: (A) RNA (B) DNA
(A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c (C) snRNA (D) dsDNA
(B) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(C) i – a, ii – b, iii – d, iv – c 12. Identify the correct sequence of an important
(D) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a biotechnological reaction.
i. Gel electrophoresis
6. Given below are two statements:
ii. Vector to transfer gene of interest
Statement I: Thomas Hunt Morgan and his
colleagues experimentally verified the iii. Restriction digestion by nucleases
chromosomal theory of inheritance. iv. Isolation of transformants from non-recombinant
Statement II: Morgan worked with tiny fruit v. DNA isolated from desired cell
flies which could be grown in the laboratory by (A) i, ii, iv, iii, v (B) iii, ii, v, i, iv
simple synthetic medium. (C) v, iii, i, ii, iv (D) ii, iv, iii, i, v

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CUET UG - 2022 Question Paper
18th August 2022 (Slot - 2)
13. In an association where one species is harmed, (C) reduces environmental pollution
where as the other remains unaffected, is an (D) it has high rate of biomass production and
example of which interaction? growth
(A) Mutualism (B) Parasitism
(C) Competition (D) Amensalism 21. Which one of the following is a cytokine barrier
for Innate Immunity?
14. Which among the following hormones is not (A) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining
produced by placenta? the respiratory, gastrointestinal and
(A) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin urogenital tracts
(B) Human Placental lactogen (B) Monocytes in blood and macrophages in
(C) Estrogens tissues
(D) Relaxin
(C) Saliva in the mouth
15. If 10,000 J of energy is incident on earth, then (D) Secretion of interferons for protection
the amount of energy available to a secondary

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consumer is: 22. Given below is the diagram of E coli cloning,
(A) 100 J (B) 10 J vector PBR 322.
(C) 1 J (D) 0.1 J Cla I
EcoR I Hind III
16. Match List - I with List - II.

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List - I List - II Pvu I
i. Lepidopteran insect a. Toxic protein BamH I

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ii. Cry I Ac b. Agrobacterium Pst I ampR tet R

iii. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Cotton boll worm


iv. RNA interference d. Army worm pBR322
lic Sal I
Choose the correct answer from the options ori rop
given below:
(A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
(B) i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b Pvu II
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(C) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(D) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a If you ligate a foreign DNA at the Bam H I site
17. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? of tetracycline resistance gene in it, the
(A) When pollen is shed at 2-cell stage, following changes will occur except:
double fertilisation doesn’t take place. (A) The recombinant plasmid will not lose
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(B) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell. tetracycline resistance


(C) Pollen grain in some plants remain viable (B) The recombinants will grow in ampicillin
for months. containing medium
(C) The recombinants will grow in
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(D) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.


tetracycline containing medium
18. Find out the techniques of Recombinant DNA (D) Non-recombinants will grow on the
technology which can be used for early diagnosis. medium containing both the antibiotics
(A) ELISA
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(B) Gel electrophoresis 23. The principle of competitive exclusion was


(C) DNA amplification stated by Gause. He also stated that _______.
(D) Electrostatic precipitator (A) Birds and mammals show small number
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of large sized offsprings


19. A primary spermatocyte after first meiotic
division leads to the formation of _______ (B) Oyster and pelagic fish show large
number of small sized offsprings
secondary spermatocyte.
(A) two equal haploid cells (C) No two species can occupy the same
(B) two unequal haploid cells niche indefinitely for the same limiting
resources
(C) two diploid cells
(D) four diploid cells (D) Species living in the same habitat exclude
the species having different food resources
20. Which one option of the following is
INCORRECT for SCP (Single Cell Protein) as 24. 5′-G A A T T C-3′
an alternate source of proteins for animal and 3′-C T T A A G-5′
human nutrition? pallindromic sequence will be cut by restriction
(A) to overcome hunger and malnutrition enzyme:
(B) SCP from Spirulina has to be grown (A) Bam H I (B) Hind III
under extreme sterile conditions (C) Eco R I (D) Pvu II
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CUET UG - 2022 Question Paper
18th August 2022 (Slot - 2)
25. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 32. Which one of the following had brain size of
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as 1400 cc, used hides to protect their body and
Reason (R). buried their dead?
Assertion (A): When readymade antibodies are (A) Homo habilis (B) Neanderthal man
directly given to protect the body against (C) Australopithecus (D) Dryopithecus
foreign agents, it is called as passive immunity. 33. The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through
Reason (R): The yellowish fluid colostrum _______ located towards micropylar end.
secreted by mother contains antibodies (IgA) to (A) antipodals (B) egg cell
protect the infant. (C) secondary cells (D) synergids
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given 34. In humans, fertilization takes place in _______
below: region.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (A) Ovary (B) Ampulla

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correct explanation of (A) (C) Isthamus (D) Uterus
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not 35. The stains of Bacillus thuringiensis produces
the correct explantion of (A) proteins that has insecticidal properties. This
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct protein impacts and kills insects but Bacillus

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(D) (A) is false but (R) is true itself is not killed due to:
26. Given below are two statements: (A) Pretoxins
Statement I: In primary succession on rocks, (B) Mucopolysaccharides

