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GENERAL ADMINISTRATION QUESTIONS

Time Left: 59:55


1. The first country to adopt RTI is.

sweden usa uk india

2. The first state in India to adopt RTI.

j&k tamilnadu maharashtra odissa

3. The state still not implemented RTI Act till august 2019 is

j& k tamilnadu maharashtra odissa

4. RTI act came into force in India

15 th june 2005 12th october 2005 12th october 2000 none

5. Main Objectives of RTI Act.

make government machinery content promote all of the


accountable corruption transparency. above

6. Form for writing RTI application.

prescribed as rti a1 prescribed as rti prescribed as per rti no prescribed


form. form b. norms. form.

7. An RTI application is made in

english hindi official language of the area all of the above

8. Through RTI Any citizen of India (applicant) can seek information of public interest from all
covered

central govt units state government units. both none

9. Central Information Commission constituted under

sub scetion 1 of section sub scetion 1 of section sub scetion 1 of section


none
12 15 13

10. Central Public Information Officer designated under

sub scetion 1 of section sub scetion(2) of section sub scetion1 of section


none
5 5 15

11. Central Assistant Public Information Officer designated under

sub scetion 1 of section sub scetion2 of section sub scetion 1 of section


none
5 5 15

12. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioner appointed under

subsection 1 of section subsection 2 of section subsection 3 of section


none
13 13 12

13. PA means.

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public authority provision authority. punishable authority. none

14. PIO means.

public information officer public intimation officer public initiation officer none

15. APIO means

assistant pio additional pio accountable pio none

16. CPIO and SPIO means

cental pio and state central pio and system citizen pio and system
none
pio pio pio

17. The duties to of PIO is .

to receive application on to assign number of to scrutinize applications


all of
behalf of ncw and request under r.t.i act and find out concerned
the
acknowledge them with and to enter it in a section to whom request
above
date on such requests register with number. is to be forwarded.

18. Appellate Authority is

senior rank to apio senior rank to pio. both none

19. who are responsible for receiving and managing RTI applications

pio apio spio none

20. who are responsible only for receiving applications and passing them on to PIOs.

jpio apio spio none

21. If an APIO receives an application, they must forward it to the relevant PIO

immediately within 5 days within 15 days within 30 days

22. The RTI Act allows the PIO only -- extra days over and above the limit of 30 days to give
information to the applicant if the request is forwarded through the APIO.

5 10 20 30

23. Appellate authority has to decide the case in

20-30 days 30-45 days immediately none

24. The citizen has the right to send a complaint to the Information Commission if the APIO or PIO
does not accept his application and proven guilty, the APIO or PIO may be fined from a minimum of
Rs.------ up to a maximum of Rs.--------- for each offence.

200, 2000 250, 25000 2000, 200000 none

25. Time Limit for Information Commision to supply information is -----days

20 30 45 no time limit

26. As per RTI applicant can

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inspect works, take certified all of


take notes, extracts or certified
documents, samples of the
copies of documents or records
records. material above

27. Application fee for RTI is.

rs 10 /- rs 20/- rs 100/- none

28. For getting information through RTI one has to pay

rs 2 per page of information provided for the fee is different for


both none
central government departments different states

29. Fee for inspection of documents is.

there is no fee for first hour but after one hour one has to pay rs. 5 for
both none
of inspection every subsequent hour.

30. Which are exempted from RTI

national security, parliament cabinet papers & commercial trade all of the
&privileges confidence secrets above

31. Time limits in RTI.

48 hours for information if the interests of a third party are


concerning the life and liberty of involved then time limit will be 40 both none
a person days.

