All India Test Series (JEE–2024)

AJAM1/07 Test- 7 Arjuna JEE

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 03/03/2024 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Latest Full Syllabus by NTA
Chemistry: Latest Full Syllabus by NTA
Mathematics: Latest Full Syllabus by NTA

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and last 10 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’
where answer needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer. Only 5 questions have to be attempted out of the last
10 questions of each section.
5. There is only one correct response for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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[1]
 IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1

Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103 = 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.

❑❑❑

[2]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions force exerted by ring is (G  Universal
1. The earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit gravitational constant)
as shown in figure. The ratio OA / OB = x . The
ratio of the speed of the earth at B to that at A is

GMm0
(1) x (2) x (1)
2R
2
(3) x x (4) x GMm0  1 1 
(2)  − 
R  2 5
2. Block B has mass m and is released from rest GMm0  1 1 
when it is on top of wedge A , which has a mass (3)  − 
R  5 2
3m . Determine the normal between the block and
(4) It is not possible to find the required work as
the wedge such that the cord CD doesn't let the the nature of distribution of mass is not know
wedge move while B is sliding down A . Neglect
friction 6. A particle is projected from the ground with an
initial speed of v at an angle  with horizontal.
The magnitude of average velocity of the particle
between its point of projection and highest point
of trajectory is (Neglect air drag)
v v
(1) 1 + 2cos 2 θ (2) 1 + 2cos 2 θ
mg 2 2
(1) 2 mg cos  (2) cos 
2 v
(3) 1 + 3cos 2 θ (4) v cos θ
(3) mg cosθ (4) mg sin 2 2

3. A number of droplets, each of radius r , combine 7. The small marble is projected with a velocity of
to form a drop of radius R . If T is the surface 10 ms −1 in a direction 45° from the horizontal 𝑦-
direction on the smooth fixed inclined plane.
tension, the rise in temperature will be (Assume
Calculate the magnitude 𝑣 of its velocity after 2 s
specific heat and density of liquid both are equal
(take g = 10 m/sec2)
to unity in the unit system followed and no heat
loss to the surroundings)
2T 3T
(1) (2)
r R
1 1  1 1 
(3) 2T  −  (4) 3T  − 
 r R  r R
(1) 10 2 ms −1 (2) 5 ms −1
4. A river is flowing from west (W) to east (E) at a (3) 10 ms −1 (4) 5 2 ms −1
speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the
river, capable of swimming at 10 m/min in still 8. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous
water, wants to swim across the river in the sinusoidal displacements in x -direction,
shortest time. Finally he will move in a direction  2 
x1 ( t ) = A sin t and x2 ( t ) = A sin  t + .
(N → North)  3 
(1) tan −1 ( 2 ) E of N (2) tan −1 ( 2 ) N of E Adding a third sinusoidal displacement
x3 ( t ) = B sin ( t +  ) brings the mass to a
(3) 30 E of N (4) 60 E of N
complete rest. The values of B and  are?
5. A ring having non-uniform distribution of mass 3 4
(1) 2 A, (2) A,
M and radius R is being considered. A point 4 3
mass m0 is taken slowly towards the ring from 5 
(3) 3 A, (4) A,
point B to A along its axis. In doing so, work done 6 3
by the external force against the gravitational

[3]
9. Two circular discs are of same material and 14. The displacement of medium particle of a wave
thickness. The diameter of A is twice that of B . disturbance propagating along positive X -axis is
The moment of inertia of A as compared to that
of B about their respective similar axes is
given by (
y = 1 / 1 + x2 ) at t=0 and

y = 1 / 1 + ( x − 2 )  at t = 4 sec where x and y

(1) Twice as large 2
(2) Four times as large  
(3) Eight times as large are in metre. The shape of wave disturbance does
(4) 16 times as large not change with time. The velocity of the wave is
(1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s
10. The absolute coefficient of expansion of a liquid (3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s
is 7 times that the volume coefficient of expansion
of the vessel. Then the ratio of absolute and 15. Two beads having masses 6m and 12m are
apparent coefficient of expansion of the liquid is connected with a light spring. The beads can slide
over two frictionless parallel horizontal rail as
1 7
(1) (2) shown in Figure
7 6
6
(3) (4) None of these
7

