SATVA INSTITUTE

Chapters : civics, economics, geography Std 9 : SS Date : 09/03/24

Total Marks : 100 MCQs Time : 2 hour
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [100]
1. The wars having Global influence mostly destructive wars of modern world are included. To whom it
applies ?
(1) First World War (2) Mahabharat's War

TE
(3) Ram-Ravan War (4) Second World War
(A) (2) and (3) (B) (2) and (4) (C) (1) and (4) (D) (1) and (2)
2. One pair is not correct :
(A) Beginning of Second World War - 1st Sept.
(B) Failure of League of Nations - 10th Sept. 1920

ITU
(C) Headquarter of United Nations - New York
(D) Establishment of United Nations - 24th Oct. 1945
3. Emphasis has been laid on developing tolerance ........ so that the whole world develops socially.
(A) Humanity (B) Fundamentally (C) Mutually (D) Morally
4. Students presented different opinions in a discussion about the goals of United Nations in a class.
Shanti : All proper steps should be taken for maintaining world peace.
ST
Megha : To bring solution of each international dispute peacefully.
Pragna : To establish international peace and security.
Nam : To keep equality towards fundamental requirements of all human beings without
discriminating on the basis of caste, language, gender or religion.
IN

Who is correct from above opinions ?

(A) Only Megha and Pragna (B) Only Shanti and Pragna
(C) Only Nam and Shanti (D) Only Shanti, Megha and Pragna
5. One statement is not completely true from the following statements.
(A) After the World War II world was divided into two poles and military groups.
A

(B) After the war, it resulted into creation of England and France as superpowers taking place of America
and Russia.
TV

(C) After the World War the relations between two superpowers were not satisfactory.
(D) A strong competition was there between the two superpowers, America and Russia to establish
supremacy over the world emerged after Second World War.
6. One pair is not correct.
(A) NATO : North Atlantic Treaty Organization
SA

(B) SEATO : South Eastern Asiatic Treaty Organization

(C) CENTO : Central Asia Treaty Organization
(D) Russia's Nuclear Test : 1945
7. The atmosphere of mutual distrust and doubts was created between ....... power groups so some military
groups were formed.
(A) Britain and France (B) America and Russia
(C) Germany and Italy (D) Rome Berlin, Tokyo Axis Nations
8. The Soviet Union decided to withdraw its ships and America decided to curb nuclear missiles aimed
towards Cuba. This whole episode is known as ....... .
(A) Blockade of Berlin (B) Cuban crisis (C) Cold war (D) United Nations
Helly Soni 9904711577
 The Soviet Union decided to withdraw its ships and America decided to curb nuclear missiles aimed
towards Cuba. This whole episode is known as ....... .
(A) Blockade of Berlin (B) Cuban crisis (C) Cold war (D) United Nations
9. There are 4 permanent members of ....... of United Nations possessing Veto Power.
(A) UNICEF (B) General Assembly
(C) Security Council (D) International Court of Law
10. ....... countries like Laos and Cambodia got independence in 1954.
(A) African (B) Western Europe (C) Asian (D) Gulf
11. One pair is not correct.
(A) India and Pakistan two independent nations came into existence : 1947
(B) Myanmar and Sri Lanka became independent : 1948
(C) Laos and Cambodia became independent nations : 1945

TE
(D) Indonesia became independent : 1949
12. Who believed that world's poorest nations remain exploited and marginalized, no longer by opposing
superpowers but rather in a uni-polar world ?
(A) First Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru (B) German King Czar William.

ITU
(C) Italy's Dictator Benito Mussolini (D) Viceroy Mountbatten
13. The 'Soviet Red Army' had captured the eastern part of Germany, so it was accepted that ....... would
remain in their control.
(A) Western Germany (B) German territory near France
(C) Eastern Germany (D) German area bordering Belgium
14. One pair is not correct.
ST
(A) Russia - Moscow (B) America - Washington (C) China - Belgrade (D) France - Paris
15. Till 1990 many important and far fetching changes took place in international politics. Owing to many
reasons the Cold War among powers also ended. These years witnessed cracks in order wise
impregnable Soviet Union ultimately ....... .
IN

(A) Berlin Blockade declared (B) Cuban crisis declared

(C) Soviet Union was disintegrated (D) Germany was unified
16. One pair is not correct.
(A) Promotes Cold War : Berlin's Blockade
(B) Wonderful development of West Germany : German miracle
A