32. Who has the power to impose the penalty on PIO.

appellate authority. information commission. both none

33. RT 2005 acts Replaces Freedom of Information Act ----

2000 2002 2003 none

34. RTI relaxes restrictions placed by Officials Secrets Act

2000 2002 1923 none

35. Maximum Time gap for 1st appeal in RTI is ------------- days

30 45 90 120

36. Maximum Time gap for 2nd appeal in RTI is ------------- days

30 45 90 120

37. Central information commision contains one chief commisioner and upto --no of central
information commissioners

6 8 10 12

38. Nof Sections in RTI 2005 act are

21 32 31 6

39. Recognition of RTI 2005 act is ensured under Article -- of the constitution

art 18 art 17 art 19 none

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40. Section 1 of RTI 2005 act deals with

short titles definitions designation of pio obligation of public autority

41. Section 2 of RTI 2005 act deals with

short titles definitions designation of pio obligation of public autority

42. Section 5 of RTI 2005 act deals with

short titles definitions designation of pio obligation of public autority

43. Section 4 of RTI 2005 act deals with

short titles definitions designation of pio obligation of public autority

44. Section 7 of RTI act 2005 deals with

request for obtaining disposal of exemption from disclosure of


none
information request information

45. Section 8 of RTI act 2005 deals with

request for obtaining disposal of exemption from disclosure of


none
information request information

46. Section 10 of RTI act 2005 deals with

request for obtaining information disposal of request severability none

47. Section 12 of RTI act 2005 deals with

constitution of cic constitution of sic appeal penalities

48. Section 20 of RTI act 2005 deals with

constitution of cic constitution of sic appeal penalities

49. Chief information Commissioner holds office for -- years

5 10 65 none

50. Information for Payment in RTI act 2005 the form prescibed is

form-a form - b form - c none

51. RTI laws are also referred to as

anti-government open-government laws and black anti-development


laws sunshine laws laws laws

52. The long title of the RTI Act seeks to promote the following qualities in the working of every
public authority:

transparency punctuality efficiency reputation

53. Time limit for filing second appeal under sub-section (3) of Section 19 is ---------days from the
receipt of FAAS decision

10 90 45 60

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54. APIO has to forward second appeals to:

pio the head of the authority first applete authority none

55. Which provision of the RTI Act explains about transfer of the application to another public
authority?

section 6(1) section 7(2) section 6(3) none

56. Which provision of the RTI Act discusses third party information?

section 10 section 9 section 11 section 20

57. Long title of the RTI Act talks of how many types of Information Commissions?

3 2 1 4

58. How many countries in the world have Freedom of Information or Right to Information
legislations / regimes?

none all less than a dozen over 80

59. The definition of information under Section 2 (f) includes

records opinions documents all

60. The Preamble to the RTI Act states that transparency of information is vital to:

eradicate corruption contain corruption promote corruption measure corruption

61. Record as defined by the RTI Act, 2005 does include:

manuscript fax copy of a document material produced by a computer all

62. Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for inspection of records, for the first hour of
inspection:

10 free 15 none

63. Section 4 (1) (b) (xii) states that a public authority should publish:

particulars of recipients particulars of particulars of recipients of


all
of concessions recipients of permits authorisations granted

64. What is the time limit for a Public Information Officer for providing requested information
concerning the life and liberty of a person?

It has to be provided Same time limit as providing It has to be provided


none
immediately. any other information. within 48 hours

65. The Preamble argues that it is expedient to provide for furnishing certain information to citizens
who:

ignore it disregard it desire to have it. none of the above

66. How many countries in the world have Freedom of Information or Right to Information
legislations / regimes?

none all less than a dozen over 80

67. The definition of information under Section 2 (f) includes:

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records opinions documents all

68. Whose decision shall be final regarding computation of the period of 20 years as the time period
till which information is to be given?

cic sic vigillance central government

69. The Right to Information Rules, 2012 mandate the application, excluding any annexure and
addresses of the PIO, should not contain more than

300 words 400 words 500 words 200 words

70. Fees under the Right to Information Rules, 2012 can be paid in any of the following modes

cash demand draft bankers cheque all

71. Certain intelligence and security organisations established by the Central Government that are
excluded from the purview of the `RTI Act, 2005 is stated in -schedule of

first second third fourth

72. Right to information includes the right to obtaining information in the form of:

diskettes floppies tapes all

73. RTI is closely aligned with the Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India of

right to equality right to freedom right against exploitation none

74. The Preamble argues that revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with:

other private interests other financial interests other public interests none

75. The Right to Information Rules, 2012 supersede the following Rules

rti (regulation of fee and cost) Rules, 2005 cic appeals and procedures both none

