!F P 0000 Physical Sciences GR 12 Improvement Reso - 220926 - 134306

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Grade 12 Improvement Resources

Activities
Level 1 - 3
© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

F P 0000 Physical Sciences Grade 12 Improvement Resources Activities Level 1 - 3 Page 1 of 143
Contents
MOMENTUM AND IMPULSE ......................................................................................................... 3
VERTICAL PROJECTILE MOTION .............................................................................................. 11
NEWTON’S LAW .......................................................................................................................... 18
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER ................................................................................................... 26
DOPPLER’S EFFECT ................................................................................................................... 33
ELECTROSTATICS ...................................................................................................................... 37
ELECTRODYNAMICS .................................................................................................................. 43
ELECTRICITY .............................................................................................................................. 51
PHOTO-ELECTRIC EFFECT........................................................................................................ 60
PRACTICAL SKILLS ACTIVITY A: RESOURCE MATERIAL 1 – 7 .............................................. 67
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY ............................................................................................................... 71
REACTION RATES ...................................................................................................................... 96
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM: SUMMARY .................................................................................... 106
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM: QUESTIONS.................................................................................. 110
ACID AND BASES: SUMMARY ................................................................................................. 115
ACID AND BASES: QUESTIONS .............................................................................................. 118
GALVANIC CELLS: SUMMARY ................................................................................................ 124
GALVANIC CELLS: QUESTIONS .............................................................................................. 127
ELECTROLYTIC CELLS: SUMMARY........................................................................................ 134
ELECTROLYTIC CELLS: QUESTIONS ..................................................................................... 136
QUANTITATIVE CHEMISTRY .................................................................................................... 141

MOMENTUM AND IMPULSE
QUESTION 1 [12]
Define the following terms:
1.1 Momentum (2)
1.2 Impulse (2)
1.3 Elastic collision (2)
1.4 Inelastic collision (2)
1.5 Kinetic energy (2)
1.6 Isolated system (2)
QUESTION 2 [10]
2.1 State the Law of conservation of linear momentum. (2)
2.2 State Newton’s second law in terms of momentum. (2)
2.3 State the conditions for an elastic collision. (2)
2.4 Write down one term to describe the rate of change of momentum. (2)
2.5 Momentum can be measured in:
A. kg.m.s
B. kg. m. s–1
C. kg.m.s–2
D. kg.m–1 (2)
QUESTION 3 [20]
3.1 Determine the momentum of a 6kg object moving at 5 m.s–1 to the right. (3)
3.2 What is the momentum of the 6kg object if it begins to move at 3 m.s–1 to the left? (3)
3.3 What is the magnitude of the velocity of a 10 kg object that has a momentum of 90
kg.m.s.–1? (3)
3.4 What is the mass of an object that has a momentum of 60 kg.m.s–1 east and a
velocity of 30 m.s-1 east? (3)
3.5 A 12 kg object speeds up from an initial velocity of 10 m.s–1 north to a final velocity
of 15 m.s–1 north.

Calculate the change in momentum. (4)
3.6 A 20 kg object slows down from an initial velocity of 40 m.s–1 west to a final velocity
of 5 m.s–1 west.
Calculate the change in momentum. (4)
QUESTION 4 [27]
4.1 A resultant force of 30 N acts on an object for 2s.
Calculate the magnitude of the impulse. (3)
4.2 A 15 kg object accelerates from 3 m.s–1 to 12 m.s–1.Calculate the magnitude of

the: (3)
4.2.1 Impulse. (3)
4.2.2 Change in momentum. (2)
4.3 Impulse (is / is not) equal to the change in momentum. (2)
4.4 Calculate the magnitude of the resultant force which acts for 5 s on an object to
produce an impulse of 60 N.s. (3)
4.5 Calculate the magnitude of the final velocity of a 3 kg mass that accelerates from 5
m.s–1 due to an impulse of 45 N. s. (4)
4.6 A 0,1 kg ball travels to a bat at 30m.s–1 north and is hit back at 20 m.s–1.
Calculate the net force on the ball if the contact time is 0,05 s. (4)
4.7 A 0,2 kg ball travels to a bat at 20 m.s–1 and is hit back at 30 m.s–1. If the force
exerted on the ball by the bat is –1 000 N.
Determine the contact time between the bat and the ball. (3)
QUESTION 5 [5]
An object with a mass of 1 kg is moving to the right with a velocity of 2 m.s-1. It collides
head-on with a second mass of 1,5 kg which is moving with a velocity of 1,5 m.s-1 in the
opposite direction. The 1,5 kg mass bounces back with a velocity of 1,2 m.s-1 to the right.
Calculate the velocity of the 1 kg mass after the collision. Ignore the effects of friction.

QUESTION 6 [12]
Block A with a mass of 3 kg moves right at a constant velocity on a horizontal frictionless

surface. It collides with a stationary block B of mass 6 kg. Immediately after the collision
block A moves at 0,5 m.s-1 to the left and block B at 2,25 m.s-1 to the right.
6.1 State the Law of conservation of linear momentum. (2)
6.2 Calculate the speed of block A before the collision. (4)
6.3 Calculate the change in momentum for block B. (3)
6.4 If the blocks remain in contact with each other for 0,01 s, calculate the magnitude
of the force exerted by the 3 kg block on the 6 kg block during the collision. (3)

QUESTION 7 [12]
A 3 kg cart and a 2 kg cart are joined together by a compressed spring as shown in the
diagram below.
The joined carts are moving to the right at 0,3 m.s-1 when the spring releases and pushes
the carts apart. The spring takes 0,1 s to release. After the spring has released, the 3 kg
cart is seen to be moving to the left at 0,2 m.s-1.
7.1 State the law of conservation of momentum. (2)
7.2 Calculate the velocity of the 2 kg cart after the spring is released. (4)
7.3 Calculate the impulse provided to the 3 kg cart. (3)
7.4 Determine the magnitude and direction of the rate of change of momentum of the
2 kg cart. (3)
QUESTION 8 [18]
A train carriage A of mass 500 kg is moving horizontally eastwards at 6,0 m.s–1. It collides
with another train carriage B of mass 700 kg that is initially at rest, as shown in the
diagram below.

The graph below shows the variation with time t of the velocities of the two train carriages
before, during and after the collision.
8.1 State the definition of momentum. (2)
8.2 Use the graph and values given above to:
8.2.1 Calculate the total momentum before the collision. (3)
8.2.2 Calculate the total momentum after the collision. (2)
8.2.3 Hence, decide if the total momentum is conserved in the collision. (1)
8.3 Use the graph and necessary calculations to check if the collision is elastic. (5)
8.4 Calculate the magnitude of the average force experienced by train carriage B on
A. (5)

QUESTION 9 [8]
9.1 Learners perform an experiment using identical trolleys, each of mass m. The
trolleys are arranged, as shown in the diagram below. They are initially at rest on
a frictionless surface and are connected with a compressed, massless spring.
When the spring is released it falls vertically down and the single trolley moves
with momentum p to the left. The magnitude of the momentum of the two trolleys
moving to the right will be:
A. 2p
B. p
1
C. p
2
1
D. 4
p (2)
9.2 Airbags in modern cars provide more safety during an accident. The statements
below are made by a learner to explain how airbags can ensure better safety in a
collision.
(i) The time of impact increases.
(ii) The impact force decreases.
(iii) The impulse increases.
Which of the statements above are CORRECT?
A. (i) only
B. (ii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i) and (ii) only (2)

9.3 Two bodies undergo an INELASTIC collision in the absence of friction. Which
ONE of the following combinations of momentum and kinetic energy of the system
is CORRECT?
Momentum Kinetic energy
A. Not conserved Conserved
B. Conserved Not conserved
C. Not conserved Not conserved
D. Conserved Conserved
(2)
9.4 Which ONE of the following statements is always TRUE for inelastic collisions in
an isolated system?
A. Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.
B. Both momentum and kinetic energy are not conserved.
C. Momentum is conserved, but kinetic energy not.
D. Kinetic energy is conserved, but momentum not. (2)
QUESTION 10 [12]
Dancers have to learn many skills, including how to land correctly. A dancer of mass of
50 kg leaps into the air and lands feet first on the ground. She lands on the ground with a
velocity of 5 m•s-1. As she lands, she bends her knees and comes to a complete stop in
0,2 seconds.
10.1 Calculate the momentum with which the dancer reaches the ground. (3)
10.2 Define the term impulse of a force. (2)
10.3 Calculate the magnitude of the net force acting on the dancer as she lands. (3)
Assume that the dancer performs the same jump as before but lands without bending her
knees.
10.4 Will the force now be GREATER THAN, SMALLER THAN or EQUAL TO the force
calculated in QUESTION 10.3? (1)
10.5 Give a reason for the answer to QUESTION 10.4. (3)

QUESTION 11 [9]
Two stationary steel balls, A and B, are suspended next to each other by massless,
inelastic strings as shown in Diagram 1 below.
Ball A of mass 0,2 kg is displaced through a vertical distance of 0,2 m, as shown in

Diagram 2 above. When ball A is released, it collides elastically and head-on with ball B.
ignore the effects of air friction.
11.1 What is meant by an elastic collision? (2)
Immediately after the collision, ball A moves horizontally backwards (to the left). Ball B
acquires kinetic energy of 0,12 J and moves horizontally forward (to the right).
Calculate the:
11.2 Kinetic energy of ball A just before it collides with ball B. (Use energy principles
only). (3)
11.3 Speed of ball A immediately after the collision. (4)

VERTICAL PROJECTILE MOTION
QUESTION 1 [10]
1.1 Free fall (2)
1.2 Projectile (2)
1.3 Weight (2)
1.4 Gravitational acceleration (2)
1.5 Terminal velocity (2)
QUESTION 2 [9]
2.1 Describe uniform motion. (2)
2.2 State Newton’s first law of motion. (2)
2.3 What is the velocity of an object at the maximum height? (1)
2.4 What is the acceleration due to gravity on or near the Earth's surface? (2)
2.5 In which unit is weight measured? (2)
A. kg.m.s
B. kg.s–1.m
C. kg.m.s–2
D. kg.m–1.s
QUESTION 3 [21]
Drop a body / object from rest
3.1 How far does the object fall in 5 s? (3)
3.2 What is the object speed after 4 s? (3)
3.3 Determine its speed after falling 125 m? (3)
3.4 What is its speed after 2,7 s? (3)
3.5 How far does it fall in 3,8 s? (3)
3.6 How long does it take to fall 54 m? (3)
3.7 Determine its speed after it falls 63 m? (3)

QUESTION 4 [10]
An object is thrown vertically upwards at 40m.s-1. Choose upwards as positive.
4.1 How long does it take to get to its highest turning point? (3)
4.2 How high does it rise to its maximum point? (3)
4.3 What is its velocity before it hits the ground? (4)
QUESTION 5 [8]
A boy fires a pellet gun upwards from the top of a cliff. The pellet leaves the gun at
20 m.s-1 and strikes the ground at 30 m.s-1. Ignore the effects of air resistance.
Choose downwards as positive.
Calculate:
5.1 The height that the pellet was shot from. (4)
5.2 The time that it takes for the pellet to reach the ground. (4)
QUESTION 6 [8]
A hot air balloon is moving upward with a constant velocity of 5 m.s-1. A person inside the
balloon then throws a ball upward with a velocity of 7 m.s-1 relative to the balloon. Ignore
the effects of air resistance.
Choose downwards as positive.
If the ball was 70 m above the ground when thrown upward, calculate:
6.1 The time taken for the ball to reach its highest point. (4)
6.2 The height of the ball above the ground at this point. (4)

QUESTION 7 [15]
A hot-air balloon moves vertically downwards at a constant velocity of 1,2 m∙s-1. When it
reaches a height of 22 m from the ground, a ball is dropped from the balloon. Refer to the
diagram below.
Assume that the dropping of the ball has no effect on the speed of the hot-air balloon.
Ignore air friction for the motion of the ball. Choose upwards as positive.
7.1 Explain the term projectile motion. (2)
7.2 Is the hot-air balloon in free fall? Give a reason for the answer. (2)
7.3 Calculate the time it takes for the ball to hit the ground after it is dropped. (3)
7.4 When the ball lands on the ground, it is in contact with the ground for 0,3 s and
then it bounces vertically upwards with a speed of 15 m∙s-1.
7.4.1 Calculate the total time elapsed from when the ball lands on the ground until it
bounces vertically upwards to a maximum height. (4)
7.4.2 Calculate how high the balloon is from the ground when the ball reaches its
maximum height after the first bounce. (4)

QUESTION 8 [10]
A boy throws a ball vertically into the air from the top of a building. The ball strikes the
ground after 4,08 s. The velocity – time graph below represents the entire motion of the
ball. Ignore the effects of air friction.
8.1 Explain gravitational acceleration. (2)
8.2 What is the acceleration of the ball at time 1,02 s? (2)
8.3 From the graph, at what time did the ball reach its maximum height? (2)
8.4 Calculate the displacement of the ball. (4)
QUESTION 9 [10]
9.1 A small stone is dropped from a height y above the ground. It strikes the ground
after time t, as shown in the diagram below.
The upwards as the positive direction and the ground as zero reference. Ignore
the effects of air resistance.

Which ONE of the following diagrams shows a correct position-time graph for the
motion of the stone?
(2)
9.2 A stone is projected vertically upwards from the top of a building at a speed of
v m⦁s-1 . The position-time graph below represents the motion of the stone.
Ignore the effects of air resistance.
Which ONE of the combinations below regarding the magnitudes of the stone’s
velocity and acceleration, at time t1, is CORRECT?
Magnitude of velocity Magnitude of acceleration

(m⦁s-1 ) (m⦁s-2 )
A. 0 9,8
B. 0 0
C. v 0
D. v 9,8
(2)

9.3 The statement below describe the motion of objects.
(i) A feather falls from a certain height inside a vacuum tube.
(ii) A box slides along a smooth horizontal surface at constant speed.
(iii) A steel ball falls through the air in the absence of air friction.
Which of the following describes UNIFORMLY ACCELERATED motion

CORRECTLY?
A. `(i) and (ii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) (2)
9.4 An object is thrown vertically upwards. Which ONE of the following regarding the
object’s velocity and acceleration at the highest point of its motion is CORRECT?
Ignore the effects of friction.
Velocity Acceleration
A. Zero Upwards
B. Upwards Zero
C. Maximum Zero
D. Zero Downwards
(2)
9.5 A ball is released from a height above the floor. The ball falls vertically and
bounces off the floor a number of times. Ignore the effects of friction and assume
that the collision of the ball with the floor is elastic. Take the point of release of the
ball as the reference point and downwards direction as positive.
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT representation of the position-time

graph for the motion of the ball?
(2)

QUESTION 10 [11]
A ball is dropped from the top of a building 20 m high. Ignore the effects of air resistance.
10.1 Define the term free fall. (2)
10.2 Calculate the:
10.2.1 Speed at which the ball hits the ground. (4)
10.2.2 Time it takes the ball to reach the ground. (3)
10.3 Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion of the ball (no values required). (2)

NEWTON’S LAW
QUESTION 1 [8]
1.1 Frictional force (2)
1.2 Normal force (2)
1.3 Kinetic frictional force (2)
1.4 Static frictional force (2)
QUESTION 2 [10]
2.1 Define acceleration. (2)
2.2 State Newton’s first law of motion. (2)
2.3 State Newton’s second law of motion. (2)
2.4 State Newton’s third law of motion. (2)
2.5 State Newton’s law of universal gravitation. (2)
QUESTION 3 [15]
A 4 kg trolley is at rest on a rough inclined surface, which makes an angle of 30° with the
horizontal. A constant force is applied, causing the trolley to accelerate up the incline for
2 m at 0,43 m.s–2. (Ignore the rotation effects of the wheels and air resistance).
3.1 Draw a labelled free body diagram showing all the forces acting on the trolley as it
moves up the slope. (4)
3.2 If the co-efficient of kinetic friction along the incline μk is 0,2. Calculate the:
3.2.1 Weight of the trolley. (2)
3.2.2 Perpendicular component of the weight. (2)

3.2.3 Frictional force on the trolley as it moves up the slope. (3)
3.2.4 Applied force F. (4)
QUESTION 4 [6]
A 4 kg block B, resting on a flat, rough horizontal table, is connected by a light

inextensible string to a 6 kg block A. The string is passed over a light frictionless pulley in
such a way that block A hangs vertically downwards as shown in the diagram below.
4.1 Write down Newton’s Second Law of motion in words. (2)
4.2 Draw a free-body diagram of all forces acting on block B. (4)
QUESTION 5 [11]
The diagram below shows a crate of mass 50 kg sliding down a steep slope. The slope
makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The motion of the crate as it moves down the
slope is controlled by a worker using a rope attached to the crate. The rope is held
parallel to the slope. The magnitude of the tension in the rope, FT, is 300 N and a
constant frictional force of 50 N acts on the crate as it slides down the slope.
5.1 Draw a labelled free-body diagram showing the forces parallel to the slope acting
on the crate as it moves down the slope. (3)
5.2 Determine the net force acting on the crate. (4)
5.3 Calculate the coefficient of kinetic friction on the crate as it moves down the slope. (4)

QUESTION 6 [13]
A light inelastic string connects two blocks of mass 1,5 kg and 2 kg respectively. A force
is applied at an angle of 20° on block A.
If a force F of 8,25 N is applied on block A, the blocks move at a CONSTANT VELOCITY

on the rough surface.
6.1 Draw force diagram of object B showing only the horizontal forces. (2)
6.2 Draw a free body diagram of object A. (5)
6.3 Calculate the horizontal component of the applied force F. (2)
6.4 Calculate the magnitude of the normal force acting on block A. (4)
QUESTION 7 [7]
Two boxes P and Q, of mass 2 kg and 3 kg respectively, are joined by an inextensible

light string and are at rest on a rough horizontal surface. A constant force F of magnitude
30 N is then applied parallel to the surface towards the right on Q for 3 s and Q moves a
distance of 6 m. Ignore the mass of the string.
7.1 Name the perpendicular force that the surface, with which the box is in contact,
exerts on the box. (1)
7.2 Why is the acceleration of the boxes P and Q the same, when they move under
the action of the force F? (1)
7.3 Calculate the acceleration of the box Q if the box starts from rest. (4)
7.4 What is the direction of the net force on the boxes after the force F is removed? (1)

