CJS Answer Key

Philippine Criminal Justice System
(Final Examination)
Name:______________________________ Year & Section:_______ Score:_______
Direction: Encircle the letter of your best choice: No erasure is allowed; erasures are considered wrong.
1. A search in a moving vehicle is limited to:
a. Visual search b. Consented search c. Customs search d. Plainview search
2. The top priority of a policeman in responding to a crime scene.
a. To collect evidence b. To investigate offenders c. To save life d. To arrest the perpetrator
3. The other term for “crime Scene:”
a. In flagrante delicto b. Locus criminis c. Corpus delicti d. Scenario
4. The custodial investigation is initiated by:
a. Law enforcement officers b. Public officers c. Private individuals d. Prosecutors
5. This is the synonym of the word “waive:”
a. Renounce b. Announce c. Pronounce d. Claim
6. The antonym of the word “arrest:”
a. Apprehend b. Set free c. Search d. Renounce
7. The words of the same meaning but of different sound are called:
a. Synonyms b. Antonyms c. Homonyms d. Twin words
8. The warrant of arrest is valid for how many days from its issue?
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. None of the above
9. The incorrect statement in relation to arrest:
a. Warrant of arrest is issued by a judge
b. Warrant of arrest is issued in the name of the People of the Philippines
c. Warrant of arrest is the same with search warrant
d. Warrant of arrest is directed to a peace officer
10. The other term for “caught in the act of committing a crime:”
a. In flagrante delicto b. Locus criminis c. Hot pursuit d. Corpus delicti
11. The person lawfully arrested may be immediately pursued anywhere in the Philippines immediately after committing a crime.
This is known as:
a. Neutral pursuit b. Hot pursuit c. Anywhere pursuit d. Cold pursuit
12. The crime of Arbitrary Detention is punishable under the:
a. Rules of Court b. Revised Penal Code c. IRR d. Special law
13.The person arrested for a crime punishable by a light penalty must be delivered to the proper judicial authority within how many
hours from arrest?
a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 18 hours d. 36 hours
14. The crime of Arbitrary Detention is committed by:
a. Public officers or employees b. Private individuals c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
15. The purpose of the offender in committing the crime of Unlawful Arrest is:
a. To deliver the arrested person to proper judicial authority c. To punish the arrested person
b. To deprive the arrested person of his liberty on a particular place d. To kill him
16. The crime committed by any public officer or employee who, not being authorized by law, shall expel any person from the
Philippine islands or shall compel such person to change his residence.
a. Expulsion b. Arbitrary detention c. Kidnapping d. Unlawful arrest
17. The warrantless search that may be done if the person to be searched voluntarily waives his right against unreasonable search
and seizure:
a. Consented search b. Search with waiver c. Search incidental to lawful arrest d. Plainview search
18. The warrantless search that may be done if the person to be searched just committed a crime:
19. The warrantless search that may be done if the person to be searched is in possession of illegal articles that are readily seen
without any effort of locating them:
20. The following are the requisites of a waiver of the right of a person under custodial investigation to have a competent and
independent counsel, except:
a. It is done voluntarily b. It is done intelligently c. It is done negligently d. It is done in writing
21. The Miranda Rights are also called:
a. The Constitutional rights of persons under investigation for the commission of an offense
b. The Constitutional rights of the accused
c. The constitutional rights of convicts
d. The constitutional rights of persons under inquest proceeding
22.The doctrine in criminal cases which states that any evidence illegally obtained is inadmissible in any proceeding:
a. Doctrine of non-admissibility c. Doctrine of admissibility
b. Doctrine of illegality d. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree
23. The indirect acknowledgment of guilt:
Criminal Justice System by Theodore M. Timpac, Ph.D, Dean, CCJE, TSU (TJS & One Tarlac Review centers) 1
a. Confession b. Admission c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
24.The pillar of criminal justice system that conducts preliminary investigation and inquest proceeding:
a. Law enforcement b. Prosecution c. Court d. Correction
25. The purpose of inquest proceeding:
a. To determine probable cause c. To determine the guilt of the accused
b. To determine the validity of arrest d. To determine the rank of the arresting officer
26.A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense:
a. Complaint b. Information c. Accusation d. Affidavit
27.An accusation in writing charging a person with an offense:
a. Complaint b. Information c. Accusation d. Affidavit
28.The person subscribing a complaint:
a. Peace officer c. Person charged with the enforcement of the law violated
b. Offended party d. Any of the above
29.The person subscribing an information:
a. Fiscal b. Prosecutor c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
30.In asking preliminary investigation, the accused must waive his right:
a. Under Art. 115 of the Revised Penal Code c. Under Art. 135 of the Revised Penal Code
b. Under Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code d. Under Art. 145 of the Revised Penal Code
31.The existence of sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is
probably guilty thereof:
a. Insuperable cause b. Indispensable cause c. Portable cause d. Probable cause
32.Preliminary investigation is required when the imposable penalty is at least:
a. 6 years imprisonment c. 4 years imprisonment
b. 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day imprisonment d. 2 years imprisonment
33.If there are 3 respondents, how many copies of complaint must be filed before the prosecutor’s office for the purpose of
conducting preliminary investigation?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9
34.The respondent is given how many days to file his answer?
a. 5 days from receipt of the complaint c. 15 days from receipt of the complaint
b. 10 days from receipt of the complaint d. 20 days from receipt of the complaint
35.The other term for “answer:”
a. Counter-claim b. Counter affidavit c. Motion to dismiss d. Counter motion
36.Clarification shall terminate within how many days?
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 20 days
37.The order of the prosecutor finding whether probable cause exists is known as:
a. Decision b. Judgment c. Resolution d. Opinion
38.The power to hear, try, and decide a case:
a. Decision b. Judgment c. Resolution d. Jurisdiction
39.The power and authority to hear and decide cases previously heard by the lower court:
a. Original jurisdiction b. Exclusive jurisdiction c. Concurrent jurisdiction d. Appellate jurisdiction
40.The requirement in any initiatory pleading asserting under oath that the complainant did not institute same cause against the
same party in another tribunal:
a. Certification against forum shopping b. Affidavit of undertaking c. Verification d. Affirmation
41.The one made in open court by the judge or clerk of court furnishing the accused of a copy of the complaint or information,
reading the same in a language or dialect known to him, and asking him whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
a. Prosecution b. Arraignment c. Investigation d. Trial
42.The following are instances when a plea of not guilty shall be entered to the accused, except:
a. When the accused voluntarily enters a plea of guilty c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty
b. When he refuses to enter his plea d. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory evidence
43.The security given for the release of a person in custody of law:
a. Bail b. Civil liability c. Assurance d. Insurance
44.Recognizance is available in the following cases, except:
a. The offender is the President c. The offender applies for probation
b. The offender is minor d. The offense committed is light
45.In recognizance, the accused is released after paying a certain amount fixed by the court. This statement is:
a. True b. Partially true c. False d. Partially false
46.Which is the correct statement in relation to institution of criminal action:
a. Criminal action may proceed independently from civil action.
b. Criminal action is the formal debate between the plaintiff and defendant.
c. Criminal action may be waived because it affects only the victim.
d. Criminal action involves the plaintiff and defendant.
47.The following are correct statements in relation to institution of civil action, except:
a. Civil action for recovery of damages may be waived.
b. There are some cases wherein the civil action may proceed independently from criminal action.
c. An accused who is civilly liable is automatically criminally liable.
d. None of the above
48.The correct statement in relation to institution of administrative actions:
a. Private persons may be administratively liable only if they committed a crime together with public officers.
b. Persons administratively liable are automatically civilly liable.
c. Public officers may be held administratively liable if they committed crimes in the performance of official duty.
d. Persons civilly liable are automatically administratively liable.
49.The strongest element of a State:
a. Community b. Home c. Territory d. Government
50.The “cradle of human personality:”
a. Community b. Home c. Church d. School
51.The special contract of permanent union between a man and a woman:
a. Solemnization b. Marriage c. Cohabitation d. Family
52.The basic autonomous social institution:
a. Solemnization b. Marriage c. Cohabitation d. Family
53.The meaning of the phrase “void ab initio:”
a. Valid from the beginning b. Void at the end c. . Void from the beginning d. Void at first glance
54.New Born Screening Act of 2004:
a. RA 9822 b. RA 9288 c. RA 8551 d. RA 9263
55.The religious society founded and established by Jesus Christ to receive, preserve, and propagate His doctrines and
ordinances.
a. Religion b. Home c. Church d. School
56.The one considered the best instrument for information dissemination and the best source of knowledge for the public:
a. Religion b. Mass media c. Speech d. School
57.The person who constitutes the Lupong Tagapamayapa:
a. Barangay chairman b. Barangay captain c. Lupon chairman d. Any of the above
58.The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how many members?
a. 5 – 10 b. 10 – 15 c. 15 – 20 d. 10 – 20
59.The Secretary of the Lupon:
a. Pangkat secretary c. Barangay chairman’s personal secretary
b. Barangay secretary d. Barangay treasurer
60.The correct statement in relation to Barangay Secretary:
a. The barangay secretary shall serve concurrently as the secretary of the lupon
b. The lupon secretary shall serve concurrently as the secretary of the barangay.
c. The barangay secretary cannot be appointed as the secretary of lupon.
d. The barangay chairman shall serve concurrently as the barangay secretary.
61.The pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is consisted of how many members?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
62.The administrative actions against policemen may be filed in the following agencies, except:
a. National Police Commission c. Commission on Human rights
b. Red Cross d. People’s Law Enforcement Board
63.The sufficiency of evidence required in criminal cases:
a. Preponderance of evidence b. Substantial evidence c. Proof beyond reasonable doubt d. Clear and convincing
64.The sufficiency of evidence required in civil cases:
a. Preponderance of evidence b. Substantial evidence c. Proof beyond reasonable doubt d. Clear and convincing
65.The order of trial will be modified when:
a. The accused dies b. The accused goes to a foreign country c. The accused claims self-defense d. None
66.The evidence that contradicts the defense of the accused:
a. Rebuttal b. Sur-rebuttal c. Non-rebuttal d. Over-rebuttal
67.The adjudication by the court regarding the merits of the case:
a. Resolution b. Judgment c. Opinion d. Conclusion
68.The designation of a person charged with a criminal case:
a. Suspect b. Respondent c. Accused d. Criminal
69.A police activity that is intended to prevent root causes of crime:
a. Repression of crime b. Prevention of crime c. Investigation of crime d. Apprehending offenders
70.The act of taking a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer the commission of a crime:
a. Investigation b. Arrest c. Search d. Imprison
71. The order issued by the court directing a peace officer to arrest a person or persons stated therein and deliver them before
the court:
a. Warrant of arrest b. Search warrant c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
72.The following are requisites of a valid warrant of arrest, except:
a. It shall be issued upon probable cause c. It shall specifically state the things to be searched
b. The probable cause is determined personally by the judge d. None of the above
73. The search warrant is valid within how many days from issue?
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. None of the above
74.The theory that is also known as Italian theory:
a. Classical Theory b. Theory of Origin c. Positivist Theory d. Eclectic Theory
75.They are administered by the Bureau of Corrections:
a. Jails b. Prisons c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
76.They house persons deprived of liberty for more than three years:
a. Jails b. Prisons c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
77.The satellite that houses minimum security prisoners:
a. Bukang Liwayway Camp b. Sampaguita camp c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
78.The location of Iwahig Penal Colony:
a. Zamboanga b. Davao c. Mandaluyong d. Palawan
79.The release of a person from imprisonment after serving the minimum term of his sentence:
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Amnesty d. Parole
80.The disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the
court and under supervision of a probation officer:
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Amnesty d. Parole
81.The reduction of period of imprisonment if the convict shows good behavior:
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Amnesty d. Good conduct time allowance
82.The reduction of penalty on the seventh year of good behavior:
a. 20 days per month b. 23 days per month c. 25 days per month d. 30 days per month
83.The reduction of penalty on the third year of good behavior:
84.The reduction of penalty on the twelfth year of good behavior:
85.The act of the President reducing the penalty of a convict:
a. Commutation b. Reprieve c. Amnesty d. Pardon
86.The right to appeal or apply for probation is exercised in the:
a. Cumulative b. Alternative c. Discretion of the court d. None of the above
87.The right to apply for probation is availed of:
a. Once b. Twice c. Thrice or more d. None of the above
88.The court shall consider all information relative to ________ in granting or denying probation:
a. Characteristics b. Antecedent c. Environment d. All of the above
89.For a person not to be liable of a crime of Evasion of Service of Sentence in Occasion of Calamities, he must give himself up
to the authorities within how many hours following the issuance of the proclamation by the Chief Executive announcing the
passing away of such calamity?
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 60 hours d. 75 hours
90. The penalty generally imposable to violations of special laws:
a. Reclusion perpetua b. Life imprisonment c. Either A or B d. Neither A nor B
91. The reduction of imprisonment per month by virtue of a good conduct time allowance on the 8th year of imprisonment:
92. The group of persons living in a particular place.
a. Community b. Home c. Church d. Government
93. The correct statement in relation to community:
a. The community is the fourth pillar of the criminal justice system.
b. The community is limited to the persons living in a locality.
c. The community includes the homes, family, government, schools, churches, etc.
d. The community is the prime mover of criminal justice system.
94. The one considered as community – based – treatment of offenders:
a. Imprisonment b. Probation c. Suspension d. Incarceration
95. The Father of Criminology:
a. Cesare Beccaria b. Cesare Lombroso c. Cesare Apolinario d. Cesare Consolacion
96. The person convicted of a crime by final judgment:
a. Suspect b. Respondent c. Criminal d. Ex convict
97. The term “justice” means any of the following except:
a. Rendering what is due b. Treating persons equally c. Punishing the offended party d. None of the above
98. The core of criminal justice system:
a. Law enforcement b. Prosecution c. Judge d. Community
99. The prime mover of criminal justice system:
a. Law enforcement b. Prosecution c. Judge d. Community
100. The superstar of criminal justice system:
a. Witness b. Suspect c. Offended party d. Judge
101. What pillar of Philippine Criminal Justice System is tasked to protect life, liberty and property of
the people, prevent the existence of crime, apprehend offenders and are known as the frontliners of the CJS?
a. Law Enforcement b. Prosecution c. Community d. Court
102. What judicial bodies hear and try a case filed against a police officer?
a. RTC Courts b. MTC Courts. c. Quasi-Judicial Bodies d. All of these
103. What is defined as an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the application for admission to
bail, may be punished with death?
a. Capital Offense b. Light Offense c. Minor Offense d. Major Offense
104. What is the doctrine usually applied where a police officer is not searching for evidence against the accused, but nonetheless
inadvertently comes across incriminating objects.
a. Waiver or consented search; b. In flagrante delicto c. Stop and frisk situation d. Plain view
105. The prosecution cannot appeal from a judgment of conviction to increase the penalty because:
a. The accused would be placed in double jeopardy c. The prosecution can ask that the judgment be set aside
b. The prosecution can ask for reopening of the case d. All of them
106. In administrative cases the person charged is:
a. Accused b. Defendant c. Suspect d. Respondent
107. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of the period for
a. Perfecting an appeal c. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
b. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel d. All of them
108. A process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case
subject to court approval. It usually involves the defendant’s pleading guilty to a lesser offense or to only one or some of the counts of
a multi-count indictment in return for a lighter sentence than that for the graver charge
a. motion to dismiss b. preliminary investigation c. plea bargaining d. trial
109. The court is created under the Constitution forming part of the executive department in charge in apprehending offenders and to
execute the law. This statement is:
a. False b. True c. Wholly True d. Wholly False
110. How many days the search warrant remains valid?
a. 10 days from receipt b. 10 days from its date c. 15 days from receipt d. lifetime
111. If a person has been arrested and is now at the prosecution stage, what do you call him?
a. Suspect b. Accused c. Respondent d. Criminal
112. Mr. X was arrested with virtue of warrantless arrest, what is the process to be conducted by the prosecutor?
a. Inquest b. Investigation c. Preliminary Examination d. Preliminary Investigation