76. There are certain exemptions with respect to the information that can be provided under the
`RTI Act, 2005

true false

77. The Act requires the designation of ____.within a `Public Authority`

pio's apio's senior officer's to hear appeals all

78. Time limit for filing second appeal under sub-section (3) of Section 19 is:

10 days from the 90 days from the 45 days from the 30 days from the
receipt of faas receipt of faas receipt of faas receipt of faas
decision decision decision decision

79. Right to information includes the right to taking:

notes extracts certified copies of documents or records all

80. No of Levels RTI Act

two three four twelve

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81. According to Rule 3 of the Right to Information Rules, 2012, an application for information under
the RTI Act should be accompanied by a fee of:

10 20 5 25

82. Transfer of an application should be made as soon as practicable but in no case later than --------
days from the receipt of the application

10 20 30 5

83. Section 3 of the RTI Act states that all citizens shall have the right to information subject to

rti act discretions of pio convenience of public authrity none

84. APIO has to receive the following from the citizens:

applications for information first appeal second appeal all

85. Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for inspection of records, for each subsequent
hour of inspection:

2 3 5 10

86. Section 4 (1) (b) (xi) states that a public authority should publish:

the budget allocated to each of proposed reports on


all
its agency expenditures disbursements made

87. Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for providing information of a page in A-3 or
smaller size is:

2 3 5 10

88. The RTI Act gives right to seek information from the following

private companies mnc public authorities associations

89. Which provision of the RTI Act discusses third party information?

section 10 section 11 section 12 none

90. Under the Right to Information Rules, 2012, fee for providing information, for a Diskette or
floppy:

10 20 50 15

91. How much time does an APIO, at the most , have to forward an RTI application/appeal to the
Public Information Officer/First Appellate Authority

30 days 20 days 25 days 5 days

92. In sec-2 of RTI ACT 2005 2(h) refers to

information third party right to information public autority

93. In sec-2 of RTI ACT 2005 2(i) refers to

information record right to information public autority

94. In sec-2 of RTI ACT 2005 2(n) refers to

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information record right to information third party

95. In sec-2 of RTI ACT 2005 2(j) refers to

information record right to information third party

96. To prevent the complete denial of information just because a portion of it falls under an
exemption comes under which section of RTI ACT2005

10 8 24 11

97. Which section in RTI deals with the information must be treated as confidential by the third
party.

10 8 24 11

98. Section ----- of the Right to Information Act, 2005, deals with protection of action taken in good
faith.

21 22 18 19

99. Grounds for exemption from disclosing information (national security, personal privacy,
commercial confidentiality etc.) comes under -section of RTI ACT 2005

9 10 20 8

100. The decisions of the Information Commissions are final and cannot be challenged in a court of
law, except on the grounds of jurisdictional error.

true false

101. customer care Number for Landline from BSNL mobile or land line

1500 1800-345-1500 both none

102. customer care Number for Landline from Other Operators of mobile or land line

1500 1800-345-1500 both none

103. customer care Number for Broad Band from BSNL mobile or land line

1504 1500 both none

104. customer care Number for Broadband from Other Operators of mobile or land line

1504 1800-345-1504 Both None

105. Customer Care number for Enterprise Services( MPLS VPN / ILL / MNS / Bulk SMS / Dark Fibre
etc)

18004257007 9482157007 57007 None

106. SMS Short code number for BSNL for Enterprise Services( MPLS VPN / ILL / MNS / Bulk SMS /
Dark Fibre etc)

18004257007 9482157007 57007 None

107. SMS for other operators for Enterprise Services( MPLS VPN / ILL / MNS / Bulk SMS / Dark Fibre
etc)

18004257007 9482157007 57007 None

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108. Leased Line Call Centre

