11/1012023

Aakash
OBYJUS Time:
Min.
200
corporate Office : Aakash Towe, 8, Pusa
Ph.011-47623456 Road, New Delhi- -110005.
Term Exam-2024_CF+0YM(P2)-TEDAC
MM:720

Topics Covered: Compounts

Physics: ElectromagneticInduction, Alternating Curent, Electromagnetic Waves
The p-Block Elements:
(Group 15-18), Thed &f-Block Elements, Coordination
Chemistry:
Botany: Molecular Basis of inheritance
Disease
Zoology: Human Health &

trom
tons
ques
General Instructions: attemotal35 score.
1. There are two sections in each subject, L.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to total
the
of 15. hom
Section-A &only 10 questions from Section-B out response, -1 mark shall be deducted
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong no marks.
Unanswered/unattempted quesions will be given
3. Use blueblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate cirde. the
4. Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle. materialon
5. Dark only one circle lor each entry. ubbing
oher
Ionly.
6. Dark the circle in he space pinewer
done sheet and do not uSe whilte fuid or any
7. Rough work must not be
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

'sECTION-A
in one cycle
average power dissipaion Circuit IS
The phase diflerence between electric field
3. ne capacitance in a ac
1 in a pure their usual meaning)
and magnetic field by an electromagnetic (symbol have
wave is
(1) cv²
(1) t
2) Zero
N) 0
(3) cv?
(3) 7
(4) (4) cv2
about 4. Magnetic flux is changing through a cosed
2 Select the Wrong statement
electromagnetic waves. circuit is given as = 2r-2 + 1] Wb,
where t is in s. The resistance of circuit is 2
(1) They are transverse in nature 2. The induced current at time (= 2 sis
) Travel with same speed in all media
(3) Travel with the speed of light in vacuum
1) 3A
(4) They are produced by accelerating (2) 2 A
charge (3) 6A
(4) 1A
 L-RcHcut

CFoYM(P2) -TE04C oiven

Tetn va-2024 the
constant of
Figure shows Mn LR Circut. it R1 R=Ry= 10 Time
8 mH
Key
R,

42
R.
(1) 1 ms
T2 ms
(3) 3 ms
The ratio of current in tesistor R1 at a o (4) 4 ms inductanceL is
when switch is cosed and alter steady state constant
solenoid ofself ums
11. Length of a of
numbersolenoid will be
(1) 1:1 doubled keeping ofthe
(2) 1:3 New sell inductance
(3) 2:3 (1) L
3:1 (2) 2L
6
Sl unit of inductance is
) Henry (4) 4
(2) Farad series circuit,
resonance state of LCR is .If he
(3) Coulomb 12. In of oircuit
(4) Micron resonance treguency
made 4
value
imes of initial new
capacitance is the
same, then
7. keeping inductance will be
The effect of eddy current loss in transtormer resonance frequency
is reduced by
1) Using laminated core 3(1) 1
tim es
(2) Using thick wire for winding
(3) Using solid non-laminated core
times
(4) Using thin wire for winding

Current in the long straight wire inis () Tumes

decreasing with time. The induced current
loop 1 and 2 are
(4) 4 times

13. Pure inductors of inductance 6.0 H are

Connected shown in fiqure. The
equivalent inductanceee of the circuit
A and B is between
(1) Clockwise in loop 1 as well as in loop 2
2) Clockwise in loop 1 and anticlockwise
in loop 2
(3) Anticdockwise in loop 1 and
anticlockwise in loop 2 (1) 18 H
(4) Anticlockwise in loop 1 and clockwise (2) 9H
in loop 2 (3) 6H
) 2H
9. Which of the following has the largest
wavelength? 14. If V= 100 sin(100) V and I = 100sin
Radio wave 100A + MA for an A.C. circuit then the
(2) X-ays phase difference between Vand lis
(3) UV rays
(4) IR rays (1) ;

(3) 2
(4)
 Exam-2024 CF+OYMIP2)-TE04C
transtormei
19
Turn rabo of a
15
1092
it a cell step-dowt
ed
of 10 v is connecte0
across
te
ouput

600mH 50uf input, whatis the voltage

(1) 15 V
(2) 10 v
(3) Zero

ductance 5 henny
230V,60Hz 20. In a coil of selt indu rateol
the i nthe
1
at
I
tvanslerred per cycle to electric current is decreasing eml
The average power circuitis ampere per second. The
induced
inductor in the aiven coil is
(1) 25 W (1) 10 V
(2) 17.42 W
(2) -10 V
(3) 16.52 W
Zero (4) -5V
circuit is readingof the
16. Reactance of a senes LCR AC factor of the
equal to the resistance. The power 21. In the circuit given below,
the circuit is equal to voltmeter Vwill be
X=100n
(1) /2
(2)
X= 100 o
R= 100

17. The rms value of the current shown in

fiqure is 300 V, 50Hz
300 V
(2) 150V

(4) 300V3V

22. A : The direcion of croSs-product

TEx Blgives us he directon of
(1) io propagation of E.M. wave.
R:EM. waves are longiudinal in nature
A) Both Asserion &Reason are true and
(3) the reason is the oect
explanaion of
the assertion
(4) (2) Both Asserton &Reason are true but
the reason is not the Correct
220 V 50 explanation of the assenon
18. An elecuic lamp is connected to
Hz AC supply. Then he peak value of ASserion is tue Saement but
is false Reason
voltage is
(1) 210 V (4) Both Asserion and Reason are
stalements false
(2) 220 V
) 311 V
(4) 120 V
Exam-2024 Cr OYMD2)-TE04C

