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Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT- III+IV 111 VERSION
Time: 3.20 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
A1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 4. The reading of a spring balance when

a block is suspended from it in air is
Section A :(1-35) Answer all Questions 60 N. This reading is changed to 40 N
when the block is submerged in water.
1. A and B are two wires. The radius of A The specific gravity of the block is
is twice that of B. They are stretched
by the same load. Then, the stress on 1) 1 2) 2
B is
3) 3 4) 4
1) equal to that on A
5. A vessel containing wate r is in
2) four times that on A equilibrium on a beam balance. When
a man puts his finger into the water
3) two times that on A without touching the bottom or the
sides of the vessel, the scale pan on
4) half that on A which the vessel stands

1) will go down
2. When a spiral spring is stretched by
suspending a load on it, the strain 2) will go up
produced is called
3) will be undisturbed
1) shear strain
4) will be unpredictable
2) longitudinal strain
6. A small ball of density  is immersed
3) volume strain
in a liquid of density      to a depth
4) transverse strain h and released. The height above the
surface of water upto which the ball
3. The breaking stress for a substance is will jump is
106 N m–2. What length of the wire of
this substance should be suspended  
vertically so that the wire breaks under 1)   1 h
its own weight? (Given : density of  
material of the wire  4  103 kg m 3 and
 
g  10 m s 2 ) 2)   1 h
 
1) 10 m
 
3)   1 h
2) 15 m  
3) 25 m
 
4)   1 h
4) 34 m  
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
7. If two soap bubbles of different radii
are connected by a tube
1) air flows from the smaller bubble to
the bigger
2) air flows from bigger bubble to the
smaller bubble till the size s are
interchanged
2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
11. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a
room. It cools from 75°C to 70°C in t1
minute, from 70°C to 65°C in t2 minute
and from 65°C to 60°C in t3 minute.
Then
1) t1  t 2  t 3 2) t1  t 2  t 3

3) air flows from the bigger bubble to 3) t1  t 2  t 3 4) t1  t 2  t 3

the smaller bubble till the size s
become equal.
4) there is no flow of air.
8. When two soap bubbles of radii r1 and
12. 10 g of ice at –20°C is added to 10 g of
water at 50°C. Then the resulting
temperature is (Specific heat of ice=
0.5 cal g–1 °C–1 and latent heat of ice

r2  r2  r1  co alesce, the radi us of  80 cal g 1 )

curvature of common surface is
1) 20C 2) 15C
r2  r1
1) r2  r1 2) 3) 0°C 4) 50°C
r1r2
13. The graph, shown in the adjacent
r1r2 diagram, represents the variation of
3) 4) r2  r1 temperature (T) of two bodies x and y
r2  r1
having same surface area, with time
9. Of the following thermometers, the one (t) due to the emission of radiation.
which can be used to me asure a Find the correct relation between the
temperature from a distance, is a emissivity and absorptivity power of the
two bodies.
1) gas thermometer

2) platinum resistance thermometer

3) thermo-couple thermometer

4) radiation pyrometer

10. On heating a liquid of coefficient of

cubical expansion  in a container 1) E x  E y and a x  a y
having coefficient of linear expansion
 / 3 , the level of liquid in the container
2) E x  E y and a x  a y
will

1) rise
3) E x  E y and a x  a y
2) fall

3) remain almost stationary 4) E x  E y and a x  a y

4) it is difficult to say
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
14. A black metal foil is warmed by u
radiation from a small sphere at 17. The energy density of an ideal gas
V
temperature T and at a distance d. It
is related to its pressure P as
is found that the power received by the
foil is ‘P’. If both the temperature and
the distance are doubled, the power u u 3
received by the foil will be 1)  3P 2)  P
V V 2

1) 16 P 2) 4P
u 1 u 2
3)  P 4)  P
3) 2P 4) P
V 3 V 3

18. During an experiment, an ideal gas is

15. Compressed air in the tube of a wheel fou nd to obey an additional law
of a cycl e at no rmal temperature
suddenly starts coming out from a VP 2  constant . The gas is initially at
puncture. The air inside temperature T and volume V. When it
expands to a volume 2V, the
temperature becomes
1) starts becoming hotter
1) T 2) 2T
2) remains at the same temperature
3) T 2 4) T / 2
3) starts becoming cooler
19. What is the effect on the time period
4) may become hotter or cooler of a simple pendulum, if the mass of
depending upon the amount of water the bob is doubled?
vapour present.
1) halved
16. During an adiabati c proce ss, the
pre ssure of a gas is fo und to be 2) doubled
proportional to the cube of its absolute
t em per at u r e. Th e r at io C p / C  for the 3) become eight times
gas is
4) no effect

3 20. The equation of transverse wave in

1) stretched string is
2

 t x
4 y  5 sin 2   
2)  0.04 50 
3
where distance are in cm and time in
3) 2 second. The wavelength of wave is

1) 15 cm 2) 10 cm
5
4)
3 3) 25 cm 4) 50 cm
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
21. If the length of a second’s pendulum is 25. Starting from the origin a body
increased by 2%, how many second it oscillates simple harmonically with a
will lose per day? period of 2 s. After what time will the
kinetic energy be 75% of its total
1) 3927 s energy:

2) 3727 s
1 1 1 1
1) s 2) s 3) s 4) s
3) 3427 s 6 4 3 12

4) 864 s 26. Two pulses in a stretched string whose

22. A spring-mass system oscillates in a
car. If the car acce lerates on a
horizontal road, the fre quency of
oscillation will
centres are initially 8 cm apart are
moving towards each other as shown
in the figure. The speed of each pulse
is 2 cm/s. After 2 s. the total energy
of the pulses will be

1) increase

2) decrease

3) remain same
1) zero
4) become zero
2) Purely kinetic
23. The displacement of a particle varies
with time as x = 12 sin t  16 sin 3 t 3) Purely potential
(in cm). If its motion is SHM, then its
maximum acceleration is 4) Partly kinetic and partly potential

27. A tuning fork of known frequency 256

1) 144 2 2) 12 2 Hz makes 5 beat/s with the vibrating
string of a piano. The beat frequency
4) 36 2 decreases to 2 be at/s whe n the
3) 192 2
tension in the piano string is slightly
increased. The frequency of the piano
24. Surface tension of soap solution is string before increasing the tension
N was
25  103 . The excess pressure inside
m
a soap bubble of diameter 1cm is: 1) 256  5 Hz