(C) Democratic Republic : West Germany

(D) Unification of West German regions : Federal Republic of Germany
TV

17. One statement among following statements is not completely true.

(A) In 1990, Globalization of United Germany was done.
(B) A 42 km long wall was constructed separating West and East Berlin.
(C) Red Army of Soviet Union had captured the eastern part of Germany.
(D) Germany was divided into four administrative segments.
SA

18. Toward's the end out of 15 states, 14 states became independent and disintegration of Soviet Union came
to an end in December ....... .
(A) 1990 (B) 1991 (C) 1948 (D) 1949
19. In some of the countries at the time of emergency India sent its military troops through peace
establishing forces of UN, by actively helping in establishing peace then which country they would be ?
(1) Gaza and Cyprus
(2) Cuban Crisis
(3) Berlin's Blockade
(4) Congo and Sri Lanka
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (C) only (3) (D) (1) and (4)
Helly Soni 9904711577
 (3) Berlin's Blockade
(4) Congo and Sri Lanka
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (C) only (3) (D) (1) and (4)
20. India has helped to establish peace by sending military troops in United Nations ....... Force to countries
like Gaza, Cyprus, Congo and Sri Lanka at time of their conflicts.
(A) Peace keeping (B) Naval Force (C) Infantry (D) Military troops
21. India didn't sign on treaties regarding nuclear weapons because ....... .
(A) United States insisted that India should sign these treaties.
(B) these both treaties were based on discrimination and harmful to national interest.
(C) Negligence towards own intentions and insistence America got angry on India.
(D) India is getting help of America in economical and technical fields.
22. There is a remarkable change in relationship between India and America after terrorist attack on New

TE
York's World Trade Centre on ....... .
(A) 11th September, 2001 (B) 1st September, 1939 (C) 3rd October, 1990 (D) 26th January, 2015
23. Soviet Union has helped India economically and technically for economic stability of India then which
fields they would be ?

ITU
(1) To establish heavy industries
(2) To establish world peace
(3) International understanding
(4) Key industries
(A) (1) and (4) (B) (2) and (4) (C) (2) and (3) (D) (1) and (3)
24. Heads of India and Pakistan both the countries have expressed eagerness to resolve all issues .......
ST
through negotiations.
(A) peacefully (B) by UN (C) internal committee (D) internal pact
25. India and China have dispute about ....... .
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Borders (C) Kailash-Mansarovar (D) Tibet
IN

26. China attacked India in ....... and captured the regions which were displayed in their map.
(A) 1954 (B) 2014 (C) 1962 (D) 1964
27. India helped Bhutan in becoming a member of ....... in the year 1971.
(A) SAARC (B) U.N. (C) World Bank (D) Trusteeship

28. On 13th March 2015 he visited troubled regions of Tamilians in Jafna, who can be as Prime Minister of
A

India ?
(A) Shri Narendrabhai Modi (B) Rajiv Gandhi
TV

(C) Atalbihari Vajpayee (D) Manmohan Singh

29. According to treaty (1950) made between India and other neighbouring country, both countries are
considered to be sovereign and to preserve regional unity.
(A) Bhutan (B) Nepal (C) Myanmar (D) Bangladesh
SA

30. The construction of ....... parliament building is being done by India.

(A) Nepal (B) Bhutan (C) Myanmar (D) Afghanistan
31. After India got independence ...... got independence in 1948.
(A) China (B) Myanmar (C) Pakistan (D) Indonesia
32. Major problems arose before the country at the time of indepence of India. - To whom it applies ?
(1) Framing the constitution of India.
(2) To consider East Bengal as a part of India.
(3) Independent state except Indian Union should join Pakistan.
(4) Merging princely states into making an intact India.
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (C) Only (3) (D) (1) and (4)
Helly Soni 9904711577
 (3) Independent state except Indian Union should join Pakistan.
(4) Merging princely states into making an intact India.
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (C) Only (3) (D) (1) and (4)
33. Who is included in preparing draft, for 'Attachment Bond' and 'Status Quo Agreement' ?
(1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) K. M. Panikar
(3) Haridaynath Keenzru
(4) V. P. Menon
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (C) (3) and (4) (D) (1) and (4)
34. One pair is not correct :
(A) Article for India's Independence - July, 1947
(B) Sarar Vallabhbhai Patel - Deputy Prime Minister

TE
(C) V. P. Menon - Home Minster
(D) A big state among princely states - Hyderabad
35. "People of Hyderabad are eager to be with Union of India." Who can clearly say like this ?
(A) Kanaiyalal Munshi (B) Nizam of Hyderabad