11. Drops of water fall at regular intervals from roof

of a building of height H = 16 m, the first drop
The lighter bead is given an initial velocity v0 in
striking the ground at the same moment as the
horizontal direction. Calculate the maximum
fifth drop detaches itself from the roof. The
extension produced in the spring.
distance between separate successive drops in air
as the first drop reaches the ground are m v m
(1) v0 (2) 0
(take g = 10 m/sec2) k 2 k
(1) 1 m, 5 m, 7 m, 3 m m 3v0 m
(2) 1 m, 3 m, 5 m, 7 m (3) 2v0 (4)
k 2 k
(3) 1 m, 3 m, 7 m, 5 m
(4) None of the above Fl
16. Statement-I: From the relation Y = , we
Al
12. The effective length of a simple pendulum is the
observe that, if length of a wire is doubled, then
sum of the following three: Length of string,
its Young's modulus (Y) also becomes two times.
radius of bob, and length of hook In a simple Statement-II: Modulus of elasticity (young's
pendulum experiment, the length of the string, as modulus) is the property of the material.
measured by a metre scale, is 92.0 cm. The radius (1) If both statement-I and statement-II are true
of the bob combined with the length of the hook, and the statement-II is correct explanation of
as measured by a vernier callipers, is 2.17 cm. The the statement-I
effective length of the pendulum is (2) If both statement-I and statement-II are true
(1) 94.1 cm (2) 94.2 cm but statement-II is not the correct explanation
(3) 94.17 cm (4) 94 cm of statement-I.
(3) If statement-I is true but the statement-II is
13. Figure shows the vertical section of a frictionless false.
surface. A block of mass 2 kg is released from rest (4) If statement-I is false but the statement-II is
from position A with speed 5 m/s towards right; true.
its KE as it reached position C is (Assume that 17. If n is the number of particles crossing a unit area
block doesn't lose contact with the track) perpendicular to the x − axis in a unit time is
(g=10 ms −2 )  N − N1 
given by n = − D  2  , where N1 and N 2
 x2 − x1 
are the number of particles per unit volume at
positions x = x1 and x = x2 , respectively, and D
is the diffusion constant. The dimensions of D
are
(1) 140 J (2) 180 J (1)  M 0 LT −2  (2)  M 0 L2T −4 
   
(3) 120 J (4) 165 J
(3)  M 0 L2T −2  (4)  M 0 L2T −1 
   
[4]
18. Each of the pictures shows four objects tied Integer Type Questions
together with rubber bands being pulled to the 21. A ball of mass m = 0.5 kg is attached to the end of
right across a horizontal frictionless surface by a a string having length L = 0.5 m. The ball is
horizontal force F . All the objects have the same rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical
mass; all the identical rubber bands obey Hooke’s axis. The maximum tension that the string can
law and have the same equilibrium length and the bear is 324 N. The maximum possible value of
same force constant. Which of these pictures is angular velocity of ball (in radian/s) is______.
drawn most correctly?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22. In the pulley system shown, if radii of the bigger

19. Figure shows a smooth vertical circular track AB
of radius R . A block slides along the surfaces AB
when it is given a tangential velocity equal to
6gR at point A . The ratio of the force exerted
by the track on the block at point A to that at
point B is
and smaller pulley are 2 m and 1 m, respectively,
and the acceleration of block A is 5 m / s 2 in the
downward direction, the magnitude of
x
acceleration of block B will be m/s2. Value of x
2
is equal to______.

(1) 0.25 (2) 0.35

(3) 0.45 (4) 0.55

20. In a gravity free space a small ring of mass m

passes through a fixed smooth wire bent in the
form of a horizontal circle. The ring is connected
to a spring whose other end is fixed at A on the
wire as in figure
23. The displacement x of a particle moving in one
dimension under the action of a constant force is
related to time t by the equation t = x + 3 ,
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The
displacement of the particle when its velocity is
zero, is ________ m.