QUESTION 8 [8]
Two masses of 5 kg and 3 kg respectively are connected by a string that passes over a
pulley. The table surface exerts a constant frictional force of 10 N on the 5 kg mass.
Ignore the mass of the string and any friction caused by the pulley. The diagram below
illustrates the situation.
8.1 Draw a free body diagram to show all the forces acting on the:
8.1.1 5 kg mass. (4)
8.1.2 3 kg mass. (2)
8.2 Which ONE of the following physical quantities is a measure of the inertia of a
body?
a) Mass
b) Energy
c) Velocity
d) Acceleration (2)
QUESTION 9 [7]
The diagram below shows a 3 500 kg spaceship travelling in the vacuum of space in an
orbit around the Earth at constant speed.
9.1 Name and define in words the law in Physics that explains the continuous orbiting
of the spacecraft around the Earth at constant speed in the vacuum of space. (3)
9.2 The spacecraft is orbiting at constant speed in an isolated system. Explain in

words the meaning of the underlined words. (2)
9.3 Draw a labelled free body diagram to indicate all the forces acting on the
spaceship as it plunges vertically through the Earth’s atmosphere. (2)
QUESTION 10 [16]

10.1 A constant horizontal force F is applied to a box resting on a horizontal, frictionless
surface.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding force F is CORRECT?
Force F will cause the box to move with …
A. constant acceleration.
B. constant velocity.
C. constant kinetic energy.
D. constant momentum. (2)
10.2 A block rests on a table. The table stands on a concrete floor. The normal force is
represented by N, as shown in the diagram below.
Which ONE of the following forces will form an action-reaction pair with the normal
force (N)?
A. Force of the block on the earth.
B. Force of the block on the table.
C. Force of the table surface on the block.
D. Force of the block on the concrete floor. (2)
10.3 The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is greater than that on the moon.
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The weight of an object on Earth is the same as that on the moon.
B. The mass of an object on Earth is the same as that on the moon.
C. The mass of an object on Earth is greater than that on the moon.
D. The weight of an object on Earth is less than that on the moon. (2)

10.4 The force diagram below shows the forces acting on a box.
Which ONE of the following equations for the magnitude of the normal force (N) is
CORRECT?
A. N = w + F cos θ
B. N = w + F sin θ
C. N = w − F cos θ
D. N = w − F sin θ (2)
10.5 A net force F which acts on a body of mass m causes an acceleration a. if the
same net force F is applied to a body of mass 2m, the acceleration of the body will
be …
A. ¼a
B. ½a
C. 2a
D. 4a (2)
10.6 Two objects of masses 2 m and m are arranged as shown in the diagram below.
Which ONE of the changes below will produce the GREATEST increase in the
gravitational force exerted by the one mass on the other?
A. Double the larger mass.
B. Halve the smaller mass.
C. Double the distance between the masses.
D. Halve the distance between the masses. (2)

10.7 Which ONE of the following forces always acts perpendicular to the surface on
which a body is placed?
A. Normal force
B. Frictional force
C. Gravitational force
D. Tension force (2)
10.8 The tendency of an object to remain at rest or to continue in its uniform motion in a
straight line is known as …
A. Inertia
B. Acceleration
C. Newton’s Third Law
D. Newton’s Second Law (2)
QUESTION 11 [5]
Two blocks of mass M kg and 2,5 kg respectively are connected by a light, inextensible
string. The string runs over a light, frictionless pulley, as shown in the diagram below.
The blocks are stationary.
11.1 State Newton’s THIRD law in words. (2)
11.2 Calculate the tension in the string. (3)

QUESTION 12 [6]
The diagram below shows a 10 kg block lying on a flat, horizontal surface of a table. The
block is connected by a light, inextensible string to a 2 kg block hanging over the side of
the table. The string runs over a light, frictionless pulley.
The blocks are stationary.
12.1 State Newton’s FIRST law in words. (2)
12.2 Write down the magnitude of the NET force acting on the 10 kg block. (1)
When a 15 N force is applied vertically downwards on the 2 kg block, the 10 kg block

accelerates to the right at 1,2 m•s-2.
12.3 Draw a free-body diagram for the 2 kg block when the 15 N force is applied to it. (3)

WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
QUESTION 1 [12]
1.1 Work (2)
1.2 Power (2)
1.3 Kinetic Energy (2)
1.4 Conservative force (2)
1.5 Non-Conservative force (2)
1.6 Normal force (2)
QUESTION 2 [10]
2.1 State the law of conservation of mechanical energy in words. (2)
2.2 State the work energy theorem in words. (2)
2.3 Define mechanical energy. (2)
2.4 Give an example of the following:
2.4.1 Conservative force. (1)
2.4.2 Non-conservative force. (1)
2.5 Energy can be measured in: (2)
A. kg.m.s.
B. kg. s–1.m
C. kg. m3.s–2
D. kg.m–1.s

QUESTION 3 [16]
During an accident, the driver applies the brakes to bring a car to rest. The combined
mass of the driver and car is 800 kg. The investigators at the accident scene measure the
length of the car’s skid marks on the level road and find them to be 88 m long. The co-
efficient of kinetic friction on the road was estimated to be 0,42.
The forces acting on the car while braking is shown as X, Y and Z in the diagram.
3.1 Name the force marked Y. (1)
3.2 Which one of the above forces is a conservative force? (1)
3.3 What is the magnitude of the work done by force Y? (1)
3.4 Which one of the above forces does negative work on the car? (1)
3.5 State the work-energy theorem in words. (2)
3.6 Determine the magnitude of the frictional force acting between the wheels of the
car and the road surface that brings it to rest. (3)
3.7 Calculate the work done by friction. (3)
3.8 Using the work-energy principle only, determine the speed of the car just before
the driver slammed on, and locked, the brakes. (4)
QUESTION 4 [16]
A container of mass 120 kg hanging from a steel cable that is attached to a crane, is
accelerated vertically upwards from rest through a height of 12 m and reaches a
maximum speed of 5 m.s─1 when its height is 12 m. Friction cannot be ignored.

4.1 Draw a labelled free-body diagram for all the forces acting on the accelerating
container. (3)
4.2 If the magnitude of the cable tension (applied force) is 800 N, then calculate the
work done by the applied force to raise the container 12 m. (4)
4.3 Explain the term conservative force. (2)
4.4 Which one of the above forces is a conservative force? (1)
4.5 Identify two non-conservative forces acting on the container while it is being lifted. (2)
4.6 Using energy principles to calculate the work done on the container by friction
while it is moving to a height of 12 m. (4)
QUESTION 5 [10]
A 5 kg block is released from rest from a height of 5 m and slides down a frictionless
incline to point P as shown in the diagram below. It then moves along a frictionless
horizontal portion PQ and finally moves up a second rough inclined plane. It comes to a
stop at point R which is 3 m above the horizon.
The frictional force, which is a non-conservative force, between the surface and the
block is 18 N.
5.1 Using ENERGY PRINCIPLES only, calculate the speed of the block point at P. (4)
5.2 Explain why the kinetic energy at point P is the same as that at point Q. (2)
5.3 Explain the term non-conservative force. (2)
5.4 (Ep + Ek) top = (Ep + Ek) bottom when no … are present.
A. Frictional force.
B. Tension forces.
C. Applied forces.
D. Gravitational forces. (2)

QUESTION 6 [14]
A box of mass 86 kg is accelerating down a surface inclined at 25° to the horizontal.
A man applies a force F upwards parallel to the surface in an attempt to prevent the box
from sliding down the inclined plane. In spite of the man’s efforts the box is accelerating
down the inclined plane.
6.1 What is a non-conservative force? (2)
6.2 The co-efficient of kinetic friction (μ k) between the box and the surface of the
plane is 0,22. Prove that the magnitude of the kinetic frictional force is 168,04 N. (2)
6.4 Draw a labelled FREE BODY diagram of all the forces acting on the box. (4)
QUESTION 7 [11]
A box is held stationary at point A, the top of a plane ABC, inclined at an angle to the
horizontal. The portion AB of the plane is smooth while the portion BC is rough.
7.1 State the law of conservation of mechanical energy in words. (2)
7.2 Calculate the speed of the box at position B. (4)
7.3 The box experiences a kinetic frictional force of 14,7 N as it moves with a constant
velocity, from B to C, down the plane.
7.3.1 State the Work-Energy Theorem in words. (2)
7.3.2 Draw a free-body diagram showing ALL forces acting on the box at position B. (3)

QUESTION 8 [20]
A heavy concrete block of mass 50 kg, slides down a rough plane, inclined at 30o.
It experiences a constant frictional force of 100 N as it slides down the inclined plane at a
velocity of 3 m.s-1 when it passes point K.
8.1 State the work-energy principle. (2)
8.2 Draw a labelled free-body diagram depicting all the forces acting on the concrete
block. (4)
8.3 Calculate the magnitude of the normal force acting on the concrete block. (3)
8.4 Calculate the work done on the concrete block by gravity as it moves between
points K and L, which are 10 m apart. (3)
8.5 Calculate the work done on the concrete block by friction as it moves between
points K and L. (3)
8.6 Use the work-energy principle to calculate the object’s velocity at point L. (5)
QUESTION 9 [13]
A box of mass 60 kg starts from rest at height h and slides down a rough slope of length
10 m, which makes an angle of 25° with the horizontal. It undergoes a constant
acceleration of magnitude 2 m.s-2 while sliding down the slope.
9.2 Draw a free-body diagram to show ALL the forces acting on the cardboard box
while it slides down the slope. (3)

9.3 The box reaches the bottom of the slope. Calculate the following:
9.3.1 The kinetic energy of the box, using the equations of motion. (4)
9.3.2 The work done on the box by the gravitational force. (4)
QUESTION 10 [4]
10.1 A person lifts a crate vertically upwards at constant velocity through a distance h.
The person does work x on the crate in time t.
The person now lifts the same crate vertically upwards at constant velocity through
the same distance, but in time 2t.
The work done by the person on the crate will now be …
A. ½x
B. x
C. 2x
D. 4x (2)
10.2 The speed of a bicycle increases form 2 m•s-1 to 8 m•s-1. Its kinetic energy
increases by a factor of …
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16 (2)

QUESTION 11 [11]
A constant force F, applied at an angle of 20° above the horizontal, pulls a 200 kg block,
over a distance of 3 m, on a rough, horizontal floor as shown in the diagram below.
The co-efficient of kinetic friction, 𝜇𝑘 , between the floor surface and the block is 0,2.
11.1 Give a reason why the co-efficient of kinetic friction has no units. (1)
11.3 Draw a free-body diagram indicating ALL the forces acting on the block while it is
being pulled. (4)
11.4 Show that the work done by the kinetic frictional force (𝑊𝑓𝑘 ) on the block can be
written as 𝑊𝑓𝑘 = (−1 176 + 0,205 F) J. (4)

DOPPLER’S EFFECT
QUESTION 1 [9]
1.1 Explain the difference between frequency and period. (5)
1.2 Give an example of a:
1.2.1 Transverse wave (1)
1.2.2 Longitudinal wave (1)
1.3 State the relationship between frequency and wavelength in light waves. (2)
QUESTION 2 [11]
2.1 State Doppler’s effect. (2)
2.2 Which principle can be applied to explain what happens to the pitch of a sound as
the source comes closer and closer, pass you and move away? (1)
2.2.1 Why does this happen? (1)
2.2.2 Give a real-life example. (1)
2.3 State three properties of the nature of sound waves. (3)
2.4 Name two applications of the Doppler effect in Medical Science. (2)
2.5 Give ONE use of the Doppler flow meter. (1)
QUESTION 3 [4]
A car passes a pedestrian who is standing at a crossing at 10 m.s-1. The driver sounds
the hooter which has a frequency of 150 Hz.
What frequency will the pedestrian hear after passing the pedestrian?
QUESTION 4 [14]
You are standing on a balcony of a block of flats as a fire engine passes in the street below
with a velocity of 20 m.s-1. The siren of the fire engine has frequency of 1000 Hz. The
speed of sound in air is 340m.s-1
4.1 Calculate the frequency of the siren that you hear as the fire engine approaches
you.
4.2 Calculate the frequency of the siren that you hear as the fire engine has passed
you.

4.3 Use the answers in 4.1 and 4.2 to explain what you will hear.
4.4 A car is driving in the same street next to the fire engine with a speed of 30 m.s-1.
The car passes as the siren is blown. Calculate the frequency of the siren that the
driver of the car would hear after passing the fire engine.
QUESTION 5 [6]
A hawk emits sounds at a frequency of 90 Hz. The speed of sound in air is 340 m.s-1
5.1 If a stationary observer hears the sounds at 88 Hz, is the hawk flying towards or
away from the observer? (2)
5.2 Calculate the speed with which the hawk is flying. (4)
QUESTION 6 [9]
A burglar alarm is wailing with a frequency of 1200 hertz. The speed of sound in air is
340m.s-1
6.1 If a police officer drives towards the alarm at constant velocity, would he observe
an INCREASE, DECREASE or NO CHANGE in the frequency of the sound? (2)
6.2 Explain the answer in QUESTION 6.1 by referring to the WAVELENGTH of the
sound observed by the officer. (3)
6.3 Calculate the frequency the police officer will observe if he is driving towards the
alarm at a constant speed of 40 m•s-1. (4)
QUESTION 7 [4]
A police car is moving down along on a flat road at a constant speed and emits from its
siren sound waves with a frequency 346 Hz. A woman sitting next to the road detects
sound waves at a frequency that is 50 Hz more than the frequency of sound waves
emitted by the siren as the police car is moving towards her.
7.1 Explain, in terms of wave motion, why the frequency heard by the woman is higher
than the frequency of the source. (2)
7.2 A line in a hydrogen spectrum has a frequency of 7,55 x 1014 Hz when measured
in laboratory the same line in the spectrum of a distant star has a frequency of
17,23 x 1011 Hz. State whether the distant star is moving TOWARDS or AWAY
from the earth. Give a reason for the answer. (2)

QUESTION 8 [4]
8.1 Light reaching the Earth from a galaxy moving away is shifted towards …
A. Greater velocities.
B. Higher frequencies.
C. Longer wavelengths.
D. Shorter wavelengths. (2)
8.2 A source of sound approaches a stationary listener in a straight line at constant

velocity. It passes the listener and moves away form him in the same straight line
at the same constant velocity. Which ONE of the following graphs best represents
the change in observed frequency against time?
(2)
QUESTION 9 [15]
A racing car approaches a data capturing centre at a racetrack. The motion-monitoring

machine produces a frequency versus time trace as shown below.
9.1 State the Doppler effect in words. (2)

9.2 Write down the frequency detected by the machine as the race car …
9.2.1 Approaches the data centre. (1)
9.2.2 Moves away from the data centre. (1)
9.3 Calculate the speed of the race car if the frequency produced by the motion-
monitoring machine is 1 160 Hz.
Take the speed of sound in air as 340 m•s-1. (5)
9.4 Doctors use the Doppler flow meter for diagnostic purpose on patients who have
blocked arteries.
9.4.1 State what is measured in a human using the Doppler flow meter. (1)
9.4.2 Explain how the doppler effect works in the answer to QUESTION 10.4.1. (2)
9.5 While studying the stars through a telescope it is noticed that a red colour is
observed behind the stars.
9.5.1 What is this phenomenon called? (1)
9.5.2 Should the people on earth be worried about this occurrence? (2)

ELECTROSTATICS
QUESTION 1 [4]
1.1 Define electric field at a point. (2)
1.2 Describe electric field (2)
QUESTION 2 [4]
2.1 State Coulomb’s law in words. (2)
2.2 State the principle of conservation of charge. (2)
QUESTION 3 [8]
3.1 In each of the diagrams below, say whether the force between the spheres will be
a force of attraction or repulsion: (2)
3.2 A neutral object obtains a charge of +1,088 x 10-17 C.
3.2.1 Did the object gain or lose electrons to obtain this charge? (1)
3.2.2 How many electrons did it gain or lose? (3)
3.2.3 Draw an electric field line diagram to represent the field set up by the charged
object. (2)
QUESTION 4 [6]
The electric field between two positively charged particles P and Q is shown in the
diagram below:

Compare the following:
4.1 Which charge is bigger, P or Q? (2)
4.2 How do the forces on P and Q compare? (2)
4.3 Which electric field is more intense, the field of P or the field of Q? (2)
QUESTION 5 [4]
Calculate the magnitude of the force between two objects, one with a charge of -3µC and
the other with a charge of + 7µC positioned 300 mm apart.
QUESTION 6 [12]
Two identical negatively charged spheres, A and B, are placed 0,5 m apart in vacuum. The
magnitude of the electrostatic force that one sphere exerts on the other is 1,44 x 10 -1 N.
6.1 State Coulomb's law in words. (2)
6.2 Calculate the:
6.2.1 Magnitude of the charge on each sphere. (4)
6.2.2 Excess number of electrons on sphere B. (3)
6.2.3 Draw the electric field pattern due to the two spheres A and B. (3)
QUESTION 7 [18]
7.1 Calculate the electric field strength around a charge of + 5 nC if a point charge
placed in the field experiences a force of 2,5 x 10-6 N. (3)
7.2 Calculate the force experienced by a test charge placed in the electric field of a 3,5
µC charge if the electric field strength is 45 N.C-1. (3)
7.3 What is the magnitude and direction of the electric field 150 cm away from a
positive charge of 2,1 nC? (4)
7.4 Two charges, Q1 of + 3,5 nC and Q2 of + 4,5 nC are separated by a distance of 50

mm. Point X is positioned 15 mm from Q1 and 35 mm from Q2
7.4.1 What is the electric field strength at point X due to charge Q1? (3)

7.4.2 What is the electric field strength at point X due to charge Q2? (3)
7.4.3 Use your answers in 7.4.1 and 7.4.2 to calculate the electric field strength at point X. (2)
QUESTION 8 [11]
8.1 Two identical metal spheres, P and Q, separated by a distance d, are suspended
from an insulated rigid wooden bar, as shown in the diagram below. The charge
on the spheres are –4 μC and + 8 μC respectively.
8.1.1 Sphere Q experiences an electrostatic force. In which direction will sphere Q

move? (1)
The spheres are now made to touch and are then separated.
8.1.2 Were electrons REMOVED FROM or TRANSFERRED TO P? Give a reason for

the answer. (2)
8.1.3 Calculate the distance d between the two spheres if the magnitude of the force
experienced by P is 0,8 N. (3)
8.2 Charges of + 4 μC and –3 μC are placed a distance 0,2° m apart on a straight line,as
shown below. Point P is located 0,1 m to the right of the 3 μC charge. (5)
Calculate the net electric field at point P.

