NOTES FOR MANUSCRIPT WRITING – BRIGHT 11

MAIN PARTS TASK NO of TASK TYPES NOTES

Qs
LISTENING Part 1 5 Any of T/F, short answers (ONE/TWO/THREE 200 - 230 words
2 points Part 2 5 WORDS), MC (4 options), gap filling / table [INSTRUCTION].
completion/ note completion, multiple Listen and decide if each
matching of the statements is T
(True) or F (False).
PRONUNC Part 1 3 Odd one out To decide which sounds
1 point Individual sounds (vowels, consonants) to be tested, based on the
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the vocab + reading within
word whose underlined part is pronounced the units
differently from the others.
Part 2 2 Odd one out
Word stress
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the
word that has a stress pattern different from
the others.
USE OF Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the
LANGUAGE best option for each of the questions.
3 points Multiple Choice (4 options)
 Vocab, grammar, antonym, synonym,
15 functional speaking
 Signs & notices 5
 Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the 2
word CLOSEST in meaning to the 1
underlined word in the question.
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the 1
word OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word in the question.
 Verbal language (Speaking in SB)
 Error identification 2
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to show the 2
part that needs correction.
 Word form (Complete the sentences with
the correct forms of the words in brackets.) 2
Part 1 5 Any of 170 – 200 words
- Cloze text (Various functional words)
Read a text about… Circle the letter A, B, C or
D to indicate the best option for each of the
blanks.
Part 2 5 Reading Comprehension 250 – 280 words
Any of
READING - MC (4 options)
2 points - T/F/DOESN’T SAY
Read a text about… Circle the letter A, B, C or
D to indicate
- the best answer to each of the questions.
- the best option for each of the questions.
Read a text about… Decide if each of the
statements is T (TRUE), F (FALSE) or DS
(DOESN’T SAY)
WRITING Part 1 3 Rearrange the words or phrases to make

1
2 points meaningful sentences. (8 – 14 words /
sentence)
Part 2 3/4 - Write the sentences using the given words in
brackets. (8 – 14 words/sentence)
Write the second sentence so that it has a
similar meaning to the first one.
4/3 - Complete the sentences with the given
beginnings in such a way that their meanings
stay unchanged. (8 – 14 words/sentence)
- Combine two sentences into a new one using
the given words in brackets.
50
total

A FULL TEST
FORMAT SAMPLE

2
HELLO TEST 1
LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)
Ted and Jill are talking about their studies. Listen and decide if each of the statements is T (True) or
F (False).
1 Ted thinks Jill’s computer classes are very short. ________
2 Ted doesn’t like what he’s learning. ________
3 …
Listen to a man talking about what to do in a town. Listen and circle the best option A, B, C or D.
6 The area called Phoenix ________.
A has a tube station B has a cinema
C has many small cafés D a shopping centre
7…
PRONUNCIATION (1.0 POINT)
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
11 A train B plane C station D bread
12 A what B cat C bag D cap
13 A exercise B eraser C exit D egg
Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others.
14 A museum B restaurant C garden D office
15 A oranges B strawberry C underground D computer
USE OF LANGUAGE (3.0 POINTS)
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best option for each of the questions.
16 The man over there is my uncle. You can call _________ Garry.
A him B he C his D her
17 Don’t touch that camera. It’s not _________.
A you B your C yours D you’re
18 “Can you help me find the _________ on the sofa?”
A pillows B rugs C armchairs D cushions
19
20 …
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in
the question.
21 …
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in
the question.
22 …
23 What does the notice mean?
NO FOOD DURING
3
CLASS
 A You can’t drink in class.
B You can eat in class.
C Do not bring any drinks to the classroom
D Do not eat in class.
24 What does the notice / message mean?
…
25 Nick: “I love yoghurt”
Michael: “_________”
A Yes, I want to. B So do I. It’s my favourite food.
C Why don’t we buy some for your mom? D Buy me some yoghurt, please.
26 Bob: “_________”
Ivan: “Turn left onto Main Street. It’s the second building on your right.”
A Can I talk to a police officer? B Get over there and call the police now! C How can
I go to the police station? D Please, take me to the police officer.
Choose the underlined part A, B, C or D that needs correction.
27 Annie and Becky usually spend two hours make a video at home every weekend.
A spend B make C at D weekend
28 You must practise to play football with your team regularly if you want to be excellent at football.
A to play B with C if D at
Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the words in brackets.
29 My dad _________ dinner yesterday. (MAKE)
30 Max is _________ in reading books. (INTEREST)

READING (2.0 POINTS)

Tyler is talking about his pets. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
MY PET’S FREE TIME
I’m Thomas. I have got four special pets, and each of them has their hobbies. My dog, Fred, is three years
old. He’s different from other dogs. He can (31) _______ skateboarding with my younger brother in the
park every afternoon. The dog can skateboard for hours. Unlike Fred, my cat, Rio, is very lazy. He often
(32) _______ cartoons with my family and falls asleep on the sofa every night. Richie, my parrot, loves
talking and collecting coloured things. He keeps (33) _______ of them in the cage. I also have a funny
monkey called Lucky. When I (34) _______ music loudly in my garden, Lucky jumps around. My dad can
play some musical instruments. When he plays the piano, Lucky holds (35) _______ bananas and dances to
the music. He always makes everyone laugh! My family look after the pets very well because we all love
them.
31 A make B go C play D do
32 A draws B likes C takes D watches
33 A a few B a little C much D any
34 A listen B make C much D play
35 A any B little C some D a little

