5 Social Behavioral Administrative Sciences 2020 JUNE 1796

Pharmacy Prep
Social, Behavioral,
Administrative
Sciences
Review and Guide
Misbah Biabani, Ph.D

Director
Toronto Institute of Pharmaceutical Sciences (TIPS) Inc.
Toronto, ON M2N K7
Pharmacy Prep
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©2000-2020 TIPS. All rights reserved.
Foreword by
Misbah Biabani, Ph.D
Coordinator, Pharmacy Prep
Toronto Institute of Pharmaceutical Sciences (TIPS) Inc
4789 Yonge St. Suites 415-417
Toronto ON M2N 5M5, Canada
Part 3. Social/Behavioural/Administrative Sciences 10%
Content
40. Canadian Healthcare System

41. Canadian Pharmacy Law and Jurisprudence
42. Pharmacist Scope of Practice in Canada
43. Pharmacy Management
44. Pharmacoeconomics
45. The New Drug Approval Process
46. Evidence Based Medicine and Epidemiology
47. Biostatistics
48. Hospital Pharmacy
Canadian Healthcare System
PHARMACY PREP
CANADIAN HEALTHCARE SYSTEM
1. The roles of public health agency include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Travel information and advisories travel immunizations
B. Emergency preparedness and response
C. Regulation of pharmaceutical drugs
D. Health promotions
Ans: C
2. Which is NOT as supplementary healthcare benefit?

A. Acupuncture
B. Naturopathy
C. Chiropractor
D. Optometry
E. Travel Immunization
Ans: E
Tips: The supplementary medical benefits provides for reimbursement of expenses which are
incurred by patient and dependents during one calendar year.
3. Which of the following drug product characteristics is immediately identified by the drug
identification number?
A. Manufacturer
B. Route of administration
C. Formulation or active ingredient
D. Product name and strength
E. All of the above
Ans: E
Tips: A DIN uniquely identifies the following product characteristics: manufacturer; product
name; active ingredient(s); strength(s) of active ingredient(s); pharmaceutical form; route of
administration.
4. All of the following are the principles of Canadian Health Act (CHA), EXCEPT:
A. Universality
B. Private administration
C. Accessibility
D. Portability
E. Comprehensiveness
Ans: B
Tips: Canadian Health Act is single tier system that is based on public administration, not a
private administration.
Copyright © 2000-2020 TIPS Inc. Unauthorized reproduction of this manual is prohibited. This manual is being used during
review sessions conducted by PharmacyPrep. 40-1
5. A national pharmacy regulatory body, NAPRA stands for:

A. National Association of Pharmaceutical Regulatory Administration
B. National Administration of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority
C. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities
D. National Association of Pharmacy Manufacturer Regulatory Authority
E. National Association of Provincial Regulatory Authorities
Ans: C
6. What agency determines the patented prescription drug price?

A. Canada Research Based Pharmaceutical companies (Rx&D)
B. Generic pharmaceutical Association (CGPA)
C. Patented Medicines Prices Review Board (PMPRB)
D. Health Canada (HC)
E. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority (NAPRA)
Ans: C
7. Regulation or rules of Canadian pharmacies are mainly created by:

A. Provincial authorities
B. Pharmacy college authorities
C. Governmental authorities
D. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities (NAPRA)
E. None of the above
Ans: D
8. What is PMPRB?
A. Patented Medicines Prices Review Board
B. Prescription Medicines Prices Review Board
C. Non-Prescription Medicines Prices Review Board
D. Prescription Medicines Patent Review Board
Ans: A
9. Who sets the prices of over the counter drugs in pharmacy?

A. Patented Medicines Prices Review Board
B. Health Canada
C. Federal Government
D. Manufacturer
E. Pharmacy Manager/owner
Ans: E
10. What is not included the functions of Health Canada?

A. National immunization programs
B. Pandemic preparedness
C. New drug approvals
D. Senior over 65 years medical coverage

E. Regulating drug imports in Canada
Ans: D
11. What is included in provincial drug benefit program (Medicare)?

A. Seniors over 65 year’s medical coverage
B. Hospitalization expenses
C. Immigrants
D. Inmate
E. Children immunization
Ans: A
12. Who pays for healthcare services in Canada?

A. Provincial government
B. Federal government
C. Municipalities
D. Provincial, Federal, premiums and charities
E. Charities
Ans: D
13. Which of the following healthcare services is the most expensive?

A. Drugs and salaries
B. Rx and OTC drugs
C. Physician salaries
D. Nurse salaries
E. Hospitalization
Ans: E
14. A drug is approved and imported by Health Canada. Which of the following is the pharmacist’s
least concern?
A. Generic drug price
B. Manufacturing conditions
C. Drug shortages
D. Dispensing errors
Ans: B
Strategic thinking:
1. Read the question.
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is pharmacist’s least concern. Key
phrase imported by Health Canada. To answer this question, you have to realize that the
drug is manufactured from other countries. Furthermore, before it goes to Canadian
market, HC conducts necessary quality measure evaluation to ensure safe use by its
people. Hence, the manufacturing conditions are not at the top the accountability of the
dispensing pharmacist.
3. Thus, correct answer is B.
15. Over the counter product vitamin C is identified as?

A. Natural product number
B. Drug identification number
C. Pseudo-drug identification number
D. DIN-Homeopathic number
E. Product identification number
Ans: A
16. Products with Natural product number (NPN) are sold in Canada at?
A. Pharmacies
B. Natural or herbal product stores
C. Groceries
D. Dispensaries
E. Health Clinics
Ans: A
17. A pharmacist is a?
A. Primary Health Care Member
B. Secondary Health Care Member
C. Tertiary Health Care Member
D. Community Health Centre
E. Public Health Care System
Ans: A
18. What is not an essential service according to the Canadian Health Act (CHA)?
A. Pharmaceuticals
B. Laboratory test
C. Emergency
D. General physician
E. Family doctor
Ans: A
19. A patient asks you regarding an antihypertensive drug that his sister wants to bring when she
comes to Canada next month. This antihypertensive drug is for the patient’s use but you
learned that this drug is not approved in Canada. What do you think?
A. Importing drugs from outside Canada is prohibited.
B. Sister can bring only her own medication to Canada.
C. She can bring 3 months’ worth of medication for her brother.
D. Yes, she can bring 3-month worth of medications for her brother only if the medication is
not approved in Canada.
Ans: B
20. According to Food & Drug Act (FDA): which of the following can import drugs that appear on
the prescription drug list in Canada.
A. Health care practitioner

B. Registered pharmacist
C. Resident of foreign country while visitor in Canada.
D. Health Canada approved licensed dealer
E. All of the above
Ans: D
Strategic thinking:
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is drugs that appear on Canada’s
drug list. Key phrase, can import. Realize that the keyword import suggests an in-bulk
volume of the products for the purpose of sale. All of the options can carry these
products as permitted by Canadian Law however, it is within limited quantity for
personal use only which deviates from what the word import means.
3. Thus, correct answer is D as dealers are business people.
21. Rank the following healthcare expenses from higher to lower sources of healthcare
expenditure.
A. Hospital>physician>prescription drugs
B. Prescription>hospital>physicians
C. Hospital>prescription drugs>physicians
D. Physician>hospital>prescription drugs
E. Prescription drugs>physician>hospitals
Ans: C
22. The most common refilled medications used in Canada are:

A. Cardiovascular
B. Steroids
C. Anti-diabetics
D. Analgesics
E. Antidepressants
Ans: A
23. The Health care system in Canada is funded by

A. Primarily by federal and provincial funding and their taxation.
B. Partly by federal and provincial funding as well as cash payments, and insurance payments.
C. Completely by federal government.
D. Provincial government only
E. For profit companies
Ans: B
24. What agency is responsible for the final formulary for a new drug on the basis of cost
effectiveness and clinical effect:
A. Canada vigilance, by Health Canada
B. Canadian Agency for drugs and technologies in heath (Common Drug Review)
C. Patented medicine price review Board

D. The Canadian Medication Incident Reporting and Prevention System
E. Institute of Safe Medication Practices
Ans. B
Tips: CADTH: Canadian Agency for drugs and technologies in health conduct common drug
review (CDR). This provides studies and comparison of new drugs vs existing drug
Pharmacoeconomics.
25. The federal government's roles in health care include all the below EXCEPT
A. Regulation of pharmaceuticals
B. Approval of new pharmaceuticals
C. Primary care and emergency services, poison control centers
D. Planning and implementation of health promotion and public health initiatives
E. Public health agency, disease surveillance and prevention
Ans. C
26. What is considered as food additives?

A. Antioxidants
B. Probiotics
C. Naturobiotics
D. Neutraceuticals
Ans. A
Tips: Food additives are substances added to food to preserve flavor or enhance its taste,
appearance, or other qualities. Example some additives have been used for old times, pickles by
adding vinegar, salting for bacon, sulfur dioxide as with wines.
Canadian Pharmacy Law and Jurisprudence
___________________
1. What regulates pharmacist and its members in Canada?
A. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities (NAPRA)
B. Provincial College of Pharmacy
C. Health Canada
D. Public health agency of Canada
Ans: B
2. A registered nurse at TIPS clinic wrote IM antibiotic for a patient. What do you do?
A. Tell the patient to get prescription from a physician.
B. Write the patient similar prescription following the pharmacist extended scope of practice.
C. Report nurse going out of scope of practice.
D. Ask the prescription cosigned by head nurse.
E. Dispense prescription usual check.
Ans: A
Strategic thinking:
1. Read the question. Identify and organize information as you go.
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is registered nurse, wrote. Key
phrase, you do. You are asked the appropriate action at the time patient presents a
prescription which you review is written by unauthorized health care professional. As
you have learned, registered nurses have limited prescribing privileges. This is an
antibiotic in a clinic setting that can only be legally prescribed by a physician.
3. Thus, the correct action is A.
3. What does NAPRA stand for?

A. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority
B. National Administration of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority
C. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Administration
D. National Administration of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority
Ans: A
4. What drugs require prescription?

A. Schedule I
B. Schedule 2
C. Schedule 3
D. Unscheduled
Ans: A
5. What is true about codeine 8 mg?
Copyright © 2000 - 2020 TIPS Inc. Unauthorized reproduction of this manual is prohibited. This manual is being used during
review sessions conducted by Pharmacy Prep.
41-1
A. It is a straight narcotic.
B. It is verbal narcotics.
C. It is exempted (behind the counter) narcotics.
D. Recommended by pharmacist.
E. Can be transferred.
Ans: A
Tips: Pure codeine is always straight narcotics.
However, codeine 8 mg with acetaminophen + caffeine preparations are schedule 2 drugs.
Liquid codeine 19.6 mg in 30 mL with two non-combination. is also schedule 2.
6. Which of the following falls under NAPRA harmonized schedules?

A. Schedule I Prescriptions drug
B. Schedule II OTCs sold with pharmacist intervention
C. Schedule III OTC sold without pharmacist intervention
D. Unscheduled drugs: drug can be sold from corner stores
E. All of the above
Ans: E
7. Tylenol # 1 is:
A. Acetaminophen300 mg + Codeine 8 mg + Caffeine 15 mg
B. Acetaminophen300 mg + Codeine 15 mg +Caffeine 15 mg
C. Acetaminophen300 mg + Codeine 30 mg +Caffeine 15 mg
D. Acetaminophen300 mg + Codeine 60 mg
E. Acetaminophen 160 mg + Codeine 8mg + caffeine 15 mg
Ans: A
Tips: Tylenol#1, No prescription needed, Pharmacist intervention required
Schedule II drug.
8. A patient comes to pick up Lorazepam refills, 15 days before refill time, what initial action is
appropriate? Patient profile also indicates insomnia treatment and chronic alcoholism.
A. Ask him to come just before 4 to 5 days before refill.
B. Call doctor to get refill date change.
C. Ask patient’s reason for early refill.
D. Go to emergency or walk in clinic to get medication.
E. Refuse refills and educate patient about compliance.
Ans: C
9. Police officer comes to the pharmacy demanding for a patient’s profile. Patient was caught
being involved in illegal drug trafficking and found drug sample in his car trunk. As a pharmacist,
what is the appropriate action?
A. Give patient’s profile to police officer.
B. Ask police officer a letter of court warrant or patient’s authorization.
C. Refuse and inform you cannot release patient’s information.
D. Police officer is law enforcement agency; thus you should release all information to police.
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Ans: B
Strategic thinking:
2. Look for cues and keywords or key phrases. Cue here is police officer. Police officers
although agents of law are not within the circle of care. This is an enough justification to
not release any of the patient’s information unless a warrant or authorization from the
patient is provided and confirmed. C option is not the best answer at this point because
it can be only be done due to lack of necessary document.
3. Thus, correct answer is B
10. A family consists of 2 adults and two children ages 10 and 13 years old. Father comes to the
pharmacy and wants you to print receipts of all family purchases of the year for tax purpose.
What is the appropriate action you should take?
A. Print all receipt and provide to the father.
B. Refuse to print receipts because it is illegal to use prescription purchases for taxes.
C. Ask authorization from other adult family members.
D. None of the above
Ans: C
11. A mother wants to purchase medications for her 2-year-old son on her insurance plan, in which
her son is not covered in policy. What is the appropriate response?
A. It is illegal.
B. It is unethical.
C. It is appropriate.
D. Pharmacist should offer beneficence.
E. It is nonmaleficence.
Ans: A
12. A patient has received wrong medication from the pharmacy and this was prescription error
from the prescriber. Who is responsible?
A. Pharmacist
B. Physician
C. Pharmacy technician
D. A and B
E. A, B and C
Ans: D
13. A 70-year-old senior man is travelling to Florida on vacation for 6 months. He got a prescription
of Atorvastatin for 6 months. He wants it all covered by his insurance plan but his insurance
covers only 3 months. What is the appropriate action?
A. Talk to insurance company if they allow 6 months coverage and if they agreed, dispense 6
months’ supply.
B. Tell patient that his insurance covers 3 months supply only and ask patient to pay cash for
the other 3 months supply.
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C. Dispense 3 months supply now and ask patient to pick the rest after 3 months.
D. Call doctor to change for 3 months only.
Ans: A
14. What is true about combination drug Acetaminophen 300 mg + Codeine 8 mg + Caffeine 15
mg?
A. It does NOT require prescription and can be recommended by pharmacist.
B. Requires prescription because it contains codeine.
C. It is over the counter drug.
D. It is straight narcotic and given by written prescription only.
E. It is in the self-selection area.
Ans: A
Tips: Straight narcotic (single opioid alone: morphine, codeine): written rx only. No refills.
(Tylenol 4)
Verbal narcotic or narcotic preps: 1 opioid + 2 non-opioids drugs combination: Tylenol 2
(acetaminophen 300 mg + 15 mg codeine + 15 mg caffeine), Tylenol # 3.
Exempted narcotics or OTC narcotics: (1 opioid (8 mg)+ 2 non opioid); Tylenol 1 (codeine
8mg+Acetaminophen 300 mg + 15 mg caffeine), codeine 19.8 mg/30 mL + 2 non opioid
No prescription necessary, schedule 2
15. All the following is/are true with respect to net worth, EXCEPT:
A. It represents the residual claim of the owners of the business.
B. Liabilities plus net worth must not equal assets.
C. Net worth is the book valve of the claim.
D. It is what appears on the balance sheet.
Ans: B
Tips: Net worth = Assets – liabilities. Liabilities plus net worth must equal assets. Example: Net
worth = $70, liabilities $30, assets $100. If $30 + $70 = $100
16. Who can prescribe narcotics?

A. Dietician
B. Registered nurse
C. Chiropractor
D. Dentist
E. Diabetic nurse
Ans: D
Tips: Dentist, family physician, surgeons, veterinarian can prescribed narcotics.
17. Control drug substance part 2 includes?

A. Codeine
B. Methylphenidate
C. Testosterone
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D. Phenobarbital
E. Benzodiazepine
Ans: D
18. Methylphenidate?
A. Cannot be transferred at all.
B. Can be transferred one time only.
C. No need of sales report.
D. Requires written prescription only.
E. Can dispense without prescription
Ans: A
19. Narcotics regulations in hospital pharmacy are?

A. Provincial Regulations
B. Federal Regulations
C. Hospital Regulations
D. Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee
Ans: B
20. Which of the following drugs comply with the requirements of the straight narcotic
regulations?
A. Alprazolam
B. Tylenol # 1
C. Ketamine
D. Amphetamine
E. Methylphenidate
Ans: C
21. Which of the following drugs prescription refill/repeats are NOT allowed?
A. Benzodiazepine
B. Methylphenidate
C. Hydromorphone
D. Hydrochlorothiazide/Ramipril
E. Lorazepam
Ans: C
22. What is correct about the following prescription?