1800-425-1957 1800-425-1907 1800-425-1977 None

109. Customer Care Number for GSM Postpaid / Prepaid From BSNL Mobile or Land Line is

1503 1800-180-1503 1800-425-1957 None

110. Customer Care Number for GSM Postpaid / Prepaid From Other operator Mobile or Land Line is

1503 1800-180-1503 1800-425-1957 None

111. Customer Care number for WLL / CDMA from BSNL Mobile or land line

1501 1502 1504 1503

112. Customer Care number for WLL / CDMA from other operators Mobile or land line

1800-180-1503 1800-180-1502 1800-180-1504 None

113. Customrer Care Number for FTTH

1500 1501 1502 1800-345-1500

114. PGRMS means

public grievance public grievance public guidence


redressal management redressal maintanance redressal maintanance none
system system system

115. PGRMS number for Land Line is

198 1500 1800-345-1500 None

116. SCP code 180 is for

lucknow kolkatta ahmedabad hyderabad

117. SCP code 345 is for

lucknow kolkatta ahmedabad hyderabad

118. SCP code 425 is for

lucknow bangalore ahmedabad hyderabad

119. SCP code 424 is for

lucknow bangalore ahmedabad hyderabad

120. CPGRAMS means Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System

true false

121. platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any
subject related to service delivery is

cppp gem cpgrams none

122. In CPGRAMS Every Ministry and state have --------based access to this system.

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role time work flow work

123. CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through a standalone mobile application

patang umang wmang wing

124. the Department aims at picking up a minimum of -----------grievances per year through
CPGRAMS based on the seriousness of the issue

1000 2000 400 none

125. After the closure of grievance, if the complainant is not satisfied with the resolution can be
reappealed through giving the rating of

poor poverty low false

126. The status of the Appeal can also be tracked by the petitioner with the grievance by ---number

authentication number key number registered number none

127. Issues that are not taken up for redress are

personal and family disputes rti matters subjudice cases all

128. In Redressal ---------- notification implies that the assessment has been done on the Local
Office

examined at out no action as taken up with subordinate


none
level required organization

129. The grievance raised has been rejected and the complainant is notified for the same in the
acknowledgement letter along with a reason to reject it.

examined at out no action as taken up with subordinate


none
level required organization

130. The grievance will be forwarded to a single or multiple Sub Ordinate Officials, based on the
level of grievance raised is

examined at out no action as taken up with subordinate


none
level required organization

131. The main points related to grievence is

never use abusive or offensive language don’t use emotional language both none

132. Grievances in Rural Areas mainly contains

non availabilty of supplies delay in supply or services harasement all

133. DARPG means Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

true false

134. Which functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

darpg directorate of public grievences both none

135. Part of Cabinet Secretary is

darpg directorate of public grievences both none

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136. DPG was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat in the year

1989 1988 1990 1997

137. DPG handle complaints pertaining to ------ Central Government Organisations.

18 16 20 22

138. E-Governance can be implemented with

cpgrams pragati e-norvan all

139. Citizens can lodge complaints and monitor the status of their complaints through CPGRAMS
established in the year

2008 2009 2010 2007

140. PRAGATI means Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation

true false

141. Multi- Modal and multi purpose grievance redressal system designed by the PMO and NIC is

cpgrams pragati e-nirvan all

142. Which was launched by the Central Board of Direct Taxes for online redressal of grievances
related to taxpayers

cpgrams pragati e-nirvan all

143. UMANG means Unified Mobile Application for New-Age Governance

true false

144. MyGov is a platform launched in ------ to disseminate information by the Government and
Government can seek public opinion

2009 2010 2014 2015

145. Online portal launched by the Indian Railways in 2016

cpgrams pragati e-nirvan nivaran

146. INGRAMS means Integrated Grievance Redressal Mechanism

true false

147. Portal launched by Ministry of Consumer Affairs to address grievances of the public when they
purchase any goods or services

e-nirvan ingrams nigrams nggrams

148. MY Aspatal is an app and portal launched by the Ministry of Health in the year ---- under the
National Health Mission