The natural length of the spring is R and the 24. A 20-cm-long capillary tube is dipped in water.
spring constant is mg / R , where m is the mass of The water rises up to 8 cm. If the entire
arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the
the ring and R is the radius of the circle. Initially,
length of water column in the capillary tube will
the ring is released from rest from position B and
be________ cm.
it moves towards C as shown in figure. ( N is the
Normal reaction between wire and ring, v is the 25. Two small particles of equal masses start moving
speed of the ring). Match the following in opposite directions from a point A in a
Column-I Column- II
horizontal circular orbit. Their tangential
A N = mg P At position B
velocities are v and 2v , respectively, as shown
B N =0 Q At position C in the figure. Between collisions, the particles
C N = 2 mg R Somewhere between position move with constant speeds. After making how
B and position C many elastic collisions, other than that at A , these
D v = gR S Never two particles will again reach the point A
CODES :
A B C D
(1) Q P, Q R S
(2) P, Q R S Q
(3) R S Q P, Q
(4) S Q P, Q R
[5]
26. An air column closed at one end and opened at the
other end, resonates with a tuning fork of
frequency v when its length is 45 cm and 99 cm
and at two other lengths in between these values.
Neglecting any end corrections the wavelength of
sound in air column is_______cm
27. Two moles of ideal helium gas are in a rubber
balloon at 30°C. The balloon is fully expandable
and can be assumed to require no energy in its
expansion. The temperature of the gas in the
balloon is slowly changed to 33°C. The amount of
heat (in J) required in raising the temperature is
25
nearly _________. (take R = J/mol.K)
3 on. Each step is 1 m long and takes 1s. There is a
28. Two blocks of masses m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 4 kg
are moving in the same direction with speeds
v1 = 6 m/s and v2 = 3 m/s, respectively on a
frictionless surface as shown in figure. An ideal
spring with spring constant k = 30000 N / m is
attached to the back side of m2 . Then the
maximum compression of the spring after
collision will be ______ cm
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions
31. Which common name is wrong?
(1) Benzoyl chloride
(2) Acetophenone
(3) Benzaldehyde
(4) Benzenol
32. How many types of C–C bond (in terms of degree
of carbon atoms connected) are present is the
following compound
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
33. Which of the following compound cannot show
geometrical isomerism?
(1) (2)
29. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are
100 divisions on circular scale. When jaws A and
B are just touching each other without putting
anything between the studs 32nd division of the
circular scale coincides with the reference line.
When a glass plate is placed between the studs,
the linear scale reads 4 divisions and the circular
scale reads 16 divisions. The thickness of the
glass plate is N mm (Zero of linear scale is not
hidden from circular scale when A and B touches
each other) value of 100N is
30. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He
takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so
pit on the road 11 m away from the starting point.
The drunkard will fall into the pit after _______ s.
(3) (4)
34. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by the
following two molecules?
O
C–Br
(a) (b)
CH3
(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers
(3) Function isomers (4) Metamers
35. Product
Number of monochloro structural isomers in
products is?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 7
36. Which of the following statements is correct with
respect to O 22− ?
(1) The bond order is 2
(2) Last electron occupies bonding molecular
orbital
(3) It is an example of paramagnetic species
(4) It's highest occupied molecular orbital
(HOMO) has two nodal planes
[6]
 CH3 H C– Spin quantum no. is also obtained from
C=C H
37. The structure shows CH C — COOH Schrodinger wave equation
3

CH3
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Geometrical isomerism (1) Only A (2) Only A and B
(2) Optical isomerism (3) Only A and C (4) A, B and C
(3) Geometrical & optical isomerism
(4) none 44. Which reaction involves a change in the electron–
pair geometry (i.e., hybridisation) for the under
38. Which is the incorrect match for the given lined atom?
compounds? (1) BF3 + F– —→ BF4–
(1) Napthalene : Homocyclic & Aromatic
(2) Pyridine : Heterocyclic & Aromatic (2) NH3 + H+ —→ NH4+
(3) Methylcyclopentane : Homocyclic & (3) 2 SO2 + O2 —→ 2 SO3
Saturated (4) H2O + H+ —→ H3O+
(4) Neopentane : Acyclic & Unsaturated