113. Preliminary investigation is conducted in a crime having an imposable penalty of:
a. not less than 6 years b. more than 6 years c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day d. not exceeding 1 years
114. What pillar controls those who were convicted by the court and segregates them from the
community?
a. Prosecution b. Law Enforcement c. Corrections d. All of these
115. These consist of a reasonable ground of suspicion supported by circumstances that in themselves
sufficient to warrant a cautious man in believing accused to be committing the offense or to be guilty of the offense is:
a. preliminary investigation b. jurisdiction c. probable cause d. corpus delicti
116. What is the act of rendering what are due and treating persons equally?
a. Justice b. Fairness c. Justitia d. Equal
117. The most pampered party in a criminal case is the .
a. Accused b. Suspect c. Criminal d. Victim
118. Which of the following refers to order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines signed by the judge and
directed to the peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest b. Search Warrant c. Arrest d. Preliminary Examination
119. What principle states that Police Officers who know of wrongdoing by other police will not take action against them?
a. Blue Wall of Silence b. Blue Ribbon Principle c. Omerta d. All of these
120. Police Officer Santos is walking in uniform performing patrol work, walking constantly and alertly, observing persons and things to
accomplish crime prevention mission. He is considered as
a. Contemporary Policeman b. Temporary Policeman c. Traditional Policeman d. Rational Policeman
121. Which of the following refers to the informal pillar of CJS Phils.; It is also known as the widest pillar.
a. Community b. Prosecution c. Police d. Corrections
122. Pursuant to E.O 389, the Philippine Constabulary became one of the four (4) services of
a. Armed Forced of the Philippines b. PC/INP c. Philippine Navy d. Philippine National Police
123. In 1941, the Japanese invaded the Philippines and had its own military police. What do you call the Japan’s Military Police?
a. Koban b. Kempetai c. Huks d. HUKBALAHAP
124. Capital offense is:
a. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its commission and at the time of the application to be admitted to bail
may be punished with death
b. An offense which is punishable by correctional penalties
c. An offense which is non bailable
125. Who is the first Filipino Chief of Philippine Constabulary?
a. Antonio Torres b. Rafael Crame c. Henry T. Allen d. Marcus Ellis Jones
126. What do you call the questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or otherwise
deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way?
a. Investigation b. Custodial Investigation c. Interview d. Custodial Interview
127. The following are factors to be considered to compute for the amount of bail except:
a. Financial liability of the accused to give bail c. Nature and circumstance of the offense
b. Penalty for the offense charged d. Character and reputation of the offended party
128. Which of the following refers to undertaking constituted as lien on the real property given as security for the amount of the bail?
a. Property Bond b. Corporate Bond c. Cash Deposit d. None of these
129. Cases with nature of Summary Procedure are triable in:
a. MTC b. RTC c. Sharia Court d. None of these
130. What do you call the security given for the release of a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee
his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law?
a. Arrest b. Warrant c. Bond d. Bail
131. Which of the following is an order reciting the actions taken, the facts stipulated, and evidence marked?
a. Pre-Trial Order b. Order c. Pre-Trial Statement d. Order of Pre-Trial
132. Mr. X plead guilty for the crime of homicide but made a statement “Hindi ko sinasadya”. What plea shoud be entered for him?
a. Plea of Not Guilty b. Plea of Guilty c. Undecided d. None of these
133. The following are the rights of accused that can be waived except:
a. Right to have a competent lawyer b. Right against self-incrimination b. Right of Arraignment d. All of these
134. An example of judicial bodies having concurrent jurisdiction are the following except:
a. Municipal Trial Court b. NAPOLCOM c. IAS d. None of these
135. is the power and authority to hear and decide, try and case.
a. Jurisdiction b. Authority c. Power d. Venue
136. What do you call the power and authority to hear, try and decide cases that may be brought to two or more courts, body, or
tribunal.
a. Original Jurisdiction b. Appellate Jurisdiction c. Exclusive Jurisdiction d. Concurrent Jurisdiction
137. Bail is:
a. A matter of right in capital offenses
b. A matter of discretion when the evidence of guilt is strong
c. A matter of discretion in capital offenses when the evidence of guilt is not strong
d. A matter of right when the evidence of guilt is strong
138. The modes of making arrest are:
a. By an actual restraint of the person to be arrested c. By using unreasonable force
b. By his submission to the custody of the person making the arrest d. A & B only
139. With regard to issuance of warrant of arrest, prosecutors are:
a. Authorized to issue warrants c. Not authorized to issue warrant of arrest
b. Authorized to conduct examination of the complaint d. Not authorized to examine the witnesses
140. The other instances when the plea of not guilty shall be entered to the accused are the following except:
a. When the accused refuses to plead c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty
b. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory evidence d. None of these
141. Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code provides for the period of delivering such person to proper authorities after arrest. If Mr. X was
arrested for the crime of murder and the penalty of this is Reclusion Perpetua. Within how many hours should he be delivered?
a. 12 b. 18 c. 36 d. 42
142. Which of the following entity prosecutes cases under Sandiganbayan?
a. Ombudsman b. NAPOLCOM c. Sandiganbayan Prosecutor d. Public Prosecutor
143. All criminal actions either commenced by complaint or by information shall be prosecuted under the direction and control of a
public prosecutor. In case of heavy work schedule of the public prosecutor or in the event of lack of public prosecutors, who may be
delegated the authority to prosecute?
a. Defense Lawyer b. Private Prosecutor c. Public Prosecutor d. None of these
144. Which of the following weight of evidence refers to the testimony adduced by one side is more credible and conclusive than the
other?
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. Preponderance of Evidence c. Substantial Evidence d. None of these
145. Which of the following refers to is the act of formally declaring that a law or the courts verdict is invalid? It literally means “to stop”.
a. Quash b. Motion c. Continuance d. None of these
146. Appeal is a constitutional right. It is also a part of due process. This statement is
a. True b. False c. Maybe True d. Maybe False
147. If the case is decided by Supreme Court, where can appeal be made?
a. It is still at Supreme Court b. It can no longer be appealed c. Court of Appeals d. None of the above
148. Which of the following refers to stage in the criminal prosecution which consists of the reading to the accused in open court of the
complaint or information charging him with an offense and furnishing him a copy thereof, including lists of witnesses and asking him
whether he pleads guilty or not as charged?
a. Arraignment b. Trial c. Pre-Trial d. Judgment
149. Which of the following theories of Correction states that men have absolute free will to choose between good and evil so they are
liable for the consequences of their acts?
a. Classical Theory b. Positivist Theory c. Neo-Classical Theory d. Eclectic Theory
150. Why is Correction considered to be the weakest pillar?
a. Failure to reform the convicted felons c. Failure to fulfill its purpose
b. Failure to prevent those released individual to offend in the future d. All of these
NOTHING FOLLOWS!
Republic of the Philippines
TARLAC STATE UNIVERSITY
College of Criminal Justice Education
Criminology Department
(Final Examination)
ANSWER KEY
1. A search in a moving vehicle is limited to: 7. The words of the same meaning but of different
a. Visual search sound are called:
b. Consented search a. Synonyms
c. Customs search b. Antonyms
d. Plainview search c. Homonyms
d. Twin words
2. The top priority of a policeman in responding to a 8. The warrant of arrest is valid for how many days
crime scene. from its issue?
a. To collect evidence a. 5 days
b. To investigate offenders b. 10 days
c. To save life c. 15 days
d. To arrest the perpetrator d. None of the above
3. The other term for “crime Scene:” 9. The incorrect statement in relation to arrest:
a. In flagrante delicto a. Warrant of arrest is issued by a judge.
b. Locus criminis b. Warrant of arrest is issued in the name of the
c. Corpus delicti People of the Philippines.
d. Scenario c. Warrant of arrest is the same with search
warrant.
4. The custodial investigation is initiated by: d. Warrant of arrest is directed to a peace officer.
a. Law enforcement officers
b. Public officers 10.The other term for “caught in the act of
c. Private individuals committing a crime:”
d. Prosecutors a. In flagrante delicto
b. Locus criminis
5. This is the synonym of the word “waive:” c. Hot pursuit
a. Renounce d. Corpus delicti
b. Announce
c. Pronounce 11.The person lawfully arrested may be immediately
d. Claim pursued anywhere in the Philippines immediately
after committing a crime. This is known as:
6. The antonym of the word “arrest:” a. Neutral pursuit
a. Apprehend b. Hot pursuit
b. Set free c. Anywhere pursuit
c. Search d. Cold pursuit
d. Renounce
12.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is punishable
under the:
a. Rules of Court b. It is done intelligently
b. Revised Penal Code c. It is done negligently
c. Implementing Rules and Regulations d. It is done in writing
d. Special law
13.The person arrested for a crime punishable by a 21.The Miranda Rights are also called:
light penalty must be delivered to the proper a. The Constitutional rights of persons under
judicial authority within how many hours from investigation for the commission of an offense
arrest? b. The Constitutional rights of the accused
a. 6 hours c. The constitutional rights of convicts
b. 12 hours d. The constitutional rights of persons under
c. 18 hours inquest proceeding
d. 36 hours 22.The doctrine in criminal cases which states that
any evidence illegally obtained is inadmissible in
14.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is committed by: any proceeding:
a. Public officers or employees< a. Doctrine of non-admissibility
b. Private individuals b. Doctrine of admissibility
c. Either A or B c. Doctrine of illegality
` d. Neither A nor B d. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree
15.The purpose of the offender in committing the 23.The indirect acknowledgment of guilt:
crime of Unlawful Arrest is: a. Confession
a. To deliver the arrested person to proper b. Admission
judicial authority c. Either A or B
b. To deprive the arrested person of his liberty on d. Neither A nor B
a particular place
c. To punish the arrested person 24.The pillar of criminal justice system that conducts
d. To kill him preliminary investigation and inquest proceeding:
16.The crime committed by any public officer or a. Law enforcement
employee who, not being authorized by law, shall b. Prosecution
expel any person from the Philippine islands or c. Court
shall compel such person to change his residence. d. Correction
a. Expulsion
b. Arbitrary detention 25.The purpose of inquest proceeding:
c. Kidnapping a. To determine probable cause
d. Unlawful arrest b. To determine the validity of arrest<
c. To determine the guilt of the accused
17.The warrantless search that may be done if the d. To determine the rank of the arresting officer
person to be searched voluntarily waives his right 26.A sworn written statement charging a person with
against unreasonable search and seizure: an offense:
a. Consented search a. Complaint
b. Search with waiver b. Information
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest c. Accusation
d. Plainview search d. Affidavit
18.The warrantless search that may be done if the 27.An accusation in writing charging a person with an
person to be searched just committed a crime: offense:
a. Consented search a. Complaint
b. Search with waiver b. Information
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest c. Accusation
d. Plainview search d. Affidavit
19. The warrantless search that may be done if the
person to be searched is in possession of illegal 28.The person subscribing a complaint:
articles that are readily seen without any effort of a. Peace officer
locating them: b. Offended party
a. Consented search c. Person charged with the enforcement of the
b. Search with waiver law violated
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest d. Any of the above
d. Plainview search 29.The person subscribing an information:
a. Fiscal
20.The following are the requisites of a waiver of the b. Prosecutor
right of a person under custodial investigation to c. Either A or B
have a competent and independent counsel, d. Neither A nor B
except:
a. It is done voluntarily
30.In asking preliminary investigation, the accused 39.The power and authority to hear and decide cases
must waive his right: previously heard by the lower court:
a. Under Art. 115 of the Revised Penal Code a. Original jurisdiction
b. Under Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. Under Art. 135 of the Revised Penal Code c. Concurrent jurisdiction
d. Under Art. 145 of the Revised Penal Code d. Appellate jurisdiction
31.The existence of sufficient ground to engender a
well-founded belief that a crime has been 40.The requirement in any initiatory pleading
committed and the respondent is probably guilty asserting under oath that the complainant did not
thereof: institute same cause against the same party in
a. Insuperable cause another tribunal:
b. Indispensable cause a. Certification against forum shopping
c. Portable cause b. Affidavit of undertaking
d. Probable cause c. Verification
d. Affirmation
32.Preliminary investigation is required when the 41.The one made in open court by the judge or clerk
imposable penalty is at least: of court furnishing the accused of a copy of the
a. 6 years imprisonment complaint or information, reading the same in a
b. 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day imprisonment language or dialect known to him, and asking him
c. 4 years imprisonment whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
d. 2 years imprisonment a. Prosecution
33.If there are 3 respondents, how many copies of b. Arraignment
complaint must be filed before the prosecutor’s c. Investigation
office for the purpose of conducting preliminary d. Trial
investigation?
a. 3 42.The following are instances when a plea of not
b. 5 guilty shall be entered to the accused, except:
c. 7 a. When the accused voluntarily enters a plea of
d. 9 guilty
b. When he refuses to enter his plea
34.The respondent is given how many days to file his c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty
answer? d. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory
a. 5 days from receipt of the complaint evidence
b. 10 days from receipt of the complaint 43.The security given for the release of a person in
c. 15 days from receipt of the complaint custody of law:
d. 20 days from receipt of the complaint a. Bail
b. Civil liability
35.The other term for “answer:” c. Assurance
a. Counter-claim d. Insurance
b. Counter affidavit
c. Motion to dismiss 44.Recognizance is available in the following cases,
d. Counter motion except:
a. The offender is the President
36.Clarification shall terminate within how many b. The offender is minor
days? c. The offender applies for probation
a. 5 days d. The offense committed is light
b. 10 days
45.In recognizance, the accused is released after
c. 15 days
paying a certain amount fixed by the court. This
d. 20 days
statement is:
a. True
37.The order of the prosecutor finding whether
b. Partially true
probable cause exists is known as:
c. False
a. Decision
d. Partially false
b. Judgment
c. Resolution
46.Which is the correct statement in relation to
d. Opinion
institution of criminal action:
a. Criminal action may proceed independently
38.The power to hear, try, and decide a case:
from civil action.
a. Decision
b. Criminal action is the formal debate between
b. Judgment
the plaintiff and defendant.
c. Resolution
c. Criminal action may be waived because it
d. Jurisdiction
affects only the victim.
d. Criminal action involves the plaintiff and
defendant.
d. School
47.The following are correct statements in relation to
institution of civil action, except:
56.The one considered the best instrument for
a. Civil action for recovery of damages may be
information dissemination and the best source of
waived.
knowledge for the public:
b. There are some cases wherein the civil action
a. Religion
may proceed independently from criminal action.
b. Mass media
c. An accused who is civilly liable is automatically
c. Speech
criminally liable.
d. School
48.The correct statement in relation to institution of 57.The person who constitutes the Lupong
administrative actions: Tagapamayapa:
a. Private persons may be administratively liable a. Barangay chairman
only if they committed a crime together with b. Barangay captain
public officers. c. Lupon chairman
b. Persons administratively liable are d. Any of the above
automatically civilly liable.
c. Public officers may be held administratively 58.The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how
liable if they committed crimes in the many members?
performance of official duty. a. 5 – 10
d. Persons civilly liable are automatically b. 10 – 15
administratively liable. c. 15 – 20
49.The strongest element of a State: d. 10 – 20
a. Community 59.The Secretary of the Lupon:
b. Home a. Pangkat secretary
c. Territory b. Barangay secretary
d. Government c. Barangay chairman’s personal secretary
d. Barangay treasurer
50.The “cradle of human personality:”
a. Community 60.The correct statement in relation to Barangay
b. Home Secretary:
c. Church a. The barangay secretary shall serve concurrently
d. School as the secretary of the lupon
b. The lupon secretary shall serve concurrently as
51.The special contract of permanent union between the secretary of the barangay.
a man and a woman: c. The barangay secretary cannot be appointed as
a. Solemnization the secretary of lupon.
b. Marriage d. The barangay chairman shall serve concurrently
c. Cohabitation as the barangay secretary.
d. Family 61.The pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is consisted of
how many members?
52.The basic autonomous social institution: a. 3
a. Solemnization b. 4
b. Marriage c. 5
c. Cohabitation d. 6
d. Family
62.The administrative actions against policemen may
53.The meaning of the phrase “void ab initio:” be filed in the following agencies, except:
a. Valid from the beginning a. National Police Commission
b. Void from the beginning< b. Red Cross
c. Void at the end c. Commission on Human rights
d. Void at first glance d. People’s Law Enforcement Board
54.New Born Screening Act of 2004: 63.The sufficiency of evidence required in criminal
a. RA 9822 cases:
b. RA 9288 a. Preponderance of evidence
c. RA 8551 b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
d. RA 9263 c. Substantial evidence
d. Clear and convincing evidence
55.The religious society founded and established by