2016 2018 2017 2019

149. The task of formulating and operationalising Citizens Charter was undertaken by

daprg dgp dpg none

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150. Hostels Act has been passed to address the grievances of working women.

true false

151. A Person, firm, company (or any other legal person) who has submitted anoffer in response to
a notice inviting tender

bidder supplier contractor none

152. The individual or firm supplying the goods on contract

bidder supplier contractor none

153. The bidder whose tender has been accepted and entered into a valid agreement

bidder supplier contractor none

154. Intention of purchaser to place the purchase order on the bidder

purchase order advance purchase order both none

155. the equipment, machinery or other material which the supplier is required to supply under the
contract

purchase order advance purchase order goods work order

156. The order placed by the purchaser on the supplier signed by the purchaser including all
attachments and appendices thereto and all documents incorporated by reference therein

purchase order advance purchase order work order none

157. order issued to the contractor by the officer in charge of the works

purchase order advance purchase order work order none

158. price payable to the supplier under the purchase order for the full and proper performance of
its contractual obligations

advance price actual price contract price bid price

159. Bid documents/ Tender documents is /are

terms and
specifications of plans and detailed diagrams or
conditions of the all
materials or work documents forming a part of contract
contract

160. notice issued to the public through press to get the supplies or work done and requesting the
bidder to make offers

nit emd bid work order

161. an amount required to be deposited by the bidder/ tenderer along with his offer as a security
against his default of entering into contract.

security deposit earnest money deposit early money deposit none

162. an amount fixed as security for ensuring the performance of the contract and compliance to
the other conditions of contract by the contractor

security deposit earnest money deposit early money deposit none

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163. Bid security is associated with

security deposit earnest money deposit early money deposit none

164. Performance Guarantee associated with

security deposit earnest money deposit early money deposit none

165. An agreement enforceable by law is

said to be void contract both none

166. An agreement not enforceable by law is

said to be void contract both none

167. The person making the proposal is called

department contractor third party none

168. The person accepting the proposal is called

department contractor third party none

169. which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term Contract as An agreement
enforceable by law is

sec2(h) sec(3h) sec2(i) none

170. Essential requirements of valid contract are

offer and its free consent of both certaininty and possibility of


all
acceptance parties performance

171. Procedure in which a dispute is submitted, by agreement of the parties, to one or more
arbitrators who make a binding decision on the dispute is

settlement punishment arbitration none

172. Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term Contract as An agreement
enforceable by law.

true false

173. The main ingredients of Contract are offer , acceptance , consideration , legal relations ,
Legality and capacity and certainty .

true false

174. Agreements of social or domestic nature are not contracts.

true false

175. A public procurement professional is expected to be generally aware of the implications of


basic laws affecting procurement of works .

true false

176. The purchase order shall be deemed as Contract.

true false

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177. NIT means Notice Inviting Tender.

true false

178. EMD means Earnest Money Deposit

true false

179. EMD is also known as Bid Security.

true false

180. PPD means Procurement Policy Division

true false

181. CPPP means Central Public Procurement Portal

true false

182. CPPP is designed and Hosted by

nic oic nct csi

183. GeM means Government e- Market---

point place promoter none

184. APO is a tool for verification of eligibility criteria and documents submitted in the tender with
originals.

true false

185. As Per Indian contract act 1872 Sec-1 deals with -----------------

short interpretation communication when revocation of proposal and


titles clause complete acceptance

186. As Per Indian contract act 1872 Sec-2 deals with -----------------

short interpretation communication when revocation of proposal and


titles clause complete acceptance

187. As Per Indian contract act 1872 Sec-4 deals with -----------------

short interpretation communication when revocation of proposal and


titles clause complete acceptance

188. As Per Indian contract act 1872 Sec-5 deals with -----------------

short interpretation communication when revocation of proposal and


titles clause complete acceptance

189. The person making the proposal is called the

promisor promisee promise none

190. The person accepting the proposal is called the

promisor promisee promise none

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191. A proposal when accepted, becomes a