QUESTION 9: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS [8]
9.1 The magnitude of the electrostatic force on a charge Q1 due to another charge Q2
is F. Both charges are now doubled without changing the distance between them.
The magnitude of the new electrostatic force on Q1 will be:

F
A. 2
B. 2F
C. 4F
D. 6F (2)
9.2 Two identical light graphite-coated spheres, P1 and P2 , are suspended using
identical thin insulated threads. P1 is charged, but P2 is neutral. The spheres are
then brought into contact with each other, as shown in diagram Ⅰ. Thereafter the
spheres assume the positions, as shown in diagram Ⅱ.
Which ONE of the following statements concerning the charges on the

spheres possibly explains why the spheres move apart after touching, as
shown in diagram Ⅱ?
Sign of charge on P1 Sign of charge on P𝟐 Magnitude of charges

on P1 and P𝟐
A. + + Unequal
B. - - Unequal
C. + - Equal
D. + + Equal
(2)

9.3 P, Q and R are three charged spheres. When P and Q are brought near each
other, they experience an attractive force. When Q and R brought near each
other, they experience a repulsive force.
Which ONE of the following is TRUE?
A. P and R have charges with the same sign.
B. P and R have charges with opposite signs.
C. P, Q and R have charges with the same sign.
D. P, Q and R have equal charges. (2)
9.4 Three identical positive point charges, Q1, Q2 and Q3 are replaced on three corners
of a right-angled triangle as shown in the sketch below.
Which ONE of the following diagrams shows the direction in which Q2 will move as a
result of the electrostatic forces exerted by Q1 and Q3 on it?
A. B.
C. D.
(2)

QUESTION 10 [17]
An insulated sphere Q of mass 8 × 10−2 kg and carrying a charge of + 0,6 𝜇𝐶 is hung by a

string of negligible mass. Another charged sphere R carrying a charge of − 0,9 𝜇𝐶 is held
0.150 m away from Q and directly to the right of it, so that the string makes an angle 𝜃
with the vertical.
10.1 State Coulomb’s Law of Electrostatics in words. (2)
10.2 Draw the electric field pattern that exists between the two charged spheres in the
sketch above. (3)
10.3 Draw a free-body diagram for sphere Q. (3)
10.4 Calculate 𝜃. (6)
10.5 Calculate the tension in the string. (3)

ELECTRODYNAMICS
QUESTION 1 [4]
1.1 Root mean square voltage. (2)
1.2 Faraday’s law (2)
QUESTION 2 [12]
2.1 State the energy conversion in generators. (2)
2.2 State the energy conversion in motors. (2)
2.3 Give an example of the use generators. (1)
2.4 Give an example of the use of motors. (1)
2.5 Give a comparison between AC generators and motors. (2)
2.6 Give a comparison between DC and AC motors. (4)
QUESTION 3 [6]
The arrangement of apparatus to demonstrate Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction

is shown below.
3.1 State Faraday's law in words. (2)
3.2 State TWO ways in which the deflection on the galvanometer can be increased. (2)
3.3 If the north pole of the magnet is pulled out of the coil determine the polarity of the
solenoid and indicate if the north pole of the solenoid is formed on the left or right. (2)

QUESTION 4 [8]
A simplified diagram of a DC generator and a graph of its output potential difference for
one cycle is shown below.
4.1 Write down ONE way in which the output of this generator can be increased. (1)
A specific change is made to the structure of the DC generator in QUESTION 4.1 above.
As a result of this change the output potential difference obtained is shown below.
4.2 Write down the change that was made to the DC generator. (1)
4.3 Copy graph P into your answer book. On the same axes, sketch the graph of the
output potential difference that will be obtained when the new generator is rotated
at TWICE its original speed. Label this graph as Q. (2)
4.4 A certain generator operates at a maximum voltage of 340 V. A 120 W appliance

is connected to the generator. Calculate the resistance of the appliance. (4)

QUESTION 5 [8]
The diagram below represents a simplified version of an electrical machine used to light
up a bulb.
5.1 Name the principle on which the machine operates. (1)
5.2 State ONE way in which to make this bulb burn brighter. (1)
5.3 Some changes have been made to the machine and a new device is obtained as
shown below.
brushes
Name part X in the new device. (1)
5.4 The graph of output emf versus time obtained using the device in QUESTION 5.3
is shown below.

5.4.1 Define the term root mean square value of an AC voltage. (2)
5.4.2 Calculate the rms voltage. (3)
QUESTION 6 [11]
6.1 A teacher demonstrates how current can be obtained using a bar magnet, a coil
and a galvanometer. The teacher moves the bar magnet up and down, as shown
by the arrow in the diagram below.
6.1.1 Briefly describe how the magnet must be moved in order to obtain a LARGE
deflection on the galvanometer. (2)
The two devices, A and B, below operate on the principle described in QUESTION 6.1.1
above.
6.1.2 Write down the name of the principle. (1)
6.1.3 Write down the name of part X in device A. (1)
6.2 A 220 V, AC voltage is supplied from a wall socket to an electric kettle of

resistance 40,33 Ω. Wall sockets provide rms voltages and currents.
Calculate the:
6.2.1 Electrical energy consumed by the kettle per second. (4)

6.2.2 Maximum (peak) current through the kettle. (3)
QUESTION 7 [12]
Electric generators are described as either AC or DC generators.
7.1 What energy conversion takes place in all electric generators? (1)
7.2 Consider the simplified sketch of a generator below. The direction of the initially
induced current is indicated on the sketch.
7.2.1 Is the above generator an AC or a DC generator? (1)
7.2.2 Which specific part of the generator in the above sketch, 1, 2, 3, or 4 helps to
identify the type of generator? (1)
7.2.3 In which direction (clockwise or anti-clockwise) is the coil between the magnets
being rotated? (1)
7.2.4 Briefly explain why the induced emf is at a maximum when the coil is parallel to the
magnetic field. (2)
7.3 The graph of potential difference and time for the generator in question 7.2 is
shown below.
If a rms current of 15 A is produced, determine the rate at which the generator will
transfer energy. (6)

QUESTION 8 [6]
The diagram below shows a simplified way of representing a DC motor. Study the
diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
8.1 In which direction, clockwise or anti-clockwise, would this coil rotate? (1)
8.2 Name the rule that you applied to obtain the direction of rotation. (2)
8.3 Name the component A and explain its function in the motor. (2)
8.4 State what changes would have to take place if this motor was to be changed into
an AC motor. (1)
QUESTION 9 [8]
9.1 Which ONE of the energy conversions below takes place when a DC motor is in
operation?
A. Kinetic to electrical.
B. Heat to mechanical.
C. Mechanical to electrical.
D. Electrical to mechanical. (2)
9.2 The diagram below shows a current-carrying conductor lying in a uniform magnetic
field directed to the right. The current flows into the page.
Which ONE of the following arrows shows the direction of the force experienced by
the conductor due to the magnetic field?
(2)

9.3 When a DC electric current flows through a single current-carrying conductor, the
right-hand rule helps us to determine the …
A. force on the conductor.
B. field on the conductor.
C. direction of induced emf.
D. direction of the electric field around the conductor. (2)
9.4 A rectangular wire loop ABCD is rotated between two poles of a magnet as shown
below.
Which of the following is true concerning the induced emf and induced current in
the coil when the loop is at the position shown in the diagram above? The loop is
being rotated anti-clockwise.
Induced emf Induced current
A. Increasing Decreasing
B. Increasing Increasing
C. Decreasing Decreasing
D. Decreasing Increasing
(2)

QUESTION 10 [13]
A coil is rotated in a magnetic field of a generator. The varying induced emf obtained is
represented in the graph.
10.1 Which type of generator was used to produce the above type of graph. (1)
10.2 What structural feature of the generator allows it to produce the above type of
graph? (1)
10.3 Define rms voltage. (2)
10.4 Calculate the induced rms voltage for the generator. (3)
10.5 The coil is now rotated at TWICE the original speed. Write down the period of the
new wave. (1)
10.6 Calculate the average power generated if the generator produces a maximum
current of 2 A. (3)
10.7 Give two advantages of using alternating current rather than direct current. (2)

ELECTRICITY
QUESTION 1 [12]
1.1 Current (2)
1.2 Potential difference (2)
1.3 Electromotive force (EMF) (2)
1.4 Ohmic conductor (2)
1.5 Power (2)
1.6 1 kWh (2)
QUESTION 2 [8]
2.1 State Ohm’s law in words. (2)
2.2 Give three comparisons between resistors in series and in parallel. (6)
QUESTION 3 [10]
3.1 As the number of resistors in a series circuit increases, the overall resistance
____________ (increases, decreases, remains the same) and the current in the
circuit _____________ (increases, decreases, remains the same). (2)
3.2 Study the circuit diagram and find the following readings:
3.2.1 The total resistance of the circuit. (1)
3.2.2 The reading on ammeter A1. (1)
3.2.4 The reading on voltmeter V. (1)

3.3 Study the circuit diagram and find the following readings:
3.3.1 The total resistance of the circuit. (1)
3.3.4 The reading on voltmeter V. (1)
QUESTION 4 [12]
4.1 As more and more resistors are added in parallel to a circuit, the equivalent
resistance of the circuit ____________ (increases, decreases) and the total
current of the circuit ____________ (increases, decreases). (2)
4.2 The equivalent parallel resistance is 6 Ω.
Study the circuit diagram and calculate:
4.2.1 The resistance of resistor R2. (3)
4.2.2 The current I1. (3)
4.2.3 The current I2. (1)
4.2.4 The total current I. (1)
4.2.5 The reading on voltmeter V1. (1)
4.2.6 The reading on voltmeter VII. (1)

QUESTION 5 [10]
Three resistors of 3 Ω, 4 Ω and 12 Ω are connected in parallel to a 6 V battery. Calculate:
5.1 The total resistance of the three resistors. (3)
5.2 The reading on the ammeter A. (3)
5.3 The potential difference across all three resistors. (1)
5.4 The current through the 12 Ω-resistor. (3)
QUESTION 6 [11]
The sketch shows a circuit where two resistors are connected in parallel to a battery.
6.1 Each cell has an emf of 2,5 V. What is the emf of the battery?
Both switches are closed. (2)
6.2 Calculate the total resistance of the two resistors in parallel. (3)
6.3 Calculate the reading on the ammeter. (3)
6.4 Calculate the current through the 1 Ω-resistor. (3)

QUESTION 7 [7]
The circuit below is used to determine the resistance of resistor X. The 12 V battery has
negligible internal resistance. When switch S is closed, the reading on the ammeter is
0,5 A.
7.1 State Ohm's law in words. (2)
7.2 Calculate the resistance of resistor X. (5)
QUESTION 8 [14]
In the circuit diagram shown below, the battery, ammeter and connecting wires have
negligible resistance. The reading on the ammeter is 3 A.
8.1 Calculate:
8.1.1 the total resistance in the circuit (4)
8.1.2 the value of resistor R (4)
8.2 A hair dryer operates at a voltage of 240 V and a current of 9,5 A It takes a
learner 12 minutes to completely dry her hair. ESKOM charges energy usage
at R1,47 per unit. Calculate the cost of operating the dryer for the12 minutes.
(1 unit = 1 kW·h) (6)

QUESTION 9 [11]
The two graphs below represent the relationship between potential difference and current
in a metal wire at two different constant temperatures, T1 and T2.
9.1 Calculate the resistance of the metal wire at temperature T1. (4)
9.2 Which graph was obtained at the higher temperature? Give a reason for the
answer. (3)
9.3 The metal wire is an ohmic conductor. Justify this statement by referring to the
graphs. (1)
9.4 Calculate the power dissipated in the metal wire when the current in it is 25 A at
temperature T2. (3)
QUESTION 10 [12]
In the circuit below the reading on ammeter A is 0,2 A. The battery has an emf of 9 V and
internal resistance r.

10.1 Calculate the current through the 5,5 Ω resistor. (3)
10.2 Calculate the internal resistance of the battery. (7)
10.3 Will the ammeter reading INCREASE, DECREASE or REMAIN THE SAME if the
5,5 Ω resistor is removed from the circuit? Give a reason for the answer. (2)
QUESTION 11 [12]
The circuit diagram below shows two resistors of resistance 4 Ω and 5 Ω each connected
in parallel to resistor R1 of unknown resistance. The battery has an emf of 15 V and an
unknown internal resistance.
11.1 State Ohm’s law in words. (2)
When switch S is closed, the ammeter has a reading of 1,5 A and the voltmeter has a
reading of 12,9 V.
11.2 Calculate the resistance of resistor R1. (3)
11.3 Calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel circuit. (3)
11.4 Calculate the internal resistance of the battery. (4)

QUESTION 12 [10]
12.1 When a resistor of resistance R is connected to a battery of emf 𝜀 and negligible

internal resistance, the power dissipated in the resistor is P.
If the resistor is replaced with a resistor of resistance 2R, without changing the
battery, the power dissipated will be …
A. ¼P
B. ½P
C. 2P
D. 4P (2)
12.2 Four identical bulbs, P, Q, R and S, are connected to a cell in a circuit, as shown
below. The cell has negligible internal resistance.
Which ONE of the following statements about the brightness of bulbs P, Q, R and
S is CORRECT?
A. P burn brighter than R.
B. S and Q burn brighter than P and R.
C. P and R burn brighter than S and Q.
D. All the bulbs burn with the same brightness. (2)
12.3 The minimum value of the resistance that can be obtained by connecting two 4 Ω
resistors is …
A. 1 Ω.
B. 2 Ω.
C. 3 Ω.
D. 8 Ω. (2)

The graph below shows the change of potential difference, V, across the terminals of the
battery with current, I, through the battery.
12.4 The magnitude of the emf of the battery is …
A. 1,2 V
B. 0V
C. 1,7 V
D. 3,0 V (2)
12.5 Ω and 10 Ω resistor are connected in parallel as shown in the diagram.
The relationship between current I2 and current I2 can be expressed as:
A. I2 = I1
1
B. I2 = 2
I1
1
C. I2 = 3
I1
3
D. I2 = 2
I1 (2)

QUESTION 13 [15]
The circuit below consists of a battery with an emf of 24 V and an unknown internal
resistance, r. Three ohmic resistors R1, R2 and R3 have resistances as shown in the
diagram. Resistance of R4 is not known. When switch S is closed, the reading on
voltmeter V is 21,5 V whilst the ammeter reads 1,15 A.
13.1 Explain the term ohmic resistor. (2)
13.2 Calculate the following:
13.2.1 Magnitude of the current through resistor R2. (4)
13.2.2 Resistance of resistor R4. (4)
13.2.3 Internal resistance of the battery. (3)
13.3 By referring to energy transfer in the battery, explain why the reading on voltmeter
V decreases when switch S is closed. (2)

PHOTO-ELECTRIC EFFECT
QUESTION 1 [10]
1.1 Photo-Electric effect. (2)
1.2 Threshold frequency fo. (2)
1.3 Work function Wo. (2)
1.4 An atomic absorption spectrum. (2)
1.5 An atomic emission spectrum. (2)
QUESTION 2 [15]
Visible light is only one part of a whole range of possible frequencies and wavelengths of
electromagnetic waves. The whole range is known as the electromagnetic spectrum.
2.1 All electromagnetic waves travel through space at the speed of light, c, which is
equal to 3 x 108 m.s-1. Since c = fλ, which type of electromagnetic wave has:
2.1.1 The highest frequency? (2)
2.1.2 The lowest frequency? (2)
2.2 The energy transferred by an electromagnetic wave can be calculated using the
equation:
E = hf where h, known as Planck’s constant, has a value of 6,63 x 10-34 Js.
2.2.1 State the relationship between the energy and frequency of an electromagnetic
wave. (1)
2.2.2 Which type of electromagnetic wave would transfer the greatest amount of
energy? Which type would transfer the least energy? (2)
2.2.3 Calculate the energy associated with an electromagnetic wave of frequency

824 x 106 Hz. (3)
2.2.4 Without performing a calculation, state whether an electromagnetic wave of

frequency 3 x 1020 Hz is associated with a greater or lower quantity of energy.
Explain your reasoning. (2)
2.3 Microwaves can be used to cook food.
2.3.1 What relationship exists between the energy transferred by a quantum of

electromagnetic radiation and the penetrating ability of the wave? (1)
2.3.2 Would you expect microwaves to have a high or low penetrating ability relative to
radio waves? (2)

