CLASS: LT & XII NEET DPT- 16 (XI SYLLABUS) DATE: 21.1.

2024

CHEMISTRY: AMINES
1. Amongst the following, the strongest base in aqueous medium is .............
(a) CH3 NH2 (b) NCCH2 NH2 (c) (CH3 ) 2 NH (d) C6 H5 NHCH3
2. Which of the following is the weakest Bronsted base ?

3. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is ............... .

(a) II < III < I (b) III < I < II (c) III < II < I (d) II < I < III
4. Which of the following compounds is the weakest Bronsted base ?

5. Which of the following compounds is most basic ?

6. The strongest base in aqueous solution among the following amines is

(a) N, N-diethylethanamine (b) N-ethylethanamine
(c) N-methylmethanamine (d) ethanamine
7. Strongest base is
8. Leakage of which gas was responsible for the Bhopal tragedy in 1984

9. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4 H11N ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
10. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines is .................
(a) Sodium azide, NaN3 (b) Sodium nitrite, NaNO2
(c) Potassium cyanide, KCN
(d) Potassium phthalimide, C6 H4 (CO)2 N– K+
11. The best reagent for converting 2-phenylpropanamide into 2-phenylpropanamine
is ..................... .
(a) excesss H2 (b) Br2 in aqueous NaOH
(c) iodine in the presence of red phosphorus (d) LiAlH4 in ether
12. Hofmann Bromamide Degradation reaction is shown by ....................... .
(a) ArNH2 (b) ArCONH2 (c) ArNO2 (d) ArCH2 NH2
13. Mendius reduction converts an alkyl cyanide to
(a) a primary amine (b) an aldehyde (c) a ketone (d) an oxime
14. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation :

Which of the following alkyl halides is best suited for this reaction through SN1 mechanism ?
(a) CH3 Br (b) C2 H5 Br (c) C6 H5 CH2 Br (d) None of these
15. Methylamine reacts with HNO2 to form .............. .

16. Acid anhydrides on reaction with primary amines give ................... .

(a) amide (b) imide (c) secondary amine (d) imine
17. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’ which on heating gives ‘C’, ‘C’
when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is

18. In the chemical reaction,

the compound (A) and (B) are respectively

(a) C2 H5 NC and 3 KCl (b) C2 H5 CN and 3 KCl
(c) CH3 CH2 CONH2 and 3 KCl (d) C2 H5 NC and K2 CO3
19. Which of the following compounds will dissolve in an alkali solution after it undergoes reaction
with Hinsberg’s reagent ?
(a) CH3 NH2 (b) (CH3 ) 3 N (c) (C2 H5 ) 2 NH (d) C6 H5 NHC6 H5
20. Which of the following method is generally not employed for the separation of primary,
secondary and tertiary amines ?
(a) Fractional distillation (b) Hinsberg’s method
(c) Hofmann’s method (d) Filtration
21. In the nitration of benzene using a mixture of conc. H2 SO4 and conc. HNO3 , the species which
initiates the reaction is .................... .
+¿¿ −¿¿
(a) NO2 (b) NO+ (c) NO 2 (d) NO 2
22. Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Fe and HCl gives ............. .
(a) aromatic oxime (b) aromatic hydrocarbon
(c) aromatic primary amine (d) aromatic amide
23. The most reactive amine towards dilute hydrochloric acid is ................

24. The reaction, named as .............. .

(a) Sandmeyer reaction (b) Gattermann reaction
(c) Claisen reaction (d) Carbylamine reaction
25. In a set of reactions, m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.

26. In the following sequence of reactions, what is D ?

(a) Primary amine (b) An amide

(c) Phenyl isocyanate (d) Chain lengthened hydrocarbon
27. Which of the following statements about primary amines is ‘False’ ?
(a) Alkylamines are stronger bases than ammonia
(b) Alkylamines are stronger bases than aryl amines
 (c) Alkylamines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols
(d) Arylamines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
28. Predict the product :

29. Aniline on heating with fuming sulphuric acid gives :

(a) aniline sulphate (b) sulphanilic acid
(c) aniline 2,4-disulphonic acid (d) nitrobenzene
30. Aniline on treatment with aqueous bromine gives :
(a) 2,4,6-tribromo aniline (b) o-bromo aniline
(c) 2,4-dibromo aniline (d) p-bromo aniline

31.
(a) Na2 S (b) Sn/HCl (c) LiAlH4 (d) all of these
32. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is :
(a) substitution (b) addition (c) condensation (d) polymerisation
33. Which of the following reagents can be used to prepare ethyl carbylamine from ethyl iodide ?
(a) KCN (b) AgCN (c) CuCN (d) HCN
34. Consider the following compounds,

What is the correct order of basicity of the above compounds ?