ITU
(C) V. P. Menon (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
36. Junagadh's merger with the Union of India was made possible owing to guts of ........
(A) General Chaudhari (B) Maharaja Harisinh Dogra
(C) Sardar Patel (D) Former judge of Supreme Court Fazal Ali
37. One statement is associated about Hyderabad.
(A) Considering the physical location of Hyderabad, it should join Pakistan.
ST
(B) As per Nizam, if the country will be divided, then owing to geographical reasons they would not be
able to join India and they would not be able to join Pakistan owing to ideological reasons.
(C) Hyderabad won't be able to remain as an independent state as it is surrounded by Indian Territory.
(D) As per Sardar Patel's opinion, it is beneficiary to all that people of Hyderabad merge with Pakistan
Union.
IN

38. Arrange following events as per their time period in the descending order.
(1) Article for India's Independence.
(2) India took possession of Junagadh.
(3) Hyderabad was merged with the Union of India by using Police force.
(4) Reforming of states in India.
A

(A) (4), (3), (2), (1) (B) (3), (4), (2), (1) (C) (2), (4), (3), (1) (D) (4), (2), (3), (1)
39. French rule : Pondicherry; Portuguese rule :
TV

(A) Diu and Daman (B) Chandranagar and Mahe

(C) Yenam (D) Karaikal
40. French government handed over ....... colonies to India.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2
SA

41. Arrange following places from south to north, colonies of French and Portugese on the basis of political
map of India in correct order.
(1) Chandranagar (2) Diu
(3) Goa (4) Mahe
(A) (2), (3), (1), (4) (B) (3), (2), (1), (4) (C) (4), (3), (2), (1) (D) (4), (2), (3), (1)
42. The Portuguse government De Silva of ....... surrendered on the midnight of December 19th. Thus
Portuguse rule disappeared from Goa, Diu and Daman.
(A) Goa (B) Dadra Nagar Haveli (C) Hyderabad (D) Junagadh
43. On What basis can it be said that western imperialism came to an end from the land of India ?
(A) End of Portugese rule from Goa, Div, Daman (B) End of French rule from French colonies
(C) End of British Empire on 15th Helly1947
August Soni 9904711577
(D) End of above three matters at the same time
 On What basis can it be said that western imperialism came to an end from the land of India ?
(A) End of Portugese rule from Goa, Div, Daman (B) End of French rule from French colonies
(C) End of British Empire on 15th August 1947 (D) End of above three matters at the same time
44. In 1953, Jawaharlal Nehru considered the issue of reorganization of states and appointed state
reorganization commission in that one is not included.
(A) Former judge of Supreme Court Fazal Ali (Chairman)
(B) Hridaynath Kunzra
(C) K. M. Panikar
(D) Kanaiyalal Munshi
45. One pair is not correct :
(A) As class D States : Aandaman and Nicorar Islands

TE
(B) Class C States : Koorg, Kutch and Bindhya region
(C) Class B States : Central India, Hyderabad and Mysore
(D) Class A States : Pepsu, Tripura and Manipur
46. In the year 2000, separate small states were formed from big states. One is not included in it.

ITU
(A) Zarkhand from Bihar (B) Chhattisgarh from Madhya Pradesh
(C) Telangana from Andhra Pradesh (D) Uttrakhand from Uttar Pradesh
47. People following diverse religions, speaking different languages, belonging to different casts, races and
cultures live in India, then how the recognition of the country can be given ?
(A) India is a country having unity in diversity (B) India is a country having emotional unity
(C) India is a country having national unity (D) A country possesses above three matters
ST
48. The factors stimulating activities of regionalism are harmful to ....... of the country.
(A) emotional unity (B) cultural unity (C) national unity (D) political unity
49. One pair is not correct :
(A) Zarkhand - Ranchi (B) Telanagana - Chandigarh
IN

(C) Chhatishgadh - Raipur (D) Uttrakhand - Dehradun

50. Four students of a school take part in a discussion. Which students' opinions or concepts are incorrect ?
Bhavi : Language stimulates regionalism.
Seema : Punjab and Haryana were divided due to regionalism.
Raaz : Factors stimulate regionalism are in interest of national unity.
A

Daksha : When narrow mindness develops in the feeling of regionalism then regionalism arises and
develops.
TV