1) 20 Atmosphere 2) 256  2 Hz

2) 20 Pa
3) 256  2 Hz
3) 20N
4) 256  5 Hz
4) 10 Atmosphere
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

28. Read the two statements carefully to
mark the correct option out of the
options given below.
1) If both the statements are true and
the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of statement 1
30. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a
straight line under the action of force
F   8  2x  N . The particle is released
at rest from x = 6m. For the subsequent
motion match the following (All the
values in the column II are in their
S.I. units)

2) If both the statements are true but Column  I Column  II

statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1  A  Equilibrium  p  / 4
position at x
3) If statement 1 true but statement 2  B  Amplitude of q   / 2
is false SHM is
 C  Time taken to r 4
4) If statement 1 is false but statement
2 is true go directly from
x  2 to x  4
Statement 1 : The fundemental  D  Energy of SHM s  2
frequency of an open organ pipe is
increases as the temperature i s
increased
1) A   r  ; B   s  ; C   q  ; D   r 
Statement 2 : As the temperature
increases, the veloci ty of sound 2) A   s  ; B   r  ; C   q  ; D   s 
increases more rapidly than length of
the pipe. 3) A   r  ; B   q  ; C   s  ; D   r 

29. The equation of stationary wave along 4) A   q  ; B   s  ; C   r  ; D   r 

a stretched string given by
31. Six moles of an ideal gas performs a
x cycle as shown. If the temperature are
y  5 sin cos 40t , where x and y are
3 TA = 600K, TB = 800K, TC = 2200K and
in cm and t in second. The separation TD = 1200K, the work done per cycle is
between two adjacent nodes is

1) 1.5 cm

2) 3 cm

3) 6 cm

1) 20 KJ 2) 30 KJ
4) 4 cm
3) 40 KJ 4) 60 KJ
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
32. Given below are two statements : one
34. The speed (v) of a particle moving along
is labelled as Assertion and the other
a straight line, when it is at a distance
is labelled as Reason. In the light of
(x) from a fixed point on the line, is
the statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given by: v 2  144  9x 2
given below:

1) Assertion is correct but Reason is Column -I Column-II

not correct
Motion is simple harmonic 2 unit
i p 3
2) Assertion is not correct but Reason of period
is correct ii
Maximum displacement
q 12 units
from the fixed point is
3) Both Assertion and Reason are Maximum velocity of
iii r 27 units
correct and Reason is the correct the particle
explanation of assertion
Magnitude of acceleration
4) Both Assertion and Reason are iv at a distance (S) s 4 units
correct but Reason is not the correct 3 units from the fixed point is
explanation of Assertion

Assertion : It is not possible for a Now, match the given columns and
system, unaided by an external agency select the correct option from the codes
to transfer heat from a body at lower given below.
temperature to another body at higher
temperature Codes
1) i-p; ii-q; iii-r; iv-s
Reason: A ccording to Clausiu s
statement. “No process is possible 2) i-s; ii-r; iii-q; iv-p
whose sole result is the transfer of 3) i-p; ii-s; iii-q; iv-r
heat from a cooled object to a hotter
4) i-r; ii-p; iii-s; iv-q
object.
35. Choose the incorrect statement
33. A pendulum of length '  ' is suspended regarding sound waves :
from the roof of a lift. When the lift is 1) Longitudinal sound waves can travel
stationary, T is the time period. When through solids, liquids and gases while
the lift moves with an acceleration ‘a’ transverse sound waves can travel only
through solids and strings
 4T 
time period becomes   . What will 2) Velocity of sound depends on
 5 
temperature, humidity, molecular
be the value of ‘a’?
mass and atomicity of the medium but
is inde pe ndent of pressure if
9g 9g temperature is constant
1) upwards 2) downwards
16 16 3) Velocity of sound depends on
3g 3g elasticity and inertia of the medium
3) upwards 4) downwards
5 5 4) Sound is a mechanical wave whose
speed in a medium depends always on
frequency
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Section B: (36-50) Answer any 10 Qns. 39. At what temperature, rms velocity of
O 2 molecu le s will be 1/3 of H 2
36. A transverse progressive wave is given molecules at –3°C?
by the e quation
y  2 cos    0.5 x  200t   1) 90 K

2) 1167°C
Where x and y are in cm and it in
second. Which of the following 3) –3°C
statements is true for this wave?
4) 207°C
1) Wavelength 2 cm and velocity 400
cm s–1 40. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic
curves are related as
2) Wavelength 2 cm and amplitude 2
cm 1) Isothermal curve slope = adiabatic
curve slope
3) Wavelength 4 cm and frequency 100
hertz. 2) Isothe rmal curve slope
   adiabatic curve slope
4) Amplitude 2 cm and frequency 200
hertz.
3) Adiabatic curve slope    isothermal
37. Two forks A and B produce 3 beats/s. curve slope
Forks B and C produce 5 beat/s. A and
C will produce.... beat/s. 4) Adiabatic curve slope
1
1) 8 2) 21 3) 6 4) 4   isothermal curve slope
2
38. Three masses of 500 g, 300 g and 100 41. A lead bullet at 27°C just melts when
g are suspended at the end of a spring stopped by an obstacle. Assuming that
as shown, and are in equilibrium. 25% of heat is absorbed by the obstacle,
When the 500 g mass is removed, the then the velocity of the bullet at the
system oscillates with a period of 2 time of striking is nearly (Melting point
second. When the 300 g mass is also of lead = 327°C, spe cific he at of
removed, it will oscillate with a period
of lead  0.03 cal / g / C , l atent he at of
fusion of lead  6 cal / g and
J  4.2 J cal1 )

1) 410 m s 1

2) 1230 m s 1

3) 307.5 m s 1

4) None of these
1) 2 s 2) 4 s 3) 8 s 4) 1 s
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
42. The internal energy of the gas
increases
1) in adiabatic expansion
2) in adiabatic compression
8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
46. A small steel ball falls through a syrup
at a constant speed of 10 cm s–1. If the
steel ball is pulled upwards with a
force equal to twice its effective weight,
how fast will it move upward?