39. Which of the following cannot show geometrical 45. Consider the following reactions:
isomerism? I – 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5 (g); H = – 108 kJ
(1) 1-phenylbut–1–ene II – 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(s); H = –216 kJ
(2) Hex–2–ene If the entropy change for the sublimation of N2O5(s)
(3) 1-Chloroethene
(4) 1-Chloropropene is 180 J/K mol, then the sublimation temperature of
N2O5(s) is
40. Element with electronic configuration as [Ar]18 (1) 300°C (2) 600°C
3d5 4s2 is placed in: (3) 27°C (4) 327°C
(1) 1st group, s-block
(2) 2nd group, s-block 46. Solubility of Zn(OH)2 in pure water is 3 × 10–6 M
(3) 5th group, d-block
at 25°C. The solubility of the Zn(OH)2 in
(4) 7th group, d-block
solution having pH = 12 is
41. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) 2.7 × 10–13 M
(1) One of the favourable conditions for the (2) 5.4 × 10–13 M
formation of an anion is high negative value (3) 9 × 10–12 M
of electron gain enthalpy of an element. (4) 1.08 × 10–12 M

(2) Ionic bonds are non-directional whereas

47. Consider the following reaction.
covalent bonds are directional in nature
(3) One of the favourable conditions for the
formation of ionic bonds is low lattice
energy. The major product formed in the above reaction
(4) Ionic compounds have high melting and
boiling points and are soluble in polar is
solvents.
(1) (2)
42. Which of the following species is not correctly
matched with the shape?
(1) N3− − Linear (3) (4)
(2) SF4 – See Saw
(3) ClO3− − Pyramidal
48. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 acts as
(4) PCl6− − Square pyramidal a reducing agent?
(1) 2MnO42– + 6H+ + 5H2O2 —→ 2Mn2+ + 8H2O
43. Consider the following statements. + 5O2
A– Magnetic quantum no. gives information (2) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– —→ 2I– + 2H2O + O2
about spatial orientation of orbitals
(3) 2MnO4– + 3H2O2 —→ 2MnO2 + 3O2 + 2H2O
B– Energy of an orbital depends on principal
quantum no. for unielectronic species. (4) All of these