(A) Bhavi and Daksha (B) Only Raaz

(C) Seema and Raaz (D) Bhavi, Seema and Daksha
51. There should be more ....... among the people living in states and people living in other regions of the
state, then it is in the interest of national unity.
(A) Swaschhata Abhiyan (B) Give and take (C) Voting campaign (D) Literacy campaign
SA

52. The regions where economic profit is not obtained, developmental activities were not undertaken. In
such regions ...... was seen.
(A) Regional integrity (B) Emotional unity (C) Literacy (D) Regional Inequality
53. In a country, developed, moderately developed and less developed states are seen. In internal
development of some states inequality exists; then to whom it applies ?
(1) Maharashtra is in category of economically developed state but its regions like Vidarbha and
Marathawada are backward.
(2) Punjab and Haryana are developed in Industrial development.
(3) Gujarat and Maharashtra are developed in agricultural development.
(4) Rayalseema areas of Andhra Pradesh and some regions of state Telangana are backward.
(A) (2) and (3)
Helly Soni 9904711577
(B) (3) and (4) (C) (1) and (4) (D) (1) and (2)
 (2) Punjab and Haryana are developed in Industrial development.
(3) Gujarat and Maharashtra are developed in agricultural development.
(4) Rayalseema areas of Andhra Pradesh and some regions of state Telangana are backward.
(A) (2) and (3) (B) (3) and (4) (C) (1) and (4) (D) (1) and (2)
54. There are some states who are at loggerheads for boundary - issues. To whom it applies ?
(1) Maharashtra - Karnatak state
(2) Jammu-Kashmir state
(3) West Bengal and Tripura state
(4) Punjab and Haryana state
(A) (2) and (3) (B) (3) and (4) (C) (1) and (2) (D) (1) and (4)
55. One is not included in various distinguished scientists of independent India.
(A) Dr. Homi Bhabha (B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai (C) Hridaynath Kunzru (D) Dr. C. V. Raman

TE
56. One pair is not correct :
(A) Indian Space Research Organization : ISRO (B) Physical Research Laboratory : PRL
(C) Indian Institute of Sciences : IIM (D) Indian Institute of Technology : IIT
57. Astronomy : Sunita Williams; Mathematician and Human Computer : .......

ITU
(A) Kalpana Chawla (B) Shakuntla Devi
(C) Padamshri Janki Amma (D) Padamshri Asima Chatterji
58. To release ....... in outer space India conducted special type of GSLV, PSLV and Mars Mission can be a
unique achievement of self reliance.
(A) Aero planes (B) Satellites (C) Flying soccer's (D) Helicopters
59. 'Digital India' and 'Make in India' slogans are being world famous for following technologies then which
ST
technology can it be ?
(A) Bio technology (B) Atomic technology
(C) Agriculture technology (D) Information technology
60. One statement is not completely true, among following statements.
IN

(A) We have been successful to fulfill the demand of energy by atomic power stations.
(B) Technology is a base of economic development of any country.
(C) As a result of green revolution, India can be called self reliant in production of grains. It is an
important achievement.
(D) The contribution of Indian scientists in world level or international level institutes is remarkable.
A

61. One pair is not correct :

(A) Nuclear technology : Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
TV

(B) GSLV : Geo Synchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle

(C) PSLV : Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(D) Communication field : Green Revolution
62. Children between ....... years of age have been granted the right of free and compulsory primary
education.
SA

(A) 6 to 10 (B) 5 to 12 (C) 6 to 14 (D) 5 to 14

63. In India 10th December is celebrated as which day ?
(A) Human Duty Day (B) Consumer Duty Day
(C) Human Rights Day (D) Human Independence Day
64. Indian constitution gives confirmation of ....... Fundamental Rights.
(A) Five (B) Six (C) Seven (D) Eight
65. Which of the following matters is inappropriate in 'Right to Equality' show that .....
(A) Reserve quota is provided in government jobs and higher education for entry.
(B) Prohibition is laid on practicing untouchability in any form.
(C) It is not a crime if the prime Minister acts against the law.
Helly Soni 9904711577
(D) Special arrangements are made for women and children, no discrimination on the basis of sex.
 (A) Reserve quota is provided in government jobs and higher education for entry.
(B) Prohibition is laid on practicing untouchability in any form.
(C) It is not a crime if the prime Minister acts against the law.
(D) Special arrangements are made for women and children, no discrimination on the basis of sex.
66. People of certain tribes take out processions peacefully, without arms on state highways. This is a
violation of which right ?
(A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Religious Freedom (D) Right against Exploitation
67. Students presented their opinions in the discussion about the, "Right to Freedom". Which students'
opinions are correct ? Mention.
Akshar : Indian citizen is given right to express his/her thoughts by speech and behaivour.
Akshay : Children between 6 to 14 years of age are given Fundamental right to have free and

TE
compulsory primary education.
Aman : A person arrested under preventive Detention Act can not be kept in custody for 24 hours
without permission of magistrate.
Abhi : A person can not be punished if the deed of a person can not be considered as crime at the
time of crime.

