001-10 Nov Paper SBTS Test-1 - 1084580

ALL INDIA SCORE BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23
SBTS-01
TEST-ID : 401
DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 10-11-2022 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Unit & Measurement, Vector
Chemistry : Classification of elements and periodicity in properties, Some basic concept of
chemistry, Some Basic Principles & techniques (IUPAC).
Biology : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom,
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
Aim:free education to all[apul]

All India SBTS–01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2023 / SCORE-BOOSTER / 10-Nov.-2022
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
u te
tit
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
s
t In
igh
L
w
Key Points of New LighteTest Series :
N
• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute
Aim:free education
NLI / 2
to all[apul]
TOPIC : Unit, Measurement & Vector

SECTION-A SECTION-A
      
1. Angle between P and Q is . What is the value of 1. P Q  P. (Q  P) :
  
P. (Q  P) : (1) P2 Q cos 
(1) P2 Q cos 
(2)
(2) Zero
(3) P2 Q sin  cos 
(3) P2 Q sin  cos 
(4) P2 Q sin . (4) P2 Q sin .
2. The unit vector along î  ˆj is : 2. î  ˆj :
(1) k̂ (1) k̂
(2) î  ˆj (2) î  ˆj
î  ˆj î  ˆj
(3) (3)
2 2
u te
(4)
î  ˆj
s tit î  ˆj
(4)
2
t In 2
3.

The resultant of A

i
and B makes an angle  withgh3. A
 
B

A 

B
  L
A and  with B :
e w 
(1)  <  N (1)  < 
(2)  <  if A < B (2)  <  A< B
(3)  <  if A > B (3)  <  A> B

(4)  <  if A = B. (4)  <  A = B.
     
4. If C  A  B : 4. C  A B :
   
(1) | C | is always greater than | A | (1) | C | |A|
       
(2) It is possible to have | C | < | A | and | C | < | B | (2) | C | < | A | |C| < |B|
(3) C is always equal to A + B (3) C A+B
(4) C is never equal to A + B. (4) C A+B

             
5. Given C  A  B and D  B  A . What is the angle 5. C  A B D  B A C D
 
between C and D :
(1) 30o (1) 30o
(2) 60o (2) 60o
(3) 90o (3) 90o

(4) 180o. (4) 180o.
Aim:free education
NLI / 3
to all[apul]
           
6. If | A  B | 3A  B, then the value of | A  B | is : 6. | A  B | 3A  B, | A B|
(1) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2 (1) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
2 2 AB AB
(2) (A  B  )1/ 2 2 2
(2) (A  B  )1/ 2
3 3
(3) (A + B) (3) (A + B)
(4) (A 2  B2  3AB)1/ 2 (4) (A 2  B2  3AB)1/ 2

   
7. A vector A points vertically upward and B points 7. A B
   
towards north. The vector product A  B is : A B
(1) along west (1)
(2) along east (2)
(3) zero (3)
(4) vertically downward. (4)
8. Match the following columns : 8.

Column-I Column-II
te -I -II
a. itu
a. Instrumental errors i. External conditions
such as change in
st i.
temperature,
humidity, etc t In
b. Imperfection in ii. Individual's igh
experimental carelessness L b. ii.
technique ew
c. Personal errors N
iii. Either positive or c. iii.
negative in one
direction
d. Systematic erros iv. Imperfect design or d. iv.
calibration of the
measuring
instruments
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  
9. The torque of a force F  3iˆ  ˆj  5kˆ acting at the 9. r  7 î  3 ˆj  kˆ F  3iˆ  ˆj  5kˆ

point r  7 î  3 ˆj  kˆ about origin:
(1) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ (1) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ
(2) 4iˆ  4ˆj  6kˆ (2) 4iˆ  4ˆj  6kˆ
(3) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ (3) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ
(4) 21iˆ  3ˆj  5kˆ (4) 21iˆ  3ˆj  5kˆ
Aim:free education
NLI / 4
to all[apul]
10. A force vector applied on a mass is represented 
 10. F  6iˆ  8ˆj  10kˆ
as F  6iˆ  8ˆj  10kˆ and the mass accelerates with
1 m/s2
1 m/s2. Then the mass of the body is :
(1) 10 2 kg (1) 10 2 kg
(2) 2 10 kg (2) 2 10 kg
(3) 10 kg (3) 10 kg
(4) 20 kg (4) 20 kg
11. Two vectors having equal magnitudes A, make 11. 

an angle  with each other. The magnitude and
direction of the resultant are respectively :

 (1) 2A cos ,
(1) 2A cos , along bisector 2
2

 (2) A cos 45o
(2) A cos at 45o from one vector 2
2
u te 
(3) 2A sin

, along bisector s tit 2A sin 2 ,
(3)
2
t In
 igh (4) A cos  ,
(4) A cos , along bisector L 2
2
ew
N
12. Which of the sets given below may represent the 12.
magnitude of three vectors adding to zero :
(1) 2, 4, 8 (1) 2, 4, 8
(2) 4, 8, 16 (2) 4, 8, 16
(3) 1, 2, 1 (3) 1, 2, 1
(4) 0.5, 1, 2. (4) 0.5, 1, 2.

         
13. Two vectors A and B are such that A  B  C and 13. A B A B  C
A2 + B2 = C2. If  is the angle between positive  
  A2 + B2 = C2. A B 
directions of A and B then mark the correct
alternative :
(1)  = 0o (1)  = 0o
 
(2)   (2)  
2 2
2 2
(3)   (3)  
3 3
(4)  = . (4)  = .
Aim:free education
NLI / 5
to all[apul]
           
14. If A  B  0 and A  B  AB , then angle between 14. A B  0 A  B   AB A B
 
A and B is :
(1) Zero (1)
(2) /4 (2) /4

(3) /2 (3) /2
(4) . (4) .
15. The sum of the magnitudes of two vectors is 15. 18
18 and the magnitude of their resultant is 12. If
12
the resultant is perpendicular to one of the vectors,
then what are the magnitudes of the two vectors :
(1) 5, 13 (1) 5, 13
(2) 6, 12 (2) 6, 12
(3) 7, 11 (3) 7, 11
(4) 8, 10. (4) 8, 10.
16. A force of ( 3iˆ  4ˆj ) newton acts on a body and 16. ( 3iˆ  4ˆj )
displaces it by ( 3iˆ  4ˆj ) metres. The work done by ( 3iˆ  4ˆj )

the force is:
te
(1) 10 J
u
tit12 J
(1) 10 J
(2)
s
(2) 12 J
t In (3) 16 J
gh (4) 25 J.
(3) 16 J
(4) 25 J. Li
17. Match the following columns : ew 17.
Column-I Column-II
N
-I -II
a. Size of atomic i. 10 –15
m
a. i. 10–15 m
nucleus
b. 1 parsec ii. 9.46 × 1015 m

b. 1 ii. 9.46 × 1015 m
–14
c. Size of a proton iii. 10 m
c. iii. 10–14 m
16
d. 1 light year iv. 3.08 × 10 m
d. 1 iv. 3.08 × 1016 m
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
       
18. A and B are two vectors and  is angle between 18. A B  | A  B | (A B) ,
   
them, if | A  B | (A B) , the value of  is : 
(1) 45o (1) 45o

(2) 30o (2) 30o
(3) 90o (3) 90o
(4) 60o. (4) 60o.
Aim:free education
NLI / 6
to all[apul]
19. If vectors î  3ˆj  5kˆ and î  3ˆj  akˆ are equal 19. î  3ˆj  5kˆ î  3ˆj  akˆ
vectors, then the value of a is : a
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) –5 (2) –5
(3) – 3 (3) – 3
(4) 4. (4) 4.
   