3) in isothermal expansion 1) 10 cm s–1

4) in isothermal compression 2) 20 cm s–1

43. Hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in 3) 5 cm s–1

the first 10 minute and to 42°C in the
next 10 minute. The temperature of
the surroundings is 4) 0

1) 5°C 47. A piece of ice is dropped in a vessel

containing kerosene. When ice melts,
2) 10°C the level of kerosene will

3) 15°C
1) rise
4) 20°C
2) fall
44. Air is drained out of a soap bubble. The
pressure 3) remain the same

1) increases
4) none of these
2) decreases
48. In a resonance column experiment to
3) remains unchanged measure the velocity of sound, the first
resonance is obtained at a length l 1
4) becomes equal to atmosphe ri c and the second resonance at a length
pressure. l2. Then,

45. A liquid wets the containing vessel

when 1) l2  3l1

1) cohesive force is more than adhesive

force l1
2) l2 
3
2) cohesive force is less than the
adhesive force
3) l2  3l1
3) cohesion is absent
4) may be any of the above, depending
4) adhesion is absent on the frequency of the tuning fork
used
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
49. Using a given tuning fork, a student 53. The ionization constant of ammonium
obtains 20.4 cm and 61.8 cm as the hydroxide is 1.77×10 –5 at 298K.
first and second resonance lengths. If Hydrolysis constant of ammonium
velocity of so und in air at room chloride is
temperature is 331.2 m s–1, frequency
of fork used is 1) 6.50×10–12 2) 5.65×10–13

1) 480 Hz 2) 512 Hz 3) 5.65×10–12 4) 5.65×10–10

3) 400 Hz 4) 256 Hz 54. Which of the following pairs

constitutes a buffer?
50. The relative density of a metal may be
found by hanging a block of the metal 1) HCl and KCl
from a spring bal ance . In air the
2) HNO2 and NaNO2
balance reads  5.00  0.05 N while in

water it reads  4.00  0.05 N . The 3) NaOH and NaCl

relative density would be quoted as 4) HNO3 and NH4NO3

1)  5.00  0.05  55. The covalency and oxidation state

respectively of boron in [BF4]– are
2) 5.00  11% 1) 3 and 4

3)  500  0.10  2) 4 and 3

3) 4 and 4
4) 5.00  6%
4) 3 and 5
CHEMISTRY
56. Which of the following oxidation states
Section A : Answer all Qns. (51-85) are the most characteristic for lead
and tin respectively?
51. Which of the following is least likely
to behave as Lewis base? 1) +2, +4 2) +4, +4

1) H2O 2) NH3 3) +2, +2 4) +4, +2

3) BF3 4) OH– 57. Which of the following does not show

electrical conduction?
52. In a buffer solution containing equal
concentration of B– and HB, the K b 1) Diamond
for B – is 10 –10 . The pH of buffe r
solution is 2) Graphite

1) 10 2) 7 3) Potassium

3) 6 4) 4 4) Sodium
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
58. Carbon and silicon belong to (IV) 62. Names of some compounds are given.
group. The maximum coordination Which one is not in IUPAC system?
number of carbo n in commonly
occurring compounds is 4, whereas
that of silicon is 6. This is due to CH3

1) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2CH3

1) availability of low lying d-orbitals
in silicon CH2CH3

2) large size of silicon 3-Methyl-4-ethylheptane

3) more electropositive nature of

silicon 2) CH3 CH CH CH3

4) both 2 and 3 OH CH3

3-Methyl-2-butanol
59. The most suitable method of
separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and
para-nitrophenols is 3) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3
1) Chromatography CH2 CH3
2-Ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene
2) Crystallisation

3) Steam distillation
4) CH3 C C CH(CH3)2
4) Sublimation
4-Methyl-2-pentyne
60. Correct order of reactivity of following
alkyl halides towards Nucleophilic 63. The structure of diphenyl methane,
substitution with OH– is,
RF RCl RBr RI

1) RF<RCl<RBr<RI CH2
2) RI<RBr<RCl<RF

3) RCl<RBr<RF<RI How many structural isomers are

possible when one of the hydrogen in
4) RI<RCl<RBr<RF
diphenyl methane is replaced by a
61. Base strength of chlorine atom?

1) 6
H 3C CH 2 , H 2 C  CH and H  C  C
(i) (ii) (iii) 2) 4
is in the order of
3) 8
1) i > iii > ii 2) i > ii > iii

3) ii > i > iii 4) iii > ii > i 4) 7

FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

64. The IUPAC name of the compound 67. In the Kjeldahl’s method for
given below is estimation of nitrogen present in a
soil sample, ammonia evolved from
0.75g of sample neutralized 10mL of
CH3 1M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen
in the soil is
H3C
CH3
1) 37.33

CH3 2) 45.33

3) 35.33
1) 4-ethyl -3-methyloctane
4) 43.33
2) 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
68. The structure of isobutyl group in an
3) 2, 3-diethylheptane organic compound is

4) 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane 1) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2

65. Among the following compounds the

one that is most reactive towards CH3
electrophilic nitration is
2) CH3 C
1) Benzoic acid
CH3
2) Nitrobenzene
CH3
3) Toluene 3) CH CH2
CH3
4) Benzene
4) CH3 CH CH2 CH3
66. Nitrogen detection in an organic
compound is carri ed out by
Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour
69. Which amongst the following is the
formed corresponds to which of the
most stable carbocation?
following formulae?

1) Fe 3[Fe(CN)6]2 1) CH
+ 2) CH3
3 CH2

2) Fe 4[Fe(CN)6]3
CH3
3) Fe 4[Fe(CN)6]2 +
3) CH3 CH 4) CH3 C +

4) Fe 3[Fe(CN)6]3 CH3 CH3

FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
70. When the hybridization of carbon 75. Which of the following has zero dipole
atom changes from sp 3 to sp 2 and moment?
finally to sp, the angle between the
hybridized orbitals 1) 1-Butene
2) 2-Methyl-1-propene
1) decreases gradually
3) cis-2-Butene
2) decreases considerably
4) trans-2-Butene
3) is not affected
76. Dihedral angle in staggered form of
4) increases progressively ethane is

71. In sodium fusion test of organic 1) 0° 2) 120°

compounds, the nitrogen of the organic 3) 60° 4) 180°
compound is coverted into
77. Match the following
1) Sodamide