8A
23 A ime dependent changestrom
generates clectiic field magnetic ield 26. WNhen the cunent in a col inducedin the
the emt fthe coil is
RElkectiic
dependent
held produced ty ime Io 2 Ain 3 10 - sec. inductanceof
magnetic
field is coilis 2 V. The sell
conservative in nanture non
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are
(1) 5 mH
the true and
ceason is he correct explanation of J21 10 mH
Ihe assertion (3) 15 mH
) Both ASsertion & Reason are true but (4) 20 mA
the
reason is not
explanation of he assertionthe correct
27 moves with velocity of
A metallic meter stick perpendicular to its
(3) Asserton is tuue stalement but Reason 3 m/s in a direction
a uniform
IS false ength and perpendicular T.to The motional
(4) Botth magnetic fleld of strength 0.5
Assertion and Reason are lalse emt induced beween the ends of the
stick iS
statements
(1) 1V
24. Energy stored in a pure (2 1.5 V
uctance L when a Current i inductor of (3) 2 V
it, is flows through
(4) Zero
(1) L2
(2) 2 L2 28. A rectangle of side length L and breadth
lies in the xy plane. Magnetic field is given
(4) by B = B (2i +3j+ 4k) T where Bo
is constant. The magnitude of magnetic flux
25. The passing through the rectangle is (L and b
magneic field flux (0) in an induction
are in meter)
COil varies with time (0 according to t 4 BoLb Wb
graph as shown in the figure. Choose the
correct graph best represening induced ne (2) 3 BoLb Wb
() in the coil with time emt
(3) 2 BoLb Wb
(4) Zero

29. I(A)

(1)

0.1 >t(s)
Magnetic flux
Q. As a changes in a coil of
result an induced resistanceis
developed
shown in
in it which, varies withcurrent
time as
figure. magnitude of change
flux through
The in
the coil in weber is
(1) 4
(2) 8
2
(4) 6
(3)
30. M100%
flux of a
linked with anothercoilcoilof self inductance L
of self is
then the
coils is coetficient of couplinginductance L
between two
(1) 0.5
(4 1
(3) 0.25
(4) Zero
 Exam-2 024 CEoYMIP2)-TE04 C

an
1 anductor is caled tie neta for 34 A con
maonesucing Wire rame
ele
Rifthe o al inducbon beween two coils paper Theld which
Constatagnetc fie
iS zero, then their seit inductances may not
De zero w n eand
Curent in CD a
AB and
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanaton ot
the assertion A
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is nol the correct
explanation of the assertion
Assertion is true statement but Reason B
IS false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (1) Ato Band C toD
(2) B toA and C to D
3. An R-L circuit having a cell of emt 10 V as (3) A toBarand D toC
shoOwn in figure. The current in the circuit JA Bo A and D to C n per
un
after a long tme will be in
reversed
35 500 c o l
The magneic flux of urn the
in
M indced
200
passing through a emf
52 20 x10 The average
coil in volt is

(1) 2.5
10 VT (2) 7.5
(3) 5.0
A 10.0

(1) Zero

(3) 1A
(4) 0.5A

33. The powwer in AC circuit is given by P=Ems

ns COSp. The value of cosp in series LCR
circuit at resonance is
(1)

(2) 4
(4) Zero

SECTION-B

36. The current in a current growth LR circuit 37. The Q-factor of resonance in a
series LCR
builds upto of its final steady state current resonance circuit,
as he resistance of the
in first 16 ms The ime constant of this LR circuit is decreased,is
circuit may be (1) Increased
(1) 8in2 ms (2) Decreased
(2) 6ln2 ms (3) Zero
(3)ms (4) Remains same

(4)ms
 mExam-2024 CEOYM(P2)-TE04C

agnet talls vertically towards B0

38 AHabar es ts accelerabon is equal to g
43. n RC senes ac ccut as sho
voltineters V and V are
readng of ieal Irespectvely, #en readng t
hetn we Case, no emt is induced and 70 olt
and volteter V,is (Given Xc
& Reason are tue
R ne
(1) Bot Asseton explanation of
eason is the correct
the asseton
are true but
(23 Both Asserbon & Reason
eason Sis not the correct
explanaton of the asserbon
(3) Asserton is true
statement but Reason
s talse
(4) Both Asserton and Reason are talse
statements (1) 60 volt
(2) 10 volt
39 An Lshaped conductor rod is moving in (3) 100 volt
c feld as shown in figure.
transverse may
Potentsal dit heeen ends of he rod (4) 130 volt
m lor a given velocity if the rod is
un direchon 44 Aconducting rod AC of length 31 is rotated
magnetic held
about O in a unitorn
B directed into the paper where AO=land
then te maoniude of potential
ditference V-Veis :(W’Angular speed)

x
(1)
(2) (3i+ 2j) X
X
9 -2i+ 3j) (1)
(4) (i-) (2) t n

40
of primary and
Selt inductatanceupled
secondary ot (3) 2Bul
coils are 4 mH and9 mi
perlec The coeticient of mutual
ectvely
nduwtance between them is
indu radii a
(1) 5 mH 45. Two thin concentric circular wires with
and b lie in the same plane. if b << a, their
(2) 13 mH mutual inductance is
(3) 4 mH