20. If the two vectors A  2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ and B  î  2jˆ  nkˆ 20. A  2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ B  î  2jˆ  nkˆ
are perpendicular, then the value of n is : n
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4.
  
21. If the angle between the non-zero vector A and 21. A B 120o
  
B be 120o and its resultant C : C :
(1) C must be equal to | A  B | (1) C | A B |

u te
(2) C must be less than | A  B |
s titC
(2) | A B |
(3) C must be greater than | A  B |

t In (3) C | A B |
igh (4) C
(4) C may be equal to | A  B | . L | A B |
22. A vector is not changed if : ew 22. :

N
(1) it is rotated through an arbitrary angle (1)
(2) it is multipled by an arbitrary scale (2)
(3) it is cross multipled by a unit vector (3)
(4) it is slide parallel to itself. (4)

23. Two vectors are perpendicular, if : 23.
   
(1) A B  1 (1) A B  1
     
(2) A  B  0 (2) A  B  0
   
(3) A  B  0 (3) A  B  0
   
(4) A  B  AB . (4) A  B  AB .
   
24. The magnitude of a vector, on the addition of two 24. 6i  7 j 3i  4 j
   
vectors 6 i  7 j and 3 i  4 j , is :
(1) 132 (2) 136 (1) 132 (2) 136
(3) 160 (4) 202 . (3) 160 (4) 202 .
Aim:free education
NLI / 7
to all[apul]
2
25. A force F is given by : F = at + bt , where 't' 25. F F = at + bt2, t
represents time. What are dimensions of a and b: a b
–3 2 4
(1) [MLT ] and [ML T ] (1) [MLT–3] [ML2T4]
(2) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4] (2) [MLT–3] [MLT–4]
(3) [MLT–1] and [MLT0] (3) [MLT–1] [MLT0]
(4) [MLT–4] and [MLT1] (4) [MLT–4] [MLT1]
26. If L and R denote inductance and resistance 26. L R L/R
respectively then the dimensions of L/R are :
(1) [M1L0T0Q–1]
(1) [M1L0T0Q–1]
(2) [M0L0TQ0]
(2) [M0L0TQ0]
(3) [M0L1T–1Q0] (3) [M0L1T–1Q0]
(4) [M–1LT0Q–1] (4) [M–1LT0Q–1]

27. An experiment measured quantities a, b, c and 27. a, b c x = ab2/c3
then x is calculated from x = ab 2 /c 3 . If the x a, b, c
percentage errors in a, b, c are ±1%, ±3% and ±2%
±1%, ±3% ±2% x
respectively, the percentage error in x can be :
(1) ±13%
(1) ±13%
u te
(2) ±7%
tit
(2) ±7%
(3) ±4% s
(3) ±4%
t In
(4) ±1%
g h (4) ±1%
28. Li 28.
The radius of a ball is (5.4 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage (5.4 ± 0.2) cm
error in the volume of the ball is :
ew
(1) 11% N (1) 11%
(2) 4% (2) 4%
(3) 7% (3) 7%
(4) 9%. (4) 9%.
29. The density of a cube is measured by measuring 29.
its mass and lengths of its side. If the maximum
errors in the measurement of mass and length are
4% 3%
4% and 3% respectively, the maximum error in the
measurement of density would be :
(1) 9% (1) 9%
(2) 13% (2) 13%
(3) 12% (3) 12%
(4) 7%. (4) 7%.

30. Dimensions of electrical resistance is : 30.
(1) [ML2T–3A–1] (1) [ML2T–3A–1]
(2) [ML2T–3A–2] (2) [ML2T–3A–2]
(3) [ML3T–3A–2] (3) [ML3T–3A–2]
(4) [ML–1T3A2] (4) [ML–1T3A2]
Aim:free education
NLI / 8
to all[apul]
31. SI unit of magnetic flux is : 31. SI
(1) Tesla (1)
(2) Oersted (2)
(3) Weber (3)
(4) Gauss. (4)
32. Consider the following rules of significant figures. 32.
I. All the non-zero digits are significant. I.

II. All the zeroes between two non-zero digits are II.
significant.
III.
III. The terminal or trailing zero(s) in a number
without a decimal point are significant.
Which of the above statemen(s) is/are correct?
(1) I and II (1) I II
(2) II and III (2) II III
(3) I and III

u teIII
(3) I
(4) I, II and III. s titI, II III.

(4)
n
33. tI
Dimension of Plank's constant is same as that of : h33.
g
(1) Momentum Li (1)
w
(2) Torque Ne (2)
(3) Angular impulse (3)
(4) Moment of inertia (4)
34. If force between two particles at distance r is given 34. r F = F0e–r

by F = F0e–r. Then dimension of  is : 
(1) [L–1]
(1) [L–1]
(2) [L0] (2) [L0]
(3) [L] (3) [L]
–1
(4) [MLT ] (4) [MLT–1]
   
35. If F  60 i  15 j  3k N and v  2i  4 j  5k , then 35. F  60 i  15 j  3k N v  2i  4 j  5k
power is :
(1) 195 watt (1) 195
(2) 45 watt (2) 45
(3) 75 watt (3) 75
(4) 100 watt (4) 100
Aim:free education
NLI / 9
to all[apul]
SECTION-B SECTION-B
36. If velocities of particles at positions x1 and x2 are 36. x1 x2 v1 v2

v 22  v12 v 22  v12
v1 and v2 and A  . Then dimension of A is: A . A
x12  x 22 x12  x 22
(1) [LT–4] (1) [LT–4]
(2) [T–2] (2) [T–2]

(3) [T2]
(3) [T2]
(4)
(4) None of these.
37. Maxwell is unit of : 37.
(1) Magnetic flux (1)
(2) Magnetic field (2)
(3) Electric energy density (3)
(4) Luminous intensity. (4)
38. The velocity v of a point at time t is given by : 38. t v = at + b/(t+c)

v = at + b/(t + c) The dimensions of a, b and c are a, b c
respectively :
(1) Lu t; eT and LT
2 2
(1) L2; T and LT2

s tit –2
(2) LT ; L and T
(2) LT –2; L and T
t In (3) LT ; LT and L
gh (4) L; LT and T
2
(3) LT 2; LT and L
(4) L; LT and T2 Li 2
39. A wire of length   6  0.06 cm and radius ew 39.   6  0.06 cm,

r  0.5  0.005 cm and mass m  0.3  0.003 gm.
N r  0.5  0.005 cm m  0.3  0.003 gm
Maximum percentage error in density is :
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 6.8.
(4) 6.8.
   t t
40. If vectors A  cos t î  sin tjˆ and 40. A  cos t î  sin tjˆ B  cos î  sin ˆj
2 2
 t t
B  cos î  sin ˆj are functions of time, then the
2 2
value of t at which they are orthogonal to each
other is: 
(1) t 
 2
(1) t 
2

(2) t 
 
(2) t 

(3) t = 0
(3) t = 0

 (4) t 
(4) t  4
4
Aim:free education
NLI / 10
to all[apul]
41. If frequency (f) depends upon tension (T) length () 41. (f) (T) R
and mass per unit length (m) and are related as (m) f  T x y m z x,y
f  Tx y mz value of x,y and z are:
z
1 1
(1) x = ,z = – , y = –1 1 1
2 2 (1) x = ,z = – , y = –1
2 2
(2) x = 1 , z = 1 , y = –1
(2) x = 1 , z = 1 , y = –1
(3) x = 2, y = 3, 2=2 (3) x = 2, y = 3, 2=2
(4) x = 2, 2 = 1, y = 1 (4) x = 2, 2 = 1, y = 1
42. Five equal forces of 10 N each are applied at one 42. 10 N

point and all are lying in one plane. If the angles
between them are equal, the resultant of these
forces will be :
(1) zero (1) zero
(2) 10 N (2) 10 N
(3) 20 N (3) 20 N
(4) 10 2 N (4) 10 2 N
  
u te  
43. The angle that the vector A  2i  2 j makes with 43.
s tit A  2i  2 j y-
y-axis is :
t In (1) tan (3/2)
–1
gh (2) 45
(1) tan–1(3/2)
(2) 45o Li 0
(3) sin–1(2/3) ew (3) sin–1(2/3)
(4) cos–1(3/2)
N (4) cos–1(3/2)
       
