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Class 11th Jee Full Syllabus
Class 11th Jee Full Syllabus
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 03/03/2024 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Latest Full Syllabus by NTA
Chemistry: Latest Full Syllabus by NTA
Mathematics: Latest Full Syllabus by NTA
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and last 10 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’
where answer needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer. Only 5 questions have to be attempted out of the last
10 questions of each section.
5. There is only one correct response for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS
IMPORTANT VALUES
2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103 = 0.4770
= 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718
[2]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions force exerted by ring is (G Universal
1. The earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit gravitational constant)
as shown in figure. The ratio OA / OB = x . The
ratio of the speed of the earth at B to that at A is
GMm0
(1) x (2) x (1)
2R
2
(3) x x (4) x GMm0 1 1
(2) −
R 2 5
2. Block B has mass m and is released from rest GMm0 1 1
when it is on top of wedge A , which has a mass (3) −
R 5 2
3m . Determine the normal between the block and
(4) It is not possible to find the required work as
the wedge such that the cord CD doesn't let the the nature of distribution of mass is not know
wedge move while B is sliding down A . Neglect
friction 6. A particle is projected from the ground with an
initial speed of v at an angle with horizontal.
The magnitude of average velocity of the particle
between its point of projection and highest point
of trajectory is (Neglect air drag)
v v
(1) 1 + 2cos 2 θ (2) 1 + 2cos 2 θ
mg 2 2
(1) 2 mg cos (2) cos
2 v
(3) 1 + 3cos 2 θ (4) v cos θ
(3) mg cosθ (4) mg sin 2 2
3. A number of droplets, each of radius r , combine 7. The small marble is projected with a velocity of
to form a drop of radius R . If T is the surface 10 ms −1 in a direction 45° from the horizontal 𝑦-
direction on the smooth fixed inclined plane.
tension, the rise in temperature will be (Assume
Calculate the magnitude 𝑣 of its velocity after 2 s
specific heat and density of liquid both are equal
(take g = 10 m/sec2)
to unity in the unit system followed and no heat
loss to the surroundings)
2T 3T
(1) (2)
r R
1 1 1 1
(3) 2T − (4) 3T −
r R r R
(1) 10 2 ms −1 (2) 5 ms −1
4. A river is flowing from west (W) to east (E) at a (3) 10 ms −1 (4) 5 2 ms −1
speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the
river, capable of swimming at 10 m/min in still 8. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous
water, wants to swim across the river in the sinusoidal displacements in x -direction,
shortest time. Finally he will move in a direction 2
x1 ( t ) = A sin t and x2 ( t ) = A sin t + .
(N → North) 3
(1) tan −1 ( 2 ) E of N (2) tan −1 ( 2 ) N of E Adding a third sinusoidal displacement
x3 ( t ) = B sin ( t + ) brings the mass to a
(3) 30 E of N (4) 60 E of N
complete rest. The values of B and are?
5. A ring having non-uniform distribution of mass 3 4
(1) 2 A, (2) A,
M and radius R is being considered. A point 4 3
mass m0 is taken slowly towards the ring from 5
(3) 3 A, (4) A,
point B to A along its axis. In doing so, work done 6 3
by the external force against the gravitational
[3]
9. Two circular discs are of same material and 14. The displacement of medium particle of a wave
thickness. The diameter of A is twice that of B . disturbance propagating along positive X -axis is
The moment of inertia of A as compared to that
of B about their respective similar axes is
given by (
y = 1 / 1 + x2 ) at t=0 and
The natural length of the spring is R and the 24. A 20-cm-long capillary tube is dipped in water.
spring constant is mg / R , where m is the mass of The water rises up to 8 cm. If the entire
arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the
the ring and R is the radius of the circle. Initially,
length of water column in the capillary tube will
the ring is released from rest from position B and
be________ cm.