(2)
SConnected
41. A Charged capacitor C30 uF is
to an inductor L 27 mH, The angular
trequency of their oscillations is
(4) Hra'
(1) 600 ads
(2) 1111 radts
(3) 1212 rad/s
46. Magnetic flux through a loop of resistance
(4) 1700 radis 29 changes from 2 Wb to 4Wb. The charge
flown through the loop is
42. In an AC LR senes orcuit, tesistance is G0 (1) 1C
and inductive eactance is 8 0., Select (2) 0.5 C
correct statement
(1) Current leads emt by 53
(3) 2C
(4) 15C
(2) Current leads ent by 37
(3) enl leads current by 53+
(4) emtleads current by 37
 110 v represent the
17
transtormer is used to hght a 100 w, supplv 49. I L,C and R
the
Ouib rom a 220 Vsupply
Curtent is 05 A hen
ranstormer is
he eficiency of the inductance.
then the dimensic
LSsiOnal
respectivelyesislity
capacitance ot
the quantit
X=
(1) 919%
(2) 949% (1) (M°LoA)
(3) 96% (2) (M°LTA9
(4) 98%
(3)M t
48 Rms value of current 3 4 sin
(4) MPLr'A
magnetncheld
(ut+)is
(1) 5A
50. In a region of
at Some
Space he
inctant of
ime
is

is
elecuic field

(2)A
(3) 17 A B-(-i+i)
E-(-i+2k -i)vjm
and the
The poynting

(4)A Jm-2 -l) tor these feld is given

weclor (in

(1) 1o°(-21-j-s)
(2) 10(+-s)
(3) 10(-6j)
4m

(4) 10(7-2+4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Correct order of decreasinn pK, of HCI, HBr,

HI and HE is 54, Reaction which forms NHa(g) as one of the
(1) HCl> HF> HBr> HI product, is
3 HE > HCI> HBr> HI
(1) NaN,
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
NH, CI+ Ca(OH))
(4) HI>HBr> HF> HCI
0 NH, C1I (4 -) +NaNO, (aq -) ’
52. In the reaction of ammonia with excess of
chlorine, an explosive is lormed. The (NH), CH O,9
hybridisation of centtal atom in the explosive
will be 55, Incorrect reaction among the following is
(1) sp (1) xeFs+ NaF’Na'KeF
(2) sp? (2)
(4) sp'd
2xefzt2H20-2Xe+
(3) Xef2 PFs
4HF +O,
KeF PE
xeF +
53. Element having highest density at 298 K in
the following is 56 The maximum
2H20-Xe0,
and
+F+4HF
halogen atoms in minimum number
(1) N
(2) P
respectively are
(1) 7,3
intethallogen compounds
o

(3) As
( Bi
(2) 7,2
(2) 8,2
(4) 8,4
 57. produces lumes in exhibit +2
formaion of moisture due to 64 The lanthanide
which do
not

(1) HaPO, Oxidation state is

) Lu
e HCI (2) Eu
(4) HsPO4 (3) Sm
(4) Yb
S8
In which of he
present lollowing S-S bond is t 65. Which of the foliowing doees not
have dap
(1) H,S,Os Tbond?
(2) H;S;O4 (NaCO,
(2) KAIO,
(4) HS,os (3) SO
(4) KzCr207
In a cyclic timeric
moleDiecule,
metaphosphoric
the number of single
double bonds respectively are bonds acid
and
66. Out of the followino choose the one which is
nat actinoid?
(Y12 and 3
(2) 16 and 3
(1) Uranium (Z=92)
(2) Curiumn(Z96)
(3) 12 6
(4) 16 and
(3) Califonium (Z = 98),
and 4 (4) Samarium (Z =62)
KMnO,
The decomposes when heated at 513 K. 67. Most basic oxide of
chromium is
Slareoxidation state(s) of Mn in the Cro
(1) 47 only products (2) Cro,
(2) +2 only (3) Cro,
(3) +7nd +4 (4) Cr0,
4) +6 and +4
68. in manutacuring of
61. catalyst used is sulphuric acid the

FeSO,gas(X)
gases x and Y are
(1) sO, and O2
+ gas(Y) +
solid(Z)
(1) TiCI4
(2) Fe

2 sO, and SO (4) KHSO,

(3) SO, and O2
(4) SO, and O3 69. The
co-ordination
maximum compound
number of isomers is showing
62. Brass is an alloy of copper and (1) (Co(NHa)4Cla)
Nien) (NH)a+
(2) Tin (3) (Ni(C,Oa)\(en)2l
(3) Nickel J Cr(scN)(NH3)4]
(4) Manganese
70. Elflective atomic
63. The reaction of aqueous
KMnO, with r in ICr(H0)aCi, is number of Cr(Z = 24) in
fainty alkaline medium gives (1) 35
(1) Mn and lz (2) 33
2) MnO, and IO, (3) 36
(4) 34
(3) MnO2 and l2
(4) Mn2 and I0; 71. Ziegler-Natta catalyst contains
(1) Iron
e Titanium
(3) Nickel
(4) Copper
Term Exam-2024 CF+OYM(P2)-TE04C