44. The angle between the vector i  j and  j  k  44. i  j j  k
is :
(1) 90o
(1) 90o
(2) 180o
(2) 180o
(3) 00
(3) 00
(4) 600
(4) 600

45. What is the value of linear velocity, if 45.   3iˆ  4jˆ  kˆ
  
  3iˆ  4jˆ  kˆ and r  5iˆ  6jˆ  6kˆ : r  5iˆ  6jˆ  6kˆ
(1) 6iˆ  2jˆ  3kˆ (1) 6iˆ  2jˆ  3kˆ
(2) 6iˆ  2jˆ  8kˆ (2) 6iˆ  2jˆ  8kˆ
(3) 4iˆ  13jˆ  5kˆ (3) 4iˆ  13jˆ  5kˆ
(4) 18iˆ  13jˆ  2kˆ . (4) 18iˆ  13jˆ  2kˆ
Aim:free education
NLI / 11
to all[apul]
46. Which of the following relation is certainly wrong 46. p ,
dimensionally where p  pressure,   density,
 ,c ,  c
c  speed of light,  wavelength, h  height,
t  time, v velocity : t v :
1 2 1 2
(1) h  gt (1) h  gt
2 2
v2 v2
(2) h  (2) h 
2g 2g
(3)  = vt (3)  = vt
1 1
(4) P  3c 2 /  (4) P  3c 2 / 
   
47. If the vectors P  aiˆ  ajˆ  3kˆ and Q  aiˆ  2ˆj  kˆ are 47. P  aiˆ  ajˆ  3kˆ Q  aiˆ  2jˆ  kˆ
perpendicular to each other, then the positive a
value of a is :
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) –1 (3) –1
(4) 0
(4) 0
t
e  
       
48. Let A  5 i  4 j and B  7.5 i  6 j . If B  kA , than u
48. tit A  5 i  4 j
  
B  7.5 i  6 j .
 
B  kA , k
find k :
Ins :
(1) 5 ht
g (1) 5
(2) 2.5 Li (2) 2.5
ew
(3) 1.5 N (3) 1.5
(4) –1.5. (4) –1.5.
49. Identify the pair whose dimension are equal : 49.
(1) torque and work (1)
(2) stress and energy (2)
(3) stress and force (3)
(4) force and energy (4)
50. Given that the period T of oscillation of gas bubble 50.

from a explosion under water depend upon P,d T P,d E
and E. Where p is the pressure, d is density of P ,d E
water and E is the total energy of explosion. Find T
the relation of T.
kd1/ 3E1/ 2 kE1/ 3 d1/ 2 kd1/ 3E1/ 2 kE1/ 3 d1/ 2

(1) T  (2) T  (1) T  (2) T 
P5 / 6 P1/ 6 P5 / 6 P1/ 6
kE1/ 3 d1/ 2 kd1/ 3E1/ 2 kE1/ 3 d1/ 2 kd1/ 3E1/ 2

(3) T  (4) T  (3) T  (4) T 
P5 / 6 P1/ 6 P5 / 6 P1/ 6
Aim:free education
NLI / 12
to all[apul]
TOPIC : Classification of elements and periodicity in properties, Some basic concept of chemistry,
Some Basic Principles & techniques (IUPAC).
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207
SECTION-A SECTION-A
51. Given below are two statements : 51.

One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(A) (R)
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
(A) :
A solution is heated to raise the temperature by 5
units mass % and mole fraction will remain
unaffected. % 5
Reason (R):
In mass % and mole fraction volume term does (R) :

not involve.
%
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

u te
(1) (A) (R)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false st(2)it (A)
In
(R)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct t
explanation of (A). g h (3) (A) (R) (R), (A)
Li
(4)
correct explanation of (A).
w
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
e (4) (A) (R) (R), (A)
N
52. How much water should be added in order to 52. HNO3 (200 mL, 0.5 M)
dilute an aqueous solution of HNO3 (200 mL, 0.5
M) to decimolar solution :
(1) 1000 mL (1) 1000 mL
(2) 100 L (2) 100 L
(3) 800 L (3) 800 L
(4) 0.8 L (4) 0.8 L
53. Calculate the number of atoms in 9.8 g of sulphuric 53. 9.8 g H2SO4
acid :
5NA
5NA (1)
(1) 10
10
7NA
7NA (2)
(2) 10
10
4NA
4NA (3)
(3) 10
10
(4) 7NA
(4) 7NA
Aim:free education
NLI / 13
to all[apul]
54. For the given reaction 54.
2A + 3B  4C 2A + 3B  4C
How many moles of C will be formed by reacting C A 10 B 24

10 moles of A and 24 moles of B :
(1) 32 (1) 32
(2) 20 (2) 20
(3) 10 (3) 10
(4) 18 (4) 18
55. The number of atoms in 6.4 g of a tetratomic gas 55. 6.4 g 8

having vapour density as 8 are :
(1) 0.4 NA (1) 0.4 NA
(2) 0.4 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 NA (3) 0.8 NA
(4) 1.6 NA (4) 1.6 NA

u te
stit
Statement I:
t In I:
g h
Li
20 gm of S and 20 gm S have same number of
6 2 20 S 6
20 S2
atoms.
ew
Statement II : N II :
20 gm of S8 not have same no. of atoms as in 20
S8 20 S6 20 S2 20
gm of S6 and 20 gm of S2.

most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) I II
57. How much volume of CO2 will be produced by 57. 36 g

burning 36 g of carbon in the presence of oxygen: CO2
(1) 22.4 L (1) 22.4 L
(2) 11.2 L (2) 11.2 L

(3) 112 L
(3) 112 L
(4) 67.2 L
(4) 67.2 L
Aim:free education
NLI / 14
to all[apul]
58. How many moles of H are there in 3 moles of 58. CH3COOH H
CH3COOH :
(1) 4×3
(1) 4×3
(2) 3×3
(2) 3×3
(3) 3NA (3) 3NA
(4) 12NA (4) 12NA
59. The relation of total number of electrons in 2 g of 59. 2 g D2O 1.8 g H2O
D2O to that in 1.8 g of H2O is : :
(1) Double (1)
(2) Same (2)
(3) Triple (3)
(4) One fourth (4)
60. Mole fraction of NaOH in 0.1 m aqueous solution 60. 0.1 m NaOH
of it :
(1) 0.0017
(1) 0.0017
(2) 0.17
(2) 0.17
u te
tit
(3) 0.017 (3) 0.017
s
(4) 1.7
t In (4) 1.7
10 g of A is mixed with 15 g of B. Find the mass %g h61. A 10 g B 15 g A
61.
of A in the binary solution : L i %
w
(1) 40% Ne (1) 40%
(2) 20% (2) 20%
(3) 10% (3) 10%
(4) 67% (4) 67%
62. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood 62. (C6H12O6) 0.9 gL–1,
is 0.9 gL–1, what will be the molarity of glucose in
blood?
(1) 5 M
(1) 5 M
(2) 50 M
(2) 50 M
(3) 0.005 M (3) 0.005 M
(4) 0.5 M (4) 0.5 M
63. The number of significant figures in 6.002 are : 63. 6.002
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) Infinite (3)
(4) 4 (4) 4
Aim:free education
NLI / 15
to all[apul]
64. The number of atoms in 120 amu of Ca are : 64. Ca 120 amu
(1) 10 (1) 10
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 3 NA (3) 3 NA
(4) 30 NA (4) 30 NA
65. If the ratio of molar mass and empirical mass is 65.