Rx
Tylenol® #3
Mitte: 90
Sig: 1 q4h
Dispense 30 at a time every 30 day
(intervals recommended but not a requirement)
41-5
A. The part fill prescription for 30 tablets of Tylenol® #3 can be dispensed every 30 days to a
final total of 90 tablets.
B. The part fill prescription for 30 tablets of Tylenol® #3 can be dispensed one time to final
total of 90 tablets.
C. The part fill prescription for 90 tablets of Tylenol® #3 can be dispensed every 30 days to a
final total of 360 tablets.
Ans: A
23. What practitioners legally cannot prescribe narcotics?

A. Dentist
B. Veterinarian
C. Physician
D. Optometrist
E. Midwife
Ans: D
Tips: Physician, dentist, veterinarian, midwife, podiatrist and nurse practitioner can prescribe narcotics.
24. Drug schedules in Canada is controlled by the?

A. Health Canada
B. Pharmaceutical Manufacturer
C. Pharmacy examination board of Canada
D. National Drug Scheduling Advisory Committee (NDSAC) of NAPRA
E. Registrar of Provincial College of Pharmacy
Ans: D
Tips: NDSAC is a national drug schedule advisory committee, which a part of NAPRA.
25. A patient requests a refill for diazepam 10 mg. Upon reviewing his profile, a pharmacy reveals
that the prescription with refill 5 times. The pharmacist will:
A. Refill the prescription since it has been written for five times.
B. Ask the patient to contact doctor.
C. Refuse to fill since the strength of the requested medication is commercially unavailable.
D. Refuse to refill because benzodiazepine refills are NOT allowed.
Ans: A
Tips: Benzodiazepine prescription can be refilled any number of times. However, it should not
be beyond one year from the date of prescription
26. A woman recently moved close at your pharmacy area from another neighborhood. She comes
with a request to transfer her son’s prescription of Methylphenidate from her previous
pharmacy. What is the appropriate action?
A. Call other pharmacy to get prescription transferred.
B. Ask her to get a new prescription because it cannot be transferred.
C. Give her part fill of Methylphenidate.
D. Tell her to call other pharmacy to request for Rx transfer.
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E. Talk to her and ask the reason for moving in this area.
Ans: B
27. All of the following are role of Health Canada, EXCEPT:
A. Approval drugs in Canada
B. Setting and monitoring GMP standard for drug manufacturers.
C. Placing drugs in NAPRA schedules
D. Post marketing surveillance for drugs in phase IV
E. Canadian drug vigilance program and adverse drug reaction reports
Ans: C
28. A physician prescribed a specific quantity of medication and directed that the medication be
dispensed in smaller portion untill the total quantity is used. This is defined as?
A. Repeat
B. Refill Tips: Narcotics, narcotics preps, BZD, control drugs can be
C. Part fill given part fill. However antibiotics have NO part fill.
D. Interchange
E. Mitte
Ans: C
29. A patient insurance covers only for one-month supply of Prednisone 5 mg daily. Insurance pays
for how many tablets?
A. 30 tablets
B. 60 tablets
C. 90 tablets
D. 33 tablets
Ans: A
Tips: most cover by day supplies so based on prescription order. Patient taking one tab daily so
30 tablets.
30. A patient is taking prednisone for 3 months. Which is true?

A. Avoid taking with grapefruit juice.
B. Do not stop taking it suddenly.
C. Take with meals.
D. Take on an empty stomach.
E. Take with a full glass of water.
Ans: B
31. MP is 50 year old woman using regular insulin every morning and at supper. What is correct?
A. Inject before meals morning and at supper.
B. Inject after meals morning and at supper.
C. Inject regardless of meals.
D. Inject morning before meals and at supper after meals.
E. Inject morning after meals and at supper before meals.
Ans: B
41-7
Tips: Regular insulin take immediately after meals, because short onset of action. However NPH
and long acting can take meals after insulin injection because slow onset of action.
32. A 75-year old patient has been discharged from the hospital. He presents at your pharmacy
with the following discharge report prescription. What is the pharmacist’s concern?
A. Metformin 1000 mg, PO, evening with dinner and Metformin 1000 mg, po, morning with
breakfast.
B. Levodopa/Carbidopa 25/100 mg, po, four times per day.
C. Digoxin 125 mg once daily in the morning.
D. Donepezil 5 mg, po, daily.
E. Tramadol 50 mg as needed for pain.
Ans: C
Tips: The digoxin dose is incorrect because digoxin dose is given in microgram.
33. Which of the following prescription is written incorrectly?

A. Pantoprazole 40 mg, po, daily before breakfast.
B. Spironolactone 10 mg, po, daily
C. Acetaminophen 650 mg, every 4 hours
D. Fentanyl patch 50 mcg/hour daily
E. Alprazolam 0.5 mg SL tab daily at bedtime
Ans: D
Tips: Fentanyl patch for 3 days (72 hours).
34. What is the counseling for Ciprofloxacin?

A. Continue until course therapy is finished.
B. Keep away from sunlight.
C. Do not use with iron preparations only.
D. Do not use with antacids containing Al, Mg, Ca, Fe, Sucralfate
E. Avoid with alcohol
Ans: D
Tips: Antacids, Metallic Cations: The extent of absorption and consequently the bioavailability
of fluoroquinolones can be substantially reduced in the presence of sucralfate (up to 98% when
given within 2 hours of fluoroquinolone administration) or metallic cations, e.g., aluminum,
calcium, iron, magnesium or zinc. In general, it is recommended that doses of fluoroquinolones
be separated by several hours (up to 8) from doses of sucralfate or metallic cations; however, it
is uncertain whether this will completely eliminate the risk of subtherapeutic fluoroquinolone
levels. Ideally, these agents should be avoided or alternatives used during the course of
fluoroquinolone therapy.
35. A 70-year old patient’s caregiver calls your pharmacy. Her patient lost Fentanyl patch in bath
tub. Patient does not have any more patches. Patient’s prescription has par fill for 5 patches.
Doctor specified part fill interval. What is appropriate?
A. Dispense her 5 Fentanyl patches.
B. Do not dispense and tell her to call doctor for new prescription.
C. Ask her to use the same patch and document time of happening.
41-8
D. Contact doctor; if doctor is not available dispense her 1 new patch and ask her to return the
used patches.
Ans: D
Tips: Professional judgement of pharmacist for part fills. Patch-for-patch policy. Patient should
return used fentanyl patch. Drug diversion: misuse of prescription drugs.
36. A prescription for codeine 30 mg tab.

Give 60-tab, Sig: I tab/day 30 days x 1
Is this prescription acceptable?
A. No, because refills are not allowed.
B. No, because part fills are not allowed.
C. Yes, because the total amount is clear.
D. Yes, because the amount is not easily identifiable.
Ans: B
37. A prescription for Codeine:

I-2 tab/day PRN 30 days
A. No, because refills are not allowed.
B. No, because part fills are not allowed.
C. Yes, because the total amount is clear.
D. No, because total quantity is NOT specified.
Ans: D
38. A prescription
Rx
Hydrocodone 20 mg
Q4 -6h PRN for pain
Mitte: 10 days
Repeat: 0
A. Yes, because repeat is zero.
B. Yes, because it’s a written prescription.
C. Yes, because mitte is specified.
D. NO, because it is a straight narcotic and no repeats.
E. No, because total amount is not clear.
Ans: E
39. A regular customer at your pharmacy requests for 15-days’ supply of Carbamazepine 10 mg
tablets. Next few hours, he has to take a flight for vacation. Currently all walk-in-clinics are
closed and his physician is not available for prescription. Customer has no new prescription and
no refills of Carbamazepine. Pharmacist extended and dispensed a refill for 30 days. Which of
the following regulations are followed?
A. Pharmaceutical opinion
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B. Adaptation
C. Professional judgement
D. Provided emergency refills
E. Pharmacist prescription authority
Ans: D
40. A very frequent customer at your pharmacy requests for 15-days’ supply of Lipitor 10 mg
tablets because customer has no prescription and no refills of Lipitor. In the next few hours, he
has to take a flight for vacation. Currently all walk-in-clinics are closed and his physician is not
available for prescription. According to extended scope of pharmacy practice, pharmacist
dispensed 15 days of drugs. This is defined as:
A. Adaptation
B. Advancing a drug
C. Pharmaceutical opinion
D. Professional discretion
E. Professional judgement
Ans: B
41. A patient presents a prescription of Metronidazole 0.75% cream. However, Metronidazole

0.75% only available in gel. Pharmacist documents on prescription Metronidazole 0.75% gel is
dispensed. Pharmacist faxed the information to prescriber. This is defined as?
A. Adaptation
B. Advancing a drug
C. Pharmaceutical opinion
D. Professional discretion
E. Professional judgement
Ans: A
42. MP came from the British Columbia and while on journey, he lost his medications. He
approaches your pharmacy with a rough list of medication that he is using. The pharmacy and
doctor clinic are currently closed due to long weekend in BC. What is appropriate?
A. Dispense the list of medication.
B. Refer him to walk in clinic.
C. Refuse to dispense any medications.
D. Write prescription
E. Dispense OTC medications.
Ans: B
43. The loss or theft of targeted substance at pharmacy must be reported primarily to?
A. Provincial and territorial pharmacy regulatory authority
B. Federal minister of health
C. Drug manufacturer
D. Local police
E. Local pharmacies
41-10
Ans: D
Tips: Primarily or initially first report to police and then office of control substance within 10
days.
44. Task1. Receive Rx and collect patient information

Task 2. Make sure appropriateness of the medication with disease
Task3: enter the data of patient in computer
Task4: preparer Rx
Task5; check Rx
Task 6: counsel
You have 3 persons, pharmacy assistant, registered technician, & pharmacist. What is the best
cost-effective order?
A. 1 asst. 2,3, 4 technician, 5&6 pharmacist
B. 1&3 assistant. 2&4 technician, 5&6 pharmacist
C. 1&4 assistant, 2&3 technician, 5&6 pharmacist
D. 1&3 assistant, 4&5 technician, 2&6 pharmacist
E. 1,3,4 assistant. 5 technician, 2&6 pharmacist
Ans: d
45. A patient is now living in USA and sent his son to collect refill for the next 6 months. Patient has
filled this Rx 10 weeks ago. His insurance company covers 3 months only. What will you do?
A. Tell him he is allowed to fill for 3 months.
B. Tell him he can take whole 6 months, and has to pay for 3 months.
C. Tell him that his dad lives in USA. He is not entitled for refills in Canada.
D. Tell him that his dad get physician in USA.
Ans: B
46. A registered nurse prescribes Ceftriaxone IM injection. As a pharmacist, when you receive this
prescription what will you do?
A. Go ahead and look for normal prescription checks and give the prescription as you do
normally.
B. Refer patient to get prescription authorized from doctor
C. Refuse to fill
D. Can fill as new prescription
Ans: B
Nurses Scope of practice
Nurse practitioner She can prescribe medication independently
Registered nurse (RN) Cannot prescribed independently.
Registered practical nurse (RPN) Cannot prescribe
Community educator nurse Cannot prescribe
47. You are in a diabetic clinic and a patient comes to you with a prescription for insulin pen written
by a registered nurse, what would you do?
A. Tell the patient to get another prescription from a doctor.
41-11
B. Make a report about this nurse

C. Tell the patient to sign the prescription from the chief nurse
D. Dispense the prescription after normal checking
Ans: A
48. Which practitioners may legally cannot prescribe narcotics?

A. Dentist
B. Veterinarian
C. Physician
D. Optometrist
E. Midwife
Ans: D
49. A patient presents a prescription for an anti-arrhythmic medication with two repeats from a
physician licensed in another Canadian province. Using professional judgement, the pharmacist
may
A. Dispense the prescription but not the refills.
B. Dispense the prescription including the refills.
C. Not dispense the prescription unless it is co-signed by an Ontario physician.
D. Not dispense the prescription under any circumstances.
Ans: B
50. Which of the following statements is true regarding Tylenol Elixir With Codeine®� (each 5 ml
contains acetaminophen 160 mg and codeine 8 mg)?
A. It requires a written order from an authorized prescriber.
B. It is an example of a legally exempted codeine product.
C. Sale for self-medication use must involve a pharmacist.
D. It is regulated under the Benzodiazepines and Other Targeted Substances Act.
E. Authorized prescribers include chiropractors.
Ans: A
Tips: exempted codeine narcotic is 19.6 mg in 30 ml is allowed.
51. A pharmacist Joe is being restricted from practice because of history of substance abuse. Based
on what provincial regulatory college makes this decision?
A. Incompetent
B. Incapacity
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice
E. Accountability
Ans: B
Tips: Misconduct: unethical conducts.
Incapacity: working under drug or substance influence.
Incompetence: lack of knowledge or skills.
Malpractice: improper, illegal or negligent professional activity or treatment.
41-12
52. What agency is source of recall of the medications?

A. Health Canada
B. Manufacture
C. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technology and in Health
D. Canada Vigilance
E. Customer
Ans: A
53. A study where all pharmacist took questionnaire to see their opinion about some disease. What
kind of study is this?
A. Case study
B. Cross sectional study
C. Delphi analysis
D. Longitudinal study
E. Wilcox study
Ans: C
Tips: Delphi analysis: an organized method for collecting views and information pertaining to a specific
area.
54. Which of the following statements is true regarding Tylenol Elixir With Codeine® (each 5 ml
contains acetaminophen 160 mg and codeine 8 mg)?
A. It requires a written order from an authorized prescriber.
B. It is an example of a legally exempted codeine product.
C. Sale for self-medication use must involve a pharmacist.
D. It is regulated under the benzodiazepines and other Targeted Substances Act.
E. Authorized prescribers include chiropractors.
Ans: A
55. A regular patient of your pharmacy is travelling to USA for 4 months and now she is asking for
the remaining refills from her benzodiazepine prescription. Her insurance will not cover her for
this period. What to tell her?
A. I can`t refill 4 months in advance
B. I will refill them and bill your insurance every month
C. I will ask the doctor to increase the dose so I can fill a larger qty.
D. I will mail it to you once your refills are due.
E. I will transfer your Rx to a pharmacy you choose in USA
Ans: D
56. Which of the following prescription requires written prescription only?

A. Tylenol 1
B. Tylenol 2
C. Tylenol 3
D. Tylenol 4
E. Tylenol 3 and 4
41-13
Ans: D
Tips: Exempted codeine products: Acetaminophen 300 mg + Codeine 19.6 mg/30 mL is behind
the counter; Acetaminophen 300 mg + codeine 8 mg + caffeine 15 mg
Codeine 8 mg.
57. A physician calls asking the medications of his 15-year-old daughter because she is vomiting and
he thinks that she is on emergency contraceptives. What should the pharmacist do?
A. Provide information because her father is a physician.
B. Tell only about the vitamin therapy.
C. Tell him nothing about his medication
D. Tell him to contact his daughter physician
Ans: D
41-14
Pharmacist Scope of Practice in Canada
_________________

1. The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the
development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at
all times is referred as:
A. Participative Participative: actively involved
B. Autocratic Autocratic: dictates or stubborn
C. Benevolent Benevolent: kind or compassionate/goodness
D. Consultative Consultative: consults other opinions
E. Bureaucratic Bureaucratic: implements policy and procedure
Ans: E
2. Informed consent exists when:

I. All relevant information has been provided.
II. The patient understands the information.
III. Consent is freely given and there is no coercion.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
Ans: E
Strategic thinking:
1. Read the question. This is a K-type of question that asks you the right
combination choices.
2. Look for the clues and keywords or key phrases. Your clue here is exist. Key
phrase is informed consent. As the term informed suggests, you have to
look for choices that correlate with it. All of the given choices agree with
your key phrase.
3. Thus, the correct answer is E.
3. A diabetic patient came to you complaining about her hyperglycemia. You realized the
increased dose of her antidiabetic medication, and yet she is buying rich chocolate,
sugar candies and food containing high carbohydrates. What will be your best course
of action?
A. You advise him and explain the risks and ask her to see her physician.
B. Let her decide what she wants.
C. Do not obligate her and forbid her.
D. Refer her to doctor.
E. Refer her to emergency.
Copyright © 2000 - 2020 TIPS Inc. Unauthorized reproduction of this manual is prohibited. This manual is being
used during review sessions conducted by PharmacyPrep.
42-1
Ans: A
4. A mother told you that her insurance company lost the receipts for her 16-year-old
daughter for the last month and she asked you if you can reprint for her and you
noticed that her daughter has taken 2 antibiotics and a birth control pills so:
A. You should give the receipts directly to the mother free of charge.
B. You should give the receipts directly to the mother with extra charge.
C. You should contact the insurance company first.
D. You should ask permission from the daughter first.
Ans: D
5. You noticed the technician come down to help a patient choosing a cough product
contains Codeine. What would you do?
A. Go down to interrupt the discussion and you recommend product to patient.
B. Ask the technician if the patient has allergy to Codeine after the sale.
C. Review with her the Law of dispensing over the counter drugs.
D. Don't humiliate the technician in front of the customer.
E. Send her to additional training courses.
Ans: A
6. In a compounding pharmacy. A pharmacy technician is very busy in compounding.