Jesus Christ to receive, preserve, and propagate 64.The sufficiency of evidence required in civil cases:
His doctrines and ordinances. a. Preponderance of evidence
a. Religion b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Home c. Substantial evidence
c. Church d. Clear and convincing evidence
65.The order of trial will be modified when: a. Classical Theory
a. The accused dies b. Theory of Origin
b. The accused claims self-defense< c. Positivist Theory
c. The accused goes to a foreign country d. Eclectic Theory
d. The accused desires
75.They are administered by the Bureau of
66.The evidence that contradicts the defense of the Corrections:
accused: a. Jails
a. Rebuttal b. Prisons
b. Sur-rebuttal c. Either A or B
c. Non-rebuttal d. Neither A nor B
d. Over-rebuttal
76.They house persons deprived of liberty for more
67.The adjudication by the court regarding the merits than three years:
of the case: a. Jails
a. Resolution b. Prisons
b. Judgment c. Either A or B
c. Opinion d. Neither A nor B
d. Conclusion
77.The satellite that houses minimum security
68.The designation of a person charged with a prisoners:
criminal case: a. Bukang Liwayway Camp
a. Suspect b. Sampaguita camp
b. Respondent c. Either A or B
c. Accused d. Neither A nor B
d. Criminal 78.The location of Iwahig Penal Colony:
69.A police activity that is intended to prevent root a. Zamboanga
causes of crime: b. Davao
a. Repression of crime c. Mandaluyong
b. Prevention of crime d. Palawan
c. Investigation of crime 79.The release of a person from imprisonment after
d. Apprehending offenders serving the minimum term of his sentence:
a. Probation
70.The act of taking a person into custody in order b. Pardon
that he may be bound to answer the commission c. Amnesty
of a crime: d. Parole
a. Investigation
b. Arrest 80.The disposition under which a defendant, after
c. Search conviction and sentence, is released subject to
d. Imprison conditions imposed by the court and under
supervision of a probation officer:
71. The order issued by the court directing a peace a. Probation
officer to arrest a person or persons stated therein b. Pardon
and deliver them before the court: c. Amnesty
a. Warrant of arrest d. Parole
b. Search warrant
c. Either A or B 81.The reduction of period of imprisonment if the
d. Neither A nor B convict shows good behavior:
a. Probation
72.The following are requisites of a valid warrant of b. Pardon
arrest, except: c. Amnesty
a. It shall be issued upon probable cause d. Good conduct time allowance
b. The probable cause is determined personally by 82.The reduction of penalty on the seventh year of
the judge good behavior:
c. It shall specifically state the things to be a. 20 days per month
searched b. 23 days per month
d. None of the above c. 25 days per month
73. The search warrant is valid within how many days d. 30 days per month
from issue?
a. 5 days 83.The reduction of penalty on the third year of good
b. 10 days behavior:
c. 15 days a. 20 days per month
d. None of the above b. 23 days per month
c. 25 days per month
74.The theory that is also known as Italian theory: d. 30 days per month
84.The reduction of penalty on the twelfth year of 92.The group of persons living in a particular place.
good behavior: a. Community
a. 20 days per month b. Home
b. 23 days per month c. Church
c. 25 days per month d. Government
d. 30 days per month
93.The correct statement in relation to community:
85.The act of the President reducing the penalty of a a. The community is the fourth pillar of the
convict: criminal justice system.
a. Commutation b. The community is limited to the persons living
b. Reprieve in a locality.
c. Amnesty c. The community includes the homes, family,
d. Pardon government, schools, churches, etc.
d. The community is the prime mover of criminal
86.The right to appeal or apply for probation is justice system.
exercised in the: 94.The one considered as community – based –
a. Cumulative treatment of offenders:
b. Alternative a. Imprisonment
c. Discretion of the court b. Probation
d. None of the above c. Suspension
87.The right to apply for probation is availed of: d. Incarceration
a. Once
95.The Father of Criminology:
b. Twice
a. Cesare Beccaria
c. Thrice or more
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Cesare Apolinario
d. Cesare Consolacion
88.The court shall consider all information relative to
________ in granting or denying probation:
96.The person convicted of a crime by final judgment:
a. Characteristics
a. Suspect
b. Antecedent
b. Respondent
c. Environment
c. Criminal
d. All of the above
d. Ex convict
89.For a person not to be liable of a crime of Evasion
of Service of Sentence in Occasion of Calamities, 97.The term “justice” means any of the following
he must give himself up to the authorities within except:
how many hours following the issuance of the a. Rendering what is due
proclamation by the Chief Executive announcing b. Treating persons equally
the passing away of such calamity? c. Punishing the offended party
a. 24 hours d. None of the above
b. 48 hours
98.The core of criminal justice system:
c. 60 hours
a. Law enforcement
d. 75 hours
b. Prosecution
c. Judge
90.The penalty generally imposable to violations of
d. Community
special laws:
a. Reclusion perpetua
99.The prime mover of criminal justice system:
b. Life imprisonment<
a. Law enforcement
c. Either A or B
b. Prosecution
d. Neither A nor B
c. Judge
d. Community
91.The reduction of imprisonment per month by
virtue of a good conduct time allowance on the
8th year of imprisonment:
a. Witness
a. 20 days
b. Suspect
b. 23 days
c. Offended party
c. 25 days
d. Judge
d. 30 days
MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION
PHILIPPINE JUDICIAL and CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
Prepared by: Dr. Jouie L. Donato
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. What pillar of Philippine Criminal Justice System is tasked to protect life, liberty and property of
the people, prevent the existence of crime, apprehend offenders and are known as the front liners of the CJS?
a. Law Enforcement b. Community c. Prosecution d. Court
2. What judicial bodies hear and try a case filed against a police officer?
a. RTC Courts b. MTC Courts c. Quasi-Judicial Bodies d. All of these
3. What is defined as an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the application for
admission to bail, may be punished with death?
a. Capital Offense b. Light Offense c. Minor Offense d. Major Offense
4. What is the doctrine usually applied where a police officer is not searching for evidence against the accused, but
nonetheless inadvertently comes across incriminating objects.
a. Waiver or consented search; b. Stop and frisk situation c. In flagrante delicto d. Plain view
14
5. The prosecution cannot appeal from a judgment of conviction to increase the penalty because:
a. The accused would be placed in double jeopardy c. The prosecution can ask for reopening of the case
b. The prosecution can ask that the judgment be set aside d. All of them
6. In administrative cases the person charged is:
a. Accused b. Suspect c. Defendant d. Respondent
7. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of the period for
a. Perfecting an appeal c. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
b. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution d. All of them
8. A process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of
the case subject to court approval. It usually involves the defendant’s pleading guilty to a lesser offense or to only one or
some of the counts of a multi-count indictment in return for a lighter sentence than that for the graver charge
a. motion to dismiss b. plea bargaining c. preliminary investigation d. trial
9. The court is created under the Constitution forming part of the executive department in charge in apprehending
offenders and to execute the law. This statement is:
a. False b. Wholly True c. True d. Wholly False
10. How many days the search warrant remains valid?
a. 10 days from receipt b. 15 days from receipt c. 10 days from its date d. lifetime
11. If a person has been arrested and is now at the prosecution stage, what do you call him?
a. Suspect b. Respondent c. Accused d. Criminal
12. Mr. X was arrested with virtue of warrantless arrest, what is the process to be conducted by the prosecutor?
a. Inquest b. Preliminary Examination c. Investigation d. Preliminary Investigation
13. Preliminary investigation is conducted in a crime having an imposable penalty of:
a. not less than 6 years b. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day c. more than 6 years d. not exceeding 1 years
14. What pillar controls those who were convicted by the court and segregates them from the
community?
a. Prosecution b. Corrections c. Law Enforcement d. All of these
15. These consist of a reasonable ground of suspicion supported by circumstances that in themselves
sufficient to warrant a cautious man in believing accused to be committing the offense or to be guilty of the offense is:
a. preliminary investigation b. probable cause c. jurisdiction d. corpus delicti
16. What is the act of rendering what are due and treating persons equally?
a. Justice b. Justitia c. Fairness d. Equal
17. The most pampered party in a criminal case is the .
a. Accused b. Criminal c. Suspect d. Victim
18. Which of the following refers to order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines signed by the
judge and directed to the peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it
before the court.
a. Warrant of Arrest b. Arrest c. Search Warrant d. Preliminary Examination
19. What principle states that Police Officers who know of wrongdoing by other police will not take action against them?
a. Blue Wall of Silence b. Omerta c. Blue Ribbon Principle d. All of these
20. Police Officer Santos is walking in uniform performing patrol work, walking constantly and alertly, observing persons
and things to accomplish crime prevention mission. He is considered as
a. Contemporary Policeman b. Traditional Policeman c. Temporary Policeman d. Rational Policeman
21. Which of the following refers to the informal pillar of CJS Phils.; It is also known as the widest pillar.
a. Community b. Police c. Prosecution d. Corrections
22. Pursuant to E.O 389, the Philippine Constabulary became one of the four (4) services of
a. Armed Forced of the Philippines b. Philippine Navy c. PC/INP d. Philippine National Police
23. In 1941, the Japanese invaded the Philippines and had its own military police. What do you call the Japan’s Military
Police?
a. Koban b. Huks c. Kempetai d. HUKBALAHAP
24. Capital offense is:
a. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its commission and at the time of the application to be
admitted to bail may be punished with death
b. An offense which is punishable by correctional penalties
c. An offense which is non bailable
25. Who is the first Filipino Chief of Philippine Constabulary?
a. Antonio Torres b. Henry T. Allen c. Rafael Crame d. Marcus Ellis Jones
26. What do you call the questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or
otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way?
a. Investigation b. Interview c. Custodial Investigation d. Custodial Interview
27. The following are factors to be considered to compute for the amount of bail except:
a. Financial liability of the accused to give bail c. Penalty for the offense charged
b. Nature and circumstance of the offense d. Character and reputation of the offended party
28. Which of the following refers to undertaking constituted as lien on the real property given as security for the amount
of the bail?
a. Property Bond b. Corporate Bond c. Cash Deposit d. None of these
29. Cases with nature of Summary Procedure are triable in:
15
a. MTC b. RTC c. Sharia Court d. None of these
30. What do you call the security given for the release of a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to
guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law?
a. Arrest b. Warrant c. Bond d. Bail
31. Which of the following is an order reciting the actions taken, the facts stipulated, and evidence marked?
a. Pre-Trial Order b. Order c. Pre-Trial Statement d. Order of Pre-Trial
32. Mr. X plead guilty for the crime of homicide but made a statement “Hindi ko sinasadya”. What plea shoud be entered
for him?
a. Plea of Not Guilty b. Plea of Guilty c. Undecided d. None of these
33. The following are the rights of accused that can be waived except:
a. Right to have a competent lawyer c. Right of Arraignment
b. Right against self-incrimination d. All of these
34. An example of judicial bodies having concurrent jurisdiction are the following except:
a. Municipal Trial Court b. NAPOLCOM c. IAS d. None of these
35. is the power and authority to hear and decide, try and case.
a. Jurisdiction b. Authority c. Power d. Venue
36. What do you call the power and authority to hear, try and decide cases that may be brought to two or more courts,
body, or tribunal.
a. Original Jurisdiction b. Appellate Jurisdiction c. Exclusive Jurisdiction d. Concurrent Jurisdiction
37. Bail is:
a. A matter of right in capital offenses
b. A matter of discretion when the evidence of guilt is strong
c. A matter of discretion in capital offenses when the evidence of guilt is not strong
d. A matter of right when the evidence of guilt is strong
38. The modes of making arrest are:
a. By an actual restraint of the person to be arrested;
b. By his submission to the custody of the person making the arrest;
c. By using unreasonable force;
d. A & B only
39. With regard to issuance of warrant of arrest, prosecutors are:
a. Authorized to issue warrants c. Authorized to conduct examination of the complaint
b. Not authorized to issue warrant of arrest d. Not authorized to examine the witnesses
40. The other instances when the plea of not guilty shall be entered to the accused are the following except:
a. When the accused refuses to plead;
b. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty; and
c. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory evidence.
d. None of these
41. Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code provides for the period of delivering such person to proper authorities after arrest.
If Mr. X was arrested for the crime of murder and the penalty of this is Reclusion Perpetua. Within how many hours
should he be delivered?
a. 12 b. 18 c. 36 d. 42
42. Which of the following entity prosecutes cases under Sandiganbayan?
a. Ombudsman b. NAPOLCOM c. Sandiganbayan Prosecutor d. Public Prosecutor
43. All criminal actions either commenced by complaint or by information shall be prosecuted under the direction and
control of a public prosecutor. In case of heavy work schedule of the public prosecutor or in the event of lack of public
prosecutors, who may be delegated the authority to prosecute?
a. Defense Lawyer b. Private Prosecutor c. Public Prosecutor d. None of these
44. Which of the following weight of evidence refers to the testimony adduced by one side is more credible and
conclusive than the other?
a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt c. Substantial Evidence
b. Preponderance of Evidence d. None of these
45. Which of the following refers to is the act of formally declaring that a law or the courts verdict is invalid? It literally
means “to stop”.
a. Quash b. Motion c. Continuance d. None of these
46. Appeal is a constitutional right. It is also a part of due process. This statement is
47. If the case is decided by Supreme Court, where can appeal be made?
a. It is still at Supreme Court c. Court of Appeals
b. It can no longer be appealed. d. None of the following
48. Which of the following refers to stage in the criminal prosecution which consists of the reading to the accused in open
court of the complaint or information charging him with an offense and furnishing him a copy thereof, including lists of
witnesses and asking him whether he pleads guilty or not as charged?
a. Arraignment b. Trial c. Pre-Trial d. Judgment
49. Which of the following theories of Correction states that men have absolute free will to choose between good and evil
so they are liable for the consequences of their acts?
a. Classical Theory b. Positivist Theory c. Neo-Classical Theory d. Eclectic Theory
50. Why is Correction considered to be the weakest pillar?
16
a. Failure to reform the convicted felons
b. Failure to fulfill its purpose
c. Failure to prevent those released individual to offend in the future
d. All of these
51. Which of the following refers to the power of the State to regulate the conduct of its citizens for a common good?
a. Encroachment Power b. Police Power c. Taxation Powers d. Power of Imminent Domain
52. Jails and prisons are part of
a. Institutional based Correction c. Semi-Institutional Based Correction
b. Community Based Correction d. Semi-Community Based Correction
53. If a person commits a crime (also known as sin in the Bible), the consequences according to the Bible are the
following except:
a. Separation b. Sin c. Sacrifice d. Incarceration
54. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology is under
a. Department of Justice c. Department of Social Welfare Development
b. Department of Interior and Local Government d. None of these
55. The Bureau of Corrections is under
a. Department of Justice c. Department of Social Welfare Development
b. Department of Interior and Local Government d. None of these
56. Jail is for BJMP as Prison is for
a. BuCor b. DOJ c. DILG d. BFP
57. National Prisoners is incarcerated at
a. National Jails/Prisons b. National Bilibid Prison c. City/Municipal Jails d. Provicial Jails
58. What is the meaning of “P” located at the back of the inmate’s uniform?
a. Prisoner b. Preso c. Precidio d. Presidio
59. Where is the Reception and Diagnostic Center located?
A. Minimum Camp B. Medium Camp C. Maximum Camp D. None of these
60. The Old Bilibid Prison is known nowadays as:
a. Manila City Jail b. May Haligue State c. Carcel y Precidio d. New Bilibid Prison
61. What do you call the is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to
conditions imposed by the court and under the supervision of a probation officer?
a. Parole b. Probation c. Pardon d. Absolute Probation
62. The probation officer shall submit to the court his Investigation Report (IR) for not later than days from the
receipt of the order of said court to conduct investigation.
a. 50 b. 55 c. 60 d. 65
63. Who may grant or deny the application for probation?
a. DOJ Secretary b. CPPO c. Judge, Trial Court d. Probation Officer
64. Mr. J was convicted of rape. Because of attending mitigating circumstances, his sentence was reduced to 5 years. Will
he be granted probation?
a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years c. No, because it will depreciate the crime committed
b. Yes, because his sentence was mitigated d. No, because the relatives might took revenge against him
65. One of the mandatory conditions of probation is to present himself to the probation officer, within how many hours?
a. within seventy-two hours from receipt of said order c. within seventy-two hours
b. within seventy-two hours from its date d. within twenty-four hours
66. Probation is a matter of privilege not right because
a. all offenders are entitled of probation c. it is not included on the rights of convicted person
b. selected offenders are entitled of probation d. None of these
67. What is pardon?
a. Pardon is an executive clemency
b. Pardon is granted by Chief Executive
c. Pardon is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the President which exempts the individual
on whom it is bestowed, from punishment the law inflicts for a crime he has committed.
d. All of these
68. What does it mean by “oblivion”?