[7]
49. A 250 mL aqueous solution is prepared by
dissolving 2.88 g of ferrous oxalate. The
prepared solution is treated with KMnO4 solution
in acidic medium. If 60 mL of KMnO4 solution
is consumed then the molarity of KMnO4
solution is (Atomic mass of Fe = 56u)
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.16 M (4) 0.67 M
50. The conjugate base of which of the following
molecule may have aromatic nature?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Integer Type Questions
51. The number of orbitals associated with quantum
1 59.
numbers n = 5, ms =+ is______.
2 0.1 M NaOH. The molar heat of neutralization of
52. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of KMnO4
was titrated in acidic medium, equal volume of
0.1 M of an aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate
was required for complete discharge of colour.
The strength of KMnO4 in grams per litre is
_______×10–2.
(Molar mass of KMnO4 = 158)
53. 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 2SO3 ( g )
In a equilibrium mixture, the partial pressures are
PSO3 = 43kPa;PO2 = 530Pa and PSO2 = 42kPa .
The equilibrium constant KP = ______ × 10–2 kPa–1.
(Nearest integer)
54. Assuming that Ba(OH)2 is completely ionised in
aqueous solution under the given conditions. The
concentration of H3O+ ions in 0.005 M aqueous
solution of Ba(OH)2 at 298 K is ______ × 10–12
mol L–1 (Nearest integer)
55. Two elements A and B form 0.15 moles of each
A2B and AB3 type compounds. If both A2B and
AB3 weigh equally, then the atomic weight of A
is _____ times of atomic weight of B.
56. How many expression among the following are
correct?
(i) For isothermal process wreversible = –nRT ln
Vf
Vi
G system
(ii) = −T (at constant P)
STotal
H − TS
(iii) ln K =
RT
(iv) K = e–ΔG°/RT
57. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663 nm
is just sufficient to ionise the atom of metal A.
The ionization energy of metal A in kJ mol–1 is
____. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108, ms–1, NA =
6.02 × 1023 mol–1]
58. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of
solubility product of 4.0 ×10–12. The ratio of their
S( A2X )
molar solubilities i.e., = _______.
S ( MX )
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 300 mL of
this reaction is –57.1 kJ. The increase in
temperature in ºC of the system on mixing is x ×
10–2. The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
[Given: Specific heat of water = 4.18 Jg–1 K–1
Density of water = 1.00 g cm–3]
(Assume no volume change on mixing)
60. Consider the following equilibrium at 27°C:
Br2 (l) + Cl2(g)  2BrCl (g); KP = 1atm
The reaction starts with Br2(l) and 1 mole of
Cl2(g) in a closed container. The equilibrium
partial pressure of Cl2(g) is 0.01 atm. If the
minimum mass of Br2(l) initially taken is a g then
the value of a is _______ (vapour pressure of
Br2(l) at given temperature is 0.1 atm) (Atomic
mass of Br = 80 u)
[8]
 SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions
61. A circle of constant radius 'a' passes through (3)
( )
n n2 + 1 ( 3n + 4 )
origin 'O' and cuts the axes of co-ordinates in 24
points P and Q, then the equation of the locus of
the foot of perpendicular from O to PQ is (4)
( 2
)
n n + 1 ( 3n + 4 )
12
 1 1 
( )
(1) x 2 + y 2  2 + 2  = 4a 2
x y 

2 1 1 
4 (1 – cos 4x ) sin
4 2
4x
( )
(2) x 2 + y 2  2 + 2  = a 2
x
 y 
67. lim
x→0 x
(1) Is –29/4
2 1 1 
( )
(2) Is 29/4
(3) x 2 + y 2  2 + 2  = 4a 2
x y 
(3) Does not exist as LHL does not exist
 (4) Does not exist as LHL  RHL
 1 1 
( 
)
(4) x 2 + y 2  2 + 2  = a 2
x y  68. Equation of a rectangular hyperbola whose
asymptotes are x = 3 and y = 5 and passing
through (7, 8) is
62. A variable chord of circle x2 + y2 = 4 is drawn
(1) xy – 3y + 5x + 3 = 0
from the point P(3, 5) meeting the circle at the
(2) xy + 3y + 4x + 3 = 0
points A and B. A point Q is taken on this chord
(3) xy – 3y + 5x – 3 = 0
such that 2PQ = PA + PB. Locus of 'Q' is
(4) xy – 3y – 5x + 3 = 0
(1) x2 + y2 + 3x + 4y = 0
(2) x2 + y2 = 36
69. The total number of integral values of ‘a’ for
(3) x2 + y2 = 16
which the equation a2 – 2a + 3 = | cosx − 2 | have
(4) x2 + y2 – 3x – 5y = 0
real solution for x is
(1) 4 (2) 6
63. The exhaustive domain of
(3) 2 (4) 3
f(x) = x12 − x9 + x 4 − x + 1 is
(1) [0, 1] (2) [1, ) 70. Let  and  be two real roots of the equation
(3) [–, 1) (4) R (k + 1) tan 2 x – 2   tan x = (1 – k ) , where k  –
1 and  are real numbers. If tan2( + ) = 50,
64. Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line then a value of  is
(x – 2y + 3) + λ(2x – 3y + 4) = 0 is (λ ∈ R)
(1) x2 + y2 – 3x – 4y – 4 = 0 (1) 10 (2) 10 2
(2) 2x2 + 3y2 + 2x + 4y – 7 = 0 (3) 5 (4) 5 2
(3) x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 3 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 3 = 0 71. If p, q, r, s  R, then equation (x2 + px + 3q) (–x2
+ rx + q) (–x2 + sx – 2q) = 0 has
65. If x1, x2, x3..., are distinct odd natural numbers not (1) 6 real roots
divisible by any prime number greater than 7, (2) at least two real roots
and the sum to infinite terms of the series (3) 2 real and 4 imaginary roots
1 1 1 (4) 4 real and 2 imaginary roots
, , ,...... is less than a natural number N,
x1 x2 x3
72. If the number of integral solutions (x, y, z) of xyz
then the least value of N is
= 18 is nP2, then the value of n is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 6 (1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 72 (4) 8
66. The co-efficient of xn – 2 in the polynomial
(x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) ……(x – n) is 73. A parabola y = ax2 + bx + c crosses the x-axis at
(α, 0) (β, 0) both to the right of the origin. A
(1)
( )
n n2 + 2 ( 3n + 1) circle also passes through these two points. The
24 length of a tangent from the origin to the circle is