ITU
(A) Akshay, Aman, Abhi (B) Aman, Abhi, Akshar
(C) Akshar, Akshay, Abhi (D) Aman, Abhi, Akshay
68. One statement is not correct among the statements about Right against Exploitation. Write it by finding.
(A) To take work from any person without paying them or paying them less than minimum wages, forced
or imposed labour is a punishable act.
(B) Any child under the age of 14 can not be made to work in any dangerous profession.
ST
(C) Imposed slavery or forced labour can not be done by keeping a person arrested.
(D) In military state can take people of certain religion for public welfare.
69. Which matters of the following is not appropriate with 'Right to Freedom of Religion'. Write it by finding.
(A) Any citizen of India can follow any religion of choice.
IN

(B) An organization run by state can give religious education.

(C) The state cannot interfere in the religious matters of any sect.
(D) The state of India does not have any religion of its own.
70. ....... of various religions, various languages and cultures live in India.
(A) Voters (B) Men (C) Women (D) People
A

71. ....... has considered 'Right to constitutional Remedies as 'soul of the constitution'.
(A) Dr. (B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
TV

(C) Sardar Patel (D) Mahatma Gandhi

72. Which Right possesses a special characteristic of Indian constitution ?
(A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Religious Freedom (D) Right to constitutional Remedies
SA

73. Fundamental duties were incorporated by constitutional amendment in ....... .

(A) 1974 (B) 1975 (C) 1976 (D) 1986
74. 10th December : Human Rights Day, 6th January : .......
(A) Consumer Rights Day (B) Fundamental Duties Day
(C) World Environment Day (D) World Water Day
75. While framing the laws of the state and its management directive principles are ....... .
(A) Legal (B) Exceptional (C) Basic (D) Important
76. One principle is not correct from the following principles related to Economic Policy.
(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
(B) State should promote co-operation in administration of industrial units by labourers.
(C) To organize agricultural and animalHelly Soni 9904711577
husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
(D) All do not get equal chance for justice.
 One principle is not correct from the following principles related to Economic Policy.
(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
(B) State should promote co-operation in administration of industrial units by labourers.
(C) To organize agricultural and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
(D) All do not get equal chance for justice.
77. State tries to keep ....... separate and independent from executive.
(A) Judiciary (B) Government (C) Centre (D) Person
78. State implements various ....... projects for upliftment of weaker sections of the society through social
security.
(A) modern (B) scientific (C) welfare related (D) ancient
79. One of the following statements is not appropriate for Directive principles of state policy.
(A) It acts as brakes on state leadership. (B) It acts as an accelerator in state administration.

TE
(C) It extends the state leadership. (D) It decentralizes the power of state.
80. Directive principles establish ....... democracy.
(A) social (B) finance (C) political (D) social, economic
81. If state doesn't implement Directive principles then one cannot take shelter of ....... .

ITU
(A) Parliament (B) Legislative Assembly (C) Cabinet (D) Court
82. The ...... (Apex) court is at the centre.
(A) Local (B) High (C) Supreme (D) Special
83. One of the following statements is incorrect.
(A) The Supreme Court is at the Apex of the Judiciary in India.
(B) High Court is at the middle level.
ST
(C) Special Courts have been constituted at state level.
(D) Tribunals have been formed for different purposes.
84. To be appointed as judge of the Supreme Court, at least ...... years experience as a judge in a High Court
is essential.
IN

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 10

85. The Supreme Court is the top most judicial organization, which is situated in ...... .
(A) Jaipur (B) Agra (C) Delhi (D) Chandigarh
86. ...... administers an oath of secrecy to the judges of the Supreme Court.
(A) The Prime Minister (B) The President
A

(C) Member of Parliament (D) The Vice President

87. In a discussion on the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, students have given the following answers.
TV

Which students have given the correct answers ?