a. Forgetfulness b. Forgiveness c. Remember d. Obey
69. Amnesty may only be granted to:
a. all crimes b. Political crimes c. Rebellion d. Crimes against national security
70. Probation is also considered as
a. suspended sentence b. absolutory sentence c. Postponement of sentence d. Reprieve
71. Mr. B is convicted of robbery. He already served the minimum portion of his sentence. Which among the following can
be given as privilege to him with conditions attached?
a. Pardon b. Conditional Pardon c. Parole d. Probation
72. Probation may be granted even before the final judgment. This statement is
a. True b. False c. Probably True d. Probably False
73. Mr. Y is undergoing trial for the crime of robbery. Based on the records, he was then previously convicted of theft. He
is considered as:
a. Recidivist b. Quasi-Recidivist c. Habitual Delinquent d. Reiteracion
17
74. Which of the following refers to the act of the President reducing the penalty of a convict.An example of this is if the
penalty of death is commuted (reduced) to life imprisonment or reclusion perpetua?
a. Reprieve b. Commutation c. GCTA d. None of these
75. What is the granting authority in parole?
a. Board of Pardon and Parole b. Department of Justice c. President/Chief Executive d. Board of Parole
76. Jouie was sentenced of destierro, in which he will not be allowed to enter the 250 radius from the place where he
committed the crime of adultery. If he will be entering the said radius, is there a crime committed?
a. Yes, Evasion of Service of Sentence c. No, because he is not serving his sentence in prison
b. Yes, Violation of Conditions d. Yes and No, it will depend on the judge
77. Which of the following refers to a group of persons living in a particular place? It may also refer to a society or body
of people living in the same place, under the same laws and regulations which have common rights, privileges, or
interests.
a. Society b. Community c. School d. Barangay
78. Which of the following is considered as the basic political institution in a community?
a. Barangay b. Family c. Home d. None of the above
79. “Cradle of Human Personality”.
a. Home b. House c. Shelter d. Family
80. What is a special contract of permanent union between a man and a woman entered into in accordance with law for
the establishment of conjugal and family life?
a. Marriage b. Commitment c. Punishment d. Imprisonment
81. Which of the following institution receives him when he is young, observes, supervises, and teaches him for many
hours each week during some of his most sensitive years.
a. Church b. Home/Family c. School d. None
82. Which of the following is the religious society founded and established by Jesus Christ to receive, preserve, and
propagate His doctrines and ordinances?
a. Church b. Home/Family c. School d. None
83. Which of the following refers to the organization, or agency through which a political unit exercises its authority,
controls and administers public policy, and directs and controls the actions of its members or subjects?
a. Church b. Home/Family c. School d. Government
84. Which of the following refers to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged and the imposition on him of the proper penalty and civil liability, if any?
a. Judgment b. Interculotory Order c. Pre-Trial Order d. None of these
85. The period of entire trial is
86. Mr. X pleaded guilty for a capital offense. The court will
a. convict him of the offense and impose the penalty
b. the court shall conduct a searching inquiry into the voluntariness and full comprehension of the consequences of
his plea
c. the court may receive evidence from parties to determine the penalty to be imposed
d. Both b and c
87. During pre-trial, the following are taken into considerations except
a. Plea bargaining c. Marking for identification of evidence of the parties
b. Stipulation of facts d. Admission of evidence of both parties
88. What is the nature of Inquest Proceeding?
a. Summary b. Preliminary Investigation c. Both a and b d. None of these
89. Which of the following is the basic political institution of a community?
a. Barangay b. Family c. Court d. Home
90. What is the lifespan of Warrant of Arrest?
a. 10 days from its date b. No fixed duration c. 10 days from receipt d. None of these
91. Which is defined as to take into custody of something?
a. Search b. Seizure c. Search and Seizure d. None of these
92. Police Officer Jay Walk arrested Pretty Boy for quarreling with her daughter Chick. He is liable for:
a. Illegal Arrest b. None, the arrest is valid c. It depends d. None of these
93. If a person lawfully arrested escapes, any person may immediately pursue or retake him without a warrant at any
time and in any place within the Philippines. This is known as:
a. Hot Pursuit b. Cold Pursuit c. Fresh Pursuit d. Both a and b
94. In Flagrante Delicto means:
a. Caught in the act of committing a crime c. Ignorance of law excuses no one
b. There is no crime if there is no law punishing it d. None of these
95. The proper designation of crime committed by a public officer who delays in the delivery of detained persons to the
proper judicial authority is:
a. Illegal Detention b. Illegal Arrest c. Arbitrary Detention d. Unlawful Arrest
96. The Public Office is a Public Trust. This statement is
97. What agency shall play an active role in the promotion of child rights, and delinquency prevention by relaying
consistent messages through a balanced approach?
18
a. School b. Church c. Mass Media d. Government
98. Which of the following refers to the highest court of land?
a. Supreme Court b. Court of Appeals c. Senate d. RTC
99. Which of the following is committed by any person who shall contract a second or subsequent marriage before the
former marriage has been legally dissolved, or before the absent spouse has been declared presumptively dead by means
of a judgment rendered in the proper proceedings?
a. Bigamy b. Polygamy c. Monogamy d. Immoral Acts
100. Which of the following is a haven of peace and refuge and where the fundamental values of courage, honesty, and
integrity are taught and encouraged?
a. Home b. Church c. School d. None of these
Philippine Judicial and Criminal 9. A 20. B