2, the find the molecular formula of the compound CH2Cl :
having empirical formula as CH2Cl :
(1) CH2Cl
(1) CH2Cl
(2) CH4Cl2
(2) CH4Cl2
(3) C2H4Cl2
(3) C2H4Cl2
(4) C2H4Cl (4) C2H4Cl
66. The final volume of the solution of NaOH (0.2 M, 66. NaOH (0.2 M, 200 mL)
200 mL) if it is diluted to 0.05 M will be : 0.05 M
(1) 600 mL (1) 600 mL
(2) 800 mL (2) 800 mL

u te
tit
(3) 4000 mL (3) 4000 mL
s
(4) 1000 mL
t In (4) 1000 mL
Find the molality of the solution if 4 g of NaOH isg h67. 44 g 4 g NaOH
Li
67.
present in 44 g of the solution :
(1) 2.5 m ew (1) 2.5 m

N
(2) 0.25 m (2) 0.25 m
(3) 25 m (3) 25 m
(4) 90.9 m (4) 90.9 m
68. The volume of CO2 evolved when 50% impure 68. 50 % 100 g
limestone weighing 100 g is heated : CO2
(1) 22.4 L (1) 22.4 L
(2) 67.2 L (2) 67.2 L
(3) 11.2 L (3) 11.2 L
(4) 44.8 L (4) 44.8 L
69. If equal masses of H2 and CH4 are taken together 69. H2 CH4
then find their molar ratio :
(1) 1 : 8 (1) 1 : 8
(2) 8 : 1 (2) 8 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
Aim:free education
NLI / 16
to all[apul]
70. The number of moles present in 18 mL of H2O at 70. 18 mL
room temperature are : :
18 18
(1) (1)
22400 22400
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) NA (3) NA
18 NA 18 NA
(4) (4)
22400 22400
71. When a neutral atom is converted into an anion 71.

its :
(1)
(1) Atomic weight increases
(2)
(2) Atomic weight decreases
(3) Size decreases (3)
(4) Size increases (4)

72. Which of the following species will have the 72. Z effective
maximum and the minimum Z effective
respectivally
+2
Mg, Mg , Al , Al +3
te
(1)tuMg Al
Mg, Mg+2, Al , Al+3
(1) Mg and Al st(2)i Mg

In
+2
Al+3
+2
(2) Mg and Al +3
ht (3) Al +3
Mg
g
Li
+3
(3) Al and Mg +2
(4) Mg Al
(4) Mg+2 and Al
ew 73.
73. Match the following : N
Atomic Number Official Name
A. 106 i. Nobelium
A. 106 i. Nobelium
B. 111 ii. Rontgenium
B. 111 ii. Rontgenium
C. 116 iii. Seaborgium C. 116 iii. Seaborgium
D. 102 iv. Livermorium D. 102 iv. Livernorium
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
74. The covalent and vanderwaal's radii of H atom 74. H
respectively are :
(1) 0.37 Å, 0.8 Å
(1) 0.37 Å, 0.8 Å
(2) 0.8 Å, 0.37 Å
(2) 0.8 Å, 0.37 Å
(3) 0.8 Å, 0.8 Å (3) 0.8 Å, 0.8 Å
(4) 0.37 Å, 0.37 Å (4) 0.37 Å, 0.37 Å
Aim:free education
NLI / 17
to all[apul]
75. Choose the endothermic process : 75.
(1) F(g) + e–  F–(g) (1) F(g) + e–  F–(g)
(2) Cl(g)  Cl+ (g) + e– (2) Cl(g)  Cl+ (g) + e–
(3) O–(g) + e–  O2– (g) (3) O–(g) + e–  O2– (g)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) Both 2 and 3

Statement I : I:
Metals comprise more than seventy eight per cent
of the known elements.
II :
Statement II :
Nonmetals, which are located at the top of the
periodic table, are more than twenty in number.
In the Light of the above statements, choose the
most appropnate answer from the options given
below :
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect. (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (3) ut

e I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. st(4)it I II
In
77. If the ionic radius of K and F are nearly same h77.
+ – t K +
F –
1.34 Å,
1.34 Å, then the atomic radii of K and iFg K F
respectively will be : L
e w (1) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å
(1) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å N
(2) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å
(2) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å
(3) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å (3) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å
(4) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (4) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å
78. For an element M, the successive ionisation 78. M 7.9 eV,

energies are 7.9 eV, 15.5 eV, 340.8 eV and 520.6 15.5 eV, 340.8 eV 520.6 eV
eV respectively. The formula of its oxide will be :
(1) MO (1) MO
(2) M2O (2) M2O
(3) MO2 (3) MO2
(4) M2O3 (4) M2O3
79. Choose the correct order of metallic charater : 79.

(1) P < Si < Na < Mg < Be (1) P < Si < Na < Mg < Be
(2) Si < P < Mg < Be < Na (2) Si < P < Mg < Be < Na
(3) Na < Mg < Be < Si < P (3) Na < Mg < Be < Si < P
(4) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na (4) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
Aim:free education
NLI / 18
to all[apul]
80. Choose the incorrect order of size : 80.
(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ (1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+
(2) I+ < I < I– (2) I+ < I < I–
(3) Li+ < Na+ < K+ (3) Li+ < Na+ < K+
(4) F– > O2– < N3– (4) F– > O2– < N3–
81. The element with atomic number 33 belongs to 81. 33

which period and group in the periodic table : :
(1) Period 15, Group 4 (1) 15, 4
(2) Period 3, Group 15 (2) 3, 15
(3) Period 4, Group 15 (3) 4, 15
(4) Period 3, Group 16 (4) 3, 16
82. The least electronegative element among the 82.

following :
(1) Cl
(1) Cl
(2) F
(2) F
(3) S
u te
t(4)it P
(3) S
s
(4) P
t In
83. Amphoteric oxide among the following is :
igh83.
L
(1) N2O
ew (1) N O 2
(2) Al2O3 N (2) Al2O3
(3) PbO (3) PbO
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3

84. Four elements are given, choose the correct order 84.
of their first ionisation potential :
i. 1s2 ii. 1s2, 2s22p6 i. 1s2 ii. 1s2, 2s22p6
2 2 2 2 2 1
iii. 1s , 2s 2p iv. 1s , 2s 2p iii. 1s2, 2s2 2p2 iv. 1s2, 2s22p1
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (1) i > ii > iii > iv
(2) iv > iii > ii > i (2) iv > iii > ii > i
(3) ii > iii > iv > i (3) ii > iii > iv > i
(4) ii > iv > iii > i (4) ii > iv > iii > i
85. The _________ of any given element is not 85. _________
constant, it varies depending on the element to :
which it is bound :
(1)
(1) Ionic size
(2)
(2) Ionic charge
(3)
(3) Electronegativity
(4)
(4) Ionisation energy
Aim:free education
NLI / 19
to all[apul]
SECTION-B SECTION-B
86. Total number of bridge elements in periodic table: 86.
(1) two (1)
(2) three (2)
(3) seven (3)
(4) eight (4)
87. The element which releases maximum energy 87.