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Read the passage about a boy’s life in Thailand. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best
answer to each of the questions.
My family moved to the countryside of Thailand three years ago. Most students go to school at around 7:30
a.m. and go home at about 4:30 p.m. That’s what people often think about school. However, in some poor
provinces in Thailand, there are boat schools. They are very different from normal schools.
…
36 What happens every year in Thailand?
A Poor people don’t have enough food. B Flooding brings lots of problems.
C Some students cannot go to school. D People have to drink dirty water.
37 Where can people see a doctor when there is flooding?
A on the boat hospitals B online
C in a doctor’s house D in a hospital in the city
38 How can the children go to school when there are heavy storms?
A Their parents take them to school by boat. B They have to study online.
C They cannot use things that need electricity. D The get on the boat schools at a river side.
WRITING (2.0 POINTS)
Rearrange the words or phrases to make meaningful sentences.
41 bigger / laptop / My / than / black / yours. / is
__________________________________________________________________
42 to / money. / change / Harry / going / is / bank / the / to
__________________________________________________________________
43 department / station / the / store? / fire / Is / the / behind
__________________________________________________________________
Write the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.
Use the words in brackets.
44 The airplane landed at Tân Sơn Nhất Airport at 5 p.m. (ARRIVE)
__________________________________________________________________
45 He doesn’t like drawing. (BORING)
__________________________________________________________________
46 Roland is better at football than Ron. (WORSE)
__________________________________________________________________
Complete the sentences with the given beginnings in such a way that their meanings
stay unchanged.
47 Michelle sometimes shops for clothes in that mall.
- Michelle __________________________________________________________.
48 Her uncle usually drives to work.
- Her uncle usually goes ______________________________________________.
49 Travelling by airplane is not dangerous.
- Travelling by airplane _______________________________________________.
50 Last month, my English test was 8 points. Today, it’s 10 points.
- I’m getting _________________________________________________________.
THE END

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 ANSWER KEY
LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)

1 T 2 DS 3T 4F 5F my computer now. Tell me about your cookery

SCRIPT class, Ted.
Ted: Hi Jill. How’s your computer class going? Ted: We’re not learning quickly enough. Last week,
Jill: Oh, I’ve just had my class, actually. We have we spent one hour learning how to boil poached
them twice a week and each one lasts forty-five eggs.
minutes. Jill: So ... how often is it?
Ted: Gosh. That's really short. Is it boring? Ted: We meet there once a week, for one hour and a
Jill: Well, I don’t need more time to do some MS half.
WORD exercises. I can do lots of new things on

6C 7A 8C 9 B 10 D clothes are cheaper.

SCRIPT
The Phoenix is an area of modern streets with shops,
little cafés and restaurants. It’s between the tube
station in the east of the town and the main shopping
centre with a big cinema.
There are great shops in the Phoenix like Up with
kites, a shop which sells beautiful cheap kites. David
is the owner of the shop. Every Thursday morning, he
gives a free lesson to customers on how to make a
beautiful kite.
If you want to shop for clothes, visit Forever Young.
This shop is always crowded with students and young
people because they sell excellent clothes. They look
like the top designers’ clothes, but Forever Young’s
If you’re fond of second-hand stuff, and you can get
up early at weekends, you should visit Flame market.
The second-hand furniture and books are a bit old but
they’re still in good condition. The market closes
before 12 p.m. every weekend.
On weekdays, tourists can enjoy excellent drinks in
some cafés nearby. The cafés open from 8 a.m. to 6
p.m.
On weekdays, from 4 p.m. to 9 p.m., tourists can sit
outside at pavement and enjoy live music. The street
musicians earn money by playing different musical
instruments. You can pay some money to the
musicians and then, listen or even dance to the music
that you want.

PRONUNCIATION (1.0 POINT)

11 D 12 A 13 B 14 A 15 D

LANGUAGE USE (3.0 POINTS)

16 A 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 A 21 D 22 C 23 B 24 C
25 best 26 dancer 27 made 28 interested 29 B 30 A
READING (2.0 POINTS)
31 B 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 C
36 B 37 A 38 D 39 C 40 B
WRITING (2.0 POINTS)

41 My black laptop is bigger than yours.

42 Harry is going to the bank to change money.
43 Is the fire station behind the department store?
44 The airplane arrived at Tân Sơn Nhất Airport at 5 p.m.
45 He thinks drawing is boring. / He finds drawing boring.

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46 Ron is worse at football than Roland.
47 Michelle sometimes buys clothes in that mall.
48 Her uncle usually goes to work by car.
49 Travelling by airplane is safe.
50 I’m getting better at English.