Geography Test With Answers

PRELIMS FITNESS 2023-24
TEST 04 – GEOGRAPHY
EXPLANATION
1. Which among the following is/are part of Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Rajiv Gandhi National Park and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
(b) Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary and Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(d) Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary and Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary
EXPLANATION:
gAgasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located near the southernmost tip of the Western Ghats and is
stretched across two southern states, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari districts of Tamil Nadu and the
Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam districts of Kerala as it covers 3,500 km. It was founded in 2001. In
March 2016, it was included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO.
⮚ The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve includes three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara and
Neyyar, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve. So, Option (c) is correct.
⮚ Rajiv Gandhi National Park, also known as Nagarhole National Park, is located in Kodagu and Mysore
districts in Karnataka. This national park is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
⮚ Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu. It is at the tri-junction
of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu and it plays an unique role by forming part of
the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve.
⮚ Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Kodagu district, Karnataka and is part of the Western
Ghats.
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2. Which among the following is/are the characteristics of Biomass Briquetting?
1. high calorific value
2. Zero ash content
3. absence of polluting gases
4. complete combustion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Bio-briquetting is a process through which biomass waste can be easily converted into high-density fuel
briquettes. This can serve as substitutes for fuelwood to meet household-level cooking and heating needs.
The characteristics of Bio-briquetting:
⮚ Calorific value of Biomass Briquette is higher, that ranges from 3800-4200 Kcal/kg i.e. equivalent to
B-grade coal (4000 Kcal/kg).
⮚ Biomass Briquette has a higher practical thermal value.
⮚ Low ash content at 5-8% as compared to coal 25 – 45%.S
⮚ Have a consistent quality, have high burning efficiency.
⮚ Uniform combustion.
⮚ Non polluting as it does not emit any Sulphur Oxide or Nitrogen Oxide or fly ash.
⮚ Ideally sized for complete combustion.
⮚ Ease of handling, storage and transportation due to its size and regularity of shape.
⮚ Cheaper as compared to Coal, Fire Wood & Lignite.
⮚ It does not require any binder or chemicals so it is 100 % natural.
So, Option (b) is correct.
3. Consider the following Statements with reference to Deodar :

1. It is an endemic species in India and mainly found in the Eastern part of the Himalayas
2. It is an evergreen tree with greyish-brown bark
3. It contains anti-fungal, anti-bacterial and insect-repellent properties
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three
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EXPLANATION:
Deodar forests are forests dominated by Cedrus deodara, the deodar cedar. This tree is found naturally
in the Western Himalayas, from the Gandaki River in central Nepal to the Hindu Kush mountain range
in Afghanistan. It is native to mountainous areas of the Mediterranean region and to the western
Himalayas, where its local name is Deodar. In addition Deodar is a highly valued endemic species grows
mainly in the western part of the Himalayan range. Deodar is a durable wood mainly used in construction
activity. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Deodar is a tall, coniferous tree of evergreen origin that grows to a height of 131 feet to 164 feet and is
usually found growing at an altitude of 4,921 feet to 10,499 feet above sea level. The plant has dark
greyish brown, almost black bark with vertical and diagonal cracks dividing into irregular oblong scales.
It bears leaves that are long and needle-like and a single tough long shoot with a few dense clusters of
short shoots emerging from it. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Deodar is a plant that provides ample uses right from the root to the leaves. The heartwood of Deodar is
more aromatic and is used to make incense sticks. Cedarwood essential oil extracted from the bark is
used for various purposes, right from being used as an insect repellent, soaps, shampoos and other
beauty products, anti-fungal ointments etc. Even meats and food grains like wheat and oats are stored
and preserved in rooms made of deodar wood or in vessels made of Deodar due to their powerful anti-
fungal and insect-repellent properties. So, Statement 3 is correct.
4. Which among the following is/are the passive factors in forming soils?
1. Parent Rock
2. Relief
3. Climate
4. Plant and animal organism
5. Time
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 5 only
(d) 3 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
Soils are often defined in terms of these factors as “dynamic natural bodies having properties derived
from the combined effect of climate and biotic activities (organisms), as modified by topography, acting
on parent materials over periods of time”. Soil scientists identify climate and organisms as “active”
factors of soil formation because their influence over soil development can be directly observed. For
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example, rain, heat, cold, wind, microorganisms (algae, fungi), earthworms, and burrowing animals can
be directly observed influencing soil development.
The five factors which control the formation of soil are parent rock, relief, time, climate and plant and
animal organism. The former three are called the passive factors whereas the latter two are called active
factors.
Time, Relief or topography, and parent material are noted as “passive” factors because their effects
are not immediately observed. The passive factors can, however, control how climate and organisms
affect soil development and formation.
1. Role of parent rock: Through weathering, erosion, and deposition, parent rock changes to form soil.
The physical and chemical properties of the parent rock significantly affect the soil. So, Statement
1 is correct.
2. Role of topography: Surface elevation, relief, and slope, directly and indirectly, affect soil formation.
It may be mentioned here that the soil formed according to the topography is called soil catena due
to the difference in topography in the regions with similar source rock and climate. So, Statement
2 is correct.
3. Role of time: It takes thousands of years for a transformed soil to form in a natural environment.
According to soil scientists, it takes hundreds of years for a layer of soil just two cm thick to form.
So the process of soil formation is very slow. So, Statement 5 is correct.
5. Consider the following:

1. All metallic minerals contain iron
2. All metallic minerals are conductors of heat and electricity
3. No metallic minerals are organic
How many of the above are the characteristics of Metallic minerals?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three
EXPLANATION:
Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. Iron ore, bauxite, manganese ore are some examples.
Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals like iron ore, manganese and
chromites contain iron. A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal
such as gold, silver, copper or lead. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity and have a characteristic lustre or shine.
Most metallic minerals are good conductors of heat and electricity because of the unique properties of
the electrons in metal atoms and their crystal structures. It's important to note that not all metallic
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minerals are equally good conductors of heat and electricity. The conductivity of a specific metal depends
on factors like the number of free electrons, the crystal structure, impurities, and temperature. Some
metals, like copper and silver, are exceptionally good conductors due to their high electron mobility and
low resistivity, while others, like lead or bismuth, are poorer conductors. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Metallic minerals are inorganic substances. They do not contain carbon-hydrogen (C-H) bonds, which
are characteristic of organic compounds. Metallic minerals are composed of metallic elements and
typically consist of atoms or ions of metals, such as iron, copper, gold, silver, and so on. These minerals
are often found in nature as ores.
Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels which
are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum. Other type of non-metallic
minerals are inorganic in origin such as mica, limestone and graphite, etc. So, Statement 3 is correct.
6. About a third of copper mine production is produced by