Pravin : The Supreme Court has the right to give judgement concerning any set of Union Government
or constitutionality.
Parikshit : Appeals can be made to the Supreme Court against the judgement passed by the High
SA

Courts in Civil cases involving an amount exceeding rupees one lakh or more.
Parajit : The Supreme Court has no power to review its own judgement or decision.
Pragnesh : If the President feels that any particular matter or question holds importance from the point
of view of public welfare then the President can take a counsel of the Supreme Court.
(A) Pravin, Parajit, Pragnesh (B) Pravin, Parikshit, Pragnesh
(C) Parikshit, Parajit, Pragnesh (D) Parajit, Pragnesh, Pravin
88. The Supreme Court can ........ the judgements given by itself.
(A) Evaluate (B) Review (C) Change (D) Appeal against
89. One of the following does not pertain to the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Which one is
that ?
(A) If the President feels that any particular matter or question holds importance from the point of view
Helly Soni 9904711577
of public welfare then the President can take a counsel of the Supreme Court.
(B) The Supreme Court cannot review its own judgements.
 One of the following does not pertain to the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Which one is
that ?
(A) If the President feels that any particular matter or question holds importance from the point of view
of public welfare then the President can take a counsel of the Supreme Court.
(B) The Supreme Court cannot review its own judgements.
(C) It is not mandatory for the President to follow the advice or counsel given by the Supreme Court.
(D) If the Supreme Court finds it unnecessary to consider or give opinion on the sent matter it can send
it back to the President.
90. ........ has the authority to set up a common High Court for two or more states.
(A) Chief Justice of India (B) The Prime Minister (C) The Parliament (D) The President
91. One of the following statements pertaining to the Original Jurisdiction of the High Court is incorrect. Find
out and write.

TE
(A) The High Court is empowered to receive directions, orders or writs in case of violation of the
fundamental rights of citizens.
(B) The cases of contempt of court can also be carried out in the High Court.
(C) The High Court has the authority in the cases related to divorce and alimony.
(D) All writ petitions challenging the judgements given by Lower Court in the civil and the criminal cases

ITU
can be made in the High Court.
92. The Governor of the state appoints the judges of ...... Courts in consultation with the Chief Justice of the
related High Court.
(A) Taluka (B) District (C) Small Cause (D) High
93. One of the following pairs is incorrect. Which one is it ?
ST
(A) Civil Courts - all the civil suits of rupee one lakh or more are carried out in the district civil courts.
(B) Sessions Courts - power to give punishment of imprisonment ranging from 3 to 10 years and a
penalty up to rupees 5000 or more.
(C) 'Fast Track Court' - an arrangement in every district to speed up the disposal of cases and impart
speedy justice.
IN

(D) 'Consumer's Rights Protection Forum' - to impart justice against petitioners.

94. For the first time in Gujarat state, ...... were started to provide speedy and economical justice to the poor,
weak and exploited section of the society.
(A) Sessions Court (B) Fast Track Court (C) Lok Adalats (D) Civil Court
A

95. ...... save time and money.

(A) Lok Adalats (B) District Courts (C) Taluka Courts (D) Small Cause Courts
96. One of the following statements pertaining to the Judiciary is incorrect. Find out and write.
TV

(A) It protects the fundamental rights of the citizens.

(B) It is independent of the Executive.
(C) During the term of service of the judges any of their behaviour or their judgements cannot be
discussed or critically reviewed in the Parliament or the Legislative Assembly.
SA

(D) It has a bias in favour of the government.

97. ...... has the highest number of voters in the world.
(A) America (B) China (C) India (D) Japan
98. Indian democracy is more than ...... decades old.
(A) four (B) five (C) six (D) ten
99. ...... is the national institution representing the people.
(A) Vidhansabha (B) Vidhan Parishad (C) Local governments (D) Parliament
100. One of the following statements related to the voting rights to the Indian citizens is incorrect. Find out.
(A) He must be above 18 years of age.
(B) He must not be a bankrupt or mentally unstable.
Helly Soni 9904711577
(C) Citizens following a certain religion are not given voting rights.
(D) He can cast his vote through secret ballot.
One of the following statements related to the voting rights to the Indian citizens is incorrect. Find out.
(A) He must be above 18 years of age.
(B) He must not be a bankrupt or mentally unstable.
(C) Citizens following a certain religion are not given voting rights.
(D) He can cast his vote through secret ballot.