Jahn
72 Out of the following conmplexes of platinum. srong
77. Which
which
will give only mole of AgCi, when configuration exhibits fekd?
reacts with excess AgNO,? Teller distorion in strong ligandd
(1) PICl 6NH3
(2) PICI SNH3 (2)
(3) PICI 4NH3 (3)
PICIl 3NH3
have
73. In which of the toilowing carbonyls, the bond 78. Which of the following complex willl
length of CO is highest? highest magnetic moment?
) Fe(CO)a (1) Mn(CN)e
(2)
IMn(cO)al (2) (Cr(NH)
(3) (C(co)|]
(4) V(co)sl (4) (Cu(NHJ)a?*
74. Crystal feld splitting
energy (Ag) will be
highest for which complex?
79. The shape of wilkinson's catalyst is
(1) Tetralhedral
() Cr (en),* (2) Square planar
CrFe (3) Octahedral
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) (Cr (CN). 80. Which complex will show magnetic moment
value of 3.87 BM?
75.Given below are two statements: One (1) Mn(CN)i
labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other is
labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): cis-plain is an anticancer
crHzO)
(3) (CoF
Reason (R): cis-plain is (4) (Co(C,O)a
In the light of the above cis-[PICl,Br2)choose
the orrect answer from statements,
the options given 81
below. Correctorder of
family elements is covalent radii of nitrogen
(1) on
Both ASSertion &Reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of
(1) N>P As > Sb >Bi
the assertion 2) N> Bi> Sb> A_>P
( Both Assertion & Reason are true but B>Sb >As >P>N
reason is not the 4) Bi> Sb >P> As >N
explanation of he assertion corect
(3) Assertion is true stalement but Reason 82.
is false Correct order of melsng points of the
(4) Both
Assertion and Reason are false
elements is
(1) Fe > Mn > Cr
qiven
statements
(2) Mn > Fe> Cr
76
Among the ) Cr> Fe> Mn
one which folloing
is outer complex, choose the (4) Cr> Mn > Fe
orbital
exhibits paramagnesc behaviour.complex and
(1) Fe(Co)% 83. Hybridizaton nof
NiNHJla?" central atom in
(3) (ZnCia (2) d²sp3
Ni(CO)4 iS
(4) (Fe(CN) sp
(4) dsp?
mEkam-2024 CEOYM(P2)-TEO 4C

84, The number of P-OP hnkages present un

POois equat to
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five

85. Which of the tollowing is not produced i

Ostwald's process?
(0) NH
2) NO

(3) NO,
(4) HNO,

SECTION-B

statement regarding KMnO4 1S

86. Among the followig highest oxidabon state 89 The incorect solid
iS shown by tis a dark purple crvstaline
2) with KCIO4
(1) Ac (2) Ris isostructural
(2) U (3) is diamagnetic in nature
agent in acidic
(3) Pa oxidisinn
4) iS an
mediun only

atem
87. Given below are vo (A)Statemens One is Lanthanide contraction is responsible
labelled as Assertion and he othe is The
90. for the fact that radius
iabeled as Reasoand W(V) are La have about the sane
Yand
Assertion (A): MO( CrVI).
than
found )
AZand Hf have about the
same radius
stable
to be more the same radius
Reason (R): CrO3 is a onght orange (3) Zr and Nb have
about
have about the same radius
coloured solid.
above statements, choeee (4) La and Nb
In the light of the
nswer from the options given
he COrrect
The correct order of thermal stability
is
Delow 91.
are true and
Both Assertion & Reasonexplanabon (1) IF> BrF> CIF
of
the reason is the correct J2r CIF > BrF> IF
the assertion (3) ICI > IF> Brf
are true but
(2) Both ASserion & Reason the correct (4) BrF> IF> 1CI
not
the reason is assertion
explanation of the
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason 92. Pick out incorrect statement
(1) PHa is more basic than AsHa
is talse
false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are (2) Cl, disproportionates in hot and
statements concentrated NaOH
Ja Bond angle of H2S is greater than H,0 O
88. Coloured ion among the following is (4) HOCI has more oxidising power than
(1) sc HCIO4
(2) TA
93. Which of the following is correcly matched?
(1) Be(OH)2 :Basic hydroxide
(4) Zn2" (2) N50:Neutral oxide
(3) SiO,: Amphoteric oxide
(4) BaO: Acidic oxide
 the
among
94. Corect order of HEH bond angie is (E N, 38. Neutal didentate ligano
P.As. Sb)
(1) SbHa> AsH> PH_> NH3 lowing is
Yen
(2) NH3 PH3> ASHg> SbH3 (2) H0
(3) NH3> PH;> SDH3> ASH3 (3) NH,
(4) PH3> NH> ASH3 SbHa (4) EDTA
foilowingis
95. Which of the following complex is expected 99. Homoleptic complex amongthe
to be the most stable?
(1) (Cr(NH)2(NO)Cll
arICofen)a (2) (PClz(NHa2l
(2) (Co(NH)e
(3) (CoClal
(3) (PrClyn (CaHa)l
(4) (Co(H20)| KalFeCN)el
statementamong he
100. Select the incorrect
96. Correct iUPAC name of following of a metal
K[Fe(CN)s] is
(1) Potassiumcyanateiron() (1) Highest oxidation luonide
oxide than
inits
(2) Potassium cyanateiron(0) stabilizes more is shown by
(3) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(i) (2) Highest oxidation stale
(4) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(i) element ruthenium and ostim metais
Low oxidation state of
tansibon
x Compound
(3)
97.
are found when a compie capabie
Which complex ion has central atom with has ligands that are -bonding.
acceptor in addition to -D0
d'sp hytbridization?
(1) Fe(Hz0)6 Cr,0? has suonger oxidising power
(2) (Mn(H,o)s than MnO;
Fe(CNa
(4) (Zn(NHglsC