2) Sodium cyanide

3) Sodium nitrite

4) Sodium nitrate

72. Which of the following compounds will

not undergo Friedal-Craft’s reaction
1) a  s; b  p; c  q; d  r
easily?
2) a  p; b  s; c  r; d  q
1) Nitrobenzene 2) Toluene
3) a  q; b  r; c  p; d  s
3) Cumene 4) Xylene
4) a  r; b  q; c  s; d  p
73. Reactivity of hydrogen atom in free
radical substitution reaction is, 78. Assertion (A): The pH of a 0.2 M aq
solution of CH3COONH4 is half the pH
1) tertiary > primary > secondary of 0.1 M aq. solution of the same salt
Reason (R): The pH of an aq. solution
2) primary > secondary > tertiary
of the salt of a weak acid and weak
3) secondary > primary >tertiary base is independe nt of the
concentration of the solution
4) tertiary > secondary > primary
1) Both A and R are true and (R) is
74. A compound is treated with NaNH2 to the correct explanation of (A)
give so dium sal t. Ide ntify the 2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
compound not the correct explanation of (A)
1) C2H2 2) C6H6 3) (A) is false but (R) is true

3) C2H6 4) C2H4 4) is true but (R) is false

FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

79. Which is the correct order of atomic 82. In the following reaction
radii for group 13 elements?
1) B < Ga < Al < ln < Tl O
2) B < Al < Ga < ln < Tl
C
3) B > Al > Ga > ln > Tl N 
conH 2SO 4
con HNO3
.
4) Ga  Al  B  ln  Tl
H
80. Statement I: The correct IUPAC name
for the compound The structure of the major product ‘X’
is

CH3 is 1-methyl cyclopentane

O
Statement II: The IUPAC name of the 1) C NO2
N
compound is 3-

cyclopentylprop-1-ene H

1) Both statement I and statement II

are correct
NO2 O
2) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect C
2)
3) Statement I is co rrect bu t N
statement II is incorrect
H
4) Statement I is incorrect bu t
statement II is correct
81. Statement I: The IUPAC name of O
citric acid is 2-hydroxypropane
1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid 3) C
Statement II: When more than two N
like functional groups are directly
attached to a carbon chain, then the H NO2
parent chain does not include the
C-atoms of the functional groups
1) Statement I is co rrect bu t O
statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect bu t C
statement II is correct 4) NO2 N
3) Both statement I and statement II
H
are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
83. Statement I: According to Huckel’s Section B: (86-100) Answer any 10 Qns.
rule an aromatic compound must have
planar cyclic structure 86. Which of the following does not obey
Huckel rule?
Statement II: The compound must
have cycl ic rotati on o f (4n+2) 
electrons
1) 2)

1) Both statement I and statement II

are correct
CH3
2) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect 3) 4)

3) Statement I is co rrect
statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect bu t
statement II is correct
84. Isopropyl bromide on Wurtz reaction
gives
bu t
87. Assertion(A): Lassaigne’s test is not
shown by diazonium salts
Reason (R): Diazonium salts lose N2
on heating much before than they
have a chance to react with fused
sodium

1) Both A and R are true and (R) is

1) Hexane the correct explanation of (A)

2) Propane 2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is

not the correct explanation of (A)

3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane 3) (A) is false but (R) is true

4) is true but (R) is false

4) Neohexane
88. Assertion(A): Alkanes having more
85. Ethylene reacts wi th Bae yer’s than three carbon atoms exhibit chain
reagent to give isomerism

Reason(R): All carbon atoms in

1) glycol alkanes are sp3 hybridized

2) acetaldehyde 1) Both A and R are true and (R) is

the correct explanation of (A)
3) oxalic acid 2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
4) ethyl alochol
3) (A) is false but (R) is true

4) (A) is true but (R) is false

FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
89. The distillation technique most suited 92. The IUPAC name of
for separating glycerol from spent lye
in the soap industry is CH3CHOHCH2CH (CH3)CHO is

1) Simple distillation 1) 2-hydroxy-4-methylpentanal

2) Fractional distillation 2) 4-hydroxy-2-methylpentanal

3) Steam distillation 3) 2-hydroxy-3-methylpentanal

4)Distillation under reduced pressure 4) 2-methylpent-4-ol-1-al

90. Among the following carbocations the 93. Assertion: TlCl is more stable than
order of stability is TlCl3

 Reason: +1 oxidation state of heaviest

I) Ph 2 C CH 2 Me element is more stable than +3 due
to inert pair effect

II) PhCH 2CH 2 C HPh 1) If both assertion and reason are
correct and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion

III) Ph 2 CH C HMe
2) If both assertion and reason are
correct, but reason is not the correct
 explanation of the assertion
IV) Ph 2 C(Me) C H 2
3) If assertion is correct, but reason
1) IV > II > I > III is incorrect

2) I > II > III > IV 4) If assertion is incorrect, but reason

is correct
3) II > I > IV > III
94. If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8×10–12, the molar
4) I > IV > III > II solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1M AgNO3 is:

91. The enolic form of acetone contains 1) 8×10–12 M 2) 8×10–10 M

1) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 3) 8×10–11 M 4) 8×10–13M

lone pair
95. Which of the following cannot act as
2) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bonds and 2 Lewis acid?
lone pairs
1) BCl3 2) AlCl3
3) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2
lone pairs 3) SiF4 4) CCl4

4) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1

lone pair
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
96. For the reaction 100. In Lassaigne’s test, when both N and
S are present blood red colour is
obtained. This is due to the formation
CO  g   Cl2  g   COCl2 (g) the Kp/Kc of
is equal to
1) ferric ferrocyanide

1) RT 2) ferric cyanide

3) ferric thiocyanate
2) RT
4) ferric hydroxide
3)1/RT
BOTANY
4) 1.0 Section A :(101-135) Answer all
Questions
97. Inert pair effect is predominant in
101. Who first saw and described a living
1) Si cell

1) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
2) Pb
2) Robert Hook
3) Ge
3) Schwann
4) Sn 4) Rudolf Virchow

98. Among the following, the one having 102. Which of the following is not a
longest chain is: prokaryotic cell

1) Cyanobacteria
1) Neopentane
2) Archaebacteria
2) Isopentane
3) Mycoplasma
3) 2-methylpentane 4) Yeast

4) 2,2-dimethylbutane 103. Why capsule is advantageous to a

bacterium
99. Which of the following hybridization 1) It provides means of locomotion
has maximum s-character?
2) It allows bacterium to resist host’s
1) sp immune system

3) It allows the bacterium to attached

2) sp2
to surface

3) sp3 4) Both 2 and 3

4) All have same s-character

FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

104. Which of the following is common to 108. During non-cyclic electron transport,
all eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell. PS I receive electrons from

1) PS II
1) Mesosome
2) Primary electron aceptor
2) Cell wall
3) H2O
3) Plasma membrane
4) O2

4) Chromosome 109. Which of the following can participate

in cyclic electron transport
105. 9+0 arrangement found in
1) Grana thylakoid only
1) Axoneme of flagella 2) Stroma lamellae