(a) I > II > III (b) III > I > II (c) III > II > I (d) I > III > II
35. Amongst the following the most basic compound is
(a) p-nitroaniline (b) acetanilide (c) aniline (d) benzylamine
36. In the chemical reactions,

the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

(a) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
(b) phenol and benzene
(c) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
(d) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
37. On heating an aliphatic primary amine with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the
organic compound formed is :
(a) an alkanediol (b) an alkyl cyanide
(c) an alkyl isocyanide (d) an alkanol
38. The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is :

(a) (D) < (B) < (A) < (C) (b) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
(c) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D) (d) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
39. Complete reduction of bnenzene-diazonium chloride with Zn/HCl gives:
(a) Phenylhydrazine (b) Aniline (c) Hydrazobenzene (d) Azobenzene
40. In a set of reaction p–nitrotoluence yielded a product E
41. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D

42. Which has the highest pKb value ?

(a) R3 C – NH2 (b) R2 NH (c) RNH2 (d) NH3
43. Assertion : n-Propylamine has a higher boiling point than trimethylamine.
Reason : Among n-propylamine molecules there is hydrogen bonding, but there is no hydrogen
bonding among trimethylamine molecules.
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If reason is true but assertion is false
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
44. Assertion : In order to convert R–Cl to pure R–NH2, Gabriel pthalimide synthesis can be used.
Reason : With proper choice of alkyl halides, pthalimide synthesis can be used to prepare 1°, 2°
or 3° amines.
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If reason is true but assertion is false
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
45. Assertion :In Hofmann bromide reaction, the amine formed has one carbon atom less than the
parent 1° amide. Reason : N-methyl acetamide undergoes Hofmann bromamide reaction
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If reason is true but assertion is false
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

ZOOLOGY: BODY FLUIDS & CIRCULATION

46. Which of the following use water from their environment as circulating fluid –
A) Sponges (B) Coelenterates (C) a and b (D) Fishes
47. Blood, a special type of connective tissue
A) Consists of a fluid matrix (Plasma)
(B) Has formed elements
(C) Is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms
(D) All
48. Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly ____ % of blood –
(A) 55 (B) 45 (C) 90 (D) 10
49. The amount of water present in blood plasma is –
(A) 99% (B) 90-92% (C) 10% (D) 55%
50. I. Proteins contribute 6 - 8% of the blood plasma
II. Plasma contains good amount of minerals
III. Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum
IV Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc., are also present in the plasma as they are always in transit
in the body.
Of the above statements –
(A) All are correct (B) Only II is false
(C) Only I, III, IV is correct (D) All are false
51. Match List I with List II and select the correct option.

(A) I-C, II -A, III- B (B) I-A, II - C, III- B

(C) I-C, II - B, III -A (D) l-B, II-A, III-C
52. Formed elements of blood include –
(A) RBC, WBC and blood platelets (B) All solutes present in blood (C) Proteins
present in blood (D) All minerals (elements)
53. Which of the following statements is false?
A) Erythrocytes/RBC are the least abundant of all the cells in blood.
(B) The number of RBCs in adult man per mm3 of blood is 5 million to 5.5. million.
(C) RBC are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults.
(D) RBCs are enucleate in most of the mammals.
54. Life span of human RBC is –
(A) 120 hours (B) 120 month (C) 120 days (D) 102 days
55. What is the amount of haemoglobin present in 100 ml blood of human blood?
(A) 45g (B) 18-20g (C) 12-16g (D) 10 -12g
56. Mammalian RBCs are in shape-
A) Oval (B) Biconvex (C) biconcave (D) Sickle like
57. All of the following statement are correct about WBCs except –
(A) They are nucleate and least constancy in shape
(B) They are lesser in number (6000 – 8000 per mm3 blood)
(C) They are generally short lived
(D) They help in blood clotting
58. All of the following are granulocytes except-
A) Neutrophils (B) Eosinophils
(C) Basophils only · (D) Lymphocytes and monocytes
59. Match list I with list II correctly –

A) I - E, II - D, III - C, IV -A, V - B (B) I -A, II - B, III - C, IV - E, V - D

(C) I - E, II - D, III - C. IV - B, V –A (D) I - B, II - D, III -A, IV - C, V –A
60. Match the following –

(A) I - B, II and III -A, IV - C, V - D (B) I - B, II and III - C, IV -A, V - D

(C) I - C, II and III -A, IV - B, V - D (D) I - D, II and III -C, IV -A, V – B
61. Megakaryocytes produce-
(A) Leucocytes (B) Lymphocytes
(C) Bone cells (D) Blood platelets (thrombocytes)
62. Which of the following is cell fragments?
A) Leucocytes (B) RBCs (C) Blood platelets (D) None
63. 1 mm3 blood has how many blood platelets?
(A) 150000 - 350000 (B) 1.5 million to 3.5 million
(C) 1500-3000 (D) 10 to 15 lacs
64. During blood clotting, platelets release –
(A) Thrombin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Prothrombin
(D) Thrombokinase and other blood clotting factor/ Thromboplastin
65. Find the correct descending order of percentage proportion of leucocytes in human blood.
(A) Neutrophils → Basophils →L Lymphocytes → Acidophils (Eosinophils) Monocytes
(B) Neutrophils → Monocytes →Lymphocytes→ Acidophils → Basophils
(C) Neutrophils →Lymphocytes→ Monocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
(D) Neutrophils → Acidophils → Basophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes
66. ABO blood grouping is based on the presence or absence of surface antigens
A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 12
67. Fill up gaps given below in the table-