BOTANY

SECTION-A
101. Which one is not true
regarding VNTR? 103, Select the
(1) shows very high degree of genome
incorrect statement wrL human
polymorphism
(1) Chromosome 1 has most genes
(2) Itis known as minisatellite (
3 ts size varies trom 0.1 to 20 More than 20 percent of
bp codes for proteins the genome
(4) thas repetitive
sequences (a) Repeated
iarge portionsequences
of human make uo very
102. The last
was
chromosome sequenced in HGP
A
Dystrophin is the largestgenome
gene known human
(1)
(2)
Chromosome-1 in May 2009
Chromosome-Y in May 2006 104. Polymorphism in t
DNA
3
(4)
Chromosome-1 inin May 2006 of

sGenetic sequence is
the basis
Chromosome-X May 2009 mapping of
(c) DNA polymeri9 human genome
(b) DNA fingerprin

esauon
The correct oner in al
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
e(s) islare organisms
( only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)
 CF#OTMP2)-TEos
Term Fyam-202 4
consatshowmany

operon S
205. An
() Aproein that binds t0 an RNA 111. typical nucleoso
and blocks Segnent i r s of DNA
ee halting tachment
polymerase, transcnpbonof DNA 200
(2) A ranscnpbo honally regulated system (2) 100
found in all eukarvotes
eukar (3) 400
(3) A reversibly bound protein that (4) 300 read
enhances he taspuon of particular 3yyc5,will
segment of R 112) The ofRNAtheWIth anticodon 2
Denes
AUnitunder conaining
of DNA a cluster of tollowing codo
which
of a
a repressor
promoter and (1) 3AAGS"
SAAG3
106. Sructural genes of lac-operon (3) 5CAA3"
(4) 3GGAS
6breakdown
Synthesise of enzymes
lactose
required for universal
codons of
(2) Form enzymes that catalyse an 13. All the termination wh Anudeotide, that
anabolic pathway of E. coli codes beoie
genetc
iS
(3) Are not expressed even in the
presence of inducer (1) Adenine
(4) Are monocistonic genes
(2) Cytosine
Uracil
107) UTRS are present on mRNA at (4) Thymine
5-end ater start codon and 3-end code, how
betore stop codon 114. Regarding universal geneut specity any
(2) 5-end before start codon and 3-end many codon(s) doldoes not
after stop codon amino acid?
(1) Two
(3) Only 5-end before start codon
(4) Only 3'-end after stop codon (2) Five
(3) Four
Three
108. An mRNA in a bacterium has following base
sequence
5'AUGAAAUAA3
What is the base sequence in the coding
(115) During transcription in eukaryotes
srand of that DNA from which this mRNA is
(1) RNAPolymerase l synthesises mRNA
transcribed? (2) RNA Polymerasel smthesises rRNA
(1) 5'AATAAAGTA3 R RNA Polymerase ilisynthesises hnRNA
(4) RNA Polymerase ll synthesises mRNA
2j 5'ATGAAATAA3'
(3) 5'TACTTTATT3
116. Genes in eukaryotes
(4) 5'ATCAAATAA3 (a) Have introns
(b) Are split
109. If UUU codes for phenylalanine in almost all (C) Are mostly polycistronic
of the organisms then it shows that The correct ones are

(1) Code is nearly universal m(a) &(b) only

2) Code is degenerate (2) (b) & (c) only
(3) Code is ambiguous (3) (a) &(c) only
(4) All organisms share same genetic (4) All (a). (b) &()
informations
117, In a transcripion unit, the promoter is
110. Select the true statement(s) for AUG. located towards
A. It codes for an amino acid methionine (225end of the template strand
B. Itis an initiation codon (2) 5' end of the coding strand
C.Itis anon-degenerate codon (3) 3 end of the
non-template strand
(1) Only A (4) 3' end of the sense strand
(2) Only Aand B
Only Band C
w All A, B and C
 Exam-2024 CF+OoYMIP2)-TED4 C

d select
18. The discontinuously synthesised ragments 125. Read he leeOWing
of DNA are joined by the enzyme
statements ano
ollorone
he incorrect ke
MDNA ligase (1) Histones
(2) DNA-dependent are rich in amino
DNA-polymerase Ivsine and
(2) The nucler arginine chromainare
seen