QUESTION 3 [18]
Graph P below shows how the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted from the
cathode of a photoelectric cell varies with the frequency of the incident radiation.
3.1 Define the term work function. (2)
3.2 Use the graph to:
3.2.1 Describe the relationship. (2)
3.2.2 Determine the maximum kinetic energy for a frequency of 11 x 1014 Hz. (2)
3.2.3 Determine the threshold frequency fo. (2)
3.3.1 Calculate the work function of the metal used as cathode in the photocell. (3)
3.3.2 What is the mass of one electron? (1)
3.3.3 Calculate the velocity of photoelectrons emitted when the frequency of the incident
light is 8 x 1014 Hz. (4)
3.4 What constant does the gradient represent? (2)
QUESTION 4 [9]
4.1 Name the electromagnetic wave with the highest penetrating ability. (1)
4.2 Give one word for ‘packets of energy’ making up electromagnetic radiation. (1)

The diagram below shows a metal plate that emits electrons when a certain frequency of
electromagnetic radiation is incident on it. The plate is connected to a source of potential
difference and an ammeter as shown in the circuit below.
4.3 Name the phenomenon described above. (1)
When radiation of wavelength 555 nm is incident on the metal plate, electrons are
released with zero kinetic energy.
4.4 Define the term work function of a metal. (2)
4.5 Calculate the work function of this metal. (4)
QUESTION 5 [11]
A learner uses photocells with different types of metal cathodes to investigate the
maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons. One photocell has a caesium cathode
and the other has a sodium cathode. Each photocell is radiated by ultraviolet light from
the same source as shown below.
The incomplete results obtained are shown in the table below.
Name of the metal Work function of the metal Maximum kinetic energy of
(J) Photoelectrons (J)
Caesium 3,36 x 10-19 2,32 x 10-19
Sodium 3,65 x 10-19 EK
5.1 Define the term work function of a metal. (2)

5.2 State the:
5.2.1 Independent variable. (2)
5.2.2 Investigative question. (2)
5.3 What colour light is radiated by each photocell? (1)
5.4 Use the information in the table to determine which metal has a higher work
function. (1)
5.5 Will the maximum kinetic energy, EK, of an electron ejected from the sodium metal
be greater or smaller than the EK of an electron ejected from the caesium metal? (2)
5.6 The intensity of the incident ultraviolet light was then increased. Give a reason
why this change does NOT affect the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
photoelectrons. (1)
QUESTION 6 [11]
The work function of three metals is shown in the table below.
Metal Work function (Wo) in J
Aluminium 6,54 x 10‒19
Zinc 6,89 x 10‒19
Silver 7,61 x 10‒19
6.1 Identify the metal with the lowest threshold frequency fo. (2)
6.2 Light of wavelength 2,3 x 10‒7 m is shone onto a metal X. The average speed of
the emitted photo-electrons is 4,78 x 105 m∙s‒1.
6.2.1 Calculate the energy of a photon of wavelength 2,3 x 10-7m. (3)
6.2.2 Identify metal X by calculating its work function. (5)
6.3 What conclusion about the nature of light is drawn from the photo-electric effect? (1)

QUESTION 7 [8]
7.1 In an investigation on the photoelectric effect, the graph of maximum kinetic

energy (Ek(max) ) versus frequency (f) was obtained for a certain metal, as shown
below.
The intercepts, P and Q respectively, represent …
A. Plank’s constant and threshold frequency.
B. Work function and threshold frequency.
C. Threshold frequency and work function.
D. Threshold frequency and Plank’s constant. (2)
7.2 Light from a certain frequency is shone onto a metal M and electrons are ejected
from the surface. The same source of light is shone onto another metal N.
The electrons ejected from the surface of metal N have a much higher kinetic
energy than that from metal M.
This means that …
A. Metal N has the same work function as metal M.
B. Metal N has a larger work function than metal M.
C. The threshold frequency of metal N is higher than that of metal M.
D. The threshold frequency of metal N is lower than that of metal M. (2)

7.3 The possible atomic transitions in an exited atom of an element are shown below.
Which transition will produce the spectral line with the longest wavelength?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S (2)
7.4 When light of a certain frequency is shone on a metal surface, no electrons are
ejected form the surface. Which of the following changes may result in electrons
being ejected from the metal surface?
A. Use a metal with a larger work function.
B. Increase the surface area of the metal.
C. Increase the intensity of the light.
D. Use light with a much higher frequency. (2)
QUESTION 8 [15]
An experiment is conducted to investigate the relationship between the frequency of light

incident on a metal cathode and the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons from
the surface of a metal cathode of a photocell. The graph represents the results obtained.

8.1 For this investigation, write down the following:
8.1.1 Controlled variable. (1)
8.1.2 Dependent variable. (1)
8.2 Name the phenomenon on which this experiment is based. (1)
8.3 Define the term work function in words. (2)
8.4 Calculate the:
8.4.1 Value of x as shown on the graph. (3)
8.4.2 Frequency of the incident light that will emit electrons from the surface with a
maximum speed of 5,23 × 105 m•s-1. (4)
8.5 The intensity of the light is now increased. State how this change affects the
current in the photocell.
Choose form INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME.
Explain your answer. (3)

PRACTICAL SKILLS ACTIVITY A: RESOURCE MATERIAL 1 – 7
QUESTION 1 [12]
1.1 Explain what the hypothesis is. (2)
1.2 Sandile notices that his cup of coffee becomes fuller when he adds sugar. He
plans an investigation to determine how the volume of coffee increases as he adds
different amount of sugar to the coffee. Write the following for Sandile’s
investigation:
1.2.1 Investigative question. (2)
1.2.5 Constant(s) (2)
QUESTION 2 [29]
Bongiwe carries out ballistic experiment in an open field alongside an old mine dump (for
safety reasons). Bongiwe investigates the impact the distance travelled by pellets has on
the speed of the pellet. He fires an air rifle at polystyrene ball, which is suspended from
the light string the pellet gets stuck in polystyrene ball. He replaces polystyrene ball after
every shot. The polystyrene ball and pellet swing away to the right as shown in the
diagram, to the height, h. The mass of the pellet is 1,0 g and the mass of polystyrene is
50 g. The experiment is repeated by increasing the range by 5 m each time until the
range is 20 m.
2.1 Formulate suitable scientific question for this experiment. (2)
2.2 Formulate hypothesis for this experiment. (2)
2.3 Identify the following variable:

2.4 Use the following value showing the relationship between the dependent, a and
independent variables, m to answer the following questions:
m a 1
m
0,1 0,5
0,05 1,0
0,033 1,5
0,025 2,0
2.4.1 Draw the accurate graph of m versus a. Provide suitable heading for the graph
and indicate all applicable values on the axes. (5)
2.4.2 Identify the relationship between m and a. (2)
2.4.3 Give the relationship between m and a mathematically. (2)
2.4.4 Use the third column of the table to make specific transformation of the values on
the graph of 1 / m against a, which is a straight line. Complete the table by writing
values ang giving it a heading. (5)
2.5 Draw an accurate straight-line graph using the reworked data in the table. Provide
a suitable heading for the graph and indicate all applicable values on the axes. (5)
2.5.1 Calculate the gradient of the graph. (3)
QUESTION 3 [4]
Say whether each of the following is an example of qualitative or quantitative research:
3.1 Traditional medicine. (1)
3.2 Testing of Boyle’s Law. (1)
3.3 Chemical titration. (1)
3.4 Mopani worms used as source of nutrition. (1)
QUESTION 4 [31]
Juan and Megan are required to perform an experiment to investigate relationship

between current and potential difference of specific metallic conductor. They are given a
power source (0 – 6V), an unknown metallic resistor, rheostat (to change current
strength), a switch, an ammeter, voltmeter, and some connecting wires.
4.1 Write down suitable hypothesis of the experiment. (2)

4.2 Identify independent and dependent variable of the experiment. (2)
4.3 Which variables need to be kept constant during this experiment? Suggest some
ways that Juan and Megan could use to keep these quantities constant. (3)
4.4 Write down list of five to six steps that Juan and Megan should follow to conduct
this. Experiment (5)
The following Results were obtained.
Current (A) 0 0,3 0,6 0,8 1,1
Potential difference (V) 0 1,3 2,7 4,2 5,8
4.5 Draw the graph of these results with potential difference as dependent variable
and current as dependent variable. (5)
4.6 Describe the shape of the graph. (2)
4.7 What conclusion can you draw about the relationship between V and I from the
shape of the graph? (2)
4.8 What physical quantity does the gradient of the graph represent? (1)
4.9 Using the graph, determine the value of the quantity mentioned in 4.8 above (3)
4.10 Is this experiment example of qualitative or quantitative research? (1)
4.11 Discuss any possible errors that may occur during this experiment. (3)
4.12 Explain how a median of a set of readings is determined. (2)
QUESTION 5 [16]
There are many antacid tablets available on the market today to help relieve the pain of
indigestion, which is caused by an increase in the acidity level in the stomach. Pain relief
relies on the neutralisation reaction between the antacid and the hydrochloric acid in the
stomach. The active ingredient in the antacid tablet is calcium carbonate, which reacts
with the hydrochloric acid in the stomach according to the reaction:
CaCO3(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → CaCℓ2(aq) + H2O(ℓ) + CO2(g).
Students investigated the reaction of a leading brand of antacid. They set up an

experiment that collected the carbon dioxide gas released, and measured the volume of
gas collected every half minute. The results of the experiment are shown below:

Time (minutes) Volume of gas (cm3)
0 0
0,5 5
1 18
1,5 24
2 28
2,5 31
3 33
3,5 34
4 35
4,5 35,5
5 36
5,5 36
5.1.1 What is their independent variable? (1)
5.1.2 What is their dependent variable? (1)
5.1.3 State two relevant variables that they will need to control (keep fixed). (2)
5.1.4 State a suitable hypothesis for their investigation and briefly give a reason for the
hypothesis based on the collision theory. (2)
5.1.5 Plot a graph of gas production versus time on the graph paper provided. (6)
5.2 The students repeated the experiment with the same antacid tablet, but used a
lower concentration of acid. Will a graph of this experiment (on the same set of
axes as in 5.1.5:
5.2.1 Be BELOW, ABOVE or THE SAME as the graph of 5.1.5? Give reasons for your
answer. Also state what will happen to the final volume of gas produced in this
experiment in comparison with that produced in 5.1.5. (4)

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
NAMING OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
IUPAC RULES (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry).
1. Identify and name the longest chain. This is called the parent or main chain.
2. Identify and name groups that are branched off the main chain. This can be an
alkyl group, e.g. methyl.
3. Number the carbons in the main chain from the end that gives the branches the
lowest numbers.
4. If the same type of branch occurs more than once, the location of each branch is
given and the number of times the substituent group occurs is indicated by a prefix
(di, tri, tetra etc.).
5. If there are two or more different branches, they are listed in alphabetical order
using the base of the name. (Ignore the prefixes such as di and tri).
6. If there is a double or triple bond in the main chain and there is a side chain, the
position of the double or triple bond gets preference when numbering.
STRUCTURAL ISOMERS.
Structural isomers are organic molecules with the same molecular formula, but different
structural formulae. There are 3 types of structural isomers:
1. Chain isomers:
Chain isomers have the same molecular formula, but different types of chains.
(Straight chain or branch chain).
2. Positional isomers:
Positional isomers have the same molecular formula, but different positions of the
functional group (a halogen on carbon atom number 1 or carbon atom number 2).
3. Functional isomers:
Functional isomers have the same molecular formula, but different functional
groups. (Carboxylic acids and esters or aldehydes and ketones).

Organic Chemistry Naming
Identify Parent chain.
Identify branch
Drawing a structure.
Functional group
Isomer – chain; Same molecular formula, but different types of chains.
Structural Isomers: A bond or an atom or a group of atoms that determine(s) the physical and chemical properties of a
group of organic compounds.
Positional: Same molecular formula, but different positions of the side chain, substituents or functional groups on the
parent chain.
Functional: Same molecular formula, but different functional groups.
Define Boiling point: The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a substance equals atmospheric pressure.
Vapour pressure: The temperature at which the solid and liquid phases of a substance are at equilibrium.
Melting point: The pressure exerted by a vapour at equilibrium with its liquid in a closed system.
(Definition in exam guideline)
Intermolecular force / NOT IMF
(ICE)
Identification – type of Intermolecular force, e.g., London; dipole-dipole, hydrogen.
Compare strength – hydrogen bond has highest intermolecular forces.
Energy required to overcome the intermolecular forces.
Addition reactions only occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons (Alkenes).
Substitution only in saturated compound (Alkanes; halo-alkanes and Alcohols).
Condition = mild heat and dilute strong base.
Elimination only occurs in saturated compounds (Alkanes; halo-alkanes and Alcohols).
Condition = high temperature and concentrated strong base.
Plastics and monomers.
Define polymer.
Draw structure – polythene.

QUESTION 1 [18]
1.1 Hydrocarbon (2)
1.2 Homologous series (2)
1.3 Saturated compound (2)
1.4 Unsaturated compound (2)
1.5 Functional group (2)
1.6 Structural isomer (2)
1.7 Chain isomer (2)
1.8 Positional isomer (2)
1.9 Functional isomer (2)
QUESTION 2 [8]
Study the following organic compounds:
2.1 Write down the functional group for each of the compounds. (4)
2.2 Write the homologous series to which each of the compounds belong. (4)
QUESTION 3 [8]
Give the IUPAC names of the alkanes with the following molecular formula:
3.1 C3H8 3.2 C7H16.
3.3 C8H18 3.4 C5H12.
3.5 C4H10 3.6 C2H6.
3.7 C6H14 3.8 CH4. (8)

QUESTION 4 [12]
For the following condensed formulae give the structural formulae and the IUPAC name of
the compound:
4.1 CH3CH2CH2CH3 4.2 CH3CH2CH(CH3) CH2CH3.
4.3 CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2CH3 4.4 CH2CH2.
4.5 CHCH 4.6 CH2CHCH2CH(CH3) CH3. (12)
QUESTION 5 [12]
Give the IUPAC name of the following alkynes:
5.1 CH3 CH2 C ≡ CH (2)
5.2 CH3 C ≡ CCH2 CH3 (2)
5.3 CH2 CH3
CH3 CHC ≡ CCH3 (2)
5.4 CH3
CH3 CHC ≡ CCH2 CH2 Br (2)
5.5 Br CH2 CH2 C ≡ CCH3 (2)
5.6 CH3 CH2 CHC ≡ CCH2 CH3
CH3 (2)
QUESTION 6 [16]
Give the IUPAC name of the alkenes:
6.1 CH3 CH = CHCH3 (2)
6.2 CH3 (CH2 )3 CH = CH2 (2)
6.3 CH3 CH = CHCH(CH3 )CH3 (2)
6.4 CH3 CH(CH3 )CH = CH2 (2)
6.5 CH3
CH3 CH2 CH2 C = CCH2 CH3
6.6 CH2 CH3
CH3 CHC = CH2
CH3 (2)

6.7 CH2 = CHCH = CH2 (2)
6.8 CH2 = C(CH3 )CH = CH2 (2)
QUESTION 7 [20]
Sketch the structural formulae for the following compounds:
7.1 Pentan-2-ol (2)
7.2 2-methylhexane (2)
7.3 Propanoic acid (2)
7.4 1,1-dibromobutane-2-ol (2)
7.5 2,3,3-trimethylpentane (2)
7.6 2-chloropropane (2)
7.7 3-bromo-4-methylheptane (2)
7.8 Propyne (2)
7.9 But-2-ene (2)
7.10 Methanol (2)
QUESTION 8 [4]
Identify the following alcohols as primary, secondary or tertiary.
8.1 CH3CH2OH (1)
8.2 CH3CH(CH3) CH2OH (1)
8.3 CH3CH(OH)CH3 (1)
8.4 CH3C(CH3) OHCH3 (1)
QUESTION 9 [8]
State whether each of the following is an aldehyde or a ketone and give the IUPAC name
for the compound.
9.1 C3H7COC2H5. (2)
9.2 CH3CH2CH2CHO. (2)
9.3 CH3COCH3. (2)

9.4 (2)
QUESTION 10 [6]
Draw structural formulae for the following compounds:
10.1 pentan-2-one (2)
10.2 Propanol (2)
10.3 2-methylbutanal (2)
QUESTION 11 [6]
Give the IUPAC name for the following carboxylic acids:
11.1 CH3(CH2)6COOH. (2)
11.2 C2H4O2. (2)
11.3
(2)
QUESTION 12 [17]
Complete the following table:
Alcohol Carboxyl acid Ester Molecular formula
methanol ethanoic acid
ethanol methanoic acid
propanol methanoic acid
methanol propanoic acid
propyl ethanoate
ethyl butanoate
pentyl pentanoate

QUESTION 13 [6]
Draw the structural formulae for the following esters:
13.1 Methyl butanoate (2)
13.2 Butyl methanoate (2)
13.3 Ethyl propanoate (2)
QUESTION 14 [12]
14.1 Macro molecule (2)
14.2 Polymer (2)
14.3 Monomer (2)
14.4 Polymerisation (2)
14.5 Addition polymerisation (2)
14.6 Condensation polymerisation (2)
QUESTION 15 [6]
Alkenes, such as ethene can form polymers:
15.1. Give the name of the polymer formed from ethene. (1)
15.2. Name the type of polymerisation reaction that occurs in the formation of the
polymer in Question 15.1. (1)
15.3. List 4 general uses of the polymer in Question 15.1. (4)

QUESTION 16 [14]
16.1 The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
CH3
|
CH3—CH2—CH—CH—CH3
|
Cl
A. 3-chloro-4-methylpentane
B. 3-chloro-2-methylpentane
C. 2-methyl-3-chloropentane
D. 4-methyl-3-chloropentane. (2)
16.2 CnH2n+1OH is the GENERAL FORMULA for …
A. Alkanes
B. Aldehydes
C. Alcohols
D. Alkenes (0)
16.3 Consider the structural formula of an organic compound below.
H H
I I
H–C–C=O
I
H
Which ONE of the following is the correct IUPAC name of this compound?
A. Ethanone
B. Ethene
C. Ethanol
D. Ethana (2)
16.4 Which of the following compounds is an aldehyde?
A. Butanol
B. Butanoic acid
C. Butane
D. Butanal (2)

16.5 An organic compound that is always found in alcoholic drinks:
A. CH3OH
B. C6H10
C. C2H5OH
D. C6H5(CH3) (2)
16.6 Which ONE of the following compounds is a ketone?
A. CH3COCH2CH3
B. CH3COOCH2CH3
C. CH3CH2CH2CHO
D. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3 (2)
16.7 Which ONE of the following compounds is SATURATED?
A. CH3CH(CH3)CH3
B. CH3CH2CHCH2
C. CH3CHCHCH3
D. CH3C(CH3)2CHCH2 (2)
QUESTION 17 [16]
The letters A to H represent eight organic compounds.
A. B.
H H H H H O
I I I I I II
H–C–C–O H– C – C – C − C − H
I I H I I
H H H H
H–C–H
I
H–C–H
I
H
Th
C. CH3CHCHCH(CH3)CH2 CH3 D. 1,2-dibromo-3-methylbutane
E. Propanoic acid F. CH3CCCH(C2H5)CH2CH3
G. CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH(CH3)CH2 CH3 H. 4-methylpentan-2-one
17.1 Write down the letter or letters that represent(s).