TE
ITU
ST
A IN
TV
SA

Helly Soni 9904711577

 SATVA INSTITUTE
Chapters : civics, economics, geography Std 9 : SS Date : 09/03/24
Total Marks : 100 MCQs Time : 2 hour

Section [ A ] : 1 Marks Questions

No Ans Chap Sec Que Universal_QueId

1. C Chap 6 S6 1 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q1
2. B Chap 6 S6 2 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q2
3. C Chap 6 S6 3 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q3
4. D Chap 6 S6 4 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q4
5. B Chap 6 S6 5 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q5
6. D Chap 6 S6 6 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q6
7. B Chap 6 S6 7 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q7
8. B Chap 6 S6 8 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q8
9. C Chap 6 S6 9 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q9
10. C Chap 6 S6 10 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q10
11. C Chap 6 S6 11 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q11
12. A Chap 6 S6 12 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q12
13. C Chap 6 S6 13 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q13
14. C Chap 6 S6 14 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q14
15. C Chap 6 S6 15 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q15
16. C Chap 6 S6 16 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q16
17. A Chap 6 S6 17 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q17
18. B Chap 6 S6 18 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q18
19. D Chap 6 S6 19 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q19
20. A Chap 6 S6 20 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q20
21. B Chap 6 S6 21 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q21
22. A Chap 6 S6 22 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q22
23. A Chap 6 S6 23 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q23
24. A Chap 6 S6 24 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q24
25. B Chap 6 S6 25 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q25
26. C Chap 6 S6 26 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q26
27. B Chap 6 S6 27 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q27
28. A Chap 6 S6 28 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q28
29. B Chap 6 S6 29 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q29
30. D Chap 6 S6 30 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q30
31. B Chap 6 S6 31 QP23P11B0913_P1C6S6Q31
32. D Chap 7 S5 1 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q1

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

33. D Chap 7 S5 2 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q2
34. C Chap 7 S5 3 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q3
35. D Chap 7 S5 4 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q4
36. C Chap 7 S5 5 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q5
37. C Chap 7 S5 6 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q6
38. A Chap 7 S5 7 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q7
39. A Chap 7 S5 8 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q8
40. A Chap 7 S5 9 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q9
41. C Chap 7 S5 10 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q10
42. A Chap 7 S5 11 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q11
43. A Chap 7 S5 12 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q12
44. D Chap 7 S5 13 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q13
45. D Chap 7 S5 14 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q14
46. C Chap 7 S5 15 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q15
47. A Chap 7 S5 16 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q16
48. C Chap 7 S5 17 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q17
49. B Chap 7 S5 18 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q18
50. B Chap 7 S5 19 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q19
51. B Chap 7 S5 20 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q20
52. D Chap 7 S5 21 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q21
53. C Chap 7 S5 22 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q22
54. D Chap 7 S5 23 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q23
55. C Chap 7 S5 24 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q24
56. C Chap 7 S5 25 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q25
57. B Chap 7 S5 26 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q26
58. B Chap 7 S5 27 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q27
59. A Chap 7 S5 28 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q28
60. B Chap 7 S5 29 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q29
61. D Chap 7 S5 30 QP23P11B0913_P1C7S5Q30
62. C Chap 9 S5 1 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q1
63. C Chap 9 S5 2 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q2
64. B Chap 9 S5 3 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q3
65. C Chap 9 S5 4 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q4
66. B Chap 9 S5 5 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q5
67. C Chap 9 S5 6 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q6
68. D Chap 9 S5 7 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q7
69. B Chap 9 S5 8 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q8
70. D Chap 9 S5 9 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q9
Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper
71. A Chap 9 S5 10 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q10
72. D Chap 9 S5 11 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q11
73. C Chap 9 S5 12 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q12
74. B Chap 9 S5 13 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q13
75. C Chap 9 S5 14 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q14
76. D Chap 9 S5 15 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q15
77. A Chap 9 S5 16 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q16
78. C Chap 9 S5 17 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q17
79. A Chap 9 S5 18 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q18
80. D Chap 9 S5 19 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q19
81. D Chap 9 S5 20 QP23P11B0913_P1C9S5Q20
82. C Chap 11 S5 1 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q1
83. C Chap 11 S5 2 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q2
84. B Chap 11 S5 3 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q3
85. C Chap 11 S5 4 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q4
86. B Chap 11 S5 5 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q5
87. B Chap 11 S5 6 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q6
88. B Chap 11 S5 7 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q7
89. B Chap 11 S5 8 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q8
90. D Chap 11 S5 9 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q9
91. A Chap 11 S5 10 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q10
92. B Chap 11 S5 11 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q11
93. D Chap 11 S5 12 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q12
94. C Chap 11 S5 13 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q13
95. A Chap 11 S5 14 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q14
96. D Chap 11 S5 15 QP23P11B0913_P1C11S5Q15
97. C Chap 12 S6 1 QP23P11B0913_P1C12S6Q1
98. C Chap 12 S6 2 QP23P11B0913_P1C12S6Q2
99. D Chap 12 S6 3 QP23P11B0913_P1C12S6Q3
100. C Chap 12 S6 4 QP23P11B0913_P1C12S6Q4