promisor promisee promise none

192. Which section of Indian Contract act 1872 is Acceptance by performing conditions, or
receiving consideration.

section 8 section 9 section 10 section 11

193. Which section of Indian Contract act 1872 is Promises, Express and Implied

section 8 section 9 section 10 section 11

194. Which section of Indian Contract act 1872 deals with Ingredients of Contract

section 8 section 9 section 10 section 11

195. Which section of of Indian Contract act 1872 deals with Who are competent to contract

section 8 section 9 section 10 section 11

196. Sec-13 of Indian Contract act delas with Consent defined

true false

197. Which section of of Indian Contract act 1872 relates with Free consent defined

section 14 section 23 section 24 section 25

198. Which section of Indian Contract act 1872 delas with what considerations and objects are
lawful, and what not .

section 14 section 23 section 24 section 25

199. Which section of Indian Contract 1872 deals with Agreement void, if consideration and objects
are unlawful in part.

section 14 section 23 section 24 section 25

200. Which section of Indian Contract 1872 delas with Agreements without consideration, void .

section 14 section 23 section 24 section 25

201. Sec-29 of Indian Contract 1872 deals with Agreements Void for uncertainty.

true false

202. Which section of Indian Contract 1872 deals with Obligation of parties of contracts.

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

203. Which section of India contract act 1872 defines the Effect of refusal of party to perform
promise wholly

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

204. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 delas with Promisor not bound to perform, unless
reciprocal promisee ready and willing to perform

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

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205. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with Order of performance of reciprocal
promises

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

206. Which section of Indian cotract act 1872 deals with Liability of party preventing event on which
contract is to take effect Deals with breach of contract or compensation .

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

207. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with the Effect of default as to that promise
which should be first performed, in contract consisting of reciprocal promises

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

208. Which section of Indian cotract act 1872 deals with the Effect of failure to perform at fixed time,
in contract in which time is essential

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

209. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with the Effect of neglect of promisee to afford
promisor reasonable facilities for performance

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

210. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with the Obligation of person enjoying benefit
of non-gratuitous act

section 70 section 73 section 74 none

211. Which section of Indian contract a ct 1872 deals with the Compensation for loss or damage
caused by breach of contract

section 70 section 73 section 74 none

212. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 declares the law regarding liability upon breach of
contract where compensation is pre-determined by way of an agreement between the parties, or
where there is a stipulation by way of penalty.

section 70 section 73 section 74 none

213. Sec-75 of Indian contract act 1872 the Party rightfully rescinding contract, entitled to
compensation

true false

214. Sec-29 of Indian Contract 1872 deals with Agreements Void for uncertainty.

true false

215. Which section of Indian Contract 1872 deals with Obligation of parties of contracts.

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

216. Which section of India contract act 1872 defines the Effect of refusal of party to perform
promise wholly

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

217. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 delas with Promisor not bound to perform, unless
reciprocal promisee ready and willing to perform

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section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

218. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with Order of performance of reciprocal
promises

section 37 section 39 section 51 section 52

219. Which section of Indian cotract act 1872 deals with Liability of party preventing event on which
contract is to take effect Deals with breach of contract or compensation .