17.1.1 A compound with a carboxyl group as functional group. (1)
17.1.2 An alkene (1)
17.1.3 An aldehyde (1)
17.1.4 A saturated hydrocarbon. (1)
17.1.5 Two compounds that are functional isomers. (2)
17.2 Write down the IUPAC name of:
17.2.1 Compound B (2)
17.2.2 Compound F (2)
17.2.3 Compound G (2)
17.3 Write down the structural formula of:
17.3.1 Compound D (2)
17.3.2 Compound H (2)
PROPERTIES OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
QUESTION 18 [6]
18.1 The melting points of four different straight chain (aliphatic) hydrocarbons are
given:
Hydrocarbon Melting point (⁰C)
i) -182,5
ii) -95
iii) 28
iv) -56,5
Which hydrocarbon has the strongest intermolecular forces?
A. i)
B. ii)
C. iii)
D. iv) (2)

18.2 In which one of the following alternatives are the three compounds listed in order
of their increasing boiling point?
A. pentanoic acid, pentane, pentan-1-ol
B. pentan-1-ol, pentane, pentanoic acid
C. pentane, pentan-1-ol, pentanoic acid
D. pentane, pentanoic acid, pentan-1-ol (2)
18.3 A scientist investigates a factor which influences the boiling points of alkanes.
He determines the boiling points of the first six straight chain alkanes. Which
ONE of the following is the independent variable in this investigation?
A. Boiling point
B. Functional group
C. Branching
D. Chain length (2)
QUESTION 19 [22]
19.1 There are two chain isomers for the organic compound with molecular formula
C4H10.
19.1.1 Define the term chain isomer. (2)
19.1.2 Write down the structural formulae of the two chain isomers and also give their
IUPAC names. (4)
19.1.3 Which ONE of the isomers mentioned in QUESTION 2.1.2 has the highest boiling
point? (1)
19.1.4 Explain the difference in the boiling points of the chain isomers. (3)
19.2 The table below shows data collected for three organic compounds,
represented by the letters A, B and C, during a practical investigation:
Organic compound Relative molecular Boiling point (°C)

mass
A. CH3CH2CH2CH3 58 − 0,5
B. CH3CH2CH2OH 60 97
C. CH3COOH 60 118
19.2.1 Which variable was controlled during this investigation? (1)

19.2.2 Name the following in this investigation:
a) The dependent variable. (1)
b) The independent variable. (1)
19.3 Consider compound A:
19.3.1 Is compound A a saturated or an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
Give a reason for your answer. (2)
19.3.2 The compound 2-methylpropane is an isomer of compound A.
Predict whether the boiling point of 2-methylpropane will be HIGHER THAN,

LOWER THAN or THE SAME as the boiling point of compound A. (1)
19.3.3 Explain your prediction in QUESTION 2.3.3.2. (3)
19.3.4 Refer to intermolecular forces and energy to explain why compound B will have a
higher vapour pressure than compound C at 20 °C. (3)
QUESTION 20 [13]
Compounds A to E, shown in the table below, are used during two investigations to
determine factors which influence boiling point. The compounds are of similar molecular
mass and therefore it is considered as a controlled variable.
Investigation Compound Relative Boiling point (⁰C)

molecular mass
I A. Pentane 72 36
B. 2-methylbutane 72 27
C. 2,2-dimethylpropane 72 9
II D. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH 74 117
E. CH3CH2CH2CHO 72 75
20.1 Compounds A, B and C are structural isomers. Write down the:
20.1.1 name of the homologous series to which they belong. (1)
20.1.2 type of structural isomerism shown by these compounds. (1)
20.2 Consider the boiling points of the compounds in investigation I.
20.2.1 Write down the independent variable for this investigation. (1)
20.2.2 Fully explain why the boiling point decreases from compound A to compound C. (3)

20.2.3 Which ONE of compounds B or C will have the higher vapour pressure at a given
temperature? Refer to the data in the table to give a reason for your answer. (2)
20.3 Write down the type of intermolecular forces (Van der Waals forces) between
molecules of each of the following compounds:
20.3.1 Compound C. (1)
20.3.2 Compound D. (2)
20.4 Consider investigation II. Refer to the type of intermolecular forces in each of the
compounds to give a reason why the boiling point of compound D is higher than
that of compound E. (2)
QUESTION 21 [14]
An experiment was done to determine the boiling points of organic compounds from three
different homologous series represented by the letters A to C, under the same conditions.
The results are shown in the table below.
Organic compound Molecular formulae Boiling point (⁰C)
A. CH3CH2CH2OH + 97
B. CH3CH2CH3 − 42
C. CH3CH2CHO + 48
21.1 Define the term homologous series. (2)
21.2 Name the homologous series to which organic compounds A, B and C belong. (3)
21.3 Arrange the organic compounds in order of increasing boiling points. (1)
21.4 Formulate an investigative question for this practical investigation. (2)
21.5 Write down the IUPAC name for organic compound C. (2)
21.6 Explain why the boiling point of compound B is significantly lower than the boiling
points of organic compounds A and C. (4)

QUESTION 22 [18]
M Vapour Pressure
Compound
(g•mol-1) (x102 Pa)
pentane 72 573,0
hexane 86 160,0
heptane 100 48,0
1-propanol 60 21,0
2-propanol 60 44,0
1-butanol 74 6,2
2-butanol 74 18,3
22.1 Write down:
22.1.1 The general formula of the homologous series of which heptane is a member. (1)
22.1.2 The IUPAC name and structural formula of an isomer of pentane. (2)
22.1.3 The structural formula of acetone. (2)
22.2 State and explain the relationship between vapour pressure and the strength of
intermolecular forces. (3)
22.3 Consider the alkanes in the above table: explain why vapour pressure decreases
as you go down the table. Refer to strength of intermolecular forces in your
answer. (2)
22.4 Explain why:
22.4.1 The vapour pressure of 1-butanol is so much lower than that of pentane. (2)
22.4.2 The vapour pressure of secondary alcohols are higher than that of their primary
counterparts. (2)
22.5 Which compound will have the higher boiling point: ethanoic acid or 1-propanol? (1)
22.6 Refer to the table and give a reason for your answer to 5.5. (3)

QUESTION 23 [14]
Two separate experiments are conducted to determine the boiling points of organic
compounds from different homologous series, under the same conditions.
The results obtained are shown in the table below.
Experiment Organic compound Relative Molecular Boiling

Mass Point (⁰C)
I P CH3F − 78,3
Q CH3Cℓ − 24,1
R CH3Br 3,7
II X CH3(CH2)2COOH 88,1 163
Y CH3(CH2)3CH2OH 88,1 137
Z CH3(CH2)3CHO 88,1 103
23.1 Define the term homologous series. (2)
23.2 From the table, write down the IUPAC names of the TWO compounds that will be gaseous
at − 20oC. (2)
23.3 Describe the trend in the boiling points of the compounds in Experiment I. (2)
23.4 Explain the trend in QUESTION 23.3 above.
Make reference to INTERMOLECULAR FORCES and ENERGY needed in your

explanation. (3)
Use the data for Experiment II to answer QUESTIONS 23.5 – 23.7.
23.5 Formulate an investigative question for the experiment. (2)
23.6 NAME a variable that was kept constant in this experiment. (1)
23.7 State the conclusion that can be drawn from the results of this experiment. (2)

QUESTION 24 [11]
Two learners carry out an investigation to determine the relationship between the mass of
a haloalkane and the boiling point. They obtained these results:
Haloalkane Mass (g•mol−1) Boiling Point (K)
fluoromethane 34 194,7
chloromethane 50,5 248,9
Bromomethane 95 276,7
Iodomethane 142 315,5
24.1 Write the investigative question for their investigation. (2)
24.2 What was their dependent variable? (1)
24.3 What was their independent variable? (1)
24.4 What would need to be kept constant during this investigation? (1)
24.5 Why must the variable named in 24.4 above, be kept constant? (1)
24.6 What trend in boiling points can be observed from the table? (2)
24.7 Write down an explanation for the observed trend. (3)
QUESTION 25 [11]
Two compounds A and B, have the molecular formula C2H4O2.
25.1 What is meant by the term structural isomers? (2)
25.2 Compound A has a lower vapour pressure than compound B.
25.2.1 How will the boiling point of compound A compare to that of compound B. Only
write HIGHER THAN, LOWER THAN, or EQUAL TO. (1)
25.2.2 Write down the name of compound A. (1)
25.2.3 To which class of organic compound does compound B belong? (1)
25.2.4 Write down the structural formula for compound B and give its IUPAC name. (3)
25.2.5 Explain in terms of intermolecular forces and energy why compound A has a lower
vapour pressure than compound B. (3)

QUESTION 26 [10]
Study the trend of the melting and boiling points of four isomers of C6H14.
Isomers of C6 H14 Melting point (°C) Boiling point (°C)
A. - 95 69
B. - 145 63
C. - 135 58
D. - 98 50
26.1 Define the term isomers. (2)
26.2 Which type of structural isomers is represented in the table? Give a reason for
your answer. (3)
26.3 Describe the trend in boiling points of the compounds in the table. (2)
26.4 Give an explanation for your answer to Question 26.3. (3)
QUESTION 27 [9]
Name the type of Intermolecular forces present in the following organic compounds:
27.1 Alkanes (1)
27.2 Alkenes (1)
27.3 Alkynes (1)
27.4 Halo-alkanes (1)
27.5 Alcohols (1)
27.6 Carboxylic acids (1)
27.7 Aldehydes (1)
27.8 Ketones (1)
27.9 Esters (1)

QUESTION 28 [10]
Three bottles respectively containing propan-1-ol, propan-1,2-diol and propan-1,2,3-triol.
The vapour pressure of each of these compounds is given below:
Vapour pressure
Compound
(kPa at 20°C)
Bottle 1 Propanol 2,66
Bottle 2 Propan-1,2-diol 1,07
Bottle 3 Propan-1,2,3-triol 0,002
28.1 Define the term vapour pressure. (2)
28.2 Give the homologous series to which the three compounds belong. (1)
28.3 State the type of intermolecular forces which occur between the molecules of
these compounds. (1)
28.4 Consider the vapour pressure of the above compounds and describe the trend in
vapour pressure. (2)
28.5 Explain the trend stated in Question 28.4. (4)

REACTIONS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
QUESTION 29 [19]
29.1 Name the homologous series that undergoes addition reactions. (1)
29.2 Name the four types of addition reactions and also indicate for each reaction which
reactants is converted to which products. (8)
29.3 Name the type of addition reaction that takes place when the following reactants
react with an alkene.
a) HCl
b) H2
c) Br2
d) H2O (4)
29.4 Use structural formulae to write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of
but-2-ene and Cl2. (3)
29.5 Use molecular formulae to write a balanced chemical equation for the combustion
of propene. (3)
QUESTION 30 [25]
30.1 Name the type of elimination reaction where:
a) Larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules. (1)
b) HX is eliminated out of a halo-alkane. (1)
c) H2O is eliminated out of an alcohol. (1)
30.2 For 2-chloropropane to undergo an elimination reaction an inorganic reactant is

required.
a) Give the NAME of the inorganic reactant. (1)
b) Write down two reaction conditions for the reaction to take place. (2)
c) Name the type of elimination that occurs. (1)
d) Write a balanced equation for the reaction using STRUCTURAL

FORMULAE. (3)

30.3 In order for propan-2-ol to undergo elimination a strong inorganic acid is needed.
a) Give the NAME of the strong inorganic acid. (1)
b) What is the role of the acid in the reaction? (1)
c) Write down two reaction conditions for the reaction to take place. (2)
d) Name the type of elimination that occurs. (1)
e) Write a balanced equation for the reaction using STRUCTURAL

FORMULAE. (3)
30.4 Petrol requires molecules from the range C5 to C10.
a) By making use of molecular formulae write down the complete reaction for
the catalytic cracking of C15H32 to produce C7H16. (3)
b) Write down the structural formulae of the products in (a) and give the
IUPAC name of each. (4)
QUESTION 31 [13]
31.1 Ethane reacts with bromine to produce bromoethane.
a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction using STRUCTURAL

FORMULAE. (3)
b) Name one reaction condition required for the above reaction. (1)
c) Name the type of reaction taking place. (1)
31.2 Complete the following substitution (halogenation) reactions:
a) CH4 + Cl2 (2)
b) CH3OH + HCl (2)
31.3 Complete the following substitution (hydrolysis) reactions:
a) CH3Br + NaOH (2)
b) CH3CH2Br + H2O (2)
QUESTION 32 [32]
32.1 The IUPAC name of an organic compound with molecular formula C7 H14 O2 :
A. Heptanal.
B. Heptan-1-ol.
C. Heptan-2-ol.
D. Heptanoic acid. (2)

32.2 Which ONE of the following structures is the functional group of aldehydes?
(2)
32.3 Which ONE of the following is the general formula of alkynes?
A. Cn H2n
B. C2n H2n
C. Cn H2n − 2
D. Cn H2n + 2 (2)
32.4 The type of reaction that takes place when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react
in the presence of an acid:
A. Addition
B. Hydrolysis
C. Substitution
D. Esterification (2)
32.5 Which ONE of the following isomers has the LOWEST boiling point?
A. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
B. CH3 CH2 C(CH3 )2 CH3
C. CH3 CH(CH3 )CH2 CH2 CH3
D. CH3 CH2 CH(CH3 )CH2 CH3 (2)
32.6 Which ONE of the following equations represents a cracking process?
A. 5CH2 = CH2 → − (CH2 CH2 )5 −
B. CH3 (CH2 )5 CH = CH2 + H2 → CH3 (CH2 )6 CH3
C. CH3 (CH2 )6 CH3 → CH3 (CH2 )4 CH3 + CH2 = CH2
D. CH3 (CH2 )7 OH → CH3 (CH2 )5 = CH2 + H2 O (2)

32.7 Which ONE of the following pairs of compounds are FUNCTIONAL isomers?
A. Methanol and methanal
B. Butane and 2-methylpropane
C. Propan-1-ol and propan-2-ol
D. Propanoic acid and methyl ethanoate (2)
32.8 A simple organic reaction is given below.
Which one of the formulae below represents the major organic product X?
A. CH3CHCℓCH2Cℓ
B. CH2CℓCH2CH3
C. CH3CHCℓCH3
D. CH3CH2CH2Cℓ (2)
32.9 Which ONE of the following compounds will decolourise bromine water the fastest
under normal conditions?
A. B.
H H H O
I I I II
C=C H –C–C–H
I I I
H H H
C. D.
H H
H H
I I
I I
H –C–C–O−H
H –C–C– H
I I
I I
H H
H H
(2)

32.10 A renewable source of energy that can be produced by the fermentation of the
sugar in sugarcane or corn is …
A. ethane
B. ethanol
C. methanol
D. methane (2)
32.11 Which ONE of the following is a balanced equation for the combustion of octane?
A. 2 C8H18 + 25 O2 → 16 CO2 + 18 H2O
B. C8H18 + 16 O2 → 8 CO2 + 9 H2O
C. C8H18 + 32 O2 → 8 CO2 + 18 H2O
D. 2 C8H18 + 8 O2 → 16 CO2 + 9 H2O (2)
32.12 Which one of the following chemical reactions will yield a major product that is
saturated?
A. 2-chlorobutane reacts with ethanol and potassium hydroxide to form but-2-

ene and hydrogen chloride.
B. The acid-catalysed dehydration of pent-2-ol to form pent-2-ene.
C. Bromoethane is refluxed to form ethene and hydrogen bromide.
D. Ethene reacts with hydrogen chloride to form chloroethane. (2)
32.13 Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. Sunflower oil undergoes a substitution reaction to form margarine.
B. Alkynes are more reactive than alkenes.
C. Aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group
D. Propyl ethanoate can be made from propanoic acid and ethanol. (2)
32.14 Which ONE of the following reaction types can be used to prepare ETHENE from
ETHANE?
A. Hydrogenation
B. Substitution
C. Dehydrogenation
D. Addition (2)

32.15 Ethene can be converted into other carbon-containing compounds using the
reactants shown in the following flow chart:
Compounds X and Y are respectively:
X Y
A. bromoethane ethanal
B. bromoethane ethanol
C. bromoethene Ethanoic acid
D. bromoethene Ethane hydroxide
(2)
32.16 Which one of the following correctly shows the two homologous series which react
together to produce esters?
A. Carboxylic acid Haloalkane
B. Alcohol Alkene
C. Haloalkane Ketone
D. Carboxylic acid alcohol
(2)

QUESTION 33 [15]
In the flow diagram below prop-1-ene is used as a starting reagent in the preparation of
other compounds. P and T represent chemical reactions.
33.1 Name the type of reaction represented by
33.1.1 P
33.1.2 S
33.1.3 Q (3)
33.2 Consider reaction P. Write down the:
33.2.1 Formula of a suitable catalyst. (1)
33.2.2 Structural formula of the alcohol. (2)
33.3 For the reaction R write down:
33.3.1 The type of addition reaction. (1)
33.3.2 A balanced equation using structural formulae. (3)
33.4 During reaction T, the haloalkane reacts in the presence of a base to form the
alcohol in QUESTION 33.2.2. Write down the:
33.4.1 IUPAC name of the haloalkane. (2)
33.4.2 NAME of a suitable base. (1)
33.4.3 TWO reaction conditions for this reaction. (2)

REACTION RATES
Rates of • Definition of Rates of Reaction as the change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time. 2
Reaction ∆𝑐
Rate = (Unit: 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ∙ 𝑑𝑚−3 ∙ 𝑠 −1 )
∆𝑡
• Heat of the reaction – the energy absorbed or released in a chemical reaction.