on accepting an electron is :
(1) Cl (1) Cl
(2) F (2) F
(3) I (3) I
(4) Br (4) Br
88. The 1st ionisation potential (eV) of Be and B 88. Be B

respectively are :
(1) 8.29, 8.29
(1) 8.29, 8.29
(2) 9.32, 9.32
(2) 9.32, 9.32
te
(3) 9.32, 8.29
u
t(4)it 8.29, 9.32
(3) 9.32, 8.29
s
(4) 8.29, 9.32
t In
89. The correct order of electronegativity of carbon h 89.
g
in ethane, ethene and ethyne is : Li (1) < <
(1) Ethane < ethene < ethyne e w
N (2) < <
(2) Ethyne < ethene < ethane
(3) < <
(3) Ethene < ethyne < ethane
(4) Ethene < ethane < ethyne (4) < <
90. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name: 90. IUPAC
(1) 3-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane (1) 3- -4,4-
(2) 4,4-dimethyl-3-ethylheptane (2) 4,4- -3-
(3) 5-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane (3) 5- -4,4-
(4) 4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane (4) 4,4- ( )-3-
91. The compound CH3  CH  CH  CH3 contains : 91. CH3  CH  CH  CH3

| | | |
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(1) 12-10 H atoms only (1) 12-10 H
(2) Two 20 and 12-10 H atoms (2) 20 and 12-10 H
(3) Two 30 'H' atoms only (3) 30 'H'
(4) Twelve 10 and two 30 H atoms (4) 10 30 H
Aim:free education
NLI / 20
to all[apul]
92. Correct IUPAC name for the given compound is : 92. IUPAC
(1) 4-Methyl hex-2-ene (1) 4- -2-
(2) 3-methyl hex-2-en-5-yne (2) 3- -2- -5-
(3) 4-methyl hex-4-en-1-yne (3) 4- -4- -1-
(4) 3-methyl hex-5-yne-2-ene (4) 3- -5- -2-
93. The compound which contains all the four 10, 20, 93. 10, 20, 30 40
30, 40 carbon atoms is :
(1) 3, 3-dimethyl pentane (1) 3, 3-
(2) 2, 3, 4-trimethyl pentane (2) 2, 3, 4-
(3) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane (3) 2, 3-
(4) 2, 3, 3-trimethyl pentane (4) 2, 3, 3-
94. Correct IUPAC name for following compound is : 94. IUPAC
CN CN
u te
stit
(1) 1-cyano cyclopentane t In (1) 1-
(2) Cyanopentane nitrile igh (2)
L
(3) Cyclopentyl carbonitrile ew (3)
(4) Cyclopentane carbonitrile

N (4)
95. The correct decreasing order of priority for 95.

functional groups of organic compounds in IUPAC
system :
(1) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOR
(1) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOR
(2) –COOH, –CONH2, –COOR, –CHO
(2) –COOH, –CONH2, –COOR, –CHO
(3) –COOH, –COOR, –CONH2, –CHO (3) –COOH, –COOR, –CONH2, –CHO
(4) –CHO, –COOH, –COOR, –CONH2 (4) –CHO, –COOH, –COOR, –CONH2
96. IUPAC name of the following compounds is : 96. IUPAC
OH OH
CN CN
Br Br
(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol (1) 4- -3-
(2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxy benzonitrile (2) 2- -5-
(3) 2-Cyano-4-Hyroxy bromobenzene (3) 2- -4-
(4) 6-Bromo-3-Hydroxy benzonitrile (4) 6- -3-
Aim:free education
NLI / 21
to all[apul]
97. Which is the example of non benzenoid 97.
compound :
(1)
(1) Benzene
(2) Aniline (2)
(3) Naphthalene (3)

(4) Tropolone (4)
98. Degree of unsaturation of following compounds 98.

:
a. C6H5N i. 2 a. C6H5N i. 2
b. C5H6Br2 ii. 3 b. C5H6Br2 ii. 3
c. C6H8O2 iii. 11 c. C6H8O2 iii. 11
d. C20H21NO2 iv. 5 d. C20H21NO2 iv. 5
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
99. The IUPAC name of the compound 99. IUPAC
u te
OH
stit OH
is :
t In
gh
O O
Li
ew (1) 2- -3- -1,3-
(1) 2-ethenyl-3-methyl cyclohexa-1,3-diene N
(2) 2,5-dimethyl hepta-2,6-dienoid acid (2) 2,5- -2,6-
(3) 2,6-dimethyl hepta-2,5-dienoic acid (3) 2,6- -2,5-
(4) 2,3-dimethyl epoxyethane (4) 2,3-
100. The correct structure of 4-bromo-3-methyl 100. 4- -3- -1-

but-1-ene is :
(1) Br – CH = C(CH3)2
(1) Br – CH = C(CH3)2
(2) CH2 = CH – CH(CH3) – CH2Br
(2) CH2 = CH – CH(CH3) – CH2Br
(3) CH2 = C(CH3)CH2CH2Br
(3) CH2 = C(CH3)CH2CH2Br
(4) CH3 – C(CH3) = CHCH2 – Br (4) CH3 – C(CH3) = CHCH2 – Br
Aim:free education
NLI / 22
to all[apul]
TOPIC : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
PART–1–[SECTION–A] PART–1–[SECTION–A]
101. Isolated metabolic reactions outside the body of 101.

an organism in a test tube is :
(1) Living (1)
(2) Non-living (2)
(3) Neither living nor non-living (3)
(4) None of these (4)
102. The process by which anything is grouped into 102.

convenient categories based on some easily
observable characters is :
(1)
(1) Nomenclature
(2)
(2) Identification
(3)
(3) Characterisation
(4)
te
(4) Classification
103. All categories of overall taxonomic arrangement 103. it u

s t
together constitute the :
t In (1)
(1) Taxonomic category
igh (2)
(2) Taxonomic hierarchy L
w
Ne
(3)
(3) Systematics
(4) Taxon (4)
Statement I : I:
Cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature

of life forms.
II :
Statement II :
Reproduction is a characteristic of living organism.
correct answer from the options given below
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) II I
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
105. Group of order is included in : 105.
(1) Family (2) Order (1) (2)
(3) Class (4) Species (3) (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 23
to all[apul]
106. Read care fully and findout the correct statement 106.
from the given
(a) Twin characteristics of reproduction are in- (a)
crease in mass and number of individual
(b) A multicellular organism grows by cell division
(b)
(c) Cell division occurs in all tissues to replace lost
(c)
cells
(d) Taxonomical groups are morphological aggre-
gates (d)
(1) c, d (2) a, b (1) c, d (2) a, b
(3) a, c (4) Only b (3) a, c (4) b
107. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 107.

(1) Plant growth is continuous throughout their life
(1)
(2) In animal growth is seen only up to a certain age
(2)
(3) Plant do not grow continuously through out their
life (3)
(4) None of these (4)
108. Identify correct statement about life : 108. u te

(1) Self replicating s tit
(1)
t In (2)
gh (3)
(2) Self organising
(3) Evolving Li
(4) All of these ew (4)
N
109. Find the correct option regarding this diagram : 109.
(a) Undergo mitosis

(a)
(b) Meiosis occurs at the time of sexual
reproduction. (b)
(c) Cell wall is made of polysaccharide and amino (c)
acid.
(d) Belongs to primitive kingdom monera. (d)
(1) a, b (1) a, b
(2) c, d (2) c, d
(3) a, c, d (3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d (4) b, c, d
Aim:free education
NLI / 24
to all[apul]
110. In binomial nomenclature, every organism has: 110.