Justice System 10. C 21. A
11. B 22. A
1. A 12. A 23. C
2. C 13. B 24. A
3. A 14. B 25. B
4. D 15. B 26. C
5. A 16. A 27. D
6. D 17. A 28. A
7. A 18. C 29. A
8. B 19. A 30. D
19
31. A 54. B 77. B
32. A 55. A 78. A
33. C 56. A 79. A
34. D 57. B 80. A
35. A 58. D 81. C
36. D 59. B 82. A
37. C 60. A 83. D
38. D 61. B 84. A
39. B 62. B 85. C
40. D 63. C 86. B
41. C 64. C 87. D
42. A 65. A 88. A
43. B 66. B 89. A
44. B 67. C 90. B
45. B 68. A 91. B
46. B 69. B 92. A
47. B 70. A 93. D
48. A 71. C 94. A
49. A 72. B 95. C
50. D 73. A 96. A
51. B 74. B 97. C
52. A 75. A 98. A
53. D 76. A 99. A
20
100.A
101.

(Final Examination)
Name:______________________________ Year & Section:_______ Score:_______
Direction: Encircle the letter of your best choice: No erasure is allowed; erasures are considered
wrong.
1. A search in a moving vehicle is limited to: d. Scenario
a. Visual search
b. Consented search 4. The custodial investigation is initiated by:
c. Customs search a. Law enforcement officers
d. Plainview search b. Public officers
c. Private individuals
2. The top priority of a policeman in responding to a d. Prosecutors
crime scene.
a. To collect evidence 5. This is the synonym of the word “waive:”
b. To investigate offenders a. Renounce
c. To save life b. Announce
d. To arrest the perpetrator c. Pronounce
d. Claim
3. The other term for “crime Scene:”
a. In flagrante delicto 6. The antonym of the word “arrest:”
b. Locus criminis a. Apprehend
c. Corpus delicti b. Set free
c. Search
Page 21
d. Renounce c. To punish the arrested person
d. To kill him
7. The words of the same meaning but of different 16.The crime committed by any public officer or
sound are called: employee who, not being authorized by law, shall
a. Synonyms expel any person from the Philippine islands or
b. Antonyms shall compel such person to change his residence.
c. Homonyms a. Expulsion
d. Twin words b. Arbitrary detention
8. The warrant of arrest is valid for how many days c. Kidnapping
from its issue? d. Unlawful arrest
a. 5 days
b. 10 days 17.The warrantless search that may be done if the
c. 15 days person to be searched voluntarily waives his right
d. None of the above against unreasonable search and seizure:
a. Consented search
9. The incorrect statement in relation to arrest: b. Search with waiver
a. Warrant of arrest is issued by a judge. c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
b. Warrant of arrest is issued in the name of the d. Plainview search
People of the Philippines.
c. Warrant of arrest is the same with search 18.The warrantless search that may be done if the
warrant. person to be searched just committed a crime:
d. Warrant of arrest is directed to a peace officer. a. Consented search
10.The other term for “caught in the act of b. Search with waiver
committing a crime:” c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
a. In flagrante delicto d. Plainview search
b. Locus criminis 19. The warrantless search that may be done if the
c. Hot pursuit person to be searched is in possession of illegal
d. Corpus delicti articles that are readily seen without any effort of
locating them:
11.The person lawfully arrested may be immediately a. Consented search
pursued anywhere in the Philippines immediately b. Search with waiver
after committing a crime. This is known as: c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
a. Neutral pursuit d. Plainview search
b. Hot pursuit
c. Anywhere pursuit 20.The following are the requisites of a waiver of the
d. Cold pursuit right of a person under custodial investigation to
have a competent and independent counsel,
12.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is punishable except:
under the: a. It is done voluntarily
a. Rules of Court b. It is done intelligently
b. Revised Penal Code c. It is done negligently
c. Implementing Rules and Regulations d. It is done in writing
d. Special law
13.The person arrested for a crime punishable by a 21.The Miranda Rights are also called:
light penalty must be delivered to the proper a. The Constitutional rights of persons under
judicial authority within how many hours from investigation for the commission of an offense
arrest? b. The Constitutional rights of the accused
a. 6 hours c. The constitutional rights of convicts
b. 12 hours d. The constitutional rights of persons under
c. 18 hours inquest proceeding
d. 36 hours 22.The doctrine in criminal cases which states that
any evidence illegally obtained is inadmissible in
14.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is committed by: any proceeding:
a. Public officers or employees< a. Doctrine of non-admissibility
b. Private individuals b. Doctrine of admissibility
c. Either A or B c. Doctrine of illegality
` d. Neither A nor B d. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree
15.The purpose of the offender in committing the 23.The indirect acknowledgment of guilt:
crime of Unlawful Arrest is: a. Confession
a. To deliver the arrested person to proper b. Admission
judicial authority c. Either A or B
b. To deprive the arrested person of his liberty on d. Neither A nor B
a particular place
Page 22
24.The pillar of criminal justice system that conducts b. 5
preliminary investigation and inquest proceeding: c. 7
a. Law enforcement d. 9
b. Prosecution
c. Court 34.The respondent is given how many days to file his
d. Correction answer?
a. 5 days from receipt of the complaint
25.The purpose of inquest proceeding: b. 10 days from receipt of the complaint
a. To determine probable cause c. 15 days from receipt of the complaint
b. To determine the validity of arrest< d. 20 days from receipt of the complaint
d. To determine the rank of the arresting officer 35.The other term for “answer:”
26.A sworn written statement charging a person with a. Counter-claim
an offense: b. Counter affidavit
a. Complaint c. Motion to dismiss
b. Information d. Counter motion
c. Accusation
d. Affidavit 36.Clarification shall terminate within how many
days?
27.An accusation in writing charging a person with an a. 5 days
offense: b. 10 days
a. Complaint c. 15 days
b. Information d. 20 days
c. Accusation
d. Affidavit 37.The order of the prosecutor finding whether
28.The person subscribing a complaint: a. Decision
a. Peace officer b. Judgment
b. Offended party c. Resolution
c. Person charged with the enforcement of the d. Opinion
law violated
d. Any of the above 38.The power to hear, try, and decide a case:
a. Decision
29.The person subscribing an information: b. Judgment
a. Fiscal c. Resolution
b. Prosecutor d. Jurisdiction<
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A nor B 39.The power and authority to hear and decide cases
previously heard by the lower court:
30.In asking preliminary investigation, the accused a. Original jurisdiction
must waive his right: b. Exclusive jurisdiction
a. Under Art. 115 of the Revised Penal Code c. Concurrent jurisdiction
b. Under Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code d. Appellate jurisdiction
c. Under Art. 135 of the Revised Penal Code
d. Under Art. 145 of the Revised Penal Code 40.The requirement in any initiatory pleading
31.The existence of sufficient ground to engender a asserting under oath that the complainant did not
well-founded belief that a crime has been institute same cause against the same party in
committed and the respondent is probably guilty another tribunal:
thereof: a. Certification against forum shopping
a. Insuperable cause b. Affidavit of undertaking
b. Indispensable cause c. Verification
c. Portable cause d. Affirmation
d. Probable cause 41.The one made in open court by the judge or clerk
of court furnishing the accused of a copy of the
32.Preliminary investigation is required when the complaint or information, reading the same in a
imposable penalty is at least: language or dialect known to him, and asking him
a. 6 years imprisonment whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
b. 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day imprisonment a. Prosecution
c. 4 years imprisonment b. Arraignment
d. 2 years imprisonment c. Investigation
33.If there are 3 respondents, how many copies of d. Trial
complaint must be filed before the prosecutor’s
office for the purpose of conducting preliminary 42.The following are instances when a plea of not
investigation? guilty shall be entered to the accused, except:
a. 3
Page 23
a. When the accused voluntarily enters a plea of
guilty 50.The “cradle of human personality:”
b. When he refuses to enter his plea a. Community
c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty b. Home
d. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory c. Church
evidence d. School
43.The security given for the release of a person in
custody of law: 51.The special contract of permanent union between
a. Bail a man and a woman:
b. Civil liability a. Solemnization
c. Assurance b. Marriage
d. Insurance c. Cohabitation
d. Family
44.Recognizance is available in the following cases,
except: 52.The basic autonomous social institution:
a. The offender is the President a. Solemnization
b. The offender is minor b. Marriage
c. The offender applies for probation c. Cohabitation
d. The offense committed is light d. Family
45.In recognizance, the accused is released after 53.The meaning of the phrase “void ab initio:”
paying a certain amount fixed by the court. This a. Valid from the beginning
statement is: b. Void from the beginning<
a. True c. Void at the end
b. Partially true d. Void at first glance
c. False
d. Partially false 54.New Born Screening Act of 2004:
a. RA 9822
46.Which is the correct statement in relation to b. RA 9288
institution of criminal action: c. RA 8551
a. Criminal action may proceed independently d. RA 9263
from civil action.
b. Criminal action is the formal debate between 55.The religious society founded and established by
the plaintiff and defendant. Jesus Christ to receive, preserve, and propagate
c. Criminal action may be waived because it His doctrines and ordinances.
affects only the victim. a. Religion
d. Criminal action involves the plaintiff and b. Home
defendant. c. Church
47.The following are correct statements in relation to d. School
a. Civil action for recovery of damages may be 56.The one considered the best instrument for
waived. information dissemination and the best source of
b. There are some cases wherein the civil action knowledge for the public:
may proceed independently from criminal action. a. Religion
c. An accused who is civilly liable is automatically b. Mass media
criminally liable. c. Speech
d. None of the above d. School
48.The correct statement in relation to institution of 57.The person who constitutes the Lupong
administrative actions: Tagapamayapa:
a. Private persons may be administratively liable a. Barangay chairman
only if they committed a crime together with b. Barangay captain
public officers. c. Lupon chairman
b. Persons administratively liable are d. Any of the above
c. Public officers may be held administratively 58.The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how
liable if they committed crimes in the many members?
performance of official duty. a. 5 – 10
d. Persons civilly liable are automatically b. 10 – 15
administratively liable. c. 15 – 20
49.The strongest element of a State: d. 10 – 20
a. Community 59.The Secretary of the Lupon:
b. Home a. Pangkat secretary
c. Territory b. Barangay secretary
d. Government c. Barangay chairman’s personal secretary
Page 24
d. Barangay treasurer 69.A police activity that is intended to prevent root
causes of crime:
60.The correct statement in relation to Barangay
a. Repression of crime
Secretary:
b. Prevention of crime
a. The barangay secretary shall serve concurrently
c. Investigation of crime
as the secretary of the lupon
d. Apprehending offenders
the secretary of the barangay.
70.The act of taking a person into custody in order
c. The barangay secretary cannot be appointed as
that he may be bound to answer the commission
the secretary of lupon.
of a crime:
d. The barangay chairman shall serve concurrently
a. Investigation
as the barangay secretary.
b. Arrest
61.The pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is consisted of c. Search
how many members? d. Imprison
a. 3
b. 4 71. The order issued by the court directing a peace
c. 5 officer to arrest a person or persons stated therein
d. 6 and deliver them before the court:
a. Warrant of arrest
62.The administrative actions against policemen may b. Search warrant
be filed in the following agencies, except: c. Either A or B
a. National Police Commission d. Neither A nor B
b. Red Cross
c. Commission on Human rights 72.The following are requisites of a valid warrant of
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board arrest, except:
a. It shall be issued upon probable cause
63.The sufficiency of evidence required in criminal b. The probable cause is determined personally by
cases: the judge
a. Preponderance of evidence c. It shall specifically state the things to be
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt searched
c. Substantial evidence d. None of the above
73. The search warrant is valid within how many days
64.The sufficiency of evidence required in civil cases: from issue?
a. Preponderance of evidence a. 5 days
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. 10 days
c. Substantial evidence c. 15 days
d. Clear and convincing evidence d. None of the above
65.The order of trial will be modified when: 74.The theory that is also known as Italian theory:
a. The accused dies a. Classical Theory
b. The accused claims self-defense< b. Theory of Origin
c. The accused goes to a foreign country c. Positivist Theory
d. The accused desires d. Eclectic Theory
66.The evidence that contradicts the defense of the 75.They are administered by the Bureau of
accused: Corrections:
a. Rebuttal a. Jails
b. Sur-rebuttal b. Prisons
c. Non-rebuttal c. Either A or B
d. Over-rebuttal d. Neither A nor B
67.The adjudication by the court regarding the merits 76.They house persons deprived of liberty for more
of the case: than three years:
a. Resolution a. Jails
b. Judgment b. Prisons
c. Opinion c. Either A or B
d. Conclusion d. Neither A nor B
68.The designation of a person charged with a 77.The satellite that houses minimum security
criminal case: prisoners:
a. Suspect a. Bukang Liwayway Camp
b. Respondent b. Sampaguita camp
c. Accused c. Either A or B
d. Criminal d. Neither A nor B
78.The location of Iwahig Penal Colony:
Page 25
a. Zamboanga
b. Davao 88.The court shall consider all information relative to
c. Mandaluyong ________ in granting or denying probation:
d. Palawan a. Characteristics
79.The release of a person from imprisonment after b. Antecedent
serving the minimum term of his sentence: c. Environment
a. Probation d. All of the above
b. Pardon 89.For a person not to be liable of a crime of Evasion
c. Amnesty of Service of Sentence in Occasion of Calamities,
d. Parole he must give himself up to the authorities within
80.The disposition under which a defendant, after how many hours following the issuance of the
conviction and sentence, is released subject to proclamation by the Chief Executive announcing
conditions imposed by the court and under the passing away of such calamity?
supervision of a probation officer: a. 24 hours
a. Probation b. 48 hours
b. Pardon c. 60 hours
c. Amnesty d. 75 hours
d. Parole
90.The penalty generally imposable to violations of
81.The reduction of period of imprisonment if the special laws:
convict shows good behavior: a. Reclusion perpetua
a. Probation b. Life imprisonment<
b. Pardon c. Either A or B
c. Amnesty d. Neither A nor B
d. Good conduct time allowance
91.The reduction of imprisonment per month by
82.The reduction of penalty on the seventh year of virtue of a good conduct time allowance on the
good behavior: 8th year of imprisonment:
a. 20 days per month a. 20 days
b. 23 days per month b. 23 days
c. 25 days per month c. 25 days
d. 30 days per month d. 30 days
83.The reduction of penalty on the third year of good 92.The group of persons living in a particular place.
behavior: a. Community
93.The correct statement in relation to community:
84.The reduction of penalty on the twelfth year of a. The community is the fourth pillar of the
good behavior: criminal justice system.
a. 20 days per month b. The community is limited to the persons living
b. 23 days per month in a locality.
c. 25 days per month c. The community includes the homes, family,
d. 30 days per month government, schools, churches, etc.
85.The act of the President reducing the penalty of a justice system.
convict:
a. Commutation 94.The one considered as community – based –
b. Reprieve treatment of offenders:
c. Amnesty a. Imprisonment
d. Pardon b. Probation
c. Suspension
86.The right to appeal or apply for probation is d. Incarceration
exercised in the: 95.The Father of Criminology:
a. Cumulative a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Alternative b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Discretion of the court c. Cesare Apolinario
d. None of the above d. Cesare Consolacion
87.The right to apply for probation is availed of:
a. Once 96.The person convicted of a crime by final judgment:
b. Twice a. Suspect
c. Thrice or more b. Respondent
d. None of the above c. Criminal
Page 26
d. Ex convict d. Community
97.The term “justice” means any of the following 99.The prime mover of criminal justice system:
except: a. Law enforcement
a. Rendering what is due b. Prosecution
b. Treating persons equally c. Judge
c. Punishing the offended party d. Community
98.The core of criminal justice system: 100. The superstar of criminal justice system:
a. Law enforcement a. Witness
b. Prosecution b. Suspect
c. Judge c. Offended party
d. Judge