(a) Peru
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) Chile
EXPLANATION
Copper is a malleable and ductile metallic element that is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity
as well as being corrosion resistant and antimicrobial.
⮚ Chile accounted for almost a third of copper mine production & Peru accounted for 10 % of world
mine production in 2020.
⮚ In 2020, China accounted for almost 50% of world smelter production, followed by Japan (8%), Chile
(6%) .
⮚ In 2020, China accounted for 41 % world refined copper production, followed by Chile (10%), Japan
(6%) and Congo (5%).
So, Option (d) is correct.
7. Which among the following is/are the characteristics of Dry Tropical Deciduous Vegetation ?
1. It is the most widespread vegetal cover in India
2. Teak is the dominant tree of this type of vegetation.
3. Parkland landscape is the unique feature of this type of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
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EXPLANATION:
Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. On the
wetter margins, it has a transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to thorn forests.
These forests are found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests. Whereas Tropical
Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
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Dry Tropical Deciduous Vegetation is found in regions receiving annual rainfall between 70 to 100 cms.
The important characteristics of this vegetation are Stretches of open grass are most common between
group of trees. Teak is the dominant tree of this type of vegetation. The trees shed their leaves during
the long dry season. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Dry Deciduous forests are found in rainier areas of the Peninsula, and the. In the higher rainfall regions
of the Peninsular plateau and the northern Indian plain, these forests have a parkland landscape with
open stretches in which teak and other trees interspersed with patches of grass are common. As the dry
season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely, and the forest appears like a vast grassland with
naked trees all around. So, Statement 3 is correct.
8. With reference to Glasgow Leaders' Declaration on Forests and Land Use, Consider the following
statements :
1. It is the joint initiative of India and the United Kingdom in COP 26 of UNFCCC
2. The declaration aims to "halt deforestation" and land degradation by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
It is the initiative of United Kingdom with support of 127 countries at the COP26 climate summit signed
the Glasgow Leaders’ Declaration on Forests and Land Use. India, Argentina, Mexico, Saudi Arabia and
South Africa are the only G20 countries that did not sign the declaration. Declaration interlinks trade to
climate change and forest issues. But India has objected that trade falls under the WTO, and it should
not be brought under climate change declarations. Hence, India had asked the word “trade” to be
removed. But the other countries did not agree. So, India has not signed the declaration. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Leaders committed $19 billion of public and private funds as they pledged to “halt deforestation” and
land degradation by 2030. The declaration recognise that to meet our land use, climate, biodiversity and
sustainable development goals, both globally and nationally will require transformative further action in
the interconnected areas:
⮚ Sustainable production and consumption.
⮚ Infrastructure development; trade; finance and investment.
⮚ Support for smallholders, Indigenous Peoples, and local communities, who depend on forests for
their livelihoods and have a key role in their stewardship.
⮚ To help achieve a balance between anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions and removal by sinks;
to adapt to climate change, and to maintain other ecosystem services.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
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9. With reference to Soil Profile, Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: A soil profile develops only when weathered material remains undisturbed in a particular
location for an extended period
Statement 2: Soil profile is best developed in the regions with alluvial soils
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 ate correct and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-11 is correct
EXPLANATION:
Soil is the thin layer of material covering the earth’s surface and is formed from the weathering of rocks.
It is made up mainly of mineral particles, organic materials, air, water and living organisms all of which
interact slowly yet constantly. Soil can only develop where surface materials remain in place and are not
frequently moved away by mass wasting. Soils cannot develop where the rate of soil formation is less
than the rate of erosion. So, Statement 1 is correct.
A Soil profile is not found in the regions where soil have been developed on transported material brought
and deposited by the agents of gradations. Alluvial soil is an example of transported soil. Alluvial soils
are formed of deposits of silt and sand brought down by the rivers flowing from the Himalayas and the
Great Indian plateau. Being young, the soils lack profile development. A well-developed soil profile is
characterized by redder colours in the horizon, more trans-location of clay to the horizon, and stronger
structure. Well-developed soils vary widely in age, with typical ranges between 40,000 and several
hundred thousand years and older. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
10. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of western Australia are famous for the deposit of
(a) Cobalt
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gold
EXPLANATION:
2) In the early 1890s, great finds were made at Coolgardie and Kalgoorlie in Western Australia. Within 10
years of the gold rushes to Bathurst, Ballarat and Bendigo, Australia's population trebled to more than
one million people. Gold discoveries spurred the development of inland towns, communications, transport
and foreign trade. Many towns have been developed by the wealth from mining gold and Australia also
has many 'ghost towns' - when the gold supply ran out, people simply deserted the area. Kalgoorlie and
Coolgardie areas of western Australia are famous for the deposit of gold. So, Option (d) is correct.
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11. With reference to layers of the Soil, Consider the following pairs :
Horizon Characteristic
1. O- Horizon - Layer with domination of organic material
2. A- Horizon - Partially Weathered parent material
3. B- Horizon - Subsoil with accumulation of organic compounds
4. C- Horizon - Unweathered Parent bedrock
How many of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The process of soil formation generally involves the downward movement of clay, water, and dissolved
ions, and a common result of that is the development of chemically and texturally different layers known
as soil horizons.
⮚ O-Horizon or Humus: This layer is dominated by organic material (leaves, needles, twigs, moss and
lichens). So, Pair (1) is correct.
⮚ A-Horizon or Top Soil: It is a part of top soil, composed of organic matter mixed with mineral matter.
So, Pair (2) is not correct.
⮚ E- Horizon or Elevated layer: E-Stands for elevated layer. This layer is significantly leached of clay,
iron, and aluminum oxides, which leaves a concentration of ore
⮚ B-Horizon or Sub-soil: This layer reflects the chemical or physical alteration of parent material. Thus
iron, clay, aluminum and organic compounds are found accumulated in this horizon. So, Pair (3) is
not correct.
⮚ C-Horizon or Parent Rock: Partially weathered parent material accumulates in this layer. So, Pair
(4) is not correct.
⮚ R- Horizon Parent Rock : This layer consists of unweathered part of bed rock.
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12. Kanikkarans (Kani Tribes) are the Original tribal Settlers of
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere reserves
(b) Pachmarhi biosphere reserves
(c) Agasthyamalai biosphere reserves
(d) Seshachalam biosphere reserves
EXPLANATION:
The Kanikkarans or Kani tribes are one of the oldest surviving ancient tribes in the world and are the
original tribal settlers of the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve. The reserve is located in the
southernmost end of the Western Ghats and incorporates peaks towering 1,868 m above sea level. It
covers 3,500 km2 and encompasses tropical forest ecosystems that fall within the Tirunelveli and
Kanniyakumari districts of Tamil Nadu and the Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam districts of Kerala,
Southern India. The Kani tribe relies largely on biological resources for their sustenance, although recent
projects have been set up to reduce their dependence on the forests. So, Option (c) is correct.
13. Consider the following :