2) Centriole 3) Granna lamella, stroma lamella and

stroma
3) Basal body of flagella
4) Grana lamella only

4) Both 2 and 3 110. Terminilization occur during

106. Which of the following is/are 1) Mitosis

enucleated
2) Diakinesis
1) Medullary ray 3) Meiosis II

2) Companion cell 4) Cytokinesis

111. Meiosis II performs

3) Sieve tube
1) Seperation of sex chromosome
4) Both 1 and 3
2) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
107. For the synthesis of one molecule of
sucrose through Calvin cycle, the 3) Seperation of homologous
requirement of ATP and NADPH 2 is chromosome
respectively
4) Seperation of chromatids

1) 30 and 24 112. Spindle fibres are attached to

chromosome in the region of
2) 24 and 36
1) Centrosome 2) Centromere
3) 36 and 24
3) Centriole 4) Kinetochore

4) 18 and 12
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
113. Which of the following is present in 118. During cyclic electron transport ATP
reaction centre of PSII. synthesis occur in accordance with

1) Chlorophyll a 2) Chlorophyll b 1) Uphill movement of electrons

3) Xanthophyll 4) Both 1 and 2 2) Downhill movement of electrons

114. Select wrong state ment about 3) Pumping of hydrogen ion from lumen
photolysis of water to stroma

1) It is absent in all prokaryotic 4) Both 2 and 3

organisms
119. Which of the following is/are green
2) During oxidation of water, electrons house C3 plant
are transferred to PS II
1) Maize
3) H+ ions are released into the lumen
2) Sorghum
4) Both 1 and 3
3) Bell pepper
115. Which of the following occur during C4
cycle in C4 plants 4) Both 1 and 2

1) Photorespiration 120. Select correct statement/s from the

following
2) Calvin cycle
A) In C4 plants photolysis of water is
3) Carboxylation occuring in bundle sheath cells

4) Both 1 and 3 B) In C4 plants temperature tolerance

capacity is higher than that of C3 plants
116. Photorespiration occurs during
C) In C4 plants primary carboxylation
1) High CO2 reaction during photosynthesis is
taking place in mesophyll cells
2) Low CO2
D) CO 2 concentration is a major
3) Low O2 limiting factor in all C4 plants

4) CO2 : O2 is nearly equal E) C 4 plants are growing only dry

tropical area.
117. The least effective light in
photosynthesis 1) All are correct

1) Red 2) Blue 2) Only B and C are correct

3) White 4) Green 3) A, B, C are correct

4) B and D only are correct

FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
121. Which of the following plant show 125. Which of the following is also known
photorespiration as dicarboxylic acid cycle

1) Bell Pepper 1) C4 cycle

2) Tomato 2) C3 cycle

3) C2 cycle
3) Maize
4) Kreb’s cycle
4) Both 1 and 2
126. Which of the following organism show
122. In mitochondria, ATP synthesis is aerobic respiration only
known as
1) Mycoplasma
1) Cyclic phosphorylation
2) Yeast
2) Non cyclic phosphorylation
3) Chlorella
3) Oxidative phosphorylation
4) Archaebacteria
4) Photophosphorylation 127. Which of the following is both electron
and proton acceptor in respiratory
123. Net gain of water in aerobic electron transport system in
respiration, when one molecule of mitochondrion.
glucose is completely oxidized is
1) Plastocyanin 2) Cytochrome C
1) 12 molecule of H2O
3) Ubiquinone 4) FAD
2) 6 molecule of H2O
128. During the oxidation of NADH 2 by
3) 3 molecule of H2O respiratory electron transport system,
the first electron acceptor is
4) Zero molecule of H2O
1) FAD 2) FeS
124. Select true stateme nt from the 3) O2 4) FMN
following
129. In oxidative phosphorylation, the
1) CO 2 is an end product of all energy for the production of proton
respiration gradient is

2) Around 30% of energy of glucose is 1) Oxidation energy of NADH2

released during anaerobic respiration
2) Reduction energy of FADH2
3) In all anaerobic respiration RQ value
is zero 3) Oxidation -reduction energy

4) Reduction energy of NADH2

4) In anaerobic respiration there is
oxidation of reduced coenzyme
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
130. Match the following 133. During drought, plants develop a
hormone called

1) Indole acetic acid

Column I Column II
2) Naphthalene acetic acid
a) 2,4-D 1) Human urine
3) Indole butyric acid
b) Auxin 2) Synthetic auxin
4) Abscisic acid
c) IBA 3) Selective weedicide
Assertion and Reason type
d) NAA 4) Natural auxin
134. Assertion (A) : Meiosis II is known as
equational or homotypic division.
1) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Reason (R) : Meiosis II produces same
2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 number of chromosome in cell

3) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2 1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
4) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
2) A is false but R is true
131. Formation of phelloge n from
parenchyma cell is 3) A is true but R is false

1) Differentiation 4) Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A
2) Dedifferention
135. Assertion (A) : Glycolysis is the first
3) Redifferentiation step of respiration in which glucose
completely breakes into CO2 and H2O
4) Maturation
Reason (R) : In this process, there is
132. Find out the incorrect statements from net gain 10ATP.
the following
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
1) All cells of a plant are descendents but Reason is NOT the corre ct
of zygote explanation of Assertion

2) Development is the sum of growth 2) Assertion is false but Reason is true

and differentiation
3) Both Assertion and reason are false
3) Growth is regarded as one of the
most fundamental and conspicuous 4) Both Assertion and Reason are true
characteristics of a living being and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
4) Growth is reversible permanent
increase in size of an organ or its part
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Section B: (136-150) Answer any 10 140. Bakanae disease of Rice is due to

Qns.
1) NAA
136. Tonoplast is associated with
2) 2,4-D
1) Ribosome 2) Polysome
3) IAA
3) Mesosome 4) Vacuole
4) GA
137. Endomembrane system includes :
141. Select wrong statement from the
a) ER b) Lysosome following

c) Vacoule d) Peroxysome 1) Seed dormancy and abscission are

controlled by more than one PGR
e) Mitochondria
2) PGR is the most important genomic
1) a, b and d 2) a, b and c control that effect plant growth and
development
3) a, d and c 4) a,c and d
3) Light and tempe rature are the
138. Non-sister chromatids exchange important extrinsic factors that control
segments during plant growth and development