(1) Two names, one latin, other Greek (1)
(2) Two names, one scientific other common (2)
(3) Two names by two scientists (3)
(4) One scientific name with two words, a generic and (4)
specific.
111. Select the correct statement in the following uni- 111.

versal rules of Nomenclature :
a.
a. Biological names are generally in Latin and
written in italics. They are Latinised or derived
from Latin irrespective of their origin.
b. The first word in a biological name represents b.

the genus while the second component
denotes the specific epithet.
c.
c. Both the words in a biological name, when
handwritten, are separately underlined, or
printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin.
u te
d. The first word denoting the genus starts with
a capital letter while the specific epithet starts s tit
d.
with a small letter. t In

igh (1) a, b
(1) a, b are correct L
(2) a, c and d are correct e w (2) a, c d
N (3) a, b, c d
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct
(4) a, b and c are correct (4) a, b c
112. Match the following column I and column II : 112. I II

Column I Column II I II
(i) Mango (a) Felis (i) (a)
(ii) Leopard (b) Mangifera indica (ii) (b)
(iii) Tiger (c) Panthera pardus (iii) (c)
(iv) Cat (d) Panthera tigris (iv) (d)
(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b (2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a (3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d (4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
113. Plant Datura is placed in which family : 113.

(1) Cruciferae (1)
(2) Convolvulaceae (2)
(3) Solanaceae (3)
(4) Leguminaceae (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 25
to all[apul]
Statement I : I:
For single celled organism growth and reprodcution are

not very clear.
Statement II : II :
Reproduction can not be an-inclusive defining
characteristic of living organism.

(1) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) II I
115. A place where wild animals are kept in protected 115.

environments under human care :
(1)
(1) Museum
u
(2)te
(2) Zoological park
s tit
(3) Herbarium
t In (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) igh (4) (2) (3)
L 116.
116. Find correct option regarding this diagram:
ew
N
(a) Colour of this organism appear as yellow, (a)

brown blue and red but not green.
(b) Releases toxins that kills fishes and other (b)

marine animal
(c) Two flagella differ in their position (c)
(d) Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan. (d)
(1) a, b (1) a, b
(2) b and c (2) b c
(3) a, b and c (3) a, b c
(4) b, c, and d (4) b, c, d
Aim:free education
NLI / 26
to all[apul]
117. Taxonomic categories showing hierarchial 117.
arrangement is given below. Can you tell in which
order are they arranged :
(1) Haphazard order (1)
(2) Odd order (2)
(3) Descending order (3)

(4) Ascending order te
(4)
u
118. The individual statement of a key is : 118. ti
t
s
(1) Couplet
t In (1)
(2) Lead
igh (2)
L
(3) Both (1) & (2)
ew (3) (1) (2)
(4) Museum N (4)
119. Which contains that actual account of habitat and
119.
distribution of plants of area :
(1) Flora (1)
(2) Monograph (2)
(3) Catalogue (3)
(4) Key (4)
Statement I :
I:
Biodiversity is known as the number and types of
organisms present on earth
Statement II :
II :
Self consciousness is the defining property of all living
organism.
(4) I II
Aim:free education
NLI / 27
to all[apul]
121. NBRI is located at : 121.
(1) Lucknow (1)
(2) Delhi (2)
(3) England (3)
(4) Dehradun (4)
122. Branch of biology dealing with classification of 122.
living organism is :
(1)
(1) Systematics
(2)
(2) Taxa
(3) Ecology (3)
(4) Genetics (4)
Statement I : I:
Photosynthesis are occur in insectivorous plant.
Statement II : II :
Keys are analytical in nature.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1)
u te I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect tit I
(2)
s II
t In (3) II I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. g h (4) I II
L i
124. ICBN stands for :
ew 124. :
N
(1) International code for botanical nomenclature (1)
(2) International code of biological nomenclature
(2)
(3) International code of biochemical naming
(3)
(4) International classification of biological
nomenclature (4)
125. Naming system proposed by Linnaeus was : 125.
(1) Common system (1)
(2) Vernacular system (2)
(3) Binomial system (3)
(4) Trinomial system (4)
126. Find out the correct statements: 126.
(a) Isolated metabolic reactions can be demon-
strated in vitro are not living things (a)
(b) All living organisms have ability to sense their (b)

surroundings (c)
(c) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
and non seasonal breeders
(1) a, b, c
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(2) a, b
(3) b, c (3) b, c
(4) Only a (4) a
Aim:free education
NLI / 28
to all[apul]
127. Asexual reproduction can takes place by : 127.
(1) Budding (1)
(2) Regeneration (2)
(3) Fission (3)
(4) All of these (4)
Statement I : I:
The boundaries of the kingdom protista are not well-

defined
II :
Statement II :
Most fungi are saprophytic and absorb organic matter

from dead substance.

(1) I II
(2)
u te I II
tit II
s
(3) I
t In
g h (4) I II
129. Systema Naturae was written by : Li 129.

e w
(1) Linnaeus N (1)
(2) Aristotle (2)
(3) Mayr (3)
(4) Lamark (4)
130. Description on any one taxon is known as : 130.
(1) Monograph (1)
(2) Fauna (2)
(3) Flora (3)
(4) Couplet (4)
131. Identifly family of Mango : 131.

(1) Anacardiacae (1)
(2) Solanaceae (2)
(3) Poaceae (3)
(4) None (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 29
to all[apul]
132. Which one of the following statement is/are true 132.
regarding bacterial importance : :
a) Bacteria are the most abundant in nature. a) .
b) The majority are important decomposers. b) .
c) Lactobacillus helpful in making curd from milk, c)
d) Some bacillus and filamentous bacteria help d)
in production of antibiotics. .
e) Rhizobium help in fixing nitrogen in legume e)
roots
(1) a, b & d (1) a, b d
(2) a, b & c (2) a, b c
(3) c, d & e (3) c, d e
(4) a, b, c, d & e (4) a, b, c, d e
133. Which of the following statements with respect to 133. ?

bacteria is incorrect ?
(1)
(1) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission (2) .
(2) Under unfavourable conditions, they produce spores. (3)
(3) Bacteria reproduce by a sort of sexual reproduction
by adopting a primitive type of DNA transfer u te
(4) All mycoplasma are pathogenic s tit
(4)
t
134. Given below are two statements one is labelled as 134.
In (A)
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reasong h
(R) Li (R)
Assertion (A) e w (A)

N
Kingdom Protista forms a link with the other kingdoms.
Reason (R)
(R)
It is believed that Protista evolved from the kingdom Monera
and is the ancestor of multicellular eukaryotes.
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
135. Which among the following is correct : 135.

(1) Higher the taxon (taxonomic category) more the (1)
similar characters
(2)
(2) Lower the taxon more the diversity
(3) Lower the taxon more the resemblances (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 30
to all[apul]
PART–1–[SECTION–B] PART–1–[SECTION–B]
136. What is the family of man : 136.
(1) Hominidae (1)
(2) Felidae (2)
(3) Mammalia (3)
(4) Chordata. (4)
137. Class mammalia includes families : 137.
(1) Felide (1)
(2) Canidae (2)
(3) Convolvulaceae (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
138. Planaria shows : 138.
(1) False regeneration (1)
(2) True regeneration (2)
u
(3) te
tit 2
(3) Asexual reproduction
s
(4) Both 2 and 3
t In (4) 3
139. As compared to genus, which of the following isg h139.

less general : Li
ew (1)
(1) Division
N (2)
(2) Class
(3)
(3) Family
(4) Species (4)
140. The plants of wheat are belongs to : 140.
(1) Family poaceae (1)
(2) Order poales (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Class dicotyledonae (4)
141. Which taxonomical aid used for identification of 141.

plants and animals based on the similarities and
dissimilarities:
(1)
(1) Botanical Gardens
(2) Key (2)
(3) Museum (3)
(4) Key Gardens (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 31
to all[apul]
142. Who classified plant into herbs, shrubs and trees: 142.
(1) Darwin (1)
(2) Aristotle (2)
(3) Haeckel (3)
(4) Lamarck. (4)
143. Thermoacidophiles are present in : 143.

(1) Marshy areas (1)
(2) Salty areas (2)
(3) Hot springs (3)
(4) Lakes and Streams. (4)
144. Spores of slime moulds are dispersed by : 144.