1. Punjab Siwalik foothills
2. Chotanagpur zone
3. Sutlej-Ganga plains
How many of the above are major ravine regions found in India?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three
EXPLANATION:
A ravine is a tiny, steep-sided valley that is typically eroded by flowing water. It is smaller than a canyon
but larger than a gully. Ravines, gullies and landslides are the most serious and highly visible forms of
land erosion. On the other hand, sheet erosion caused by rains and erosion due to winds are the least
visible but equally serious as they, too, take a heavy toll on our precious top soils. Soil erosion by ravines
and gullies is widespread in India. It has been estimated that 3.67 million hectares of soil surface is
damaged. There are four major areas of ravines and gullies in India. They are
(1) Yumuna-Chambal ravine zone
(2) Gujarat ravine zone
(3) The Punjab Siwalik foothills zone
(4) the Chhotanagpur zone.
There are other areas of substantial ravine erosion in the Mahanadi Valley, upper Son Valley, upper
Narmada and Tapi Valleys, Siwalik and Bhabar tract of the western Himalayan foothills and edges of
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Ganga Khadar in western Uttar Pradesh. The relatively less affected areas are the whole of Deccan south
of the Godavari, the Ganga-Brahmputra plains, east of Varanasi, Kutchchh and western Rajasthan. Sheet
erosion is widespread over sloping deforested terrain, unterraced uplands of the Peninsular region, Sutlej-
Ganga plains, Coastal plains, Western Ghats and NorthEastern hills. So, Option (c) is correct.
14. With reference to India's Nuclear Power Programme, Which among the following statements is not
correct?
(a) India is the only developing nation to have indigenously developed nuclear reactors for electricity
generation.
(b) The first nuclear power reactors were built in India in Tarapur through Indo-US cooperation.
(c) Tata Atomic Energy Commission was incorporated as an apex body for decision-making regarding
the atomic programme in 1948
(d) The Indian molten salt breeder reactor (IMSBR) is part of the second stage of the Indian
Nuclear Programme
EXPLANATION:
India is the only developing nation to have indigenously developed, demonstrated and deployed nuclear
reactors for electricity generation. This was made possible through several decades of extensive scientific
research and technology development primarily in BARC. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The first nuclear power reactors built in India were two BWRs at Tarapur, constructed by GE as turnkey
projects through Indo-US cooperation. As part of setting up of PHWRs, subsequent to withdrawal of
Canadian support in 1974, BARC took the responsibility of components development and testing such
as nuclear grade pumps, fueling machine, fuel, clad, etc. and other major R&D support for design and
safety of PHWRs from normal operations to design extension conditions. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Atomic Energy Programme in India is governed by Atomic Energy Act of 1962 and the rules framed
thereunder. Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) is the apex body which lays down the policies for the
national nuclear programme. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is responsible for execution of
policies laid down by the AEC. This was first setup in August 1948 in the Department of Scientific
Research, which was created a few months earlier in June 1948. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The Indian Molten Salt Breeder Reactor (IMSBR) is a part of India's 3rd stage of the nuclear power
program, designed to burn thorium.
It utilizes a continuously circulating molten fluoride salt as fuel, which is capable of online reprocessing,
allowing the extraction of 233Pa and its decay to 233U outside the core. This self-sustaining 233U-Th
fuel cycle operates in a thermal neutron spectrum, reducing 233U requirements and increasing
deployment potential. Hence IMSBR can operate in self sustaining 233U-Th fuel cycle. So, Statement 4
is not correct.
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15. With reference to Rare Earth minerals, Consider the following statements :
1. The Rare Earth resources in India are reported to be the third largest in the world.
2. India's rare earth element resources primarily consist of Heavy Rare Earth Elements (HREE)
3. in-situ monazite resource is one of the major sources of Rare Earth Elements
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
EXPLANATION
The Rare Earth (RE) resources in India are reported to be the fifth largest in the world. The term rare
earth elements (REEs) describes 17 different elements that have a unique set of properties that makes
them very difficult to substitute. They lie at the bottom of the periodic table of elements. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Indian resources contain Light Rare Earth Elements (LREE), while Heavy Rare Earth Elements (HREE)
are not available in extractable quantities. The definition of a LREE and HREE is based on the electron
configuration of each rare-earth element. LREE have in common increasing unpaired electrons while
HREE has paired electrons. Specifically, light REEs (LREEs) such as lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium,
neodymium, samarium, europium, and the heavy REEs (HREEs) gadolinium, terbium, dysprosium,
holmium, erbium, thulium, ytterbium, lutetium, scandium and yttrium. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
In India, monazite has been the principal source of rare earths. It occurs in association with other heavy
minerals, such as ilmenite, rutile, zircon, etc., in the beach sands and inland placer deposits. It also
contains thorium and uranium. Although India possesses large deposits of monazite, the heavier rare
earths are not present in sufficient quantities in this mineral. 13.07 million tonnes in-situ monazite
(containing ~55-60% total Rare Earth Elements oxide) resource occurring in the coastal beach placer
sands in parts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and in the
inland placers in parts of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu. So, Statement 3 is correct.
16. With reference to Khangchendzonga National Park, Consider the following statements :
1. The park covers one-fourth of the state of Sikkim
2. The park is home to nearly half of India's bird diversity
3. The park is inhabited by six cat species native to India.
How many of the above-given statements are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
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EXPLANATION:
Khangchendzonga National Park, also Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve, is a national park and a
biosphere reserve located at the heart of the Himalayan range in northern India, Sikkim. It was included
in the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme. The park is named after the mountain
Kangchenjunga, which is the third-highest peak in the world at 8,586 m (28,169 ft) tall. The total area
of the park is 849.5 km2. It is located within a mountain range of global biodiversity conservation
significance and covers 25% of the State of Sikkim, acknowledged as one of the most significant
biodiversity concentrations in India. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Khangchendzonga National Park is home to nearly half of India’s bird diversity, wild trees, orchids and
rhododendrons and one third of the country's flowering plants. It contains the widest and most extensive
zone of krummholz (stunted forest) in the Himalayan region. So, Statement 2 is correct.
This ecosystem mosaic provides a critical refuge for an impressive range of large mammals, including
several apex predators. A remarkable six cat species have been confirmed (Leopard, Clouded Leopard,
Snow Leopard, Jungle Cat, Golden Cat, Leopard Cat) within the park that are native to India.
Flagship species include Snow Leopard as the largest Himalayan predator, Jackal, Tibetan Wolf, large
Indian Civet, Red Panda, Goral, Blue Sheep, Himalayan Tahr, Mainland Serow, two species of Musk
Deer, two primates, four species of pika and several rodent species, including the parti-coloured Flying
Squirrel. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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17. In which among the following regions is moist Tropical Deciduous Vegetation found in India?
1. Siwaliks
2. Bhabars
3. Sahyadris
4. Terai
(a) 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Moist Tropical Deciduous Vegetation is the most wide spread vegetal cover of India. This type of
vegetation is found in areas receiving annual rainfall of 100 to 200 cms. These include the Sahyadris,
the northeastern plateau of the peninsula, the Himalayan foot hills in the Siwaliks, the bhabars and
terai.
⮚ Siwalik are a range of hills in the outermost foothills of the Himalayas. They stretch across several
countries in South Asia, including India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Pakistan. The vegetation found in the
Shiwalik region can vary depending on factors such as elevation, climate, and local geography.
However, some common types of vegetation found in the Shiwalik Hills include Tropical and
Subtropical Forests at lower elevations and Deciduous Forests at higher elevations.
⮚ Bhabar refers to a specific ecological and geological region found at the foothills of the Himalayan
mountain range in northern India and parts of Nepal. A unique type of vegetation characterizes this
region due to its geologic and hydrological features, including the presence of porous boulders and
the interaction of surface water and subsurface water. The vegetation in the Bhabar region is distinct
and includes Mixed Deciduous Forests, Thorny Scrub Forests and Grasslands and Savannas.
⮚ The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Mountains, is a mountain range that runs along the
western coast of India. This region is incredibly biodiverse and features a wide range of vegetation
types due to variations in altitude, rainfall, and climate. The vegetation in the Western Ghats or
Sahyadri Mountains includes tropical Rainforests, Moist Deciduous, Dry Deciduous Forests and
Montane Shola Forests.
⮚ The Terai is a lowland region in the southern foothills of the Himalayas, stretching across the
northern part of the Indian subcontinent, including Nepal and the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh
and Bihar. The vegetation in the Terai region is influenced by its location and climate, which is
characterized by higher temperatures and higher rainfall compared to the adjacent Gangetic plains
and the Himalayan foothills. Due to this climatic condition, vegetation found in the Terai region is
Moist Tropical Deciduous. So, Option (d) is correct.
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18. With reference to Petroleum resources in India, consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum is found in the sedimentary rock formation in India.
2. Digboi oil field is the largest producer of petroleum products in India
3. Government-owned Public Sector Undertakings monopolize the oil refinery sector in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Petroleum or mineral oil is the next major energy source in India after coal. Most of the petroleum
occurrences in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps in the rock formations of the tertiary
age.
⮚ In regions of folding, anticlines or domes, it occurs where oil is trapped in the crest of the upfold.
The oil bearing layer is a porous limestone or sandstone (which are sedimentary rocks) through
which oil may flow.
⮚ Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High i.e.
off-shore region in the Arabian Sea.
The entire production of Petroleum in India till today comes from the Assam belt, Gujarat- Cambay belt
and Bombay High. This covers Bombay High which is the largest producer of petroleum in the country.
In Assam, the oil wells are located mainly around Digboi, Naharkatiya. Sibsagar and Rudrasagar.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
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The crude petroleum taken from oil fields needs to be refined before it can be used. Oil refining is really
a big chemical engineering industry involving a complicated process. Presently, there are a total 23 oil
refineries in India. Out of these 18 are in the Public Sector, 2 in the Joint Venture and 3 in the Private
Sector. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
19. "These soils, comprising over 30 percent clay content, exhibit distinct characteristics. They appear black
when wet and turn extremely hard when dry. As they dry, they form noticeable cracks that progressively
widen and deepen. Despite these characteristics, these soils are known for their high productivity."
The above paragraph describes :
(a) Inceptisols
(b) Entisols
(c) Alfisols
(d) Vertisols
EXPLANATION:
The Vertisols refers to the constant internal turnover of soil material. These are expandable clay soils,
composed of more than 30 per cent clays. Vertisol clays are black when wet and become iron-hard when
dry. When drying, Vertisols crack and the cracks widen and deepen as the soil dries; this produces
cracks 2-3 cm wide. These are productive soils. The regur soils of India are an example of vertisols.
⮚ Vertisols are a highly productive group of soils. These soils are generally 60 cm deep or more. Vertisols
are therefore able to retain considerable amounts of available water in the soil profile. Due to the
nature of the dominant clay mineral, they exhibit shrinking and swelling properties, and are highly
erodable.
⮚ Their physical properties make them difficult to handle. For example, they are heavy soils and are
difficult to cultivate; further, some exhibit a 'gilgai' formation, and therefore the preparation of the
seedbed on these soils presents many difficulties. Due to their low terminal water intake rates, they
easily get waterlogged during the rainy season. So, Option (d) is correct.
20. Which among the following is/are the Critical Minerals recognized by the Government of India?
1. Beryllium
2. Germanium
3. Phosphorous
4. Tungsten
5. Selenium
6. Rhenium
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(19-F)
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EXPLANATION:
A critical mineral is a metallic or non-metallic element that has two characteristics:
⮚ It is essential for the functioning of our modern technologies, economies or national security
⮚ There is a risk that its supply chains could be disrupted.
Government of India has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. These minerals are Antimony,
Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium,
Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium,
Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium. So,
Option (d) is correct.
21. Consider the following statements:

1. Khadar soils are the new alluvial deposits that are lighter in color and have a sandy texture.
2. Bhangar soils are the older alluvium, darker in color, and possess a more clayey composition.
3. Bhangar is deposited near the riverbanks, while Khadar is found away from the banks of the river.
4. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions
How many of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Alluvial soils in according to geological classification, can be divided into two types. The Khadar and
Bhangar. In the plains, the younger deposits are known as Khadar. These are not just younger; they are
also more fertile than Bhangar soils. These soils are very good for intensive cultivation. These are also
called new alluvial made up of fine granules. Khadar soils are lighter in colour and has a sandy texture
while Bhangar soils are the older alluvium, darker in colour and possess a more clayey composition.
Bhangar is the alluvial soil found in the large part of North India. This is an old soil which is alluvial in
nature and is above the flood levels of the rivers in the region. It is often seen in the structure of a terrace.
So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Bhangar is little away from the river bed while Khadar located near the river bed. Thus, Khadar deposits
are not stable since the soil always mixes with water while Bhangar deposits are stable. Since Khadar
soil gets newer deposits with flood water every year, it is more fertile. Thus, Khadar is more suitable for
extensive agricultural activities than Bhangar. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain calcareous concretions (Kankars). These soils are more
loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the Brahamaputra valley. The sand content
decreases from the west to east. So, Statement 4 is correct.
(20-F)
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22. With reference to Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Consider the following statements :
1. It is the largest biosphere reserve in India, spread across three Indian states.
2. It is the first reserve to be included under UNESCO's 'Man and Biosphere Programme.
3. The rivers and Kabini originate within the reserve boundary
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India spread across three Indian states
(Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil nadu) established in the year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and
includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical provinces of India but Rann of Kutchh is the largest biosphere
reserve in India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme launched in 1971 is an intergovernmental scientific
programme that aims to establish a scientific basis for enhancing the relationship between people and
their environments by proposing interdisciplinary research and training in natural resources
management.
⮚ There are currently 738 biosphere reserves in 134 nations, with 22 of them being transboundary.
⮚ India has 12 biosphere reserves that have been recognized worldwide under the Man and Biosphere
Reserve program and Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve is the first to be included. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The total area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is 5,520 sq. km. Many of the major tributaries of the river
Cauvery like the Bhavani, Moyar, Kabini and other rivers like Chaliyar, Punampuzha, etc., have their
source and catchment areas within the reserve boundary. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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23. With reference to Peaty Soil, Consider the following statements :
1. These soils contain organic matter up to 90% of the total soil component
2. These soils are found in the states of Uttarakhand and Tamil Nadu
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Peaty soil, sometimes referred to as peat soil or peatland, is a kind of soil that has a high quantity of
organic matter, mostly from mosses, reeds, and other vegetation that have partially decomposed.
Wetlands, bogs, moors, and other damp places where the buildup of organic matter outpaces the process
of decomposition are common places to find it. This leads to a significant buildup of decomposing organic
matter in these regions, which enriches the soil's humus and organic matter. These soils may contain as
much as 40–50% organic matter. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Peaty soils usually develop in regions with high humidity and rainfall, which prevent the breakdown of
organic matter. It frequently happens in places that are wet or poorly drained, where there is not enough
oxygen present for organic matter to break down. The regions, including the northern part of Bihar, the
southern part of Uttarakhand, and coastal areas of West Bengal, Orissa, and Tamil Nadu, experience
diverse climatic conditions ranging from tropical to subtropical, with a significant amount of rainfall
throughout the year. So, Statement 2 is correct.
24. The System for Nuclear Auxiliary Power (SNAP) program, the first and only known space nuclear reactor,
was developed by
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Japan
EXPLANATION:
The SNAP (System for Nuclear Auxiliary Power) program, also known as SNAPSHOT, was a U.S.
government-sponsored effort in the 1950s and 1960s aimed at developing compact, lightweight, and
reliable nuclear devices for use in space, sea, and land applications. The program's most notable
achievement was the SNAP-10A, the first and only known U.S. space nuclear reactor.
⮚ The SNAP-10A was designed to generate at least 500 watts of electricity for a year or longer in space.
It was remotely operated to prevent radiation hazards until after reaching orbit, ensuring safety.
Using enriched uranium fuel, zirconium hydride as a moderator, and liquid sodium-potassium alloy
as a coolant, the reactor employed a thermoelectric converter to directly convert heat into electricity.
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⮚ On April 3, 1965, the SNAP-10A was successfully launched into Earth orbit on an Atlas-Agena D
rocket. It achieved on-orbit criticality and operated for 43 days, producing over 600 watts of electrical
power. However, due to a high voltage failure in the Agena spacecraft's electrical system, the reactor
was shut down, and contact with SNAP-10A was lost. So, Option (a) is correct.