1) Leptotene 2) Diplotene 4) PGRs may act synergistically or

antagonistically
3) Zygotene 4) Pachytene
142. Ethylene increase yield in cucumber
139. Select correct option by

1) Increasing internodal elongation

Column I Column II
2) Delay senescence
A) Synapsis 1) Anaphase II
B) Synthesis of RNA & protein 2) Zygotene 3) Promote female flower formation
C) Action of enzyme recombinase 3) G2 phase
4) Promote parthenocarpy
D) Centromere do not separate but 4) Anaphase I
chromosome move towards 143. Select the mismatched one from the
opposite poles 5) Pachytene following

1) A-1, B-2, C-5, D-4 1) Human urine Auxin

2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5 2) Gibberella fujkuroi Bakanae disease

3) Herring fish DNA Ethylene

3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
4) Aged leaves of plants Abscisic acid
4) A-2, B-3, C-5, D- 4
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
144. Which of the following is common to 148. Which of the following are required for
both mitochondrial and chloroplastic conversion of pyruvic acid to Acetyl
Electron transport chain and Co.A
phosphorylation
1) NADP, Co.A, FAD
1) Cytochrome b6-f oxidation
2) NAD, Co. A, FAD
2) NADP reductase

3) FAD 3) Co.A, NAD, Mg++

4) ATP synthesis 4) Co.A, NAD, FAD

145. Biochemical objective of PS I in non- 149. Assertion (A) : C 4 photosynthetic

cyclic photophosphorylation pathway is more efficient than C 3
pathway.
1) Phosphorylate ADP
Reason (R) : Photorespiration is
2) Oxidation of NADP reductas
common in C4 plants.
3) Photolysis of water
1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
4) Reduce NADP the correct explanation of A

146. Which of the following external factor, 2) A is false but R is true

affect photosynthesis more indirectly
rather than directly 3) A is true but R is false

1) Temperature
4) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
2) light

3) CO2 150. Assertion (A) : Specialization of cells

is useful for organisms
4) Water
Reason (R) : It incre ase s the
147. In chloroplast ATP synthesis occurs due operational efficiency of organisms.
to
1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
1) Fascilitated diffusion of hydrogen ion the correct explanation of A
through CF0 part of ATP complex
2) A is false but R is true
2) Conformational changes in the CF1
particle of ATP synthesis
3) A is true but R is false
3) Pumping protons from lumen to
stroma of chloroplast 4) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
4) Both 1 and 2
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 23
ZOOLOGY
Section A : Answer all Qns (151-185)
151. Erythroblastosis foetalis is:
1) Destruction of RBCs of mother by
foetal Rh antibodies
2) Haemolysis in foetus due to
maternal Rh antibodies
3) Haemolysis in foetus due to
maternal ABO antibodies
4) Destruction of RBCs of mother by
foetal ABO antibodies
152. Absence of anti-A and anti-B in the
plasma and presence of Rh antigen in
RBC is seen in person with blood group
1) A-positive
2) A-negative
3) AB-positive
4) O-positive
153. Prevention of erythroblastosis foetalis
is by:
1) Passive immunizing the mother
against Rh-positive factor soon after
child birth
2) Passive immunization to be carried
out during parturition
3) Destruction of Rh-positive cells in
foetus by anti-Rh antibodies
4) Fresh blood transfusion to the
mother immediately after child birth
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
154. All statements are true about AV-
valves except:
1) These valves close and ope n
passively with the pressure gradient
forces
2) They prevent the backward flow of
blood from ventricles to atria during
ventricular systole
3) Opening of these valves i s
responsible for the first heart sound
4) Chordae te ndinae attaches AV
valves to ventricular wall
155. Rupture of chordae tendinae:
1) Help the AV valves to close
2) Prevent the bulging of AV valves into
the atria during ve ntricular
contraction
3) Causes entering of blood into the
atria during ventricular systole
4) Has no effect on blood circulation
156. Semilunar valves open when:
1) Pressure in pulmonary artery &
aorta exceeds the pressure in the
corresponding ventricles
2) Pressure in ventricles exceeds than
pressure in the pulmonary artery &
aorta
3) Pressure in left atrium is more than
the pressure in the left ventricle
4) Pressure in right atrium is more
than the pressure in the right ventricle
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

157. The second heart sound is associated 161. In human body which one o f the
with following is anatomically correct?

1) Closure of AV valves 1) Collar bones – 3 pairs

2) Floating ribs – 2 pairs

2) Closure of tricuspid valve only
3) Vertebrochondral ribs – 7 pairs
3) Closure of semilunar valves
4) Vertebrosternal ribs – 3 pairs
4) Closure of mitral valves
162. The type of joint between the human
158. What is correct about safe blood cranial bones is
transfusion?
1) Cartilaginous joint
1) Recipient’s RBC should not contain
antigens against donor’s serum 2) Hinge joint

2) Recipient’s serum should not contain 3) Fibrous joint

antigens against donor’s antibodies
4) Synovial joint
3) Recipient’s serum should not contain
antibodies against donor’s antigen 163. The total number of cervical, thoracic
and lumbar vertebrae comes to
4) Recipient’s RBC should not contain
antibodies against donor’s antigen 1) 24

159. When skeletal muscle shortens in 2) 33

response to stimulation, there is:
3) 26
1) Decreased length of I and H zones
4) 27
2) Decreased length of A band
164. Pick the true statements with
3) Decreased length of A and I bands reference to human beings.