(1) Water current (1)
(2) Air current (2)
(3) Animals (3)
(4) Bat. (4)
145. Which is correct : 145.

u te
(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in curd making (1)it
and production of antibiotics s t
t In (2)
gh (3)
(2) Mycoplasma has no cell wall
(3) Dinoflagellates are of many coloured Li
(4) All of these ew (4)
N
146. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the 146.
group:
(1)
(1) Animalia
(2)
(2) Plantae
(3) Fungi (3)
(4) Monera (4)
147. Which of the following is a bacterial disease 147.

(1) White rust of cruciferae (1)
(2) Early blight of potato (2)
(3) Citrus canker (3)
(4) Black rust of wheat
(4)
148. Trypanosoma causes 148.
(1) Sleeping sickness (1)
(2) Typhoid (2)
(3) Cholera (3)
(4) Tuberculosis (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 32
to all[apul]
149. Red tide is caused by 149.
(1) Anabaena (1)
(2) Euglena (2)
(3) Gonyaulax (3)
(4) Amoeba (4)
150. Asexual reproduction in fungus by : 150.
(1) Conidia (1)
(2) Zoospores (2)
(3) Oospores (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) 1 2
PART–2–[SECTION–A] PART–2–[SECTION–A]
151. Edible fungus : 151.

(1) Rhizopus, mucor (2) Neurospora (1) (2)
(3) Morels, truffles (4) Alternaria. (3) (4)

152. Bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) are 152.
u te
usually :
s tit
(1) Circular RNA virus
t In (1)
(2) Single stranded RNA virus
igh (2)
(3) Single stranded DNA virus L (3)
ew
(4) Double stranded DNA viruses. N (4)
153. Which is incorrect : 153.
(1) T.O. Diener discovered virus in 1981 (1)
(2) RNA of viroid was of low molecular weight (2)
(3) Lichens are symbiotic association (3)
(4) Lichens are good pollution indicator. (4)
154. Which is the following is true about 154.

basidiomycetes:
(a)
(a) Also called bracket fungi
(b)
(b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative cells of
different genotypes
(c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside (c)
the basidium
(d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously (d)
(1) a and b are correct (1) a b
(2) b and c are correct (2) b c
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct (3) a, b, c d
(4) a, b and d are correct (4) a, b d
Aim:free education
NLI / 33
to all[apul]
155. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and 155.
a fungus. The nature of fungus is :
(1) Mycobiont
(1)
(2) Phycobiont (2)
(3) Autotrophs (3)
(4) Not helpfull in mineral recycle (4)
156. Match the different types of spores listed under 156. I

column-I with the names of the organisms given II
under column-II
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
Spores Organisms
a. f.
a. Ascospores f. Agaricus
b. g.
b. Basidiospores g. Yeast
c. h.
c. Zygospores h. Rhizopus
d. i.
d. Conidia i. Pencillium
(1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i
(1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i
u te
(2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i
tit
(2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i
s
(3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f
(3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f
t In
(4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i
g h (4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i
157. Given below are two statements :
Li 157.
ew
Statement I : N I:
Fusion between one large, non motile, static female

gamete and a smaller motile male gamete is called
oogamous.
II :
Statement II :
Floridean starch is very similar to amylopectin and
glycogen in structure.
(1) I II
158. Fungi reproduce by only asexual methods in 158.
(1) Phycomycetes (1)
(2) Ascomycetes (2)
(3) Basidiomycetes (3)
(4) Deuteromycetes (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 34
to all[apul]
159. Ustilago belongs to 159.
(1) Ascomycetes (1)
(2) Basidiomycetes (2)
(3) Zygomycetes (3)
(4) Deuteromycetes (4)
160. Asci are formed in 160.
(1) Albugo (1)
(2) Aspergillus (2)
(3) Puccinia (3)
(4) Agaricus (4)
161. Which of the following is not a member of 161.

ascomycetes
(1)
(1) Trichoderma
(2)
(2) Neurospora
(3)
(3) Rust and smut
u
(4) te1 3
(4) Both 1 and 3
tit
s
162. Network of hyphae is known as :
t In
162.
(1) Spores
igh (1)
(2) Mycelium
L (2)
ew
(3) Haustoria N (3)
(4) Conidia (4)
163. Mycelium of claviceps are 163.
(1) Branched and septate (1)
(2) Coenocytic (2)
(3) Aseptate (3)
(4) Septate and coenocytic (4)
164. Which of the following organisms group are not 164.
included in the five kingdom system of
classification
(1)
(1) Chrysophytes, viroids, lichens
(2)
(2) Bacteriophages, Dinoflagellates, lichens
(3)
(3) Bacteriophages, viroids, Lichens
(4)
(4) Viroids, slime moulds, fungi
Aim:free education
NLI / 35
to all[apul]
165. Find the correct option with respect to Diagram: 165.
(1) Haploid (1)

(2) Formed after one meiosis of microspore mother cell (2)
(3) Two celled pallen grain (3)
(4) Product of one mitosis of Microspore (4)
166. Conidia in Aspergillus are borne on a : 166.

(1) Sporangiophores (1)
(2) Conidiophores (2)
(3) Rhizoidal hyphae (3)
(4) Ascophores (4)
167. Locomotory organelles in protista are : 167.
(1) Flagella (1)
u te
(2) Cilia
s tit
(2)
(3) Pseudopodia
t In (3)
(4) All of these
igh (4)
168. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by
L 168.
ew
(1) Prions N (1)
(2) Viroids (2)
(3) Virus (3)
(4) Bacteriophage (4)
Statement I : I:
Isogamous type reproduction present in
Eudorina
II :
Statement II :
In Bryophyte antheridium produce
multiflagellated antherozoids.
(1) I II
(2) I II
Aim:free education
NLI / 36
to all[apul]
170. Passive floating photosynthetic protists : 170.
(1) Diatoms (1)
(2) Dianoflagelates (2)
(3) Desmids (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
171. Choose incorrect combination: 171.
(1) Kingdom boundary - Protista (1)

not well defined
(2)
(2) Silica cell wall in - Marine Amoeboid protist
(3) Unique kingdom - Fungi
eukaryotic heterotroph (3)
(4) Saprophytic protist - Slime mould (4)
172. Group of fungus in which sex organ is absent but 172.

sexual reproduction take place :
(1) Phycomycetes (1)

u te
(2) Ascomycetes s tit
(2)
t In
(3) Basidiomycetes
igh (3)
L
(4) Deutromycetes
ew (4)
173. Filamentous form of algae is N 173.

(1) Spirogyra (1)
(2) Volvox (2)
(3) Chlamydomonas (3)
(4) Spirulina (4)
Statement I : I:
Sporophyte of moss is differentiated into foot, seta,

capsule.
Statement II : II :
Genera Selagenella and Salvinia are known as
heterosporous.
Aim:free education
NLI / 37
to all[apul]
175. Hydrocolloids are obtained by 175.
(1) Brown and green algae (1)
(2) Green and red algae (2)
(3) Brown and red algae (3)
(4) Diatoms and desmid (4)
176. Chlorella is a 176.
(a) Multicellular algae (a)
(b) Unicellular algae (b)
(c) Protein rich algae (c)
(d) Used as food supplement (d)
(1) Only a and d (1) a d
(2) Only a and c (2) a c
(3) Only b and d (3) b d
(4) Only b, c and d (4) b, c d
177. In class rhodophyceae sexual reproduction is of 177.