68. Which of the following blood groups is universal donor and universal acceptors respectively?
(A) AB, O (B) O, AB (C) AB, A (D) A, AB
69. Rh factor is concerned with blood grouping. It derives its name from-
(A) Man (B) Chimpanzee (C) Monkey (D) Rat
70. Rh factor is responsible for-
A) Sickle cell anemia (B) Erythroblastosis foetalis
(C) AIDS (D) Turner syndrome
71. In erythroblastosis foetalis, which of the following factors passes through placenta into foetus -
A) Rh antigens (B) Rh antibodies
(C) Agglutinins (D) ABO antibodies
72. A doctor suggested to a couple not to have more than one child because of –
(A) Rh+ male and Rh- female (B) Rh- male and Rh+ female
(C) Rh- male and Rh- female (D) Rh+ male and Rh+ female
73. In case of emergency which blood group could be safely transfused?
(A) AB Rh- (B) AB Rh+ (C) O Rh- (D) O Rh+
74. Which of the following is expected if husband is Rh+ and wife is Rh-?
(A) No problem with 1st pregnancy
(B) Problem would be expected with future pregnancies of Rh-foetus
(C) Both A & B
(D) No problem could be expected in any pregnancy
75. What is the correct order of these events?
1. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
2. Clot retraction and leakage of serum
3. Thromboplastin formation
 4. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(A) 3,2,1, 4 (B) 3,4,1,2 (C) 3,4,2,1 (D) 4,1,3,2
76. Which of the following statement are correct?
I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin III. Clotting of
blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the
active form always
(A) I, III, IV (B) II, IV (C) I, II, III (D) III, IV
77. Which of following statements is wrong about lymph.
I. Lymph is colourful as it has haemoglobin but no RBC
II. The fluid present in lymphatic system is called lymph
III. It contains specialized lymphocytes which are responsible for immunity of the body
IV. Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients and hormones
V. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the intestinal villi
(A) Only I (B) III and IV (C) II and III (D) Only IV
78. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid/interstitial fluid and drains it back to the major veins
II. Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and lymph have almost similar composition
III. Lymph and interstitial fluid have no larger proteins and RBC
IV. Exchange of nutrients and gases, etc. between the blood and cells occurs through tissue
fluid
(A) All (B) Only III and IV (C) I and III (D) I, III, IV
79. Open circulatory system is found in –
(A) Arthropods and molluscs (B) Annelids and Chordates
(C) Annelids and arthropods (D) Fishes and molluscs
80. Closed circulatory system is found in –
(A) Arthropod and chordates (B) Molluscs and chordates
(C) Amphibians and molluscs (D) Annelids and chordates
81. In an open circulatory system –
A) There is no heart
(B) There is no need of blood vessels / blood capillary system
(C) There is no distinction between blood and tissue fluid
(D) There are no open spaces or sinuses in the body
82. Advantages of closed circulatory system over open circulatory system includes which of the
following?
(A) Closed system can direct blood to specific tissues
(B) Exchange occurs more rapidly
(C) Close circulatory system can support higher levels of metabolic activity
(D) All
83. Which of the following statements is wrong about the closed circulatory system?
A) Blood remains within blood vessels and never comes in direct contact with the body cells
(B) In it flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated
 (C) There is no blood capillary
(D) Blood flow is more rapid due to higher pressure
84. Following are figures of hearts in different animals

85. In fishes the blood circulation is represented as -

The above flow of blood indicates it is a

(A) Double circulation
(B) Single circulation
(C) Incomplete single circulation
(D) Incomplete double circulation
86. Incomplete double circulation is found in which of the following animals?
(A) Birds (B) Mammals
(C) Birds and Mammals (D)Amphibians and Reptiles
87. Splem is the graveyard of _____
a) RBC b) WBC c) Platelets d) All of these
88. Plasma contains small mount of minerals except
a) Na+ b) Ca++ c) Mg++ d) NH3
89. In case of subsequent pregnancies for woman with Rh- married to Rh+ man which is possible to
happen
a) Rh antibodies from mother (Rh-) can leak into the blood of foetus (Rh+ve) in the second
pregnancy
b) Rh antibodies from father (Rh+) can leak into mothers (Rh-) blood during insemination
c) Rh antibodies from foetus (Rh+) can le ak into mothers (Rh-) blood & causes RBC
destruction
d)All of these
90. Erythroblastosis foetolis can be avoided
a) No marriage between Rh+ man, Rh- women
b) by administering anti Rh antibodies to mother immediately other the delivery of first child
c) both A & B
d) no marriage between Rh+ man , Rh+ women