Who can change the duties of other technician?
A. Pharmacy manager working on that time
B. Pharmacist working on that time
C. Pharmacy technician
D. Provincial college of pharmacy
Ans: A
7. National harmonized model schedules describe, the drugs that require prescription are
categorized in?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule A
E. Unscheduled
Ans: A
8. As a pharmacist, you are required to do a meeting for some patients to help them
facilitate behaviour change. All of the following is/are true EXCEPT:
A. Identify risk behaviors.
B. Focus on all issues of the patient.
C. Create appropriate strategies.
D. Give pamphlets to patients.
Ans: B
42-2
Tips: Focus on only one issue at a time.
9. In the above question, the transtheoretical model of behavior change?

A. Starts with precontemplation and ends up with maintenance.
B. Starts with preparation or ends up with termination.
C. Starts with precontemplation & ends up with termination.
D. Starts with preparation & ends up with an action.
Ans: C
Tips: Trans theoretical model described patient behaviors related smoking cessation,
alcohol related disorders, opioid related disorders in stages such as;
Precontemplation= Not thinking
Contemplation= thinking
Preparation = Planning
Action = started taking treatment
Maintenance = on treatment
Relapse = back to problem
10. Joe and Jill are two partners in the pharmacy. Joe sells counterfeit drugs in pharmacy.
However, Jill has no knowledge of this activity. What is correct?
A. Joe and Jill both of them are responsible.
B. Joe is only on responsible.
C. Jill is the mainly responsible because he was negligence.
D. Joe and Jill both of them are not responsible.
Ans: B
11. A staff had been fired from his job. After losing his job, he reported about the
pharmacy owner doing a criminal activity. What did you do?
A. Negligence
B. Ignorance
C. Smoking gun
D. Incompetent
E. Whistle blower
Ans: E
12. A customer of your pharmacy is hitting and spanking her children in the pharmacy.
What is the appropriate action to do?
A. Call police and inform about it.
B. Talk to them first.
C. Inform children society.
D. Ignore it.
E. Document the incidence.
Ans: B
42-3
13. A 23-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy to buy some pain reliever. However, you
realized she has been sexually abused. What is appropriate to do?
A. Report to the police.
B. Report to social support groups.
C. Report to spouse.
D. Give a contact number of police or support groups
E. Just ignore it.
Ans: D
14. A dentist prescribes Atorvastatin 10 mg for 1 month for his father. His father is
travelling that night to Florida. His family physician is out of town. What is
appropriate?
A. Atorvastatin is NOT a scope of dentist prescription.
B. Dispense atorvastatin one time only.
C. Call dentist to verify the prescription.
Ans: A
Tips: Dentist scope of prescription include, antibiotics, analgesic, narcotics.
15. A customer of your pharmacy brings a prescription of Alprazolam 1 mg SL for 30 days.

The next day the same person brings the same prescription from another doctor, what
to do?
A. Refuse to fill the second prescription.
B. Contact the doctor and inform about prescription from another doctor.
C. Contact the insurance company and inform about repeat prescription.
D. Discuss with the patient and let him know, another pharmacist will help you.
Ans: B
16. A doctor comes to your pharmacy and writes a prescription for Oxycodone 100 tablets
for himself? What to do?
A. Dispense 50 tablets only
B. Dispense 200 tablets only
C. It is illegal dispense narcotics to doctor
D. It is unethical to dispense narcotics for themselves
E. Refer doctor to center of addiction and mental health (CAMH)
Ans: C
Tips: prescriber should not prescriber narcotics for themselves, it is illegal.
17. Pharmacist intern counseling about drug but patient seems to be confused and came
to you to clarify. What can you do as pharmacist to improve intern performance?
A. Give him more resources before counseling
B. Observe his counseling and intervene if anything confusing
C. Practice counseling with him
D. Tell him to study before counseling
42-4
Ans: B
Tips: pharmacist has to deal with current situation in the above case.
18. A patient with diabetes and dyslipidemia customer of your pharmacy. To manage
diabetic patient lifestyle, whom do you refer patient?
A. Occupational therapist
B. Physician
C. Diabetic educator
D. Social worker
E. Dietician
Ans: E
19. Pharmacist attempt to counsel patient on new drug the patient indicates physician
already explained to benefit and risk of medications. Physician discussed this
information with patient and physician was observing?
A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence Beneficence: doing good in critically needed situation
C. Justice Nonmaleficence: to prevent harm
D. Veracity Justice: treating equal and fairly
E. Autonomy Veracity or honesty: telling truth about meds
Ans: D Autonomy: patient choice
20. A compounding prescription with hydrocortisone 1% cream and ketoconazole 1% for

30 g. Patient insurance does no cover compounding mixture. However individual
medications are covered by insurance. The pharmacies changed to individual
prescription for insurance coverage.
Which of the following functions cannot be delegated to pharmacy technician?

A. Preparing prescription.
B. Checking expiry date.
C. Demonstrating a device to customer.
D. Selecting and recommending an over the counter drug to a patient.
E. Providing a disease literature to customer.
Ans: D
42-5
42-6
Pharmacy Management
_________________
Pharmacy Management
1. What type of pharmacy business structure is easy to start?
A. Corporate
B. Franchise
C. Banner
D. Independent
E. Simple form of pharmacy
Ans: B
2. Which of the following financial statements provide information on changes of

pharmacy assets, liquidity, equity, and liabilities over a period of time?
A. Income statements
B. Balance sheet
C. Cash flow
D. Return on investment
E. Gross income
Ans: B
3. Pharmacy ABC has sales of prescription medication for the year 2008 to 2009, in order
to find the profit of the pharmacy. Which of the following financial statements may be
used?
A. Income statements or retained earnings statement
B. Balance sheet
C. Cash flow
D. Return on investment
E. Gross income
Ans: A
4. A pharmacist decreases the expenses of his pharmacy by 36,000 compared to his

expenditures last year while achieving the same sale. What will be the percentage of
increasing his net profit if you know that:
Sales = 3,000,000
Cost = 2,400,000
Net profit this year =180,000
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E. 25%
Ans: D
Copyright © 2000-2020 TIPS Inc. Unauthorized reproduction of this manual is prohibited. This manual is being
43-1
Pharmacy Management
36,000
Tips: ( ) × 100 = 20%
180,000
gross profit
% net profit = ( ) x 100
total sales
Example: Suppose your business posted a net profit of $300,000 last year and a net profit of
$360,000 this year. The difference between the two years is $60,000. Divide this by last
year's net profit, $300,000, and you get 0.2. Multiply this by 100 and you'll find a strong 20%
net income growth over last year.
Reference: https://bizfluent.com/how-6385008-calculate-net-income-growth.html
23TU U23T
5. Pharmacy ABC has sales of prescription medication for the year 2017 to 2018. In order
to find out net profit of pharmacy ABC, which of the following financial statements may
be useful?
A. Balance sheet
B. Retain earning statement
C. Income statement
D. Gross income
E. Expenses
Ans: C
6. All of the following is included as part of income statement, EXCEPT:

A. Sales
B. Profit
C. Cost of goods sold
D. Account payable
E. Gross margin
Ans: D
7. Financial statement that is total income minus expenses is:

A. Income statement
B. Profit statement
C. Retained statement
D. Net income
E. Income sheet
Ans: D
Tips: Net income is the financial statement that is total income minus expenses.
8. A senior patient who is a regular customer of your pharmacy pays a specific amount
each time to the pharmacy before picking up a prescription. What type of insurance is
this?
A. Coinsurance
B. Deductible
C. Copayment
D. Loss and profit
E. Direct payment
43-2
Pharmacy Management
Ans: C
Tips: Pay each time fixed amount for every prescription.
9. A financial statement that is used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales
for a pharmacy during the course of a year is known as:
A. Income statement
B. Profit statement
C. Retained statement
D. Net income
E. Balance sheet
Ans: A
Tips: Income statement is the financial statement used to determine the total value of
RXs drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year.
10. Negligence may be described as:

A. Refusing to fill prescription for control drug substance.
B. Refusing to fill narcotic drug prescription.
C. Unable to meet the standard of the average pharmacist.
D. Refuse to disclose patient information to an unidentified person.
E. Avoiding a patient who is difficult to handle and argumentative.
Ans: C
11. The manager of a pharmacy made a list of work that should be done by his employees in
order of priority. This is called:
A. Delegation
B. Job analysis
C. Job description
D. Negligence
Ans: C
Tips: Job description is a description of all the work that should be done by the
employers in order of priority. The manager normally does it.
12. How can you provide the best counseling to your patient?
I. The pharmacy assistant gives an information sheet to the patient.
II. The pharmacist explains how to use the drug.
III. The pharmacist discusses with patient side effects, therapy and listens to the
expectations of patients.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: E
43-3
Pharmacy Management
Tips: The pharmacist should always interact with the patient providing clear verbal
information such as explaining how to take the medication, side effects and therapy,
and completing the counseling with extra writing or sheet information.
Strategic thinking:
1. Read the question. This is a K-type of question that asks you the right
combination choices.
2. Look for the clues and keywords or key phrases. Your clue here is best. Key
phrase, counseling to patient. Think practically as if you are in the
pharmacy face to face with the patient. Look at all the given choices which
one satisfies the best means to deliver your role as a pharmacist. Choice I is
correct as well in addition to the other 2 choices to reinforce what you
have verbally communicated with the patient.
3. Thus, the correct answer is E.
13. A senior pharmacy technician has worked in a community pharmacy for 10 years. He is
well trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager wants to delegate a
new technical project to him. The manager should:
I. Discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project
II. Negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project
III. Provide support and follow up as required
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: E
Tips: Delegation of a job should include the suggested steps to accomplish the project; a
negotiation of time schedule for completion of the project and the person doing the
delegation should provide support and follow up as required.
14. Which of the following is the most important component of a business plan?
A. Location analysis
B. Market area analysis
C. Site analysis
D. Product analysis
Ans: B
15. What is POS inventory management?

A. Point of science
B. Point of society
C. Point of sale system
D. Point of submit
E. All of the above
43-4
Pharmacy Management
Ans: C
16. Computer software and hardware program are very useful in pharmacies that combine
and track all the business information such as product information, cash register,
inventory, stocks and so on. This is called:
A. Pharmacare system
B. Health Watch system
C. Point of sale (POS)
D. Universal Pharmacy system
E. Business update computer system
Ans: C
Tips: POS-Point of sale is computer software and hardware programs that are very
useful in pharmacies that combine and track all the business information such as
product information, cash register, inventory, stocks and so on.
17. A staff pharmacist was fired from his job. After this, the pharmacist reports to the police
about the fraud activities of the pharmacy owner. What is this called?
A. Whistle blower
B. Smoking gun
C. Reporter
D. Announcer
Ans: A
18. A pharmacist decreased the expenses of his pharmacy by $12,000 compared last year
while accomplishing the same sales. What will be the percent of increasing his net profit
if you know that:
Sales = $1200,000 EXPENSES
Cost = $1050,000 $12,000
× 100
Net profit this year = $120,000 $120,000
A. 6% = 10%
B. 22%
C. 10%
D. 20%
E. 25%
Ans: C
19. A pharmacist wants to make an offer for patients who are not covered by province
insurance, so he makes it under the name of discount. He did 10 cases during a month.
When he calculates it, he might find out an/a:
A. Increase in net profit
B. Decrease in net profit
C. Decrease in cost
D. Increase in cost
Ans: B
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Pharmacy Management
20. A pharmacist wants to increase his pharmacy sales. He can do all, EXCEPT:
A. Make a discount for prescriptions from local physician.
B. Make an arrangement with nurse to make a regular blood glucose monitor.
C. Pharmacist meets with prescribers in the area.
D. Pharmacy can have free home deliveries.
Ans: A
21. Which of the following is not a type of ownership?

A. Incorporation
B. Sole proprietorship
C. Leasing
D. Franchise
E. Cooperative businesses
Ans: C
Tips: Leasing (Renting) is not a form of enterprise.
22. Which of the following is not a type of pharmacy?

A. Banner pharmacy
B. Franchise pharmacy
C. Central fill pharmacy
D. Mail order pharmacy
E. Rental pharmacy license
Ans: E
23. Total sales of prescription drugs are $210,000 and cost of good sold is 180,000. What is
the gross profit?
A. 71% Tips:
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 − 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
B. 14% [ ] x 100
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆
C. 50% COGS = Cost of goods sold
D. 20% Total sales $210,00 is 100%
E. 25% Cost of good sold is 180,000 is 85.5%
Ans: B 100% - 85,5% = 14.5%
24. Net income is?

A. Total income from sales
B. Gross income + total expenses
C. Gross income - total expenses
D. Gross income + total expenses + current assets
E. Gross income + total expenses + current assets + Fixed assets
Ans: C
25. In purchasing the items, the pharmacist must exercise:

A. Professional responsibility
43-6
Pharmacy Management
B. Moral responsibility
C. Legal responsibility
D. Ethical responsibility
E. All of the above
Ans: E
26. You are a new pharmacy manager for a new pharmacy location. What is the initial step
that you should consider?
A. Staff Job description
B. Building a team
C. Monitoring a location
D. Monitoring competitors
E. Market area analysis
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is not covered in total assets:

I. Pharmacy furniture
II. Account receivable
III. Account payable
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: B
28. The style of management in which owner of pharmacy store emphasizes the
development of detailed policies and written procedure for employees to observe at all
times is referred as:
A. Bureaucratic
B. Autocratic
C. Assertive
D. Consultative
E. Benevolent
Ans: A
Tips:
Bureaucratic: work procedure is described in details policies and written procedure.
Autocratic: Implementing personal opinion without consultations.
Assertive
Consultative: with consultation
Benevolent: generous and kind
29. The inventory turnover rate is a measure of a pharmacy’s:

A. Liquidity
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Pharmacy Management
B. Solvency
C. Efficacy
D. Profitability
Ans: C
30. The cost of goods sold is $150,000, at the start of the year $25,000 and at the end of
year 50,000 the inventory capital. What is the turnover rate?
A. 4 Tips:
B. 3 150,000
C. 2 [25,000 + 50,000] ÷ 2
D. 1 =4
Ans: A
31. The previous year turnover rate was 6 and this year cost of good sold is $150,000, at the
start of the year $25,000 and at the end of year 50,000 the inventory capital. What is
the difference of turn over rate this year from previous year?
A. 4 (beginning inventory + closing inventory)
B. 3 Tips: 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 =
2
C. 2 $150000 =
($50,000 +$25000)
= 4this year TOR is 4, so previous year was 6.
D. 1 2
E. 5
Ans: C
32. What is the normal turnover rate of retail pharmacy?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 5
D. 1
E. 11
Ans: C
Tips: The average turnover rate for retail pharmacy is 4 to 6, so the best number is 5.
33. Turnover rate (TOR) is an indicator of:

A. Profit
B. Efficiency
C. Loss
D. Inventory status
E. Merchandising problems
Ans: B
34. In a market, there is only one seller and there are many buyers. This competition is
described as?
A. Monopoly
B. Monopolistic competition
43-8
Pharmacy Management
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopolistic competition
Ans: A
35. If you open a pharmacy in multicultural area, what should you do to increase your sales?
A. You have signs of multicultural
B. Hire technician from predominant cultures of the area
C. Develop literature with different language
D. Offer help in different languages
E. Tell all customers to learn English
Ans: B
Tips: what if the customers are from subsidiary culture?
36. Which of the following structure of pharmacies is difficult to open and operate?
A. Sole ownership
B. Franchise
C. Banner pharmacy
D. Partnership
Ans: A
37. If the pharmacy manager for 16 years has been doing the entire job by himself, without
taking any idea and skills from others, what is that called?
A. Bureaucratic
B. Autocratic
C. Independent
D. Assertive
E. Submissive
Ans: C
Tips: Independent leadership is style of management ability to get others to follow you
in completing task.
Autocratic leadership (having team), also known as authoritarian leadership, is a
leadership style characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input
from group member
38. BC pharmacy has the following figures appearing on its balance sheet.
Cost of goods sold $500,000
Beginning inventory $200,000
Ending inventory $220,000
Total current assets $150,000
Total fixed assets $40,000
Total liabilities $75,000
Inventory turnover rate for ABC pharmacy is
A. 4.3
B. 2.3
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Pharmacy Management
C. 3.5
D. 6.0
E. 8.0
Ans: B
Tips:
$200,000 + $220,000
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖 = = $210,000
2
500,000
𝑇𝑢𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝐴𝐴 = = 2.3
210,000
39. Net worth of ABC pharmacy is:

A. $195,000
B. $225,000
C. $115,000
D. $75,000
E. $110,000
Ans: C
Tips: Net worth = Total assets – total liabilities
($150,000 + $40,000) - $75,000 = $115,000
40. Liquidity generally expresses a pharmacy’s abilities to meet its:

A. Assets
B. Current liabilities
C. Inventory
D. Prepaid expense
E. Desired inventory levels
Ans: B
41. All of the following are important fundamental principles of marketing EXCEPT:
A. Product
B. Price
C. Profession
D. Promotion
E. Place
Ans: C
Tips: There are 4 “P” of marketing = Product, Price, Promotion and Place.
42. What is NOT a business structure in the pharmacy?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Leasing a pharmacy
D. Partnership
E. Limited
Ans: C
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Pharmacy Management
43. Drug identification number is given to each drug that is sold in Canada. This is assigned
by the:
A. Pharmacy Manager
B. Manufacturer
C. Health Canada
D. Pharmacy owner
Ans: C
44. All of the following are true about franchise, EXCEPT:

A. Capital investment to open pharmacy is very high.
B. Buy prescription drug from a single main company distributor.
C. All locations have the same name.
D. Follow the standard operating procedure (SOP)
Ans: A
45. When the pharmacy manager advertises the position in pharmacy, the qualifications
required and the duties required in the position, this is called?
A. Job analysis
B. Job posting
C. Position allocation
D. Job description
E. Job finding
Ans: B
Tips: The advertisement for position with details of position is referred as job posting.
46. Inventory efficiency is measured by?