which type
(1)
u te
(1) Isogamous
s tit
(2)
(2) Anisogamous
t In
(3) Oogamous
igh (3)
L (4)
(4) All of these
ew
178. Find out the correct statements N 178.
(a) Archaebacteria is a type of bacteriophase (a)
(b) Bactriophase is a bacterial virus (b)
(c) Cynobacteria is photosynthetic autotrophs (c)
(d) Cynobacteria have chlorophyll a (d)
(1) only a, b (1) a, b
(2) a, b, c only (2) a, b, c
(3) only b, c, d (3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
179. In brown algae how many flagella are present 179.
(1) Only 1 (1) 1
(2) 2, Unequal (2) 2,
(3) 2-8, Unequal (3) 2-8,
(4) 2-8, Equal (4) 2-8,
Aim:free education
NLI / 38
to all[apul]
180. Brown algae have flagella at which position 180.
(1) Lateral (1)
(2) Apical (2)
(3) Basal (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
181. Find the incorrect option with respect to this 181.
diagram:
(1) Belongs to plant group bryophyte (1)

(2) Provide economic and ecological importance both. (2)
u te
tit
(3) Moss plant of pteridophyte. (3)
(4) Used a fuel and packaging material s
(4)
182. Floridean starch is the stored food in t In
182.
a. Fucus b. Volvox igh a. b.
L
c. Chara d. Polysiphonia
ew c. d.
(1) a, d N (1) a, d
(2) c, b (2) c, b
(3) d (3) d
(4) a, b (4) a, b
183. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 183. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
The word systematics is derived from the Latin word
‘systema’ which means systematic arrangement of
organisms. (R) :
Reason (R) :
The plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
are included in the order Sapindales, which is mainly based
on the floral characters.
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
Aim:free education
NLI / 39
to all[apul]
184. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 184. :
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(A) :
(R)
Assertion (A) :
Cyanobacteria form blooms in polluted water bodies. (R) :
Reason (R) :
Primary contaminants are nitrates and phosphates in
water, which act as plant nutrients
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
185. The store food material in phaeophycae : 185.
(1) Laminarian (1)
(2) Mannital (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2
u te
(3) 1 2
(4) Floridean starch

s tit
(4)
PART–2–[SECTION–B]
t In PART–2–[SECTION–B]
186. Gametophyte in pteridophyte is
igh186.
(1) Photosynthetic L (1)
(2) Multicellular ew (2)
N (3)
(3) Free living
(4) All of these (4)
187. In pteridophytes prothallus develop from 187.
(1) Holdfast (1)
(2) Spores (2)
(3) Sporophyte (3)
(4) Microsporangia (4)
188. Lycopodium and Adiantum belongs to which class 188.
of Pteridophytes
(1) both Pteropsida (1)
(2) psilopsida, pteropsida (2)
(3) Lycopsida, Pteropsida (3)
(4) Lycopsida, Sphenopsida (4)
189. Bryophytes have 189.
(1) Archegonia (1)
(2) Thalloid haploid body (2)
(3) Dominant gametophytic and parasitic sporophytic (3)
phase
(4) All the above (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 40
to all[apul]
190. In chlorophycae the rigid cell wall is made up of : 190.
(1) Inner layer of cellulose (1)
(2) Outer layer of pectose (2)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) r- phycoerythrin (4) r-
191. Branched stem is present in : 191.
(1) Pinus (1)
(2) Cedrus (2)

(3) Cycas (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
192. Leaves of pinus are well adapted to withstand 192.
extreme
(1)
(1) temperature
(2)
(2) humidity
(3) wind (3)
(4) all of these (4)

193. Which of the following is a mismatch 193.
a. Polytrichum - Moss a.
u te -
b. Polysiphonia - algae b.tit -
s
c. Pteris - Lycopsida
t In c. -
d. Rice - monocotyledonae g h d. -
(1) a,d Li (1) a,d
w
(2) b,c Ne (2) b,c
(3) only a (3) a
(4) only c (4) c
194. Sporangium in gymnosperms bears 194.
(1) Seed (1)
(2) spore (2)
(3) antheridium (3)
(4) archegonium (4)
195. Female gametophyte in pinus is 195.
(1) unicellular (1)
(2) multicellular (2)
(3) bears 2 or more archegonia (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
196. In Gymnosperms ovule develops into 196.
(1) gametophyte (1)
(2) seed (2)
(3) fruit (3)
(4) embryo (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 41
to all[apul]
197. Gymnosperms resemble with pteridophytes in 197.

having
(1) Pollen grains (1)
(2) Sunken stomata (2)
(3) Naked seeds (3)
(4) Vascular tissues (4)
198. Given are a few statements 198.
(a) lmportant soil binders (a)
(b) They are the first terrestrial land plant with (b)
vascular tissues
(c) Cones are present (c)
Choose the option for which all three statements
hold true
(1)
(1) Ulothrix
(2)
(2) Pinus
(3)
(3) Cycas
(4)
(4) Equisetum
u te
199. A structure absent in Angiosperms is 199.
s tit
(1) Gemma
t In (1)
(2) Pistil
igh (2)
L (3)
(3) Microgametophyte
ew
(4) Megagametophyte N (4)
200. The ploidy of an embryo sac is 200.
(1) Tetraploid (1)

(2) Diploid (2)
(3) Triploid (3)
(4) Haploid (4)
Aim:free education
NLI / 42
to all[apul]

001-10 Nov Paper SBTS Test-1 - 1084580

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

001-10 Nov Paper SBTS Test-1 - 1084580

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

ALL INDIA SCORE BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2022-23

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Aim:free education to all[apul]

• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.

• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.

Please Subscribe our –

Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur

Youtube Channel - New Light Institute

TOPIC : Unit, Measurement & Vector

2. The unit vector along ˆi  ˆj is : 2. ˆi  ˆj :

(2)  <  if A < B (2)  <  A< B

(3)  <  if A > B (3)  <  A> B

(3) C is always equal to A + B (3) C A+B

(4) C is never equal to A + B. (4) C A+B

(1) 30o (1) 30o

(2) 60o (2) 60o

(3) 90o (3) 90o

(1) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2 (1) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

(4) (A 2  B2  3AB)1/ 2 (4) (A 2  B2  3AB)1/ 2

(1) along west (1)

(2) along east (2)

(3) zero (3)

(4) vertically downward. (4)

8. Match the following columns : 8.

(1) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ (1) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ

(2) 4iˆ  4ˆj  6kˆ (2) 4iˆ  4ˆj  6kˆ

(3) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ (3) 14iˆ  38ˆj  16kˆ

(4) 21iˆ  3ˆj  5kˆ (4) 21iˆ  3ˆj  5kˆ

11. Two vectors having equal magnitudes A, make 11. 

(4) 0.5, 1, 2. (4) 0.5, 1, 2.

(2) /4 (2) /4

(4) 8, 10. (4) 8, 10.

displaces it by ( 3iˆ  4ˆj ) metres. The work done by ( 3iˆ  4ˆj )

b. 1 parsec ii. 9.46 × 1015 m

(1) 45o (1) 45o

(1) C must be equal to | A  B | (1) C | A B |

(3) C must be greater than | A  B |

22. A vector is not changed if : ew 22. :

(4) it is slide parallel to itself. (4)

(1) 132 (2) 136 (1) 132 (2) 136

(3) 160 (4) 202 . (3) 160 (4) 202 .

(4) [M–1LT0Q–1] (4) [M–1LT0Q–1]

(2) 13% (2) 13%

(3) 12% (3) 12%

(4) 7%. (4) 7%.

(1) Tesla (1)

(2) Oersted (2)

(3) Weber (3)

(4) Gauss. (4)

32. Consider the following rules of significant figures. 32.

I. All the non-zero digits are significant. I.

Which of the above statemen(s) is/are correct?

(1) I and II (1) I II

(2) II and III (2) II III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III. s titI, II III.

(3) Angular impulse (3)

(4) Moment of inertia (4)

34. If force between two particles at distance r is given 34. r F = F0e–r

(1) 195 watt (1) 195