(3) Phosphorylase cleosome i

as beads0 n
and
eads on string' sre stained and
(4) Topoisomerase Ja Densely
transe packed, darkiy Cve part of
WS called heterochromain
chromatonaly
119. In whichproved
of the given organisms, Taylor et al,
have
nservative mode of
semiconser
(9) DNA is negatively charged
chromosome replicabon by using H RNA IO
thymidine? 126. If there is a tlow of information
(1) VicIa faba DNA then this process will be named as
(2) E. coli W Reverse ranscription
(3), Pneumococcus (2) Translation
6 Streptococcus (3) Replication
(4) Transtormation
120. In Meselson and Stahl experiment molecule
was used in the medium to 22ZJf in a double stranded DNAnitrogenous
grow E. coli. adenine is 108% of the total
percentage of
the
(1) 15N isotope asts, then what will be
cytosine?
(2) 32p isotope 40%
(3) 35s isotope (2) 609%
(4) H isotope (3) 209%
(4) 10%
121. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic turn of the helix of DNA is
material came from the experiments of 128. One
(1) Francis Crick approximately
(1) 20nm
AlfredHershey and Martha Chase
(3) Oswald Avery
(2) 20 A
(3) 3.4 nm
(4) Colin MacLeod
3.4 A
122. The concept of ranstorming principle was
proposed by 129. Select the incorrect statement wrt structure
(1) Hershey and Chase otpolynucleoide chain
Frederick Gritfith (1) A nitrogenous base is linked to the
pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic
(3) Watson and Crick linkage
(4) wilkins and Frankdin (2) Two nucleotides are linked through 3
5' phosphodiester linkage
123. The number of base pairs in a diploid
Tha
(3) backbone of a polynucleotide
human cell is formed due to sugar and
phosphates
(1) 4.6 10° bp M Phosphate group is linked to OH of 3C
(2) 3.3 x 10° bp of a nucleoside through phosphoester
6.6x10° bp linkage
(4) 6.6 10 bp
130, Choose the odd one wIL
pyrimidine bases.
do not Vo Uracil
124. In prokaryotes such as E. coli, which (2) Thymine
have a defined nucleus, the DNA is
Guanine
(1) Scattered throughout the cell
(2) Held with some basic proteins that (4) Cytosine
have postive charges in nucleoid
8 Organized in large loops held by lipids
in chromosomes
(4) Single stranded
 phosphodiester
rm Eam 2024 COYM(P2)-TEO4C dsONAmoleculehavng
of
be number
131, Aongst e lollowing. whiclh one has least 134. WImat will linear
nugber of ucleotdes in its genome? Obp2
M)174 bactenophage 10 Dp
(2) E coli (1) 20
(3) Humnan (2) 10
(4) Lambda phage 9
(4) 18 a
132. All of the tollowing bonds, are organissms, only
helx, except. found in DNA following presentr
135. in which of thereplicanon is
(1) Hydrogen Dond Sngieorigin of
(2 bond E. Colil
(3
nhedester bond
MPeptde bond
(2) Vicia laba
(3) Puccinia gramins
(4) Euglena viridis
133, in lac operon, y
genevcodes for
(1) Pgatactosidase
(2YPermease
(3) Transacetylase.
(4) Lactase a

136, SECTION-B
Dorminance of RNA world" can be
4)
Presence of attributed 140. Severo Ochoa enzyme
Remoyal of introns
introns and (1) DNApolymerase
isfuncionally a
(3) esors joining of
(2) DNA helicase
Presence of exons
(4) Capping (3) Polynucleoide phosphorylase
(4) Peptidyi transterase
AST.
Replicaton of dsDNA iS
(4) Semiconservative COmnonly 141. Th average
2) consists of gene in the
human genome
(3) Conservative and continuous (1) 24
milion
(4) Conunuous and dispersive (2) 3000 basesbases
Conservative and semi-coninuous (3) 15,000 bases
(4) 300 bases
L36. Technique of DNA
developed by
(1) F. Sanger fingerprinting initial y
was 142. The
number of types
enzymes of
(2) Alec Jeffreys
bacteria needed
is for RA
polymerase
(3)
(4)
Watson and Crick
Jacob and Monod
(1)
(2) 1
(3) 2
eftioet anscripton in

139. Features) (4) s

srucure of providing
DNA stability to the helical
(a) Presence of isfare 143. Wiich of
histone
(b) H-bonds
(c) Pla between tneproteins
Plane of one two srands
the gven act
translation?
(1) Reverse transcriptaseasa
base
other
(Þ) Presence of
Adenine
pair stacking over the (2) 18S RNA
(3) 23S rRNA
tsae during
) (a) and (0) (4) 5S rRNA
(2) (0) only
(3) (b) only
(4) (0) and (C)
xam-2024
required for polymerases
set of proleinshigher
The additional chromain 148. DNA dependent DtNA replicaason any
at level in (1) Initiate the process offandomlyat
kaging ot
(2) Initiate replication one
Pukaryotes are in
(1) Histone proteins place only

(2) Rich in lysine

and arginine (3) Catalyse polymerisation triphosphates as
(3) Polyamines direcion ie..5-3
(4) Non-histone chromosonal proteins (4) Use ribonucleotide in
substrate polymerisation
ONA
145. A cistron
Coding tor 149. The average rate of
(1) Is the segment of DNA E.coli is approximately
polypeptide (1) 1000 bp per second
(2) Contains always only exonssequences (2) 50 bp per second
(3) Has coding and non coding (3) 2000 bp per minute
in bacteria cond
gene (4) 2000 bp per se base
(4) Is not the functional unit of wo
adiacent
approximately
beween
150. The distance
146. Which of the following correctly represents pairs ina DNA
helixisS
central dogma of molecular biology?
DNA (1) 0.34 nm
(1) Protein -’mRNA
(2) 3.4 nm
(2) mRNA’ DNA’ Protein (3) 34 nm
Protein
3) DNA ’mRNA ’ (4) 20 nm
(4) mRNA ’Protein ’ DNA

fulfilled by the
147. All given criteria must be genetic
molecule that can act as material,
except
(1) Should be able to generate its replica
(2) Can express itself in the form of
"Mendelian characters
structurally
(3) Should be chemically and BYYJU
stable
(4) Should provide the scope of fast ,183
mutations
17,
163,
1S8,l60
zOOLOGY