4) Increased length of H zone I. Vertebral column consists of 26

bones
160. Red muscle fibers have:
II. Vertebra is dorsally placed.
1) Increased sarcoplasmic reticulum
III. Neural canal in vertebra is for the
passage of spinal cord.
2) Fast and strenuous work
IV. Sternum is dorsally placed.
3) Thick muscle fiber
1) II, III and IV 2) I, III and IV
4) Increased mitochondria
3) I, II and IV 4) I, II and III
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111]
165. Which of the following statements is
correct with regard to muscle
contraction?
i) Actin filament slide out of A-band
ii)The process of contraction continues
till the calcium ions are pumped back
to the sarcoplasmic cisternae
iii) Muscle contraction continues, as
long as the troponin binds with Ca2+
iv) Length of actin filament reduced,
while the length of myosin filament
remains same.
1) II, III and IV 2) I, III and IV
3) I, II and IV 4) II and III
166. Which of the following is not a feature
of proximal convoluted tubule ?
1) Tubular cells have brush border and
are rich in mitochondria
2) Responsible for active reabsorption
of 70-80% sodium from filtrate
3) Conditional reabsorption of water
taking place
4) 100% of glucose and amino acids
are reabsorbed
167. The presence of albumin in the urine
is most likely due to
1) Damage to the Malpighian
corpuscles
2) Decrease in blood osmotic pressure
3) Increase in blood pressure
4) Damage to the proximal convoluted
tubule
25 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
168. Which is true regarding re nin
secretion ?
1) Increase d GFR cau se s re nin
secretion
2) ANF stimulate the secretion of renin
3) Decreased Na+ in blood increases
renin secretion
4) Vasopressin stimulate s the
secretion of renin
169. In the kidney, obligatory reabsorption
of water (PCT) differs from conditional
reabsorption of water,because it,
1) occurs by active processes
2) responsible for the reabsorption of
70-80% water
3) influenced by ADH
4) influenced by aldosterone
170. The counter current mechanism that
mai ntai n me dullary interstitial
osmolarity is largely dependent upon
active transport of NaCl from
1) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
2) Distal convoluted tubule
3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
4) Collecting tubule
171. Identify the correct statement
regarding urine formation.
1) To prevent diuresis, ADH facilitates
water reabsorption from the latter
parts of the renal tubule
2) Maxi mum re absorpti on of
electrolytes occurs in Henle’s loop
3) Counter current mechanism works
around the glomerulus and PCT
4) A decrease in blood pressure can
increase the glomerular filtration rate
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 26 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
172. Which of the following layers comes 174. Match the Column I with Column II
first when we see from lumen of and choose the correct option
glomerular capillary ?
1) Endothelium
2) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule Column I Column II
3) Basement membrane Carries blood to the
i) Loop of Henle A.
kidney
4) Podocyte
Area where the
173. Type of physiological function taking considerable amount
place in part A, B, C, D & E ii) Renal artery B.
of reabsorption
takesplace
iii) PCT C. K+, H+ secretion
iv) Glomerulus D. Filtration of blood
Plays a role in
v) DCT E.
concentration of urine

1) i-E; ii-A; iii-B; iv-D; v-C

2) i-C; ii-D; iii-A; iv-B; v-E

1) A-Ultrafiltration; B-Active
reabsorptio n; C-Co ncentration of
urine; D-Reabsorption of H+ and K+; E-
Conditional reabsorption of Na +
facilitated by ADH
2) A-Ultrafiltration; B-Concentration of
urine; C-Active reabsorption; D-
Reabsorption of water facilitated by
ADH; E-Conditional reabsorption of Na+
facilitated by aldosterone
3) i-D; ii-C; iii-B; iv-A; v-E
4) i-A; ii-B; iii-C; iv-D; v-E
175. All of the following hormones mediate
their major effects without actually
entering the target cell except:
1) Aldosterone

3) A-Ultrafiltration; B-Active 2) Insulin

reabsorptio n; C-Co ncentration of
filtrate; D-Reabsorpti on o f water 3) Growth hormone
facilitated by ADH; E-Co nditional
re absorption o f Na + facili tated by 4) Glucagon
aldosterone
4) A-Glomerular filtration; B-Active 176. Which of the following hormones does
reabsorptio n; C-Co ncentration of not need a second messenger ?
urine; D-Reabsorption of water
facilitated by ADH & aldosterone; E- 1) FSH 2) LH
Reabsorption of H+ and NH 3 3) Glucagon 4) Oestrogen
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 27 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

177. Which of the following hormones is 181. Signs and symptoms of diabe te s
synthesized by neurosecretory mellitus is/are:
neurons?
1) Hyperglycemia
1) Somatostatin
2) Glycosuria
2) Somatotropin
3) Formation of ketone bodies
3) Epinephrine
4) All of the above
4) Nor-epinephrine
182. Arrange the following steps in correct
178. True statement regarding simple goitre sequence found during the mechanism
is of lipid insoluble hormone function.

1) It is the enlargement of thyroid A) Second messenger formation

gland
B) Binding to the surface receptor
2) Increased level of iodine in blood
C) Physiological response
3) Increased BMR
D) Biochemical response
4) Associated with increased thyroid
hormones secretion 1) C, A, B, D

178. Regarding parathyroid hormone, the 2) D, B, A, C

following statements are true except:
3) B, A, C, D
1) Increases calcium level in blood
4) B, A, D, C
2) Stimulates mineralisation of bone
183. Read the following statements and
3) Stimulates reabsorption of calcium choose the correct one.
by renal tubules
1) The sodium-potassi um pump
4) Its cellular effects are mediated transports 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into
through second messenger axoplasm

180. ACTH is most effective in stimulating 2) The electrical potential difference

the secretion of: across the resting plasma membrane
is called action potential
1) Cortisol
3) Depolarization is due to efflux of
2) Adrenal androgenic hormones protein from axoplasm

3) Aldosterone 4) Repolarisation occurs due to efflux

of K+
4) Adrenaline
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 28 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

184. In a resting neuron, the fluid outside 187. Match the hormone in column I with
the axon contains their function in column II and select
the correct option
a) Low K+ b) High Na+

c) High K+ d) Low Na+

Column I Column II
1) Both a & b 2) Both b & c Prepare endometrium
1) FSH A)
for implantation
3) Both a & d 4) Both c & d Develop female
2) LH B) secondary sexual
185. When stimulus is applied at site ‘A’ on
characters
a polarized membrane, the site ‘A’
becomes freely perme able to the Contraction of uterine
3) Progesterone C)
inward movement of ........... ions wall
Development of
1) Ca++ 2) K+ 4) Oestrogen D)
corpus luteum
Maturation of Graafian
3) Na+ 4) All the above E)
follicle
Section B: (186-200) Answer any 10 Qns.