1. Jammu & Kashmir
2. Uttarakhand
3. Jharkhand
4. Chhattisgarh
How many of the above are the potential Lithium reserve states in India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Months after lithium reserves were discovered in Jammu & Kashmir, Rajasthan, and Karnataka, it is
now being reported that a reserve of the cosmic mineral has been discovered in Jharkhand as well.
Jharkhand is already known for reserves of Uranium, Mica, Bauxite, Granite, Gold, Silver, Graphite,
Magnetite, Dolomite, Fireclay, Quartz, Feldspar, Coal (32 per cent of India), Iron, Copper (25 per cent of
India) etc. Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh does not have any lithium reserves.
Lithium is Popularly known as ‘white gold’, Lithium is considered a crucial component for the production
of rechargeable batteries, which are used in a variety of electronic devices, including smartphones,
laptops, and electric vehicles. It is the lightest metal and one of the most reactive elements in the periodic
table. Lithium has various properties and applications, and it plays a crucial role in several industries.
Most of the deposits are concentrated in three South American countries Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile
the lithium triangle is where the majority of the world’s lithium reserves are located. China, on the other
hand, has an advantage over other nations and is in charge of 75% of the world’s lithium refining. So,
Option (b) is correct.
26. With reference to Black Soil, Consider the following statements :

1. Deccan lavas, gneisses, and granites are the parent material of Black soils
2. The presence of 'titaniferous magnetite' compounds of iron and magnesium makes the soil dark
black.
3. The soil is favorable for the cultivation of Wheat and Onion.
How many of the above-given statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
(23-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
⮚ Black soils are formed on lava, gneiss and granite rocks located in Deccan plateau having semi-arid
climate. Black soils have high amount of clay and higher water or moisture retention capacity. Although
the black soils have relatively high moisture holding capacity (150-mm/m). Yet water is not available to
plants because the water is held tenaciously by the smectite clay, these soils are extremely sticky when
wet and extremely hard when dry. So this soils are also called as Self ploughing soils. They are also
known as Regur soils or Black Cotton soils.
⮚ Black soils have higher content of Iron and Calcium and lesser content of Phosphorus, Nitrogen and
organic material.
⮚ So, Statement 1 is correct.
⮚ The black soil of this region is mostly volcanic in origin. Black soils vary in colour from deep black to
chestnut. The black soil gets its colour due to presence of titaniferous magnetite or iron in small
proportion along with black constitutes of parent rock or volcanic rock. So, Statement 2 is correct.
⮚ Black soil is ideally suited for growing cotton, sugar cane, tobacco, wheat, millets, Onion and oilseed
crops. Black soil is to be the best soil type for cotton cultivation. It is also suitable for the production of
cereals, oilseeds, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco and sugar cane, in addition to cotton. The
retentiveness to moisture makes them ideal for dry farming. So, Statement 3 is correct.
(24-F)
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27. Which among the following is/are the remedial strategies for the prevention of soil erosion caused by the
action of wind?
1. leaving the stubble on the soil
2. formation of shelter belts
3. use of direct drilling method
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The straw and plant crown that remains on the soil's surface after harvesting is known as stubble. Stubble
also consists of the chaff and straw that the harvester dumps. While stubble has historically been burned
to suppress weeds, leaving stubble in place has a number of benefits for soil fertility and productivity.
Diminished soil erosion is one of the primary advantages of stubble retention. By reducing runoff and
wind speed at the soil's surface, maintaining stubble reduces erosion. Retaining stubble also enhances
soil structure by decreasing bulk density and decreasing root development resistance. Because retained
stubble enhances infiltration and reduces runoff, it raises the water content of the soil. So, Statement 1
is correct.
Shelterbelts, also known as windbreaks or hedgerows, are rows of trees, shrubs, or other vegetation
planted along field boundaries or in open agricultural areas to mitigate the effects of wind and protect the
land and crops from erosion. Hedgerows of trees and shrubs are particularly effective for this purpose.
They should be planted with a range of species to obtain a range of heights, densities and levels of
leaf/branch cover that remains relatively high throughout the year. Shelterbelts allow some airflow, which
eliminates the unwanted turbulence that occurs behind solid barriers. Although some yield reduction may
occur to crops immediately adjacent to shelterbelts, research has shown that there is an actual overall
increase in yield to crops that are grown in fields protected by shelterbelts. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Direct drilling, also known as no-till or zero-tillage farming, is an agricultural practice that involves
planting crops without first plowing or tilling the soil. Instead of disturbing the soil, direct drilling sows
seeds directly into the previous crop residues or cover crops, leaving the soil undisturbed. Direct drilling
reduces the exposure of bare soil to rainfall and surface runoff, which can transport sediment and cause
erosion. It helps to mitigate the risk of sheet erosion. So, Statement 3 is correct.
28. Which among the following regions is the southernmost part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Silent Valley National Park
(b) Thai Shola reserve forest
(c) Siruvani Foothill
(d) Thalaimalai reserve forest
(25-F)
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EXPLANATION:
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is a UNESCO biosphere reserve in South India's Western Ghats and Nilgiri
Hills ranges. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1936 and was
designated as a biosphere reserve by UNESCO in 1986.
⮚ It includes evergreen, semi evergreen, moist deciduous montane sholas and grassland types of
vegetation.
⮚ Animals like Nilgiri langur, Nilgiri tahr, Slender loris, Marten, Tiger, Blackbuck, Gaur, and Indian
elephant are found here. Freshwater fishes such as Nilgiri danio, Nilgiri barb and Bowany barb are
endemic to this Biosphere Reserve.
⮚ Tribal groups like the Todas, Kotas, Irullas, Kurumbas, Paniyas, Adiyans, Edanadan Chettis,
Cholanaickens, Allar, Malayan are native to the reserve.
⮚ The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole
National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley National Park are the protected areas present
within this reserve. The Siruvani Foothill is the southernmost part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve.
So, Option (c) is correct.

1. Jaduguda
2. Tumallapalle
3. Peddagattu
4. Khetri
(26-F)
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In how many of the above regions do uranium deposits occur in India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION
⮚ Jaduguda in Singhbhum Thrust Belt is the first uranium deposit to be discovered in the country in
1951.
⮚ Apart from discoveries in the Singhbhum Thrust Belt, several uranium occurrences have also been
found in Cuddapah basin of Andhra Pradesh. These include Lambapur-Peddagattu, Chitrial,
Kuppunuru, Tumallapalle, Rachakuntapalle.
⮚ Khetri mines in Rajasthan are famous producers of Copper as they are not known for uranium
deposits. So, Option (c) is correct.
30. With reference to Fuller's Earth, Consider the following statements :

1. It is declared as a minor mineral under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act
1957
2. The majority of Fuller's earth resources are expected to be located in Andhra Pradesh
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(27-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
Fuller's earth, like Bentonite, is also known as 'bleaching clay' because of its inherent bleaching
properties. Fuller's earth is declared a minor mineral under the Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulation) Act of 1957. Fuller's earth is non-plastic clay that can be used to remove color, filter and
purify animal, mineral & vegetable oils and greases. It has great commercial importance, like Bentonite.
Bentonite is a swelling-type clay, while Fuller's earth is a non-swelling-type clay. This is because of the
difference in their chemical composition as Bentonite contains sodium, whereas Fuller's earth contains
calcium. Calcium bentonite, more commonly called Fuller's Earth, can be converted into sodium
bentonite by cation exchange process or acid activation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The total reserves of Fuller's earth are placed at 256.7 million tonnes. Out of these, only 58,200 tonnes
are placed under the 'reserves' category, while about 256.6 million tonnes (99.98%) are placed under the
resources category. About 74% of the total resources are located in Rajasthan. The remaining resources
are in Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Telangana. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
31. Which among the following soil is locally termed as reh, kallar?
(a) Red Soil
(b) Forest Soil
(c) Arid Soil
(d) Saline Soil
EXPLANATION:
Saline soils are locally termed as reh, kallar and usar and is generally infertile and so are unfit for
agricultural use. The salt deposits are usually found on the topmost layer of the soil. This occurs due to
(28-F)
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the process of capillary transfer of saline and alkaline solutions from the lower parts of the soil to the
upper layers where canal irrigation is dominant or in places where the water table is situated at a relatively
higher level in the subsoil of the coastal areas like Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
⮚ These soils are quite common in western Gujarat, deltas of eastern coastal plains and the Sundarbans
delta of West Bengal. In the Rann of Kutch, the monsoon winds laden with sea salts are deposit the
salt particles on the soil and forms a crust on the surface.
⮚ The intrusion of sea water into the deltas also result in the formation of saline soils. In many places,
as a result of over irrigation, fertile soils are also turning into saline soils. In Punjab and Haryana,
farmers are advised to add gypsum into the soil to check the growing problem of salinity. So, Option
(d) is correct.
32. With reference to Sundarbans, Consider the following statements :