A. Net sales
B. Liquidity
C. Solvency
D. Turnover rate
E. Gross margin
Ans: D
47. A person brings in a prescription for 6 months of medical supplies before he travels.
However, his insurance covers only 3 months. What is appropriate?
A. Insurance may cover for 3 months and the rest must be paid by the customer.
B. Call insurance, to verify if customer is covered for the length of vacation supply.
C. Do not dispense for 6 months.
D. None of the above.
Ans: B
48. A retail store general manager should do all, EXCEPT:
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Pharmacy Management
A. Reading resume
B. Interviewing
C. Selecting candidate
D. Placing advertisement
E. Responsible for narcotics
Ans: E
49. Canada Health Acts includes all, EXCEPT:

A. Accessibility
B. Affordability
C. Universality of population covered
D. Public administration on non-profit basis
E. Comprehensiveness of insured service covered
Ans: B
50. Types of business ownership include:

A. Sole (single) proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporations
D. All of the above
Ans: D
51. Pharmacy formats include:

A. Independent
B. Banner
C. Franchise
D. Food stores and mass merchandisers
E. All of the above
Ans: E
52. Banner pharmacies?

A. Independent pharmacies with private ownership and they use a recognized name.
B. Do not participate in central buying and marketing.
C. No capital investment required.
D. Owners do not own assets.
Ans: A
53. The characteristics of a chain pharmacies include all, EXCEPT:

A. A chain is not necessarily a member of the Canadian Association of chain drug
stores.
B. An individual or corporation must own at least 3-4 stores to be considered a chain.
C. Head office directs all marketing and merchandising.
D. They employ pharmacy managers who are salaried employees of head office.
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Pharmacy Management
Ans: E
Tips: A community pharmacy is defined as chain community pharmacy if the
organization consists of 4 or more stores.
An individual or corporation must own 4 or more stores to be considered a chain.
54. A business plan requires all of the following information, EXCEPT:

A. Demographics
B. Type of business
C. Location
D. Organizational structure
E. 10 years plan
Ans: E
Tips: 3-5 year plan is required.
55. All of the following is/are true with respect to the balance sheet, EXCEPT:
A. It is prepared at the end of each fiscal year.
B. It is governed by assets, liabilities, and net worth.
C. Not all business must have a balance sheet.
D. It shows the financial position at a given date.
Ans: C
Tips: At year end, every business must have a balance sheet prepared.
56. All of the following is/are true with respect to net worth.
I. It is the arithmetical difference between the assets and liabilities.
II. It is also called owner’s equity.
III. The assets may be tangible or intangible.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, III
Ans: E
57. All the following is/are true with respect to fixed assets
I. They are tangible.
II. Used for operating business.
III. Goods that are purchased for resale.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: C
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Pharmacy Management
58. What is the average turnover rate of hospital pharmacy inventory?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 1
D. 9
E. 15
Ans: D
59. Total sales is = $530,000; Cost of goods sold = $350,000. What is % of gross margin?
A. 50%
B. 33%
C. 20%
D. 100%
E. 10%
Ans: B
$53−$35
Tips: [ ] × 100 = 33%
$53
60. Cost of goods sold is $2,000,000; Start of year inventory capital $400,000; End of year
inventory capital is $600,000. What is the turnover rate?
A. 9
B. 6
C. 4
D. 10
E. 5
Ans: C
2000,000
Tips: = 4
500,000
61. All of the following are basic principles of the Canada Health Act, EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility
B. Portability of benefits
C. Public administration on profit basis
D. Comprehensiveness of insured services covered
Ans: C
Tips: Health care system according Canadian Health Act public administration should be
non-profit bases.
62. The principal federal act that governs that legislation of pharmacies with controlled
drugs and narcotics is:
A. The Controlled Drugs & Substances Act.
B. The Food and Drug Act.
C. The Personal Health Information Protection Act
D. Excise Act.
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Pharmacy Management
Ans: A
63. The most expensive & fastest growing sector of pharmacy technology is by filling
prescription by:
A. Pharmacist
B. Technicians
C. Other associates
D. Robotics
Ans: D
Tips: Automated filling systems are probably the most expensive and fastest growing
sector of pharmacy technology.
64. Cash or liquid assets consist of:

A. Money bills and coins
B. Cheques
C. Credit card
D. All of the above
Ans: D
65. All the following is/are correct with respect to Flow, EXCEPT:
A. Flow refers to the rate of movement or change in assets during an operating period.
B. A cash flow statement is usually prepared annually.
C. It is important for budgeting.
D. It is important for purchasing & for borrowing money.
Ans: B
Tips: A cash flow statement is usually prepared monthly.
66. A balance sheet has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A. Done at the end of each month.
B. Every business must have it.
C. It reflects a financial position at a given date.
D. It shows the assts & liabilities of the business.
Ans: A
Tips: Done at year end.
67. All the following are true for net worth, EXCEPT:
A. It is the assets plus the liabilities.
B. It is the amount owners have invested in the business.
C. It is the capital and any earnings which have been retained and not distributed to
owners.
D. It is the arithmetical difference between the assets and the liabilities.
Ans: A
68. Liabilities may include:

A. Account payable & Accrued interest
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Pharmacy Management
B. Employee’s deductions payable

C. Retail sales tax
D. Credit card
E. All of the above
Ans: E
69. The following applies for inventory turnover rate, EXCEPT:

A. It is used for financial analysis.
B. Cost of goods sold divided by the average inventory at cost.
C. This ratio will increase in direct proportion with purchase volume.
D. A ration of 3 is considered a minimum rate of turnover.
Ans: C
Tips: This ratio will increase or decrease in direct proportion with sales volume.
However the average turnover rate is 4 to 6 and can be minimum 3.
70. An inventory control of a pharmacy includes the following:

A. Serves to keep an accurate record of what is in inventory.
B. Serves to determine what items need to be purchased.
C. Serves to determine the amount to be ordered.
D. All of the above.
Ans: D
71. A special mouthwash sells for $29.99. The mark up is 50%. Pharmacy cost is:
A. $10 Sales price
B. $15 Cost =
(1 + %markup)
C. $19.99 $29.99
D. $5 = $19.99
1 + 0.5
E. $29
Ans: C
72. In the previous question, if we buy 12 bottles (each bottle cost $15), the manufacturer
will give us one bottle free. How much do we save on each bottle?
A. 1.25
B. 2.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.50
E. 1.15
Ans: E
Tips:
15
= $1.15 it is the saving on each bottle.
13
73. What is the most effective test marketing in pharmacy?

A. Through new papers
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Pharmacy Management
B. Through community papers

C. Through TV
D. Door to door flyers
E. Distribution of flyer in mall
Ans: D
74. A supplier offers your pharmacy a discount in the form of free goods. By purchasing ten
dozen (12) bottles of Tylenol extra Strength, you will receive one dozen additional
bottles free. If the regular unit cost is $2.99, what is the actual unit cost paid by the
pharmacy?
A. 4.71 10 x 12=120 bottles
B. 2.71 120 x 2.99= $358.8
C. 4.98
D. None of the above 358.8 358.8
Ans: B =
120 + 12 132
$
75. Cost of goods for a drug is $10 and mark up is 30%. Prescription fee is $10. What is the
total amount customer pay?
A. $13
B. $10 Calculating Sales price = Cost + (Cost x %markup)
C. $23 = $10 + ($10 x 0.3) = $13
D. $22 = $13 + $10 = $23
E. $3
Ans: C
76. Net profit is $90,000. What would be the income to make profit of 15%?
A. 150,000 15%..............$90,000
B. 90,000 100%............?
C. 250, 000 90,000 × 100
D. 600,000 =
15
E. 800,000 = $600,000
Ans: D
Tips: Net profit of a pharmacy is $90,000 per year. Estimate its value assuming a rate of
return of 15%.
77. Shrinkage refers to:

A. Any decrease in the inventory due to sales.
B. Any decrease in the inventory due to transfer to another pharmacy.
C. Override of a sale due to theft of inventory or loss of inventory due to theft
D. Excessive sale
E. Out of stock
Ans: C
78. What is the retail sales price at 33.3% mark up when the invoice cost is $12?
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Pharmacy Management
A. $12
B. $9
C. $16
D. $6
E. $20
Ans: C
Tips: Sales = cost + (cost x %markup).
= $12 + ($12 x 0.33) = $16
When the retail price is $18.0 (100%), the cost is $12.00 (66.7%) and desired gross
margin is 33.3%.
79. If the cost of an item is $6 and the desired markup is 40%. What is the retail price?
A. 8.4
B. 20
C. 30
D. 10
Ans: A
Tips:
Sales = cost + (cost x %markup)
80. An OTC item sells for $15.90, with a mark up at 33.3%, the cost is:
A. $10.7
B. $15.7
C. $20
D. $11.9
Ans: D
Tips:
$15.90
= $11.9
1+0.33
Double check by.
$11.9 + ($11.9 x 33.3%) = $15.9
81. The cost of an item is $12 and the retail price is $16. The mark up on cost is?
A. $66.7%
B. $33.3% Tips:
C. $50% 16−12
× 100 = 33.33%
D. $12.3% 12
E. 16%
Ans: B
82. Investigational drugs have the following characteristics:

A. Only for research work.
B. Approved by Health Canada
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Pharmacy Management
C. Not yet evaluated and tested.

D. None of the above.
Ans: D
Tips: They are new products being evaluated and tested but which have not been
approved for marketing in Canada. Forms must be submitted by the requesting
physician.
83. In preparing the drug budget in hospitals, the following(s) should be considered.
A. Changes in patient population
B. Trends in drug usage
C. Changes in services provided
D. All of the above
Ans: D
84. The following is the characteristic of perpetual inventory record in the hospital.
A. It could be maintained for all medications.
B. Purchases are added to the daily total and drug issued to the floors are subtracted.
C. Once a month, the actual quantity is counted.
Ans: B
Tips: In perpetual inventory system software, the initial inventory received product
orders, and counter sales are tracked by software program. The program updates
inventory quantities in real time and allows reports to run that can help improve
customer services, narcotic accountability and identifies low or out of stock products.
85. Consolidated Distribution Service (CPDN/RCDP) model has the following characteristics:
A. Delivery is within a day. Fax and mail orders are processed as they are received.
B. Combines multiple vendors on one purchase order.
C. No long-term commitment required.
D. Canadian Pharmaceutical Distribution Network services are based on consolidated
drug distribution services model
E. All of the above
Ans: E
Tips: Consolidated drug distribution model networks connects all stakeholders in the
healthcare supply chain from manufacturer to hospital. Consolidated system should
comply with recall, storage.
www.cpdn.ca The CPDN Program connects all stakeholders in the healthcare supply
23TU U23T
chain, from manufacturer to end customer through our fully-integrated partnerships.
86. According to regulated health professional act (RHPA) requirement to report offences of
pharmacy professional members to college of pharmacy?
A. Report findings of professional negligence
B. Report findings of professional malpractices
C. Report findings of criminal offences
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Pharmacy Management
D. It is obligatory to report sexual abuse of patient by healthcare professionals

E. All of the above
Ans: E
Tips: RHPA requirement to report. A pharmacist could lose his/her license for failing to
report. Members requirement to report findings of professional negligence and
malpractices to the college (in addition to current requirement regarding criminal
offence). It is obligatory to report sexual abuse of patient by healthcare professionals.
87. Pre-authorized resalable products should have all the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. If medication returned by patient can resale with low price
B. Refrigerated and injectable products will not be accepted as pre-authorized
resalable.
C. Invoice number and expiry date must be indicated.
D. Handling charges are approximately 10% for Rx/Narcotics, 15% for OTC.
Ans: A
Tips: Products must have an expiry date of 9 months or greater. If patient return any
medication, should never resale.
88. Liabilities include:

A. Accounts payable
B. Loans payable
C. Accrued expenses
D. Depreciation
E. All of the above
Ans: E
89. In preparing the drug budget in hospitals who have a drug budget, the following is/are
considered, EXCEPT:
A. Changes in services required (i.e. TPN/IV admixture, programs)
B. Changes in patient population
C. Increase in drug costs
D. Essential returnable drugs
E. Trends in drug usage
Ans: D
Tips: Hidden costs like essential non-returnable drugs which are very costly and required
in high quantities and have short dating and cannot be returned for credit.
90. Purchase and sales records provide all, EXCEPT:

A. Change in services provided (TPN/IV admixture programs)
B. Value of drug purchases
C. Inventory turnover rate
D. Trends in drug usage
E. Re-order point time
Ans: A
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Pharmacy Management
91. Pharmacist’s role with a patient who abused his analgesic medication and is now in the
pharmacy to ask about early refill?
A. Dispense lower concentration medication.
B. Talk to doctor about his concern.
C. Refuse dispensing analgesic medication.
D. Give half quantities to medications.
E. Dispense what patient ask for.
Ans: B
92. The criteria for supplier assessment by each institution should include:
I. Availability of acceptable returned-good policies.
II. Recent back order history
III. Accessibility of supplier representatives.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: E
93. In selecting a particular brand of a drug used in the hospital, the criteria should include:
I. Drug packaging
II. Drug labeling
III. Determination of bioavailability
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: E
94. Regular sources of supply for the hospital include:

I. Wholesaler /Distributor
II. Manufacturer
III. Another hospital
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Ans: C
Tips: For emergency supplies, a hospital may purchase drugs from another hospital or a
nearby community pharmacy.
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Pharmacy Management
95. Consolidated drug distribution services have the following characteristics?

A. Pharmaceuticals can be purchased easily and cost effectively.
B. Ordering is easy using a number of options.
C. Combines multiple vendors on one purchase order.
D. No minimum order, processing or transportation fee.
E. All of the above
Ans: E
Tips: Canadian Pharmaceutical Distribution Network (CPDN) program connects all
stakeholders in the healthcare supply chain, from manufacturer to end customer
(hospitals) through integrated partnerships.
96. The advantages of the use of prime vendor or wholesale distributor have all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Fewer purchase order
B. Higher investment inventory
C. High stock turn over
D. Higher stock control
E. Fewer payment cheques
Ans: B
Tips: It has a lower investment inventory.
97. Liquidity generally expressed pharmacy ability to meet?