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lichens are pioneer species which were able to (C) Protective coat on surface
secrete acids to dissolve rocks (D) Protoxins
Statement II: The rate of primary succession is 36. Arrange the steps of sewage water treatment in
much faster than secondary succession. correct sequence.
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In the light of the above statements, choose the i. Mechanical agitation to allow growth of aerobic
most appropriate answer from the options given microbes into flocs
below: ii. Decrease in BOD of waste water
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true iii. Removal of large and small particles from
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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false sewage through filtration
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false iv. Settling of activated sludge
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true v. Anaerobic digestion of bacteria to produce
mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen
27. High yielding disease resistant variety of rice
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sulphide and carbon dioxide


developed at Taiwan is _______.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(A) IR-8 (B) Sonalika
given below:
(C) Atlas 66 (D) Kalyan Sona
(A) i  iii  iv  ii  v
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28. The type of antibodies released during allergy (B) iii  i  ii  iv  v


are _______. (C) i  ii  iii  iv  v
(A) IgA (B) IgG (D) iii  iv  ii  i  v
(C) IgM (D) IgE
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37. A pregnant female was admitted to the labour


29. The technique in which the semen collected room. The mild uterine contractions started, but
from the donor is artificially introduced either further strong uterine contractions were not
into the vagina or into the uterus is called taking place. Which of these could a doctor
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_______. inject to induce delivery?


(A) IUT (B) IUI (A) Oxytocin (B) Vasopressin
(C) GIFT (D) IVF (C) Relaxin (D) Prolactin
30. Swiss cheese having characteristic large holes, 38. The cells which are genetically engineered to
is produced by: treat ADA deficiency by gene therapy are:
(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (A) Erythrocytes (B) Lymphocytes
(B) Propionibacterium sharmanii (C) Macrophages (D) Thrombocytes
(C) Monascus purpureus 39. The pigmentation in human skin can be easily
(D) Trichoderma polysporum explained by _______.
31. Which of the following disease is not (A) Incomplete dominance
transmitted sexually? (B) Codominance
(A) Hepatitis B (B) Typhoid (C) Independent assortment
(C) Gonorrhoea (D) Syphilis (D) Polygenic inheritance
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CUET UG - 2022 Question Paper
18th August 2022 (Slot - 2)
40. Taq polymerase enzyme is used in PCR Read the following passage and answer the
reactions because ________. questions from 46 to 50.
(A) it is thermostable The high biodiversity loss at present
(B) cuts DNA at specific regions includes habitat loss and fragmentation, over
(C) polymerisation cannot be done repeatedly exploitation, invasion of alien species and
(D) Helps in denaturation of double stranded co-extinction. When large forests are broken up
DNA into small fragments, certain animals with
migratory habits are badly affected. Alien
Read the following passage and answer the
species introduced unintentionally may cause
questions from 41 to 45.
extinction of indigenous species for example,
HGP was called a mega project. Human the Nile perch introduced into lake Victoria led
genome is said to have app. 3109 bp, and if the to extinction of many species of Cichlid fish.
cost of sequencing required in US $ 3 per bp. A female wasp and fig tree mutually benefit

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The total estimated cost of project was around each other so they coevolve in-situ and ex-situ
9 billion US dollars. The HGP was associated conservation is also the best way to protect
with bioinformatics for storing data. Goals of biodiversity. All the trees and wild life within
HGP were to identify all app. 20,000-25,000 were venerated and given total protection as
genes in human DNA, determine the sequences

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‘Sacred Groves’ and found in Meghalaya hills,
of 3 billion chemical base pairs, etc. Human Aravallis hills of Rajsthan, and Western Ghats
genome project was coordinated by US of Karnataka.
department of energy and National Institute of

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Health. HGP can help in revolutionizing new 46. When large habitats are broken up into small
ways of diagnosis methods involved fragments, due to various human activities
2 approaches: Expressed Sequence Tags and which of the following species is the worst
Sequence Annotation. affected?
41.
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In HGP, human genome contains how many
(A) Migratory birds
(B) Steller’s sea cow
base pairs?
(C) African cat fish
(A) 3  107 bp (B) 3  109 bp
(D) Caspian tiger
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3
(C) 3  10 bp (D) 3  106 bp
47. The Nile perch introduced into lake Victoria led
42. Cost of Human Genome project was estimated
to extinction of:
around:
(A) Clarias gariepinus
(A) 23 billion US dollars
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(B) Cichlid fishes


(B) 30 billion US dollars
(C) Lantana
(C) 9 billion US dollars
(D) 17 billion US dollars (D) Eicchornia
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43. The goal of HGP was to identify how many 48. Fig tree and wasp co-evolve together. Imagine
genes in human DNA. wasp pollinating Fig tree become extinct then
(A) 30,000 – 40,000 genes what happens to fig tree later on:
(B) 40,000 – 45,000 genes (A) Fig tree can be pollinated by some other
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(C) 10,000 – 20,000 genes insect


(D) 20,000 – 25,000 genes (B) Population of fig tree will increase
(C) Co-extinction of fig tree and wasp occurs
44. Human Genome Project helped in determining
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(D) Over exploitation of fig tree occurs


the sequence of how many base pairs in human
DNA? 49. Which of the following is not the ex-situ
(A) 2 billion base pairs conservation method?
(B) 1 billion base pairs (A) Sacred groves
(C) 3 billion base pairs (B) Zoological parks
(D) 5 billion base pairs (C) Botanical gardens
(D) Seed banks
45. Many Research Organizations and countries
associated in HGP. Mention which organization 50. Sacred groves are found in following, except:
coordinated the research. (A) Khasi and Jaintia hills in Meghalaya
(A) Humboldt state university (B) Aravali hills in Rajasthan
(B) American company Eli Lilly (C) Amazon rain forest
(C) Leeds University in UK (D) Western ghat region of Maharashtra and
(D) US department of energy Karnataka
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