1. It is the largest delta and mangrove forest in the world
2. The region is situated north of the Tropic of Cancer
3. Muriganga and Saptamukhi are the major rivers flowing the Sundarbans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Sunderban is the largest delta and mangrove forest in the world. A river delta is formed by the deposition
of sediments transported by a river as the flow leaves its mouth and enters still waters or slow-moving
waters. Deltas are often formed where a river enters another water body including oceans, lakes, sea, or
reservoir. Several river deltas are scattered across the world including Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, the
world’s largest delta. So, Statement 1 is correct.
It is located in the Bengal region of Indian subcontinent which consists of the Indian state of West Bengal
and the country of Bangladesh. It represents the largest mangal diversity in the world with 81 mangal
plant species and it provides habitat for the threatened Royal Bengal tiger. It has been designated as a
World Heritage site.
The entire Eastern India is dependent on the fishery resources from Sunderbans. The region is situated
south of the Tropic of Cancer. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The name 'Sundarban' means "beautiful forest" and it is believed to be derived from a mangrove tree
species 'Sundari'. The Indian Sunderban is bound on the west by river Muriganga and on the east by
rivers Harinbhahga and Raimangal. Other major rivers flowing through this ecosystem are Saptamukhi,
Thakuran, Matla and Goasaba. So, Statement 3 is correct.
(29-F)
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1. Kusum
2. Rosewood
3. Arjun
4. Cinchona
5. Aini
How many of the above-given tree varieties are found in the region of Tropical evergreen forest?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
These forests are also called tropical rainforests. These thick forests occur in the regions near the equator
and close to the tropics. These regions are hot and receive heavy rainfall throughout the year. As there
is no particular dry season, the trees do not shed their leaves altogether. It is the reason they are called
evergreen. The thick canopies of the closely spaced trees do not allow the sunlight to penetrate inside
the forest, even in the daytime. Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony, and mahogany are common here.
⮚ Rosewood is a deep, brown to purplish-brown color, richly streaked and grained with black resinous
layers, which is a variety of tropical evergreen forests.
(30-F)
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⮚ Cinchona is a genus of flowering plants in the family Rubiaceae, containing at least 23 species of
trees and shrubs. They are native to the tropical Andean forests of Western South America, which is
a tropical evergreen forest biome.
⮚ Aini is also a variety of tropical evergreen forests.
So, Option (b) is correct.
⮚ Arjun tree is common in mixed dry deciduous tropical forests. The tree prefers alluvial loamy or black
cotton soils, which are loose, moist, fertile, and have good drainage and water-holding capacity.
⮚ The kusum trees are dry and mixed deciduous forest areas with slightly acidic but well-drained gravel
or loamy soil. Though kusum trees are fire and frost-resistant, they are best suited for 35-47°C
temperatures and 750-2500 mm annual rainfall.
34. With reference to the Wind energy potential of India, consider the following statements:
1. A wind generator will produce lesser power in summer than in winter at the same wind speed
2. A wind generator will produce lesser power in lower altitudes than at higher altitudes
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
A wind energy system usually requires an average annual wind speed of at least 15 km/h. Wind energy
production is influenced by air density. In winter, air is denser, which means there is more mass in the
same volume of air. This denser air allows wind turbines to capture more kinetic energy from the wind,
resulting in higher power production compared to the less dense, warmer air (lesser air density) in
summer. So, wind generator will produce lesser power in summer than in winter at the same wind speed.
A wind generator will produce lesser power in higher altitudes - as air pressure as well as density is lower
-than at lower altitudes. The wind speed is the most important factor influencing the amount of energy a
wind turbine can produce. Increasing wind velocity increases the amount of air passing the rotor, which
increases the output of the wind system. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
35. With reference to Coal reserves in India, Consider the following statement:
1. Tertiary coal fields contribute to the majority of the coal production in India.
2. Raniganj is the oldest and largest coal field situated in India
3. The import of Coal for the past 5 years has been steadily decreasing
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three
(31-F)
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EXPLANATION:
Coal in India occurs in two important types of coal fields. They are the Gondwana coal fields and Tertiary
coal fields. Out of the total coal reserves and production in India, Gondwna coal fields contribute 98%,
and the rest tertiary coal fields produce 2%. The Gondwana coalfields are located in the sedimentary
rock systems of the lower Gondwana Age. They are distributed chiefly in the river valleys of the Damodar
(Jharkhand - West Bengal), the Son (Madhya Pradesh-Chhattisgarh); the Mahanadi (Odisha), the
Godavari (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana) and the Wardha (Maharashtra). Tertiary coalfields occur in
the extra-peninsular areas, which include Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu
& Kashmir and Sikkim. Besides, lignite or brown Coal is found in coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat
and inland basins of Rajasthan. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
(32-F)
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The oldest coal fields of Raniganj are situated in West Bengal. It is the second-largest coalfield in India. The
largest coalfield is situated in Jharia of Jharkhand. Raniganj Coalfield stretches over the Burdwan and
Purulia districts. In Chhatisgarh, coal deposits occur in Bilaspur and Sarguja districts. So, Statement 2
is not correct.
There has been an increasing trend in the net import of Coal in recent years. Over the last ten years, the
Net Import of Coal steadily increased from 143.34 MTs in 2012- 13 to 216.54 MTs in 2014-15. A marginal
decline followed this in the succeeding 2 years, but again, it started increasing and reached 247.51 MTs in
2019-20. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
(33-F)
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36. With reference to Wet Tropical Evergreen Forest, Consider the following statements :
1. These are found in regions with very high annual rainfall throughout the year.
2. The trees shed their leaves during a short and distinct dry season.
3. These forests contain an abundance of grasses.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Wet Tropical Evergreen Vegetation is found in regions of very high annual rainfall exceeding 300
cms. with a very brief dry season. Southern parts of Western Ghat of Kerala and Karnataka are very wet.
Northeastern Hills are known for this type of vegetation. These forests are found in tropical regions near
the equator and are known for their lush vegetation and rich biodiversity. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Tropical deciduous are the monsoon forests found in the large part of India,northern Australia and in
central America. These regions experience seasonal changes. As there is no particular dry season, the
trees do not shed their leaves altogether. This is the reason they are called evergreen. Whereas, Wet
Tropical Evergreen Forests are characterized by trees that typically do not shed their leaves all at once
in a distinct dry season. Instead, the shedding of leaves in these forests can be more sporadic and gradual
throughout the year. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Wet Tropical Evergreen Vegetation resembles the equatorial vegetation. This type of vegetal cover
has been badly depleted due to over cutting of trees. The vegetation of These forests are dense and have
lofty evergreen trees, often as high as 60 metres and above. The number of vegetal species per unit area
is too large to exploit them commercially. Mahogony, cinchona, bamboos and palms are typical species
of plants found in these forests. Undergrowth is very dense and thick. Grass is almost absent. So,
37. The National Forest Policy of India, 1988 envisaged a goal of achieving 33 percent of the country’s
geographical area under forest and tree cover. Which of the following states has above 33 percent of its
total area under forest cover?
1. Uttarakhand
2. Kerala
3. West Bengal
4. Odisha
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
(34-F)
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EXPLANATION:
The Forest Survey of India (FSI) has been conducting biennial (once every two years) assessments of
forest cover since 1987, and the findings are published in the India State of Forest Report (ISFR). The
total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares, which is 24.62 percent of the
geographical area of the country. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261
sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country.
Seventeen states/UTs have more than 33 percent of the geographical area under forest cover. Out of
these states and UTs, five states/UTs, namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Islands,
Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya have more than 75 percent forest cover while 12 states/UTs namely
Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Goa, Kerala, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli
and Daman & Diu, Assam, Odisha, have forest cover between 33 percent to 75 percent.
⮚ According to the India State of Forest Report, the state of West Bengal has 18.96 percent of its total
area under forest cover.
So, Option (c) is correct.