(2)
( 2
)
n n − 1 ( 3n + 2 ) (1)
bc
a
(2) ac2
24
b c
(3) (4)
a a

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74. The locus of the point representing the complex Integer Type Questions
number z for which 81. If the length of the latus rectum of the parabola
|z + 10i|2 – |z – 10i|2 = 20, is (where i = −1 ) 169 {(x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2} = (5x – 12y + 17)2 is L
(1) A circle (2) A straight line then the value of 13L/4 is
(3) A parabola (4) A hyperbola
82. The remainder when 2740 is divided by 12 is
75. The ellipse 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 and the hyperbola
a2 x2 – y2 = 4 intersects at right angles then the z −i
83. Let z be a complex number such that =1
equation of the circle through the points of z + 2i
intersection of two conic is 5
(1) x2 + y2 = 5 and | z | = . If the value of |z + 3i| is k, then the
2
(2) √5(x2 + y2) – 3x – 4y = 0 value of 4k is
(3) √5(x2 + y2) + 3x + 4y = 0
(4) x2 + y2 = 25
3 1
84. If cos + cos  = and sin  + sin  = and 
76. If cos β is geometric mean between sin α and 2 2
 is the arithmetic mean of  and , then sin2 +
cosα, where 0 < α,   , then cos 2β = A
2 cos2 is equal to in simplest form, then
(1) sin2α – 1 (2) sin2α + 1 B
(3) cos2α – 1 (4) cos2α + 1 A− B
is equal to
2
77. Triangles are formed by joining the vertices of a
regular polygon of 20 sides. The probability that 85. A 5 digit number is formed by using the digits 0,
no side of the polygon is a side of the triangle, is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without repetition. If probability that
25 30 p
(1) (2) the number is divisible by 6 is (where p, q are
57 57 q
35 40 co-primes), then (q – p) is
(3) (4)
57 57
86. Number of values of x satisfying the equations
78. The mean and variance of 20 observations are 1
found to be 10 and 4, respectively. On 5 {x} = x + [x] and [x] – {x} = is
2
rechecking, it was found that an observation 9
was incorrect and the correct observation was 11.
 x2 
Then the correct variance is  x cot x − 1 + 
(1) 3.98 (2) 4.02 87. Value of lim  3  = − 1 , then  is
(3) 3.99 (4) 4.01 x →0  x4  
 
 
79. The number of 4 letter words (with or without
meaning) that can be formed from the eleven 88. If the number of five digit numbers with distinct
letters of the word ‘EXAMINATION’ is digits and 2 at the 10th place is 336 k, then k is
(1) 2418 equal to
(2) 2454
(3) 2440 89. Triangle ABC with AB = 13, BC = 5 and AC = 12
(4) 2460 slides on the coordinates axis with A and B on the
positive x-axis and positive y-axis respectively,
80. The product of all the solutions of the equation the locus of vertex C is a line 12x – ky = 0, then
(x – 2)2 – 3 |x – 2| + 2 = 0 is the value of k is
(1) 2
(2) – 4 90. Two finite sets have m and n elements. The total
(3) 0 number of subsets of the first set is 56 more than
(4) 6 total number of subsets of second set. Then the
value of m + n is

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