it moves towards C as shown in figure. ( N is the
Normal reaction between wire and ring, v is the 25. Two small particles of equal masses start moving
speed of the ring). Match the following in opposite directions from a point A in a
Column-I Column- II
horizontal circular orbit. Their tangential
A N = mg P At position B
velocities are v and 2v , respectively, as shown
B N =0 Q At position C in the figure. Between collisions, the particles
C N = 2 mg R Somewhere between position move with constant speeds. After making how
B and position C many elastic collisions, other than that at A , these
D v = gR S Never two particles will again reach the point A
CODES :
A B C D
(1) Q P, Q R S
(2) P, Q R S Q
(3) R S Q P, Q
(4) S Q P, Q R
[5]
26. An air column closed at one end and opened at the 29. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are
other end, resonates with a tuning fork of 100 divisions on circular scale. When jaws A and
frequency v when its length is 45 cm and 99 cm B are just touching each other without putting
and at two other lengths in between these values. anything between the studs 32nd division of the
Neglecting any end corrections the wavelength of circular scale coincides with the reference line.
sound in air column is_______cm When a glass plate is placed between the studs,
the linear scale reads 4 divisions and the circular
27. Two moles of ideal helium gas are in a rubber scale reads 16 divisions. The thickness of the
balloon at 30°C. The balloon is fully expandable glass plate is N mm (Zero of linear scale is not
and can be assumed to require no energy in its hidden from circular scale when A and B touches
expansion. The temperature of the gas in the each other) value of 100N is
balloon is slowly changed to 33°C. The amount of
heat (in J) required in raising the temperature is 30. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He
25 takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so
nearly _________. (take R = J/mol.K)
3 on. Each step is 1 m long and takes 1s. There is a
28. Two blocks of masses m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 4 kg pit on the road 11 m away from the starting point.
are moving in the same direction with speeds The drunkard will fall into the pit after _______ s.
v1 = 6 m/s and v2 = 3 m/s, respectively on a
frictionless surface as shown in figure. An ideal
spring with spring constant k = 30000 N / m is
attached to the back side of m2 . Then the
maximum compression of the spring after
collision will be ______ cm
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
35. Product
32. How many types of C–C bond (in terms of degree
of carbon atoms connected) are present is the
Number of monochloro structural isomers in
products is?
following compound (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 7
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 36. Which of the following statements is correct with
respect to O 22− ?
33. Which of the following compound cannot show (1) The bond order is 2
geometrical isomerism? (2) Last electron occupies bonding molecular
orbital
(3) It is an example of paramagnetic species
(1) (2) (4) It's highest occupied molecular orbital
(HOMO) has two nodal planes
[6]
CH3 H C– Spin quantum no. is also obtained from
C=C H
37. The structure shows CH C — COOH Schrodinger wave equation
3
CH3
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Geometrical isomerism (1) Only A (2) Only A and B
(2) Optical isomerism (3) Only A and C (4) A, B and C
(3) Geometrical & optical isomerism
(4) none 44. Which reaction involves a change in the electron–
pair geometry (i.e., hybridisation) for the under
38. Which is the incorrect match for the given lined atom?
compounds? (1) BF3 + F– —→ BF4–
(1) Napthalene : Homocyclic & Aromatic
(2) Pyridine : Heterocyclic & Aromatic (2) NH3 + H+ —→ NH4+
(3) Methylcyclopentane : Homocyclic & (3) 2 SO2 + O2 —→ 2 SO3
Saturated (4) H2O + H+ —→ H3O+
(4) Neopentane : Acyclic & Unsaturated
39. Which of the following cannot show geometrical 45. Consider the following reactions:
isomerism? I – 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5 (g); H = – 108 kJ
(1) 1-phenylbut–1–ene II – 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(s); H = –216 kJ
(2) Hex–2–ene If the entropy change for the sublimation of N2O5(s)
(3) 1-Chloroethene
(4) 1-Chloropropene is 180 J/K mol, then the sublimation temperature of
N2O5(s) is
40. Element with electronic configuration as [Ar]18 (1) 300°C (2) 600°C
3d5 4s2 is placed in: (3) 27°C (4) 327°C
(1) 1st group, s-block
(2) 2nd group, s-block 46. Solubility of Zn(OH)2 in pure water is 3 × 10–6 M
(3) 5th group, d-block
at 25°C. The solubility of the Zn(OH)2 in
(4) 7th group, d-block
solution having pH = 12 is
41. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) 2.7 × 10–13 M
(1) One of the favourable conditions for the (2) 5.4 × 10–13 M
formation of an anion is high negative value (3) 9 × 10–12 M
of electron gain enthalpy of an element. (4) 1.08 × 10–12 M
[7]
49. A 250 mL aqueous solution is prepared by 55. Two elements A and B form 0.15 moles of each
dissolving 2.88 g of ferrous oxalate. The A2B and AB3 type compounds. If both A2B and
prepared solution is treated with KMnO4 solution AB3 weigh equally, then the atomic weight of A
in acidic medium. If 60 mL of KMnO4 solution is _____ times of atomic weight of B.
is consumed then the molarity of KMnO4
solution is (Atomic mass of Fe = 56u) 56. How many expression among the following are
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M correct?
(3) 0.16 M (4) 0.67 M (i) For isothermal process wreversible = –nRT ln
Vf
50. The conjugate base of which of the following Vi
molecule may have aromatic nature?
G system
(ii) = −T (at constant P)
STotal
(1) H − TS
(iii) ln K =
RT
(iv) K = e–ΔG°/RT
[8]
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions
61. A circle of constant radius 'a' passes through (3)
( )
n n2 + 1 ( 3n + 4 )
origin 'O' and cuts the axes of co-ordinates in 24
points P and Q, then the equation of the locus of
the foot of perpendicular from O to PQ is (4)
( 2
)
n n + 1 ( 3n + 4 )
12
1 1
( )
(1) x 2 + y 2 2 + 2 = 4a 2
x y
2 1 1
4 (1 – cos 4x ) sin
4 2
4x
( )
(2) x 2 + y 2 2 + 2 = a 2
x
y
67. lim
x→0 x
(1) Is –29/4
2 1 1
( )
(2) Is 29/4
(3) x 2 + y 2 2 + 2 = 4a 2
x y
(3) Does not exist as LHL does not exist
(4) Does not exist as LHL RHL
1 1
(
)
(4) x 2 + y 2 2 + 2 = a 2
x y 68. Equation of a rectangular hyperbola whose
asymptotes are x = 3 and y = 5 and passing
through (7, 8) is
62. A variable chord of circle x2 + y2 = 4 is drawn
(1) xy – 3y + 5x + 3 = 0
from the point P(3, 5) meeting the circle at the
(2) xy + 3y + 4x + 3 = 0
points A and B. A point Q is taken on this chord
(3) xy – 3y + 5x – 3 = 0
such that 2PQ = PA + PB. Locus of 'Q' is
(4) xy – 3y – 5x + 3 = 0
(1) x2 + y2 + 3x + 4y = 0
(2) x2 + y2 = 36
69. The total number of integral values of ‘a’ for
(3) x2 + y2 = 16
which the equation a2 – 2a + 3 = | cosx − 2 | have
(4) x2 + y2 – 3x – 5y = 0
real solution for x is
(1) 4 (2) 6
63. The exhaustive domain of
(3) 2 (4) 3
f(x) = x12 − x9 + x 4 − x + 1 is
(1) [0, 1] (2) [1, ) 70. Let and be two real roots of the equation
(3) [–, 1) (4) R (k + 1) tan 2 x – 2 tan x = (1 – k ) , where k –
1 and are real numbers. If tan2( + ) = 50,
64. Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line then a value of is
(x – 2y + 3) + λ(2x – 3y + 4) = 0 is (λ ∈ R)
(1) x2 + y2 – 3x – 4y – 4 = 0 (1) 10 (2) 10 2
(2) 2x2 + 3y2 + 2x + 4y – 7 = 0 (3) 5 (4) 5 2
(3) x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 3 = 0
(4) x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 3 = 0 71. If p, q, r, s R, then equation (x2 + px + 3q) (–x2
+ rx + q) (–x2 + sx – 2q) = 0 has
65. If x1, x2, x3..., are distinct odd natural numbers not (1) 6 real roots
divisible by any prime number greater than 7, (2) at least two real roots
and the sum to infinite terms of the series (3) 2 real and 4 imaginary roots
1 1 1 (4) 4 real and 2 imaginary roots
, , ,...... is less than a natural number N,
x1 x2 x3
72. If the number of integral solutions (x, y, z) of xyz
then the least value of N is
= 18 is nP2, then the value of n is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 6 (1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 72 (4) 8
66. The co-efficient of xn – 2 in the polynomial
(x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) ……(x – n) is 73. A parabola y = ax2 + bx + c crosses the x-axis at