1. Reduction of surface run-off
2. Increase in soil surface temperature
3. Increase in soil nutrient level
How many of the above are the environmental implications of using Agroforestry?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Agroforestry is the interaction of agriculture and trees, including the agricultural use of trees. Agroforestry
is agricultural and forestry systems that try to balance various needs:
1) To produce trees for timber and other commercial purposes;
2) To produce a diverse, adequate supply of nutritious foods both to meet global demand and to satisfy
the needs of the producers themselves
3) To ensure the protection of the natural environment so that it continues to provide resources and
environmental services to meet the needs of the present generations and those to come.
Environmental implications of using Agroforestry:
⮚ Reduction of pressure on natural forests.
⮚ More efficient recycling of nutrients by deep rooted trees on the site.
⮚ Better protection of ecological systems.
(35-F)
SIA-F-GS I
⮚ Reduction of surface run-off, nutrient leaching and soil erosion through impeding effect of tree roots
and stems on these processes. So, Statement 1 is correct.
⮚ Improvement of microclimate, such as lowering of soil surface temperature and reduction of
evaporation of soil moisture through a combination of mulching and shading. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
⮚ Increment in soil nutrients through addition and decomposition of litter fall. So, Statement 3 is
correct.
⮚ Improvement of soil structure through the constant addition of organic matter from decomposed litter.
39. With reference to India State of Forest Report 2021, Consider the following statements:
1. India's forest contributes more than 10% of the total world forest area
2. Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest cover as a percentage of its total geographical area among all
states.
3. The survey has found that more than one-fourth of Indian forests are extremely prone to forest fire.
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) All three
EXPLANATION:
The ISFR 2021 presents the latest status of the 'Forest cover' and 'Tree cover' of the country,
estimates of growing stock, the extent of trees outside forests, mangrove cover, bamboo resources,
and assessment of forest carbon stock. It is the 17th biennial assessment of India's forests by the
Forest Survey of India, an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC). The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares which is
24.62 percent of the geographical area of the country. The Indian forests account for 2% of the forests
in the world. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
(36-F)
SIA-F-GS I
Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country, followed by Arunachal Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as a percentage of total geographical
area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%),
Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The survey has found that 35.46 % of the forest cover is prone to forest fires. Out of this, 2.81 % is
extremely prone, 7.85% is very highly prone and 11.51 % is highly prone. By 2030, 45-64% of forests in
India will experience the effects of climate change and rising temperatures. Forests in all states (except
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Nagaland) will be highly vulnerable to climate hot spots. Ladakh (forest
cover 0.1-0.2%) is likely to be the most affected. So, Statement 3 is correct.

1. zoos and safaris
2. silvicultural operations
3. check posts and fire lines
4. wireless communication.
How many of the above activities are permitted in forest land ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The government passed the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill 2023. The Bill amends the Forest
(Conservation) Act 1980 to make it applicable to certain types of land. These include land notified as a
forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or in government records after the 1980 Act came into effect.
The Act will not be applicable for land converted to non-forest use before December 12, 1996.
The Forest (Conservation) Act 1980 was enacted to prevent large-scale deforestation. It requires the
central government’s approval for any diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes. A reserved forest
(also called a reserve forest) and protected forest in India are forests accorded a certain degree of
protection. The Act specifies certain activities that will be excluded from non-forest purposes, meaning
that restrictions on the use of forest land for non-forest purposes will not apply. These activities include
works related to the conservation, management, and development of forests and wildlife, such as
establishing check posts, fire lines, fencing, and wireless communication.
The Bill adds more activities to this list, such as (i) zoos and safaris under the Wild Life (Protection) Act,
1972, owned by the government or any authority, in forest areas other than protected areas, (ii)
ecotourism facilities, (iii) silvicultural operations (enhancing forest growth), and (iv) any other purpose
specified by the central government. Further, the central government may specify terms and conditions
to exclude any survey (such as exploration activity seismic survey) from being classified as non-forest
purposes. So, Option (d) is correct.
41. With reference to Joint Forest Management (JFM), Consider the following statements :
1. The concept of JFM was introduced in the Indian Forest Act of 1927
(37-F)
SIA-F-GS I
2. It involves both the forest departments and local communities in natural forest management
3. The model was first adopted in the Arabari Reserve Forest Range in India
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The concept of JFM was introduced by the Government of India through the National forest policy of
1988. The Forest Department and a village committee known as the Forest Protection Committee (FPC)
typically engage in a JFM agreement; however, provisions of the agreements change from state to state
and are called by different names in different Indian languages. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Joint Forest Management (JFM) is a partnership that involves both local communities and forest agencies
in the management of natural forests. JFM is an initiative that involves the local communities that live
adjacent to the forest in the institutionalization of participatory governance over the nation's forest
resources. Rehabilitating degraded forestlands with the help of Forest Protection Committees is one of
the program's main objectives. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The state of West Bengal is pioneer in implementation and attaining successful achievements of Joint
Forest Management. The model was first introduced in Arabari Reserve Forest Range in west Medinipur
district which is commonly Known as 'Arabari Model' introduced in 1971. So, Statement 3 is correct.
(38-F)
SIA-F-GS I
42. With reference to the Miyawaki method, consider the following statements :
1. It is a kind of micro forest technique that originated in Japan
2. The method involves planting two to four different types of indigenous trees within every square
metre
3. The method is self-sustaining and does not require regular maintenance like manuring and watering
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Miyawaki method is a technique to plant trees is named after a botanist from Japan, Akira Miyawaki.
It was developed in the decade of 1970 with the intention of making a dense green cover in a small area.
It is a technique to create micro forests over small plots of land. So, Statement 1 is correct.
In this method, planting few types of indigenous trees, generally limited to 2- 4, are planted in every
square metre. The dense green cover of indigenous trees plays a key role in absorbing the dust particles
of the area where the garden has been set up. The plants also help in regulating surface temperature.
Some of the common indigenous plants that are used for these forests include Anjan, Amala, Bel, Arjun
and Gunj.
In this method, the trees become self-sustaining and they grow to their full length within three years.
The plants used in the Miyawaki method are mostly self-sustaining and don’t require regular
maintenance like manuring and watering. So, Statement 3 is correct.
(39-F)
SIA-F-GS I
43. Which among the following is/are correct with reference to the Sholas/ Shola Forest?
1. Sholas are temperate, evergreen vegetation found only above 1500m from the sea level.
2. These forests are found in Anamalai and Palani Hills.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Montane temperate forests are also known as Sholas. These types of forests are found in valleys of
western ghats, which are over only 1500m above sea level. Shola grasslands are made up of dwarf trees
that grow to be 25-30 feet tall. It consists of stunted forest growths of several grass types. The natural
vegetation has a double-layered story with a tight canopy that barely allows a single ray of sunlight to
penetrate. The top region of the Nilgiris is classed as southern grassland mountain grassland. Between
1973 and 2014, the Shola grasslands area decreased by 66.7%. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Sholas are found in the upper reaches of the Nilgiris, Anamalais, Palani hills, Kalakadu,
Mundanthurai and Kanyakumari in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. These forests are found
sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture and proper drainage at an altitude of more than 1,500
metres. The upper reaches are covered with grasslands, known as Shola grasslands. So, Statement 2
is correct.
44. Which of the following constitutes India's largest percentage of area-wise wetland distribution?
(a) Natural inland wetlands
(b) Manmade inland wetlands
(c) Natural Coastal wetland
(d) Manmade Coastal wetland
(40-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
The Convention on Wetlands or Ramsar Convention defines wetlands as areas of water, whether natural
or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish, or salty.
Natural Inland wetlands constitute India's largest percentage of area-wise wetland distribution, nearly
45%. Manmade Wetlands were designed to achieve specific aims, such as water storage for irrigation
and drinking, fish production, or recreation. Impoundments, dams, barrages, salt pans, aquaculture
ponds, and reservoirs are all instances of manmade wetlands. They constitute nearly 27% of the area.
Natural coastal wetlands are those that form naturally. Wetlands found in natural coastal watersheds
include salt marshes, bottomland hardwood swamps, fresh marshes, mangrove swamps, and shrubby
depressions. Chilika Lake in Orissa and Ashtamudi Wetland in Kerala, the Sunderbans in West Bengal
and the Gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat are some examples. They constitute nearly 25% of the area.
Manmade coastal wetlands are wetlands produced as a result of human activity. Manmade wetlands are
employed in a variety of activities to help the community's livelihood. Aquaculture ponds, such as shrimp
ponds, are examples. They constitute nearly 3% of the area. So, Option (a) is correct.
45. Consider the following statements :