(Final Examination)
ANSWER KEY
1. A search in a moving vehicle is limited to: a. Visual search
Page 27
b. Consented search a. Neutral pursuit
c. Customs search b. Hot pursuit
d. Plainview search c. Anywhere pursuit
d. Cold pursuit
2. The top priority of a policeman in responding to a
crime scene. 12.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is punishable
a. To collect evidence under the:
b. To investigate offenders a. Rules of Court
c. To save life b. Revised Penal Code
d. To arrest the perpetrator c. Implementing Rules and Regulations
d. Special law
3. The other term for “crime Scene:” 13.The person arrested for a crime punishable by a
a. In flagrante delicto light penalty must be delivered to the proper
b. Locus criminis judicial authority within how many hours from
c. Corpus delicti arrest?
d. Scenario a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
4. The custodial investigation is initiated by: c. 18 hours
a. Law enforcement officers d. 36 hours
b. Public officers
c. Private individuals 14.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is committed by:
d. Prosecutors a. Public officers or employees<
b. Private individuals
5. This is the synonym of the word “waive:” c. Either A or B
a. Renounce ` d. Neither A nor B
b. Announce
c. Pronounce 15.The purpose of the offender in committing the
d. Claim crime of Unlawful Arrest is:
a. To deliver the arrested person to proper
6. The antonym of the word “arrest:” judicial authority
a. Apprehend b. To deprive the arrested person of his liberty on
b. Set free a particular place
c. Search c. To punish the arrested person
d. Renounce d. To kill him
7. The words of the same meaning but of different 16.The crime committed by any public officer or
sound are called: employee who, not being authorized by law, shall
a. Synonyms expel any person from the Philippine islands or
b. Antonyms shall compel such person to change his residence.
c. Homonyms a. Expulsion<
d. Twin words b. Arbitrary detention
c. Kidnapping
8. The warrant of arrest is valid for how many days d. Unlawful arrest
from its issue?
a. 5 days 17.The warrantless search that may be done if the
b. 10 days person to be searched voluntarily waives his right
c. 15 days against unreasonable search and seizure:
d. None of the above a. Consented search
b. Search with waiver
9. The incorrect statement in relation to arrest: c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
a. Warrant of arrest is issued by a judge. d. Plainview search
b. Warrant of arrest is issued in the name of the
People of the Philippines. 18.The warrantless search that may be done if the
c. Warrant of arrest is the same with search person to be searched just committed a crime:
warrant. a. Consented search
d. Warrant of arrest is directed to a peace officer. b. Search with waiver
10.The other term for “caught in the act of c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
committing a crime:” d. Plainview search
a. In flagrante delicto 19. The warrantless search that may be done if the
b. Locus criminis person to be searched is in possession of illegal
c. Hot pursuit articles that are readily seen without any effort of
d. Corpus delicti locating them:
a. Consented search
11.The person lawfully arrested may be immediately b. Search with waiver
pursued anywhere in the Philippines immediately c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
after committing a crime. This is known as:
Page 28
d. Plainview search 29.The person subscribing an information:
a. Fiscal
20.The following are the requisites of a waiver of the b. Prosecutor
right of a person under custodial investigation to c. Either A or B
have a competent and independent counsel, d. Neither A nor B
except:
a. It is done voluntarily 30.In asking preliminary investigation, the accused
b. It is done intelligently must waive his right:
c. It is done negligently a. Under Art. 115 of the Revised Penal Code
d. It is done in writing b. Under Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code
21.The Miranda Rights are also called: d. Under Art. 145 of the Revised Penal Code
a. The Constitutional rights of persons under 31.The existence of sufficient ground to engender a
investigation for the commission of an offense well-founded belief that a crime has been
b. The Constitutional rights of the accused committed and the respondent is probably guilty
c. The constitutional rights of convicts thereof:
d. The constitutional rights of persons under a. Insuperable cause
inquest proceeding b. Indispensable cause
22.The doctrine in criminal cases which states that c. Portable cause
any evidence illegally obtained is inadmissible in d. Probable cause
any proceeding:
a. Doctrine of non-admissibility 32.Preliminary investigation is required when the
b. Doctrine of admissibility imposable penalty is at least:
c. Doctrine of illegality a. 6 years imprisonment
d. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree b. 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day imprisonment
c. 4 years imprisonment
23.The indirect acknowledgment of guilt: d. 2 years imprisonment
a. Confession 33.If there are 3 respondents, how many copies of
b. Admission complaint must be filed before the prosecutor’s
c. Either A or B office for the purpose of conducting preliminary
d. Neither A nor B investigation?
a. 3
b. Prosecution
c. Court 34.The respondent is given how many days to file his
b. To determine the validity of arrest< d. 20 days from receipt of the complaint
d. To determine the rank of the arresting officer 35.The other term for “answer:”
26.A sworn written statement charging a person with a. Counter-claim
an offense: b. Counter affidavit
a. Complaint c. Motion to dismiss
b. Information d. Counter motion
c. Accusation
d. Affidavit 36.Clarification shall terminate within how many
days?
27.An accusation in writing charging a person with an a. 5 days
offense: b. 10 days
a. Complaint c. 15 days
b. Information d. 20 days
c. Accusation
d. Affidavit 37.The order of the prosecutor finding whether
28.The person subscribing a complaint: a. Decision
a. Peace officer b. Judgment
b. Offended party c. Resolution
c. Person charged with the enforcement of the d. Opinion
law violated
d. Any of the above 38.The power to hear, try, and decide a case:
a. Decision
Page 29
b. Judgment c. Criminal action may be waived because it
c. Resolution affects only the victim.
d. Jurisdiction d. Criminal action involves the plaintiff and
defendant.
39.The power and authority to hear and decide cases
47.The following are correct statements in relation to
previously heard by the lower court:
a. Original jurisdiction
a. Civil action for recovery of damages may be
b. Exclusive jurisdiction
waived.
c. Concurrent jurisdiction
b. There are some cases wherein the civil action
d. Appellate jurisdiction
may proceed independently from criminal action.
40.The requirement in any initiatory pleading
criminally liable.
asserting under oath that the complainant did not
institute same cause against the same party in
another tribunal: 48.The correct statement in relation to institution of
a. Certification against forum shopping administrative actions:
b. Affidavit of undertaking a. Private persons may be administratively liable
c. Verification only if they committed a crime together with
d. Affirmation public officers.
b. Persons administratively liable are
41.The one made in open court by the judge or clerk automatically civilly liable.
of court furnishing the accused of a copy of the c. Public officers may be held administratively
complaint or information, reading the same in a liable if they committed crimes in the
language or dialect known to him, and asking him performance of official duty.
whether he pleads guilty or not guilty. d. Persons civilly liable are automatically
a. Prosecution administratively liable.
b. Arraignment
c. Investigation 49.The strongest element of a State:
d. Trial a. Community
b. Home
42.The following are instances when a plea of not c. Territory
guilty shall be entered to the accused, except: d. Government
a. When the accused voluntarily enters a plea of
guilty 50.The “cradle of human personality:”
b. When he refuses to enter his plea a. Community
c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty b. Home
d. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory c. Church
evidence d. School
43.The security given for the release of a person in 51.The special contract of permanent union between
custody of law: a man and a woman:
a. Bail a. Solemnization
b. Civil liability b. Marriage
c. Assurance c. Cohabitation
d. Insurance d. Family
44.Recognizance is available in the following cases, 52.The basic autonomous social institution:
except: a. Solemnization
a. The offender is the President b. Marriage
b. The offender is minor c. Cohabitation
c. The offender applies for probation d. Family
d. The offense committed is light
45.In recognizance, the accused is released after 53.The meaning of the phrase “void ab initio:”
paying a certain amount fixed by the court. This a. Valid from the beginning
statement is: b. Void from the beginning<
a. True c. Void at the end
b. Partially true d. Void at first glance
c. False
d. Partially false 54.New Born Screening Act of 2004:
a. RA 9822
46.Which is the correct statement in relation to b. RA 9288
institution of criminal action: c. RA 8551
a. Criminal action may proceed independently d. RA 9263
from civil action.
b. Criminal action is the formal debate between
the plaintiff and defendant.
Page 30
55.The religious society founded and established by
Jesus Christ to receive, preserve, and propagate 64.The sufficiency of evidence required in civil cases:
His doctrines and ordinances. a. Preponderance of evidence
a. Religion b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. Home c. Substantial evidence
c. Church d. Clear and convincing evidence
d. School 65.The order of trial will be modified when:
a. The accused dies
56.The one considered the best instrument for b. The accused claims self-defense<
information dissemination and the best source of c. The accused goes to a foreign country
knowledge for the public: d. The accused desires
a. Religion
b. Mass media 66.The evidence that contradicts the defense of the
c. Speech accused:
d. School a. Rebuttal
b. Sur-rebuttal
57.The person who constitutes the Lupong c. Non-rebuttal
Tagapamayapa: d. Over-rebuttal
a. Barangay chairman
b. Barangay captain 67.The adjudication by the court regarding the merits
c. Lupon chairman of the case:
d. Any of the above a. Resolution
b. Judgment
58.The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how c. Opinion
many members? d. Conclusion
a. 5 – 10
b. 10 – 15 68.The designation of a person charged with a
c. 15 – 20 criminal case:
d. 10 – 20 a. Suspect
59.The Secretary of the Lupon: b. Respondent
a. Pangkat secretary c. Accused
b. Barangay secretary d. Criminal
c. Barangay chairman’s personal secretary 69.A police activity that is intended to prevent root
d. Barangay treasurer causes of crime:
60.The correct statement in relation to Barangay a. Repression of crime
Secretary: b. Prevention of crime
a. The barangay secretary shall serve concurrently c. Investigation of crime
as the secretary of the lupon d. Apprehending offenders
the secretary of the barangay. 70.The act of taking a person into custody in order
c. The barangay secretary cannot be appointed as that he may be bound to answer the commission
the secretary of lupon. of a crime:
d. The barangay chairman shall serve concurrently a. Investigation
as the barangay secretary. b. Arrest
c. Search
61.The pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is consisted of
d. Imprison
how many members?
a. 3
71. The order issued by the court directing a peace
b. 4
officer to arrest a person or persons stated therein
c. 5
and deliver them before the court:
d. 6
62.The administrative actions against policemen may b. Search warrant
be filed in the following agencies, except: c. Either A or B
a. National Police Commission d. Neither A nor B
b. Red Cross
c. Commission on Human rights 72.The following are requisites of a valid warrant of
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board arrest, except:
63.The sufficiency of evidence required in criminal b. The probable cause is determined personally by
cases: the judge
a. Preponderance of evidence c. It shall specifically state the things to be
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt searched
c. Substantial evidence d. None of the above
Page 31
73. The search warrant is valid within how many days
from issue? 83.The reduction of penalty on the third year of good
a. 5 days behavior:
b. 10 days a. 20 days per month
c. 15 days b. 23 days per month
d. None of the above c. 25 days per month
74.The theory that is also known as Italian theory: d. 30 days per month
a. Classical Theory
b. Theory of Origin 84.The reduction of penalty on the twelfth year of
c. Positivist Theory good behavior:
d. Eclectic Theory a. 20 days per month
b. 23 days per month
75.They are administered by the Bureau of c. 25 days per month
Corrections: d. 30 days per month
a. Jails
b. Prisons 85.The act of the President reducing the penalty of a
c. Either A or B convict:
d. Neither A nor B a. Commutation
b. Reprieve
76.They house persons deprived of liberty for more c. Amnesty
than three years: d. Pardon
a. Jails
b. Prisons 86.The right to appeal or apply for probation is
c. Either A or B exercised in the:
d. Neither A nor B a. Cumulative
b. Alternative
77.The satellite that houses minimum security c. Discretion of the court
prisoners: d. None of the above
a. Bukang Liwayway Camp 87.The right to apply for probation is availed of:
b. Sampaguita camp a. Once
c. Either A or B b. Twice
d. Neither A nor B c. Thrice or more
78.The location of Iwahig Penal Colony: d. None of the above
a. Zamboanga
b. Davao 88.The court shall consider all information relative to
c. Mandaluyong ________ in granting or denying probation:
d. Palawan a. Characteristics
b. Antecedent
79.The release of a person from imprisonment after c. Environment
serving the minimum term of his sentence: d. All of the above
a. Probation
b. Pardon 89.For a person not to be liable of a crime of Evasion
c. Amnesty of Service of Sentence in Occasion of Calamities,
d. Parole he must give himself up to the authorities within
how many hours following the issuance of the
80.The disposition under which a defendant, after proclamation by the Chief Executive announcing
conviction and sentence, is released subject to the passing away of such calamity?
conditions imposed by the court and under a. 24 hours
supervision of a probation officer: b. 48 hours
a. Probation c. 60 hours
b. Pardon d. 75 hours
c. Amnesty
d. Parole 90.The penalty generally imposable to violations of
special laws:
81.The reduction of period of imprisonment if the a. Reclusion perpetua
convict shows good behavior: b. Life imprisonment<
a. Probation c. Either A or B
b. Pardon d. Neither A nor B
c. Amnesty
d. Good conduct time allowance 91.The reduction of imprisonment per month by
82.The reduction of penalty on the seventh year of virtue of a good conduct time allowance on the
good behavior: 8th year of imprisonment:
a. 20 days per month a. 20 days
b. 23 days per month b. 23 days
c. 25 days per month c. 25 days
d. 30 days per month d. 30 days
Page 32
96.The person convicted of a crime by final judgment:
92.The group of persons living in a particular place. a. Suspect
a. Community b. Respondent
b. Home c. Criminal
c. Church d. Ex convict
d. Government
97.The term “justice” means any of the following
93.The correct statement in relation to community: except:
a. The community is the fourth pillar of the a. Rendering what is due
criminal justice system. b. Treating persons equally
b. The community is limited to the persons living c. Punishing the offended party
in a locality. d. None of the above
c. The community includes the homes, family,
98.The core of criminal justice system:
government, schools, churches, etc.
a. Law enforcement
b. Prosecution
justice system.
c. Judge
94.The one considered as community – based – d. Community
treatment of offenders:
a. Imprisonment 99.The prime mover of criminal justice system:
b. Probation a. Law enforcement
c. Suspension b. Prosecution
d. Incarceration c. Judge
d. Community
95.The Father of Criminology:
a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
a. Witness
b. Suspect
c. Offended party
d. Judge
Page 33
CONCEPCION HOLY CROSS COLLEGE
Brgy. Minane, Concepcion, Tarlac
March 9, 2017
DR. RAQUEL T. STA. INES

Managing Directress, CHCC
THRU: MA. DOLORES T. DE GUZMAN
College Registrar
Madam:
Respectfully informing your good office that it was only yesterday that
I learned that I have a part in a seminar organized by Commission on Higher
Education (CHED) today.
I have a concern to attend to at Holy Cross College of Sta. Rosa today
which I just learned two days ago.
I really do not know how to attend these matters of conflicting
schedule this day.
Hence, I am constrained to just report at around 7 up to 8 o’clock this
morning and leave a person to administer my sitwork to my students.
Attached is the Program of Activity of the seminar at Feliciano College,
Dau, Pampanga and my authorization Letter.
Thank you very much, rest assured that I will be coping of anything
that may be missed by my students and I will report on March 13, 2017.
Respectfully,
THEODORE M. TIMPAC
Instructor, CHCC
Page 34
CONCEPCION HOLY CROSS COLLEGE
Brgy. Minane, Concepcion, Tarlac
March 9, 2017
DR. RAQUEL T. STA. INES