• Define exothermic reactions as reactions that release energy.
• Define endothermic reactions as reactions that absorb energy
• Catalyst – a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself undergoing a permanent change.
1. Variables –
Dependent = what is measured.
Independent = what I will change.
Control = remains the same
2. Interpretation of rate of reaction graphs.
❖ In the graph of concentration versus time the rate of the reaction is represented by the gradient of the graph. (Concentration could also be replaced by
mass, volume or number of mol).
❖ At the start the concentration of the reactants is high and thus the rate of the forward reaction is high. This is indicated by a steep gradient (at A).
❖ As the reactants are used up during the reaction, the concentration decreases and so does the rate of the forward reaction. The gradient decreases
accordingly. Compare gradients A and B on the graph.
❖ At E the gradient falls to zero (no gradient) at the completion of the reaction. (Graph runs parallel to the time axis). The rate of the reaction is zero. This
means the reaction has run to completion OR one of the reactants is used up OR one of the reactants is the limiting factor.
❖ At the start the concentration of the product is zero.
Investigative question.
Question that cannot be answered with yes or no.
Relationship between independent and dependent variable in question form.

Maxwell-Boltzman Distribution Curves
Number of particles represented by the

Most particles with area under this part of the graph that do
moderate energies. not have sufficient energy to react.
C
Only some particles
Number of particles
under this part of the

graph with enough high
energies to react.
B D
(E ≥Ea)
Energy
Few particles with very low Ea (Activation energy)
energies.
Effect of a catalyst on reaction rate
Originally only the

particles under
All these extra this part of the
particles have graph had high
Number of particles
enough energy enough energy to

to react. react.
Particles with not

enough energy
to react
Energy
New catalysed Ea Original uncatalysed
t (Activation energy)

F P 0007 Physical Sciences Grade 12 Improvement Resources Activities Physics Level 1 - 3 Page 97 of 143
Effect of temperature on reaction rate
T1
T 2 – Graph has dropped

Number of particles
and moved slightly to the

right.
For temperature T2 more

particles have E ≥ Ea.
Energy
Ea (Activation energy)
Effect of concentration on reaction rate
Graph 2 representing a higher concentration

which means more particles per volume,
therefore a larger area under the graph.
Number of particles
Graph 1 represents the lower

concentration therefore, less particles.
The graph for higher concentration

shows an increase in the number of
particles whose energy exceeds the
activation energy (E ≥Ea).
Energy
Ea (Activation energy)

QUESTION 1 [22]
In a laboratory investigation to measure reaction rates some lumps of calcium carbonate

reacted with hydrochloric acid to produce carbon dioxide gas and water.
CaCO3 (s) + 2 HCI (a) CaCO3 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (aq)
In each experiment 2g of calcium carbonate was reacted with 150 cm3 of acid. One
sample of acid had a concentration of 2 rnol.dm-3 and the other had a concentration of
4 mol.dm-3. As the reaction proceeded, the mass of calcium carbonate remaining was
noted every twenty seconds and the following graphs were drawn.
1.1 Calculate the number of mol of CaCO3 in 2g. (3)
1.2 Calculate the number of mol of acid in 150 cm3 of concentration 2 mol.drn-3. (3)
1.3 Which reactant is in excess? Why is it necessary to have this excess? (2)
1.4 From the graph read off the mass of calcium carbonate USED for the first 80 s for
experiment 1 and experiment 2. (2)
1.5 Calculate the RATE in the first 80s at which calcium carbonate was used in:
Experiment 1 and experiment 2. (4)
1.6 Which reaction was faster? Explain. (2)
1.7 Label the graphs to show the concentration of the acid used in each experiment. (2)
1.8 For experiment 2 explain why the gradient of the graph decreases. (2)
1.9 If powdered calcium carbonate was used instead of lumps of calcium carbonate
how would the graphs change? (2)

QUESTION 2 [14]
Sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the equation shown
below:
NaHCO3 (s) + HCl (aq) NaCl (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
2.1 Draw a Boltzmann distribution curve to show the distribution of kinetic energies in
a sample of reacting molecules, the activation energy of the reaction and the effect
of adding a catalyst to speed up the reaction. (4)
2.2 Use the collision theory to explain how:
a) A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction. (3)
b) An increase in temperature affects the rate of the reaction. (3)
2.3 The graphs labelled A – D show the results of four experiments in which sodium
bicarbonate reacted with diluted hydrochloric acid.
Which of the graphs (A – D) would match the reaction conditions shown in the
table below? (4)
Temperature (⁰C) Mass of NaHCO3 (g) Volume of acid (cm3)
2.3.1 25 10 200
2.3.2 40 10 200
2.3.3 40 20 300
2.3.4 50 10 200

QUESTION 3 [13]
Learners investigate the relationship between rate of reaction and temperature by mixing
solutions of hydrochloric acid and sodium thiosulphate (concentration 0,25 mol.drn-3). The
reaction that takes place is represented by the following equation.
Na2S2O3 (aq) + 2 HCl (aq) 2 NaCl(aq) + S (s) + H2O (l) + SO2 (g)
They add 5 cm" of HCI to 50 cm 3 of Na2S2O3 in a flask and place the flask over a cross
drawn on a piece of paper and record the time for the cross to disappear. They repeat the
experiment with solutions at different temperatures.
3.1 What causes the cross to disappear? (1)
3.2 Name the independent variable. (1)
3.3 Name the dependent variable. (1)
3.4 Which variables remain constant in this experiment? (1)
3.5 The learners obtain the graph shown below:
3.5.1 What is represented by 1 / time on the y-axis? (1)
3.5.2 From the graph determine the time taken for the cross to disappear when the
temperature of the solution was:
a) 20 ⁰ C. (1)
b) 60 ⁰ C. (1)
3.6 The learners repeat the experiment using a solution of Na2S2O3 of concentration
0,5 mol.drn-3. The results of the experiment are shown in the table. Calculate the
values of 1 / time and plot these results on the axes of the graph in question 3.5. (4)

Temperature (°C) 10 20 30 40 50
Time (s) 125 62,5 35,7 23,8 14,7
1
⁄ -1
time(s )
3.7 Give two conclusions that can be drawn from these investigations. (2)
4.1 A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction by:
a) Increasing the activation energy for the reaction.
b) Decreasing the activation energy for the reaction.
c) Increasing the average kinetic energy of the reacting particles.
d) Decreasing the average kinetic energy of the reacting particles. (2)
4.2 Which one of the following graphs shows the change in mass of a catalyst during
a chemical reaction? (2)
4.3 A reaction between a solid and an acid proceeds too fast during an experiment.
What change can be made to make the experiment safer? (2)
SOLID ACID TEMPERATURE
A smaller pieces more concentrated lower
B smaller pieces less concentrated higher
C larger pieces less concentrated lower
D larger pieces more concentrated higher

4.4 Consider the reaction: Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) →MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
The rate of production of MgCl2, can be increased by:
a) Decreasing concentration of HCl(aq).
b) Increasing volume of H2.
c) Increase the temperature.
d) Decreasing the surface area of Mg. (2)
4.5 Which ONE of the following will be changed by addition of catalyst?
a) Amount of product present at equilibrium.
b) Concentration of reactants present at equilibrium.
c) Length of time for which reaction remains at equilibrium.
d) The time it takes to reach equilibrium. (2)
4.6 During a laboratory activity to investigate reaction rate, a learner reacts 1 g

samples of solid zinc with 10 ml samples of HCℓ(aq). The table below shows
information about the variables in five experiments the learner performed.
Reaction of Zn(s) with HCℓ (aq)
Experiment Description of Zn [HCℓ] (aq) Temperature

sample
mol.dm-3 o
C
1 Lumps 0,1 20
2 Powder 0,1 20
3 Lumps 0,1 40
4 Lumps 1 40
5 Powder 1 30
Which TWO experiments can be used to investigate the effect of the concentration
of HCℓ(aq) on the reaction rate?
a) 1 and 3.
b) 4 and 2.
c) 1 and 5.
d) 4 and 3. (2)

QUESTION 5 [6]
5.1 Activation energy. (2)
5.2 Catalyst. (2)
5.3 Reaction rate. (2)
QUESTION 6 [3]
Curve L shown below is Boltzmann-Maxwell distribution curve for gas in a closed

container at 250° C.
6.1 Name the energy represented by N. (1)
6.2 Write down the change in reaction conditions that resulted in:
a) Curve M. (1)
b) Curve K. (1)
QUESTION 7 [9]
Learners investigate some of the factors which affect the rate of chemical reaction
between solid zinc and excess hydrochloric acid solution, HCl. The balanced chemical
equation for the reaction taking place is shown below:
Zn(s) + 2HCl → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2(g)
The condition for each experiment is shown in the table below:
Mass of zinc (g) State of zinc Concentration of Temperature of

HCl(mol.dm-3) HCl (0C)
Experiment 1 4 Lumps 0,5 25
Experiment 2 4 Powder 0,5 25
Experiment 3 4 Powder 0,2 25

7.1 Define the term rate of reaction. (2)
7.2 Use information from experiment 2 and experiment 3 to write down the:
7.2.1 Investigative question for the investigation. (2)
7.2.2 Factor influencing the rate of reaction. (1)
7.3 How does the rate of reaction in experiment 6 compare to that in experiment 2?
Write down HIGHER THAN, LOWER THAN or EQUAL TO. (1)
7.4 Learners repeat experiment 1, but now temperature of HCl is 40° C. State the
effect of Increase in temperature on the rate of reaction. (1)

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM: SUMMARY
❖ What is Chemical equilibrium?
It is a dynamic equilibrium when the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the
reverse reaction (for reversible reaction in a closed system).
❖ Definition of key terms:
Key pointer Definition
Forward reaction Reactants are converted to products. E.g., N2 + 3H2 → 2NH2.
Reverse reaction Products are converted back to reactants. E.g., 2NH2 → N2 + 3H2.
Reversible reaction Proceeds in the forward and reverse directions. (I.e., products can
be converted back to reactants and vice versa.
E.g., N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH2.
Open system Continuously interacts with environment (reactants / products can

leave / enter system). E.g., N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH2 (in open container).
Closed system Isolated from its surroundings (no reactants or products can leave
or enter the system). E.g., N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH2. (In closed container).
NaOH + HCl ⇌ NaCl + H2O (in open container).
Note: A reaction involving only solids and liquids can be
considered as a closed system because only negligible
amount can evaporate during the reaction.
❖ At chemical Equilibrium:
• (Rate of forward reaction) = (Rate of reverse reaction).
Note: Forward reaction ≠ Reverse reaction.
• [Reactants] and [Products] remain constant.
Note: [Reactants] ≠ [Products].

❖ Factors that influence equilibrium position and Equilibrium constant (KC):
Factors: Temperature Concentration Pressure Catalyst
Equilibrium position ✓ ✓ ✓ X
Equilibrium constant (KC) ✓ X X X
Note: Only temperature affects Kc value.
Le Chatelier’s Principle: When the equilibrium in a closed system is disturbed, the system will
re-instate a new equilibrium by favouring the reaction that will oppose the disturbance.
TIP 1: When using Le Chatelier’s principle to explain changes in equilibria qualitatively:
• Identify the disturbance (change in temperature, concentration, or pressure).
• Decide how the system will respond, according to Le Chatelier’s principle, e.g.,
endothermic / exothermic / side with more or less moles.
• Determine which reaction (forward or reverse) will be favoured (shift in equilibrium).
• Explain results, e.g., colour change.
❖ Equilibrium Constant (Kc):
It is the ratio of the concentration of products and concentration of reactants in a chemical reaction.
See examples below:
Balanced equation Kc expression
• N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) [𝑁𝐻3 ]2

𝐾𝑐 =
[𝑁2 ]1 [𝐻2 ]3
• S(s) + O2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) [𝑆𝑂2 ]1

𝐾𝑐 =
[𝑂2 ]2
TIP 2: For Kc expression:

• Reaction equation must be balanced.
• Only gases (g) and aqueous (aq) substances are included.
• NB: Pure liquids (l ) and solids (s) are NOT included.
TIP 3: Calculating Kc value:
• Substitute [reactants] and [products] at equilibrium.
• Kc value is a ratio and therefore has no unit.
• Kc is constant at specific temperature. When temperature changes, Kc value changes.
• When comparing Kc values for different reactions, temperature must be the same.
• For some complicated calculation Kc value, use the E-RICE-E table.

❖ The E-RICE-E table: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
E Equation (Balanced) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

TIP 3:
R Ratio 1 3 2 Values
here in
I Initial quantity (mol) moles.
C Change (Reacted /
formed) (mol)
E Equilibrium (mol)
TIP 4:
E Equilibrium Conc. Values here
(mol.dm-3) must be in
concentratio
n, moles (mol)
TIP 5: divided by
• To remember this, use this citation: “Endo - RICE- Exo”. volume (dm-3)
and substitute
• To fill row, I: Apply the mole ratio. in K c
• To fill rows C and E: Use E (mol) = I (mol) – C (mol). expression.
❖ Interpreting the Kc value:
Kc value Equilibrium position Yield
Kc > 1 Shifts to the right. More products than reactants (High yield).
0 < Kc < 1 Shifts to the left. Less products than reactants (Low yield).
TIP 6: Kc value cannot be zero (0) or less than zero (0): Kc ≠ 0.

❖ Concentration-time & Reaction rate-time graphs: NO + O2 ⇌ 2NO2(g). ΔH < 0.
Pressure
increased Pressure Reactant Reactant Temperature Temperature
decrease added removed increased decreased
❖ Explaining the change that occurred at the times: t1 – t6.
Time Change Explanation
T1 Pressure Both forward and reverse reaction rates increased, because

increased concentration of reactants and products increase. Forward
reaction favoured, because it produces less moles of
molecules.
T2 Pressure Both forward and reverse reaction rates decreased, because

decreased concentration of reactants and products decrease. Reverse
reaction favoured, because it produces more moles of
molecules.
T3 Product(s) Forward reaction rate favoured, because concentration of

added reactants increased.
T4 Reactant(s) Reverse reaction rate favoured, because concentration of

removed reactants decreased.
T5 Temperature Both forward and reverse reaction rates increased. Reverse

increased reaction (endothermic) favoured to decrease temperature.
T6 Temperature Both forward and reverse reaction rates decreased. Reverse

decreased reaction (exothermic) favoured to increase temperature.

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM: QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1 [6]
Define the following:
1.1 Reversible reaction. (2)
1.2 Dynamic equilibrium. (2)
1.3 Le Chatelier's principle. (2)
2.1 Consider the chemical reaction represented by the following equation: (2)
2A+3B ⇌ 4C ∆H < 0
If the temperature increases.
a) The rate of forward reaction only increases.
b) Rate of reverse reaction only increases.
c) The increase of rate of forward reaction is more than the increase of the
rate of reverse reaction.
d) The increase of the rate of reverse reaction is more than the increase of the
rate of forward reaction.
2.2 The reaction represented below reaches equilibrium in a closed container. (2)
CH4 (g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3 H2 (g) ΔH > 0
Which ONE of the following changes will increase the yield of H2(g)?
a) Add a catalyst.
b) Decrease pressure by increasing the volume.
c) Decrease the temperature.
d) Increase pressure by decreasing the volume.