1. Article 105 deals with "powers, privileges of the State Legislature and the members and committees.
2. Powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament and the members and the committees
of each House are defined in the Constitution.
3. Parliamentary privileges were first brought by the Government of India Act 1919 with references to
the powers and privileges enjoyed by the House of Commons in Britain.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
(41-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
Article 105 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Powers, Privileges and Immunities of the House of
Parliament and its Members and committees. Article 194 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
Powers, Privileges and Immunities of the State Legislature and its Members and committees. So,
Originally, the Constitution (Article 105- Privileges of House of Parliament) expressly mentioned two
privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and the right of publication of its proceedings. The
44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978 amended Article 105 (3). It provided that, - "In other respects,
the powers, privileges and immunities of each House of Parliament, and the members and the committees
of each House, shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law, and, until so
defined, shall be those of that House and its members and committees. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Parliamentary privileges were taken from the British Constitution with references to the powers and
privileges enjoyed by the House of Commons in Britain. With regard to other privileges, it provided that
they were to be the same as those of the British House of Commons, its committees and its members on
the date of its commencement. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

1. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are elected among its members.
2. The Deputy Speaker performs the duty of the Speaker when his office is vacant or he is absent.
3. The term of office for Deputy speaker is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution.

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution specifies offices like those of the President, Vice President, Chief Justice of India, and
Comptroller and Auditor General of India, as well as Speakers and Deputy Speakers. Article 93 for Lok
Sabha and Article 178 for State Assemblies state that these Houses “shall, as soon as may be,” choose
two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution provides that the office of the Speaker should never be empty. The Deputy Speaker
performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter
is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also
presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in case the Speaker is absent from such a
sitting. So, Statement 2 is correct.
(42-F)
SIA-F-GS I
Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha. The
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha normally serves the whole term (5 years) of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement
3 is not correct.

1. The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission was launched by
restructuring the erstwhile Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarojgar Yojana.
2. The implementing agency of the (DAY-NRLM) is the Ministry of Commerce.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) is the flagship program
for promoting poverty reduction through building strong institutions for the poor, particularly women,
and enabling these institutions to access a range of financial services and livelihoods. NRLM is a
restructured version of restructuring Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
The implementing agency of the (DAY-NRLM) is the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD). DAY-NRLM
adopts a demand-driven approach, enabling the States to formulate their State-specific poverty reduction
action plans. The blocks and districts in which all the components of DAY-NRLM would be implemented,
either through the SRLMs or partner institutions or NGOs, would be the intensive blocks and districts,
whereas the remaining would be non-intensive blocks and districts. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
48. Consider the following statements:

1. Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of
India and comprises four other senior-most judges of the Court at that time.
2. Chief Justice India should consult with four senior-most Supreme Court judges to form their opinion
on judicial appointments and transfers.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(43-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
The Supreme Court Collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice
of India and comprises four other seniormost judges of the Court at that time. A High Court collegium is
led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other seniormost judges of that Court. By its very nature,
the composition of the collegium keeps changing. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The collegium system is the way by which judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed
and transferred. In the Third Judges case (1998), the Court opined that the consultation process to be
adopted by the Chief Justice of India requires consultation of plurality judges. The sole opinion of the
Chief Justice of India does not constitute the consultation process. He should consult a collegium of four
seniormost judges of the Supreme Court, and even if two judges give an adverse opinion, he should not
send the recommendation to the government. So, Statement 2 is correct.
49. Consider the following statements with respect to election disputes :

1. The High Court of the concerned state is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger.
2. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968 empowers the EC to recognize political
parties and allot symbols.
3. In case of a dispute arising due to a party split up Election Commission may freeze the existing
symbol.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968 is an order to provide for specification,
reservation, choice and allotment of symbols at elections in Parliamentary and Assembly
Constituencies for the recognition of political parties in relation to that and matters connected
therewith. Under Paragraph 15 of the order, The Election Commission is the only authority to
decide issues on a dispute or a merger. The Supreme Court upheld its validity in Sadiq Ali and
another vs. ECI in 1971. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968 empowers the EC to recognize
political parties and allot symbols. Under Paragraph 15 of the Order, it can decide disputes
among rival groups or sections of a recognized political party staking claim to its name and
symbol. So, Statement 2 is correct.
(44-F)
SIA-F-GS I
When the party is either vertically divided or it is not possible to say with certainty which group
has a majority, the Election Commission may freeze the party’s symbol and allow the groups
to register themselves with new names or add prefixes or suffixes to the party’s existing names.

1. The seismicity in Turkey and Syria is a result of interactions between the African, Eurasian, and
Arabian plates.
2. Shallow earthquakes cause less damage because they carry much less amount of energy when they
emerge on the surface.
3. Seismic waves travel significantly slower than the speed of light.

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The seismicity in this region is a result of interactions between the African, Eurasian, and Arabian plates.
The Arabian plate is known to be pushing northward, which results in a slight westward movement for
the Anatolian plate, where Turkey is located. So, Statement 1 is correct.
An Earthquake's destructive force depends not only on its strength but also on location, distance from
the epicenter and depth. Shallow quakes tend to be more damaging than deeper quakes. Shallow
earthquakes are generally more devastating because they carry greater energy when they emerge on the
surface. Deeper earthquakes lose much of their energy by the time they come to the surface. So,
Seismic waves travel significantly slower than the speed of light — between 5 and 13 km per second. So,
if the Earthquake is detected as soon as it is triggered, information about it can be related a few seconds
ahead of it reaching the ground. Such systems are already in use in some locations to issue alerts about
earthquakes. However, these are not predictions. The alerts are issued post-event. So, Statement 3 is
correct.
(45-F)
SIA-F-GS I

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1. Which among the following is/are part of Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

3. Consider the following Statements with reference to Deodar :

5. Consider the following:

6. About a third of copper mine production is produced by

13. Consider the following :

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

21. Consider the following statements:

25. Consider the following:

26. With reference to Black Soil, Consider the following statements :

29. Consider the following:

30. With reference to Fuller's Earth, Consider the following statements :

32. With reference to Sundarbans, Consider the following statements :

38. Consider the following :

40. Consider the following :

45. Consider the following statements :

46. Consider the following statements :

How many of the above statements are correct?

47. Consider the following statements :

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

48. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

49. Consider the following statements with respect to election disputes :

How many of the above statements are correct ?

50. Consider the following statements :

How many of the above statements are correct?

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