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

 SATVA INSTITUTE
Chapters : civics, economics, geography Std 9 : SS Date : 09/03/24
Total Marks : 100 MCQs Time : 2 hour
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [100]
1.

//X
 Ans : (C)
2.

//X
 Ans : (B)
3.

//X
 Ans : (C)
4.

//X
 Ans : (D)
5.

//X
 Ans : (B)
6.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (D)
7.

//X
 Ans : (B)
8.

//X
 Ans : (B)
9.

//X
 Ans : (C)
10.

//X
 Ans : (C)
11.

//X
 Ans : (C)
12.

//X
 Ans : (A)
13.

//X
 Ans : (C)
14.

//X
 Ans : (C)
15.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (C)
16.

//X
 Ans : (C)
17.

//X
 Ans : (A)
18.

//X
 Ans : (B)
19.

//X
 Ans : (D)
20.

//X
 Ans : (A)
21.

//X
 Ans : (B)
22.

//X
 Ans : (A)
23.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (A)
24.

//X
 Ans : (A)
25.

//X
 Ans : (B)
26.

//X
 Ans : (C)
27.

//X
 Ans : (B)
28.

//X
 Ans : (A)
29.

//X
 Ans : (B)
30.

//X
 Ans : (D)
31.

//X
 Ans : (B)
32.

//X
 Ans : (D)

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

33.

//X
 Ans : (D)
34.

//X
 Ans : (C)
35.

//X
 Ans : (D)
36.

//X
 Ans : (C)
37.

//X
 Ans : (C)
38.

//X
 Ans : (A)
39.

//X
 Ans : (A)
40.

//X
 Ans : (A)

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

41.

//X
 Ans : (C)
42.

//X
 Ans : (A)
43.

//X
 Ans : (A)
44.

//X
 Ans : (D)
45.

//X
 Ans : (D)
46.

//X
 Ans : (C)
47.

//X
 Ans : (A)
48.

//X
 Ans : (C)
49.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (B)
50.

//X
 Ans : (B)
51.

//X
 Ans : (B)
52.

//X
 Ans : (D)
53.

//X
 Ans : (C)
54.

//X
 Ans : (D)
55.

//X
 Ans : (C)
56.

//X
 Ans : (C)
57.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (B)
58.

//X
 Ans : (B)
59.

//X
 Ans : (A)
60.

//X
 Ans : (B)
61.

//X
 Ans : (D)
62.

//X
 Ans : (C)
63.

//X
 Ans : (C)
64.

//X
 Ans : (B)
65.

//X
 Ans : (C)

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

66.

//X
 Ans : (B)
67.

//X
 Ans : (C)
68.

//X
 Ans : (D)
69.

//X
 Ans : (B)
70.

//X
 Ans : (D)
71.

//X
 Ans : (A)
72.

//X
 Ans : (D)
73.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (C)
74.

//X
 Ans : (B)
75.

//X
 Ans : (C)
76.

//X
 Ans : (D)
77.

//X
 Ans : (A)
78.

//X
 Ans : (C)
79.

//X
 Ans : (A)
80.

//X
 Ans : (D)
81.

//X
 Ans : (D)
82.

//X
 Ans : (C)
83.

//X
 Ans : (C)

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

84.

//X
 Ans : (B)
85.

//X
 Ans : (C)
86.

//X
 Ans : (B)
87.

//X
 Ans : (B)
88.

//X
 Ans : (B)
89.

//X
 Ans : (B)
90.

//X
 Ans : (D)
91.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (A)
92.

//X
 Ans : (B)
93.

//X
 Ans : (D)
94.

//X
 Ans : (C)
95.

//X
 Ans : (A)
96.

//X
 Ans : (D)
97.

//X
 Ans : (C)
98.

//X
 Ans : (C)
99.

//X
 Ans : (D)
100.

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper

//X
 Ans : (C)

Welcome To Future - Quantum Paper