A. Its assets
B. Current liability
C. Inventory
D. Desired inventory levels
E. Prepaid expense
Ans: B
98. Pharmacy started independently its business, furniture is on lease, do central purchase
& doing mass activity of marketing & merchandising what is type of pharmacy:
A. Independent
B. Banner
C. Franchise
D. Chain
Ans. B
99. Which of the following is the most important in pharmacy location analysis?
A. Trading area
B. Market area analysis
C. Site consideration
D. Region
E. Geographical area
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Pharmacy Management
Ans: B
100. Which of the following is the most important in pharmacy site consideration?
A. Sales per square feet
B. Convenience and distance
C. Parking space
D. Physical characteristics of space
E. Use of ratios
Ans: E
Tips: Use of ratios is frequently used as the rule of thumb in site considerations. These
include sales per square feet, number of prescriptions per patient, and average price
for prescription.
101. Pharmacist decided to provide a patient with a service only covering the cost.
Assuming the patient had this service 10 times per month. What of the following is
true?
A. The pharmacy had an increase in net profit
B. The pharmacy had an increase in revenue
C. The pharmacy had a decrease in inventory
D. No change in pharmacy revenue
E. All of the above
Ans: B
102. Pharmacy manager does not have enough staff. What should he do?
A. Atomization of pharmacy
B. Control workload doing the shift
C. Decreasing the working hour in weekend
D. All of the above
Ans: D
103. Manager wants to order new drug in a market. Consider all, except?
A. Effectiveness of drug
B. Size of order and bonus
C. Physician writing the drug
D. Cost for the patient
Ans: A
104. Your pharmacy has no electricity for the 2 weeks. What management plan would you
follow?
A. Organizational plan
B. Contingent plan
C. Strategic plan
D. No plan
E. Emergence plan
Ans: B
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Pharmacy Management
Tips: Contingent plan is also known as back up or plan B. Within one hour of power
shutdown, all cold storage supplies have to move to cold box/ice packs.
105. What could be reason for nationwide shortage of products?

A. Disruption in cold chain management
B. Quality control requirement increase
C. Manufacturer price competition
D. Inadequate ordering of raw material by wholesaler
Ans. B
Tips: cold chain is storage conditions maintained in 2-8˚C in all times. CLUE in question
is NATIONWIDE. In general cold chain breakage or disruption may affect one specific
city or location of pharmacy.
106. Process of distributing task and dividing of work is:

A. Managing
B. Delegation
C. Assisting
D. Bossing people around
E. Autocratic
Ans. B
Tips: the key word in question is the process of distributing task and dividing work
among the staff is delegation. However manager does delegate the task.
43-24
Pharmacoeconomics
___________
Pharmacoeconomics
1. Pharmacoeconomics analyze the cost of drug therapy to?
A. Pharmacist
B. Hospital
C. Health care system and Society
D. Doctor
E. Patient
Ans: C
2. Pharmacoeconomics means:
A. Analyses of cost and benefit of the drug therapy to the healthcare system and
society.
B. Cost of pharmaceutical dispensing fee.
C. Cost of products sold in a pharmacy.
D. Analyses of cost and benefit for the pharmacy business.
E. Prices determined by the provincial authorities to be followed by the pharmacy.
Ans: A
3. What is QALY?
A. Quantity Adjusted Life Year
B. Quality Adjusted Life Year
C. Quantity of Available for Long Year
D. Health related quantity of life
E. Quality of as per life year
Ans: B
4. Quality of Adjusted Life Year (QALY) is an outcome of?

A. Cost effective analysis
B. Cost benefit analysis
C. Cost utility analysis
D. Cost minimization analysis
E. Cost and dollars
Ans: C
5. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. Cost utility studies often use health utility measures to calculate quality adjusted
life year.
B. Health utility measures are always disease specific.
C. The short form-36 (SF-36) is the most common generic health measure.
44-1
Pharmacoeconomics
D. The SF-36 is a multipurpose health survey consist of 8 scaled scores.

Ans: B
Tips: The SF-36 is short form (36) health survey is a 36 item, patient reported survey of
patient health. The SF-36 is a measure of health status. The original SF-36 came out
from Medical outcome study. The SF-36 consist of eight scaled scores which are
weighed sums of the questions in their section. The eight sections are vitality, physical
functioning, bodily pain, generic health prescriptions, physical role functioning,
emotional role functioning, social role functioning, mental health.
6. In research cost $100,000 caused an increase in patient’s life by 0.5 years. What is
true to express the cost effectiveness analysis of this research?
A. $100.000/QALY 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 $100,000
B. $200,000/LGY (life gained per year) Tips:
0.5𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦
C. $50,000/QALY So per year $200,000
D. $50,000/LGY
Ans: B
7. Which of the following pharmacoeconomic methodologies is used in selecting drugs

for hospital formulary based on effectiveness & safety?
A. Cost Effective Analysis (CEA)
B. Cost Utility Analysis (CUA)
C. Cost Minimization Analysis (CMA)
D. Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)
Ans: A
Strategic thinking:
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is effectiveness and
safety. Key phrase, hospital formulary. Eliminate methodologies that do not
primarily adapt effectiveness and safety as measures because these are
already guaranteed. To answer this question, be guided that this is in a
hospital setting which means that formulary can include one medication from
one class of drug. When comparing medications within the same class, you
measure them based on their effectiveness and safety.
3. Thus, correct answer is B.
8. A hospital is ordering drug from a distributor in a local area. Which of the following
pharmacoeconomic methodology is used to select a distributor?
D. Cost Benefit analysis (CBA)
Ans: C
Strategic thinking:
44-2
Pharmacoeconomics
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is hospital is ordering.
Keyword, distributor. In contrast to selection of medication for the formulary,
here the effectiveness and safety of the medication are already guaranteed.
To answer this question, cost becomes the main consideration. Apparently,
costs of same drug will be different among the distributors. You select the
distributor that offers the cheapest cost of the drug.
3. Thus, correct answer is C.
9. What methodology finds the least expensive cost alternative?

Ans: C
10. What methodology compares alternative with therapeutic effects measured in

physical units?
Ans: A
11. What is HRQOL?

A. Health Related Quality Of Life
B. Health Related Quantity Of Life
C. Health Related Quantity Of Year
Ans: A
12. Cost utility analysis (CUA) outcomes are measured in?

A. Quality unit
B. Cost unit
C. Natural unit
D. Quantity
E. Dollars
Ans: A
13. Pharmacoeconomic studies are used to analyze cost of drugs to:

A. Healthcare system
B. Society
C. Pharmacist
D. Pharmaceutical manufacturer
Ans: B
44-3
Pharmacoeconomics
14. Cost Utility Analysis outcome measures in terms of:

A. Health related quality of life (HRQL)
B. Quality adjusted life year
C. Dollar
D. Financial consequences
Ans: B
Tips: Quality adjusted life year (QALY)
15. Health related quality of life (HRQOL) is an example of

A. Clinical outcome
B. Structural outcome
C. Economic outcome
D. Humanistic outcome
Ans: D
Tips: HRQOL has been defined as the assessment of the functional effects or illness
and its consequent therapy as perceived by the patient. These effects often are
displayed as physical, emotional and social effect on the patient. The measurement
of HRQOL usually is done through the use of patient completed quetionnaires. The
commonly used profile instruments is the medical outcomes study 36-item Short Form
Health Survey (SF-36). The instrument includes nine health concepts or scales. The SF-
36 has several advantages. For example, it is brief (it takes approximately 5-10 min to
complete). And it is reliable and validity have been documented in many clinical
situations and disease states. SF-36 contains 12 items only. The scale scores physical
and mental scores based on fewer items and fewer defined level of health and as a
result are estimated with less precision and less reliability.
16. Cost utility analysis (CUA) outcome is measured in?

A. Quality unit
B. Cost unit
C. Natural unit
D. Quantity
E. Dollars
Ans: A
17. Pharmacoeconomic studies are used to analyze cost of drugs to:

A. Healthcare system
B. Society
C. Pharmacist
D. Pharmaceutical manufacturer
E. Physician
Ans: B
18. What is SF-36?

A. Short-Form 36
44-4
Pharmacoeconomics
B. Slow release 36
C. General health status
D. Short functions 36
Ans: A
Tips: Short form 36 (SF-36) most frequently used in pharmacoeconomic general health
status instrument measuring 8 dimensions: physical functions, social functions, role
emotional, role physical, bodily pain, mental health, general health, and vitality.
19. If two drugs have same effectiveness than the drug, selection in hospital formulary is
based on?
A. Cost effective analysis (CEA)
B. Cost utility analysis (CUA)
C. Cost minimization analysis (CMA)
E. Professional judgment of prescriber
Ans: C
20. Which Pharmacoeconomics methodology attempts to define exactly how much good
is accomplished for each dollar spent?
P P

D. Cost benefit analysis (CBA)
E. Cost of illness analysis
Ans: D
Tips:
DOLLAR TO DOLLAR
21. Clinical parameters and cost effectiveness of two drugs to support the addition or
deletion of drug in hospital formulary can be compared by?
Ans: A
22. A drug A cost $1200 and 80% effective. Drug B cost $1200 and 80% effect. Which
pharmacoeconomic analysis helps to determine the better drug for hospital
formulary?
A. Cost utility analysis (CUA)
B. Cost minimization analysis (CMA)
C. Cost benefit analysis (CBA)
D. Cost of illness (COI)
E. Cost effective analysis (CEA)
44-5
Pharmacoeconomics
Ans: A
Tips:
CUA = outcome is QALY?
CEA = 80%
CBA & CMA = $1200
23. Which attempts to define how much good is done?

A. Cost effective analysis
B. Cost utility analysis
C. Cost benefit analysis
D. Cost minimization analysis
Ans: A
Tips: Cost effective analysis is often used in the field of health services, it is form of
economic analysis compares the relative cost and outcome. The cost refers to the
expenditure of intervention usually measured in dollars. The outcome of intervention
depends on the number of people cure the disease, the mmHg reduction, the
number of symptom free days experienced by the patient. A special case of CEA is
cost utility analysis where the effects are measured in terms of years of full health
lived, using measure such as quality adjusted life years (QALY) or disability adjusted
life year.
44-6
The New Drug Approval Process

1. Medications to be prescribed and sold in Canada are approved by?
A. Canadian Health Act
B. National Association Of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority (NAPRA)
C. Therapeutic Directorate, Health Canada
D. Federal Government of Canada
E. Provincial governments
Ans: C
2. When a new drug goes to the real world for testing its safety and efficacy in which
phase does that happen?
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
E. Pre-clinical trials
Ans: D
3. Which of the following are limitations of clinical studies to detect adverse effects?
A. Adverse drug reaction study uses healthy, non-symptomatic patient.
B. Adverse drug reaction studies use relatively small sample size compared to the
number of patients estimated to be prescribed with a drug.
C. Adverse drug reaction studies use relatively short study duration compared to the
duration of treatment used for chronic medication.
D. B and C
Ans: D
4. Where do you find the product with drugs with natural product number (NPN)?
A. Natural product stores
B. Pharmacies
C. Grocery stores
D. Hospital pharmacies
Ans: B
Tips: Notification issued indicating that manufacturer has complied with FDA
regulations. NOC is issued following satisfactory
Review of submission.
Terminology:
Medline or Pubmed: Online source of indexes and abstracts.
Red book: Pharmaceutical prices are described in this book.
SOP = Standard Operating Procedures used in preparation and formulation of
pharmaceuticals
45-1
GMP = Good Manufacturing Practices or Procedure, the guidelines that determined by
FDA for pharmaceutical preparations.
GLP = Good Laboratory Practice
5. Vitamin C contains?
A. Drug identification number
B. Product identification number
C. Natural product number
D. Homeopathic Number
E. Pseudo DIN
Ans: C
Tips: All-natural products, vitamins and nutritional supplements have NPN. Omega 3,
6, 9 also NPN.A DIN is made up of exactly 8 digits. Only numbers allowed (0-9). Unlike
other drug classes no meaning can be derived from the number itself. (Similar drugs
are NOT clustered together at similar numbers). DIN is printed on the label.
Drugs require a new DIN if there is dosage form, strength.
Generic/brand drugs require approval of bioequivalence.
6. A clinical trial application must be submitted to health Canada prior to?

A. Preclinical laboratory studies in animals
B. Phase 2 clinical trial but after phase 1
C. Phase 3 of clinical studies but after phase 2
D. Phase 4 of clinical studies but after phase 3
E. Phase 1 clinical trails
Ans: E
7. Off label drugs?

A. Prescribers are responsible for therapy decision.
B. Health Canada approved therapeutic indication.
C. A new drug that has NOT been approved by the Health Canada.
D. Manufacturer can promote off label use to prescriber.
E. Drugs that are contraindicated.
Ans: A
Tips: Off label drugs are the drugs that are already approved for the one therapeutic
use. However, there are clinical studies of new therapeutic use.
8. What agency initiates recall?

A. Health Canada
B. NAPRA
C. Health Canada
Ans: A
45-2
9. Which of the following is NOT part of retrospective drug utilization review studies?
A. Number of drugs per patient
B. Number of doses of drug per patient
C. Cost of drugs for patient
D. Floor stock system of drugs
E. Inappropriate duration of treatment
Ans: D
10. Health Canada reviews which of the following in Phase III clinical trial before issuing
NOC?
A. Safety & Efficacy
B. Efficacy
C. Therapeutic index
D. Serious of disease that treated
E. Expected drug price and demand
Ans: A
11. What is correct about phase I clinical trial?

A. Healthy human volunteers are tested.
B. Disease human volunteers are tested.
C. Larger population than Phase II is tested.
D. Drugs are approved for sale after phase III clinical trials.
Ans: A
12. All of the following are true about Phase III human clinical trial, EXCEPT:
A. Healthy human volunteers are tested.
B. Disease human volunteers are tested.
C. Larger population than Phase II is tested.
D. Drugs are approved for sale after phase III clinical trials.
Ans: A
13. Medications that are prescribed and sold over the counter in Canada are approved by?
A. Canadian Health Act
B. NAPRA
C. Health Canada
Ans: C
14. Healthy volunteers are tested in?

A. Pre-clinical studies
B. Phase I clinical studies
C. Phase II clinical studies
D. Phase III clinical studies
45-3
E. Phase IV clinical studies
Ans: B
15. Which of the following is the decisive phase in new drug approval?
A. Pre clinical studies
B. Phase I clinical studies
C. Phase II clinical studies
D. Phase III clinical studies
E. Phase IV clinical studies
Ans: D
16. Who approves and authorizes the sale of medications in Canada?

A. Therapeutic Product Directorate of Health Canada
B. Food & Drug and Administration
C. Pharmacy manager
D. Pharmaceutical Manufacturer
E. National Association Of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority (NAPRA)
Ans: A
17. Who sets prescription drug prices in Canada?

A. Health Canada
B. Patented Medication Review Board (PMPRB)
C. Pharmacy manager
E. Pharmaceutical Manufacturer
Ans: B
18. Who sets OTC drug prices?

A. Health Canada
B. Patented medicine review board (PMPRB)
C. Pharmacy manager/owner
E. Pharmaceutical Manufacturer
Ans: C
19. Who’s responsible for initiating Recall of the medication?

A. Manufacturers
B. Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)
C. Canada vigilance, Health Canada
D. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health (CADTH)
E. Provincial College Of Pharmacies
Ans: C
Tips: Health Canadas Med effect, recalls, advisories and drug withdrawals.
Manufacturer voluntary can recall.
45-4
Strategic thinking:
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is initiating. Key phrase,
recall. To answer this question, understand that it is asking for an agency that is
responsible and authorized to order or direct other agencies or offices to
execute the recall. Initiate and execute are two different things.
3. Thus, correct answer is C.
20. What is the most important focus of pharmaceutical care?

A. The pharmacist
B. The patient
C. The prescription
D. The patient medication profile
E. Patient medication history
Ans: B
21. Pharmacotherapy’s ultimate goal is based on?

A. Pharmacist decision
B. Patient decision
C. Physician decision
D. Patient family decision
E. Government decision
Ans: B
22. Health Canada approves natural products based on?