186. Match the column I with column II and 1) 1-E; 2-D; 3-A; 4-B
select the correct option
2) 1-C; 2-D; 3-A; 4-B

Column I Column II 3) 1-D; 2-C; 3-B; 4-A

Afferent nerve Relays impulse from the
1) A)
fibre CNS to skeletal muscles 4) 1-A; 2-B; 3-C; 4-D
Somatic neural Impulse from tissues/
2) B)
system organs to the CNS 188. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.
Impulse from CNS to the
Efferent nerve
3) C) concerned peripheral Reason: The membranes of neurones
fibres in a polarised state is responsible for
tissues/organs
excitability
Autonomic Impulse from CNS to the
4) D)
neural system involuntary organs
1) If both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A

1) 1-B; 2-A; 3-C; 4-D

2) If both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A
2) 1-C; 2-D; 3-A; 4-B

3) 1-D; 2-C; 3-B; 4-A 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

4) 1-A; 2-B; 3-C; 4-D 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 29 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

189. Assertion: Rapid spasm in muscle is 192. Statement I: Androge ns promote

termed as tetany. erythropoiesis

Reason: Tetany is usually caused by

an increased blood calcium level Statement II: They produce catabolic
effects on protein and carbohydrate
1) If both A and R are true and R is metabolism
the correct explanation of A

2) If both A and R are true but R is not 1) Both statement I and statement II
the correct explanation of A are correct
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 2) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
190. Assertion: In amphibians and reptiles’
double circulation is incomplete.
3) Statement I is correct but statement
Reason: In amphibians and reptiles, II is incorrect
the left atrium receives deoxygenated
blood and right atrium re ceive
oxygenated blood. 4) Statement I is incorrect but
statement II is correct
1) If both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
193. Statement I: In fish, ammonia is
2) If both A and R are true but R is not generally excreted by diffusion across
the correct explanation of A body surface or through gill surface as
NH4+
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

Statement II: Kidne ys play a
191. Statement I: Each branch of axon significant role in the excretion of NH4+
terminates as a bulb like structures
called synaptic knob.
1) Both statement I and statement II
Statement II : Synaptic cleft possess are correct
synaptic vesicles containing chemicals
called neurotransmitters.
2) Both statement I and statement II
1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
are correct

2) Both statement I and statement II 3) Statement I is correct but statement

are incorrect II is incorrect

3) Statement I is correct but statement

II is incorrect 4) Statement I is incorrect but
statement II is correct
4) Statement I is inco rrect bu t
statement II is correct
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 30 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
194. Statement I: Each organized skeletal
muscle in our body is made of a 196. Vein is a blood vessel which carries
number of muscle bundles or fascia. blood

Statement II: Fascicles are held 1) Away from the heart

together by a common collagenous
epithelial tissue layer called fascia.
2) Towards the heart

1) Both statement I and statement II

are correct 3) Has oxygenate d blood without
exception

2) Both statement I and statement II

are incorrect 4) Carry only deoxygenated blood

3) Statement I is correct but statement 197. Deoxygenated blood is found in;

II is incorrect

1) Pulmonary vein
4) Statement I is inco rrect bu t
statement II is correct
2) Aorta
195. Statement I: In most of the molluscs,
blood pumped by the heart passes
3) Pulmonary artery
through minute vessels into open
spaces.
4) Carotid artery
Statement II: In Periplaneta blood
pumped by the heart is always
circulated through a closed network 198. Ammonotelism, ureotelism and uri-
of blood vessels and precisely cotelism are exhibited respectively by:
regulated.
1) Aquatic amphibia, Terrestrial am-
1) Both statement I and statement II phibia and land snail
are correct
2) Reptiles, Frog and land snail
2) Both statement I and statement II
are incorrect
3) Bony fish, land snail and cartilage
fish
3) Statement I is correct but statement
II is incorrect
4) Aquatic insect, mammals and aquatic
amphibia
4) Statement I is inco rrect bu t
statement II is correct
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 31 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
199. The last two pairs of ribs are named 200. Which of the following function is not
floating ribs, because relevant to catecholamines?

1) their sternal parts are attached to 1) Sweating and pupilary dilation

the sternum directly
2) Increased alertness
2) their sternal parts are attached on
the seventh pair of ribs 3) Glycogenolysis

3) their sternal parts remain free and 4) Synthesis of lipids and proteins
do not even reach the sternum

4) None of the above

 Test Booklet Code
13- 03- 2024 Batch : ODD BATCH
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT- III+IV 111 VERSION
Time: 3.20 hrs.
P+C+B- Key with Hints
A1
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS
1. 2
2. 1

3. 3

4. 3

5. 2
6. 1
7. 1

8. 3

9. 4
10. 3
11. 1
12. 3
13. 3
14. 2
15. 3

16. 1
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
17. 2

18. 3

19. 4
20. 4

21. 4

22. 3

23. 4

24. 2
25. 1
26. 2
27. 4
28. 1

29. 2
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
30. 1
31. 3
32. 3
33. 1

34. 3

35. 4

36. 3

37. 1

38. 4

39. 4

40. 3
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

41. 1

42. 2
43. 2
44. 1
45. 2
46. 1
47. 2
48. 1
49. 3
50. 2
CHEMISTRY
51. 3

52. 4

53. 4
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

54. 2

55. 2
56. 1 Inert pair effect
57. 1
58. 1

59. 3

60. 1

61. 2

62. 1
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

63. 2

64. 1
65. 3

66. 2

67. 1

68. 3
69. 4
70. 4
71. 2
72. 1
73. 4 Due to stability of free radical
74. 1

75. 4
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

76. 3

77. 1
78. 3
79. 1
80. 1
81. 3
82. 2
83. 1
84. 3
85. 1
86. 2
87. 1
88. 2
89. 4
90. 2

91. 2

92. 2
93. 1
94. 2
95. 4

K p  K c  RT 
n
96. 3

97. 2
98. 3
99. 1
100. 3
FT24Z/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[111] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

BOTANY
101. 1 121. 4 131. 2 141. 2
111. 4
102. 4 122. 3 132. 4 142. 3
112. 4
103. 4 123. 2 133. 4 143. 3
113. 1
104. 3 124. 4 134. 4 144. 4
114. 1
105. 4 125. 1 135. 3 145. 4
115. 3
106. 3 126. 3 136. 4 146. 4
116. 2
107. 3 127. 3 137. 2 147. 4
117. 4
108. 1 128. 4 138. 4 148. 3
118. 2
109. 2 129. 3 139. 4 149. 3
119. 3
110. 2 130. 3 140. 4 150. 4
120. 2

ZOOLOGY

151. 2 191. 3
161. 2 171. 1 181. 4
152. 3 192. 3
162. 3 172. 1 182. 4
153. 1 193. 3
163. 1 173. 3 183. 4
154. 3 194. 2
164. 4 174. 1 184. 1
155. 3 195. 3
165. 4 175. 1 185. 3
156. 2 196. 2
166. 3 176. 4 186. 1
157. 3 197. 3
167. 1 177. 1 187. 1
158. 3 198. 1
168. 3 178. 1 188. 1
159. 1 199. 3
169. 2 179. 2 189. 3
160. 4 200. 4
170. 3 180. 1 190. 3