SECTION-A

153. Which of the fllowing is a bacterial disease

151. A bacterial disease characierised by
symptoms like fever, chills, cough, (1) Poli0
headache. In severe cases, the lips and
(2) AIDS
finger nails turn bluish in colour is (3) Small pox
(1) Common cold
4) Diptheria
(2) Dengue
(3) Pneumonia
154, Full orm of MALT is
(4) Polio (1) Mucosa associated lymphocyte tissue
(2) Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
152, Anti-tetanus serum is injected after injury to
give temporary protection. What type of (3) Memory associaed
immunity is provided by i? (4) Memory lymphocyte tissue
(1) Natural acquired passive immuniy
associated lymphoid tissue
(2) Artificial acquired passive immunity
(3) Natural acquired active immunity
(4) Artificial acquired active immunity
Tm Exam-202a CFOYM(P2)-TEO4C

roughpathogen generally
Nph, a
155. Salmonella contarminated lood 161. A disease characterizeo by niernai
enters bleeding. muscular pain anaemia and
and water and later on migrate to other
biockage of intestinal passage s
Organs through B (1) Ascariasis
he opton that Gts Uhe blanks
(2) Malaria
Choose
correcthy (3) Filariasis
A
(4) Tetanus
Absorbed food
(1) Stomach
ntesine 162. Filariasis is also known as elephantbasie
2) MOuth circulano herat
intestinePortal because of
3) Large inesine Blood (1) Enlargement of heart
(4) Smal (2) Enlargement of kidney
(3) Excessive enlargement of body parts
(1) (1)
like legs
22) (4) Excessive enlargement of mammary
(3) (3) glands
(4) (9
below
smotoms listed 163. Select a pair of diseases caused by
o. Read the helminthes
:Loss o aps high lever (39-40*C) (1) Amoebiasis and Malaria
:Sustained pores (2) Polio and Tetanus
: Intestinal
ulcers or
(3) Dengue and 1Chikungunya
N:Constipato
omptoms of which of the
These are (4) Filariasis and Ascariasis
following disease?
(1) Pneumonia
164. Appearance of dry, scaty lesions on various
ASCariasis parts of body Such as skin, nails, scalp
(3) Typhoid accompanied by intense itching are caused
by
(4) Malarna
(1) Microsporum
157. Fenlizaton development in
and (2) Salmonella typhi
Plasmodiurm occurs in which of the following (3) Clostridium tetani,
part of its hos?
(4) Wuchereria
(1) Liver cels of human
oY Gut of female Anopheles mosquito
165. Match the colunn- with column-l wrt
(3) Human RBC barriers of innate immunity and choose the
(4) Haemocoel of female Anopheles ctoption,
mosquitos Column Column-iI
a. Physical barrier ) Saliva in mouth
158. Haemozoin is Physiological
b () NK Cells
(1) Toxin of Thypanosoma barrier
(2) Toxin of Plasmodium species c. Cellular barrier Mucus coating in
() GIT
(3) Toxin of Haemophilus
(4) Breakdown produt of haemoglobin d. Cytokine barrier (iv) Interterons
during malarial inlection (1) a(i), b(). c(), d(v)
(2) a0). b(in), c(ü), d(iv)
159. Plasmodium reproduces asexually in
hurmans in
(3) a0), b(0), c(iv), d(in)
(1) Salivary glands
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d0)
sef RBCs
(3) Stomach wal 166. How many from the following given in the
(4) Intestinal wall box do not act as a physical barrier?
Skin, Mucus membrane, Saliva, PMNL,
Interferons, HCI in stomach, Tears
160, infective stage of Plasmodium for
(1) Sporozoite bumans is (1) Two
2) Gametocyte (2) Five
(3) Merozoite (3) Four
(4) Six
(4) Schizont
 xam-2024_CF+YM(P2)-TE04
bereduced
by

as HIV factory are 174. Symptoms of aliergies

67. Cels which act use of all except
(1) Helper T-cells
(1) Histamine
(2) Macrophages (2) Antihistamines
(3) Nerve cells (3) Steroids
(4) Killer T-cells (4) Adrenaline

working under non-specific

168. Lymphocyte cell 175. Asthma occurs due to
immunity is oreign
(1) Macrophage (1) Collapse of tracheapartoflungs
(2) Fibrosis of upper O tbact
(2) Neutrophils
(3) An respiratorYy
reacion
aallergicaffecting
(3) Monocyte substances
(4) Natural Killer cells fu
(4) Filling of alveoli with carekulyand
Statements
169. Choose the incorrect
statement wrt. the exaggerated