A. Clinical evidence of effectiveness
B. Statistical significance
C. Clinical trial data
D. Good manufacturing conditions
E. Evidence of safety
Ans: D
45-5
45-6
Evidence Based Medicine and Epidemiology

1. Which if the following is a proven case for prevalence?
A. 50 died from community of 500 infected by malaria 2017.
B. 500 died from community in 2017.
C. 5000 Canadian first time infected by influenza in 2017.
D. Observation of a group for Cancer group for 1 year.
E. Post marketing surveillance or phase IV clinical trials.
Ans: A
Prevalence: Incidence:
Total number of cases of disease The number of new cases of the
that exist. disease in a unit of time, usually
Total infected one year.
Prevalence = Total new cases
Total Exposed
Incidence =
Total exposure
Strategic thinking:
2. Look for clues and keywords or key phrases. Clue here is proven case. Keyword,
prevalence. To answer this question, the equation to solve for prevalence can
help you. As such, your answer should provide both values of the infected and
total exposed people. Only one option has both.
3. Thus, correct answer is A.
2. Which of the following clinical trial study design are the most credible or most reliable?
A. Randomized single blind
B. Randomized double blind
C. Observational studies
D. Case reports
E. Case series
Ans: B
Tips: Randomized clinical trials provide the most internally valid evidence for medical
decision making.
3. In controlled clinical trial, treatment should be allocated by:

A. Randomization
B. Day of week
C. Date of birth
D. Hospital number
Ans: A
4. Choose the incorrect statement about the p (probability of error) value?

A. The p (probability of error) value is the chance of a type I error.
46-1
B. If a p value is equal to/or lower than 0.05, it is unlikely that a type I error has been
made; that is, a type I error will be made 5 times or less out of 100.
C. A p value equal to/or less than 0.05 is generally considered to be statistically
significant; lower p values (e.g., p < 0.01) may be required for statistical significance
in studies with large sample sizes.
D. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type II error.
Ans: D
5. Odd ratio is used to calculate the outcome of?

A. Retrospective studies
B. Prospective studies
C. Cross sectional studies
D. Cohort studies
E. Meta-analysis
Ans: A
Tips: retrospective studies are case control, calculates outcome in odd ratio.
6. Randomization means:
A. Specific criteria are used to assign any patient to particular group.
B. No specific criteria are used to assign any patient to particular group.
C. In clinical trial ensuring compliance with government regulations.
D. System or procedures designed to ensure that study is being performed.
E. Meta-analysis
Ans: B
7. Clinical trials should be conducted in accordance with?

A. Federal regulations
B. Provincial regulations
C. Clinical practice guidelines
D. Ethical principle
E. Manufacturer guidelines
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is an example of non-interventional trials or observational trials

and follow up like a comparison of two patients with COPD, one smoker and the other
non-smoker?
A. Cohort study
B. Clinical trials
C. Interventional trials
D. Case control studies
E. Cross sectional studies
Ans: A
9. The opposite of blind study is an?

46-2
A. Cohort study
B. Retrospective study
C. Open label study
D. Double blind study
E. Triple blind study
Ans: C
10. Which of the following phase of clinical trial in which the purpose is to gather
information to evaluate overall benefit risk relationship?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Ans: C
11. Which of the following phase of clinical trial in which purpose is post marketing
surveillance?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Ans: D
12. Which of the following phase of clinical trial in which the purpose is safety short-time side
effects?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 5
Ans: A
13. Which of the following is the highest level of evidence?

A. Expert opinion
B. Case series
C. Case control or historical control
D. Non-randomized observational trials
E. Randomized control trials
Ans: E
Tips: the sequence of lowest level of evidence to highest level is expert opinion --> case
series --> case control --> non-randomized observational trials --> randomized control trials.
14. The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is a?
46-3
A. Non-parametric statistical hypothesis test used when comparing two related samples or
repeated measurements on a single sample to assess whether their population means
differ.
B. Parametric statistical hypothesis test used when comparing more than two related
samples.
C. Non-parametric statistical hypothesis test used when comparing more than two related
samples.
D. Non-parametric statistical hypothesis test used when comparing single sample.
Ans: A
15. Which of the following is the strongest (the most credible) clinical trial design?
A. Randomized experiments
B. Cohort
C. Case control
D. Case series
E. Case report
Ans: A
Tips: Sequence of strength is A>B>C>D>E
16. What is included in "intent-to-treat analysis"?

A. Data from patients originally assigned.
B. Data from patient participated from entire treatment.
C. Data from patient discontinued treatment.
D. Data from dropped out patient for non-therapeutic reason.
E. All of the above
Ans: E
Tips: Intent-to-treat analysis in which patients are included in the group to which they
were randomized irrespective of compliance, administrative errors or protocol
deviation.
17. Which of the following parameters would be influenced by a drug treatment that
prolongs life without curing the disease?
A. Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
Ans: D
Tips: Those people don’t have disease so means specificity so need not to cure the
disease.
18. How to test effectiveness for treating pneumonia?

A. Randomized placebo trials
B. Randomized comparative trial
C. Observational cohort studies
46-4
D. Stratification of trails
E. Systematic review
Ans: A
Tips: Randomized double dummy (placebo) clinical trials are used to test effectiveness
of treatment.
19. A study takes place in a chemical factory to find out relationship between having cancer
and working in the factory. The results have been collected over a long period of time,
the data gathered proved that there is possibility of cancer with workers, what type is
this study:
A. Cochran study
B. Meta-analysis
C. Double blind study
D. Randomized study
E. Case control study
Ans: E
20. A pharmacist has received information regarding a new drug to treat hypertension. The
information is based on a 2-month, placebo controlled, randomized study of 1000 adults
that showed a statistically significant average decrease in systolic pressure from 160 mm
Hg to 141 mm Hg and in diastolic pressure from 98 mm Hg to 86 mm Hg. The most
common adverse reactions were stomach upset and dizziness. Which of the following is
the most significant limitation of this study?
A. The study size was too small to assess efficacy.
B. The patients did not achieve guideline targets for hypertension.
C. Blood pressure is a surrogate outcome.
D. Long term safety and efficacy were not assessed.
E. Placebo is not an appropriate comparator.
Ans: D
21. Which of the following is an example of non-interventional trials or observational trials

like comparison of two patient COPD, one smokes and other non-smoker?
A. Cohort study
B. Clinical trials
C. Interventional trials
D. All of the above
Ans: A
22. In clinical trial of antihypertensive drugs, the factors obesity, age, gender, diet and that
effect on blood pressure, which of the following is dependable variable?
A. Blood pressure
B. Obesity
C. Age
D. Gender
E. Diet
46-5
Ans: A
Tips:
Strata = common characteristic of a group
Past study comparison = case control
Current study comparison = cross sectional
A group is followed for future = cohor
23. Cohort study is as a study design which is?

A. Common characteristic of a group.
B. Case control, individuals with a disease (e.g. cancer) are compared with similar
individuals without the disease to determine if there is association of the disease
with prior exposure to an agent.
C. Cross sectional: Current study comparison or prevalence of a disease or clinical
parameter among exposed group is studied. E.g. the prevalence of respiratory
conditions among furniture makers.
D. Study model that is compared with past report
E. A group (cohort) of individuals with exposure to chemical and a group (cohort)
without exposure is followed overtime to compare disease.
Ans: E
24. When considering blinding study designs, all of the following studies consider controls
or placebo in constructing the design, EXCEPT:
A. Triple blind
B. Open label
C. Single blind
D. Double blind
E. Double dummy
Ans: B
Tips:
Open label: a clinical study WITHOUT control group or placebo arm
Blinding: a clinical study WITH a control group or placebo group. Example single blind,
double blind (double dummy), and triple blind.
25. Which of the following clinical trial (valid trials) is the most credible (provides evidence)?
A. Observational
B. Stratified clinical trials
C. Randomized open label clinical trials
D. Randomized double blind clinical trials
E. Case reports
Ans: D
26. In a hospital, Pharmacy Therapeutic Committee and Medication Advisory Committee are
discussing about the currently discontinued drugs in the market for the future drugs
inclusion into formulary. The data gathered are result of which of the following studies?
A. Cohort
46-6
B. Cross sectional
C. Case control
D. Experimental studies
Ans: B
27. A vaccine manufacturer is planning to manufacture flu vaccine for the year 2019 flu
season. Which of the following information is essential?
A. Incidence of flu in USA
B. Prevalence of flu in USA
C. Cost of flu vaccine in USA
D. Government payments in USA
E. Insurance coverage policy in USA
Ans: B
28. One of the formulation experts thinks drug may not have been absorbed in patient with
diarrhea. If drug is not absorbed, then it can’t be expected to work. So perhaps, in a
patient with no diarrhea, drug will work. In this study, the dependent variable can be
influenced by?
A. Study bias Tips:
Diarrhea
B. Confounder factor
Drug --------------- Absorption
C. Placebo effect
D. Independent variable effect
E. Confirmation bias
Ans: B
29. Weakest clinical trial is?

A. Cochrane library
B. Meta-analysis
C. Systemic review of randomized trials
D. Systemic review of case study trials
Ans: D
30. Categorical (nominal) data?

A. Height
B. Weight
C. Range
D. Temperature
E. Hair color
Ans: E
Tips: There are four types of data (measurement scales); nominal, ordinal, interval and
ratio.
Nominal: mode, and frequency of distribution (counts) There is no natural order
between its categories. e.g. Hair color, gender, mental status.
Ordinal: median, mode, frequency of distribution, the order of value is known
46-7
Interval: mean, median, mode, frequency, the order value, difference between each
value; can add and subtract values
Ratio: mean, median, mode, frequency, the order value, difference between each value;
can add and subtract values; can multiply and divide.
31. Diastolic blood pressure is which variable?

A. Discrete
B. Nominal
C. Continuous
D. Ordinal
E. Biologic
Ans: C
Tips: Discrete variable is continuous random variable, whose quantity changes. A
discrete value is obtained by counting. Example number of medications. Height, variable
A continuous random variable takes all values in a given interval of number. Examples of
continuous variable are HR, BP , Temperature, Serum cholesterol, height, weight
Nominal is like can’t give a numerical value to be compared for e.g. eye color or gender.
Ordinal variable is one where the order matters but not the difference between values.
Range is tool for ordinal Example, pain scale 1 to 10.
32. Which is a nominal or categorical variable?

A. Weight
B. Height
C. Eye color
D. Range of movement
E. Temperature
Ans: C
Tips: Qualitative and discrete variables are also called categorical variables and their
values categories.
33. What clinical study is useful to collect data about a pandemic disease occurred 10 years
ago?
A. Systematic review
B. Cross over study
C. Cohort study
D. Case control study
E. parallel study
Ans: D
34. Inside a hospital a survey has done to all pharmacists about the future plan & job
A. Randomized analysis
B. Randomized
C. Time series analysis
D. Survival outcome
E. Delphi analysis
46-8
Ans: E
Tips: Delphi analysis is an organized method for collecting views and information
pertaining to a specific area.
Feed back
Key questions and assumption------ 1st Delphi Round distribution of survey analysis of
P P
results -------(feed back)2nd round distribution of survey analysis of results.

P P
Survival analysis: a collection of statistical procedure for data analysis for which; the
time outcome variable is time until event occurs and the study design has follow up.
Longitudinal study: Studies repeatedly draw sample from the population over time. Or
use same panel where the same panel are asked to respond periodically.
35. A study where all pharmacists took a questionnaire to see their opinion:
A. Case study
B. Cross sectional
C. Delphi analysis
D. Longitudinal study
Ans: C
Tips: Longitudinal study: Studies repeatedly draw sample from the population over
time. Or use same panel where the same panel are asked to respond periodically.
36. A pharmacist works for a company. He is planning to start his own pharmacy business so
he most likely does?
A. Tolerate risk
B. Neutral risk
C. Love risk
D. Fear risk
Ans: A
46-9
46-10
Biostatistics
Biostatistics
1. The next four questions have as reference the following information:
In a chromatographic analysis of a drug we found the following results
2, 4, 8, 5, 7, 4 and standard deviation 5. What is the mean in this analysis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 30
D. 15
E. 6
Ans: B 2+4+8+5+7+4 = 5
2. What is the median in this analysis (referring to the information above)?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 4.5
D. 7
E. 8
Ans: C 2, 4, 4, 5, 7, 8
3. What is the mode in this analysis (referring to the information above)?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
E. 8
Ans: B 2, 4, 4, 5, 7, 8
4. What is the Coefficient of variance (referring to the information above)?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
E. 100
Standard Dev.
Ans: E Coefficient of Variance = × 100
Mean
5
Coefficient of Variance = × 100 = 1000
5
5. Type I error, also called alpha-error give what kind of results?

A. False-positive
B. False-negative
review sessions conducted by PharmacyPrep.
47-1
Biostatistics
C. Positive false
D. False-false
Ans: A
Tips: Type I error is used in biostatistics analysis and classified as “False-Positive” test because it
can accept a variance error in the test of 1 to 5%, however this difference does not mean
complete error of the test.
6. Correct statements regarding biostatics error may include:

A. Type I error also known as α-error can admit a variance error of 1 to 5%
B. Type II error also known as β-error is a negative-false type of error because it shows a very
small difference-delta error (99,9999).
C. In type II error the data shows no difference but there is difference.
D. Type 1 rejecting null hypothesis when it is true.
E. All of the above.
Ans: E
Tips:Type I error, please read answer 5. Type II error (β-error) is a “Positive-False” test because
the variance of error is very small (Delta error), so the data shows difference but there is no
difference.
7. In hypothesis testing, a type 2 error occurs when?

A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternate hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is not rejected when null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is rejected when null hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when alternate hypothesis is true.
Ans: A
8. A result is statistically significant whenever:

A. The null hypothesis is true.
B. Alternate hypothesis is true.
C. The p-value is less or equal to significance levels.
D. The p-value is larger than significant levels.
Ans: C
9. Five subjects were given single intravenous dose of a drug and had the following elimination
half-life 3, 7, 2, 3 and 5hr. The mean half-life is:
A. 3hr
B. 2hr
C. 5.4hr
D. 4hr
E. 4.5hr
Ans: D
Tips: 3+7+2+3+5 = 4
47-2
Biostatistics
10. In a pharmacoepidemiologic study, a group of patients receiving a drug and who share a
common characteristic or conditioning such as age or diagnostic followed for 2 years.
A. Cluster
B. Segment
C. Strata
D. Control
E. Cohort
Ans: E
Tips: In pharmacoepidemiology, cohort is a study design of a group of people who are either of
the same age or share some other common characteristics
11. In statistics, a parametric test can be used to analyze data provided that:
I. There is homogeneity of variance among the groups.
II. The data is normally distributed.
III. That the level of significance (p) is not less than 0.05.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
Ans: C
12. An increase in the incidence of diseases, conditions or other health related events in a defined
human population that is clearly in excess of that which was expected during a specific time is
called:
A. Epidemics
B. Endemics
C. Pandemics
D. Epidemiologic predisposition
E. All are correct
Ans: A
Tips: Epidemics are an increase in the incidence of diseases, conditions or other health related
events in a defined human population that is clearly in excess of that which was expected during
a specific time is called. Example: Flu
13. Endemic diseases are conditions or health related behaviors that are constantly present in
human population. Example of endemic disease may include:
A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
B. AIDS
C. Flu
D. Influenza
E. Cancer
Ans:B
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Biostatistics
Tips: Endemics diseases are conditions or health related behaviours that are constantly present
in a human population. Example: AIDS
14. Correct statement regarding primary prevention may include:

A. Early detection and treatment of the disease.
B. Involve the palliative treatment and rehabilitation therapy.
C. Reduction in the incidence of disease through immunization, education and others.
D. The diagnostic of disease.
E. Treatment of disease.
Ans: C
Tips: Primary prevention is a reduction in incidence of disease through immunization, sanitation,
education or other means of eliminating pathogenic contamination in the human environment.
15. In biostatistics, the difference between the highest and lowest data observation is called:
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Range
E. Standard deviation
Ans: D
Tips: Range is the difference between the highest and lowest data observation.
Example: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10. The range is 10-2= 8
16. In a biostatistics analysis, the normal distribution calculations found to have the mean, media
and mode with the same value. This is called:
A. Skewed distribution
B. Symmetrical distribution
C. Measures of dispersion
D. Measure of central tendency
E. Standard deviation
Ans: B
Tips: Symmetrical distribution happens when the mean, median and mode are the same valour
in a given data.
17. In a biostatistics test of a drug, the normal distribution found was equal to 68%. We may
assume that the standard deviation from the mean value is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Ans: A
Tips: Number of standard deviation from the mean data characterizing the normal population:
68% = 1, 95% = 2, 99% = 3, 99.99% = 4
47-4
Biostatistics
18. In biostatistics, which of the following is non-parametric study?