(α, 0) (β, 0) both to the right of the origin. A
(1)
( )
n n2 + 2 ( 3n + 1) circle also passes through these two points. The
24 length of a tangent from the origin to the circle is
(2)
( 2
)
n n − 1 ( 3n + 2 ) (1)
bc
a
(2) ac2
24
b c
(3) (4)
a a
[9]
74. The locus of the point representing the complex Integer Type Questions
number z for which 81. If the length of the latus rectum of the parabola
|z + 10i|2 – |z – 10i|2 = 20, is (where i = −1 ) 169 {(x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2} = (5x – 12y + 17)2 is L
(1) A circle (2) A straight line then the value of 13L/4 is
(3) A parabola (4) A hyperbola
82. The remainder when 2740 is divided by 12 is
75. The ellipse 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 and the hyperbola
a2 x2 – y2 = 4 intersects at right angles then the z −i
83. Let z be a complex number such that =1
equation of the circle through the points of z + 2i
intersection of two conic is 5
(1) x2 + y2 = 5 and | z | = . If the value of |z + 3i| is k, then the
2
(2) √5(x2 + y2) – 3x – 4y = 0 value of 4k is
(3) √5(x2 + y2) + 3x + 4y = 0
(4) x2 + y2 = 25
3 1
84. If cos + cos = and sin + sin = and
76. If cos β is geometric mean between sin α and 2 2
is the arithmetic mean of and , then sin2 +
cosα, where 0 < α, , then cos 2β = A
2 cos2 is equal to in simplest form, then
(1) sin2α – 1 (2) sin2α + 1 B
(3) cos2α – 1 (4) cos2α + 1 A− B
is equal to
2
77. Triangles are formed by joining the vertices of a
regular polygon of 20 sides. The probability that 85. A 5 digit number is formed by using the digits 0,
no side of the polygon is a side of the triangle, is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without repetition. If probability that
25 30 p
(1) (2) the number is divisible by 6 is (where p, q are
57 57 q
35 40 co-primes), then (q – p) is
(3) (4)
57 57
86. Number of values of x satisfying the equations
78. The mean and variance of 20 observations are 1
found to be 10 and 4, respectively. On 5 {x} = x + [x] and [x] – {x} = is
2
rechecking, it was found that an observation 9
was incorrect and the correct observation was 11.
x2
Then the correct variance is x cot x − 1 +
(1) 3.98 (2) 4.02 87. Value of lim 3 = − 1 , then is
(3) 3.99 (4) 4.01 x →0 x4
79. The number of 4 letter words (with or without
meaning) that can be formed from the eleven 88. If the number of five digit numbers with distinct
letters of the word ‘EXAMINATION’ is digits and 2 at the 10th place is 336 k, then k is
(1) 2418 equal to
(2) 2454
(3) 2440 89. Triangle ABC with AB = 13, BC = 5 and AC = 12
(4) 2460 slides on the coordinates axis with A and B on the
positive x-axis and positive y-axis respectively,
80. The product of all the solutions of the equation the locus of vertex C is a line 12x – ky = 0, then
(x – 2)2 – 3 |x – 2| + 2 = 0 is the value of k is
(1) 2
(2) – 4 90. Two finite sets have m and n elements. The total
(3) 0 number of subsets of the first set is 56 more than
(4) 6 total number of subsets of second set. Then the
value of m + n is
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[10]