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

220. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with the Effect of default as to that promise
which should be first performed, in contract consisting of reciprocal promises

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

221. Which section of Indian cotract act 1872 deals with the Effect of failure to perform at fixed time,
in contract in which time is essential

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

222. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with the Effect of neglect of promisee to afford
promisor reasonable facilities for performance

section 53 section 54 section 55 section 67

223. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 deals with the Obligation of person enjoying benefit
of non-gratuitous act

section 70 section 73 section 74 none

224. Which section of Indian contract a ct 1872 deals with the Compensation for loss or damage
caused by breach of contract

section 70 section 73 section 74 none

225. Which section of Indian contract act 1872 declares the law regarding liability upon breach of
contract where compensation is pre-determined by way of an agreement between the parties, or
where there is a stipulation by way of penalty.

section 70 section 73 section 74 none

226. Sec-75 of Indian contract act 1872 the Party rightfully rescinding contract, entitled to
compensation

true false

227. The term alternative dispute resolution relates with

mediation arbitration dispute relove none

228. The arbitrator reviews the evidence, listens to the arguments of both parties, and then makes a
binding or non-binding decision to resolve the dispute.

true false

229. Depending on the agreement of the parties, the arbitrator s decision can be

binding non binding both none

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230. Arbitration is typically a voluntary process.

true false

231. Arbitration is often less formal and more flexible than court proceedings.

true false

232. Arbitration and concilation act ammended as act 33of

2019 2016 2015 2005

233. Section 1 of arbitraction act 33 deals with

short titles srbitration agreement equal treatment of parties none

234. SEC- 8 of arbitration act 33 2019 is POWER TO REFER PARTIES TO ARBITRATION WHERE
THERE IS AN ARBITRATION AGREEMENT

true false

235. As per section 11 or arbitration act the arbitrator should be appointed within -----days

30 45 90 80

236. Equal Treatment of Parties refers to which section of arbitration act

section 11 section 18 section 19 section 20

237. Which section of arbitration act deals with determination of rules and procedures

section 11 section 18 section 19 section 20

238. Which section of arbitration act deals with the place of hearing

section 11 section 18 section 19 section 20

239. Statement of claim and defense deals with which section of arbitration act

section 23 section 24 section 25 section 29

240. Hearings and written proceedings deals with which section in arbitration act

section 23 section 24 section 25 section 29

241. Default of a party deals with which section in arbitration act

section 23 section 24 section 25 section 29

242. Decision making by panel of arbitrators deals with which section of arbitration act

section 23 section 24 section 25 section 29

243. Section 29A if arbitration act deals with the Time limit for arbitral award

true false

244. Section 29B of Arbitration act deals with the Fast track procedure

true false

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245. Sec-30 of Arbitration act deals with Settlement

true false

246. Sec-31 of arbitration act deals with the Form and Contents of Arbitral Award

true false

247. Regime for costs in arbitration act deals with which section

section 31a section 32 section 33 section 34

248. Termination Proceedings in arbitration act deals with which section

section 31a section 32 section 33 section 34

249. Correction and interpretation of award, Additional Award in arbitration act deals with which
section

section 31a section 32 section 33 section 34

250. Application for setting aside arbitral award in arbitration act deals with which section

section 31a section 32 section 33 section 34

251. Finality of arbitral award in arbitration act deals with which section

section 35 section 36 section 37 section 40

252. Enforcement in arbitration act deals with which section

section 35 section 36 section 37 section 40

253. Appealable orders in arbitration act deals with

section 35 section 36 section 37 section 40

254. Arbitration agreement not to be discharged by death of party thereto in arbitration act deals
with which section

section 35 section 36 section 37 section 40

255. Confidentiality of information in arbitration act deals with which section

section 42a section 62 section 66 section 67

256. Commencement of conciliation proceedings in arbitration act deals with which section

section 42a section 62 section 66 section 67

257. The conciliator is not bound by Code of Civil Procedure or the Indian Evidence Act in
arbitration act deals with which section

section 42a section 62 section 66 section 67

258. Role of conciliator in arbitration act deals with which section

section 42a section 62 section 66 section 67

259. Settlement agreement in arbitration act deals with which section

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section 73 section 74 section 76 section 77

260. Status and effect of settlement agreement in arbitration act deals with which section

section 73 section 74 section 76 section 77

261. Termination of conciliation proceedings in arbitration act deals with which section

section 73 section 74 section 76 section 77

262. Resort to arbitral or judicial proceeding in arbitration act deals with which section

section 73 section 74 section 76 section 77

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