secondary immune response. 176. Read the following

correct answe 0certain
choose the
a system
(1) Vigorous immune response against to Statement X: Allergy enironnment
to which
pathogen on subsequent exposure response of the immut
the same antigen present in hesubstane immune
antigens
(2) Slow and short-lived response against Statement Y: Theponse of allergens.
exaggerated respot caled
pathogens entering again (at the system is producedd
are
second time) in the body are Cote
statements
(3) Such type of immune response is (1) Both incorect
statements are
riggered by memory T-cells oh
(4) Itis also called anamnestic response (3) StatementX is incorrecd
incorrect
(4) Sfatement Yis secondary
as
-170. Structure of an antibody is represented is not a
the tollowing
Which ot tissuelorgan?
177. lymphoid
(1) HaLa intestine
(2) Hglz Peyer's patches of snal
(4)
(3) HzL2 (2) Appendix
(4) Hzb1 (3) Spleen
(4) Thymus
171. Wmat is false about B lymphacytes? diferentiate into
(1) They arise from bone marrow 178. Immature lymphocytes
(2) Acts as a filter of the blood by
rapping
~antigen sensitive lymphocytes in
blood-borne micro-organisms.
(1) Bone marrow
(3) B cells provide humoral immunity (2) Spleen
response
(4) Produce army of proteins in (3) Lymph nodes
to pathogens
(4) Tonsils
autoimmune
172. Mark the odd one out wrt 179. Which of the following is responsible for
diseases.
(1) Myasthenia gravis organ rejection after transplantation?
(2) Rheumatoid athrits (1) Cell mediated immunity
(3) Addison'ste disease (2) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) B-lymphocyte
(4) Dysentery (4) Monocyte
173. Symptoms of allergy arise due to the over
secretion of 180. A bean-shaped organ actng as a
reservoir of erythrocyes. large
(1) IgA
(2) IgD (1) Kidney
(2) Lymph nodes
(3) IgE (3) Spleen
(4) IgG
(4) Thymus
 P2)-TE0ac
(Ee0YN
Term ENam2024 Set of sy
HV ORon t83
can occut bv oebass
181
alotetexcept ocuityheadache
hee
cough,
chid dshare
st of nomai biood and Dlood clos and
(2) B rasts Congesatstyahahetss
intected perso (3) Nas soreabasoe
hr
Coug
(3) Seualc T ethwho take drugs vee ovesu
(4) Drut a S High
appeeoeant
of Antsred
ntavensy
ahch s
Cat spread trom the use ot The Vacone
184 provdeproeecaona3ars
182. Which diseasSies
intected neeoe (2) DPT
(2) Hepasts S (2) 8CG
(2) Armnts (3) MMR
(3) Lver onhoss
(4) Aizhemer's disease (4) ATS aseaseSS
thoeuon ses af
of ne
185 Whch
caused Dy vins
chikunguya
and
(2) Choiera poliomyelts
(2) Rabes and Preumona
Choengox and
(3) ad Amoebass
(4) Leprosy

choose the opaon

189. Rea esnent ac and B
186. Read the olgwing staements wELADS hatcorrectly s the bianikA
ant-resoviral onugs oinogens ndudeontsing
L Treatment of ADS WIt Pys non-onizng
A and
sonly paraly eftectve AIDS S tas e
LA widely used diagnossces br racess keB which causes DNA
ELSA
LADSs a congentai disease leading neoplasac
he ooton with onty correct Carage
rastbrmaton
mentts) 4) A-XY s B-V ays
(2) OntyI (2) A-X-ays B-Gamna rays
2) Only E (3) A-Nrays B- X-ays
(3) land E (4) A-UV rays 8-Gamma ravs
(4) Only (1) (1)
the propemy hat characenses (2) (2)
187. Mark
malgnant umors (3) (3)
(2) Sow growth (4) (4)

2) LOCalsason Da specfic area

only
(3) Ofhern encapsulated 190. Cancer causing agens are called
(4) Meastasis (4) Oncogene
(2) Caronogen
genes are called
188. Cancer causing (3) Angioensinogen
4Oncogene (4) Caronoma
(2) Caronogen
3) Angioersanogen
(4) Caronoma
erm Exam-2024 CE#OYMIP2)-TE04C
coca
191. Is a very eflectve Sedative and
196. Cocaine is
po oblained from Ery o
painkiller and is very usetul for patients post f the
Choose the oplion which hs the
has
intertereeSmulating acho which
hl
correctly. he transp
(1) Catfeine lollowing oeuro ransniteters?
(1) Aceycholne
(2) Cocaine (2) Glycine
3 Morphine (3) Adrenaline
(4) Amphetamine (4 Dopamine
in e
obseved
197. Withdrawal syndrome is euphoria
192. Hashish is included in
) Cannabinoid body when sense of
(1) Drugs produce a abruptty
(2) Coca alkaloids and increased energy is
drugs/alcoohol
(3) Opioids (2 Doses of ers such as
(4) Sedatives discontinued. modite
Biological response
(3) dnterderons pressurised by
are administe
193. Smack is chemically ynduy
(4) A person is
(1) Morphine peers molecule ie
(2) Amino acid antbody
of
(3) Alkaloid o Antgen binding Site only
3 Diacetyimorphine made up of lightchain
region of chain only
(1) Variable
Variable renionoftheaw and heavy
light
194. Identty the below given structure region N-erminal end
(3) Variable
presentat heavy
Chains, bothight and
of
repionatC-erminalend.
(9) Variableresent
chains.
products of
charas are
199. Marijuana and
Papaversomnierum
(1) Cocaine
2Cannabis saiva
(3) Atropa belladona
(2) Amphetamines
) Cannabinoid (4) Daura
(4) Morphine bonds are
interchain disulfide
200. How many of anabody?
of A causes present in lgG type
195 Excessive dosage
hallucinations. fills the
option that correctly (2) 4
Choose the (3)
blanks.
(1) Heroin (4) 8
(2) Benzodiazepines
8)Cocaine
(4) Barbiturates