A. Student’s test
B. Chi-square test
C. Null hypothesis
D. Paired-t test
E. F-distribution
Ans: B
Tips: Null hypothesis is not a statistical test it is a hypothesis test that states no difference
between the hypothesis and the reality (test done).
19. Statistical test where two treatments are applied to a single group of experimental units is
called:
A. Student’s test
T-test
B. Paired-t test Paired t-test: 2 treatments applied to a single group
C. F-distribution Unpaired t-test: 2 treatments applied 2 different groups
D. Chi-square test
E. Measures of central tendency
Ans:B
Tips: Paired-t test is a type of test where two treatments are applied to a single group of
experimental units. Example: The bioavailability test of generic drug to its reference standard
drug in a group of people.
20. Correct statements regarding BIAS include:

I. They are experimental errors.
II. They can be classified in selection bias, information bias and confounding bias.
III. Selection bias happens when the study results are distorted by the selection process.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All are correct
Ans: E
Tips: Bias are experimental errors normally classified in selection bias also called sampling,
information bias also called misclassification and confounding bias.
21. Experimental error resulted from poor data collection or inaccurate measurement is called:
A. Selection bias
B. Information bias
C. Confounding bias
D. Type II error
E. Type I error
Ans: B
47-5
Biostatistics
Tips: Information bias also called misclassification is a type of experimental error happening
when the study results become distorted by poor data collection or inaccurate measurement.
22. In a clinical trial for development of a new drug, phase II procedures include:
A. Animal experiments
B. Pharmacokinetic test in a health adult.
C. Safety and efficacy tests done in a large population that have the disease or condition for
what the drug is developed.
D. Test the new drug with comparison of standard drug.
E. Studies to compare the drug with its competitor.
Ans: C
Tips: In a phase II clinical trial the drugs is tested for safety and efficacy in a large population
that have the disease or conditions for what the drug is developed.
23. The following are all statistical concrete variable

A. Drug strength
B. Tablets size
C. Number of bottles
D. Gender
E. Number of patients
Ans: D
Tips: Concrete variables are relatively fixed and not changed such as biological variable gender,
ethnicity etc. Discrete variable or nominal variable are occupation, religion etc.
24. Alpha error is:

A. False negative
B. False positive
C. False negative and false positive
D. Confidence interval
E. Inverse of error probability
Ans: B
25. Distribution and determinants of disease frequency in human studies is:

A. Epidemiology
B. Biostatistics
C. Publisher
D. Socio economics
Ans: A
26. Difference between means of two samples can statistically analysed by:
A. T-tests
B. Analysis of variance
C. Chi square test
D. Correlation
47-6
Biostatistics
E. Multiple regression
Ans: A
27. Differences between means of more than two samples can statistically be analysed by:
A. T-tests
C. Chi square test
D. Correlation
Ans: B
28. Differences between frequencies in a sample can statistically be analysed by?

A. T-tests
C. Chi square test
D. Correlation
Ans: C
29. Which of the following is NOT correct about statistical significance?

A. p-value is a component of statistical tests.
B. Null hypothesis is a component of statistical tests
C. Alternate hypothesis is a component of statistical tests.
D. Confidence interval is a component of statistical tests.
E. Clinical significance is a component of statistical tests.
Ans: E
Tips: Statistical vs clinical significant. E.g. in a study two antihypertensive difference in BP of 1-2
mmHg may be statistically significant, but may not be clinical significant.
30. A new drug absolute risk reduction is 4% for preventing stroke means:
A. Four patient out of 100 actually benefit from new drug
B. Four patient of all study group benefit from new drug
C. New drugs four times better than old drug
D. New drugs is 4% better than old drug
Ans: A
Tips: ARR = EER-CER
31. The NNT for the above case is 25, it means?

A. 25 patients had to receive the new drug in order for one additional patient to benefit
compared to placebo.
B. New drug benefit 25 people patient in 100 patients
C. 25 patients had to receive the new drug in order to benefit 100 patients.
D. 100 patient had to receive the new drug in order to benefit 25 patients
Ans: A
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Biostatistics
Tips: If a study A, NNT is 25 and study B, NNT is 50. Which of the following would you
recommend to your formulary?
32. The results of the trial of vasodilators in patient with congestive heart failure. The mortality in
the ACEi arm was 33% and in hydralazine plus nitrate group it was 39%. What is the relative
risk reduction?
A. 0.86
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 29%
E. 3.3%
Ans: C
39 − 33
Tips: ( ) × 100 = 15%
39
33. In clinical trials conducted at ABC pharmacy over 10 years, the desired clinical outcome with a
new drug is achieved in 40 of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 35
obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the
period is:
Tips:
A. 50% 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸−𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
B. 100% RRR =
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
C. 14% RRR = Relative risk reduction
D. 12.5% EER = Experimental event rate
E. No difference CER = Control event rate
40 − 35
Ans: D [ ] × 100 = 12.5%
40
34. In a clinical trial, conducted over 10 years, a specific serious side effect with a therapy X is seen
in 10% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug Y, only 7.5%
experienced the same side effect. Based on the results, what is the absolute risk reduction?
A. 10%
B. 7%
C. 7.5%
D. 2.5%
Ans: D
Tips:
Absolute Risk Reduction = EER - CER
ARR = EER - CER
10% - 7.5% = 2.5%
35. What is the number needed to treat if absolute risk reduction is 2.5%
A. 20
B. 25
C. 40
D. 400
Ans: C
47-8
Biostatistics
Tips:
1
NNT = × 100
𝐴𝐴𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
1
NNT = x 100 NNT = 40
2.5
36. The risk for A = 0.2% and for B = 0.1%. What is true? Tips:
A. Absolute risk reduction is 5% NNT =
1
B. The relative risk reduction is 1%. 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴

ARR = 0.2% - 0.1%
C. Total number needed to treat is 1000. = 0.1%
D. Ratio is 1. NNT =
1
0.1%
Ans: C 1
( ) x 100 = 1000
0.1
37. Drug A has 1% mortality and drug B has 1.5% mortality. Relative risk to drug A to B with 95%CI
is 0.64 (0.32-1.02). What is true?
A. Drug A better than drug B, clinical finding is significant
B. Drug B better than drug A, clinical finding is significant
C. Drug A better than drug B, clinical finding is non-significant
D. Drug B better than drug A, clinical finding is non-significant
Ans. A
Tips: Drug A better than drug B, clinical finding is significant concluded because as long as long
as the relative risk values lies in the confidence interval range. This means we are by 95%
confident that the relative risk lies between 0.32 and 1.02 and in this case, it is equal to 0.64, so
it is significant.
Key point: Results is statistical significant because the 94%CI does not include zero and more
than 1.
38. The results of a study show that compared with placebo, the investigational agent decreases
blood pressure by 10 mmHg with p-value 0.006. What is the description of the results?
A. Statistically significant and clinically significant.
B. Statistically significant but NOT clinically significant.
C. Clinically significant but NOT statistically significant.
D. Not clinically significant and not statistically significant.
Ans: A
Statistically significant Clinical significant
Difference between control and Whether drug has really genuine,
treatment. Like p value, Confidence noticeable effect on daily life
Intervals, etc.
Strategic thinking:
1. Read the question. Identify and organize the information provided.
2. You are given both p-value and BP reduction by the investigational drug. To answer this
question, apply your knowledge on assessing p-value to determine its statistical
significance. As you have learned, the value from the question is within the limit (p<0.05)
thus it is statistically significant. Eliminate options that say otherwise. Next, assess from
the BP reduction the clinical significance. 10mmHg reduction is significant enough to
47-9
Biostatistics
affect a patient’s daily life positively. Thus we can conclude that it is aswell clinically
significant.
3. Thus, the answer is A.
39. Parameters effect one result of study is called?

A. One-way Anova
B. Multiple Anova
C. Chi-square
D. Three-way Anova
Ans: C
40. A cohort study enrolled 800 cancer-free women receiving hormone replacement therapy and
800 matched control. By the end of the study, 75 of cohort have developed breast cancer and
38 of control of breast cancer. Given these data, what is the relative risk of developing breast
cancer associated with exposure to HRT?
A. 0.50 Tips:
B. 1.97 75
EER = [ ]x 100 = 9.3%
C. 1.05 800
38
D. 0.95 CER = [ ] x 100 = 4.75%
800
E. 1 RR =
9.3
4.75
Ans: B = 1.95
OR
41. Purposes of meta-analysis include:
I. Decrease the chance of type 1 error 75
= 1.97
38
II. Increase the sample size
III. Decrease the likelihood of beta error
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I,II,III
Ans: E
42. In a perspective study comparing the effectiveness of two chemotherapeutic treatments for
cervical cancer, causes were selected from one group of patients who had annual pap smears
for at least five years prior to their initial diagnosis and from another group of patients who had
no history of prior pap smears screening. The selection cases from both groups in this study
may result in:
Bias = systemic error = Distortion of a test measurement
A. Interview bias; Because of blinding of interviewer’s response may be influenced, known as
interview bias.
B. Recall Bias; Differentials in the memory capabilities.
C. Lead time bias; The selection of cases from both of these groups introduces a form of non-
random error known as lead time bias
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Biostatistics
D. Confounding; effects because of dependent and independent variables.

E. Berksons bias (admission rate bias); Distortion in risk ratios occur as result of different
hospital admissions.
F. All of the above
Ans: F
43. In an experiment, if one wants to know the number of newly prescribed Oxycodone and refill
prescription under 4 physicians, what is the name of tests used?
A. Odd ratio
B. Student T-test
C. Non-continuous data
D. Bell shaped continuous data
Ans: B
Tips: comparisons of two groups newly Rx and refill Rx group so student T-test.
44. Which of the following error is associated with compliance?

A. Over utilization of drugs
B. Underutilization of drugs
C. Administration of medication at inappropriate time
D. All of the above
Ans: C
Tips: Administration of medication is related to patient compliance. However drug utilization
reviews are related to data of post marketing surveillance or pharmacovigilance.
45. What is the weakest clinical trial?

A. Cochrane reviews
B. Systematic review random trial
C. Systematic review case study trial
D. Meta-analysis
Ans: C
46. Diastolic blood pressure is what kind of variable?

A. Discrete variable
B. Nominal
C. Continuous variable
D. Ordinal variable
Ans: C
Tips: There are four types of data (measurement scales); nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio.
Nominal: mode, and frequency of distribution (counts)
Ordinal: median, mode, frequency of distribution, the order of value is known
Discrete: whose value is obtained by counting, height, weight, number of student present.
Continuous: can assume any value within a specified relevant intervals of values assumed by the
variable. No matter how close together the observed blood pressure of two people. We can find
another person whose blood pressure falls somewhere in between
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Biostatistics
Interval: mean, median, mode, frequency, the order value, difference between each value; can
add and subtract values
Ratio: mean, median, mode, frequency, the order value, difference between each value; can add
and subtract values; can multiply and divide.
47. Weight, age, disease state in clinical trials:

A. Biological variable
B. Statistical variable
C. Biological significance
D. Statistical significance
E. Confidence intervals
Ans: A
48. To compare means of clinical trials not undergoing normal distribution, you use?
A. Anova
B. T-Test
C. Wilcox Test
D. Chi-square test
E. Unpaired T-test
Ans: C
Tips: normal distribution is parametric test. so options a, b and e are out of the question cos
they are parametric tests for normal distribution
Wilcoxon singed rank test is non-parametric hypothesis used to compare two related samples,
repeated measurements on single sample to assess whether their population mean rank differ.
It can be used to alternate student t-test.
49. Which is interval variable?

A. Eye color
B. Clinical diagnosis
C. Celsius temperature
D. Blood pressure
E. Sex
Ans: D
Tips: Nominal: There is no natural order between its categories. e.g. Hair color, gender, mental
status
Ordinal: There is natural order between its categories e.g. study level, course grade, size of
clothing
Discrete: Their values are isolated numbers (usually integers) e.g. number of children, number of
cars, and number of subjects
Continuous: They can take any value in a real interval. e.g. Height, weight, age
50. What is true about the confidence interval?

A. Its width increases as sample size increases
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Biostatistics
B. Its width decreases as sample size Increases

C. Its width increase as sample size decreases
D. Its width decreases as sample size decreases
E. Its width is independent of sample size
Ans: B
51. In clinical trials, an undesired effect occurred 2% of the time in patients taking the drug and 4 %
in patients taking the Placebo. In the brochure, they mention a 2% reduction. This is:
A. Absolute risk increase
B. Absolute risk reduction
C. Relative risk reduction
D. Relative risk
E. Risk rate
Ans. B
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Biostatistics
47-14
Hospital Pharmacy
PHARMACY PREP
HOSPITAL PHARMACY
1. A patient in a hospital was prescribed with Lamisil but he received Lamictal instead. After 3
days, patient asked why he is taking antidepressant drugs. This kind of dispensing error
could have happened due to all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Doctor wrote the wrong prescription from the beginning.
B. Nurse heard order wrongly from doctor.
C. Nurse confused with names of both drugs.
D. The drugs are put beside each other that may cause confusion.
E. The nurse in the shift did not know the treatment for the patient.
Ans: A
2. All are true about best possible medication history are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Snap shot patient’s actual medication use.
B. Complete documentation includes drug name, dosage, frequency.
C. Review to obtain and verify all patient medication use treatment and non-treatment.
D. Created using systematic process of interviewing of patient/ family.
E. Review the triggers of events leading to hospitalization.
Ans: E
3. Which of the following should NEVER be used when communicating medication

information?
A. Heparin IV bolus 2000 units
B. Simvastatin 40.0 mg daily
C. Levothyroxine 100 mcg
D. Warfarin 2 mg once daily
Ans: B
Tips: The dangerous abbreviations, symbols and dose designations recommended by ISMP
have been frequently misinterpreted and involved in harmful medication error like trailing
zero decimal points is overlooked resulting in 10 fold dose error.
4. The packaging for all medications follows the rules and regulations of:
A. The College of Pharmacist
B. Manufacturers
C. Health Canada
D. World Health Organization
E. Federal law
Ans: C
Tips: All packaging, labeling and manufacturing follows Health Canada rules and regulations
of Food and drug act (FDA). This includes the medications that are imported to Canada.
5. Formulary drugs in the hospital share all of the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A. All hospital has same formulary.
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Hospital Pharmacy
B. Each hospital has a distinct formulary.

C. The formulary in the hospital is chosen by Pharmacy and Therapeutics committee.
D. For all medications, the patient that is admitted to the ward will not pay for them.
E. None of the above.
Ans: A
Tips: Each individual hospital publishes its unique formulary.
6. You have a perpetual inventory record in the hospital for narcotics and controlled drugs.
The following is/are true:
A. It is a continuous record.
B. Purchases added and products delivered are subtracted.
C. Products when returned from the ward are added to the perpetual.
Ans: D
7. You received a prescription for emergency release drugs or investigational drugs. These are
processed by:
A. Very quickly filled to the patient.
B. May not require a prescription.
C. Only obtained through Health Canada’s Special Access Program.
D. Only obtained from the manufacturer
Ans: C
8. All the following is true when drug is returned from nursing floors, EXCEPT:
A. Excess stock is returned to pharmacy where it is recycled.
B. Vials and bottles are placed in a paper bag with the name of the nursing unit on the
outside.
C. The returned medication/packages are not examined by pharmacy staff only by the
nurse.
D. Liquids are returned to stock only if they are not opened.
Ans: C
Tips: All medications/packages are examined by pharmacy staff upon return pharmacy.
9. You are working in a hospital pharmacy and you received an order from department of X-
ray and scans, and you saw (IVP) order. This represents:
A. IV protein
B. IV pyelogram
C. Very important person
D. IV Program
Ans: B
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Hospital Pharmacy
Tips: It is for kidney. IV pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray exam that uses an injection of contrast
media to evaluate kidney ureters and bladder to help diagnosed blood in the urine or pain
in the lower back.
10. The main difference between hospital pharmacy inventory and community pharmacy
inventory is:
A. Inventory turnover rate in hospital pharmacy is much higher than the community
pharmacy.
B. Hospital pharmacy more staff employees than the community pharmacy.
C. The pharmacy area of hospital pharmacy is larger than the community pharmacy.
D. No sales records in the hospital pharmacy.
E. No controlled drugs and narcotics regulation are followed in hospital
Ans: A
Tips: The turnover in the hospital pharmacy is (8-12) versus (4-6) in community pharmacy.
11. The following is true about hospital formulary:

A. Approved by the physicians working in the hospital.
B. Approved only by the manager of the pharmacy.
C. Approved by pharmacy and therapeutic (P&T) committee
D. Approved by physicians and nursing staff.
Ans: C
12. The following applies to non-formulary drugs.