Managing Directress, CHCC
THRU: MA. DOLORES T. DE GUZMAN
College Registrar
Madam:
Respectfully informing your good office that I am authorizing the
bearer of this letter to administer the following sitworks:
Subject: Schedule: Room:
Criminal Justice System 7:30-9:00, TTh 301
Technical report Writing 2 9:00-10:30, TTh 301
Technical report Writing 2 10:30-12:00, TTh 301
Thank you very much, rest assured that I will be coping of
anything that may be missed by my students and I will report on March
13, 2017.
Respectfully,
THEODORE M. TIMPAC
Instructor, CHCC
Page 35
Page 36
9. The incorrect statement in relation to arrest:
a. Warrant of arrest is issued by a judge.
b. Warrant of arrest is issued in the name of the
People of the Philippines.
c. Warrant of arrest is the same with search
warrant.
d. Warrant of arrest is directed to a peace officer.
10. The other term for “caught in the act of committing a
crime:”
a. In flagrante delicto
(Disarranged) b. Locus criminis
c. Hot pursuit
Name:_______________________ d. Corpus delicti
Direction: Encircle the letter of your best choice. 11. The person lawfully arrested may be immediately
pursued anywhere in the Philippines immediately after
1. A search in a moving vehicle is limited to: committing a crime. This is known as:
a. Visual search a. Neutral pursuit
b. Consented search b. Hot pursuit
c. Customs search c. Anywhere pursuit
d. Plainview search d. Cold pursuit
2. The top priority of a policeman in responding to a crime 12. The crime of Arbitrary Detention is punishable under
scene. the:
a. To collect evidence a. Rules of Court
b. To investigate offenders b. Revised Penal Code
c. To save life c. Implementing Rules and Regulations
d. To arrest the perpetrator d. Special law
3. The other term for “crime Scene:” 13. The person arrested for a crime punishable by a light
a. In flagrante delicto penalty must be delivered to the proper judicial
b. Locus criminis authority within how many hours from arrest?
c. Corpus delicti a. 6 hours
d. Scenario b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
4. The custodial investigation is initiated by: d. 36 hours
a. Law enforcement officers
b. Public officers 14. The crime of Arbitrary Detention is committed by:
c. Private individuals a. Public officers or employees
d. Prosecutors b. Private individuals
c. Either A or B
5. This is the synonym of the word “waive:” ` d. Neither A nor B
a. Renounce
b. Announce 15. The purpose of the offender in committing the crime of
c. Pronounce Unlawful Arrest is:
d. Claim a. To deliver the arrested person to proper
judicial authority
6. The antonym of the word “arrest:” b. To deprive the arrested person of his liberty on a
a. Apprehend particular place
b. Set free c. To punish the arrested person
c. Search d. To kill him
d. Renounce 16. The crime committed by any public officer or employee
who, not being authorized by law, shall expel any person
7. The words of the same meaning but of different sound from the Philippine islands or shall compel such person
are called: to change his residence.
a. Synonyms a. Expulsion
b. Antonyms b. Arbitrary detention
c. Homonyms c. Kidnapping
d. Twin words d. Unlawful arrest
8. The warrant of arrest is valid for how many days from its
issue? 17. The warrantless search that may be done if the person
a. 5 days to be searched voluntarily waives his right against
b. 10 days unreasonable search and seizure:
c. 15 days a. Consented search
d. None of the above b. Search with waiver
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
d. Plainview search
Page 37
b. Offended party
18. The warrantless search that may be done if the person c. Person charged with the enforcement of the
to be searched just committed a crime: law violated
a. Consented search d. Any of the above
b. Search with waiver 29. The person subscribing an information:
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest a. Fiscal
d. Plainview search b. Prosecutor
19. The warrantless search that may be done if the person c. Either A or B
to be searched is in possession of illegal articles that are d. Neither A nor B
readily seen without any effort of locating them:
a. Consented search 30. In asking preliminary investigation, the accused must
b. Search with waiver waive his right:
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest a. Under Art. 115 of the Revised Penal Code
d. Plainview search b. Under Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code
20. The following are the requisites of a waiver of the right d. Under Art. 145 of the Revised Penal Code
of a person under custodial investigation to have a 31. The existence of sufficient ground to engender a well-
competent and independent counsel, except: founded belief that a crime has been committed and the
a. It is done voluntarily respondent is probably guilty thereof:
b. It is done intelligently a. Insuperable cause
c. It is done negligently b. Indispensable cause
d. It is done in writing c. Portable cause
d. Probable cause
21. The Miranda Rights are also called:
a. The Constitutional rights of persons under 32. Preliminary investigation is required when the
investigation for the commission of an offense imposable penalty is at least:
b. The Constitutional rights of the accused a. 6 years imprisonment
c. The constitutional rights of convicts b. 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day imprisonment
d. The constitutional rights of persons under c. 4 years imprisonment
inquest proceeding d. 2 years imprisonment
22. The doctrine in criminal cases which states that any 33. If there are 3 respondents, how many copies of
evidence illegally obtained is inadmissible in any complaint must be filed before the prosecutor’s office
proceeding: for the purpose of conducting preliminary investigation?
a. Doctrine of non-admissibility a. 3
b. Doctrine of admissibility b. 5
c. Doctrine of illegality c. 7
d. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree d. 9
23. The indirect acknowledgment of guilt: 34. The respondent is given how many days to file his
a. Confession answer?
b. Admission a. 5 days from receipt of the complaint
c. Either A or B b. 10 days from receipt of the complaint
d. Neither A nor B c. 15 days from receipt of the complaint
d. 20 days from receipt of the complaint
24. The pillar of criminal justice system that conducts
preliminary investigation and inquest proceeding: 35. The other term for “answer:”
a. Law enforcement a. Counter-claim
b. Prosecution b. Counter affidavit
c. Court c. Motion to dismiss
d. Correction d. Counter motion
25. The purpose of inquest proceeding: 36. Clarification shall terminate within how many days?
a. To determine probable cause a. 5 days
b. To determine the validity of arrest< b. 10 days
c. To determine the guilt of the accused c. 15 days
d. To determine the rank of the arresting officer d. 20 days
26. A sworn written statement charging a person with an 37. The order of the prosecutor finding whether probable
offense: cause exists is known as:
a. Complaint a. Decision
b. Information b. Judgment
c. Accusation c. Resolution
d. Affidavit d. Opinion
27. An accusation in writing charging a person with an 38. The power to hear, try, and decide a case:
offense: a. Decision
a. Complaint b. Judgment
b. Information c. Resolution
c. Accusation d. Jurisdiction
d. Affidavit
39. The power and authority to hear and decide cases
28. The person subscribing a complaint: previously heard by the lower court:
a. Peace officer
Page 38
a. Original jurisdiction a. Private persons may be administratively liable
b. Exclusive jurisdiction only if they committed a crime together with
c. Concurrent jurisdiction public officers.
d. Appellate jurisdiction b. Persons administratively liable are
40. The requirement in any initiatory pleading asserting c. Public officers may be held administratively
under oath that the complainant did not institute same liable if they committed crimes in the performance
cause against the same party in another tribunal: of official duty.
a. Certification against forum shopping d. Persons civilly liable are automatically
b. Affidavit of undertaking administratively liable.
c. Verification 49. The strongest element of a State:
d. Affirmation a. Community
41. The one made in open court by the judge or clerk of b. Home
court furnishing the accused of a copy of the complaint c. Territory
or information, reading the same in a language or dialect d. Government
known to him, and asking him whether he pleads guilty
or not guilty. 50. The “cradle of human personality:”
a. Prosecution a. Community
b. Arraignment b. Home
c. Investigation c. Church
d. Trial d. School
42. The following are instances when a plea of not guilty 51. The special contract of permanent union between a man
shall be entered to the accused, except: and a woman:
a. When the accused voluntarily enters a plea of a. Solemnization
guilty b. Marriage
b. When he refuses to enter his plea c. Cohabitation
c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty d. Family
d. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory
evidence 52. The basic autonomous social institution:
a. Solemnization
43. The security given for the release of a person in custody
b. Marriage
of law:
c. Cohabitation
a. Bail
d. Family
b. Civil liability
c. Assurance
53. The meaning of the phrase “void ab initio:”
d. Insurance
a. Valid from the beginning
b. Void from the beginning<
44. Recognizance is available in the following cases, except:
c. Void at the end
d. Void at first glance
b. The offender is minor
c. The offender applies for probation
54. New Born Screening Act of 2004:
d. The offense committed is light
a. RA 9822
45. In recognizance, the accused is released after paying a b. RA 9288
certain amount fixed by the court. This statement is: c. RA 8551
a. True d. RA 9263
b. Partially true
c. False 55. The religious society founded and established by Jesus
d. Partially false Christ to receive, preserve, and propagate His doctrines
and ordinances.
46. Which is the correct statement in relation to institution a. Religion
of criminal action: b. Home
a. Criminal action may proceed independently from c. Church
civil action. d. School
b. Criminal action is the formal debate between the
plaintiff and defendant. 56. The one considered the best instrument for information
c. Criminal action may be waived because it dissemination and the best source of knowledge for the
affects only the victim. public:
d. Criminal action involves the plaintiff and a. Religion
defendant. b. Mass media
47. The following are correct statements in relation to c. Speech
institution of civil action, except: d. School
b. There are some cases wherein the civil action may 57. The person who constitutes the Lupong Tagapamayapa:
proceed independently from criminal action. a. Barangay chairman
c. An accused who is civilly liable is automatically b. Barangay captain
criminally liable. c. Lupon chairman
d. None of the above d. Any of the above
48. The correct statement in relation to institution of
58. The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how many
administrative actions:
members?
a. 5 – 10
Page 39
b. 10 – 15 b. Prevention of crime
c. 15 – 20 c. Investigation of crime
d. 10 – 20 d. Apprehending offenders
59. The Secretary of the Lupon:
a. Pangkat secretary 70. The act of taking a person into custody in order that he
b. Barangay secretary may be bound to answer the commission of a crime:
c. Barangay chairman’s personal secretary a. Investigation
d. Barangay treasurer b. Arrest
c. Search
60. The correct statement in relation to Barangay Secretary: d. Imprison
a. The barangay secretary shall serve concurrently as
the secretary of the lupon 71. The order issued by the court directing a peace officer
b. The lupon secretary shall serve concurrently as the to arrest a person or persons stated therein and deliver
secretary of the barangay. them before the court:
c. The barangay secretary cannot be appointed as the a. Warrant of arrest
secretary of lupon. b. Search warrant
d. The barangay chairman shall serve concurrently as c. Either A or B
the barangay secretary. d. Neither A nor B
61. The pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is consisted of how
many members? 72. The following are requisites of a valid warrant of arrest,
a. 3 except:
b. 4 a. It shall be issued upon probable cause
c. 5 b. The probable cause is determined personally by the
d. 6 judge
c. It shall specifically state the things to be
62. The administrative actions against policemen may be searched
filed in the following agencies, except: d. None of the above
a. National Police Commission
73. The search warrant is valid within how many days from
b. Red Cross
issue?
c. Commission on Human rights
a. 5 days
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
63. The sufficiency of evidence required in criminal cases:
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt 74. The theory that is also known as Italian theory:
c. Substantial evidence a. Classical Theory
d. Clear and convincing evidence b. Theory of Origin
c. Positivist Theory
64. The sufficiency of evidence required in civil cases: d. Eclectic Theory
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt 75. They are administered by the Bureau of Corrections:
c. Substantial evidence a. Jails
d. Clear and convincing evidence b. Prisons
c. Either A or B
65. The order of trial will be modified when:
d. Neither A nor B
a. The accused dies
b. The accused claims self-defense<
76. They house persons deprived of liberty for more than
c. The accused goes to a foreign country
three years:
d. The accused desires
a. Jails
b. Prisons
66. The evidence that contradicts the defense of the
c. Either A or B
accused:
d. Neither A nor B
a. Rebuttal
b. Sur-rebuttal
77. The satellite that houses minimum security prisoners:
c. Non-rebuttal
a. Bukang Liwayway Camp
d. Over-rebuttal
b. Sampaguita camp
c. Either A or B
67. The adjudication by the court regarding the merits of
d. Neither A nor B
the case:
a. Resolution 78. The location of Iwahig Penal Colony:
b. Judgment a. Zamboanga
c. Opinion b. Davao
d. Conclusion c. Mandaluyong
d. Palawan
68. The designation of a person charged with a criminal 79. The release of a person from imprisonment after serving
case: the minimum term of his sentence:
a. Suspect a. Probation
b. Respondent b. Pardon
c. Accused c. Amnesty
d. Criminal d. Parole
69. A police activity that is intended to prevent root causes 80. The disposition under which a defendant, after
of crime: conviction and sentence, is released subject to
Page 40
conditions imposed by the court and under supervision 90. The penalty generally imposable to violations of special
of a probation officer: laws:
a. Probation a. Reclusion perpetua
b. Pardon b. Life imprisonment<
c. Amnesty c. Either A or B
d. Parole d. Neither A nor B
81. The reduction of period of imprisonment if the convict 91. The reduction of imprisonment per month by virtue of a
shows good behavior: good conduct time allowance on the 8th year of
a. Probation imprisonment:
b. Pardon a. 20 days
c. Amnesty b. 23 days
d. Good conduct time allowance c. 25 days
82. The reduction of penalty on the seventh year of good d. 30 days
behavior:
a. 20 days per month 92. The group of persons living in a particular place.
b. 23 days per month a. Community
c. 25 days per month b. Home
d. 30 days per month c. Church
d. Government
83. The reduction of penalty on the third year of good
behavior: 93. The correct statement in relation to community:
a. 20 days per month a. The community is the fourth pillar of the criminal
b. 23 days per month justice system.
c. 25 days per month b. The community is limited to the persons living
d. 30 days per month in a locality.
c. The community includes the homes, family,
84. The reduction of penalty on the twelfth year of good government, schools, churches, etc.
behavior: d. The community is the prime mover of criminal
a. 20 days per month justice system.
b. 23 days per month 94. The one considered as community – based – treatment
c. 25 days per month of offenders:
d. 30 days per month a. Imprisonment
b. Probation
85. The act of the President reducing the penalty of a c. Suspension
convict: d. Incarceration
a. Commutation
95. The Father of Criminology:
b. Reprieve
a. Cesare Beccaria
c. Amnesty
b. Cesare Lombroso
d. Pardon
86. The right to appeal or apply for probation is exercised in
the:
96. The person convicted of a crime by final judgment:
a. Cumulative
a. Suspect
b. Alternative
b. Respondent
c. Discretion of the court
c. Criminal
d. Ex convict
87. The right to apply for probation is availed of:
a. Once 97. The term “justice” means any of the following except:
b. Twice a. Rendering what is due
c. Thrice or more b. Treating persons equally
d. None of the above c. Punishing the offended party
88. The court shall consider all information relative to
98. The core of criminal justice system:
________ in granting or denying probation:
a. Law enforcement
a. Characteristics
b. Prosecution
b. Antecedent
c. Judge
c. Environment
d. Community
d. All of the above
89. For a person not to be liable of a crime of Evasion of 99. The prime mover of criminal justice system:
Service of Sentence in Occasion of Calamities, he must a. Law enforcement
give himself up to the authorities within how many b. Prosecution
hours following the issuance of the proclamation by the c. Judge
Chief Executive announcing the passing away of such d. Community
calamity?
a. 24 hours 100. The superstar of criminal justice system:
b. 48 hours a. Witness
c. 60 hours b. Suspect
d. 75 hours c. Offended party
d. Judge
Page 41
Page 42
b. Respondent
c. Accused
d. Criminal
7. A police activity that is intended to prevent root
causes of crime:
b. Prevention of crime
c. Investigation of crime
d. Apprehending offenders
8. The act of taking a person into custody in order

that he may be bound to answer the commission
of a crime:
a. Investigation
b. Arrest
c. Search
d. Imprison
9. The order issued by the court directing a peace

officer to arrest a person or persons stated therein
and deliver them before the court:
b. Search warrant
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A nor B
HCC OF STA. ROSA 10.The following are requisites of a valid warrant of
Mock Board in CJS arrest, except:
Name:_______________________ b. The probable cause is determined personally by
the judge
Direction: Encircle the letter of your best choice. c. It shall specifically state the things to be
1. The person convicted of a crime by final judgment: searched
a. Suspect d. None of the above
b. Respondent 11. The search warrant is valid within how many days
c. Criminal from issue?
d. Ex convict a. 5 days
b. 10 days
2. The term “justice” means any of the following c. 15 days
except: d. None of the above
a. Rendering what is due
b. Treating persons equally 12.The warrant of arrest is valid for how many days
c. Punishing the offended party from its issue?
d. None of the above a. 5 days
3. The core of criminal justice system: b. 10 days
a. Law enforcement c. 15 days
b. Prosecution d. None of the above
c. Judge
d. Community 13.The incorrect statement in relation to arrest:
a. Warrant of arrest is issued by a judge.
4. The prime mover of criminal justice system: b. Warrant of arrest is issued in the name of the
a. Law enforcement People of the Philippines.
b. Prosecution c. Warrant of arrest is the same with search
c. Judge warrant.
d. Community d. Warrant of arrest is directed to a peace officer.
14.The other term for “caught in the act of
5. The superstar of criminal justice system: committing a crime:”
a. Witness a. In flagrante delicto
b. Suspect b. Locus criminis
c. Offended party c. Hot pursuit
d. Judge d. Corpus delicti
6. The designation of a person charged with a
criminal case:
a. Suspect
Page 43
15.The person lawfully arrested may be immediately a. Consented search
pursued anywhere in the Philippines immediately b. Search with waiver
after committing a crime. This is known as: c. Search incidental to lawful arrest
a. Neutral pursuit d. Plainview search
b. Hot pursuit
c. Anywhere pursuit 24.A search in a moving vehicle is limited to:
d. Cold pursuit a. Visual search
b. Consented search
16.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is punishable c. Customs search
under the: d. Plainview search
a. Rules of Court
b. Revised Penal Code 25.The top priority of a policeman in responding to a
c. Implementing Rules and Regulations crime scene.
d. Special law a. To collect evidence
17.The person arrested for a crime punishable by a b. To investigate offenders
light penalty must be delivered to the proper c. To save life
judicial authority within how many hours from d. To arrest the perpetrator
arrest?
a. 6 hours 26.The other term for “crime Scene:”
b. 12 hours a. In flagrante delicto
c. 18 hours b. Locus criminis
d. 36 hours c. Corpus delicti
d. Scenario
18.The crime of Arbitrary Detention is committed by:
a. Public officers or employees 27.The custodial investigation is initiated by:
b. Private individuals a. Law enforcement officers
c. Either A or B b. Public officers
` d. Neither A nor B c. Private individuals
d. Prosecutors
19.The purpose of the offender in committing the
crime of Unlawful Arrest is: 28.This is the synonym of the word “waive:”
a. To deliver the arrested person to proper a. Renounce
judicial authority b. Announce
b. To deprive the arrested person of his liberty on c. Pronounce
a particular place d. Claim
c. To punish the arrested person
d. To kill him 29.The antonym of the word “arrest:”
a. Apprehend
20.The crime committed by any public officer or b. Set free
employee who, not being authorized by law, shall c. Search
expel any person from the Philippine islands or d. Renounce
shall compel such person to change his residence.
a. Expulsion 30. The words of the same meaning but of different
b. Arbitrary detention sound are called:
c. Kidnapping a. Synonyms
d. Unlawful arrest b. Antonyms
c. Homonyms
21.The warrantless search that may be done if the d. Twin words
person to be searched voluntarily waives his right
against unreasonable search and seizure: 31.The following are the requisites of a waiver of the
a. Consented search right of a person under custodial investigation to
b. Search with waiver have a competent and independent counsel,
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest except:
d. Plainview search a. It is done voluntarily
b. It is done intelligently
22.The warrantless search that may be done if the c. It is done negligently
person to be searched just committed a crime: d. It is done in writing
a. Consented search
b. Search with waiver 32.The Miranda Rights are also called:
c. Search incidental to lawful arrest a. The Constitutional rights of persons under
d. Plainview search investigation for the commission of an offense
23. The warrantless search that may be done if the b. The Constitutional rights of the accused
person to be searched is in possession of illegal c. The constitutional rights of convicts
articles that are readily seen without any effort of d. The constitutional rights of persons under
locating them: inquest proceeding
Page 44
33.The doctrine in criminal cases which states that c. Portable cause
any evidence illegally obtained is inadmissible in d. Probable cause
any proceeding:
a. Doctrine of non-admissibility 43.Preliminary investigation is required when the
b. Doctrine of admissibility imposable penalty is at least:
c. Doctrine of illegality a. 6 years imprisonment
d. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous tree b. 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day imprisonment
c. 4 years imprisonment
34.The indirect acknowledgment of guilt: d. 2 years imprisonment
a. Confession 44.If there are 3 respondents, how many copies of
b. Admission complaint must be filed before the prosecutor’s
c. Either A or B office for the purpose of conducting preliminary
d. Neither A nor B investigation?
a. 3
b. Prosecution
c. Court 45. The respondent is given how many days to file his
b. To determine the validity of arrest d. 20 days from receipt of the complaint
d. To determine the rank of the arresting officer 46. The other term for “answer:”
a. Counter-claim
37.A sworn written statement charging a person with b. Counter affidavit
an offense: c. Motion to dismiss
a. Complaint d. Counter motion
b. Information
c. Accusation 47. Clarification shall terminate within how many days?
a. 5 days
d. Affidavit
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
38.An accusation in writing charging a person with an d. 20 days
offense:
a. Complaint 48. The order of the prosecutor finding whether probable
b. Information cause exists is known as:
c. Accusation a. Decision
d. Affidavit b. Judgment
c. Resolution
d. Opinion
39.The person subscribing a complaint:
a. Peace officer 49. The power to hear, try, and decide a case:
b. Offended party a. Decision
c. Person charged with the enforcement of the b. Judgment
law violated c. Resolution
d. Any of the above d. Jurisdiction
40.The person subscribing an information: 50. The power and authority to hear and decide cases
a. Fiscal previously heard by the lower court:
b. Prosecutor a. Original jurisdiction
c. Either A or B b. Exclusive jurisdiction
d. Neither A nor B c. Concurrent jurisdiction
d. Appellate jurisdiction
41.In asking preliminary investigation, the accused
must waive his right: 51. The requirement in any initiatory pleading asserting
under oath that the complainant did not institute same
a. Under Art. 115 of the Revised Penal Code
cause against the same party in another tribunal:
b. Under Art. 125 of the Revised Penal Code a. Certification against forum shopping
c. Under Art. 135 of the Revised Penal Code b. Affidavit of undertaking
d. Under Art. 145 of the Revised Penal Code c. Verification
42.The existence of sufficient ground to engender a d. Affirmation
well-founded belief that a crime has been 52. The one made in open court by the judge or clerk of
committed and the respondent is probably guilty court furnishing the accused of a copy of the complaint
thereof: or information, reading the same in a language or dialect
a. Insuperable cause known to him, and asking him whether he pleads guilty
or not guilty.
b. Indispensable cause
a. Prosecution
Page 45
b. Arraignment c. Substantial evidence
c. Investigation d. Clear and convincing evidence
d. Trial
62. The sufficiency of evidence required in civil cases:
53. The following are instances when a plea of not guilty a. Preponderance of evidence
shall be entered to the accused, except: b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
a. When the accused voluntarily enters a plea of c. Substantial evidence
guilty d. Clear and convincing evidence
b. When he refuses to enter his plea 63. The order of trial will be modified when:
c. When he makes a conditional plea of guilty a. The accused dies
d. When he pleads guilty but presents exculpatory b. The accused claims self-defense
evidence c. The accused goes to a foreign country
54. The security given for the release of a person in custody d. The accused desires
of law:
a. Bail 64. The evidence that contradicts the defense of the
b. Civil liability accused:
c. Assurance a. Rebuttal
d. Insurance b. Sur-rebuttal
c. Non-rebuttal
55. Recognizance is available in the following cases, except: d. Over-rebuttal
b. The offender is minor 65. The adjudication by the court regarding the merits of
c. The offender applies for probation the case:
d. The offense committed is light a. Resolution
56. In recognizance, the accused is released after paying a b. Judgment
certain amount fixed by the court. This statement is: c. Opinion
a. True d. Conclusion
b. Partially true
c. False 66. The Father of Criminology:
d. Partially false a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
57. Which is the correct statement in relation to institution c. Cesare Apolinario
of criminal action: d. Cesare Consolacion
a. Criminal action may proceed independently from
civil action. 67. The theory that is also known as Italian theory:
b. Criminal action is the formal debate between the a. Classical Theory
plaintiff and defendant. b. Theory of Origin
c. Criminal action may be waived because it c. Positivist Theory
affects only the victim. d. Eclectic Theory
d. Criminal action involves the plaintiff and
defendant. 68. They are administered by the Bureau of Corrections:
a. Jails
58. The following are correct statements in relation to
b. Prisons
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A nor B
b. There are some cases wherein the civil action may
proceed independently from criminal action.
69. They house persons deprived of liberty for more than
three years:
criminally liable.
a. Jails
b. Prisons
59. The correct statement in relation to institution of c. Either A or B
administrative actions: d. Neither A nor B
a. Private persons may be administratively liable
only if they committed a crime together with 70. The satellite that houses minimum security prisoners:
public officers. a. Bukang Liwayway Camp
b. Persons administratively liable are b. Sampaguita camp
automatically civilly liable. c. Either A or B
c. Public officers may be held administratively d. Neither A nor B
liable if they committed crimes in the performance
71. The location of Iwahig Penal Colony:
of official duty.
a. Zamboanga
d. Persons civilly liable are automatically
b. Davao
administratively liable.
c. Mandaluyong
60. The administrative actions against policemen may be d. Palawan
filed in the following agencies, except:
72. The release of a person from imprisonment after serving
a. National Police Commission
the minimum term of his sentence:
b. Red Cross
a. Probation
c. Commission on Human rights
b. Pardon
d. People’s Law Enforcement Board
c. Amnesty
d. Parole
61. The sufficiency of evidence required in criminal cases:
a. Preponderance of evidence 73. The disposition under which a defendant, after
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt conviction and sentence, is released subject to
Page 46
conditions imposed by the court and under supervision a. Reclusion perpetua
of a probation officer: b. Life imprisonment
a. Probation c. Either A or B
b. Pardon d. Neither A nor B
c. Amnesty
d. Parole 84. The reduction of imprisonment per month by virtue of a
good conduct time allowance on the 8th year of
74. The reduction of period of imprisonment if the convict imprisonment:
shows good behavior: a. 5 days
a. Probation b. 8 days
b. Pardon c. 10 days
c. Amnesty d. 15 days
d. Good conduct time allowance
75. The reduction of penalty on the seventh year of good 85. The group of persons living in a particular place.
behavior: a. Community
86. The correct statement in relation to community:
76. The reduction of penalty on the third year of good a. The community is the fourth pillar of the criminal
behavior: justice system.
a. 20 days per month b. The community is limited to the persons living
b. 23 days per month in a locality.
c. 25 days per month c. The community includes the homes, family,
d. 30 days per month government, schools, churches, etc.
77. The reduction of penalty on the twelfth year of good justice system.
behavior: 87. The one considered as community – based – treatment
a. 20 days per month of offenders:
b. 23 days per month a. Imprisonment
c. 25 days per month b. Probation
d. 30 days per month c. Suspension
d. Incarceration
78. The act of the President reducing the penalty of a
convict: 88. The strongest element of a State:
a. Commutation< a. Community
b. Reprieve b. Home
c. Amnesty c. Territory
d. Pardon d. Government
79. The right to appeal or apply for probation is exercised in 89. The “cradle of human personality:”
the: a. Community
a. Cumulative b. Home
b. Alternative c. Church
c. Discretion of the court d. School
80. The right to apply for probation is availed of: 90. The special contract of permanent union between a man
a. Once and a woman:
b. Twice a. Solemnization
c. Thrice or more b. Marriage
d. None of the above c. Cohabitation
d. Family
81. The court shall consider all information relative to
________ in granting or denying probation: 91. The basic autonomous social institution:
a. Characteristics a. Solemnization
b. Antecedent b. Marriage
c. Environment c. Cohabitation
d. All of the above d. Family
82. For a person not to be liable of a crime of Evasion of 92. The meaning of the phrase “void ab initio:”
Service of Sentence in Occasion of Calamities, he must a. Valid from the beginning
give himself up to the authorities within how many b. Void from the beginning
hours following the issuance of the proclamation by the c. Void at the end
Chief Executive announcing the passing away of such d. Void at first glance
calamity?
a. 24 hours 93. New Born Screening Act of 2004:
b. 48 hours a. RA 9822
c. 60 hours b. RA 9288
d. 75 hours c. RA 8551
d. RA 9263
83. The penalty generally imposable to violations of special
laws:
Page 47
94. The religious society founded and established by Jesus
Christ to receive, preserve, and propagate His doctrines
and ordinances.
a. Religion
b. Home
c. Church
d. School
95. The one considered the best instrument for information

dissemination and the best source of knowledge for the
public:
a. Religion
b. Mass media
c. Speech
d. School
96. The person who constitutes the Lupong Tagapamayapa:

a. Barangay chairman
b. Barangay captain
c. Lupon chairman
d. Any of the above
97. The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how many

members?
a. 5 – 10
b. 10 – 15
c. 15 – 20
d. 10 – 20
98. The Secretary of the Lupon:
a. Pangkat secretary
b. Barangay secretary
c. Barangay chairman’s personal secretary
d. Barangay treasurer
99. The correct statement in relation to Barangay Secretary:
a. The barangay secretary shall serve concurrently as
the secretary of the lupon.
b. The lupon secretary shall serve concurrently as the
secretary of the barangay.
c. The barangay secretary cannot be appointed as the
secretary of lupon.
d. The barangay chairman shall serve concurrently as
the barangay secretary.
100. The pangkat ng tagapagkasundo is consisted of how
many members?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
HCC OF STA. ROSA
Page 48

CJS Answer Key

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CJS Answer Key

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Philippine Criminal Justice System

68. What does it mean by “oblivion”?

Philippine Judicial and Criminal 9. A 20. B

Republic of the Philippines

Republic of the Philippines

DR. RAQUEL T. STA. INES

DR. RAQUEL T. STA. INES

8. The act of taking a person into custody in order

9. The order issued by the court directing a peace

95. The one considered the best instrument for information

96. The person who constitutes the Lupong Tagapamayapa:

97. The Lupong Tagapamayapa is consisted of how many

HCC OF STA. ROSA

You might also like