2.3 What is the effect of an increase of temperature on the yield of CO and the
equilibrium constant for the following reaction? (2)
2H2(g) + CO(g) ⇄ CH3OH(ℓ) ΔH = - 128 kJ
Yield of CO Equilibrium constant
A Increases Increases
B Decreases Increases
C Increases Decreases
D Decreases Decreases
Question 2.4 – 2.6 refer to this equation:
H2(g) + I2 (g) ⇄ 2 HI (g) ΔH <0
2.4 This reaction reaches equilibrium if: (2)
a) 50 % of the reactants have been converted to products.
b) All of the reactants have been converted to products.
c) The products decompose as fast as it forms.
d) The reactants stop reacting.
2.5 The yield of HI can be increased if: (2)
a) A catalyst is added.
b) The temperature is lowered.
c) The temperature is increased.
d) Pressure is increased.
2.6 How will the concentration of H2 and HI be affected if the concentration of I2 is

increased? (2)
[H2] mol.dm3 [HI] mol.dm3
A. Decreases Increases
B. Increases Decreases
C. Decreases No change
D. No change Increases

QUESTION 3 [16]
The production of ammonia is represented by the equation below:
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) + HEAT.
3.1 Is the reaction above exothermic or endothermic? Explain your answer. (3)
3.2 What will be the effect on the yield of ammonia if the …?
3.2.1 Temperature of the system is increased. (1)
3.2.2 Pressure of the system is increased? (1)
3.3 In the reaction, 5 moles of N2(g) and 8 moles of H2(g) is introduced into a sealed
5dm3 container. The reaction reaches equilibrium at 400 K. At equilibrium, it is
found that 2 moles of NH3(g) is present in the container. Calculate the value of Kc
at this temperature. (7)
3.4 The temperature of reaction is decreased to 300 K at equilibrium.
3.4.1 State whether the value of Kc will increase or decrease. (1)
3.4.2 Use Le Chatelier’s Principle to explain the answer in 3.4.1 above. (3)
QUESTION 4 [13]
33,6 g of N2 and 24 g of H2 are placed in a 5 dm3 sealed container and react according to
the following balanced equation until dynamic equilibrium is reached.
N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g)
4.1 Explain the term “dynamic chemical equilibrium”. (2)
At 573 K when equilibrium is reached, there is 5,6 g of N2 gas left inside the
container.
4.2 Calculate the concentration of both reactants when reaction reached equilibrium
for the first time. (6)
4.3 Calculate equilibrium constant (Kc) when this reaction reached equilibrium. (3)
4.4 How would the yield of NH3 change if a smaller container that 5dm3 is used? Write
only INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME. (1)
The temperature of this reaction increases from 573 K to 700 K. At this new temperature,
the equilibrium constant for this reaction decreases.
4.5 Is the forward reaction endothermic or exothermic? (1)

QUESTION 5 [9]
SO3 gas is sealed in a container and reaches chemical equilibrium at 700 K after 10
minutes.
SO3(g) ⇌2 SO2(g) + O2 (g)
5.1 Write down the balanced chemical equation for the reverse reaction. (2)
5.2 What is the reason for the increase in the reaction rate as represented by the
dotted line between t = 0 minutes and t = 5 minutes? (2)
5.3 Is the reaction represented by the solid line exothermic or endothermic? Explain. (3)
5.4 Explain what happens at 10 minutes. (2)
QUESTION 6 [8]
The balanced equation below represents a hypothetical reaction taking place in 1 dm3
closed container at 250 K.
2X(g) + Y2(g) ⇌ 2XY(g) ΔH < 0
The amount (mol) of each substance present in the equilibrium mixture at 250K is shown
in the table below.
X Y2 XY
0,4 mol 0,4 mol 1,6 mol
The temperature of the container is changed and when a new equilibrium is established, it
is found that 0,6 mol X(g) is present in the container.
6.1 Was the change in temperature of the container an INCREASE or DECREASE? (1)
6.2 Which reaction is exothermic: FORWARD REACTION or REVERSE REACTION? (1)

6.3 More Y2(g) is now added to the reaction mixture at constant temperature.
How will each of the following be affected? Choose from INCREASES,

DECREASES, OR REMAINS THE SAME.
6.3.1 Yield of XY(g). Give a reason for the answer. (2)
6.3.2 Number of moles of X(g). (1)
6.3.3 Use Le Chatelier’s principle to explain the answer to Question 6.3.2. (3)
QUESTION 7 [6]
A certain amount of nitrogen gas is sealed in a gas syringe at 25oC. When equilibrium is
reached, the volume occupied by the reaction mixture in the gas syringe is 80 dm3. The
balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) ΔH < 0
7.1 At equilibrium the concentration of the NO2(g) is 0,2 mol.dm-3. The equilibrium
constant for the reaction is 171 at 25oC. Calculate the number of moles of N2O4(g)
at equilibrium, at 25oC. (4)
7.2 The sketch graph below was obtained for the equilibrium mixture.
A catalyst is added to the equilibrium mixture at time t1.
Redraw the graph above in your ANSWER BOOK. On the same set of axes,
complete the graph showing the effect of the catalyst on the reaction rates. (2)

ACID AND BASES: SUMMARY
Definitions of Acid and Base:
Arrhenius definition Bronsted-lowry definition
An acid is a substance that releases H+ or An acid is a proton (H+ ions) donor.

H3O+ ions in aqueous solutions.
A base release OH - ions in aqueous A base is a proton (H + ions) accepter.

solutions.
Definition of terms:
Term Definition
Strong acid Ionises completely in water to form high concentration of H+

ions. E.g., HCℓ, H2SO4, HNO3.
Weak acid Ionises partially in water to form low concentration of H+ ions.

E.g., CH3COOH, (COOH)2.
Strong Base Dissociates completely in water to form high concentration of

OH- ions. E.g., NaOH, KOH.
Weak Base Dissociates incompletely in water to form low concentration of

OH- ions. E.g., NH3, K2CO3, CaCO3, NaHCO3.
Ampholyte Is a substance that can act as an acid or a base.

Example: H2O, HCO3-, HSO4-. Water acting as an ampholyte:
- HSO4- + H2O ⇌ SO42- + H3O+ (acts as base)
- HSO4- + H2O ⇌ H2SO4 + OH- (acts as base)

Conjugate acids and bases:
Conjugate Acids Conjugate Bases
When an acid donates a proton (H+), a When a base accepts a proton (H+),
conjugate base is formed. a conjugate acid is formed.
Acid ⇌ H+ + conjugate base. Base + H+ ⇌ conjugate acid.
HINT:
Conjugate acid-base pairs are
compounds that differ by the
presence of one proton (H+).
Classification of acids
Monoprotic acid can donate only one proton (H+). E.g., HCℓ, HNO3, CH3COOH.
Diprotic acid can donate two protons (H+). E.g.H2SO4, H2CO3.
Triprotic acid can donate three protons (H+). E.g., H3PO4.
Hydrolysis of salts: Hydrolysis is the reaction of salt with water, to form acidic, alkali or neutral
solution. The acidity of the salt is dependent on the relative strengths of the acid and base that
formed it.
• Strong acid + Strong base → Neutral salt.
• Strong acid + Weak base → Acidic salt.
• Weak acid + Strong base → Alkali salt.
• Weak acid + Weak base → Neutral salt.
Indicators and colour change:
Indicator Colour change pH range
Methyl orange Red to orange 3.1 – 4.4
Bromothymol blue Yellow to blue 6.0 – 7.8
Phenolphthalein Colourless to pink 8.3 – 10.0
Litmus Red to blue 4.5 – 8.3

Titration
A titration is a practical laboratory method to determine the concentration of an acid or

base, by accurate neutralisation of using a standard solution.
Titration set-up:
Titration Procedure:
1. Pipette known solution into conical
Burette flask.
2. Add appropriate indicator to flask.
3. Add unknown concentration
solution to the burette (usually
acid).
4. Add unknown solution from the
burette into flask drop by drop
while whirling the flask.
5. Stop burette flow when indicator
shows colour change at
neutralisation / equivalence point.
Titration Equation:
𝑛𝑎 𝐶𝑎𝑉𝑎 n m
= OR C = and n =
𝑛𝑏 𝐶𝑏𝑉𝑏 v M
Calculating pH value Steps in calculating pH Converting units
• pH = - log [H3O+] 1. Write down the ionisation or

dissociation equation.
*[H3O+] = 10-pH
2. Find the mole ratio of acid to H3O+ ion
• pOH = - log [OH-]
or base to OH- ion.
• [OH-][H3O+] = 1 x 10-14
3. Determine the [H3O+] / [OH-].
(NB: [H3O+][OH-] = 10-14)
4. Calculate the pH: pH = - log [H3O+].
NB: pOH = -log [OH-] and then pH = 14 –
pOH.
Ionisation constant of acid (Ka) and Ionisation constant of base (Kb).
Strong acid Weak acid Strong base Weak base
High Ka (> 1) Low Ka (< 1) High Kb (< 1) low Kb (> 1)

ACID AND BASES: QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1 [28]
1.1 Acid and base according to the Lowry-Brønsted theory. (2)
1.2 Strong acid (2)
1.3 Weak acid (2)
1.4 Strong base (2)
1.5 Weak base (2)
1.6 Concentrated acid / base (2)
1.7 Dilute acid / base (2)
1.8 Ampholyte (2)
1.9 Titration (2)
1.10 Standard solution (2)
1.11 Equivalence point of titration (2)
1.12 Endpoint of titration (2)
1.13 Auto – ionisation of water (2)
1.14 Hydrolysis (2)
2.1 Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid because ...
a) Hydrochloric acid is an ionic compound.
b) Hydrochloric acid is an organic compound.
c) Hydrochloric acid is almost completely ionised into ions in solution.
d) Hydrochloric acid gas is very soluble in water. (2)

2.2 Which ONE of the following equations represents an acid–base reaction?
a) H2SO4 + 3 H2S → 4 S + 4 H2O
b) 2 HCl + Na2CO3 → 2 NaCl + H2O + CO2.
c) H2SO4 + 2 NaCl → Na2SO4 + 4 HCl
d) 2 HCl + FeS → FeCl2 + H2S (2)
2.3 The following aqueous solutions all have the same concentration. Which aqueous
solution has the lowest pH?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Sodium nitrate
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Ethanoic acid (2)

– +
2.4 In the equation H2CO3 + H2O HCO3 + H3O , the Lowry–Brnsted bases are …
+
a) H2O and H3O
– +
b) HCO3 and H3O
–
c) H2CO3 and HCO3
–
d) HCO3 and H2O (2)
2.5 When an acid reacts with a substance, the reaction produces carbon dioxide gas.
The substance is most likely to be a …
a) Base
b) Carbonate
c) Metal
d) Non-metal (2)
2.6 A standard solution is a solution …
a) at a temperature of 25 °C.
b) prepared under standard laboratory conditions.
c) of which the volume is known.
d) of which the concentration is known. (2)

QUESTION 3 [13]
It takes 40 cm3 of 0,6 mol•dm–3 H2SO4 to neutralise 25 cm3 of an NaOH solution.
3.1 Write a balanced equation for the reaction. (4)
3.2 Calculate how many moles of H2SO4 were needed to neutralise the NaOH
solution. (3)
3.3 Use your answer to question 3.2 to determine how many moles of NaOH were
needed for the neutralisation reaction to take place. (2)
3.4 How many moles of NaOH there are in 25 cm3 of solution? (1)
3.5 Calculate the concentration of the NaOH solution. (3)
QUESTION 4 [14]
A burette was filled with an unknown concentration of sulphuric acid (H2SO4). It was
Titrated against 0,20 mol∙dm-3 sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution of volume 50,0 cm3 in a
conical flask with a few drops of indicator added. The table below shows the results of the
experiment.
Experiment 1 2 3
Volume of H2SO4 (cm3) 19.8 20.2 20.0
4.1 Define the term end point of a titration. (2)
4.2 Write down a balanced equation for the reaction. (2)
4.3 Sulphuric acid is a diprotic acid. Explain the term diprotic acid. (2)
4.4 Explain why sodium hydroxide is a strong base. (2)
4.5 Calculate the average volume of Sulphuric acid used for the titration. (1)
4.6 Determine the concentration of the Sulphuric acid solution. (5)

QUESTION 5 [21]
Mbali transfers a volume of 25,0 cm3 of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution from a
volumetric flask to a conical flask, as shown in the following diagram. She then adds a
few drops of a suitable indicator to the NaOH solution.
5.1 Mbali uses the apparatus labelled A to transfer 25,0 cm3 of NaOH solution from the
volumetric flask to the conical flask. Name this apparatus. (1)
Mbali then fills a burette with nitric acid (HNO3) with a known concentration of 0,100
mol•dm–3. She runs this solution into the conical flask until she reaches the end point of
the titration. She performs three titrations. The following diagrams show sections of the
burette with the initial and final readings of the HNO3 levels for each titration.
5.2 Copy the following table. Use the diagrams to complete the table.
Titration number 1 2 3
Initial reading (cm3)
Final reading (cm3)
Volume of HNO3 used (cm3)
Tick the best results (✓)
(4)
5.3 Use the best titration results to calculate the average volume of HNO3 used. (2)
5.4 Write a balanced equation for the reaction between HNO3 and NaOH. (2)
5.5 Calculate the concentration of the NaOH solution. (5)

5.6 What is the concentration of the hydroxide ions in the solution? (1)
5.7 Calculate the pH of the solution. (5)
5.8 Name a suitable indicator that can be used during the titration. (1)
QUESTION 6 [21]
6.1 Ammonium chloride crystals, NH4Cl(s), dissolve in water to form ammonium and
chloride ions. The ammonium ions react with water according to the balanced
equation below:
NH4+ (aq) + H2O (l) NH3 (aq) + H3O+ (aq)
6.1.1 Write down the name of the process described by the underlined sentence. (1)
6.1.2 Is ammonium chloride ACIDIC or BASIC in aqueous solution? Give a reason for
the answer. (2)
6.1.3 During a titration, 25 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution is titrated with a 0,11
mol·dm−3 ethanoic acid solution, CH3COOH (aq). At the endpoint, it is found that
14,55 cm3 of the ethanoic acid was used to neutralise the sodium hydroxide
solution according to the following balanced equation:
CH3COOH (aq) + NaOH (aq) CH3COONa (aq) + H2O (l)
6.2.1 Calculate the number of moles of ethanoic acid used in the titration. (2)
6.2.2 Calculate the concentration of the sodium hydroxide used in the titration. (4)
6.2.3 Calculate the pH of the sodium hydroxide solution at 25 ⁰C. (5)
6.2.4 Name a suitable indicator that can be used in this titration. (1)
6.3 Ethanoic acid is a common organic acid. The dissociation constant of this acid is:
Ka = 1 ,74 x 10−5
6.3.1 What is the significance of a low value for the Ka value for ethanoic acid? (1)
6.3.2 What does the Ka indicate about the electrical conductivity of ethanoic acid?
Answer only POOR, STRONG or NON-CONDUCTOR (2)
6.3.3 Write an equation for the ionisation reaction of ethanoic acid and water. (3)

QUESTION 7 [6]
Use only the compounds from the list below when answering Question 7 .1 to 7.6. All
the substances are in the aqueous (aq) phase.
H 3 PO 4 HCℓ Li 2 SO 4 NaOH
CH 3 MgSO 4 K 2 SO 3 NH 4 OH
COOH
Choose from this list a compound which is a: (Only write down the question number and
the formula of the compound next to it).
7.1 Strong acid (1)
7.2 Strong base (1)
7.3 Weak monoprotic acid (1)
7.4 Polyprotic acid (1)
7.5 Neutral salt (1)
7.6 Basic salt (1)
QUESTION 8 [13]
8.1 Write down the conjugated bases for the following acids:
8.1.1 NH4+ (1)
8.1.2 H2O (1)
8.2 Write down the conjugated acids for the following acids:
8.2.1 H2O (1)
8.2.2 HSO4- (1)
A learner adds 0.06 mole of 0.5 mol.dm-3 NaOH to 1 dm3 HCl solution. The balanced
equation for the reaction is given below.
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
8.3 Calculate the initial number of moles of HCl present in the solution. (4)
8.4 Determine the number of moles of NaOH needed to react with the acid. (3)
8.5 Which one of the two substances is excess? (2)

GALVANIC CELLS: SUMMARY
Term Definition
Galvanic cell A cell in which chemical energy is converted into electrical

energy. It is spontaneous, self-sustaining electrode reaction.
Redox Reaction Reaction in which electron transfer takes place.
Oxidation Reaction. A loss of electrons / increase in oxidation number.
Reduction Reaction A gain of electrons / decrease in oxidation number.
Oxidising Agent Substance that is reduced / gains electrons / decreased

oxidation number.
Reducing Agent Substance that is oxidised / loses electrons / increased

oxidation number.
Electrolysis Chemical process in which electrical energy is converted into

chemical energy.
Electrolyte A solution that conducts electricity through the movement of

ions.
Salt bridge A component used in galvanic cells to complete the circuit or to

ensure electrical neutrality.
Galvanic (Voltaic) cell:
• Spontaneous redox reaction and Self-sustaining.

• Electrons flow from anode (Negative), through external circuit, to cathode
(Positive).
• Eo cell > 0 V.
• Strong reducing agent and strong oxidising agent.
• Exothermic reaction.
• Chemical energy converted to Eelectrical energy.
• Two separate electrolytes.
• Salt-bridge.
• Electrodes take part in the redox reaction.
• Anions flow from the salt-bridge to anode /oxidation half-cell.
• Cations flow from the salt-bridge to cathode /reduction half-cell.

Structure of Galvanic (Voltaic) cell:
Processes in Galvanic cell:
CATHODE ANODE
• Positive • Negative
• Reduction • Oxidation
• Receives electrons from the external • Releases electrons to the external
circuit. circuit.
• Mass of cathode increases. • Mass of anode decreases.
Using the standard reduction potential table: Table 4A
Half-reactions Eo (V)
Strong OA F2(g) + 2e- ⇌ 2F— +2.87 Weak RA
2H- + 2e- ⇌ 2H2(g) 0.00
Weak OA Strong RA
Li+ + e- ⇌ 2F-- -3.05
Key: OA – Oxidising Agent. RA – Reducing Agent.

Cell notation to represents a Galvanic cell:

GALVANIC CELLS: QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1 [16]
1.1 Oxidation (2)
1.2 Reduction (2)
1.3 Oxidising agent (2)
1.4 Reducing agent (2)
1.5 Anode (2)
1.6 Cathode (2)
1.7 Galvanic cell (2)
1.8 Standard electrode potential (2)
QUESTION 2 [8]
2.1 Consider the following two balanced chemical equations.
SO2 (g) + 2H2S (g) → 3S (s) + 2H2O (l)
SO2 (g) + Mg (s) → S (s) + 2MgO (s)
The reducing agent(s) in these two reactions is (are) …
A. Only SO2
B. SO2 and Mg
C. H2S and SO2
D. Mg and H2S (2)
2.2 Which ONE of the following solutions can be stored in an aluminium container?
A. CuSO4(aq)
B. ZnSO4 (aq)
C. NaCl(aq)
D. Pb(NO3)2 (aq) (2)

2.3 Chlorine gas is bubbled through a solution of Fe2+ ions. Consider the
balanced chemical equation for the reaction given below.
2Fe2+(aq) + Cℓ2(g) 2Fe3+(aq) + 2Cℓ–(aq)
The symbol of the reducing agent in this reaction is:
A. Fe2+
B. Cl2
C. Fe3+
D. Cl- (2)
2.4 Which one of the following correctly describes the process taking place at
the cathode of an electrochemical cell and the electron transfer involved?
A. Oxidation – loss of electrons
B. Reduction – gain of electrons
C. Oxidation- gain of electrons
D. Reduction – loss of electrons (2)
QUESTION 3 [6]
3.1 Name the energy conversion that takes place in a galvanic cell. (2)
3.2 How are the two electrodes in the external circuit of a galvanic cell connected? (1)
3.3 How are the electrolytes in the internal circuit of a galvanic cell connected? (1)
3.4 What is the name given to the half-cell in which oxidation takes place? (1)
3.5 What is the name given to the half-cell in which reduction takes place? (1)
QUESTION 4 [18]
4.1 Consider the following reactions:
A: Steel wool (iron) is added to a lead(ii) nitrate solution.
B: Bromine water added to solution with iodide ions.
Use the Table of Standard Reduction Potentials and write down the following for
each chemical reaction:
4.1.1 The oxidation half-reaction. (2)
4.1.2 The reduction half-reaction. (2)

4.1.3 The net ionic reaction. (4)
4.2 Consider the following combinations:
A: Mg and Pb2+
B: Pb and Cu2+
4.2.1 Write down the half-reactions for each of the combinations. (4)
4.2.2 Determine the cell potential for each of the combinations. (6)
QUESTION 5 [13]
Consider a magnesium-silver galvanic cell the net ionic reaction given below:
Mg + 2 Ag+ Mg2+ + 2 Ag
5.1 Which substance is undergoing reduction? Write a half-reaction for the reaction. (3)
5.2 Which substance is undergoing oxidation? Write a half-reaction for the reaction. (3)
5.3 Which half-cell will contain the anode? (1)
5.4 Which half-cell will contain the cathode? (1)
5.5 Which electrode will increase in mass? (1)
5.6 Which electrode will decrease in mass? (1)
5.7 Write down the cell-notation for this galvanic cell. (3)
QUESTION 6 [21]
6.1 Write cell-notations to represent the following net ionic reactions for different
galvanic cells.
6.1.1 Ag+(aq) + Al (s) Ag (s) + Al3+ (aq) (3)
6.1.2 Ni2+ (aq) + Zn (s) Zn2+ (aq) + Ni (s) (3)
6.2 Write down oxidation and reduction half-reactions for the galvanic cells in Question
6.1.1 and 6.1.2. (4)
6.3 Calculate the emf of the galvanic cells in Question 6.1.1 and 6.1.2. (6)
6.4 Name two standard conditions needed for the above galvanic cells to function. (2)
6.5 Give a suitable electrolyte (solution) that can be used in the salt bridge of the
above galvanic cells. (1)
6.6 Give two functions of the salt bridge. (2)

QUESTION 7 [10]
An electrochemical cell is set up under standard conditions with tin (Sn) as anode and an
unknown metal M as cathode. The initial voltmeter reading is 0,94 V.
7.1 Identify the metal M by means of a relevant calculation. (4)
7.2 Write the cell notation for the cell. (3)
7.3 Write a balanced net ionic equation for the reaction (3)
QUESTION 8 [14]
Learners use an electrochemical cell as shown in the diagram below in an investigation to

compare the reducing abilities of different metals.
8.1 Name the type of electrochemical cell depicted in the above diagram. (1)
8.2 What will the voltmeter reading be if the salt bridge is removed? (1)
8.3 Name TWO conditions that will need to be kept constant during this investigation. (2)
8.4 What will be the independent variable in this investigation? (1)
In their investigation, they use different combinations of the three half-cells in the table
below to compare the reducing abilities of Cu, Zn and Aℓ. The cell potential for each
combination of half-cells is recorded in the table.
COMBINATION HALF-CELL X HALF-CELL Y VOLTMETER

READING (V)
1 Cu / Cu2+ Aℓ / Aℓ3+ -1,8
2 Aℓ / Aℓ3+ Aℓ / Aℓ3+ +0,8
3 Zn / Zn2+ Cu / Cu2+ +1,0
8.5 Write down a:
8.5.1 Possible reason why the voltmeter reading for the copper aluminium cell is
negative. (2)

8.5.2 Suitable conclusion for this investigation. (2)
8.6 Write down the NAME or SYMBOL of the:
8.6.1 Metal which is oxidised in cell 2. (1)
8.6.2 Reducing agent in cell 3. (1)
8.7 Omitting spectator ions, write down a balanced equation for the net (overall) cell
reaction taking place in cell 2. (3)
QUESTION 9 [15]
The diagram shows a

galvanic cell with a current
flowing through galvanometer
G.
Electrode A is made of
chromium and is surrounded
by a chromium nitrate
solution.
Electrode C is made of nickel.
Tube B is filled with a
potassium chloride solution.
Cotton wool seals both ends.
9.1 Write down the chemical formula of potassium chloride. (1)
9.2 Name the component labelled B. (1)
9.3 Describe two properties of an electrode. (2)
9.4 Write down the half-reaction occurring at A. (2)
9.5 Which electrode is the cathode? (A or C)? (1)
9.6 Write down a balanced equation for the full reaction. (2)
9.7 What is meant by standard conditions for this cell? (4)
9.8 Describe the energy changes that occur in this cell. (2)

QUESTION 10 [11]
An electrochemical cell shown below uses the reaction of magnesium with hydrochloric
Acid. The cell functions under standard conditions.
10.1 Write down the following:
10.1.1 Energy conversion that takes place in this cell. (1)
10.1.2 Function of part Q. (1)
10.1.3 Half-reaction that takes place at the cathode. (2)
10.1.4 Cell notation of the cell. (3)
10.2 Calculate the initial EMF of the cell. (4)

QUESTION 11 [8]
A cell is setup as shown, to investigate the effect of concentration of electrolyte on emf of

a galvanic cell. The data obtained is represented in the graph on the right-hand side.
11.1 Identify the following:
11.1.1 Dependent variable in the investigation. (1)
11.1.2 Independent variable in the investigation. (1)
11.1.3 Control variable in in the investigation. (1)
11.2 What is the investigative question in this investigation? (2)
11.3 Write down the conclusion in this investigation. (2)
11.4 Which graph (R or Q) is the relationship at the anode half-cell? (1)

ELECTROLYTIC CELLS: SUMMARY
Term Definition
Electrolytic cell A cell in which electrical energy is converted into chemical energy. It is
non-spontaneous electrode reaction.
Electrolysis Chemical process in which electrical energy is converted into chemical

energy.
Electrolyte A solution that conducts electricity through the movement of ions.
Electrolytic Cell:
• Non-Spontaneous redox reaction.

• Electrons flow from anode (positive), through external circuit, to cathode
(Negative).
• Eo cell < 0 V.
• Weak reducing agent and weak oxidising agent.
• Endothermic reaction (direct power source is needed).
• Electrical energy converted to chemical energy.
• One electrolyte.
• No Salt-bridge.
• Electrodes unreactive unless they take part in the reaction of reaction, e.g.,
electroplating and purification of copper.
Structure of electrolytic cell

Processes in electrolytic cells:
CATHODE ANODE
• Negative • Positive
• Reduction • Oxidation
• Receives electrons from the external • Provides electrons to the external
circuit. circuit.
• Mass of cathode increases. • Mass of anode decreases.

ELECTROLYTIC CELLS: QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1 [6]
1.1 Electrolyte (2)
1.2 Electrolytic cell (2)
1.3 Electrolysis (2)
QUESTION 2: ELCTROLYSIS OF COPPER (II) CHLORIDE [12]
A current supply is connected to two carbon electrodes and immersed in molten copper
(II) chloride.
2.1 Give an equation for the dissociation of copper (II) chloride when melted. (2)
2.2 Write down the reaction that takes place at the anode. (2)
2.3 Write down the reaction that takes place at the cathode. (2)
2.4 Write down the net ionic reaction for this electrolytic cell. (2)
2.5 What energy conversion takes place in this cell? (2)
2.6 What observations will be made at the anode? Explain. (2)
QUESTION 3: ELECTROPLATING [11]
The simplified diagram below represents an electrolytic cell used to electroplate a spoon
with a thin layer of silver.
3.1 Write down the energy conversion that takes place in this cell. (1)
3.2 Which electrode (ANODE or CATHODE) must the spoon be? Explain how you
arrived at your answer. (3)

3.3 Write down the:
3.3.1 NAME or SYMBOL of the element of which electrode X is made. (1)
3.3.2 Equation of the half-reaction that takes place at the spoon. (2)
3.4 Write down the visible changes that will occur at the following:
3.4.1 Electrode X (1)
3.4.2 The spoon (1)
3.5 Explain why the concentration of the electrolyte remains constant during
electroplating. (2)
QUESTION 4 [7]
The apparatus shown below is used for the electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride
(NaCl) solution at 25o C with carbon electrodes. The balanced equation for the net cell
reaction is:
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) Cl2(g) + H2(g) + 2NaOH(aq).
4.1 Define the term electrolysis. (2)
4.2 Write down the:
4.2.1 The component that represents the CATHODE. (1)
4.2.2 NAME or FORMULA of gas B. (1)
4.2.3 Half-reaction taking place at electrode Q. (2)
4.2.4 FORMULA of the reducing agent. (1)

QUESTION 5: CHLOR-ALKALI INDUSTRY (MEMBRANE CELL) [19]
The diagram below is a simplified version of a membrane cell, which is one of the
electrolytic cells used in the chlor-alkali industry.
5.1 Indicate if the following is the anode or cathode.
5.1.1 Negative electrode (1)
5.1.2 Positive electrode (1)
5.2 Name the gases formed at P and Q. (2)
5.3 Write down the half- reactions that shows how gas P and Q is formed. (4)
5.4 Give another name for concentrated sodium chloride solution. (1)
5.5 State ONE function of the membrane. (2)
5.6 State TWO uses of chlorine. (2)
5.7 Give TWO uses of hydrogen gas. (2)
5.8 Give TWO uses of sodium hydroxide. (2)
5.9 Give TWO advantages of the membrane cell. (2)

QUESTION 6: PURIFICATION OF COPPER [10]
A learner sets up an electrolytic cell, represented in the diagram below, to purify copper
which contains platinum and silver impurities.
6.1 Indicate to which pole of the cell the following substances must be connected to:
6.1.1 Impure copper (1)
6.1.2 Pure copper (1)
6.2 Write down the:
6.2.1 Oxidation half-reaction (2)
6.2.2 Reduction half-reaction (2)
6.3 Explain why the Cu2+ ion concentration remains constant. (2)
6.4 What will happen to the silver and platinum impurities? (2)
QUESTION 7 [4]
7.1 Which ONE of the following combinations CORRECTLY shows the products
formed during the electrolysis of a CONCENTRATED sodium chloride solution?
Cathode Anode
A. Hydrogen Sodium
B. Hydrogen Chlorine
C. Chlorine Sodium
D. Chlorine Hydrogen
(2)

7.2 A learner wants to electroplate a copper ring with nickel. He uses the
experimental set-up shown in the simplified diagram below.
Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?
Anode Cathode Electrolyte
A. Copper ring Nickel rod CuSO4
B. Nickel rod Copper ring CuSO4
C. Copper ring Nickel rod NiSO4
D. Nickel rod Copper ring NiSO4
(2)

QUANTITATIVE CHEMISTRY
QUESTION 1 [12]
1.7 One mole
1.8 Molar mass
1.9 Solute
1.10 Solvent
1.11 Concentration
1.12 Molar volume
QUESTION 2 [18]
2.1 Determine the volume that 16 g of oxygen gas occupy at STP. (5)
2.2 Calculate the volume of oxygen gas obtained at STP when 29,4 g potassium
chlorate is heated according to the following balanced chemical equation.
2 KClO3 KCl + 3 O2 (5)
2.3 Study the following balanced chemical equation:
Mg + O2 2 MgO
2 g of magnesium react completely with oxygen.
a) Calculate the number of moles of magnesium available. (2)
b) Calculate the number of oxygen molecules needed to completely react with

the 2 g of magnesium. (3)
c) Calculate mass of magnesium oxide produced. (3)
QUESTION 3 [23]
3.1 36 cm3 of nitric acid of concentration 0,2 mol.dm3 is to be neutralised by potassium

hydroxide according to the following balanced chemical equation:
HNO3(aq)+KOH(aq) KNO3(aq) + H2O(aq)
a) Calculate the mass of potassium hydroxide needed to neutralise the

sample of nitric acid. (5)

b) Calculate the concentration of potassium hydroxide if 45 cm3 was used to
neutralise the nitric acid. (3)
3.2 In an experiment 45,5 g of Zn and 55 g of HCl are reacted together and produce
products as illustrated in the unbalanced chemical equation:
Zn+HCl ZnCl2 + H2
a) Balance the above chemical equation. (2)
b) Calculate which one of the two substances is in excess. (4)
c) Determine the mass of the substance which is left over at the end of the
reaction. (3)
3.3 The combustion of methane produces carbon dioxide and water. Assume that 2
moles of methane are burned in the presence of excess air according to the
following balanced chemical equation:
CH4+ 2 O2 CO2 + 2 H2O
a) Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide that can be produced from this
reaction. (3)
b) Calculate the percentage yield if the actual yield of carbon dioxide in this
reaction is 87 g. (3)
QUESTION 4 [18]
Copper turnings react with dilute nitric acid according to the following balanced chemical
equation:
3Cu(s) + 8HNO3 (aq)  3Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2NO (g) + 4H2O (l)
A student adds 19,05 g of copper to a beaker containing 0,5 dm3 of a 1,4 mol.dm-3
solution of nitric acid.
4.1 Define molar mass. (1)
4.2 Calculate the number of moles of each reactant. (4)
4.3 How many atoms are there in 19,05 g of copper? (2)
4.4 Determine which of the reactants is the limiting reactant. (3)
4.5 Calculate the mass of water that is produced. (3)
4.6 Calculate the percentage yield of nitrogen (II) oxide (NO) produced if 3 dm3 of NO
is obtained at STP. (5)

QUESTION 5 [8]
A learner is preparing an ester using methanol (molecular formula: CH4O) and ethanoic acid
(molecular formula: C2H4O2). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is given
below:
CH4O + C2H4O2 → C3H6O2 + H2O
5.1 What type of reaction is represented by the equation above? (1)
5.2 Write down the NAME or FORMULA of the catalyst needed in this reaction. (1)
5.3 When 50 g of methanol fully reacts with excess ethanoic acid, it produces
68,88 g C3H6O2. Calculate the percentage purity of the methanol. (6)
QUESTION 6 [8]
The airbag is a safety device now commonly used in most vehicles. In the case of an
accident, the airbag is rapidly inflated with nitrogen gas generated by a chemical reaction
that sodium aside undergoes, as represented below:
2 NaN3(g) → 2 Na(s) + 3 N2(g)
An engineer is asked to design an airbag that, when inflated, has a volume of 65,5 dm3 at
STP.
6.1 Calculate the number of moles of nitrogen gas required to fill the airbag as
specified. (3)
6.2 Calculate the mass of sodium aside that should be used to generate the required
quantity of nitrogen gas? (5)


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PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Grade 12 Improvement Resources

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

Define the following terms:

1.1 Momentum (2)

1.2 Impulse (2)

1.3 Elastic collision (2)

1.4 Inelastic collision (2)

1.5 Kinetic energy (2)

1.6 Isolated system (2)

2.1 State the Law of conservation of linear momentum. (2)

2.2 State Newton’s second law in terms of momentum. (2)

2.3 State the conditions for an elastic collision. (2)

2.5 Momentum can be measured in:

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

Calculate the change in momentum. (4)

4.1 A resultant force of 30 N acts on an object for 2s.

Calculate the magnitude of the impulse. (3)

4.2 A 15 kg object accelerates from 3 m.s–1 to 12 m.s–1.Calculate the magnitude of

4.2.1 Impulse. (3)

4.2.2 Change in momentum. (2)

4.3 Impulse (is / is not) equal to the change in momentum. (2)

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

Block A with a mass of 3 kg moves right at a constant velocity on a horizontal frictionless

6.1 State the Law of conservation of linear momentum. (2)

6.2 Calculate the speed of block A before the collision. (4)

6.3 Calculate the change in momentum for block B. (3)

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

7.1 State the law of conservation of momentum. (2)

7.3 Calculate the impulse provided to the 3 kg cart. (3)

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

8.1 State the definition of momentum. (2)

8.2 Use the graph and values given above to:

8.2.1 Calculate the total momentum before the collision. (3)

8.2.2 Calculate the total momentum after the collision. (2)

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

(i) The time of impact increases.

(ii) The impact force decreases.

(iii) The impulse increases.

Which of the statements above are CORRECT?

C. (ii) and (iii) only

D. (i) and (ii) only (2)

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

Momentum Kinetic energy

A. Not conserved Conserved

B. Conserved Not conserved

C. Not conserved Not conserved

A. Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.

B. Both momentum and kinetic energy are not conserved.

C. Momentum is conserved, but kinetic energy not.

D. Kinetic energy is conserved, but momentum not. (2)

10.2 Define the term impulse of a force. (2)

10.5 Give a reason for the answer to QUESTION 10.4. (3)

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Ball A of mass 0,2 kg is displaced through a vertical distance of 0,2 m, as shown in

11.1 What is meant by an elastic collision? (2)

11.3 Speed of ball A immediately after the collision. (4)

© Tsebo Education Network www.ten-edu.co.za

Define the following terms:

1.1 Free fall (2)

1.2 Projectile (2)