A. Special forms must be filled out.
B. Submitting a formulary addition request.
C. Patient brings their own medication for the nurse to administer.
Ans: D
13. Non-formulary items are requested in the hospital by doctors for the following reasons,
EXCEPT:
A. A new product is released in the market that is proven to be more effective than the
current therapy.
B. New patients admitted that use non-formulary drug.
C. For cancer patients, a new anticancer drug is approved
D. For psychiatric patients, the drug is resistant.
Ans: E
14. When a team is considering to prepare a budget for a hospital pharmacy, all is/are true
EXCEPT:
A. Changes in services (HIV clinic, Diabetic clinic)
B. Changes in demographics of area.
C. Trends in drug use.
48-3
Hospital Pharmacy
D. More advertisements.
Ans: D
15. The following item/s is /are considered hard to be predicted in a hospital pharmacy.
A. Timely fashion requirement for drugs & supplies.
B. Highest quality products at lowest available price.
C. Lowest financial investment.
D. All laws & regulations of federal & provincial are followed.
Ans: C
Tips: There should be an appropriate financial investment and not the lowest financial
investment.
16. All the following is/are true with respect to the storage of medications EXCEPT:
A. Cold not to exceed 10oC
B. Freezer (-10 to -20oC)
C. Cool (8-15oC)
D. Warm (30-4oC)
Ans: A
Tips: Cold means not to exceed 8oC
17. The following is true with respect to storage of narcotics, EXCEPT:

A. Must segregate stock from regular stock.
B. Must be kept in separate area under lock and key with limited access.
C. Must keep perpetual inventory of narcotics.
D. Can be easily audited.
Ans: A
Tips: Storage of toxic & carcinogenic must be a segregate stock from regular stock.
18. All the following is/are true with automation EXCEPT:

A. Improve efficiencies.
B. Increase costs.
C. Improve resource allocation.
D. Improve accurate medication distribution, and safe medication use.
Ans: B
Tips: Automation decreases costs.
19. Protection of medications involve all EXCEPT:

A. Protect from excessive heat.
B. Protect from freezing.
C. Protect from wind.
D. Protect from wet place.
Ans: C
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Hospital Pharmacy
20. All the following are true about the benefits of effective inventory management EXCEPT:
A. Saved money
B. Saved staffing
C. More expired date drug checked
D. Less stock outs
Ans: C
Tips: Inventory management does not include expiry date checking
21. The following is an obstacle to the full implementation of bar code technology:
A. Staff of pharmacy
B. Schedule 2 products
C. Injection vials & unit dose packages
D. Unscheduled medications
Ans: C
Tips: The lack of bar codes on all injection vials and unit dose packages possess a challenge.
22. The following is true:

A. Pharmacies generally buy most of their prescription medications from one major supply.
B. Pharmacies generally buy most of their prescription medication from two or more major
supplies.
C. Pharmacies, generally buy most of their prescription medications from manufacturer.
D. Most pharmacies place order every week.
Ans: A
23. Disruptions in the supply of pharmaceuticals may occur from all except:
A. Disaster conditions
B. Recalls
C. Outbreaks
D. Increase in population
Ans: D
24. You are working as a pharmacist in a hospital pharmacy and they want to add some
medications for adult formulary. What is your suggestion?
A. Most medications added should be capsules.
B. Most medications added should be chewable.
C. Most medications added should be as a film coated tablet.
D. Most medications added as sustained released preparations.
Ans: C
Tips: Film coated medications may be split while capsules and sustained release cannot,
hence cheaper.
48-5
Hospital Pharmacy
25. You are in a hospital pharmacy, and the hospital wants to add iron preparations to its
formulary. What do you suggest?
Ferrous fumarate 33% Iron 20 packs
Ferrous sulfate 20% Iron 20 packs
Ferrous gluconate 12% Iron 20 packs
Iron base suspension 20 bottles
A. 20 packs of ferrous fumarate
B. 20 packs of ferrous sulfate
C. 20 packs of ferrous gluconate
D. 20 bottles of iron base
Ans: A
Tips: Since it contains more elemental iron, then fewer doses. Hence cheaper, for iron
suspension, it is costlier since it is placed in bottles.
26. In preparing the drug budget in hospitals, the following(s) should be considered.
A. Changes in patient population
B. Trends in drug usage
C. Changes in services provided
D. All of the above
Ans: D
27. The following is the characteristic of perpetual inventory record in the hospital.
A. It could be maintained for all medications.
B. Purchases are added to the daily total and issues to the floors are subtracted.
C. Once a month, the actual quantity is counted manually
D. Only updates new medication purchases
E. Shows out of stock medication list
Ans: B
28. Consolidated Distribution Service (CPDN/RCDP) has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Delivery is within 3 days.
B. Combines multiple vendors on one purchase order.
C. No long-term commitment required.
D. Fax and mail orders are processed as they are received.
Ans: A
Tips: Delivery is within 24 hrs.
29. Purchase record in the hospital pharmacy provide all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Inventory turnover rate
B. Re-order point
C. Cost of drug
D. Annual usage of individual drug items
E. Supplier name
Ans: B
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Hospital Pharmacy
30. The Pharmaceutical and Therapeutics (PT) committee is responsible for all, EXCEPT:
A. The evaluation and selection of all drugs currently in use in the hospital.
B. Setting of use for all medications in the hospital.
C. Setting standards with that third party like suppliers.
D. Evaluating drugs based on drug studies, available literature and financial considerations.
E. Education program for staffs.
Ans: C
Tips: Hospital has nothing to do with the third-party issues, that is for the community
pharmacies
31. Which of the following would be appropriate function/s for a hospital’s pharmacy and
therapeutics (P&T) committee?
A. Act as a medical liaison with the pharmacy department.
B. Establish and maintain a formulary for use by prescriber in the hospital.
C. Set policies and procedure for administering the pharmacy department.
D. A and B
Ans: D
32. Pharmacy and Therapeutics (PT) committee memberships for all, except
A. Nursing staff
B. Regulated pharmacy Technician
C. Director of the hospital or an administrator
D. Representative of the medical staff
E. Public members
Ans: E
33. The Pharmaceutical and Therapeutics (PT) committee is responsible for all, EXCEPT:
A. The evaluation and selection of all drugs currently in use in the hospital.
B. Setting of use for all medications in the hospital.
C. Setting standards with third part.
D. Evaluating drugs based on drug studies, available literature and financial considerations.
E. Education program for staffs
Ans: C
Tips: Hospital has nothing to do with the third party issue that is for the community
pharmacies.
34. What is not included in unit dose system?

A. Package containing the amount of drug for 24 hrs.
B. Individual prepacked medications used for one dose.
C. Contain individual drawer or tray for each patient.
D. Nurses prepare unit dosages.
E. Pharmacy tech final check unit dose.
Ans: D
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Hospital Pharmacy
35. Which of the following is NOT responsibility of P&T committee?

A. Formulating policies regarding selection and therapeutic use of drugs
B. Educates professional staff such as physician, pharmacist and nurse about matters
related to patient quality and safety of drugs.
C. Develops list of formulary
D. Develops generic and therapeutic equivalent list of drugs
E. Recommends therapies to patients
Ans: E
36. Who is the last person who checks medication administration safety in hospital?
A. Pharmacist
B. Pharmacy tech
C. Doctor
D. Nurse
E. Pharmacy director
Ans: D
37. A medication was dispensed to hospital ward. After dispensing, a pharmacy technician
found dispensing error. Pharmacy tech should inform immediately the?
A. Pharmacist
B. Pharmacy director
C. Nurse
D. Doctor
E. Do not inform
Ans: C
38. A nurse administered wrong drug to patient. Pharmacist should report to?
A. Pharmacy manager
B. Doctor
C. Nurse
D. Prepare incident report and submit to P&T committee
E. Director of pharmacy
Ans: D
39. Hospital Narcotic Formularies follow federal CDSA narcotics regulations. Which of the
following information cannot be found in the formulary listing?
A. Drug name
B. Drug strength
C. Drug dosage form
D. Drug interactions
E. Drug availability
Ans: D
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Hospital Pharmacy
40. What is incorrect about formularies?

A. Listing of drugs by their generic name followed by strength, form, toxicology, use &
recommended quantity dispensed.
B. Prepared locally by its own clinical staff or P&T committee.
C. Each hospital has their own formulary.
D. Formulary is federal and all hospital in Canada wide has the same formulary.
E. Formulary is prepared by locally by its P&T committee.
Ans: D
41. A hospital doctor ordered a drug that is not present in hospital inventory stock. However,
the drug is present in the hospital formulary list. What is the appropriate action?
A. Dispense equivalent (automatic substitution or ASO with drug present in formulary.
B. Check in non-formulary list, if not available order from community pharmacy.
C. Call doctor to change the medication from list of formularies.
D. Contact other hospital pharmacy to get the medication.
E. Tell patient to get from home or community pharmacy.
Ans: A
Tips:
Step 1: Check formulary drug list for ASO.
Step 2: Check non-formulary drug list.
Step 3: Order from other hospital or community pharmacy.
42. Hospital doctor prescribed Amoxicillin 500 mg for 8 hourly administrations. What is correct?
A. Unit dose is dispensed with one dose of Amoxicillin 500 mg one capsule
B. Unit dose is dispensed with three capsule of amoxicillin 500 mg for an 8 hourly
administration.
C. Unit dose is dispensed with nine capsule of amoxicillin 500 mg for 8 hourly for 3 days
administration.
D. Call the doctor to clarify.
Ans: B
Strategic thinking:
1. Read the question. Identify and organize the information provided.
2. To answer this question, understand that patient’s medications in a hospital setting
are dispensed to supply a 24-hour period as patients are in close surveillance for
possible allergic reaction. In light of the question, since the antibiotic is given every 8
hours, 3 capsules will be administered in 24 hours.
3. Thus, the correct answer is C.
43. Dispensing errors in hospitals can be minimized by:

A. Automation
B. Computer generated prescription and eMAR
C. Continue education of hospital staff.
D. All of the above
Ans: D
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Hospital Pharmacy
44. Which of the following is least likely done by the regulated pharmacy technician?
A. Sterile preparation of IV.
B. Checking formulary stability reconstituted IV preps.
C. Preparing total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
D. Final check of unit dose before delivery to wards.
E. If patient cannot swallow the drug change to IV.
Ans: E
45. A nurse gave wrong medication to patient. Which step would be appropriate?
A. Complain to doctor.
B. Formally report to ward supervisor.
C. Report to hospital director.
D. Report to patient.
Ans: B
46. Hospital pharmacy is hiring a pharmacy technician for IV reconstitution. She has been asked,
if nurse advise her about administration of drug and for the same advise pharmacist differs.
What is technician opinion?
A. Accept pharmacist’s advice.
B. Accept nurse’s advice.
C. Do not accept nurse and pharmacy and do due diligence.
D. Call doctor and ask for advice.
E. Accept both nurse and pharmacist.
Ans: A
47. You are a staff pharmacist at a busy pharmacy and you have drug shortages. To resolve the
problem, you should tell the pharmacist manager?
A. Exhaust every avenue to supply the medication.
B. Select an alternative medication, if required.
C. Determine whether the patient can tolerate the new drug.
Ans: D
48. MP is 55 year old women admitted to hospital; she was rushed to hospital when she was
excessively sweating, with pupil dilated and with decreased level of consciousness. MP is
with type 1 diabetic taking insulin Novolin ge 30/70. The patient had recently obtained
insulin refill from her pharmacy. On the morning of these symptoms she administered new
insulin refill cartridge and short time after injecting she had the above symptoms. Her
symptoms can be due to?
A. Novolin ge 30/70
B. She had taken insulin with meals
C. NovoRapid was injected, which comes into look alike packaging with Novolin ge 30/70
D. Her symptoms are not related to insulin
Ans: C
48-10
Hospital Pharmacy
Tips: NovoRapid is rapid acting insulin comes into look alike packaging with Novolin ge
30/70
49. A product that is sent from the wholesaler to the pharmacy & you found out that the item
received is damaged or shipped in error or recalled. You should do an action like:
A. Inform the customer service at weekend.
B. Must contact customer service within 2 business days.
C. Inform the customer service with the invoice number.
D. B&C
Ans: D
50. All of the following apply to return of narcotic inventory EXCEPT:

A. Prior return authorization must be obtained from the narcotics department.
B. Must be packaged separately from other items.
C. Maybe returned to any branch of wholesaler.
D. Should have narcotic label.
Ans: C
Tips: Narcotics must be returned to point of origin.
51. A pharmacist based on professional judgement recommends avoiding clonazepam to an

elderly patient due to increased risk of falls. After making a your decision as the pharmacist,
it is important to document in order to
A. Help other follow your thought process
B. Protect you against legal liability
C. Educate others about how particular situations might be handled
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Tips: As a pharmacist after making a decision it is important to documents for all of the
above reasons.
52. The basic objective of space management is to contribute to the achievement of highest
possible sales volume at the lowest possible cost. This can be achieved by all, EXCEPT:
A. Minimizing space utilization.
B. Encouraging the customer to buy additional merchandise.
C. Reducing costs.
D. Elimination of losses of merchandise through pilferage, theft and breakage.
Ans: A
Tips: Maximizing space utilization in which “dead” areas are eliminated.
53. Who does the hospital pharmacist report to in the hospital?

A. Chief Executive Officer
B. Pharmacy Director
C. Vice president of hospital
D. Nurse manager
48-11
Hospital Pharmacy
E. Doctor
Ans: B
54. What following questions are not included in medication reconciliation in hospital
emergence?
A. Do you have your medication list or pills bottles (vials) with you?
B. What is name of pharmacy that you normally go to?
C. Do you take any medication without prescription, give example Aspirin
D. Have you used antibiotics in the past 3 months
E. What type of daily activity involves or how your normal day goes?
Ans: E
48-12

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Pharmacy Prep

Misbah Biabani, Ph.D

40. Canadian Healthcare System

2. Which is NOT as supplementary healthcare benefit?

5. A national pharmacy regulatory body, NAPRA stands for:

6. What agency determines the patented prescription drug price?

7. Regulation or rules of Canadian pharmacies are mainly created by:

9. Who sets the prices of over the counter drugs in pharmacy?

10. What is not included the functions of Health Canada?

D. Senior over 65 years medical coverage

11. What is included in provincial drug benefit program (Medicare)?

12. Who pays for healthcare services in Canada?

13. Which of the following healthcare services is the most expensive?

15. Over the counter product vitamin C is identified as?

A. Health care practitioner

22. The most common refilled medications used in Canada are:

23. The Health care system in Canada is funded by

C. Patented medicine price review Board

26. What is considered as food additives?

3. What does NAPRA stand for?

4. What drugs require prescription?

5. What is true about codeine 8 mg?

6. Which of the following falls under NAPRA harmonized schedules?

16. Who can prescribe narcotics?

17. Control drug substance part 2 includes?

19. Narcotics regulations in hospital pharmacy are?

22. What is correct about the following prescription?

23. What practitioners legally cannot prescribe narcotics?

24. Drug schedules in Canada is controlled by the?

30. A patient is taking prednisone for 3 months. Which is true?

33. Which of the following prescription is written incorrectly?

34. What is the counseling for Ciprofloxacin?

36. A prescription for codeine 30 mg tab.

37. A prescription for Codeine:

41. A patient presents a prescription of Metronidazole 0.75% cream. However, Metronidazole

44. Task1. Receive Rx and collect patient information

B. Make a report about this nurse

48. Which practitioners may legally cannot prescribe narcotics?

52. What agency is source of recall of the medications?

56. Which of the following prescription requires written prescription only?

Pharmacist Scope of Practice in Canada

2. Informed consent exists when:

6. In a compounding pharmacy. A pharmacy technician is very busy in compounding.

9. In the above question, the transtheoretical model of behavior change?

15. A customer of your pharmacy brings a prescription of Alprazolam 1 mg SL for 30 days.

20. A compounding prescription with hydrocortisone 1% cream and ketoconazole 1% for

Which of the following functions cannot be delegated to pharmacy technician?

2. Which of the following financial statements provide information on changes of

4. A pharmacist decreases the expenses of his pharmacy by 36,000 compared to his

6. All of the following is included as part of income statement, EXCEPT:

7. Financial statement that is total income minus expenses is:

10. Negligence may be described as:

15. What is POS inventory management?

21. Which of the following is not a type of ownership?

22. Which of the following is not a type of pharmacy?

24. Net income is?

25. In purchasing the items, the pharmacist must exercise:

27. Which of the following is not covered in total assets:

29. The inventory turnover rate is a measure of a pharmacy’s:

32. What is the normal turnover rate of retail pharmacy?

33. Turnover rate (TOR) is an indicator of:

39. Net worth of ABC pharmacy is: