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ACE Engineering Academy Editorial Board - GATE-Mechanical Engineering (2017, ACE Engineering Publications)
ACE Engineering Academy Editorial Board - GATE-Mechanical Engineering (2017, ACE Engineering Publications)
A very elderly and a young man were immediate neighbors with only a wall separating their
houses,
.
They planted two identical plants, one each in their. respective
.
premises and. beyond to
nurture them. While the young man supplied a lot of water and plenty of fertilizer to his plant,
the elderly man supplied minimum water fertilizer to the plant in his premises.
After a few months, the young man's plant became a beautiful sight with lovely green
leaves. The elderly man plants, though not so beautiful, grew in to a strong structure.
One night there was a storm with heavy winds and rain. The next day, the two men came
to check the condition of their respective plants. The young man was shocked to see that while
his plant was totally uprooted, the elderly man's plant was unscathed and standing straight.
When the young man asked the elderly man how this could have happened, the old man replied,
"Son, you supplied the tree with more than resources it needed and so, it never felt the need to go
deep in to earth for its survival. On the other hand, I gave my plant only minimum supply of
resources so that it could barely survive. So to strengthen itself, it had to spread its roots deep in
to earth and by doing so it developed its own strength. This could enable it to resist the winds
and stand strongly. Increasing one's ability depends on one's own effort and what other do for us
provides only a good base".
This story should be an eye opener to both students and teachers. Remember - A teacher
is only a ladder and not an escalator! Students should utilize the knowledge imparted by the
teacher as a strong base, show the zeal to go deep into the subject and widen the scope of their
knowledge. There is no elevator to success. There are only steps. Climb them. Also the teacher
should always be an inspiring model to the students. All of us should keep this in our mind.
2016 2017
1M 2M 1M 2M 1M 2M 1M 2M 1M 2M
1 Production SQ SQ 4Q SQ SQ 6Q s 6 2 s
2 IM&OR 0 2Q lQ 2Q lQ 2Q 0 2 2 3
4 Heat Transfer lQ 3Q 3Q 2Q 3Q 2Q 1 2 2 2
s Thermodynamics 3Q 3Q 2Q 4Q 2Q 4Q 3 4 2 4
6 Strength of Materials 3Q 4Q 3Q 4Q 2Q 3Q 4 4 4 1
7 Machine Design 0 lQ 2Q lQ lQ lQ 1 1 1 3
8 Theory of Machines 2Q 3Q lQ 2Q 3Q 2Q 1 3 2 3
9 Engineering Mechanics 2Q 2Q lQ 2Q lQ 3Q 2 1 0 2
10 Material Science lQ 0 lQ lQ 0 0 0 0 2 0
11 General Aptitude SQ SQ 4Q 6Q 6Q 4Q s s s s
12 Engineering Mathematics SQ SQ SQ SQ SQ SQ s 4 s 4
Applications:
-
Power Engineering: Air and gas compressors; vapour and gas power cycles, concepts of
regeneration and reheat.
I.C. Engines: Air-standard Otto, Diesel and dual cycles.
Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Vapour and gas refrigeration and heat pump cycles;
properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric processes.
turbomachinery:
. . .
Impulse and .reaction principles, velocity diagrams, ' Pelton:wheel, Francis and
. . . . · . . . .
Kaplan turbines. · ·
Engineering Materials: Structure and properties of engineering materials, phase diagrams, heat
treatment, stress-strain diagrams for engineering materials.
Casting, Forming and Joining Processes: Different types of castings, design of patterns, moulds
and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and gating design. Plastic deformation and yield criteria;
fundamentals of hot and cold working processes; load estimation for bulk (forging, rolling, extrusion,
drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep drawing, bending) metal forming processes; principles of
powder metallurgy. Principles of welding, brazing, soldering and adhesive bonding.
Machining and Machine Tool Operations: Mechanics of machining; basic machine tools; single and
multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life and wear; economics of machining;
principles of non-traditional machining processes; principles of work holding, design of jigs and
fixtures. Metrology and Inspection: Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular measurements;
comparators; gauge design; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment and testing
methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly.
Computer Integrated Manufacturing: Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their integration tools.
Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models, aggregate production planning, scheduling,
materials requirement planning.
Inventory Control: Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
Operations Research: Linear programming, simplex method, transportation, assignment, network
flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.
General Aptitude
Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning and data
interpretation.
Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups, instructions,
critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
GATE Syllabus for Mechanical Engineering
(Other than Engineering Mathematics)
7 THERMODYNAMICS, 429-580
9 IM&OR 889-982
The style, quality and content of the Solutions for previous GATE Questions of
Mechanical Engineering, will encourage the reader, especially the student whether above
average, average or below average to learn the concept and answer the question in the
subject without any tension. However, it is the reader who should confirm this and any
comments and suggestions would be pleasantly received by the Academy.
The student should not miss to go through the solutions for conventional questions
asked prior to 2003, as more concepts are brought out in them that will facilitate to answer
the numerical answer questions, Common data and Linked answer questions , if any, easily.
The student is advised to solve the problems without referring to the solutions. The
student has to analyze the given question carefully, identify the concept on which the
question is framed, recall the relevant equations, find out the desired answer, verify the
answer with the final key such as (a), (b), (c), (d), then go through the hints to clarify his
answer. This will help to face numerical answer questions, better. The student is advised to
have a standard text book ready for reference to strengthen the related concepts, if
necessary. The student is advised not to write the solution steps in the space around the
question. By doing so, he loses an opportunity of effective revision.
As observed in the GATE - 17, number of sets may be possible, being.online exams.
Hence, don't skip any subject. All are the equally important.
It is believed that this book is a Valuable aid to the students appearing for competitive
exams like GATE, JTO, DRDO, ISRO and Other PSUs. This book can also be used by fresh
Teachers in Engineering in improving their Concepts.
Mathematics Previous Questions & Solutions of GATE of all branches are available
in a separate booklet.
With best wishes to all those who wish to go through the following pages.
CONTENTS
-
-- --- - --
(a) VA and VB are both correct. 04. A stone of mass m at the end of a string of
(b) VA is incorrect but VB is correct. length l is whirled in a vertical circle at a
(c) VA and VB are both incorrect. constant speed. The tension in the string will
be maximum when the stone is
(d) VA is correct but VB is incorrect
(GATE-ME-94)
(a) at the top of the circle
02 Instantaneous centre of a body rolling with
(b) half way down from the top
sliding on a stationary curved surface lies.
(c) quarter-way down from the top
(GATE-ME-92)
(d) at the bottom of the circle
(a) at the point of contact
(b) on the common normal at the point of
05. A ball A of mass m falls under gravity from
contact
a height h and strikes another ball B of mass
(c) on the common tangent at the point of
m which is supported at rest on a spring of
contact
stiffness k. Assume perfect elastic impact.
(d) at the centre of curvature of the
Immediately after the impact
stationary surface.
(GATE-ME-96)
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(a) the velocity of ball A is 1._�2gh 09. The ratio of tension on the tight side to that
2 on the slack side in a flat belt drive is
( b) the velocity of ball A is zero (GATE-ME-00)
(a) proportional to the product of
(c) the velocity of both balls is 1._�2gh
2 coefficient of friction and lap angle.
(d) none of the above (b) an exponential function of the product
of coefficient of friction and lap angle.
06. A wheel of mass m and radius r 1s m (c) proportional to lap angle
accelerated rolling motion without slip (d) proportional to the coefficient of
under a steady axle torque T. If the friction.
coefficient of kinetic friction is µ, the
friction force from the ground on the wheel 10. A truss consists of horizontal members and
1s (GATE-ME-96) vertical members having length L each. The
(a) µmg (b) T/r members AE, DE and BF are inclined at 45°
(c) zero (d) none of the above to the horizontal. For the uniformly
distributed load P per unit length on the
07. A car moving with uniform acceleration member EF of the truss shown in the figure,
covers 450m in a 5 second interval, and the force in the member CD is
covers 700m in the next 5 second interval. (GATE-ME-03)
The acceleration of the car is
tfUnit length
(GATE-ME-98) ��-�,�� F
(a) 7m/s2
(b) 50m/s2
(c) 25m/s2 (d) 10m/s2
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.. ,.....,.�FipmqPmiJiratiooa
...,
• • • •
�
16. A straight rod length L(t) , hinged at one end 19. A stone with mass of 0. 1kg is catapulted as
freely extensible at tlle � 1 .. , '�nd, rotates shown in the figure. The total force Fx (in N)
through an angle 0(t) abo e hinge. At exerted by the rubber band as a function of
time t, L(t) = l m, L(t) = lm / s , 0(t) =n/4 distance x (in m) is given by Fx = 300x2 • If
the stone is displaced by 0. 1 m from the un
rad and 0(t) = 1 rad/s. The magnitude of the
stretched position (x = 0) of the rubber band,
velocity at the other end of the rod is
the energy stored in the rubber bad is
(GATE-ME-08)
(a) 1 mis (b) .fi.ml s
(c) F3m / s (d) 2 mis
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v.... - ,."vE!·��-�Pu�---
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�========�:��:=======�Engin�:·::nng:·�::;��·;=
.,
�
lOON
(GATE- 16- SET- 1)
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:8: ME Previous Solutions Booklet
28. A point mass M is released from rest and 30. A force F is acting on a bent bar which is
slides down a ,spherica1 h-o'W\- �f radius R ) clamped at one end as shown in the figure.
from a height H as s.."""'___.,.�- the figure
below. The surface of the bowl is smooth
(no friction). The velocity of the mass at the
bottom of the bowl is
y.J
I -�__,_v_
x, i
0 ___
M
I
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Engineering Mechanics :9:
m
32. The following figure shows the velocity
time plot for a particle travelling along a (a)2T/g (b) T( 1 + c47t)/g
straight line. The distance covered by the (c)4T/g (d)None of the above
particle from t = 0 to t = 5 s is ----
m. 02. AB and CD are two uniform and identical
bars of mass 1 0kg each, as shown. The
hinges at A and B are frictionless. The
assembly is released from rest and motion
4
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: 10 : ME Previous Solutions Booklet
lm/s
275mm
(
T B: ..,
' V = 8m/s
I
t
List- II
I
(c)8 mis heading East 09. The figure below shown a pair of pin jointed
(d) 1 3 mis heading East gripper ton !:: holding an object weighting
2000N. he coefficient of friction (µ) at the
Common data Q. 07 & Q. 08 gripping surface is 0. 1 XX is the line of
A reel of mass "m" and radius of gyration "k" is action of the input force and Y - Y is the
rolling down smoothly from rest with one end of line of application of gripping force. If the
the thread wound on it held in the ceiling as pin joint is assumed to be frictionless, the
depicted in the figure below. Considering the magnitude of force F required to hold the
thickness of the thread and its mass negligible in weight is (GATE-ME-04)
comparison with the radius "r" of the hub and the X F -----r-- X
reel mass "m", symbol "g" represents the
acceleration due to gravity. 300 mm
Thread
1 50 mm
07. The linear acceleration of the reel is: compression spring having a spring constant
of k = 98 1 x 1 03 N/m. It is pre-compressed by
1 00mm from its free state. If it is used to
eject a mass of 1 00kg held on it, the mass
mgr 2
(d) will move up through a distance of
(r 2 + k 2 )
.. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. (GATE-ME-04)
.. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. Mass
.. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. ..
08. The tension in thread is
.. . .. . .. . .. . .. . .. . .. . ..
.. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. ..
,.
mgr mgk
(a) (b)
2 2
(r 2 + k 2 ) (r 2 + k 2 )
mgrk mg (a) 1 00 mm (b)5000 mm
(c) 2 (d)
(r + k 2 ) (r 2 + k 2 ) (c)581 mm (d) 1 000 mm
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1 1. A rigid body shown in the fig.(a) has a mass 13. An elevator (lift) consists of the elevator
of 10kg. It rotates with a , iform angular cage and a counter weight, of mass m each.
velocity 'ro' A balancing mass of 20 kg is The cage and the counter weight are
attached as shown in fig.(b). The percentage connected by chain that passes over a pulley.
increase in mass moment of inertia as a The pulley is coupled to a motor. It is
result of this addition is desired that the elevator should have a
10 kg maximum stopping time of t seconds from a
a peak speed V. If the inertias of the pulley
a
0 and the chain are neglected, the minimum
N
y
0
ll
�
20 kg
Fig. (a) Fig. (b)
EB
(GATE-ME-04) Chain
(a) 25% (b) 50% l m
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: 13 : Engineering Mechanics
1 0 mis �
O __
1 kg
�
(a) Zero (b) 1 /3 rad/s
(b) 0.63 F
(c) 0.73 F
(d) 0.87 F
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24. A pin jointed uniform rigid rod of weight W the block attained after 1 0 seconds is
and length L is supported horizontally by an
external force F as shown in the figure
.- (GATE-14-SET-l)
below. The force F is suddenly removed. At 27. A truck accelerates up a 10 ° incline with a
the instant of force removal, the magnitude crate of 1 00 kg. Value of static coefficient of
of vertical reaction developed at the support friction between the crate and the truck
lS (GATE-ME-13) surface is 0.3. The maximum value of
acceleration (in mls2) of the truck such that
___
/4Jr L
�F the crate does not slide down is
(a) zero (b) W/4 (c) W/2 (d) W (GATE-14-SET-2)
25. A block R of mass 100 kg is placed on a 28. A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about
block S of mass 1 50 kg as shown in the the pinned end Q with a constant angular
figure. Block R is tied to the wall by a acceleration of 1 2 rad/s2 . When the angular
massless and inextensible string PQ. I f the velocity of the link is 4 rad/s, the magnitude
coefficient of static friction for all surfaces of the resultant acceleration (in mls2) of the
is 0.4, the minimum force F (in kN) needed end P is ___ (GATE-ME-14-SET-l)
to move the block S is
(GATE-14-SET-l) 29. A body of mass (m) 1 0kg is initially
stationary on a 45 ° inclined plane as shown
in figure. The coefficient of dynamic friction
between the body and the plane is 0.5. The
F
body slides down the plane and attains a
velocity of 20 mis. The distance travelled (in
(a) 0.69 (b) 0.88 (c) 0.98 (d) 1 .37 meter) by the body along the plane is
(GATE-14-SET-3)
/2�=�- - -
26. A block weighing 200N is in contact with a
level plane whose coefficient of static and
kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.2. respectively.
(/
The block is acted upon by a horizontal
force (in newton) P = 1 Ot, where t denotes
the time in seconds. The velocity (in mis) of
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30. An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius (a) 1 1.25 tension (b) 1 1.25 compression
R and outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a (c) 13.5 tension (d) 13.5 compression
flat surface without slipping. If the velocity
of the center of mass is v, the kinetic energy 33. A uniform slender rod (8 m length and 3 kg
of the disc is (GATE-14-SET-3) mass) rotates in a vertical plane about a
horizontal axis 1m from its end as shown in
(a) i_ mV 2 (b) .!..!_ mV 2
16 16 the figure. The magnitude of the angular
acceleration (in rad/s2) of the rod at the
(c) .!l mv 2 (d) � mV 2
16 16 position shown is_ (GATE-14-SET-4)
2 ln
(b) 981 and 0.5 p
• 4m
All dimensions 2
are in m (c) 1000.5 and 0.15
I
Q
:y
1 .5
(d) 1000.5 and 0.25
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: 17 : Engineering Mechanics
35. A ladder AB of length 5 m and weight (W) by 20% . The height (in m)to which the ball
600 N is resting against a wall. Assuming will rise is (GATE-15-Set 1)
frictionless contact at the floor (B) and the
wall (A), the magnitude of the force P (in 38. The initial velocity of an object is 40 mis.
newton) required to maintain equilibrium of The acceleration a of the object is given by
the ladder is the following expression: a = - 0. 1 v
Where v is the instantaneous velocity of the
object. The velocity of the object after 3
seconds will be (GATE -15 -Set 2)
60°
l OO kN
(GATE-15 -Set 2)
(a)10 (b)14.14 (c) 20 (d)28.28
(GATE - 15-Set 1) 40. A bullet spin as the shot is fired from a gun.
(a)122.47 kN and 50 kN For this purpose, two helical slots as shown
(b)70.71 kN and 100 kN in the figure are cut in the barrel. Projections
(c)70.71 kN and 50 kN A and B on the bullet engage in each of the
(d)81.65 kN and l OOkN slots.
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: 18: ME Previous Solutions Booklet
Helical slots are such that one turn of helix (a) 2W tensile and ./3w compressive
is completed over a distance of 0.5m. If
(b) ./3w tensile and 2W compressive
velocity of bullet when it exits the barrel is
20m/s, its spmmng speed (in rad/s)
(c) ./3w compressive and 2W tensile
1s___ (GATE -15 -Set 3) (d) 2W compressive and ./3w tensile
4 1. A block of mass m rests on an inclined plane 43. A system of particles in motion has mass
and is attached by a string to the wall as center G as shown in the figure. The particle
shown in the figure. The coefficient of static i has mass mi and its position with respect to
friction between the plane and the block is a fixed point O is given by the position
0.25. The string can withstand a maximum vector ri. The position of the particle with
force of 20 N. The maximum value of the respect to G is given by the vector Pi . The
mass (m) for which the string will not break time rate of change of the angular
and the block will be in static equilibrium is momentum of the system of particles about
___kg. G is (The quantity Pi indicates second
Take cos0 = 0.8 and sin 0 = 0.6. derivative of P i with respect to time and
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2 likewise for ri).
System boundary
(GATE - 16 - SET - 1)
0
42. A two -member truss PQR is supporting a (GATE - 16 - SET - 2)
load W. The axial forces in members PQ (a) Lri x mi Pi (b) Li Pi X mi �
and QR are respectively
(C) Ljrj X mi � (d) Li Pi X mi Pi
--- L --•I
44. An inextensible massless string goes over a
R frictionless pulley. Two weights of 100 N
and 200 N are attached to the two ends of
(GATE - 16 - SET - 1)
the string. The weights are released from
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: 19 : Engineering Mechanics
200N x, 1
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0 Q
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
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Solutions
05. Ans: (b)
One Mark Solutions Sol: m A = m 8 = m (given)
Velocity of ball 'A' before impact
01. Ans: (c)
UA :;:: �2gh
Sol:
us = O
Velocity of approach = uA - us = �2gh
by applying linear momentum equation
m u + O = m A VA + m 8 V8
A A
02. Ans: (b) => UA = VA + Vs ------- ( 1)
Sol: Instantaneous center of a body rolling with
For perfect elastic collision , e = 1
sliding on a stationary curve is always on the
. ·. Velocity of approach = velocity of
common normal at the point of contact
separation
=> UA - us = Vs - VA
03. Ans: (b)
=> UA = Vs - VA ---------- (2)
Sol: The frictional force always acts m the
VA + Vs = Vs - VA
opposite direction of motion
=> 2VA = 0 => VA = 0
In this case the acceleration at the point
contact will be pass through the geometric :. U A = VB = �2gh
center
06. Ans: (d)
04. Ans: (d) Sol:
Sol:
Tension,
T = miol + mg cos0 F
For Tmax , 1/,
0 = 0° i.e., vertical
F = Friction force
Tension at bottom mgcos0
I = mr 2
T = mlol + mg
mg 0
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':. : 22 : ME GATE Previous Solutions
=> T - F x r = mr 2 a
F = mra
:. a =
a
2 m r2
IMA = 0 = Wxa-Px(OB)
Frictional force, F= m r a
= mr x --2 = -
T T Since the depression is actually very small,
2m r 2r
the distance (OB)may be replaced by r;
Hence, Pxr = Wxa
07. A ns: (d )
Here, the horizontal component of the
1
S ol: S = ut + - at 2
Velocity
surface reaction R is equal to P by
2
inspection and is called rolling resistance.
=> 450 = Su + .!_ a x 5 2 The distance 'a' is called coefficient of
2
rolling resistance and is expressed in mm.
again700 = 5v + .!_ a x 5 2 W = 500 N, a = 0.3, r = 300 mm
2
500 x 0.3
Solving these equations, v - u = 50 p= = 0.5 N
300
v-u
=> a = -- = 1 0 m / sec 2
t 09. A ns: (b )
08. A ns: (a ) Sol:
S ol: Rolling resistance occurs because of the
deformation of the surface under a rolling
10. A ns: (a )
load. A wheel of weight W and radius r is
Sol: L FY = O => R A + R 8 = P x L
being pulled out of the depression and over
the point A by the horizontal force P.
Naturally this is a continuous process as the
PL PL
wheel rolls. => R = R =
A 2 ' B 2
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: 23 : Engineering Mechanics
0.5m
17. Ans: (c)
Sol: The FBD of the above block shown
T
Lami' s triangle
1----+ l OO N ,w FAB
F ______,,r--......
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: : Engineering Mechanics
10 1 1 l 1
FAB = x sin 63 .44 = 20kN - m 1 u 21 + - m 2 u 22 = - m 1 v 21 + - m 2 v 22
sin 26.56 2 2 2 2
1O 1 1 1
Fae = x sin 90 = 22.36kN - x l x l 2 2 = - x l x v� + - 2 x v;
sin 26.56 2 2 2
v� + 2v; = 144 .......... (2)
22. Ans: (d)
From equation ( 1) v, = 12 - 2v 2 substituting
Sol: Relative velocity after impact = 0
in equation (2)
Coefficient of restitution
2
Re lativevelocityafter Im pact (12 - 2 v i } + 2 v; = 144
= =0
Re lativevelocity before Im pact 144 + 4v; - 2 x 2 x 12 x v 2 + 2v; = 144
6v; - 48v 2 = 0 => v 2 (6v 2 - 48) = 0
23. Ans: (c)
48
=> v 2 = - = 8 m / s
24. Ans: 100 6
--- = ---°
25. Ans: 7.8 to 8.2 F 100
°
sin 150 sin 120
Sol: m 1 = lkg m2=2kg m 1 = lkg m2=2kg
0 +O 0
v,
+ 0 => F = 57.735 N
u1 12m/s u 0
=
2
= V2
IOO N
F rom momentum conservation equation 28. Ans: (c)
Sol: By Energy Conservation
1
l x 12 = v 1 + 2 v 2 • • • • • ••• ( 1) mgH = - mv2
2
From kinetic energy conservation equation
=> V = .j2gH
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: 26 : ME GATE Previous Solutions
L \,
Yr= - = 2t = 4 'Ve= r - = r = t 2 = 4
, ' dr
,
dt
'
dt
Resultant velocity
= 1 6 N-m
� mv = m (v-U) =-2 mV sin 0 J
32. Ans: 10
30. Ans: (a)
Sol: Total distance covered = Area under
31. Ans: (c) velocity-time graph
Sol:
,• particle (r,0) 1 1 1
= - x l x l + l x 1 + l x 1 + - x 3x 1 + 2 x 2 + - x 2 x 2
,/ polar coordinates 2 2 2
,,
r, , , ' = 10 m
,,
,,
, ,' 0
2 2
T+2T+T = mg
= _!_ X 1 X r 2 + _!_ X 1 6 X 1 2
2 2 4T = mg
= 8 + 8 = 1 6 N-m
m = 4T/g
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02. Ans: (a) 04. Ans : a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 5
Sol:
05. Ans : (d)
125
Sol: tan0 = -
275
T
=> e = 24.45°
B
- - - - 30° \.- - B
Tsin0 = mg.
I
I
60° :
Tsin24.45 = (35x9.81)
I
I
mg
I
=> T = 829.5 N
There is no moment about 'B' so always the
Rx = Tcos24.45 = 755.4 N
angle between two bars is constant. Ry = O
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mk. 2 1 1 . A ns: (b )
�T = - x a ------(2)
r2 S ol: 1 1 = l Ox0.22 = 0.4 kg-m2
mk. 2 gr 2 lz = 1 0x0.22+20x0. 1 2= 0.4 + 0.2 = 0.6kg.m2
mg - -2- x a = ma � a = 2 2
r (k + r ) Percentage of increase in mass moment,
0.6 - 0.4
I= x 1 00 � 50%
08. A ns: (c ) 0.4
S ol: Tension in thread,
T = mg - ma 1 2. A ns: (c )
mr g = mgk
2 2 S ol: Velocity of bomb (Vb) = canon
= mg -
k2 + r2 r2 + k2
Vcanon = rco = 2 X 2 = 4 m / S
09. A ns: (d )
S ol: II\
µR
C
R --- --- R
2000 N 0
vb = .J3 2 + 4 2 = 5 m / s
At equilibrium
2000 4
2 µR = 2000 � R = = 10 OOON tan e = -
2 x 0. 1 ' 3
Taking moment about pin e = 53. 1 3
1 0,000 x 1 50 = F x 300
F = 5000 N 1 3. A ns: (c )
S ol: T1 = mg - mx
10. A ns: (b ) T2 = mg + mx
S ol: k = 98 1 x 1 03 Nim, 8 = 100 mm f
(T2 - T1 )dx
Power = ----
1 t
mgh = - k x 2
2
2mf�x dx 2m r2 mV 2
98 1 x 1 0 x {0. 1) =- - = V dV =
h = _!_ x
3 2
= 5 m = 5000 mm t t Jo t
2 100 X 9.81
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1 4. A ns: (d) 1 5 . A ns: (b)
S ol: �---� S ol:
mV
3
� m1 V r = le ro = - m r 2 ro
�
2
3 C
=> 10 X 1 X 1 = - X 20 X 1 X 0)
2
W2 = 9.8 1 N
(neglecting mass of the clay)
1 6 . A ns: (a)
S ol: TAB
TAc
2
=
9.8 1 N
mgsin0 - F = ma or
VA = V = rro
mgcos0 = N
F = µN.
=> mgsin0 - µN= ma
=> mgsin0 - µmgcos0 = ma
=> a = g(sin0 - µcos0) Vp =
- - -
VA + Vp0 = V + AP x ro
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: 31 : Engineering Mechanics
Inertia force = J dm r a.
23. A ns: (b )
- L
= a. m r = a. m- S ol:
FAC
=
F
:::) FAC =0.895F
sin 120 sin 105
= 2P mL = P FAC = Maximum force
mL 2 0.895F 0.895F
=Stress => =l 00
At 'O' Area 1 00
Net reaction = Inertia force - P F = l l . 1 7 kN
=P-P=O
24. A ns: (b )
21. A ns: (b ) S ol :
I a.
S ol: 1 x 9.81 = 9.81N ..,
0.8N w ,I
F
When the support is removed the rod
�Y = O => N = 9. 8 1 N accelerates and undergo rotation about the
Fs = µN = O. l x 9.81 = 0.98 N axis of the hinge. The acceleration 'a.' can
The External force applied = 0.8 N < Fs be found using the dynamic equilibrium.
g ' 3
= 0.4x 98 1 = 392.4N
R = W - p-a = W -p-a
p2
f1 = µ N1 0.4x 2452.5= 98 1 N
2
X
=
2 2
Lfx = 0 => F - f 1 - F2 = 0
W £2 3 g
= W - -. - - - F = F, + F2 = 98 1 + 392.4
2 2
= 1373.4 N = 1 .3734 kN
gf f
R = W [ 1- !] = :
F
N
F
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: 33 : Engineering Mechanics
W.r.t free body diagram of the block : 27. A ns: 1 . 198 m/s2
Fs = µsN ; S ol:
FK = µKN
FBD of the crate
I:Fy O =
fN
N-W = O
N = W= 200 N
Limiting friction or static friction
(Fs) = 0.4 x200 = 80 N
Kinetic Friction Wv JI0°
I
The block starts moving only when the W.r.t. FBD of the crate:
force, P exceeds static friction , F s Wx = Wsin 10° = 98 1 xsin 10° = 1 70.34N
Thus, under static equilibrium Wv = W cos 10° = 98 1 x cos1 0° = 966.09 N
=> IFx = O IFv = 0 => N - Wv = 0
=> P-Fs = 0 => l Ot = 80 N = Wv = 966.09N;
80 F = µN = 0.3x 966.09 =289.828 N
t = - = 8 sec
10 IFx = 0 => P = Wx -F
: . The block starts moving only => P + 289.828 -1 70.34 =O
when t > 8 seconds P = 1 1 9.488 N
P = ma = 1 1 9.488 N
During 8 seconds to 10 seconds of time: 1 1 9.488
=> a = = 1 . l 98 m/s 2
According to Newton's second law of motion 1 00
Force = mass x acceleration
dv 200 dv 28. Ans: a = 40m/s2
(P - FK ) = m x - =::, (l Ot - 40) = - x
dt 9.8 1 dt Sol:
10
200
f (1 0t - 40)dt = -f
9.8 1
dv
V
0
8
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: 34 : ME GATE Previous Solutions
, ,, , , ' y
m = --2 x 2m dr = --rdr
31tR 3R 2
\
(
W=mg = 98. IN
,,
/
Moment of inertia of that elementary ring is
\
\
given by,
Wx = W sin 45 = 98. 1 xsin 45 = 69.367 N
2M
Wy = W cos 45 = 69.367 N di = --rdr x r2
3R 2
IFv = O
As such elementary rings vary from r = R to
N -Wv = O
r = 2R, the total moment of inertia of whole
N = Wv = 69.367 N
disc is given by
F = µKN = 0.5 x 69.367 = 34.683N 2R
2M
IFx = 0 (Dynamic Equilibrium I= J r3 dr
R 3R
2
- o· Alembert principle )
Wx - F- ma = O � I = 2M2 [ R ]
4 2R
69.367 - 34.683 - l O xa = 0 3R 4 R
a = 3 .468m I s 2 2M X
= ! [16R 4 - R 4 ]
V = 20rn/s2 ; u = O; a = 3.468rn/s2 3R 4
2
. . 1 1 32. A ns: (a )
Tota1 kmetlc energy = - mV 2 + - Ico 2
2 2 S ol:
F2 =3 kN
V = rco = 2R m 3m
3m
V
co = - rad/s R
2R
Total Kinetic Energy
1 1 5mR 2 V
2
= mV 2 + x x( )
2 2 2 2R
5mV 2 1 3mV 2
= _!_ mV 2 + =
2 16 16 s ''
1 .5m ',' 3m
31. A ns : 10 N - m ''
S ol: m = 1 000 kg, r = 0.2 m 'X V1
LFy = O
coo = 10 rad/sec , t = 10 sec
V1 +V2 - 9+3 =O
co = coo + at
LMR = O
O = lO + a x lO
=:> Vi x 1 .5 +3 x 3 -9 x 6 = 0
a =- 1 rad/sec 2
=> V1 = 30 kN (t)
1
0 = ro 0 t + - at 2 V2 = -30 +9 - 3 = - 24 kN (t)
2
1 Adopting method of sections -section x-x
= 10 x 1 0 + - {- 1) x 1 0 2 = 100 - 50 adopted and RHS taken
2
20
0 = 50 rad 0 = tan -1 ( · ) = 53. 13 °
1 .5
1
Work done = - m V22 - V12 ) (
2 LFy = 0 (W.r.t. RHS of the section x-x)
V1 + F2 -Vi-Fy = 0
= _!_ mr2 (ro2 - ro� )
2 =:> Fsin 53. 1 3 = 30+ 3-24
F = 1 1 .25 kN (Tension)
TS = _!_ x l OOO x 0.2 2 x (- 1 00)
2 :. Force in member, QS = 1 1 .25 kN (Tension)
T x 50 = 2000 (or ) F1 = Fps sin(53. 1 3)
T = 40 N-m (anti-clock wise) Fps = 1 1 .25 compression
40 -Fps = Fos
Torque per wheel = - = I O N - m
4
:. Fos = 1 1 .25 1 (Tension)
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: 36 : ME GATE Previous Solutions
W=3x9.81=29.43N
3m
M = Ia
M = 29.43 x 3 = 88.29N-m W=600N
p
mf 2 3 X 82 2m � 2m
I = 1 0 + md 2 = -- + md 2 = -- + 3 x 3 2 1�
12 12
= 1 6 + 2 7 = 43kg - m 2
:EFy = 0
M 88 29
a = = · = 2.053 rad / s 2 Ns - W = O
I 43
Ns = 600 N
34. A ns: (a ) :EMA = 0
S ol: Px3 +Wx2 - Nsx 4= 0
,., T I
I
I
I ',
,,
',
I
P = 4NB - 2W
3
1::'._ _ I
I I
I I
4 x 600 - 2 x 600
I I
p 4m
I
I
I
I
P= = 400N
3
'!'__ _ ,/
0 36 . A ns: (c )
IMQ O =
S ol: PQ = QR = 4m
=> Px2 -Wx l = 0 N
Take moments about Q
100 x 9. 8 1
P= 490.5N 1 00 cos 60 x PQ = VR x 4
IFv = O => VR = 50 kN
=:> N = W = 981N
F = µN = P
490.5 = µ X 981 50
480.5 FPR = -- = 70.7 l kN
µ= = 0.5 sin 45
98 1
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: 37 : Engineering Mechanics
sin 45
=
3.54 m/sec FsR = 20 kN
v_ 3.54 2
h2 = - 2 = = 0.64m
2g 2 x 9.81 40. A ns: 2 5 1 to 2 5 2
S ol: � = �
38. A ns: 29. 5 to 29.7 21t p
S ol: v0
dv
= 40 m / s ; a =-0.l v => - =-0.l v
e =s , 0 = ro , S = V
dt 21t P
V x 21t 20 x 21t
dv
= J-O.l dt + C 1 => ln v =-0.lt + C 1 ro = -- = ---
J V p 0.5
39. Ans: (c )
S ol: Take moments about point P
VQ x 3 =
30 x 2
1:Fv 0
VQ = 20 kN
=
=> N =
W cos 0 =
0.8 W
At point Q, f µN
= =
0.2 W
1:Fy =
O 1:Fx =
0
FR0 = V0 => 0.6 W = 20 + 0.2 W
FRQ 20 kN
= => W = 50 N
=> m =
5 kg
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: 38 : ME GATE Previous Solutions
� 60°
TQR
By Lami' s theorem
w
-- = -- = -�- m1a1 = T - 1 00
T
TQR
sin 30 sin 60 sin 270
PQ
1 00
- a1 = T - 1 00 ------ ( 1 )
=> Tpo = J3w (T) g
=> TQR = -2 W= 2 W(C) m2a2 = 200 - T
200
- a2 = 200 - T ------ (2)
43. A ns: (b & d ) g
Sol: The rate of change of the angular 200 1 OO
a = 200 - a - 1 00
momentum of the particles about 'G' is g g
= ! (Lm x p x vJ
300a = 1 00 g
=> a = g
dp dv 3
= L( m- x v. + mp x -)
dt dt :. T = 1 00 a1 + 1 00 [·: a1 = a2]
1
I
dmp dv l OO
=-LV- x -- + Lmp x -i T= x + 1 00 = 1 33.33 N
dt dt
g
g 3
!
1
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: 39 : Engineering Mechanics
0· 6 3.4 0 6 + 3.4 v
xO+ x 800 = ( · )x
60 60 60
45.33 = _!_ x v
15
V2
a = tan -I ( T) = 63 .44
V = 45.33 x 15 = 679.95
= 680 mlsec
By applying sine rule
V2
,Js = --- 48. A ns: (a )
sin 45 sin 7 1 .57 S ol: V = Rro
:. V2 = 3 mlsec
A lternate solution:
B
tJ-----V2
�
V1 = -.J2 2 + 12 = Js m l s
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49. A ns: 7. 5
S ol:
- - rop
- - - - - - - - ... O(Instant centre)
45 ° ,
/:
I
,d' I fOQ
,' I
12
mL2
m( j
g = 10 m/s2, I cG = --
12 1 = Ji + m x _!_ = m + m = 4m = 2m
12 2 6 2 6 3
0
Angular acceleration, a = ?
a = Angular acceleration
The rod PQ is in general plane motion while
M = moment with respect to O = W xd 1
falling down.
= m x gx d 1
d1
Ji
= - x cos 45 2m
2 m x g x d1 = - x a
3
1
d1 = - m = d 2 � a = l x 10 x _!_ = 7 .5 rad / sec 2
2 2 2
rOQ = Ji x sin 45 = 1 m = rop
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yderabad Delhi Bhopal Pune Bhubaneswarl Lucknow ! Patna Bengaluru Chennai Vyayawada Vizag Tirupati Kukatpally Kolkata
Strength of Materials
(Questions)
Page No. 42
CONTENTS
"- �---�--�r-·- - --�����- - - ��,- - - - - ,, -���� - - --
:' Chapter Questions Solutions
Name o f the Chap ter
:1
�
01 Simple Stress 43 - 50 5 1 - 56
02 Complex Stress 5 7 - 60 61 - 64
03 SFD & BM D 65 - 67 68 - 70
OS Pure Bending 74 - 76 77 - 80
08 Torsion 86 - 90 9 1 - 95
02 . A free bar of length 1 m is uniformly heated 04. In terms of Poisson ' s ratio (µ) the ratio of
° °
from 0 C to a temperature of t C. a is the Young ' s Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G)
coefficient of linear expansion and E the of elastic materials is (GATE-ME-04)
modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar is (b) 2 ( 1 - µ)
(a) 2(1 + µ)
(GATE-ME-95)
1 1
(a) atE (b) atE/2 (c) -(1 + µ)
2
(d) - (1 - µ)
2
(c) zero (d) none of the above
05 . A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made
03 . Two identical circular rods of same diameter of a homogeneous and isotropic material.
and same length are subjected to same The rod rests on a frictionless surface. The
magnitude of axial tensile force. One of the rod is heated uniformly. If the radial and
rod is made of mild steel having the longitudinal thermal stresses are represented
modulus of elasticity of 206 GPa. The other by crr and crz respectively, then
rod is made of cast iron having the modulus (GATE-ME-04)
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: 44 : Strength of Materials
(a) crr = O ,crz = O (b) O"r ::;t: 0, O"z = 0 08. A circular rod of length 'L ' and area of
(c) crr = O, crz ::;t: O (d) O"r ::;t: 0, O"z ::;t: 0 cross-section 'A ' has a modulus of elasticity
'E ' and coefficient of thermal expansion 'a ' .
06. A steel rod of length L and diameter D, One end of the rod is fixed and other end is
fixed at both ends, is uniformly heated to a free. If the temperature of the rod is
temperature rise of �T. The Young ' s increased by AT, then
modulus is E and the coefficient of linear (GATE-ME-14-SET-l)
expansion is 'a ' . The thermal stress in the (a) stress developed in the rod is EaAT and
rod is (GATE-ME-07) strain developed in the rod is a AT
(a) 0 (b) aA T (b) both stress and strain developed in the
(c) EaA T (d) EaA TL rod are zero
(c) stress developed in the rod is zero and
07. A rod of length L having uniform cross strain developed in the rod is aAT
sectional area A is subjected to a tensile (d) stress developed in the rod is EaAT and
force P as shown in the figure below. If the strain developed in the rod is zero
Young ' s modulus of the material varies
linearly from E 1 to E2 along the length of the 09. A metallic rod of 500mm length and 50mm
rod, the normal stress developed at the diameter, when subjected to a tensile force
section - SS is (GATE-ME-13) of 1 OOkN at the ends, experiences an
r--+ s increase in its length by 0.5mm and a
E1 reduction in its diameter by 0.015mm. The
P +-- I---+ p Poisson ' s ratio of the rod material is
(GATE-ME-14-SET-1)
�s
L/2
�1 �, 10. A steel cube, with all faces to deform, has
�
L Young ' s modulus, E, Poisson ' s ratio, v, and
coefficient of thermal expansion, a. The
P(E, - E 2 ) pressure (hydrostatic stress) developed
(a) !_ (b)
A A(E 1 + E 2 ) within the cube, when it is subjected to a
PE 2 PE, uniform increase in temperature, �T, is
(c) (d)
AE 1 AE 2 given by (GATE-ME-14-SET-2)
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:45: Simple Stresses
11. The stress-strain curve for mild steel is 14. A rod is subjected to an uniaxial load within
shown in the figure given below. Choose the linear elastic limit. When the change in the
correct option referring to both figure and stress is 200 MPa, the change in the strain is
table (GATE-14-SET-3) 0.001. If the Poisson's ratio of the rod is 0.3
the modulus of rigidity ( in GPa) is___
(GATE-15-Set 2)
..' '===========================================
ti • • • •
(S) The total area under the stress-strain 18. The Poisson's ratio for a perfectly
curve is a measure of resilience. incompressible linear elastic material is
Among the above statements, the correct (GATE-17-SET- l)
ones are (GATE -PI-16) (a) 1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0 (d) infinity
(a) P and Q only. (b) Q and S only.
(c) P and R only. (d) R and S only. 19. In the engmeenng stress-strain curve for
mild steel, the Ultimate Tensile Strength
17. A beam is subjected to an inclined (UTS) refers to (GATE-17-SET-1)
concentrated load as shown in the figure (a) Yield stress (b) Proportional limit
below. Neglect the weight of the beam. (c) Maximum stress (d) Fracture stress
(B)
(GATE-17-SET-2)
(C)
21. If E is the modulus of elasticity in GPa, G is
the shear modulus in GPa and v is the
Poisson's ratio of a linear elastic and
(D) (i-----"----. isotropic material, the three terms are
related as (GATE-PI-17)
(a)E=G (l-2v) (b)E=2G(l-v)
(c)E=G ( l +2v) (d) E=2G(l +v)
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ACE : 47: Simple Stresses
��-�
. ..�&,pw,qPublimiooa
., 'ii! • • • •
Pb/ Pa/
T2 = 2 2
Two Marks Questions (a +b }'
2 2 (a +b )
Pa/ Pb/
( 2}' T2 (
01. Determine the temperature rise necessary to 2 a +b
2
2 a 2 +b 2 )
induce buckling in a 1m long circular rod of
diameter 40 mm shown in the figure below. 03. A 200 x 100 x 50 mm steel block is
Assume the rod to be pinned at its ends and subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15
the coefficient of thermal expansion as MPa. The Young's modulus and Poisson's
20x10-6/° C. Assume uniform heating of the ratio of the material are 200 GPa and 0.3
bar. (GATE-ME-93) respectively. The change in the volume
40 mm diameter of the block in mm3 is (GATE-ME-03)
27
[[-+----f
� (a) 85 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 110
(
4
_? 1-
m ----t�� 04. The figure below shows a steel rod of 25
mm2 cross sectional area. It is loaded at four
02. Below Fig. shows a rigid bar hinged at A points. K, L, M and N. Assume Estee! = 200
and supported in a horizontal position by GPa. The total change in length of the rod
two vertical identical steel wires. Neglect due to loading is (GATE-ME-04)
the weight of the beam. The tension T I and
lO�� - _ _ ---r- -�N
-- � - -0N---- 00
T2 induced in these wires by a vertical load � L � 25 2 N M
1
+1
(c) 16 µm (d)-20 µm
r/
05. A steel bar of 40 mm x 40 mm square cross
-1 section is subjected to an axial compressive
--p- -: load of 200 kN. If the length of the bar is 2
p m and E = 200 GPa. The decrement in
(a)T1=T2 = - length of the bar will be (GATE-ME-06)
2
Pa/ Pb/ (a) 1.25 mm (b) 2.70 mm
(b)T1 = T2= 2 2
(a +b }' (a +b )
(c) 4.05 mm (d) 5.40 mm
2 2
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: 48: Strength of Materials
06. A bar having a cross-sectional area of 700 09. A metallic bar of uniform cross-section with
mm 2
is subjected to axial loads at the specific weight of 100 kN/m3 is hung
positions indicated. The value of stress in vertically down. The length and Young's
the segment BC is (GATE-ME-06) modulus of the bar are 100 m and 200 GPa,
respectively. The elongation of the bar, in
63
��-3_kN mm, due to its own weight is ____
kN
5 _E __4_9kN_�E-��
A B C D (GATE - PI-15)
10. A horizontal bar with a constant cross
(a) 40 MPa (b) 50 MPa section is subjected to loading as shown in
(c) 70 MPa (d) 120 MPa the figure. The Young's modules for the
sections AB and BC are 3E and E,
07. A solid steel cube constrained on all SIX respectively.
faces is heated so that the temperature rises
uniformly by dT. If the thermal coefficient F
of the material is a, young's modulus is E
L
and the Poisson's ratio is u, the thermal
L
stress developed in the cube due to heating For the deflection at C to be zero, the ratio
IS (GATE-ME-12) P/F is (GATE-16-SET-1)
_ a(dT)E 2a(dT)E
(a) (b)-
(1-2u) (1-2u) 11. A hypothetical engmeenng stress-strain
_ 3a(dT)E _ a(dT)E curve shown in the figure has three straight
(c) (d)
(1-2u) 3(1-2u) lines PQ, QR, RS with coordinates P(O,O), Q
(0.2,100), R(0.6, 140) and S(0.8, 130). 'Q' is
08. A 200 mm long, stress free rod at room the yield point, 'R' is the UTS point and 'S'
temperature is held between two immovable the fracture point.
rigid walls. The temperature of the rod is 160 0 .6, 140
°
uniformly raised by 250 C. If the Young's �
140
120
i::1-.
modulus and coefficient of thermal 6 100
rod is (GATE-ME-12)
0
Engg. Strain(%)
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: 49: Simple Stresses
The toughness of the material (in MJ/m3 ) is 200°C, the axial stress developed in the rod
(GATE-16-SET-1) 1s ___MPa.
dimension 10 mm x 10 mm. All joints are Young's modulus of the material of the rod
pin joints. is 200 GPa and the coefficient of thermal
expansion is 10-5 per °C.
(GATE-16-SET-2)
p
The stress (in Pa) in the link AB is __
(Indicate compressive stress by a negative
sign and tensil e stressby apositive sign)
(GATE-16-SET-2) p L
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\( } ( ll�llll l I Ill� P11!1ll( .111, )[I'-
Fyderabad I
�
,.
, � ACE · Pi� : 50: Strength of Materials
, ....,."�
... EngiomJ
15. A horizontal bar, fixed at one end (x = 0), shown (Figure is not to scale). If g = 10
has a length of 1 m, and cross-sectional area m/s2 , the maximum compression of the
of 100 mm2 • Its elastic modulus varies elastic bar is ___ mm.
along its length as given by E(x) = 100 e x-
GPa, where x is the length coordinate (in m) m = 100kg
along the axis of the bar. An axial tensile H= 10 mm
load of 10 kN is applied at the free end
(x = 1). The axial displacement of the free
end is --- mm. L= lm
(GATE-17 - SET-1)
' ElrneM (
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: 53: Simple Stresses
Pia
S.1m1·1ar1y, T1 =
Two Marks Solutions (a + b 2 )
2
Temperature thrust,
P = (a tE)A. --- (2)
&=a(l-2µ)
For equilibrium, equation 1 = 2 ; E
7t 2 7t 2 7t oV
EI = a x t x E x A � E x -( 40)4 t y= - = t X +t y +t z =
V
3t
£ (1000) 2 64
-
2
3 x l5
= 20 xl0-6 x t x E x 1t x 402 oV = (1-2 x 0.3){200 x 100 x 50}
200 x 10 3
� t = 49.34°C o V = 90 mm 3
_ Plb
T2 -
(a +b2)
2
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�
J-.,.._.��PnNiaaoos
ti, ACE
V • • • • : 54 : Strength of Materials
B C cr = atE
= 1 x 10·5 x 250 x 200 x 103 = 500 MPa
a
cr F-P + 3F= 0
4F = P� p = 4
O'x = cry = O'z = cr F
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: 55 : Simple Stresses
11. Ans: 0.8 5 (range 0.849 to 0. 851) 14. Ans: 0.2 (range 0.18 to 0.22)
Sol: Toughness = Area under diagram Sol: Ev = Ex + cy + tz
0 ·2 0.4 µ ( cr + cr)
= .!.x x10o +.!. ( )( 100 +140 ) + €
= (cr _ µcr ) + (cr _ µcr ) _
2 100 2 100 V E E E E E
.!. 0·2 Due to plane stress condition, 0
( )( 140 +130 ) Ez =
2 100
t v = ; X 2 X (1-µ )
T = 0.1 + 0.48 + 0.27 = 0.85 M J/m3
( 2 - 2x o.001) - 22
= p
2
Strii :x
:. FAB O
1 1,.
=
: . CJ'AB = O � p
�
:1
-+ldx :
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: 56 : Strength of Materials
Ax-x = A = Constant
Ex-x = 1 00 e-x GPa
p fL dx p fl dx Impact factor
8 to1ai =
A Jo -
l_Oe___
O_ x =_ 9
0_x__
1_ _ Jo e-x
l O_O_A
= 1 000 x 1 000 3 [ l + l + 2 x 1 00 x l 0 x l OO x l O ]
3
3
10 x l0 ( x )l l OO x l OO x 1 0 l OOO x 1 000
= 1 00 X 1 0 -6 X 1 00 X 1 0 9 \e O
3
= l .7 1 82 x l 0- m = _!_ [1 + .J1 + 200 ] = 1 .5 1 77 mm
10
Dtotal = 1 .7 1 8 mm
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Complex Stresses
04. The figure shows the state of stress at a
One Mark Questions certain point in a stressed body. The
magnitudes of normal stresses in the x and y
0 1 . An elastic body is subjected to a tensile
directions are 1 00 MPa and 20 MPa
stress X in a particular direction and a
compressive stress Y in its perpendicular respectively. The radius of Mohr's stress
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07. A thin plate of uniform thickness is subject 10. The state of stress at a point on an element is
to pressure as shown in the figure below shown in figure (a). The same state of stress
is shown in another coordinate system in
figure (b) .
z 'txy
09. A shaft with a circular cross-section is 12. For a two dimensional state-of-stress
subjected to pure twisting moment. The ratio defined as CTxx = cryy = 'txy = S, the Mohr's
of the maximum shear stress to the largest circle of stress has (GATE-Pl-17)
principal stress is (a) center at (S, 0) and radius S
(GATE-16-SET-2) (b) center at (0,0) and radius S
(a) 2.0 (b) 1. 0 (c) 0.5 (d) 0 (c) center at (S, 0) and radius 0
(d) center at (S/2,0) and radius 2S
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: 59 : Complex Stresses
f
30 1 0 -! OJ
[cr] = 10 0 2 0 MN /m2 04. The maximum and minimum principal
- 1 0 20 0 stresses respectively from the Mohr's circle
The shear stress in the x-y plane at the same are (GATE-ME-03)
point is then equal to (a) + 175 MPa, - 175 MPa
(a) zero MN/m2 (b) -10 MN/m2 (b) + 175 MPa, + 175 MPa
(c) 10 MN/m2 (d) 20 MN/m2 (c) 0,-175 MPa
(d) 0, 0
02 At a point in a stressed body the state of
stress on two planes 45 ° apart is as shown 05. The directions of maximum and minimum
principal stresses at the point "P" from the
below. Determine the two principal stresses
Mohr's circle are (GATE-M E-03)
(GATE-ME-93)
(a) 0, 90° (b) 90°, 0
(c) 45°, 135° (d) All directions
'
�
(c) 164 MPa (d) 204 MPa ''
''
' (GATE - PI-16)
08. A two dimensional fluid element rotates like
a rigid body. At a point within the element,
12. A rectangular region in a solid is in a state of
the pressure is 1 unit. Radius of the Mohr's
plane strain. The (x,y) coordinates of the
circle, characterizing the state at that point,
comers of the undeformed rectangle are
(GATE-ME-08)
given by P(O,O), Q(4,0), R(4,3), S(0,3). The
lS
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SOLUTIONS
03 . Ans: (c)
One Mark Solutions
= 1 000 X 10-6 -(-600 X 10 -6 )
01. Ans: (d)
= 1600x 10-6
Sol: The given state of stress is indicated on the
element , the corresponding Mohr's circle 1s
04. Ans: (c)
also shown.
Sol:
100
2
cr - cr Y
Radius of M ohr circle = "
2
= 100 - (- 20) = 60 MPa
maximum
shear
2
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�··��&gnw:nngPnbliratiom
A ,CE
: 62 : Strength of Material
� ==========================================
., V • � • •
08. Ans: 85
Sol: <Jx = 120 MPa , cry =-50 MPa, <Jz = l OMPa
er
_ 120-(-50) _
"Cmax - ---- - 85
2 ( S, -S )
Center � (S, 0) Radius � S
09. Ans: (b)
Sol: -rmax =1
0-1 Two Marks Solutions
-��] l:
01. Ans: (c)
10. Ans: (b)
Sol:
p
0=90°
Sol: cr = [ �
-10 20
:i o
0
=
"C zx
°
0=0
Comparing similar elements
-p p
"C xy = l OMPa
-p
02.
At the plane 0 = 45° (in Mohr circle 0 = 90°) Sol:
<J'J = <J2 = 0
"Cxx = "Cyy = 0
"Cxy=p 8 + 0-y 8 - o-y
� 2 = -- +-- cos(2 x 45)
2 2
11. Ans: 50 -3 x sin(2 x 45)
Sol: The state of stress is pure shear
= 2 = 4 +- +0-3 xl
Hence, cr1 --a2 = "C
(j y
2
:. crmax = 50MPa
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•t -- .
'!.� I, =
,jj :....�·���-�-�-·��·�========��===========�����;:�
:·.1·�·�-�A:CA.,
.na, ,.. ·. 63 ·. Complex Stresses
'
= 8 � 2 ± l; 2 ) + 3 '
:. O"y , = - 45 x 2 = ± 90MPa
= 5 ± 4.243
cr 1 = 9.243 MPa
07. Ans: (b)
and cr2 = 0.757 MPa
Sol: O" = 50 MPa
1 0x l 0 6
03 . Ans: (d) -r = -r =- = 50.95 MPa
max
Sol:
Zp
� (1 00 ) 3
16
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e0=53. 1 3 = 0.003079 = �L = L 1 -Lo = L1 -5
10. Ans: (c)
Sol: crx = 20 , cry = 80, 'txy = 40 L0 L0 5
L 1 = 5 x 0.003079 + 5 = 5.015 units
• mu =±
(er,;"')' + {<_, f
= ± (20 ; 80 J +(40 ) '
= ± 50 MPa
P(O,O) Q(4,0)
e0 = (
E
xx
+ E YY
2
0.001 +0.002
J
E -E
2
y
0.001-0.002
J
+ ( xx YY cos 20 + ;Y sin 20
e 0=53 . 1 3 = ( )+( )
2 2
0.003
cos(2 x 53.13 ) + sin(2 x 53.13)
2
= 1.5 X 10·3 + 1.399 X 104 + 1.44 X 10·3
= 0.003079
\( I l 1u
.;111t
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SFD and BMD
03 . A concentrated load P acts on a simply
L
One Mark Questions supported beam of span L at a distance
3
01. For a simply supporting beam on two end from the left support. The bending moment
supports the Bending Moment is maximum: at the point of application of the load is
(GATE-M E-89) given by (GATE-M E-93)
(a) usually on the supports PL 2PL
(a) (b)
(b) always at mid span 3 3
(c) where there is no shear force PL 2PL
(c) (d)
(d) where the deflection is maximum 9 9
03. A beam is made up of two identical bars AB 06. For the overhanging beam shown in figure,
and BC, by hinging them together at B. The the magnitude of maximum bending
end A is built-in (cantilevered) and the end moment (inkN-m) is __
C is simply-supported. With the load P 1 0 k:N/m
acting as shown, the bending moment at A is
(GATE-ME-05) A
t 1111 L
B
r•1
1111111
4
L/2
lp
•I
L
�
1111
4m 2m
(GATE-15-Set 3)
\'�
l O k:N
i Q
1.soornm • : • 500mm .1
9
�---�
1100N •I-
'------. 2m lm •I
-: l+--
lOOrnm (a) 2.5 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 25
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 60 08. A beam is loaded as shown in the figure
I• 1 m
l O k:N
05. A simply supported beam of length L is �
subjected to a varying distributed load
sin(3mJL)Nm- 1 , where the distance x is 6 k:N
p 0
measured from the left support. The
magnitude of the vertical reaction force in N
at the left support is (GATE-ME-13)
2m 2m 2m
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SOLUTIONS
l k:N-m
One Mark Solutions
i
Sol: Two Marks Solutions
t.
2P !_
2£
p
01.
- 3 Sol:
3 3 3
. 2P I 2Pf
Bendmg moment = -x - = -
3 3 9
l OOkN
t
I OOkN
04. Ans: (d)
Sol: Upto centre of beam there will be steep �I OOkN
increase in BM, later on there is a gradual
increase in BM.
:. The appropriate answer is 'D'. 1 50kN-m
�ydcrabad
I Delhi I Bhopal I Punc I Bhubaneswar I Lucknow I Patna I Bengaluru I Oicnnai I Vtjayawada I Vizag I 1irupati I Kukatpally I Kolkata I
: 69: SFD & BMD
e = tan - 125 =
1
) 24.44°
275 100 10 =
(
RA - 40 kN
2 1
=
rFX = O
Rx =T cos 24.44 ---- (1) 100 10 =
RB = + 60 kN
2 1
LFY = 0
: . M c = Max BM = R 8 (0.5m) = 30 kN-m
T sin 24.44 + Ry -(35 x 9.81) = 0 ---- (2)
rM A = O
05. Ans: (b)
T sin0(275) = (35 x 9.81)(275) Sol: The loaded beam is as shown in figure
35x9.81 =
T= 830 N
sin 24.44
SubstituteT in equation (1) T� 116 116 �
//3
;
�
113 T
Rx= 755.4N. RA � Rs
SubstituteT in equation (2)
Ry = O RA = Ra = hatched area
rl / 6
= sin
L dx
03. Ans: (b) Jo
(37tX)
Sol:
FBD
p �p
2 p 2
A__ /_�i2
a B
= L
3 1t
yderabadl Delhi l Bhopal I Punc l Bhubaneswarl Lucknow l Patna l Bengalurul Olennai I Vuayawada j V17.3g ! Tirupali I Kukatpally i Kolkata
06. Ans: 40
Sol: RQ = Rp + 10
20 kN Rp x 1 + 10 x 0.5 =0
lOkN
Rp = -5 (-Ve indicates, Rp for PQ link is
lm 2m
upward)
30 kN
:. Mo = 5x2 = 10 kN-m
(SFD)
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Centroids and Moment of
Inertia
0 1 . The second moment of a circular area about 0 1 . A disc of radius' r 'has a hole of radius 'r/2'
the diameter is given by (D is the diameter) cut-out as shown. The centroid of the
(GATE-ME-03 ) remaining disc (shaded portion) at a radial
4 4 4 4
trD trD trD trD distance from the centre "O" is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 16 32 64
0
..... ....
-- x
(c) Solid Sphere (d) Solid Cube 1 20
I
O' : ) : ) [ : ::[)i [ :)::i : : : [ \ 3=0,: (( : \(::\)\ :: : : /j)
0 - ;.:..�--�-�- �-�--�-� :..·-···
I
60
..···
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: 72: Strength of Material
All dim en sion s are in ' m m ' 03. The figure shows cross-section of a beam
(GATE -15-Set 3) subjected to bending. The area moment of
(a) 8.5050x106 mm4 inertia (in mm4) of this cross-section about
(b) 6.8850x106 mm4 its base is ----
(c) 7.7625 x106 mm4
(d) 8.5725x106 mm4
Is R4 All dimensions are in mm
(GATE -16-SET-1)
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ydcrabad Delhi Bhopal Pune Bhubaneswar wcknow Patna Bengaluru Chennai j Vtjayawada j Vizag Tuupati I Kukatpally I Kolkata
SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: (b)
Sol:
One Mark Solutions
Sol: / = / = .!!_ D 4
X y 64
Bh 3 bh 3
Moment of inertia = --- 2 Ax +-J
(
2
02 . Ans: (b) 12 12
Sol: Radius of gyration is highest for a rim type Moment of inertia
flywheel, hence it has maximum mass 60 X 1203 _ 30 X 303
= 2( +(30 X 30 X 30 2 ]
moment of inertia. 12 12
= 6.885x106 mm4
-[
= 2
(-)
1r r - 1r(r/2 ) 2
6
: X ( 84 ) +: X ( 82 ) ( 5 ) J
2
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cs Pure Bending
D O
Ii/h is
(GATE -16-SET-3)
(a) lht (b) 2/rc (c) rc/3 (d) rc/6 th..__ 5 mm
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: 75 : Pure Bending
= 14.89 N/mm2
Young's modulus of mild steel
Im
• Im
•I
l+.i
1 0mm
(GATE-ME-88)
( ) 400MPa
d
p
17
Statement for Linked Answer Q 04 & QOS
A mass less beam has a loading pattern as shown
in figure. The beam is of rectangular cross section
(a) Maximum near the fixed end with a width of 30 mm and height of 100 mm.
(GATE-ME-OS)
(b) Maximum at x = _!_ L
2 3kN/m
(c) Maximum at x = 3. L
3
2m
(d) Uniform throughout the length •�Re
L
(GATE -PI-1 6)
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: (a)
d
One Mark Solutions Sol: = Ymax = 2
I NA
( J
I NA
Acircle = Asquare
D
: D = a => a = �
2 2
Two Marks Solutions
My
=-
01.
(J b
I
Es = l .96 x 1 0 5 =
M( ¥ Sol: m= 16.75
) = 3 2 M3 = 1 0. 1 8 (�3 ) E 1 0. 1 17 x l 0 5
((J b tircle
nD D
� D4 Equivalent section in terms of steel is given
64
below
1 00mm
200mm
> (<Jb)square
(<Jb)circle b=5.97mm
Circular beam expenences more
stresses than square beam. 5mm
64
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: 78 : Strength of Materials
l OO mm � ? =
156.8x100 (J_) Sol:
105 m
=8.915 MPa < 14.89 MPa
6PL
If permissible stress in wood = 14.89 MPa fd 2
The stress in steel is
100 � 14.89
105 x14.89
105 � ? = x m = 261.87 MPa For beam of uniform strength
100
M = f. z
Therefore, permissible stress in steel should
bd 2
be limited to = 156.8 MPa PL = f.
6PL
b=
From bending equation fd 2
M f
- =-
I y 03. Ans: (a)
Sol: ION
1
M = f. z = 156.8 x --
Ymax i lm
14.5 x10 6
= 156.8 X
105
BMD
M = 21.65 kN-m
M =l OkN - m
The safe udl on the beam 'w' is
w/ 2
- Bending stress at the point of maximum
=M
bending moment,
8M - -- 65 x 1 0 6 f M
8x 2 1 .- = 10 x l 0 = 6 0 M Pa
3
w - - -- =
/2 ( 6000)
2
Z ! O x 10 2
( J
= 6
4.81 N/mm or 4.81 kN/m
As f oc M , bending stress variation along
the length of beam is same as BMD
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: 79 : Pure Bending
2m = 3.375 kN-m
M 3.375x 10 6
l .5 kN ----- fmax =- = 67. 5 MPa
z 30x;oo' J
=
4. 5 kN.
07. Ans: (a)
RB =
and RA =
l .5 kN M 6·75 x 10 6
Sol: f max = z = = 162.98MPa
�( 75 )3
From similar triangles 32
1 .5 4. 5
= 08. Ans: (d)
(2 - x) X
Sol: Point P is subjected to axial force and
x = 6 -3x
p M
6 bending. (J'R = CJ' + j = - + -
X = - = 1 .5 A Z
4
F
= --- + -�-�
F(L - b)
1 . 5 m from end B. (2b X2b) (2b 2b ) '
x =
[ � ]
or 2.5 = 2500 mm from end A
. _ F(3L-2b)
• • CT R - 4b 3
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ACE :.
.. " = :·�
�...E.l!l :nog
F.Dlinm
�· Pn�Ni�on • ========.::== 0 ========�S:tr�e:
�:011:, �::::o:::::: ri:als:
f ate�
8��:�
ngth M
M 50x l� .
A
cr = - = ( = 300 MPa (Tension)
L L L Z I0x l0 J
2
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Shear Stress in Beams
One Mark Questions
Two Mark Questions
01 Which one ofthe following diagrams shows 01. Consider a simply supported beam of length
correctly the distribution of transverse shear 50h, with a rectangular cross-section of
stress across the depth h of a rectangular depth h, and width 2h. The beam carries a
beam subjected to varying bending moment vertical point load P, at its mid-point. The
along its length? ratio of the maximum shear stress to the
(GATE-ME-90) maximum bending stress in the beam is
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3)
(a) (b)
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.10
(c) 0.05 (d) 0.01
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SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: (b)
t = ----16T
1td� (l - k 4 )
16x 63.66x l 03
30 =
Two Mark Solutions
1tx d� x (l - 0.54 )
01. Ans : (a) do = 22.58 mm
= P(50 h )x 62 = 75P2
4x [2h][h ] 2 h
3P
= 4h = 3x 2 = _3_ = 0 . 02
t max 2
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C7 Springs
02. The spring constant of a helical compression
One Mark Questions spring DOES NOT depend on
(GATE- 16-SET- 1)
01. The figure shows arrangements of springs. (a) coil diameter
They have stiff nesses K, and K2 as marked. (b) material strength
Which of the following arrangements offers (c) number of active turns
2 1 2 (d) wire diameter
a stiffness = (GATE-ME-87)
K K
K 1 +2K 2
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PnNiramna : 84 : Strength of Materials
(a) L = 220 mm, K = 1862 Nim 04. A helical compression spring made of a wire
(b) L = 210 mm, K = 1960 Nim of circular cross-section is subjected to a
(c) L = 200 mm, K = 19860 Nim compressive load. The maximum shear
(d) L = 200 mm, K = 2156 Nim stress induced in the cross-section of the
wire is 24 MPa. For the same compressive
03. A compression spring is made of music wire load, if both the wire diameter and the mean
of 20 mm diameter having a shear strength coil diameter are doubled, the maximum
and shear modulus of 800 MPa and 80 GPa shear stress (in MPa) induced in the cross
respectively. The mean coil diameter is section of the wire is -----
20 mm, free length is 40 mm and the (GATE-17-SET - 2 )
number of active coils is 10. If the mean coil
diameter is reduced to 10 mm, the stiffness
of the spring is approximately
(GATE-ME-08)
(a) Decreases by 8 times
(b) Decreases by 2 times
(c) Increases by 2 times
(d) Increases by 8 times
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SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: (b)
Sol: F = K(8 )
One Mark Solutions 1
2x 9.81 = K (L-0.2) ............ (1)
0 1 . Ans: (d)
22 x 9.81 = K (L - 0.1) ........ (2)
Sol:
Solving equations (1) & (2)
We get,
Initial length, L = 0.210m = 210 mm
K = 1962 N I m.
(2 K2 ) (K 1 ) 2 K1 K 2 04. Ans: 6
K = =
e 2 K 2 + K1 K 1 + 2 K2 Sol: Shear stress in helical spring is
8PD
't max = x kw
02. Ans: (b) 1td 3
4C - l 0.615
kw = Wahl's factor = -- +--
4C-4 C
't = 24 MPa
Two Marks Solutions rnax
4 4
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Ce Torsion
04. Two solid circular shafts of R1 and R2 are
One Mark Questions subjected to same torque. The maximum
shear stresses developed in the two shafts
0 1 . Maximum shear stress developed on the R1
are and If = 2 , then � is
surface of a solid circular shaft under pure R2
T1 T2 .
TI
,r d3
----+I
3 500 mm
1rd
16T
(c)
,r d3
(GATE-15-Set 1)
03. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is
subjected to a combined bending moment, 06. A rope brake dynamometer attached to the
M and torque, T. The material property to be crank shaft of an I.C. engine measures a
used for designing the shaft using the brake power of 1 0 kW when the speed of
16 rotation of the shaft is 400 rad/s The shaft
relation 3 �M + T is (GATE-ME-09)
2 2
,rd torque (in N-m) sensed by the dynamometer
(a) Ultimate tensile strength (Su) is ----
(b) Tensile yield strength (Sy) (GATE-15 -Set 2)
(c) Torsional yield strength (Ssy)
(d) Endurance strength (Se)
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: 87 : Torsion
T1
(GATE-16-SET-1) � tT
(
(a) >1 (b) < 0.5 d 2d
(c)= 1 (d) between 0.5 and 1
t t
08. A motor driving a solid circular steel shaft �l z---1
transmits 40 kW of power at 500 rpm. If the
1 1
diameter of the shaft lS 40 mm, the (a) - (b) ! (c) - (d) !
16 8 4 2
maximum shear stress in the shaft is
----- MPa. 03 . Two shafts A and B are made of the same
(GATE-17-SET-1) material. The diameter of shaft B is twice
that of shaft A. the ratio of power which can
Two Marks Questions be transmitted by shaft A to that of shaft B is
(GATE-ME-94)
1 1
01. A circular rod of diameter d and length 3d is (a) - (c) ! (d) -
2 8 16
subjected to a compressive force F acting at
the top point as shown below. Calculate the 04. A torque of 10 N-m is transmitted through a
stress at the bottom-most support point A. stepped shaft as shown in figure. The
(GATE-ME-93) torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of
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"'-�CE . .
. . S trength of Materials
.. .. ===============================
'!.
"
.•.��Pnbliratioos : 88 :
I I I
0 p
T= l ONm M N applied at a distance, L/4 from the left end
GI
T
� as shown in the figure given below.
(GATE-M E-09)
(a) 0.5 rad (b) 1.0 rad
(c) 5.0 rad (d) 10.0 rad
transmits a torque of 1600 N-m. The value The maximum shear stress in the shaft is
of maximum shear developed is 16T,, 12T,, 8T,, 4T,,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(GATE-ME-04) tr d3 tr d3 tr d3 tr d3
(a) 37.72 MPa (b) 47.72 MPa
(c) 57.72 MPa (d) 67.72 MPa Statement for Linked Answer Q.08 & Q.09
A machine frame shown in the figure below is
06. The two shafts AB and BC, of equal length subjected to a horizontal force of 600 N parallel
and diameters d and 2d, are made of the same to z-direction. (GATE-ME-07)
material. They are joined at B through a shaft
coupling, while the ends A and C are built-in
(cantilevered). A twisting moment T is
applied to the coupling. If TA and Tc
I
represent the twisting moments at the ends A
and C, respectively, then (GATE-M E-05)
600N
coupling
� � �
§ d
1'
D 2
d
1' �
1.-
L .., I.. L
•I
A B C
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: 89: Torsion
08. The normal and shear stresses in MPa at minimum allowable design diameter in mm
point P are respectively lS (GATE-ME-12)
(a) 67.9 and 56.6 (b) 56.6 and 67.9 (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32
(c) 67.9 and 0.0 (d) 0.0 and 56.6
12. A hollow shaft of 1 m length is designed to
09. The maximum principal stress in MPa and transmit a power of 30 kW at 700 rpm. The
the orientation of the corresponding maximum permissible angle of twist in the
principal plane in degrees are respectively shaft is 1°. The inner diameter of the shaft is
(a)-32.0 and-29.52 (b) 100.0 and 60.48 0.7 times the outer diameter. The modulus
(c) -32.0 and 60.48 (d) 100.0 and -29.52 of rigidity is 80 GPa. The outside diameter
(in mm) of the shaft is __
10. A torque T is applied at the free end of a (GATE -15 -Set 2)
stepped rod of circular cross-sections as
shown in the figure. The shear modulus of 13. A rigid horizontal rod of length 2L is fixed
the material of the rod is G. The expression to a circular cylinder of radius R as shown in
for diameter to produce an angular twist 0 at the figure. Vertical forces of magnitude P
the free end is (GATE-ME-11) are applied at the two ends as shown in the
figure. The shear modulus for the cylinder is
�---- L ------- /2
G and the Young's modulus is E.
2d _ _ _q
32TL 4 18TL 4
(a) ( ) (b) ( )
n0G n0G
16TL 4 2TL 4
(c) ( ) (d) ( )
n0G 1t0G
The vertical deflection at point A is
11. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to (GATE - 16 - SET - 2)
transmit a torque of SON.m. If the allowable (a) PL3 !(nR4G) (b) PL3 !(nR4 E)
shear stress of the material is 140MPa,
(c) 2PL3 !(nR4E) (d) 4PL3 !(nR4G)
assuming a factor of safety of 2, the
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: 90 : Strength of Materials
14. Two circular shafts made of same material, (a) 0s = 0H and 'ts = 'tH
one solid (S) and one hollow (H), have the (b) 0s > 0H and 'ts > 'tH
same length and polar moment of inertia. (c) 0s < 0H and 'ts < 'tH
Both are subjected to same torque. Here. 0 s (d) 0 s = 0H and 'ts < 'tH
is the twist and 'ts is the maximum shear
stress in the solid shaft, whereas eH is the
twist and 'tH is the maximum shear stress in
the hollow shaft. Which one of the following
TRUE?
(GATE-16-SET - 3)
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SOLUTIONS
d3 ) ( i:
21tNT
Brake power = -- = roT
60
03. Ans: (c) 10x10 = 400 xT
3
r42 +r:32 R
=
r22 + r.I2 F F x (d / 2)
� (d 3 )
32
4F 16F
1td 2 1td 2
08. Ans: 60. 47 12F
= (-) (Tensile)
Sol: Power transmitted, P = 40kW 1td 2
Rotations, N = 500rpm
Diameter of shaft, d = 40mm 02. Ans: (a)
Power transmission Sol: el =
e2
21tNT
P= TI Li T2 L2
60
G J1 G2 J2
2n x 500 x T
40 = TI L T2 L
60 =
� �
T = 0.76 kN-m G x d4 G x (2d)
4
32 32
Maximum shear stress developed,
T1 = 1 = 1
16T
't max = -- T2 2 4 16
1td 3
03 . Ans: (c)
Sol: Power transmitted, P = 2 nNT
P oc T. -----( 1)
. . T 't
F rom torsion equation - = -
J R
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: 93 : Torsion
r
1t d 3 1tx303
Sol: For Parallel system , 0 AB = 0 8c
Maximum principal stresses
. = "; + ( "; + ·�
"
= l OO MPa
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: 94 : Strength of Materials
2 x 7t X 700
2a = -59.04° & 180 - 59.04 = 120.96°
TL
a = -29.52° & 60.48° 0=
CJ
Maximum principal stress will occur at
TL
a = 60.48° J=
c0
16 2
d = 16mm
14. Ans: (d)
12. Ans: 43 to 45 TL
Sol: 0 5 = (solid)
Sol: / = l m = 1000 mm , P = 30x103 W GJ
TL
0 per = f,° X � = 0.0174 radians 0H = (hollow)
180 GJ
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:�PnNirafioos
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� : 95: Torsion
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Slopes and Deflections
03. A cantilever beam having square cross
One Mark Questions section of side a is subjected to an end load.
If a is increased by 19%, the tip deflection
01. A cantilever type gate hinged at Q is shown decreases approximately by
in the figure. P and R are the centers of (GATE -16-SET-1)
gravity of the cantilever part and the (a) 19% (b) 29%
counterweight respectively. The mass of the (c) 41% (d) 50%
cantilever part is 75 kg. The mass of the
counterweight, for static balance, is
Two Marks Questions
(GATE-ME-08)
R
was found to deflect more than a specified
value. Which of the following measures will
reduce deflection? (GATE-ME-03)
0.5m 2m (a) Increase the area moment of inertia
(b) Increase the span of the beam
(a) 75 kg (b) 150 kg (c) Select a different material having lesser
(c) 225 kg (d) 300 kg modulus of elasticity
(d) Magnitude of the load to be increased
02. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to
a moment M at the free end. The moment of
Common Data for Questions 02 & 03:
inertia of the beam cross section about the
neutral axis is I and the young's modulus is A steel beam of breadth 120 mm and height 750
E. The magnitude of the maximum mm is loaded as shown in figure. Assume
deflection is modulus of elasticity as 200 GPa.
prrrrrrEJ
(GATE-ME-12)
ML2 ML2
(GATE-ME-04)
(a) (b) /120 kN/m
2EI EI
2ML2 4ML2
(c) (d) ,.
EI EI 15m
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ACE
':,� ..i-u�• ; nn;;:11�-·........,.;;
= F:;;-; -;:- -.;"';,============================
., ..r �,.
• • : 97 : Slopes and Deflections
...... ,.,, PtJ'LI:.......!-
02. The beam is subjected to a maximum concentrated load P is applied at the free end of
bending moment of the beam. (GATE-ME-11)
(a) 3375 kN-m (b) 4750 kN-m p
(c) 6750 kN-m (d) 8750 kN-m t
----L-----..
03. The value of maximum deflection of the
beam is
(a) 93.75 mm (b) 83.75 mm
(c) 73.75 mm (d) 63.75 mm
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. . .
'!.�-�:F�PubJi.P..n : 98: Strength of Materials
� 4==================================
(a) 0.5 L 0
I· L
·I
A
(b) 0.25L 12. A cantilever beam with square cross section
(c) 0.33L of 6 mm side is subjected to a load of 2kN
�p B
.,
(d) 0.66L normal to the top surface as shown in figure.
I• L The Young's modulus of elasticity of the
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:.t
..,,.
� w •
ACE
.,F�PnNir:nml
• • • : 99: Slopes and Deflections
� wL wL
I• 20mm •I (c) (d)
I• •I
4 8
100mm
13. A simply supported beam of length 2L is 15. The simply-supported beam shown in the
subjected to a moment M at the mid-point Figure is loaded symmetrically using two
x =0 as shown in the figure. The deflection equal point loads P. The radius ofcurvature
in the domain O � x � L is given by of the deflection-curve is 15 m for the
-Mx portion ofthe beam that is subjected to pure
W= ( L-xXx+ c)
12EIL bending. The vertical deflection (in mm) at
Where E is the Young's modulus, I is the point M, equidistant from both the supports
r
area moment of inertia and c is a constant is __ (up to two decimal places).
(to be determined).
pl )} M
I· +
0.25
m
0.75m ·I 0.75m lo.2sl
m
The slope at the center x = 0 is
(GATE- 16- SET-2)
(GATE-PI-17)
(a) ML/(2EI) (b) ML/(3EI)
(c) ML/(6EI) (d) ML/( 12EI)
02 . Ans: (a)
02 . Ans: (a)
Sol: Cantilever beam subjected to moment
w 2
. . ML 2 Sol: Maximum bending moment= f,
deflectlon 1s -- 8
2EI
1 2 0( 1 5)
2
= =3375kN -m
8
03. Ans: (d)
Sol:
03. Ans: (a)
a
1 2 0 X 7503
4
__ x X and use I = --
vertical member 2P 1 2/
:.
=-
PL3 I
8 = 1 2P
2 3EI fxdx
Ebt3 0
ML = (PL)(L) PL2
S= =
3EI 3EI 3EI = 1 2P/ � ' 1 2P .e 3 6P/3
[ ] = =
PL3 Ebt3 2 0 2Eb t Ebt 3 3
8 1 L.0
= = -
3EI
PL3 PL3 2PL3 07 . Ans: (b)
8= 8 1 +8 2 = -+-= --
3EI 3EI 3EI Sol: Slope at free end
= PL2 (PL/2)L
0 +
05. Ans: (b) 2EI EI
Sol: PL2 PL2 PL2
=-+-=-
2EI 2EI EI
b
08. Ans: (a).
Sol: w
x.b
Wl"dth = b =-
L
x
�N\N\N\/\
L -I
- b xt- _ -
3
xbt- 3
I -- - Maximum deflection of the beam at free end
12 1 2L
. wL4
1s = --
8EI
06. Ans: (d)
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: 102: Strength of Materials
Displacement at A = 0
PL3 =---
M (L) 2
3EI 2EI
1 L
PL =-----
P(L-x) (L)
3 2 =-
2EI 0
-f
(PL) 2 dx
3EI 2EI
p2L2 p 2L 3
L (L-x) dx =
L
=
3 2 2EI I 2EI
2L = 3L-3x U =U1+U2
3x = L p 2L3 p 2L3
:. U = --+--
1 6EI 2EI
x = -L = 0.33L.
Deflection at 'A'
10. Ans: (d) 0 = au= 2PL3 + 2PL3
Sol: :0 C A 8P 6EI 2EI
PL3 PL3
= -+-
L 3EI EI
B ---�� A
L
X
=
PL3
EI 3
[_!_
+
1J=i PL3
3 EI
p
2EI f
l
0
Strain energy of BC
A•
I somm
�
B
100mm
�,C
l M 2 dx
L
U1 = --
f
Fig: "BMD" Diagram
2EI 0
Since (M = PL)
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: 103 : Slopes and Deflections
dy = 3600
= 0.158 Radians
dx EI
C
conjugate beam
1 25x10 3 s
2EI p
o = x ox(so+ I ( so ))
c 2 EI 3
25xl 0 3
= _!_x x50x83.33
2 200xl0 6 _ 1 First moment of area
dBA- -- ( J
=0.26 mm EI APB about B
2
12. Ans: 0.15 to 0.16
=-
�i(�x�xLx �) =
:;
Sol: Bending moment (M) =-P.x
d ML
d2 y Slope at 'A' = � = -
M = EI 2 L 6EI
dx
(·: at 'A' x=O, W = 0, so slope = � )
d
d y 2
L
� f-Px = EI dx 2 f
(OR)
-Px i + C = EI dy
2 dx
dy =
At x = R 0
' dx
p£ 2
C=-
M M
- a 6
R1 = R2 = -
4 4
2L 2L
I- - = - = 108 mm4
12 12 On right side from centre
At x = 80 mm M x=-R 1 (L-x)
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�-t"� ACE Strength of Materials
.. ..... PuhlinP:n : 104:
w • • • •
M x2
EIW'=-- (Lx--) +c 1
2L 2
M x2 x3 )
EIW=-- ( L--- +c I x+c 2 ----(1)
2L 2 6
:0.25 P
From given deflection in domain O � x � L
W = O@x = O
W = O@x = L Ye-Ya = �/AX)
1 0 75
On substituting in eq. (1) = - (o.75 x 0.25P x · )
EI 2
C2 = 0
0.25 P = M (moment)
L 3
0.75
c 1 L=�( ) = _l (o.75x x M)
2L 3 EI 2
ML M 0 75
C1
=
-
6 Yc -Y8= (0.75x · )
EI 2
1 M
R EI
ML ML R = 15 m (given)
W'Ix=o=-�(o)+ =
2LEI 6EI 6EI - M
1 --
15 EI
14. Ans: (b) O.?S)
Yc -YB=_!_(0. 75 X
wL4 RL3 3wL 15 2
Sol: = � R=
8EI 3EI 8 Ya = 0 [at support, no deflection]
Ye= 18.75 mm
Ye = deflection at c.
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Cto Thin Cylinders
04. A gas is stored in a cylindrical tank of inner
One Mark Questions radius 7 m and wall thickness 50 mm. The
gage pressure of the gas is 2 MPa. The
01. A thin walled spherical shell is subjected to maximum shear stress (in MPa) in the wall
an internal pressure. If the radius of the shell 1s (GATE-15-Set 2)
is increased by 1% and the thickness is (a) 35 (b) 70
reduced by 1%, with the internal pressure (c) 140 (d) 280
remaining the same, the percentage change
in the circumferential (hoop) stress is 05. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with
(GATE-ME-12) closed-ends is subjected to internal pressure.
(a) 0 (b) 1 The ratio of circumferential (hoop) stress to
(c) 1.08 (d) 2.02 the longitudinal stress is
(GATE- 16- SET-2)
02. A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
at both the ends, is subjected to an internal (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
pressure. The ratio of the hoop stress
(circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress 06. The inside and outside radii of a thick
developed in the shell is walled cylindrical pressure vessel are
(GATE-ME-13) denoted by a and b, respectively. If the
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 vessel is subjected to an internal pressure P,
(c) 2.0 (d) 4.0 then the magnitude of the radial stress crrr is
(GATE-PI-17)
03. A cylindrical tank with closed ends is filled (a) zero at r = a and maximum at r = b
with compressed air at a pressure of 500kPa, (b) maximum at r = a and zero at r = b
the inner radius of the tank is 2m, and it has (c) constant over the entire thickness
wall thickness of 10 mm. The magnitude of (d) zero at both r = a and r = b
maximum in-plane shear stress (in MPa)
1s (GATE-15-Set 3)
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: 1 06 : Strength of Materials
01 . A thin cylinder of 1 00mm internal diameter 03. If the Young's modulus and Poisson 's ratio
and 5mm thickness is subjected to an of the container material are 1 OOGPa and
internal pressure of 1 OMPa and a torque of 0.3, respectively. The axial strain in the
2 000 Nm. Calculate the magnitudes of the cylinder wall at mid height is
principal stresses. (GATE-ME-96) (a) 2 X 10-5 (b) 6 X 10-5
(c) 7 x 1 0-5 (d) 1.2 X 10-5
Statement for Linked Answer Q02 & Q03
04. A thin gas cylinder with an internal radius of
A cylindrical container of radius R=1 m, wall 1 00 mm is subject to an internal pressure of
thickness 1mm is filled with water upto a depth of 1 0 MPa. The maximum permissible working
2m and suspended along with its upper rim. The stress is restricted to 1 00 MPa. The
density of water is 1 000kg/m3 and acceleration minimum cylinder wall thickness (in mm)
due to gravity is 1 0 m/s2 • The self weight of the for safe design must be __
cylinder is negligible. The formula for hoop stress (GATE-14-SET-4)
in a thin walled cylinder can be used at all points
along the height of the cylindrical container. 05. A thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel of
internal diameter 2 m is designed to
withstand an internal pressure of 500 kPa
(gauge). If the allowable normal stress at
any point within the cylindrical portion of
the vessel is 1 00 MPa, the minimum
thickness of the plate of the vessel (in mm)
(GATE-ME-08) lS---- (GATE - PI-16)
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SOLUTIONS
- cr 2 =
't max = cr 1 25 MN/ m 2 (or) MPa
One Mark Solutions 2
�J:�t) 2
% Change in Hoop stress = 2.02%
( :!
Hoop stress (ah ) =
2t
06. Ans: (b)
PD
Longitudinal stress (a1 ) = Sol:
4t
hoop stress--
----- =2
Longitudinal stress
03. Ans: 25
Pr 0.5 x 2000
Sol: cr H = cr 1 = - = ---- = 100 MN/ m 2 maximum at a
t 10 cr rr {
zeroatb
_ _ Pr _
O'L - 0' 2 - -
0.5 x 2000 _
- 50 MN/ ill
2
2t 2x10
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: 108 : Strength of Materials
(b) ..!_ ofthe original value the case with both ends clamped to the case
4 with both ends hinged is
(c) _!_ ofthe original value (GATE-ME-12)
8 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
(d) _!_ ofthe original value
16
05. Consider a steel (Young 's modulus E = 200
GPa) column hinged on both sides. Its
02. For the case ofa slender column of length /,
height is 1.0 m and cross-section is
and flexural rigidity EI built-in at its base
10mm x20mm. The lowest Euler critical
and free at the top, the Euler's critical
bucking load (in N) is ___
buckling load is (GATE-ME-94)
(GATE-15-Set 1)
41t:EI 2 EI
(a) (b) �:
I Two Marks Questions I
1t EI
2
1t EI2
(c) (d) 4 2
/
0 1. The rod PQ of length L and with flexural
/2
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: 1 10 : Strength of Materials
L2 L2 thermal expansion a
EI EI
(c) (d)
2 2
,r ,r
J2L2 2L2
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SOLUTIONS
05. Ans: 3289 (range 3285 to 3295)
T = tension in rod PQ
04. Ans: (c)
Form equilibrium of the rod at Q
= _L_ = 4
,e, 2
Sol: --- T cos 45 ° + F = 0
2
-=
pFix-Fix hinge - hinge
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..,
. ..��
�.• ,
� . A. CE . .
Pnblbmna : 112: Strength of Materials
12
A = 20 x 10 = 200 mm2 :. t OC d2
/ = 1000 mm
:. A = 346
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I 1 2 Propped and Fixed Beams
Chapter
01. Two identical cantilever beams are O1. A uniformly loaded propped cantilever
supported as shown, with their free ends in beam and its free body diagram are shown
contact through a rigid roller. After the load below. The reactions are
P is applied, the free ends will have
(GATE-ME-OS)
Jlll!l!!ll!l!I I I I !
(
(a) Equal deflections but not equal slopes
rR1 RJ
(b) Equal slopes but not equal deflections
(c) Equal slopes as well as equal (GATE-ME-07)
deflections
(d) Neither equal slopes nor equal 5 3
(a) RI = qL R2 = qL M = qL
2
deflections 8 , 8 , 8
(b) R = qL , _.R = qL , M = q
3 5 L2
I 8 � 8 8
3
(c) RI = SqL , R2 = qL , M = O
8 8
3 R 35qL M = O
(d) RI = qL
8 2
= 8
, ,
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SOLUTIONS
5q
Rl = L
One Mark Solutions 8
0 1. Ans: (a)
Sol: The free ends of cantilevers are resting one R 2 ( L)+ M-q ( L {� )= 0
0 1. Ans: (a)
Sol:
_ 3q L
R2 -
8
LFy = 0
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C13 Strain Energy
0 1. Two threaded bolts A and B of same 0 1. A stepped steel shaft shown below is
material and length are subjected to identical subjected to 10 N-m torque. If the modulus
tensile load. If the elastic strain energy of rigidity is 80 GPa, the strain energy in the
I--d- - - -1 -J-t-
stored in bolt A is 4 times that of bolt B and shaft in N-mm is (GATE-ME)
the mean diameter of bolt A is 12 mm, the
mean diameter ofbolt B in mm is
Ta I ONm
(GATE-ME-13) -CT
(a) 16 (b) 24 1 00mm 1 00mm
(c) 36 (d) 48
(a) 4. 12 (b) 3.46
02. For a ductile material, toughness ts a (c) 1.73 (d) 0.86
measure of (GATE-ME-13)
(a) resistance to scratching 02. The strain energy stored in the beam with
(b) ability to absorb energy up to fracture flexural rigidity EI and loaded as shown in
(c) ability to absorb energy till elastic limit the fi gure is (GATE-ME-08)
(d) resistance to indentation p p
l
03. A cantilever beam of length L and flexural
modulus EI is subjected to a point load P at
L I•
L
•I•
2L
•I•
L�
the free end. The elastic strain energy stored
in the beam due to bending (neglecting P 2 L3 2P 2 L3
(a) (b)
transverse shear) is (GATE- 17- SET 2) 3EI 3EI
P 2 L3 P 2 L3 PL3 PL3 4P 2 L3 8P 2 L3
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
6EI 3EI 3EI 6EI 3EI 3EI
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SOLUTIONS
One Mark Solutions Two Marks Solutions
(u) =--
P2 L T2L T2L
Sol: Strain energy Sol:
2AE 2GJ 2GJ 2
U = U ' + U 2 = -- + --
I
UA = 4Ua
J =!!_ (50)4 ,• J2 =!!_ (25)4
1
U cc - 1 I 32 32
cc -2
A d L= l OOmm
1 1
d A2 d 2B
-=4x- G = 80 x 10 3 N/mm 2
On substitution,U = 1.73 N-mm
1 1
122 d 2B
-= 4 x -
02. Ans: (c)
d a = 4x 12
2 2
Sol:
:. d 8 2x 12 = 24 mm
=
I.
-
X J" I 2EI
4 p 2 L3
3EI
= M dx ' (Px) dx P x
t = --
3EI
2 2 2 3
U =J = [
2EI O 2EI 2EI 3 J 0
p 2 .e 3
U = --
6EI
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Theory of Mach ines
(Questions)
Page No. 118
CONTENTS
-
- - �,-- --- - - -� - ----- - ,- - - -- -----,
08. A planar mechanism has 8 links and 10 (c) should always be perpendicular to PQ
rotary joints. The number of degrees of (d) should be along QP when the body
freedom of the mechanism, using Gruebler's undergoes pure translation
criterion, is (GATE-ME-08)
(a) O (b) l (c) 2 (d) 3 1 2. Which of the following statements 1s
INCORRECT (GATE-ME-10)
09. A simple quick return mechanism is shown (a) Grashof s rule states that for a planar
in the figure. The forward to return ratio of crank-rocker four bar mechanism, the
the quick return mechanism is 2 : 1. If the sum of the shortest and longest link
radius of the crank 0 1 P is 1 25mm, then the lengths cannot be less than the sum of
distance 'd' (in mm) between the crank the remaining two link lengths.
centre to lever pivot centre point should be (b) Inversions of a mechanism are created
by fixing different links one at a time
(c) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent
motion device
(d) Gruebler's criterion assumes mobility
of a planar mechanism to be one.
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" ACE
.. 1i'....:.......:.. p.,blicdiooa : 121 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
:.-:. �;;;;�
� ��.....-- ��=============;;.;;,,,;�======�����������
14. A solid disc ofradius r rolls without slipping
on a horizontal floor with angular velocity co
and angular acceleration a. The magnitude
ofthe acceleration ofthe point ofcontact on
the disc is (GATE-ME-12)
(a) zero (b) ra
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
(c) �(ra ) + (rco) (d) rco2
2 2
Note : All dimensions are in mm point of contact between the object and the
floor is (GATE-ME-14)
(a) 0.05 (b) 0. 1 (c) 5.0 (d) 10.0 (a) zero
(b) V in the direction ofmotion
16. A link OB is rotating with a constant angular (c) V opposite to the direction ofmotion
velocity of 2 rad/s in counter clockwise (d) V vertically upward from the floor
direction and a block is sliding radially
outward on it with an uniform velocity of 19 A rigid link PQ is 2 m long and oriented at
0.75 mis with respect to the rod, as shown in 20 ° to the horizontal as shown in the figure.
the figure below. If OA= l m, the magnitude The magnitude and direction of velocity VQ,
of the absolute acceleration of the block at and the direction of velocity Vp are given.
location A in mls2 is The magnitude of Vp(in mis) at this instant
(GATE-ME-13) is (GATE -ME-14)
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t
:.:�PnJmn.q
':i
. A:CE . . : : 122 Theory of Machines
� � ==========================================
(a) Both I and II are false
V0= lm/s:
(b) I is true and II is false
(c) I is false and II is true
(d) Both I and II are true
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: 123 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
Q on 3
p (GATE-16- SET-3)
Which one ofthe following is TRUE?
(a) VQP has components along and
(GATE-15-Set 3) perpendicular PQ
(a) 2ro 2 VQ/P; direction of VQIP rotated by (b) VQP has only one component directed
90° in the direction of OJi. from P to Q
(b) ro 2 VQ/P; direction of VQ/P rotated by (c) VQP has only one component directed
90° in the direction of m2 from Q to P
(c) 2ro 2 VQIP; direction of VQ/P rotated by (d) VQP has only one component
perpendicular to PQ
90° Opposite to the direction of (1)2
(d) ro 2 VQ/P; direction of VQ/P rotated by
27. The number of degrees of freedom in a
90° Opposite to the direction of (1)2
planner mechanism having n links and j
25. A single degree of freedom mass-spring - simple hinge joints is
viscous damper system with mass m, spring (GATE-16- SET-3)
constant k and viscous damping coefficient (a) 3(n -3)-2j (b) 3(n- 1)-2j
(c) 3n-2j (d) 2j-3n+ 4
q is critically damped. The correct relation
among m, k and q is
(GATE-16- SET-2) 28. In a slider-crank mechanism, the lengths of
(b) 2.0
(d) 1
O1. Instantaneous center of a body rolling with
sliding on a stationary curved surface lies 04. A rod of length l m is sliding in a comer as
(GATE -ME-92)
shown in Fig. 2.7. At an instant when the
(a) at the point of contact rod makes an angle of 60 degrees with the
(b) on the common normal at the point of
horizontal plane, the velocity of point A on
contact the rod is l m/s. The angular velocity of the
(c) on the common tangent at the point of (GATE -ME-96)
rod at this instant is
contact
(d) at the center of curvature of the
stationary surface
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: 125 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
(b) Point P lies in between the two spools point A is a vector of magnitude
on the line joining A & H, such that (a) 0
PH = 2AP (b) ro(ra2 - rA2) and direction same as the
(c) Point P lies to the right of both the direction of motion of point B
spools on the line joining A & H, such (c) ro2(ra -rA) and direction opposite to the
that AH = HP direction of motion of point B
(d) Point P lies at the intersection of the (d) ro2cra -rA) and direction being from Z
line joining B & C and the line joining to o
G&F
08. In the figure shown, the relative velocity of
link 1 with respect of link 2 is 1 2 m/sec.
Common Data for Questions 06 & 07
Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 1 2 0
The circular disc shown in its plan view in the
rpm. The magnitude of Coriolis component
figure rotates in a plane parallel to the horizontal
of acceleration of link 1 is
plane about the point O at a uniform angular
(GATE -ME-04)
velocity ro. Two other points A and B are located
on the line OZ at distances rA and r8 from O
respectively. (GATE -ME-03)
,Z
A 0/
I
I
I
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ACE
-:;rm�111�Pu The:
l.�
;
,Ii
�· i;
..
Fii
=� :
11p1
�· ��
�-��========�:::�:==========�� :�::���
Nnric«w
�· 1 26 · �e:,.
ory of Machin s
(a) 302 m/s2 (b) 604 m/s2 1 1 . Match the following with respect to spatial
(c) 906m/s 2
(d) 1 2 08 m/s 2
mechanisms. (GATE -ME-04)
Type of Joint Motion constrained
09. The figure below shows a planar mechanism P. Revolute 1 . Three
with single degree of freedom. The instant Q. Cylindrical 2. Five
center lz4 for the given configuration in R. Spherical 3. Four
located at a position . (GATE -ME-04) 4. Two
2 5. Zero
L - - - - - - - - - - �' N
-·
p Q R p Q R
(a) 1 3 1 (b) 5 4 3
I
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 4 5 3
1�90° M
- · · T · · -\· · - · · - · · - · · - · · - · · -,__
· · -.......
-
I , ....,r
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: 127 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
List II
1. Grubler's equation 2 rad /sec
2. Line contact
3. Euler's equation (a) 4 (b) 2-fi.
4. Planer 1
(c) 1 (d) -
5. Shaper ,fi.
6. Surface contact
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�·::.r.
: : :=a;;;;
�e:o:ry�o;;;;f�M
�Th :·:e�
� :l'!nll
�·-:·�rc�Pu �11:,========�;,;:�:.=:=========
::b�•�rati�:«.J 1 28 chin s
,I. I,. =
Fii�p
p Q R s
Q (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
0 (c) 2 3 4 1
sool (d) 4 2 1 3
AB = 250
19. The angular speed of PQ in rev/s when the BC = 250.fi
block R attains maximum speed during AC = 500
forward stroke (stroke with slower speed) is C
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) 2 (d) 3
20. Match the approaches given below to (a) 0 (b) 0.86 (c) 1.25 (d) 2.50
perform stated kinematics/dynamics analysis
of machine (GATE -ME-09) 22. For the four - bar linkage shown in the
Analysis figure, the angular velocity of link AB is 1
P. Continuous relative rotation rad/s. The length of link CD is 1.5 times the
Q. Velocity and acceleration length of link AB. In the configuration
R. Mobility shown, the angular velocity of link CD in
S. Dynamic - static analysis rad I s is (GATE -ME-11)
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: 129 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
(GATE -ME-14)
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: 130 : Theory of Machines
(GATE-17- SET-2)
,
,,
'
I
I
I
I
I
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SOLUTIONS
DOF = 3(N-1)--2P1
One Mark Solutions = 3(8-1)--2(9)
= 2 1- 18 = 3
01. Ans: (b)
Sol: Link 2 rotates counter clockwise. Identify 06. Ans: (d)
the h4 . Direction of the velocity of h4 gives Sol: At toggle position velocity ratio is 'zero' so
the direction ofrotation oflink 2. mechanical advantage is 'oo'.
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: 132 : Theory of Machines
:. Mobility �-1
\
aTo = ra
16. Ans: (c)
Centrifugal acceleration,
f = r ro 2 = 4 m / sec 2
15. Ans: (b)
[As a = 0, tan gential acceleration, f1= 0 ]
Sol: hJ should be in the line joining I 1 2 and I 1 3•
for = 2 Vro = 3 rn/sec2
Similarly the link 3 is rolling on link 2.
Resultant acceleration,
tR = �4 2 + 3 2=5 m / sec 2
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: 133 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
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: 134 : Theory of Machines
VP 10
OJ = - =- 1 0 rad/s
R R
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - mm
Velocity of Q= 2Rro
A
10
I
= 2R x = 20 m l sec
I
R
b /_lAB
/JG - - - - ----- a,g
,' C
I
I
I
- - - - ,nu,r \ _ T _ _ _ _
A
I
I
I
freedom 60° �
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1 36
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===========�:�,;;,:,..;,:=============�====
07. Ans: (d)
Sol: fBA = fB - fA = rb ro 2 - ra ro 2 = (rb - rJro 2
Being centripetal, the direction is towards
p
:.AP. ro A = HP ro H and
AP = AH+ HP => HP = AH I
°
i\0 M
06. Ans: (c)
_ _ _ _l _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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ACE Analysis of Planar Mechanism
-:.:··E�PnNirariooa : 137 :
. � ========================================
10. Ans: (c) 13. Ans: (b)
Sol: (P) Scott-Russel mechanism-straight line Sol: 02A I 04B
motion Then linear velocity is same at A and B.
(Q) Geneva mechanism - intermittent :. CO2 X 02A = C0 4 X 0 4 B
motion .". 8 X 60= CO4 X 160
(R) Off-set slider crank mechanism-Quick
=:> C04 = 3 rad/sec
return motion
(S) Scotch yoke mechanism- simple
14. Ans: (b)
Harmonic motion
Sol: For the given data the only force acting on
the link is 30N at A along AB hence the
11. Ans: (c)
reaction at joint 02 is 30N
Sol: For revolute joint, degree of freedom is 1
and constrained DOF = 5
15. Ans: (d)
For cylindrical joint, degree of freedom is 2
and constrained DOF = 4
16. Ans:(a)
For spherical joint, degree of freedom is 3
Sol: Crank is possible only in case of Grashofs
and constrained DOF = 3
chain (/ + s < p + q) and special Grashof s
[Degree of constraints = 6 - Degree of
chain (/+ s = p+ q).
freedom]
Hence /+ s � p+ q
L+ S < P+ Q
02P=0204=a
It is a Grashoff s chain
PQ=04Q= Ji a
L ink adjacent to the shortest link is fixed
.·. Crank- Rocker Mechanism.
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=-
1 1 2 1 23 a
-
ffi3
= --
0) 2 1 13 1 23 2a 20. Ans: (b)
ro3 = _!_ � ro
3 =1 rad /sec
2 2 21. Ans: (d)
Alternate Method: Sol: As for the given dimensions the mechanism
The position diagram is isosceles right angle is in a right angle triangle configuration and
triangle and the velocity triangle is similar to the crank AB is perpendicular to the lever
the position diagram CD. The velocity of B is along CD only
which is purely sliding component
18. Ans : (a) :. Velocity of the slider
Sol: =AB x ro AB = I 0 x 250 = 2.5m / sec
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: 139 : Analysis of Planar Mechanism
23. Ans:0.618
Sol:
02 = sin -1 (�) = sin -1
.f - r 20
= 30° (.!Q)
B b a. = 02 -01 = 20.41 °
Quick return ratio,
180+ a.
(QRR) = = 1.2558
180 - a.
V
(Velocity diagram)
25. Ans: 115 to 120
Refer the configuration diagram and Sol: Acceleration of the slider
velocity diagram
tan 0 = { =
240
=> 0 = 76°
fmax = rco 2 (1+ !) = 2rco 2
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ACE
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Theo of M
�
1 40
y
Sol:
p
VA r = 100 mm = 0. 1 m
VA= IA.ro => ro=
IA Uniform angular velocity = ro = 20 rad/s
VA IM Angular acceleration, a = 0
VM= IM.ro= IM - = -.VA
IA IA Uniform sliding velocity = Vs = 6 mis
= Sin 30 °.VA = ..!.. .2= 1m / sec :. Sliding acceleration f' = 0
2
Coriolis acceleration, f = 2Vro = 2x 6 x 20
= 240 m/sec 2 .1. Ir to OP
30. Ans: 0.267
Centripetal acceleration = rro2 = 0. 1 x202
Sol: Vstider = 1 m/sec, r = 3 m, L =4 m
= 40 m/sec2 towards the
B b center ofrotation
Vs
(Velocity diagram)
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Dynamic Analysis of single
slider - Crank Mechanism
03. A slider crank mechanism has slider mass of
Two Marks Questions 10 kg, stroke of 0.2 m and rotates with a
uniform angular velocity of 10 rad/s. The
01. The cross head velocity in the slider crank primary inertia forces of the slider are
mechanism, for the position shown in partially balanced by a revolving mass of 6
Figure. (GATE-ME-97) kg at the crank, placed at a distance equal to
crank radius. Neglect the mass of connecting
rod and crank. When the crank angle (with
respect to slider axis) is 30 ° , the unbalanced
force (in Newton) normal to the slider axis is
(GATE-ME-14)
(a) Vc cos �O- a + p )cos p
04. A slider crank mechanism with crank radius
(b) VC cos �o - a + p )sec p
200 mm and connecting rod length 800 mm
VC cos �o - a - p )cos p
is shown. The crank is rotating at 600 rpm in
(C)
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�E�Pobtiariooa : 142 : Theory of Machines
=============================================
02. In the mechanism shown a force F2 is applied on
(GATE-ME-90)
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: 30 N
Two Marks Solutions Sol: r ''
''
'
0.2m
Sk:N
�= _!_ (AB)(AO)sin A
L-------'--'--1-"- --
0
2
Given Fp = 5kN
Area will be maximum when A = 90°
F
Where LOAB is a right angled triangle. =-P- , Ft =Frod COS <p
cos <p
Frod
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: 144 : Theory of Machines
,,
,,
,' 3 0°
,
01.
Sol: Torque (T) =Tangential fore
x Radius of crank
R
F
= _P_ x sin(0 + <j>)x r
cos <j>
Fp =1 kN.
Reos 30° =F2
. 1 sin 0 . _1 sin 60°
Where , <j> = sm - ( = sm [ ] R= F2
-;-) 450 cos 30 °
100 T4 = R x r
<I> =11.096° F2 h
T4 = -� x -- = 7500
l cos 30 cos 30
T= x sin(60 ° + 11.096 )x 0.1
cos l 1.096 °
7500 x cos 2 30
= 0.0964 kN-m= 96.4 N-m F2 = = 3 700 _ 66 N
1.52
02.
Sol:
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Gear and Gear Trains
Gear II: Pitch circle diameter in the plane
One Mark Questions of rotation 120mm and helix angle
22.5°
01. In spur gears having involute teeth, the If the input speed is 1440 rpm. The output
product of circular pitch and diametral pitch speed in rpm is (GATE-ME-12)
1s (GATE-ME-94) (a) 1200 (b) 900 (c) 875 (d) 720
02. A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min. 05. Which one of the following is used to
Its is to be connected to a stirrer running at convert a rotational motion into a
36 rev/min. The gearing arrangement translational motion? (GATE-ME-14)
suitable for this application is (a) Bevel gears
(GATE-ME-00) (b) Double helical gears
(a) differential gear (b) helical gear (c) Worm gears
(c) spur gear (d) worm gear (d) Rack and pinion gears
03. Tooth interference in an external involute 06. A gear train is made up of five spur gears as
spur gear pair can be reduced by shown in the figure. Gear 2 is driver and
(GATE-ME-10) gear 6 is driven member. N2, N3, N4, Ns and -
(a) decreasing center distance between N6 represent number of teeth on gears
gear pair 2,3,4,5, and 6 respectively, The gear(s)
(b) decreasing module which act(s) as idler(s) is/ are
(c) decreasing pressure angle
(d) increasing number of gear teeth
03. The sun gear in the figure is driven (Z3 = 15 teeth) to mesh with pinion (Z 1 = 16
clockwise at 100 rpm. The ring gear is held teeth) on the input shaft and gear (Z4 teeth) on the
stationary. For the number of teeth shown output shaft respectively. It was decided to use a
on the gears, the arm rotations at gear ratio of 4 with 3 module in the first stage and
(GATE-ME-01) 4 module in the second stage. (GATE-ME-03)
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: 147: Gear & Gear Trains
and CW = clockwise).
Gear4
40T
The arm 4 attached to the output shaft will
rotate at (GATE-ME-09)
07. What is the relation between the angular
velocities of Gear 1 and Gear 4? (a) 10 rpm CCW
(b) 10 rpm CCW
(c) 12 rpm CCW
(d) 12 rpm CCW
(b) 0)
4
-0)
6 =6
0)1 - 0)5
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: 148: Theory of Machines
10. For the epicyclic gear arrangement shown in 12. Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm in counter
the figure, co2 = 100 rad/s clockwise ( C W) clockwise direction and engages with Gear
and = 80 rad/s counter clockwise 3. Gear 3 and Gear 4 are mounted on the
( C C W). The angular velocity co5 (in rad/s) same shaft. Gear 5 engages with Gear 4. The
COarm
lJ
5 N4=32
Ns = 80
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: 149: Gear & Gear Trains
Sun gear
(GATE-17-SET-1)
15. In the gear train shown, gear 3 is carried on
arm 5. Gear 3 meshes with gear 2 and gear 17. A gear train shown in the figure consists of
4. The number of teeth on gear 2, 3, and 4 gears P, Q, R and S. Gear Q and gear R are
are 60, 20, and 100, respectively. If gear 2 is mounted on the same shaft. All the gears are
fixed and gear 4 rotates with an angular mounted on parallel shafts and the number
velocity of 100 rpm in the counterclockwise of teeth of P, Q, R and S are 24, 45, 30 and
direction, the angular speed of arm 5 (in 80, respectively. Gear P is rotating at 400
rpm) is (GATE-16-SET-1) rpm. The speed (in rpm) of the gear S is
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions
04. Ans: (b)
01. Sol: Gear 1: q,80, a 1 = 30
Sol: Circular pitch (Pc):- It is the distance
Gear 2: q,120, a2 = 22.5
measured along the circumference of the
pitch circle from a point on one tooth to the
ct; = d l cosa 1
corresponding point on the adjacent tooth = 80 x cos30 ° = 40 Jj mm
p = 1td
T
= d2cosa2
C
1440 110.87
Diametral Pitch (Pd):- It is the number of N2 40,fj
teeth per unit length of the pitch circle
:. N2 = 900 rpm
diameter in inches.
T
pd= - 05. Ans: (d)
d
Sol: Rack and pinion converts Rotary
:. Product of Pc ( circular pitch)
Motion to translating motion
x Pd (diametral pitch)
�-- - -I
02. Ans: (b) 05. Ans: (a)
Sol:
Sol: {J)c - {J)a = - TB
{J)B {J)a Tc
0-4
{J)
c
IDa = 4 rad/sec
-4 = -1 � roe = 8 rad/sec w
Z1 = 16 , Z3 = 15 , Z2 = ? , Z4 = ?
03. Ans: (b) First stage gear ratio, G1 = 4 ,
Sol: Second stage gear ratio, G2 = 3 ,
m12 = 3, m34 = 4
Z2 = 16 x 4 = 64
Ann Z4 = 15 X 3 = 45
N s -N a -TR 4
= -x(15+45)=120mm
--
N R -N a Ts 2
=
100-N a --
- -80 07. Ans: (a)
0-N a 20
Sol: By Analytical Approach
� Na = 20 rpm CW
ro, -ro 5 -T2 -T4 =-X-
45 40
Tl T3 15 20
---=--X--
04. Ans: (b)
©4 - ID5
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ACE : : 153 Gear & Gear Trains
: �================================= =
08. Ans: (d)
#
60 - N4
= 100
Sol: Data given: O - N4 20
---
ro1= 60 rpm ( C W) � N4 = IO C C W
©4 = - 120 rpm
[2 times speed of gear - 1] 10. Ans: (c)
We have Sol: ro2 = 100 rad/sec,
:. (J)l -(J)5=6 ©arm= 80 rad/s ( C C W)
©4 - © 5 T4
-Tz -
-
{J)5 -
-=--X
60 - © . l"fy"
- ma
�----5 = 6 , s1mp 1 mg
- 120 - © 5
0)2 - {J)a T3 Ts
© 5 - (-80) -
- 20 32 1
----= -X -=- -
60 - ros = -720 -6ros 100- (-80) 24 80 3
ros = - 156 rpm � (J)5 = - 140 ccw
ro5 =156 rpm. C C W
11. Ans: (b)
09. Ans: (a) Sol: Given Tp = 20, T0 = 40, TR = 15, Ts = 20
Sol: An epicyclic gear train 1s shown Dia of Q = 2 x Dia of R
schematically the gear 5 is fixed and gear 2 m0.T0 = 2mR.TR
is rotating 60 rpm ( C C W) Then the arm 4 Given, module of R = mR = 2mm
attached to the output shaft will rotate at? T 15
� IDQ = 2 mR; ___B...=2 x 2 x-=I.5 mm
TQ 40
T5X-
Nz - N4 - T3
---= . mp = mo=2mm; ms = mR = 1.5 mm
N5 - N4 T3 Tz
No.of teeth
Nz - N4 T5 Rad.ms = modu1e x----
--- =
N5 - N4 Tz
C entre distance between P and S is given by
T2 = 20
R p +R Q +R R +R T
T3=40
T T T T
T s = 100 =m ____f_+m Q _g_+m R �+m 8 s
2 2 2
p
N2 = 60 C C W (+ro)
2
Ns = O 40 20 15 20
=1.5[ ; ]+2[ � ]
N4 = ?
=45 + 35= 80 mm
Nz - N4 - T5
-- -=
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�-t . A;CE .. : 154: Theory of Machines
� �============================================
':i .:EngineenngPw,liramns
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100-N a = _2 5 N2
Ns = 0 , N a = - = l OO rpm(CW)
N P -N a 50 7
Np = 3 Na - 200 From eq.(2)
700 -100 -40
:.
100 --- =
3 x --200 =-l OO rpm
3 N 4 -100 24
=
N1 -N a T2 96
Five Marks Solutions
N 2 -60 _ 104
01. 0-60 96
Sol: Given T2 = 24, T4 = 40 & Ts = 144
104 -60 x 8
Ns = 0, N2 700rpm, N4 ? N2 = 60 [1- ] = -5 rpm
96 96
=
= =
N 4 -N a - T 144
----'--------"- = 5 = - . . . . . . . . . . . . . (1) 5 rpm in CCW
N 5 -N a T4 40
=
N 2 - N a _ _ T4 __ 40
-- - - ............ (2)
N 4 -N a T2 24
Solve the Equation ( 1) and (2) for N4 & Na
N 2 -Na =-144 =
-6
N 5 -N a 24
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C4 ============================::::!J
Flywheels
(a) 395 (b) 790
One Mark Questions (c) 1580 (d) 3 160
0 1. Which of the following statement is correct? 03. C onsider a slider crank mechanism with
(GATE-ME-01) nonzero masses and inertia. A constant
(a) Flywheel reduces speed fluctuations torque 't is applied on the crank as shown in
during a cycle for a constant load, but the figure. Which of the following plots best
flywheel does not control the mean resembles variation of crank angle, 0 versus
speed of the engine if the load changes. time
(b) Flywheel does not reduce speed
fluctuations during a cycle for a
constant load, but flywheel does control
the mean speed of the engine if the load
changes
(c) Governor control a speed fluctuations (GATE-15 -Set 1)
during a cycle for a constant load, but (b)
(a)
governor does not control the mean
speed of the engine if the load changes. e e
(d) Governor controls speed fluctuations
during a cycle for a constant load, and time
governor also controls the mean speed
of the engine if the load changes.
(c) (d)
02. A circular solid disc of uniform thickness
20mm, radius 200mm and mass 20kg, is e e
used as a fly wheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm,
time
the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in joules
1s (GATE-ME-12)
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: 157 : Fly Wheels
ACE Engineering Publications �Hyderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswar I Bengaluru I Chennai I Vijayawada I Visakhapatnam I Tirupati I
: 158 : Theory of Machines
08. Torque and angular speed data over one 09. The torque (in N-m) exerted on the crank
cycle for a shaft carrying a flywheel are shaft of a two stroke engine can be describeq
shown in the figures. The moment of inertia as T=l OOOO+ 1 000sin20-1 200 cos20, where
(in kg.m2) of the flywheel is __ 0 is the crank angle as measured from inner
(GATE-ME-14) dead center position. Assuming the resisting
torque to be constant, the power (in kW)
Tor ue
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SOLUTIONS
= 790 N-m
0 is fluctuating on parabola 60 60 60
and @ t = 0 , 0 = 0 , =-- x l x N x (N 1 - N i }
2
41t
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ACE • • •
: 160 : Theory of Machines
2 2 2
� 2000 = 0.125m (125.6)2 0.02 X X
� m = 51 kg.
mR mR
= _2_ mR
2
0.5625 mR2
2
16
=
2 16
SoI: Cr = -----
(romax - O)min ) O)max + O)min
'· ro = ---- : . a = 0.5625
ro 2
Cr _
2(
- O)max - O)min ) 07. Ans: 592.73 kgm2
romaX + (Omin
Sol: �E = 2600 J, N = 200 rpm
400 x 1t
� ro = --- rad / sec
60
Cs = 0.01 ( ± 0.5% = 1%)
04. Ans: (a) �E = lro 2 C s
1 1
Sol: �E = - Joi - - Joi 2600 X 60 2
2 I 2 2 �I=� =
ro 2 C s (400 X 1t)2 X 0.01
�E = _!_ I(rof - ro� ) 592.73 kgm2
2
=
7t
2 x - x 3000 Moment of inertia I = ?
I= � = 31.42 kgm 2 We know
20 -10 2
�E = I ro2Cs
09. Ans: 104.32
:J
�E 6240
I= = = 44.45 kg-m2
Sol: N = 100 rpm ro'C, 2
( x 0.02
7t 0
Tmean = -
1 1" Td0
r"
= .!_ o (10000 + 1000 sin 20 -1200 cos 20)de
7t J
= l OOOO Nm
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cs Mechanical Vibrations
03. There are four samples P, Q, R and S with
One Mark Questions natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz,
respectively. They are mounted on test
01. In the figure shown, the spring deflects by 8 setups for conducting vibration experiments.
to position A (the equilibrium position) If a loud pure note of frequency 144Hz is
when a mass m is kept on it. During free produced by some instrument, which of the
vibration, the mass is at position B at some samples will show the most perceptible
instant. The change in potential energy of induced vibration? (GATE-ME-OS)
the spring mass system from position A to (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
position B is (GATE-ME-01)
04. The differential equation governing the
vibrating system is (GATE-ME-06)
m
C
(c) _.!. k(x+8)2 (d) _.!. kx2 + mgx (b) m(x - y) + c(x - y) + kx=O
2 2
(c) mx + c(x - y) + kx= o
(d) m(x - y) + c(x - y)k(x - y)=O
02. A vibrating machine is isolated from the
floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation
05. For an under damped harmonic oscillator,
frequency of vibration of machine to the
resonance (GATE-ME-07)
(a) occurs when excitation frequency is
equal to 0.5, the transmissibility ratio of
natural frequency of the isolation system is
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: 163 : Mechanical Vibrations
(c) occurs when excitation frequency is equal (b) smallest amount of damping for which
to undamped natural frequency no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(d) never occurs (c) largest amount of damping for which
the motion is simple harmonic in free
06. The rotor shaft of a large electric motor vibration
supported between short bearings at both the (d) smallest amount of damping for which
ends shows a deflection of 1.8 mm in the the motion is simple harmonic in free
middle of the rotor. Assuming the rotor to vibration
be perfectly balanced and supported at knife
edges at both the ends, the likely critical 10. In vibration isolation, which one of the
speed (in rpm) of the shaft is following statements 1s NOT correct
(GATE-ME-09) regarding Transmissibility (T)?
(GATE-ME-14)
(a) 350 (b) 705 (c) 2810 (d) 4430
(a) T is nearly unity at small excitation
frequencies
07. The natural frequency of a spring mass
(b) T can be always reduced by using higher
system on earth is co0 • The natural frequency
damping at any excitation frequency
of this system on the moon (gmoon = gearth/6)
(c) T is unity at the frequency ratio of Ji
(GATE-ME-10)
(d) T is infinity at resonance for undamped
IS
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13. In a spring-mass system the mass is m and 15. A single degree of freedom spring mass
the spring constant is k. The critical system with viscous damping has a spring
damping coefficient of the system is 0. 1 constant of 10 kN/m. The system is excited
kg/s. In another spring mass system, the by a sinusoidal force of amplitude 100 N. If
mass is 2m and the spring constant is 8k. the damping factor (ratio) is 0.25, the
The critical damping coefficient (in kg/s) of amplitude of steady state oscillation at
this system is ___ (GATE -15 -Set 2) resonance 1s ____mm
(GATE - 16 - SET - 1)
14 . Which of the following statements are
TRUE for damped vibrations? 16. The static deflection of a spring under
P. For a system having critical damping, gravity, when a mass of 1kg is suspended
from it, is 1 mm. Assume the acceleration
the value of damping ratio is unity and
due to gravity g = 10 m/s2 • The natural
system does not undergo a vibratory
frequency of this spring-mass system (in
motion.
rad/s) is----
Q. Logarithmic decrement method is used
(GATE - 16 - SET - 3)
to determine the amount of damping in a
physical system. 1 7. The damping ratio for a viscously damped
R. In case of damping due to dry friction spnng mass system, governed by the
between moving surfaces resisting force d2x dx
relationship m- 2 + c- + kx=F(t) ,
of constant magnitude acts opposite to dt dt
IS
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: 165 : Mechanical Vibrations
(GATE - 17 - SET- 2)
(a) O, f! (b)
JE, f!
(a) f;f (b)
ff (c)
vfk,;; v/k
� (d) 0,
v/k
�
(c) nz
V� (d) l 03. As shown in Figure, a mass of 100 kg is
held between two springs. The natural
frequency of vibration of the system in
cyclesls, is
Two Marks Questions
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: 166 : Theory of Machines
Pa. What is the critical speed of rotation of 07. The damping coefficient in the vibration
the shaft? (GATE-ME-03) equation is given by
the minimum value of spring constant K (a) 1.2 N.slm (b) 3.4 N.slm
needed is (GATE-ME-04) (c) 8.7 N.slm (d) 12.0N.slm
09. A mass M, of 20 Kg is attached to the free Statement for Linked Answer Q 12 & 13
end of a steel cantilever beam of length 1000 A vibratory system consists of a mass 12.5 kg, a
mm having a cross-section of 25x 25 mm. spring of stiffness 1000 Nim, and a dashpot with
Assume the mass of the cantilever to be damping coefficient of 15 Nslm
negligible and Esteel = 200 GPa. If the lateral
vibration of this system is critically damped 12. The value of critical damping of the system
using a viscous damper, the damping 1s: (GATE-ME-06)
constant of the damper is (a) 0.223 Nslm (b) 17.88 Nslm
(GATE-ME-04) (c) 71.4 Nslm (d) 223.6Nslm
10. In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1kg 14. The equation of motion of a harmonic
and the stiffness of the spring is l kNlm, By oscillator is given by
introducing a damper, the frequency of d2x dx. + co 2 x = O and the initial
+ 2,;con -
oscillation is found to be 90% of the original dt dt
-2 n
The amplitude of x(t) after n complete spnng constant k = 300N/m. The natural
cycles is (GATE-ME-07) frequency ron in rad/s is (GATE-ME-08)
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40
(a) Xe-,.,[<,',, ] (b) x/{r� J
li;) 18. An automotive engine weighting 240 kg is
(c) Xe (d) X supported on fo ur spnngs with linear
-2nn(
(GATE-ME-09)
k
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(a) (b) �
frn
l
(a) - - (b)
_1 �2 K
(c)
v�
/K (d)
f!
2 1t frn
m 2 7t m
24. A single degree of freedom system having
1 1 K mass 1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially at
(c) _ {2K (d) __ r
2 n �� 2 n 2m rest is subjected to an impulse force of
22. A mass of 1 kg is attached to two identical magnitude 5 kN for 1 0-4 seconds. The
springs each with stiffness k=20kN/m as amplitude in mm of the resulting free
shown in the figure. Under frictionless vibration is (GATE-ME-13)
condition, the natural frequency of the (a) 0.5 (b) 1 .0 (c) 5.0 (d) 1 0.0
system in Hz is close to (GATE-ME-11)
25. Consider a cantilever beam, having
K negligible mass and uniform flexural
rigidity, with length O.O l m. The frequency
1 kg
of vibration of the beam, with a 0.5 kg mass
K attached at the free tip, is 1 OOHz. The
flexural rigidity (in N.m2) of the beam is
(a) 32 (b) 23 (c) 16 (d) 1 (GATE-ME-14)
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-:.=====================================
Theory of Machines
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31. Considering massless rigid rod and small mobile will get just lifted off the ground at
oscillations, the natural frequency (in rad/s) the end Q is approximately
of vibration of the system shown in the (GATE -15 -Set 1)
figure is (a) 3000 (b) 3500
(c) 4000 (d) 4500
k = 400 N/m
33. A precision instrument package (m= l kg)
m = 1 kg
(in m) is approximately
(GATE -15 -Set 2)
6cm + 3cm •I
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.07
Given in addition that the eccentric mass = 2 (c) 0.70 (d) 0.90
grams, eccentricity = 2. 19 mm, mass of the
mobile = 90grams , g = 9.81 m/s2 .Uniform
speed of the motor in RPM for which the
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: 172 : Theory of Machines
35. Figure shows a single degree of freedom 37. A single degree of freedom spring-mass
system. The system consists of a mass less system is subjected to a harmonic force of
rigid bar OP hinged at O and a mass m at constant amplitude. For an excitation
end P. The natural frequency of vibration of
frequency of �' the ratio of the amplitude
the system is
of steady state response to the static
deflection of the spring is ____
m
�I
(GATE-15-Set 3)
a
(GATE - 16 - SET - 3)
a
1
(a) In = - - (b) 1n = �/f
21e 4mff 2 38. A solid disc with radius a is connected to a
1 spring at a point d above center of the disc.
(c) In = - - (d) In = - {2k
ll
21e m 21e f;; The other end of the spring is fixed to the
vertical wall. The disc is free to roll without
36. The system shown in the figure consists of slipping on the ground. The mass of the disc
block A of mass 5 kg connected to a spring is M and the spring constant is K. The polar
through a massless rope passing over pulley moment of inertia for the disc about its
B of radius r and mass 20 kg. The spring . Ma 2
centere 1s J = --
constant k is 1500 Nim. If there is no
slipping of the rope over the pulley, the
natural frequency of the system is _ rad/s.
2K(a + d) 2K
(a) (b) �
2
3Ma 2 3M
(GATE - 16 - SET - 2)
2K(a + d) K(a + d)2
2
(c) (d)
Ma 2 Ma 2
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: 173 :
=================================
39. A thin uniform rigid bar of length L and
mass M is hinged at point 0, located at a Five Marks Questions
L
distance of from one of its ends. The bar
01. A cylinder of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m is
is further supported using springs, each of connected by two identical springs at a
stiffness k, located at the two ends. A height of 0.5m above the center as shown in
M the Fig. The cylinder rolls without slipping.
particle of mass m = is fixed at one end
If the spring constants is 30 kN/m for each
of the bar, as shown in the figure. For small
4
spring, find the natural frequency of the
rotations of the bar about 0, the natural system for small oscillations.
frequency of the system is
L
L/3
(GATE - 17 - SET - 1)
(GATE-ME-96)
5k
(a) � (b) �
2M 02. The suspension system of a two-wheeler can
3k be equated to a single spring-mass system
(c) � (d) �
2M with a viscous damper connected in series.
Sketch the free body diagram and give the
40. The radius of gyration of a compound equations of motion. For a mass m = 50 kg
pendulum about the point of suspension is and a spring with a stiffness of 35 kN/m,
100 mm. The distance between the point of determine what should be the damping
suspension and the centre of mass is 250 coefficient (damping constant) for critical
mm. C onsidering the acceleration due to damping. What can be the damping force
gravity as 9.8 1 m/s2 , the natural frequency for a plunger velocity of0.05 mis?
(in radian/s) of the compound pendulum is (GATE-ME-97)
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: (c)
One Mark Solutions Sol: Because f = 144 Hz execution frequency.
(Natural frequency) is 128.
01. Ans : (a) � _!__ 144= 1.12 5
!Rn
1
=- X k X X 2 + m g X mgx
Free body diagram:
-
2
[·: k8=mg]
1
=- x k x 2
TR - 1-(:.( 3
l
1 4 Sol: Critical or whirling speed
r oe = ©n = = Ji rad / sec
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E·.l!:� �·
ll1Jl ��00:11�========:��1 :.;,76�
: ===========Th
�:eo�ry �·�e
�ac�hin
�o�f�M
.. " = :·�1g�P1�1�Ni�:nm
letJ'lll
:
2nNc 2 WL4
/g
60
=
V8 7t gEI
For 1st mode frequency, f1 = x � 4
2nNc 9.8lm / s 2 2 WL
=> -- =
60 1.8 X 1 0-3 m fn = n2 f1
=> Ne = 705.32 rpm � 705 rpm As there are two nodes present in 3rd mode,
f3 = 32 f1 = 1 800 rpm
07. Ans: (a) 1800
=-- = 200 rpm
Sol: Note: co n depends on mass of the system not 9
:. f1
1 1 . Ans: (c)
Sol: At resonance for all the damping values the
phase is 90°.
k=>c>q n=3
n-mode number
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K3 2 kN/m
K12 =
3 kN/m K2
- = 1 at resonance
0)
O)n
100
X = _§_ = = 20 mm
2k� 2 x10 x 0.25 x l 03 m= l kg
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: 178 : Theory of Machine
K1 & K2 springs are in series Hence the frequencies for the given system
Resultant spring stiffness (K 12)
are O and
��
(2K
-1 1 1 1 1
=- + -= - + -= 1.33
K 12 K 1 K 2 1 3
K12 = 0.75 kN/m
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= 1 40 x 1000 20 10
Hz
= =
21r 100 21r 1r E for steel = 2. l x 10 1 1 N/m2
co =
{K=�4 8EI
n f� m.e 3
mg mg f, = �; = 90 Hz (·: I = 7 • )
4
Let the system is displaced by 0 from the
equilibrium position. It's position will be as 06. Ans: (a)
shown in figure. Sol: KL0
By considering moment equilibrium about
the axis of rotation (Hinge)
..
I 0 +m g .e sin (a+0) - m g .e sin(a - 0)=0
I mR 2 +m.e 2=2mR 2
= a ••
---- 1 0
After simplification L
..
2mR 2 0+2mg.e cos a sin 0=0
For small oscillations ( 0 is small) sin 0 = 0 By moment equilibrium about the hinge I
.. .. .
:. 2 m .e 0 + 2 m g .e cos a . 0 = 0
2 0+C a 2 0+KL2 0+K 8 0=0
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- ��:·�
�-t=:=========1r:i
� I Im LJ
07. Ans: (c)
=
N- m - sec
= 500 x 0.4 2=80
rad
� C = 80 N m.s/rad
Esteel = 200 X 10 9 Pa
\
\
\ 1 50mm
Mass, M = 20kg
3 1
1 50mm
Stiffness K= �
f,
Q C ritical damping coefficient,
sec
Let the weight be displaced by x from C c= 2.JKm=1 250 N.
m
equilibrium position. Then
cod=co n �
Taking moment about hinged point
Kx.(0.3) = W.y = W. -
X
2
� 0.9co n= (O n �1 - � 2
300
K= = 500 N/m � � = 0. 4 35
2 x 0.3
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K K
K = K1 +K2 => - + - = K
2 2
(2) Spring are in series then
1 1 1
- = -+-
K K1 K2
1 1 1 1 2
- = - + - => - = -
12. Ans: (d) Ke K K Ke K
Sol: Given K
2
=> K = -
m = 12.5 kg , K = l OOO N/m , C = 15 Ns/m e
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x 60
N= = 6040 rpm
2,r
I
(On
- 0+- 0=0
12 4 cod = (�1- � 2 � n=7 .4833 rad/sec
·· 3K · co
� 0+ - 0=0 f0= d=1. 19 100 Hz
21t
� co n=
v --;-
{3K=30 rad / sec fn=1. 19 1 Hz
m = 240 kg
(On = li X= F 2
K - m co
°Keq= ((16 X 2)+ (32 X 2)) x 10 6= 96 X 1Q 6
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Sol: "'· � ��
{K 10000
000 = v -; = �-- = I OO rad / sec
1
K eq = K 1 + K 2 � for parallel When the free vibrations are initiate with
=> K eq = 20 + 20 = 40 kN I m
initial velocity,
The amplitude
000 = �{40x1ooo = 200 rad / sec . x = Vo (Initial displacement is 0)
�
(l)n
1 100
=> f = - x 200 = - = 32 Hz :. X = V0 = 0.5 x l0 5 mm
3
n 21t 7t 1 00
(l)n
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=> ©n =
21tf0 200 7t
=
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Moment equilibrium about hinge
con = != 25 rad / sec
m2r0.2r + kr0.r = 0
cot = 25t => co = 25 rad/sec 4mr 0 + kr 0 =0
2 2
co = con or K = mco!
co = W= fk
=
:. X=_!__ => C= _!__
n v� v� (4oo
V4
C eo Xco
10 N - sec 32. Ans: (b)
= =10
4 0 x l 0- x 25
3
m Sol: When lifted from ground at Q, reaction = 0.
Taking the moments about ' P ' and equating
30. Ans: (2.28) to zero.
Sol: Given, m = 2 kg, K = 8 N/m, � = 0.02 90x 10-3 x9.8 Ix6x10-2 = meco2 x 9 x 10 -2
co = 1.5 rad/sec 90 10-3 X 9.8 1 6 10-2=2 x lQ-3 X 2. 19
10-2
X X X
10-3 9
(O n=!=2
X
2
X CO X X
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34. Ans: (b) ·: con = 21tf
Sol: Given Problem of the type
mx + ex + k:x = F cos cot
for which, X = (
k - mco2)' + (cco)2 36. Ans: 10 (range 9.9 to 10.1)
F/K
or X = Sol: KE = _!_ mx 2 + _!_ 10 2
(1-(:, )}(2�:) 2
m = 5kg,
2
0-�
l
(m2a0 x 2a) + (ka0 x a) = 0
(On
=> 4a m 0 +ka 0 = 0
2 2
1
= - = 0.5
2
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: 187 : Mechanical Vibrations
mg
Radius of gyration, r = 1 00 mm = 0. 1 m,
L = 250 mm = 0.25 m,
g = 9.8 1 m/sec2
k(a + d)2
C
3
I c = - Ma 2 , coa = =?
2 i Ma 2
COn
= �mgL = �L
co n
2
mr r2
9·8 1 x 2
m= - = �- \ad / s = 1 5.66 rad / s
0. 1
( J
9
= [5k
2ML2 � 2M
9
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ACE • • •
: 188 : Theory of Machine
Or
Five Marks Solutions -,---....._
I
I)i
01.
Sol:
-· · I
I
'
I
A ,I
r
1
/: :� 0
I I
IA 0 + 2K (r+a) 0 (r+a) = 0
I I
mr 2 3
I A = -- + mr2 = - mr 2
2 2
2
Imr 2 0 + 2k(r + a ) e = O
2
KE = .!. mr 2 8 2 + .!_ 10 2 2
2 2 ro , = � k ., = 2k(r + a)' = 4k(r + 2a)
3 2 3mr
= .!. mr 2 0 2 + .!.. mr 2 0 2 = I mr 2 0 2 - mr
m
2
eq
2 4 4
PE = _!_ Kx 2 + .!. Kx 2 = Kx 2
2 2 02.
x = (r + a)0 Sol:
=> PE = K{(r + a)0} 2 X mx
..
d d
- KE + - PE = O
dt dt
X
m
Substituting in the above equation m
I m r 2 0 + 2K(r + a)2 9 = 0
2 C
K
Natural frequency Cx Kx
So fn = 47.74 Hz.
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=amca1 Vi b=·=
=1=ratI ns
o=
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Gyroscope
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SOLUTIONS
ro = V = 0.2 rad
P R sec
ro5 = l OOrad / sec
I = 1 0kg-m2
Gyroscopic moment
= Iros ro p = 1 0x0.2x 1 00N-m
= 200N-m
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C7 Balancing
03. Three masses are connected to a rotating
Two Marks Questions shaft supported on bearings A and B as
shown in the figure. The system is in a
0 1 . A rotating disc of 1 m diameter has two space where the gravitational effect is
eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each at radii of 50 absent. Neglect the mass of shaft and rods
mm and 60 mm at angular position of 0° and connecting the masses. For m1 = 1 0 kg, m2=
1 50°, respectively. A balancing mass of 0. 1 5 kg and m3 = 2.5 kg and for a shaft angular
kg to be used to balance the rotor. What is speed of 1 000 radian/s, the magnitude of the
the radial position of the balancing mass ? bearing reaction (in N) at location B is
(GATE - OS)
(a) 50 mm (b) 1 20 mm
(c) 150 mm (d) 280 mm
(GATE- 1 7 - SET - 2)
a1
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: 0
Sol: y
Given, m1 = 0.5 kg , m2 =
r1 = 50mm ' r2 = 60 mm ' e = 150°,
mb = 0.1 kg m, rb = ?
:. Net force = 0
�Fx 2 + F/
=> rb = :. Bearing reactions = 0 N
mb
�-
- ( 0.9807) + (15} = 1 50.32 mm
2 2
0.1
F 15
9b = tan -1 _y_ = tan -1 (---) 93.74°
Fx - 0.9807
=
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ca Governors & Cams
(b) --sm -
(a)
h (1-cos B
1t0) 1t h . (7t0J
2 J3 2 J3
(c) -
1t
- cos -
2
h (7t0) 7t3 h . (7t0J
(d) -3 -sm -
J3 2 J3 2
2
J3 J3
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SOLUTIONS
[ ·: u = O ]
One Mark Solutions
1
s 1 = lOmm =-a t 21
01. Ans: (b) 2
Sol: For the highest position the distance
between the cam center and follower
= (r+5) mm
For the lowest position it is (r -5) mm 20x3600
a= = 72m/s 2
So the distance between the two positions 1000
= (r+5) -(r-5) = 10 mm
(;)
2
v = at 1 = 72x
101t
Two Marks Solutions
72 6
01. Ans: (b) = - =-= 1.2 m / s
60 5
Sol: h = 20mm, 0 = 60°,
81 = 30 = rad , 82 = 30°
7t
02. Ans: (a)
°
6
2x1tx300 d3s
co=----= 101t rad/ s Sol: Jerk = -3
60 dt
1
s 2 =-a t 22 : = � x; sm(
�J
e
2
92
d 2 s h £ (1t8J
92 =1 = x cos
2
�=.s_=_I
S2 t 2
2 2 dt 2 2 p 2 p
d 3s = - h 1t8
x �sin( J
dt 3
2 p 3
p
CONTENTS
-
01. In the design of shafts made of ductile 04. The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is
materials subjected to twisting moment and twice its inside diameter .the ratio of its
bending moment, the recommended theory torque carrying capacity to that of a solid
of failure is (GATE-ME-88) shaft of the same material and the same out
(a) maximum principal stress theory side diameter is (GATE-ME-93)
(b) maximum principal strain theory (a)15/16 (b)3/4 (c)l/2 (d)l/16
(c) maximum shear stress theory
(d) maximum strain - energy theory 05. Two shafts A and B are made of the same
material. The diameter of shaft B is twice
02. Strength to weight ratio for a circular shaft that of Shaft A. The ratio of power which
transmitting power is directly proportional can be transmitted by shaft A to that of shaft
to the (GATE-ME-91) B is (GATE-ME-94)
(a) square root of the diameter (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16
(b) diameter
(c) square of the diameter 06. A solid shaft can resist a bending moment of
(d) cube of the diameter 3.0 kNm and a twisting moment of 4.0kNm
together, then the maximum torque that can
03. A large uniform plate containing a rivet hole be applied is (GATE-ME-96)
subjected to uniform uniaxial tension of 95 (a) 7.0 kNm (b) 3.5 kNm
MPa. The maximum stress in the plate is (c) 4.5 kNm (d) 5.0 kNm
(GATE-ME-92)
07. Which theory of failure will you use for
aluminium components under steady loading
95 MPa lS (GATE-ME-98)
(a) principal stress theory
(b) principal strain theory
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"
ACE
"Fqpn,emg PnJtliranml : 200: Machine Design
�-�
" " • • I.. •
(c) strain energy theory (c) As per the maximum strain energy
(d) maximum shear stress theory theory, failure occurs when the strain
energy per unit volume exceeds a
08. Match the following criteria of material critical value
failure, under biaxial stresses cr1 and cr2 and (d) As· per the maximum distortion energy
yield stress cry with their corresponding theory, failure occurs when the
graphic representations: (GATE-ME-11) distortion energy per unit volume
P. Maximum normal stress criterion exceeds a critical value
Q. Maximum distortion energy criterion
R. Maximum shear stress criterion 10. The uniaxial yield stress of a material is 300
MPa. According to Von mises criterion, the
L) M) cry
shear yield stress (in MPa) of the material is
(GATE-15-Set 2)
-cry cr
-cry
11. A machine element XY, fixed at end X, is
N) subjected to an axial load P, transverse load
F, and a twisting moment T at its free end Y.
The most critical point from the strength
point of view is
(a) P-M, Q-L, R-N
(b) P-N, Q-M, R-L
(c) P-M, Q-N, R-L p
(d) P-N, Q-L, R-M y
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: 201: Sta.tic Loading
12. Consider the schematic of a riveted lap joint 02. The homogeneous state of stress for a metal
J
subjected to tensile load F, as shown below. part undergoing plastic deformation is
Let d be the diameter of the rivets, and S1 be l
t�
lS
Amin (100-5)x t
Ssy = 0.577Syt
04. Ans: (a) 't = 0.577 x 300 = 173.1 MPa
�'tD 3 (l - K 4 )
TH 16 11. Ans: (c)
Sol: =-----
-'tD
1t 3 Sol:
16
=l-K 4 =1
- GJ = : :
y
Sol: p = 21tNT => PocT. X
60
't"
= 16 =1
TB � (2D ) 3 8 At centre crb = 0 and torsional shear stress is
't
16 A
zero.
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.r.�
':.
J_ �
=15+5,fj_ = 22.07MPa ,
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•
FS
+3 ('t;y + 't� + 't�) 'txy = 40 MPa, Ssy = 100 MPa
Given,
For first stress element,
crx = 0 , cry = cr , crz = 0
'txy = 0 , 'tyz = 't , 'txz = 0
Syt According to maximum shear stress theory,
So = �cr2 +3 't 2
' FS
'tmax = --
ssy
llT = lly
According to MSST,
s
max = yt
't 2x FS
s yt
=
(JI -(J3 FS
200
60-(-40)=
FS
200
100 = => FS = 2
FS
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: 208 :
.. ==================================
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ACE Machine Design
(a) the maximum compressive stress (static) 1 1 . Which one of the following is the most
(b) the maximum tensile stress (static) conservative fatigue failure criterion?
( c) the maximum bending moment (static) (GATE-15 -Set 1)
( d) fatigue loading (a) Soderberg
(b) Modified Goodman
07. In terms of theoretical stress concentration ( c) ASME Elliptic
factor (kt) and fatigue stress concentration (d) Gerber
factor (kr),the notch sensitivity 'q ' is
expressed as (GATE-ME-03) 12. For the given fluctuating fatigue load, the
(a) (kr-1)/(kt-1) (b) (kr -1)/(kt+l) value of stress amp litude and stress ratio are
(c) (kt- 1 )/(kr-1) (d) (kr+ 1)/(kr+ 1) respectively.
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: 209 : Fatigue
(GATE-17 - SET- l)
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SOLUTIONS
The stress for option (a) is more and hence
One Mark Solutions critical.
Tm O'rn = 0
Option Ta Tm Ta + -
2 � Stress amplitude 'cra ' = 100 MPa
a T 0 T S yt = 300 MPa, Sut = 500 MPa
3T T S e = 200 MPa, F.S = ?
b - 2T
4 4 8
From Soderberg's equation
T T
IT cr a cr m 1
2 2 4 - +-=-
S e S yt FS
3T
d
T - �T 100 = _
� F.S = 2
1
-
4 4 8
200 FS
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ACE • • • • . -
: 212 : Machine Design
CJ'a
2 2
= = =
A = 490 x 10 38 ----( 1 )
Stress ratio, A = 1 0 x 10 68 ----(2)
crm = 50 Solving 1 & 2, A = 3397, B = 0 .281
R= in � _!_ = 0.20
3397 = 100 x Lo.2si => L = 28 1026 cycles
(J'max 250 5
13. Ans: 2
03. Ans: (b)
Sol: crmin - 50MPa, CJ'max 50MPa,
Sol: D = 200mm, t 1 mm, Pmin 4 MPa
= =
Syt = 300MPa
= =
Se l OOMPa,
=
Pmax 8 MPa.
The stress is completely reversed stress and
=
cra 50MPa.
= (YI max = - = --- = 400.MPa,
PD 8 x 200
=
(J'
se
=-
(Yh
4t 4x 1
a FS
· =
- 1 = --- = 200.MPa.
PD 4 x 200
50 = l => F.S = 2
OO (YI mm
4 4x 1
FS
cr 1 = cr 2 max = 400 MPa,
cr2 min = 200MPa.
Two Marks Solutions
(J' l m =
CJ' I max + CJ' I min
01. Ans: (b) 2
147 42 400 + 200
Sol: cr m = + = 98 MPa = = 300MPa
2 2
147 - 49
aa 49 MPa
2
= =
1 96 400-200
S = = 1 48. 48 MPa = = 1 OOMPa.
e 1 .32 2
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: 213 : Fatigue
(j a -
- 1
(jm = -
+ cr cr 1 50 + 50
S e S yt FS cr m = max + min = = l OO MPa
2 2
1 4 1 .47 84.88 -
1
�
240
+ = � F.S = 1 _26_
420 FS Goodman's equation :
(Fa (Fm 1
- + -= -
05. Ans: (d) S e S ut FS
Sol: Pmax = 1 00 kN, Pmin = 20 kN, 50 100 _1_
+ = � FS = 2
Syt = 240 MPa, Se = 1 60 MPa, 200 400 FS
A =?, F.S = 2
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. A.CE . . : 214 : Machine Design
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Bolted, Riveted and
Welded joints
(a) Pre- tensioning helps to seal the
One Mark Questions pressure vessel
(b) Pre- tensioning increase the fatigue life
0 1 . Weldments in fabricated steel beams are of the bolts
designed for (GATE-ME-87) (c) ·Pre-· tensioning reduces the maximum
(a) bending stresses at the flange tensile stress in the bolts
(b) shear stresses in transverse plane (d) Pre- tensioning helps to reduce the
(c) combination of bending and shear effect of pressure pulsations in the
(d) none of these because in fabricated pressure vessels
beams welds do not get stressed .
Two Marks Questions
02. If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to
the pitch of rivets is 0.25, then the tearing 0 1 . A 60mm long and 6mm thick fillet weld
Efficiency of the joint is (GATE-ME-96) carries a steady load of 1 5kN along the
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.87 weld. The shear strength of the weld
material is equal to 200MPa. The factor of
03. The bolts in a rigid flanged coupling safety is (GATE-ME-06)
connecting two shafts transmitting power (a) 2.4 (b) 3.4 (c) 4.8 (d) 6.8
are subjected to (GATE-ME-96)
02. A bolted joint in shown below. The
(a) shear force and bending moment
maximum shear stress, in MPa, in bolts A
(b) axial force
and B respectively are (GA'f.E-ME-07)
(c) torsion
(d) torsion and bending moment 3 holes of M 1 0 x 1 .75 mm bolts
20] --¢ c
04. Bolts in the flanged end of pressure vessel
are usually pre- tensioned. Indicate which of
40 _!!
40_
----¢
-B) B
the following statements in not true 20- - 1 A
(GATE-ME-98)
I
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150
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: 216 : Machine Design
-e-r ------0
== 7
40
4 kN
-®-------EB- 1 -----------------
p Q
Direct shear stress in MPa m the most
heavily loaded rivet is
1 .8m
(a) 4.4 (b) 8.8
(c) 17.6 (d) 35.2
03. The primary and secondary shear loads on
rivet p, respectively are 06. A fillet welded joint is subjected to
(a) 2 kN, 20 kN (b) 20 kN, 2kN transverse loading F as shown in the figure.
(c) 20 kN, 0 kN (d) 0 kN, 20 kN Both legs of the fillets are of 10mm size and
the weld length is 30mm. If the allowable
04. The resultant shear stress on rivet p IS shear stress of the weld is 94MPa,
closest to considering the minimum throat area of the
(a) 132 MPa (b) 159 MPa weld, the maximum allowable transverse
(c) 178 MPa (d) 195 MPa load in kN is (GATE-ME-12)
\( I l 11.
.
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. i\CE . .
:.t�&,p,c,erqPitNiramoa
'!. : 217: Bolted, Riveted & WeldedJoints
� � ==========================================
Common Data for Question 07 & 08 09. For the three bolt system shown in the
A single riveted lap joint of two similar plates as figure, the bolt material has shear yield
shown in the figure below has the following strength of 200 MPa. For a factor of safety
geometrical and material details. of 2, the minimum metric specification
required for the bolt is (GATE-14-SET2)
0
w
0
0 (a) M8 (b) M IO (c) M12 (d) M16
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: 218: Machine Design
3or - -c/>- :
:
4of p I
![ ::�g::---------------0--- - · - · A· - · - · B· - · - · -C- · �:
' -·-·-·-·-·-·-·-·-·-·-·- -·-
lO mm
I
I
I
thickness
3 50 50 O' 1 70
250
(GATE-15-Set 3) All dimensions are in mm
q>lOOmm
(GATE - 16 - SET - 3)
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SOLUTIONS
FsA = l Q x 1 50
I
x 40 = 1 8.75 kN.
One Mark Solutions 40 + O 2 + 40 2
2
F�B = 0 ( ·: rB = 0}
0 1 . Ans: (c) (Centroid of bolt group lies at B)
Sol: P - 0.707 8 I ( !� J
0 3 . Ans: (a)
(200)
1 5 x l0 3 N = 0.707 x 6 x 60 x - Sol:
F.S 4KN
Q
F.S = 3 . 39
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- .." ACE
'!. :r.,.,......Nir-n
. . : 220 : Machine Design
7t X 12 2
4
09. Ans: (b)
Sol: Ssy = 200 MPa, F.S = 2
05. Ans: (b)
Sol: Direct shear stress in all the results is same Load 19 x 1 03
no.of bolts x area
't = ------ = ---
3 x tr d2
Fs = l OO = 250N 4
4
200 19 X 10
250
3
cr = = 8. 84N / mm 2· 2
=> - = ---
7t x d2
7t (6) 2 3x-
4
4
d = 8.97 �9
06. Ans: (c) :. d = M l O
Sol: S = 1 0mm,
/ = 30mm, 10. Ans: 468.827 MN/m
Ssy Sol: d = 12 mm E = 2x105 N/mm2
= 94MPa
we
't Id -FS 7t x l2 2 mm 2 ,K = ?.
- 84 . 3 mm2 ' A 2
=
A1 - =
Maximum allowable transverse load, ( in 4
'1 = 30 mm, I = 30 + 8 =38mm
kN), F = 0.707S X .f X 't weld
/2 = 8 mm
S sy
= 0.707S x .f x -
FS K = W = W = AE
= 0.707 X 10 X 30 X 94 8 (:) .e
= 1 9.93kN
W.f 1 Wx30
o.f 1 mm
84.3 X 2 X 1 05
= =
A1E1
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AJCE : 221 : Bolted, Riveted & WeldedJoints
� � ==================================
r1 = r2 = r3 = r4 = ..J202 + 202
= ./2.
X 20= 28.28 mm
400x500
= x 28.28 = 1768 N
4x 28.282
2 X 105 2 X 105
= = = 468.827
0.3558+ 0. 07079 0.4265
= 468.827 MN/m
= .J100 2 + 1 768 2 + 2 x l00 x l768 x cos 45
11. Ans: 1835 to 1845 = 1840
Sol: Worst loaded rivet is 1 or 4
12. Ans: 332 to 494
�
Sol: Primary load on 'P'
PS1 = 2. = 3kN
3
Secondary load on 'P'
500
)
, Pxl
400 N
PS1 = J:2 f.2 f.2 xr1
I + 2+ 3
9x250
= x30
30 +0+3022
9x250
= x30 = 37.5 kN
2x302
Resultant load,
Ps = P82I +P:I2 = ..J32 +37. 52 = 37.61 kN
P's3 't
=
l = 3 7 ·6 1 x 103 = 33 2. 63 MPa
7t d 2 7t xl 22
4 4
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200 = Fx.2:_!
2
F = 4000 N
. 4000
=:> Shear force m each bolt = -- = 1000
4
OOO
= I = 40MPa
't
25
A B C
200
50 50
6kN
6 X 250
= X 56 = 1 5kN
2x502
:.Resultant load on c,
Ps = Ps, + P's, = 2+15 = 17kN
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.., . A. CE . . Machine Design
�"••:r..,,,.,,.
, PnNirJt..111 : 224 :
08. A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min. (a) decreasing center distance between gears
It is to be connected to a stirrer running at 36 (b) decreasing module
rev/min. the gearing arrangement suitable (c) decreasing pressure angle
for this application is (GATE-ME-00) (d) increasing number of teeth
(a) differential gear (b) helical gear
(c) spur gear (d) worm gear Two Marks Questions
09. Large speed reductions (greater than 20) in 01. In order to test the efficiency of reducer gear
one stage of a gear train are possible through train l kW input was given at the input end
(GATE-ME-02) at a speed of 1440 rpm and at the output end
(a) Spur gearing the measured torque was 56.36 N.m. If the
(b) Worm gearing ratio of speed reduction in this unit is 10:1,
(c) Bevel gearing the efficiency is about (GATE-ME-89)
(d) Helical gearing (a) 78 % (b) 85%
(c) 63% (d) 96%
10. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion
to operate without interference in standard Common Data Questions Q. 02 and Q. 03.
full height involute teeth gear mechanism
+
with 20 ° pressure angle is (GATE-ME-02) IOOON
�---..
02. If the drive efficiency is 80% , the torque 06. The contact ratio of the contacting tooth is
required on the input shaft to create 1 OOON (a) 1 .2 1 (b) 1 .2 5
output thrust is (c) 1 .29 (d) 1 . 33
(a) 20 Nm (b) 2 5 Nm
(c) 32 Nm (d) 50 Nm 07. The resultant force on the contacting gear
tooth is N is
03. If the pressure angle of the rack is 20 ° , the (a) 77.23 (b) 212.20
force acting along the line of action between (c) 2258.1 (d) 289.43
the rack and the gear teeth is
(a) 2 50 N (b) 342 N 08. A spur gate has a module of 3mm, number
(c) 532 N (d) 600 N of teeth 16, a face width of 36mm and a
pressure angle of 20 ° .It is transmitting a
04. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled power of 3KW at 20rev/s.Taking a velocity
1 9-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in factor of 1 . 5 and a form factor of 0 .3, the
mesh. If the module is 5mm, the center stress in the gear tooth is about
distance between the gear pair will be (GATE-ME-08)
(GATE-ME-06) (a) 32MPa (b) 46MPa
(a) 140mm (b) 1 50mm (c) 58MPa (d) 70MPa
(c) 280mm (d) 300mm
09. Match the type of gears with their most
Statement for Linked Answer QOS to Q07 appropriate description (GATE-ME-08)
A gear set has a pinion with 20 teeth and a gear Type of gear
with 40 teeth. The pinion runs at 30rev/s and (P) Helical
transmits a power of 20KW.The teeth are on the (Q) Spiral Bevel
20 ° full-depth system and have a module of (R) Hypoid
5mm. The length of the line of action is 19mm. (S) Rack and pinion
(GATE-ME-07) Description
1 . Axes non parallel and non intersecting
0 5. The center distance for the above gear set in 2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to
mm is the axis
(a) 140 (b) 1 50 (c) 1 60 (d) 1 70 3 . Axes parallel and teeth are parallel to
the axis
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4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting 11. The tangential force transmitted (in N) is
and teeth are inclined to the axis (a) 3552 (b) 2611
5. Axes are perpendicular and used for (c) 1776 (d) 1305
large speed reduction
6. Axes parallel and one of the gears has 12. Given that the tooth geometry factor is 0.32
infinite radius and the combined effect of dynamic load
and allied factors intensifying the stress is
(a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-6 _ (b) P-l ,Q-4,R-5,S-6 1.5; the minimum allowable stress (in MPa)
(c) P-2,Q-6,R-4,S-2 (d) P-6,Q-3,R-1,S-5 for the gear material is
(a) 242. 0 (b) 166.5
10. One tooth of gear having 4 module and 32 (c) 121.0 (d) 74. 0
teeth is shown in the figure. Assume that the
gear tooth and the corresponding tooth space 13. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and
make equal intercepts on the pitch a center distance of 450mm is used for a
circumference. (GATE-ME-08) speed reduction of 5: 1. The number of teeth
on pinion is ___ (GATE-ME-14)
Pitch circle
14. A spur pinion of pitch diameter 50 mm
rotates at 200 rad/s and transmits 3 kW
power. The pressure angle of the tooth of the
pinion is 20°. Assuming that only one pair
The dimensions 'a' and 'b' respectively, are
closest to of the teeth is in contact, the total force (in
(a) 6.08 mm, 4 mm Newton) exerted by a tooth of the pinion on
(b) 6.48 mm, 4.2 mm the tooth on a mating gear is __
(GATE-ME-14-SET-2)
(c) 6.28 mm, 4.3 mm
(d) 6.28 mm, 4.1 mm 15. A helical gear with involute tooth profile has
been machined with a disc-type form gear
Statement for Linked Answer Q.11 & Q.12
milling cutter. The helical gear has 30 teeth
A 20° full depth involute spur pinion of 4mm and a helix angle of 30° . The module of the
module and 21 teeth is to transmit 15 kW at gear milling cutter is 2. The pitch circle
960rpm.Its face width is 25mm. diameter (in mm) of the helical gear
(GATE-ME-09) 1s___ (GATE - PI-16)
Sol: -- = -- -= 1 8
2 2
sin cl> sin 2 20
Tm1n
=
2
500 N
1 1 . Ans: (d)
Sol: Tp = 40 , To = 1 20, Np = 1 200 rpm
Torque by pinion = 20 N- m.
T Thrust shared by each gear = 500 N
Torque by Gear = 20 x _Q_
Tp
Torque required
1 20 500xm z 2 500x2x80
20x- = 60N - m T2 = = = 1 00 N-m
40
=
Tl 1000 X 0. 8
1 2. Ans: (d)
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. . .
ACE
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. . : 229: Gears
T1 Tinput 25 N -m 3x l 03 Watt 1
= = S x 36 x 3x 0.3x --
= =
X 3 X 1 6 X 20 1 .5
7t
03. Ans: (c) 1000
Sol: Fcos cj> = 500 S 46. 04MPa
=
500
F= =532 N 09. Ans: (a)
coscj>
2 2
360
20 = = 5.625
19mm 64
= =1.287
n x 5 x cos 20
0 = 2. 8125.
mT 4 x 32
07. Ans: (c) R = = = 64mm
2 2
Power 20 x 103
Sol: F1 = = 20.123kN a R sin0 x 2
V n x 5 x 20x 30
= =
1000 =
64 x sin(2. 81) x 2 =
6.28
F= __s__ =
2.123
cos cj> cos 20
= 2.259 kN
OE Rcos0
=
64 xcos(2. 8125) 63.9 mm
= =
=
4+ (64- 63.9) 4.1
=
: 230: Machine Design
SwmyxC v
Sol: F1 _
- Stress int ensity factor
16. Ans: (c)
S X 25 X 4 X 0.32 X 1
3552 = Sol:
1.5
S = 166.5
13. Ans: 30
Sol: m = 5 mm, C = 450 mm
Gear
T0 N p
- =- = 5 , => Ta _
-5Tp
Tp N G
cj> = 20° '
m(TP + T0 } 5(TP + 5Tp )
C = ���� => 450 = - --'----- Power = 3.5 kW
2 2
Npinion = 700 rpm
:. Tp = 30
rpinion = 50 mm = 0.05 m
14. Ans: 638.5 N 21tx N P x Ft x rP
Power =
Sol: d = 50 mm, 60
r =25 mm= 25xl 0-3m ' 21tx700xF x 0.05
3500= t
60
co = 200 rad/s.
F1 = 954.92 N
Power, P = 3 kW
Resultant force,
cj> = 20°, V = rco
954 92
3 FN = � = · = 1016.21 N
F =�= = 0.6 kN cos cj> cos 20
t V 25xl 0-3 x200
F FN = 1.016 kN
0.6 kN
Total force, F = _t_ = --°
cos¢ cos20
= 0.6385 kN = 638.5 N
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cs Rolling Contact Bearings
02. If the load on a ball bearing is reduced to 05. The basic load rating of a ball bearing is
half, the life of the ball bearing will (GATE-ME-98)
. (GATE-ME-88) (a) the maximum static radial load that can
(a) increase 8 times (b) increase 4 times be applied without causing any plastic
(c) increase 2 times (d) not change deformation of bearing components
(b) the radial load at which 90% of the
03. Match the rolling element bearings with the group of apparently identical bearings
most appropriate loading condition run for one million revolutions before
(GATE-ME-91) the first evidence of failure
Bearing - type (c) the maximum radial load that can be
(a) Ball bearing applied during operation without any
(b) Roller bearing plastic deformation of bearing
(c) Needle bearing components
(d) Taper roller bearing (d) a combination of radial and axial loads
Loading condition that can be applied without any plastic
(p) Tangential load deformation
(q) Radial load
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•' .,"
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. . .
:&gmc,r,q PuNaacn : 232: Machine Design
06. Ball bearings are rated by a manufacturer for 2. Angular contact bearing
a life of 1 06 revolutions. The catalogue 3 . Taper roller bearing
rating of a particular bearing is 1 6 kN. If the 4. Hydrodynamic journal bearing
design load is 2 kN, the life of the bearing 5. Sintered metal bearing
will be P x 1 0 6 revolutions, where P is equal 6. Teflon/Nylon bush
to _____ (GATE-ME-14-SET-4)
03. The life of a ball bearing at a load of 1 0 kN
07. Which of the bearings given below is 8000 hours. Its life in hours, if the load is
SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust increased to 20 kN, keeping all other
load? (GATE - 16 - SET - 3) conditions same, is (GATE-ME-00)
(a) Deep groove ball bearing (a) 4000 (b) 2000 (c) 1000 (d) 500
(b) Angular contact ball bearing
(c) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing 04. A ball bearing operating at a load F has
(d) Single row tapered roller bearing 8000hours of life. The life of the bearing, in
60 X 1000 X 3000 L =
(c)p => 72 = p3
3
22
=> P = 5.29kN.
3
106 = ( 4900)
3
=>
60x 2000xL h 9800
02. Ans: a-3, b-2, c-4, d-6,
106
=> Lb = 1500 x 8 = 12,000 hrs. 03 . Ans: (c)
:. P = 512 N
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Sl{ding Contact Bearings
(c) Specific dynamic capacity
One Mark Questions (d) Rotation factor
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SOLUTIONS
µV 2mN
= - x 2m£ x r = µx • x2m£xr
One Mark Solutions C C
= µx-rco
x2m£xr
01. Ans: (a) C
0.02 X 20 X 21t
20 X 10_3
0.020xl 0-3
= X
02. Ans: (c)
N fd X 21t X 0.02 X 0.04 X 0.02
Sol: f oc µ: oc µ ;
(·: p = :) = 0.040 N - m
Sol:
s - (�' X�)' Sommerfeld number,
1 = ( J O8
= -= 0.125 125 X 104 20 X 10-6
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C7 Brakes
(a) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of
One Mark Questions the drum
(b) Self energ1zmg for anti-clockwise
0 1 . The force F 1 and F2 in a brake band and the rotation of the drum
direction of rotation of the drum are as (c) Self energizing for rotation m either
· shown in the figure. The coefficient of direction of the drum
friction is 0.25. The angle of wrap is 3n/2 (d) Not of the self energizing type
radians. It is given that R = 1 m and
F2 = l N. The torque (in N-m) exerted on the
Two Marks Questions
drum is ---
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: 237 : Brak.es
(GATE-ME-OS)
06. A force of 400N is applied to the brake
02. The maximum tension that can be generated drum of 0 . 5m diameter in a band - brake
in the band during braking is system as shown in the figure, where the
(a) 1200 N (b) 2 1 10 N wrapping angle is 1 80 ° . If the coefficient of
(c) 3224 N (d) 4420 N
friction between the drum and the band is
0 .25, the braking torque applied, in N.m is.
03. The maximum wheel torque that can be
completely braked is
(a) 200 N-m (b) 382 N-m
(c) 604 N-m (d) 844 N-m
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: 238 : Machine Design
(GATE-14-SET-3)
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-SOLUTIONS
Sol: � = 3 ' 0 = 1 80 °
Sol: -1 = eµ8 = e
R o.2sx 31t
2
= 3.248 T2
F2
1 80xrr
T
:. F1 = 3 .248N = e µ8 µ = 0 . 35
flX-
1 80 �
_J � 3=e
T2
Torque, T = (F 1 -F2)xr
= (3.248- l ) x l = 2.248 N-m 02 . Ans: (b)
Sol:
l l OO N
T
02. Ans: (a)
Sol:
I
--------� F �---'---------
lm lm
IMrIVoT = 0 T T1 0.5x270x
-1 = e µ8 = -
_.2:_
=e 1 80
T 200
F x/ - RN x x + µRN x a = 0 2
(Taking T = T2 ) .
When applied moment and frictional
moment are in same direction is called self � T1 = 2 1 1 0N
energizing brake.
03. Ans: (b)
Sol: Torque, T = (T 1 - T2) r
= (2 1 1 0-200) 0.2 = 382 N-m
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.,.
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V V
: 240: Machine Design
.. ' =====================================
• ' • •
� �&ipw.rqPoNiaaool
Sol: 1 so =2 . 19
Tz T2 = 1-x 2ooox (2 2 - o) = 4000 1
T2 = 182.37N 2
:. Braking torque applied, in N.m, 1 / 2
K.ER = - l\© 1 - (02
2)
2
d
TB = (TI - T2) X -
2 _!_x 150x (2 2 - o) = 300 J
=
2
0.5
= (400 - 1 82.37) x = 54.4 N-m P.E = mgh = 2000x9.8 1x0.5 = 98 10 J
2
Total, E = 4000 + 300 + 98 10
07. Ans: 64 N-m = 14 1 10 J = 14. 1 1 kJ
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Ce One Mark Questions
Clutches
03. A disc clutch with a single friction surface
has coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. The
maximum pressure which can be imposed
01. Axial operation claw clutches having self- on the friction material is 1.5MPa. The outer
locking tooth profile (GATE-ME-87) diameter of the clutch plate is 200mm and
(a) can be disengaged at any speed its internal diameter is 100mm. Assuming
(b) can be disengaged only when unloaded uniform wear theory for the clutch plate, the
(c) can be engaged only when unloaded maximum torque (in N.m) that can be
(d) can work only with load transmitted is
(GATE--14-SET-2)
Two Marks Questions
04. A single-plate clutch has a friction disc with
01. A disk clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at inner and outer radii of 20 mm and 40 mm,
2000 rpm the disk has a friction lining with respectively. The friction lining in the disc
Coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore is made in such a way that the coefficient of
radius of friction lining is equal to 25mm. friction µ varies radially as µ = 0. 01 r, where
Assume uniform contact pressure of r is in mm. The clutch needs to transmit a
1MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction torque of 18. 85 kN.mm. As per
friction lining is (GATE-ME-06) uniform pressure theory, the pressure (in
(a) 39. 4 mm (b) 49.5 mm MPa) on the disc is ----
(c) 97.9 mm (d) 142.9 mm (GATE-17-SET-2)
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: 530.142 N-m
One Mark Solutions Sol: µ = 0.3, Pmax = 1.5 MPa,
200 100
r = = 100mm ' r2 = - = 50mm
01. Ans: (a) I 2 2
W = 2nc (r1-r2)
Two Marks Solutions = 21txPmax xr2 (r1 -r2)
= 21t xl .5x50 (100-50) = 2nxl .5 x50 x50
01. Ans: (a) = 23561.9 N
(r +r )
60p 60 X 5 X 103 Tw = µWx 1 2
Sol·. T = = = 23.87N -m. 2
2nN 2nx2000
(lOO + 50)
W = Pxn(r/ -r; ) = 0.3 X 23561.9 X
2
r/ -r; = 530142.75 N-mm = 530. 142 N- m
T = I µw [ 2 2 ]
3 r:I -r2
04. Ans: 0.5
= f µPn(r/ - r; ) Sol: r1 = 40mm, r2 = 20mm, µ = O.O l r,
2 T = 18.85 kN-mm ,
23.87 = 0.25 X 1 X 7t(r/ = 253 ) p=c
3
-X
r/ -r; r,
Sol: T = I µw ( 2 2 J
= Px2nx0.0lxf r 3 dr
3 rI r
- 2
'2
r -r
= I x 0.4 x 2 x n(rI2 -r22 ) ( ( /2 ;2)J = p X 27t X 0. 01 X [
rI4 � r24 ]
3 rt - r2
= 196 N-m
� P = 0.5N/mm2
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Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
(Questions)
J
PageNo. 244
CONTENTS
r--- -_ -�- - -- -- � - - -- - =- - =-- - --o,__ =--=-=====
r
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: 246: Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
09. For a Newtonian fluid: (GATE-ME-06) 02. A cubic block of side 'L' and mass 'M' is
(a) shear stress lS proportional to shear dragged over an oil film across table by a
strain string connects to a hanging block of mass
(b) rate of shear stress is proportional to 'm' as shown is fig. The Newtonian oil film
shear strain of thickness 'h' has dynamic viscosity 'µ'
(c) shear stress is proportional to rate of and the flow condition is laminar. The
shear strain acceleration due to gravity is 'g'. The steady
(d) rate of shear stress is proportional to rate state velocity 'V' of block is:
of shear strain
V
04. A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of 40 07. Which of the following statement are TRUE,
mm and a length of 40mm. The shaft is when the cavitation parameter cr = O?
rotating at 20 rad/s and the viscosity of the (i) The local pressure is reduced to vapor
lubricant is 20 mPa-s. The clearance is pressure.
0.020 mm. The loss of torque due to the (ii) Cavitation starts
viscosity of the lubricant is approximately: (iii) Boiling of liquid starts
(GATE-ME-OS) (iv) Cavitations stops
(a) 0.040 Nm (b) 0.252 Nm (GATE-15-Set 3)
(c) 0.400 Nm (d) 0.652 Nm (a) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(b) only (ii) and (iii)
05. A lightly loaded full journal bearing has (c) only (i) and (iii)
journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
50.50 mm and bush length of 20 mm. If
rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm and 08. Consider fluid flow between two infinite
average viscosity of liquid lubricant is 0.3 horizontal plates which are parallel (the gap
Pa-sec, the power loss (in Watt) will be : between them being 50 mm). The top plate is
(GATE-ME-10) sliding parallel to the stationary bottom plate
(a) 37 (b) 74 (c) 118 (d) 237 at a speed of 3 mis. The flow between the
plates is solely due to the motion of the top
06. In a simple concentric shaft-bearing plate. The force per unit area (magnitude)
arrangement, the lubricant flows in the 2 mm required to maintain the bottom plate
gap between the shaft and the bearing. The stationary is ____ N/m2 .
flow may be assumed to be a plane Couette Viscosity of the fluid µ = 0.44 kg/m-s and
flow with zero pressure gradient. The density p = 888 kg/m3 .
diameter of the shaft is 100 mm and its (GATE-16 - SET- 2)
tangential speed is lOm/s. The dynamic
viscosity of the lubricant is O.lkg/m.s. The
frictional resisting force (in Newton) per
100mm length of the bearing is ----
(GATE-ME-14) (S-1)
Fyderabadl Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswarl Lucknow[ Patna! Bengalurul Oiennai IVtjayawadalVizag IT,rupati I Kukatpal)yl Kolkata I
SOLUTIONS
sec 2
X
m
µ 20 = l.7x10- + 5.6x10- x20 - 0.1189x10- x20
5 8 9 2
-5
Sol: Surface tension is also defined as the surface = l .807244x 10 = 0.88863 12
energy per unit area 2.033739 X 10-5
. _ Energy
1.e. cr - --- (J/ m2)
Area
= l
xl.246xl.6xl0-5
05. Ans : (d) 0.88863 12
Sol: A bubble will have two surface layers where = 2.24x10-5
as a spherical droplet will have only one.
Hence, Pbubble =2 x Pdroplet
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Fyderabad
ACE
�� �===================
EF..ugiomiog : 249: Properties of Fluids
�-� Pnbmnn
===============
07. Ans: (a) 09. Ans: (c)
du Sol: According to Newton's law of viscosity, a
Sol: Shear stress, t = µ-
dy Newtonian fluid is one type of fluid, m
F du F dy which shear stress is proportional to rate of
-=µ-�µ=--
A dy A du shear strain.(i.e, velocity of gradient
. N m
µ-Umts = -x-
m ml 2
/sec
2
kg.
% sec-x m 10. Ans: 288 N/m2
=---'---':....::....::.. --
m 4cr 4x 0.072
2
= kg/ m -sec
. . . . dynamic vis cos ity
Kmematlc v1scos1ty ( v ) = 11. Ans: (b)
mass density
µ kg/ m-sec
v= (
p kg/ m 3 J
Two Marks Solutions
:. v-units = m2/sec
01. Ans :(c) [ t oc :; ]
08. Ans: (b)
Sol: v = 7.4 x 10-7 m2/sec,
02. Ans : (c)
s = 0.88� p = 0.88x1000 = 880 kg/m3
Sol: Newton'sLaw of Viscosity
V = 0.5 mis,
y = 0.5 mm = 0.5 x 10-3 m. Area(A) =L2
t=? -v
According to Newton'sLaw of Viscosity -�1- M
---------------
T
_ ·-----
du
= µ. - = (v xp) (V/y) ---------------·µ -----
dy �T
t
/71///&//777///////)7
0·5
= (7.4 X 10-7 x880) ( F=µ. A.
0. 5 X 10-3 J dy
du
V
= 0.651 N/m2 (Pascal) T = µ .Lz . h
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�F�P.ffraiml : 250: F1uid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
J
0.04
0.04
j V (Steady
m
Velocity) 2
=(2ox10- )(1t x0.04 x0.04) [
3
-3 x-
0.02 xlO 2
mg = 0.04 (N.m)
2-�.96
K= 2000 M Pa 60 y
( )
=
1td N
( )
2 1t N ( 60 d
04. Ans: (a) µ 1td£)
60 2
=
(D�d)
Sol: Given Data:
Diameter ofshaft (d) = 40 mm 2x 7tX 1200
= 40 x 10-3 m = 0.04 m
= ---- X 0.3 X ( 7t X 0.05 x0.02 )
60
Length ofshaft (l) = 40 mm = 0.04 m 7tX 0.05 X 1200
Shaft angular speed (ro) = 20 rad/ s 60 0.05
X x--
Viscosity oflubricant (µ) = 20 m Pa-S 0.050 -0.05
( � )
= 20 milli Pascal - second
= 20 X 10-3 Pa-sec = 37 Watts
= 20 x 10-3 �2
- sec
m
� F = µ.A.: [·: -r = :
08. Ans: 26.4 (26.3 to 26.5)
V µV 0. 44 x3
F = µ (1tDL) Sol: !_ = -r= = = 26. 4 N/m2
h A y 50xl 0-3
(IO)
F = (O. l) x ( nxO. l xO. l)
(0. 002)
= 15.7 N
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Fluid Statics
1! __:;,.---------------------------·
_:_:_:_:_:-:_:-:_:_:_:-: _:_:_:_: _:-:_:_:_:_: _:_:_:_:_
One Mark Questions �
ell
:-:--:--:--:--:-:--:--:--:--:-:-:-:- --:-:- --:-:-:
._- - - - -_- - - - -_-_- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -.
-:-:-:-:-:-:-:-:-:-
- - - - - - - - - - -
. ,I
01. Shown below are three cylindrical gates pipe H2 0
which restrain water in a 2-D channel. Which
gate experiences the maximum vertical
component, the minimum vertical component
Hg
06. For the stability of a floating body, under the 01. A circular plate 1 m in diameter is
influence of gravity alone, which of the submerged vertically in water such that its
following is TRUE? (GATE-ME-10) upper edge is 8m below the free surface of
(a) Metacentre should be below centre of water. The total hydrostatic pressure force on
gravity. one side ofplate is: (GATE-ME-88)
(b) Metacentre should be above centre of (a) 6.7 kN (b) 65.4 kN
gravity. (c) 45.0 kN (d) 77.0 kN
(c) Metacentre and centre ofgravity must lie
on the same horizontal line. 02. The cross-sectional area of one limb.of a U
(d) Metacentre and centre ofgravity must lie tube manometer [figure shown below] is
on the same vertical line. made 500 time larger than the other, so that
the pressure difference between the two
07. For a completely submerged body with limbs can be determined by measuring 'h' on
centre of gravity 'G' and centre of buoyancy one limb of the manometer. The percentage
'B', the condition ofstability will be error involved is: (GATE-ME-90)
(GATE-ME-14)(S-1)
(a) G is located below B
(b) G is located above B h _.
..,. . j_ . :
(c) G and B are coincident Initial.....,_-=----= .=,;:;.,=:..-=-
I :�:
=
level =:=:=:=:=:=:=
(d) Independent ofthe locations ofG and B
----------
----------·
----------
08. For a floating body, buoyant force acts at the
(GATE-16-SET-1)
(a) centroid ofthe floating body (a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
(b) center ofgravity ofthe body (c) 0.2 (d) 0.05
(c) centroid of the fluid vertically below the
body 03. The force F needed to support the liquid of
(d) centroid ofthe displaced fluid density d and the vessel on top (fig) is
(GATE-ME-95)
===========wF:- y :========: - -
-----
------ --
----- ------·
.----- r__ J.
h
:=:=:=:=:=:-:-:-:-:-:Fx : :
------ -----
--- ----
- . 10 cm
B -.: --· A
:: 5cm
(a) Fx = pghrw and Fy = 0
D (b) Fx = 2 pghrw and Fy = 0
(c) Fx = 2 pghrw and Fy = pgwr2/ 2
p = 13.6 g/ ml
(d) Fx = 2 pghrw and F = 7t pgwr2/ 2 y
(a) 771.2 mm Hg
(b) 752.65 mm Hg 07. The pressure gauges G 1 and G2 installed on
(c) 767.35 mm Hg the system shown pressures ofPG! = 5.00 bar
(d) 748.8 mm Hg' and P02 = 1.00 bar. The value of unknown
pressure P is (GATE-ME-04)
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density p up to the tip of the plug. The
Air gravitational acceleration is g. Neglect the
effect of the atmospheric pressure.
A +-:
:-:-:-:-:-:-= 2m -:-:-:-
1 3 . Consider a frictionless, massless and leak ------- ----- vertical wall
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: 257 : Fluid Sta.tics
Fm
arrangement with manometric readings and O.lm A
h/21
Fluid fl
·=-=-:Fluid f3 -=-:
h/2I -----------
0.6m -·
0 2"'.t(c
Fluid t2
(GATE- PI- 17)
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SOLUTIONS
-------- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
One Mark Solutions water --+- --------- --- - -- - - - - - - - - - - -
-_-_ -------- ---------------
01. Ans :
Sol: Maximum vertical component
D
lS
experienced by (A)
Minimum vertical component is experienced E
by (C)
Hg
Maximum horizontal component 1s
experienced by (C)
hw = Gauge pressure of water in pipe
02. Ans: Meta Centre.
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: 259 : Fluid Statics
05. A ns : (d)
Sol: Let T = Tension in string (N)
W = mg = Ps ·AH.g
w
08. A ns: (d)
Jc"A
Sol: For floating body Buoyancy force acts
through the centre ofbuoyancy which is C.G
FB = W+T
FB = mg + T
p. A.h.g = Ps -AH.g + T y
T = p A h g - Ps . AH. h
T =(p h - p s H) A g
F
06 . A ns : (b)
Sol: For a stable floating body the Metacentric
D= 1 m ; y = 8 m;
height is positive, hence Metacentre should
be above centre of gravity of the floating h =vertical depth of C.G. of plate from free
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a j Vizag I Tuupari I Kukatpallyl Kolkata I
PAABs + 1000 x 9. 81 x 0.17
F = p. g. h . A = p.g (y +�) . : D 2
13600 X 9.8 } 0.02 + 1000 X 9.8 } X 0.05
+ 13600 X 9. 81 X 0.76
=
h A 500 a 500
Afi
-= 0. 002= 0.002 X 100%= 0. 2%
h
plate x Width)
Fy = n pg wr 2 / 2
09. Ans: (d)
Sol:
(1 X 5Xl.25)
-- X Slil
. dv dv
1.e. - = 0, as - =0 , shear stress 't =O.
F = I000x9.81xl .25x(1x5) = 61312.5 N/width 11. Ans: 2.2 (range 2.19 to 2.21)
X= 2.5 X COS 30 ° = 2.165 m Sol: PA - (Poil X g X 0.2) - (Pair X g X 0.08) + (prog
61312.5 x 3.334 = M x 9.81 x 2.165 x 0.38) - Pa = 0
=> M = 9624.7 kg/unit width Pa - PA = 2.2 kPa
Nearly 9623 kg/unit width
12. Ans: 865 (860 t o 870)
10. Ans : 5306 N Sol: pbxg.V = Poil xgx 0.45 V + Pwaterxgx0.55 V
Sol: => Pb = 865 kg/m
3
Wsallon + WHe
13. Ans: (a)
Sol:
Rope
C D
Fe AIR
T = Tension in rope
PV = mRT
A E
P = pRT F
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..
" ACE . .
_, &ip,,,erqPoolir,n,n
. . : 263 : F1uid Statics
16. Ans: 2
Sol: Let P be the point at the mid- height level of
the tank.
Fluid A
Water
(B)
- string
= 800 kg/m3
Y2 =2y Density of liquid, B = 1 1 000 = 1 000 kg/m3
x
(Pp \a ge
u
= y[0.5 - 0.25h] Total mass of liquid displaced
= 8 + 1 2.5 = 20.5kg
According to problem, (Pp)gauge = 0
or 0.5 - 0.25 h = 0 FB = Upward thrust = Weight of liquids
or h=2m displaced = 20.5 9.8 1 = 201.1 (N)
x
Weight of cylinder
W = 1 0 9.8 1 = 98. 1 (N)
x
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Fluid Kinematics
(a) Fluid is in continuum
(b) Fluid is irrotational
(c) Fluid is ideal
One Mark Questions
0 1 Streamlines, path lines and streak lines are (d) Fluid is compressible
virtually identical for (GATE-ME-94)
(a) Uniform flow 05. Circulation is defined as line integral of
(b) flow of ideal fluids tangential component of velocity about a
(c) Steady flow ___ (fill in the blank)
(d) Non uniform flow (GATE- ME-94)
02. In a flow field the stream lines and 06. A fluid flow is represented by the velocity
equipotential lines
field V = ax i + ay j , where a constant. The
(GATE-ME-94)
(a) Are parallel
-t -t -t
03. For a fluid element in a two dimensional 07. The velocity components in the x and y
flow field ( x - y plane), it will undergo directions of a two dimensional potential
(d) -
av av
04. Existence of velocity potential implies that
(c)
fJy ay
(GATE- ME-94)
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: 265 : Fluid Kinematics
08. In a two-dimensional velocity field with 11. For a continuity equation given V.V = 0 to be
velocities u and v along x and y directions
valid, V where is the velocity vector, which
respectively, the convective acceleration
one of the following is a necessary
along the x-direction is given by
condition? (GATE- ME-08)
(GATE- ME-06)
(a) Steady flow
(a) u
ou + v ou , (b) Irrotational flow
ox oy
(c) Inviscid flow
ov + v ou
(c) u ox oy (d) Incompressible flow
along the axis of the nozzle from its inlet (c{v.v )v = O (d)
av (___.. )___..
+ V .V V = O
plane and L is the length of the nozzle. The at
L L
(c) - (d) -- (d) an unsteady non-uniform flow
4u 0 2.5u 0
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1 5. If the fluid velocity for a potential flow is 1 8. For a certain two-dimensional
given by V(x,y) = u(x,y)i + v(x,y)j with incompressible flow, velocity field is given
usual notations, then the slope of potential by 2xy i - y 2 J The streamlines for this flow
line at (x,y) is (GATE -1 5 -Set 2) are given by the family of curves
u v u
(a) - (b) -- (c) - (d)
u v
(GATE-16-SET-3)
u2
2
(GATE-ME-88)
Width
= 200mm
(a) -6 (b) -2 (c) - 1 2 (d) 4
Velocity = 3m/s
(GATE - 16-SET - 3)
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ACE
PnNirarima . . : 267 : Fluid Kinematics
02. The stream function in a two dimensional 06. For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of
flow field is given by \jl=x 2 -y 2 length L having inlet and outlet radii of
The magnitude of the velocity at point ( 1 , 1 ) R 1 and R 2 respectively and a constant flow
1s (GATE-ME-89) rate of Q, assuming the velocity to be axial
and uniform at any cross- section, the
(a) 2 (b) 2-,J2 (c) 4 (d) 8
acceleration at the exit is
03. A velocity field is given as (GATE-ME-93) (GATE- ME-04)
-V = 3 x y i - 6 xyzk
2
/\ /\
(a)
2Q (R 1 -�2 )
(b)
2Q 2 (R I - R 2 )
1tLR 2 1tLR 2
3
:
has moved through halfa revolution? j_
I
(GATE- ME-OS)
Y/
.//////,Q/
' ///M- stationary
Surface
(a) 48 m (b) 64 m
(c) 120 m (d) 142 m 10. The radial velocity V r , at any radius r, when
the gap width is h, is
09. Which combination of the following Vr
(a) V
statements about steady incompressible 2h
=
r
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: 269 : Fluid Kinematics
Which flows should be recommended when 14. Velocity vector of a flow fields is given as
the application requires the flow to be
V = 2xy i - x 2 z j . The vorticity vector at
-t A /\
i
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: 270: Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
(d) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV the acceleration ofa particle at ( 1 , -1) is
(GATE-17-SET-l)
1 8. The velocity field on an incompressible flow (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 2,Js (d) 0
is given by
V = (a1x+a2y+a3z)i + (b1x+b2y+b3z)j
+ (c1 x+c2y+c3z)k,
where a 1 = 2 and c3 = --4. The value of b2
IS---
-
(GATE-15 -Set 1)
+y + y2
1
2 2 1 2
X X
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SOLUTIONS
Where u = ax
One Mark Solutions v = ay
Substitute u and v in above Eqn
dx = dy
01. Ans: (c) ax ay
Integrating both sides
02. Ans: (d) dx = dy
Sol: The product of slopes of tangents at the point J X J y
of inter section m1m2 = -1 log e x = log e y + C (constant)
Where C is integration constant
y log e X = log e y + log e C
x i y =c
Using coordinates (1, 2)
C=- 1
=-
y 2
X
dx dy dx dy
= => - = --
x t - 2xyt
2
X - 2y
1s zero. 1. e. - + -+ - = 0
. . ou av ow 17. Ans: 1 (ra nge 0.99 t o 1.01)
ox &y oz Sol: A1V1 = A 2V2 + A3V3
This equation is valid for incompressible Q , = Q2 + Q3
flow only valid for both steady and unsteady 0. 9 = 3 x 0.2 x 1 + V x 0.3 x 1
flow. V = 1 m/sec
dx - dy-
U V
dy
( ) = -1
dx potential line
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. . . : 274 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machine:ry
= - 8 - 4 = -12 a a a
ax ay az
u V w
02. Ans : (b)
Sol: Given data
Stream function in a 2-D flow field ,
'V = x 2 - y 2
ax
JvJ = .J2 2 + 2 2 = 2J2
The flow is irrotational.
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: 275: Fluid Kinematics
(iii) The given flow is steady since the velocity
components of each does not contain time't'
(i.e., "t" appears explicitly in case of un Hence flow is "not irrotational" 1.e.,
steady flow). Hence given flow field is rotational.
"steady flow"
06. Ans : (c)
Sol: Given data:
04. Ans : (d)
Let Q = Discharge (Volume flow rate) in m3/sec
Sol: For steady, incompressible flow, the
R 1 = Inlet Radius (m)
au av
continuity equation - + - =0 must be R 2 = Outlet Radius (m)
ax ay
satisfied.
y
au av
=').., y - 2xy ,
3 = 2x y - 3 y 3
� •
ax ay X
:. au = 1 + o + o =1
ax
av
... = 0 - 1 =-1
ay
:. The Equation ofcontinuity is
au + av = 0 satisfied
ax ay
Then fluid is "incompressible"
ro , = ½ (: - : J
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: 276 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
At x= L (exit) f dp = p ro fr dr2
- 32Q 2 (D2 - DJ p ro 2 r 2
n2 L(D2 )s P = ---
2 Q 2 (R 1 - R 2 ) p ro 2 r 2
a 2 = ----- = p X dA = 2m dr
1t 2 R 2s L
d FRotation
2
X
= p ro 2 7tf r 3 dr
07. Ans: (d)
Sol: Given data R 4 p 2 . 1tR 4 00
= p ro 2 . 1t- = ----
Thrust on the bottom of the cylinder due to 4 4
rotation is equal to sum the weight of oil on Thrust on cylinder = W + FRotation
the bottom cylinder and total force due to n R4
4
rotation p g H. 1t R 2 + p ro 2 --
T = W + F Rotation 00 2 R 2 ]
Where W = mg = p.v.g
= [
p 1t R 2 gH +
4
= p.A.H.gV
pro 2 R 2
V = (Volume = Area x Height) = 1tR 2 [ + pgH ]
4
= p.1t R 2 . H.g = p g H. 1t R 2
0)
v, = { 6 ;� ' ) m i s
0 0
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: 277 : Fluid Kinematics
Let 0 = Angle turned by a leaf 09. Ans : (b)
Sol: F or st eady, i nc ompr essibl e forc ed v ort ex
For e = _!_ revolution (i.e 180 ° = 1t radians) ,
2 fl ow:
the radial distance of leaf from centre ? Forced vortex is defined as that type of
dr vortex flow, in which external torque is
We know, Vr = = Rate of change of radial
dt required to rotate the fluid mass. The fluid
distance of leaf
de mass rotates at constant velocity (angular co).
V8 = r.co = r - = Rate of change of angular 1. Velocity is directly proportional to the
dt
displacement of leaf radius from the centre of the vortex
Given Vr = -(
60 x 10 3
2m
dr
J = - (1)
dt -
IV rI oc
J
dt =-( 60 X 10 + ( 300 X 10
J 3. Forced vortex for real fluids. Hence
3 3
R = 120 x e-rs
R = 120 x 0.533 = 64 m
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...
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ACE
� . �Eogineerq Pi,lmmons
. . : 278 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
At, r = R
3V 2 R
--
aR -
- 4h2
Method-II
The acceleration 'a/ is obtained by taking
total time derivative ofradial component of
As plate is moving down, the volume swept
velocity Yr.
by the plate must be equal to the volume of
water going out radially away due to i.e. a r = �(vr )
dt
continuity considerations.
1.e V x m 2 =(Vr )x 2mx h
V =
r
Vr
2h _ V
[h -r dh l
dr
dt dt
-2 h
2
3Vr
a r = Vr _
av av [·: V. = 0 V = O]
arr + _
atr e ' z
12. Ans : (d)
Sol: Velocity components in x - y planes :
p : U = 2y ; V = - 3x
r
= �: X : + � ( - h\ . :) Q : U = 3xy ; V= 0
R : u = - 2x ; v = 2y
r Continuity equation for incompressible fluid
= �� 2 - :� x (-v) [-: : =-VJ
flow
au
+ = O ___ ( 1 )
av
ax ay
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. A:CE . . Fluid Kinematics
:.� : 279 :
Irrotational flow condition is 13. Ans: (c)
� �F,wnr,:nncl'nNnmas
For Choice P : u = 2y , v = - 3x
� -+-
au a v
ax a y
= - (2y) + - (-3x)
a a
ax ay By continuity equation,
=O+O=O Q i + Q2 = Q3
Satisfied the Equation of Continuity A1V1 +A2V2 = A3V3
i.e., fluid flow is "Incompressible". I x 1 + 2x 2 = 2.5 x V3
au = 2 5
V3 =-=2 m/ s
ay 2.5
av = - 3
ax 14. Ans : (d)
:. Fluid is rotational Sol: Given data,
Velocity Vector of a flow field
For Choice Q : u = 3xy, v = 0
not satisfied V=2xy i-x 2 z j
� I\ I\
= - (-2x) + - (2y)
a a rotation and hence it is given as = 2ro
� = 2ro = curl V
ax ay
= - 2 + 2 = 0 ( Incompressible flow )
j k
av = 0, au =0 ("Irrotational flow")
1
a a
ax ay �=
ax
The flow application requires is to be
ay az
u w
"Incompressible and Irrotational" then
V
k
choice 'R' only satisfies these two
J
a a
1
correlations. �= az
: . Hence correct choice is "R".
ay
2xy - x2z 0
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: 280: Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
(x 2 + y 2
2 2 2 3 2
J J
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: 281 : •
Fluid Kinematics
•
� � ===========================================
�Nmfirm
a x =-
20. Ans: (c)
(x 2 + y 2 )2 Sol: u = -x2 + 3y =-12 + 3(-1) = -4
X
:.
= 2xy = 2 (1)(-1) = - 2
a = u- + v-
av av V
- = -2x =-2,
ax ou ou = 3
'
Y O'f
ax oy
x
r -y
r 2 +
y
(
r
{x + y }- y x 2 y l
2 2
-
av = 2y = 2(-1) = -2
= (x 2 + y2 (x 2 + y 2 X X (x 2 + y2) X (x 2 + y 2
- 2x y + yx - y ax
(x 2 + y 2 J
2 2 3
-
av = 2x = 2(1) = 2
oy
ax = U
ou + v ou = (- 4X- 2) + (- 2) x 3 = 2
The velocity components are not functions
ax oy
of time, so flow is steady according to av + v av = (- 4X- 2) + (- 2X2) = 4
aY = u &
continuity equation,
oy
8u + av = - (x 2 - y 2 (x 2 - y 2 ) o L a = fa 2 + a = .J22 + 42 = .fio = 2./5
=
2
ox oy ( ( x 2 + y2 )2 x 2 + y2 )2
'\/ X y
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C4 Fluid Dynamics
force on the pipe section due to the flow of
One Mark Questions water. (GATE- ME-93)
05. Navier Stoke's equation represents the 02. Water flows through a pipe of diameter 0.30
conservation of (GATE-ME-00) m. What would be the velocity V for the
(a) Energy (b) Mass conditions shown in the figure below?
(c) Pressure (d) Momentum (GATE-ME-88)
S.G = 0.8
06. A vertical cylindrical tank of 1 m diameter is
filled with water up to a height of 5 m from
its bottom. Top surface of water is exposed
to atmosphere. A hole of 5 mm2 area forms at
the bottom of the tank. Considering the 0.3 m Dia
water _____,
coefficient of discharge of the hole to be
unity and the acceleration due to gravity to
be 10 mls2 , the rate of leakage of water (in 03. A jet of water issues from a Nozzle with a
litre/min) through the hole from the tank to velocity 20 mis and it impinges normally on
the atmosphere, under the given conditions, a flat plate moving away from it at 10 mis.
lS --- (GATE - PI-16) The cross-sectional area of the jet is 0.01 m2 ,
and the density of water =1000 kg/m3 • The
force developed on the plate is:
Two Marks Questions
(GATE-ME-90)
01. A mercury manometer is attached to a section
of the pipe shown in the figure. Mercury
levels are indicated when there is no water u = IO m / s
flowing through the pipe. When water starts
flowing through the pipe continuously at
(a) IOOO N (b) IOO N
constant rate in the direction of the arrow, the
(c) 10 N (d) 2000 N
level of mercury at B:
(GATE- ME-87)
04. A fan in the duct shown below sucks air from
the ambient and expels it as a jet at 1 mis to
the ambient. Determine the gauge pressure at
the point marked as A. Take the density of
air as 1 kg/m3 • (GATE- ME-93)
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. . . : 284 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
into the container with a volume flow rate of m{ i:, - I)no, '
balance. Water from a tap is falling vertically
(c)
' Q '; the velocity of the water when it hits the
�u '
water surface is 'U ' . At a particular instant of
time the total mass of the container and water ( d) �U 2 /8k{i,: - 1} 0 , '
due to gravity as 9.8 mls2 . The velocity of air 14. Water is coming out from a tap and falls
in mis is (GATE- ME-11) vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the
stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform
velocity of 2 mis. Acceleration due to gravity
is 9.81 mls2 . Assuming steady, inviscid flow,
constant atmospheric pressure everywhere
and neglecting curvature and surface tension
effects, the diameter in mm of the stream
0.5 m below the tap is approximately
(a) 6.4 (b) 9.0 (c) 12.8 (d) 25.6
(GATE-ME-13)
(a) 10 (b) 1 5 (c) 20 (d) 25
13. A large tank with a nozzle attached contains
three immiscible, inviscid fluids as shown.
15. An ideal water jet with volume flow rate of
Assuming that the changes in h 1 , h2 and h3
0.05m3Is strikes a flat plate placed normal to
are negligible, the instantaneous discharge
its path and exerts a force of 1000N.
velocity is
Considering the density of water as 1000
(GATE-ME-12)
(b) �2g(h 1 + h 2 + hJ
h + h + p3 h 3
p
(c) 2g( P1 1 P 2 2
P1 + P 2 + P 3 J
0
z
(d)
(GATE-ME-14) (S-3)
(a) J2g(Z Q -Z R )
(b) �2g{Z p - Z R )
(c) �2g{Z0 - ZR )
(d) J2gZ Q
gauge pressures are measured to be 400 kPa (a) (small and large), (large and zero) and
and 1 30 kPa respectively . Assuming the (zero and zero)
venturimeter to be horizontal and neglecting (b) (small and zero), (large and large) and
friction, the inlet velocity (in mis) is___ (small and zero)
(GATE -15-Set 1) (c) (large and zero), (zero and large) and
(large and zero)
1 8. A Prandtl tube (Pitot-static tube with C= 1 ) is
(d) (large and small), (small and zero) and
used to measure the velocity of water. The
( small and large)
differential manometer reading is 1 0 mm of
liquid column with a relative density of 1 0. 20. The water jet exiting from a stationary tank
Assuming g=9.8 mls , the velocity of water
2
through a circular opening of diameter 300
(in mis) is ___ (GATE-15 -Set 3) mm impinges on a rigid wall as shown in the
figure. Neglect all minor losses and assume
19. In a vertical piston-cylinder arrangement the
the water level in the tank to remain constant.
force applied to the piston, pushes water
The net horizontal force experienced by the
through a nozzle as shown in the figure. The
wall is --- kN.
water flows out from the nozzle, and reaches
the top of its traj ectory. The kinetic and
Density of water is 1 000 kg/m3 .
Acceleration due to gravity g = 1 0 mls2 .
pressure energies at points ( 1 ), (2) and (3),
respectively, are (GATE - PI-15)
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: 288 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
1
6.2
Jet
Plate
D 1 = 6cm D2 = 4cm
Circular opening of 20 m/s
diameter 300mm
(GATE- 17 - SET- 2)
-= -==- =- =- =-0�-=-= -=
A
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losses in the flow, determine (p2 - p1) for
V 1 = 20 mis, V2 = 10 mis, A1= 0.01 m2 , A2 = 06. Water ( p = 1000 kg/m3) flows horizontally
0.02 m2, density ofwater p =1000 kg / m 3 • through a nozzle into the atmosphere under
the conditions given below. (Assuming
steady state flow)
(GATE- ME-01)
(GATE- ME-90)
From
Venturi
----------
--------- ---------
-------·
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SOLUTIONS
i.e. in 'x' direction
Fx = rilV - m(O) = rilV
Similarly in 'y' direction
One Mark Solutions
FY = m(o)- m(v)
FY =-rilV
Sol: Moving fluid (i.e. Air) produce suction (i.e.
0 1 . Ans: (b)
y
I
02.
I
Fy
Pipe-2
Reason:
If angle of divergence is more then flow
Pipe - 3
pV-2 1 X (1) 2 N2
PA - =
= - 0.5 -
Sol :
2 2 m
V =C v �2g h
4 4 2
2
' ·Jtt· Q' 1. Eqn. of c ontinuity between thr oat and exit :
A . V = A.V
Throat Throat exit exit
rr D� . vt = rr D 2 . u
_ _ .11_ _
m 4 4
pThroat - pExit=-----
Vixit V-iirroat Continuity E qn :
pg 2g 2g As water is in compressible (p1 = p2)
A1 V1 =A2 V2
pThroat - pExit = � [vixit - V-iirroat ]
: (40) 2 V, =: (20) 2 V2
P, -p 16V 2 -V 2
3. Spring stiffness (k)
Force on spring(N) 2 = -�--=-
p 2
�-=- I I
=-------"-----"--'----
Deflection of spring (compression)
30000 15VI2
pThroat) X Area Of Spring piston
1000 2
k = (p Exit - --=
X
Solving V1 = 2 m / s
� u'[(�J-i]x: D!
k=-�--�-- 09. Ans: (a)
Sol: Given data:
x= P �
8
2
[(�J-i]x�o: p 8g = 13600kg/ m
g =9.81 m/s2
h 8g = 150mm = 0.15m
08. Ans: (d)
Sol: Given data:
d2 = 20 mm
d1 = 40 mm T
P1 -P 2 = �p = 30kPa ..l
150mm
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: 296: Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
pg 2g pg 2g
2
_I +Z +-' =-2 +Z2 +__
However for sharp diverging section as
Since Z1 = Z2, since pipe is horizontal
shown in the diagram flow tends to separate
hence pressure will not increase much.
150kPa
Sol: d, = 20 cm = 0.2 m,
d2 = 10 cm = 0.1 m
Pressure gauges
Reducer Pipe
150 (0.25V2 ) 50 V/
-+--'-----=-.:.- =-+- -=----
2
5 2x9.81 5 2x9.81
30 + 0.0032 v/ = 10 + 0.051 v/
Reducer pipe
P1 = 150 kPa 7t 2
Q = A2V2 = (0.1) x20.46
P2 50 kPa (Permissible pressure in
4
= 0.16 m3 /sec
=
Z = 12m
1'
l
Velocity of air = C y = �2.g.h Air
2
Where, C y = l
!IA
t !IA
Datum line
_ 5_0_x_ l 0_ 3_ (
_ 2)_ 2_ VAir = lx.J2x9.81x8.323
E1 = +l0+-
1000 X 9.8 2 X 9.8 = 12.78m/s = 12.8m/s
=>E1 =15.306 m ... .... ...(1)
13 Ans: (a)
E2 = Total energy at S2 = - +Z 2 +--
y2
2 2 p
pg 2g Sol:
_ 20xl0 3 (2)2
E 2 - ----+12+�-=>
1000 X 9.8 2 X 9.8
E 2 = 14.244 m................(2)
:. Head loss, h L = E 1 -E 2 = 15.306-14.244 h3 p 3
---------------------PAtm
Head loss = 1.062 m P 1 (1) (2)
It is observed that total energy at S1 > S2
(15.306m > 14.244m) => (E1 > E2) P1 = Patm + p1 gh1 + p2gh2 + p3gh3
Hence the flow direction from S 1 to S2 and Bernoulli's equation between (1) and (2)
p _1 y2 p y2
head loss is 1.06 m. _ +_ 1
+z I =-2-+-2 +z 2
p 3 .g 2g p 3 .g g
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{Where P2 = Pann) By continuity equation for incompressible fluid
Substitute P1 in above equation A I VI = A 2 V2
Patm +P1 gh 2 +P 2 gh 2 +p 3 gh 3 0 2 Patm-+-
V;
---------- -+- = - (0.02)2 X 2 = (d i }2 X 3.716
p3g 2g p 3 g 2g
7t 7t
4 4
d2 = 0.0147 m
Patm p,gh , +P2 gh 2 +p 3 gh 3 _ Patm V;
p3g p3g p 3 g 2g = 14.7 mm = 15 mm
--+--------- --+-
2gh 3 [1+12__�+
p3 h 3 p 3 h 3
£1._.�J 15. Ans: Range 56 to 57
pQ 2 ·: [Q = AV]
Sol: F = pAV 2 = pQV =
A [V =Q/A]
· 14. Ans: (b)
Sol: By Bemouli's equation lQOO =
1000 X (0.05) 2
y d2
P, p V;
7t
V2 = .J2 +2x9.8lx0.5
2 (p )
_Q_
pg gauge O
y
2g
2
+ Z + -0- = i (p )
pg gauge
y
2
+ Z +---.!..
R 2g
V2 = 3.716 mis
-d 1=20mm--
H=0.5 m
0
0
0
y y 2g ( ; -l J 2 x9 81x ( � -1)
40+- = 13+-
2 2
1
20 20
2
20.4 mm
V; -V/ = 540 ................... (1)
=
0.082 X V1 = 0.042 V2
V2 = 4V1 ................... (2) 23. Ans: 5.5 to 6.0
(2) Sub in (1) Sol: Applying Bernoulli equation t>etween (1)
(4v1 )2 -v/ = 540 and (2)
_p, y2 p y
(15v/ ) = 540 + -' +z I = -2 +- +z 2
2
2
pg 2g pg 2g
v/ = 36
pg = 104 N/m3 (given)
V, = 6 m / sec
3xl0 5 10 2 lxl0 5
- 20
-
--+- -
- +1 = -+- -+z
2
02.
Sol: Given data :
A
-:-:-:-:-:-:-=-��-:-:-:-
Five Marks Solutions
01.
-:-:-:-:. B :
t
- - - - - - - - -o-- - -
--------:{)-----
:<
(a) Pressure at B = Atmospheric pressure, Pann
! A1
Pressure at A = Pressure at B - pgh 2
:· -:-:-·.·.+.·.·.·.f·.·.·.·.·.·.·.·.·1�
v,
g•: ·:<: : :-j@··
.. . ... . ... . . .. ... .......
......................... = Patm- pgh 2
(b) To determine the velocity of flow of a line,
use Bernoulli's equation between points A
and D. Neglecting losses and taking datum
line at D.
OOO ( 2 - o.i 2 ) �
P1 =l 10 50 kPa
2
F = P 1 A 1 = 50 X 103 104 = 5 N
Patm -pgh 2 +h , +0 -0 = palm + VD2
X
pg pg 2g
04.
Patm _ pgh 2 +h , = Patm + VD2
pg pg pg 2g Sol:
03.
Sol: Given data: V1 = 20 m/sec, V2 = 10 m/sec
A 1 = 0.01 m2 , A2 = 0.02 m2
.
p =1000 kg / m3
----- (2)
V3 = ? ,
By continuity equation
Here linear momentum equation alone
A1 V1 + A3V2 = A2 V3
cannot give the value of force 'F' because
A 1 V1 + (A2 -A1)V2 = A2 V3
reaction at the support is unknown.
However the force 'F' can be easily found 0.01 x 20 + (0.02 -0.01) x 10 =0.02 V3
out by applying Bernoulli's equation. 0.2 + 0.1 = 0.02 V3
+- +Z 1 = -1..+_2 +
Z2 V3 = __22_=15 m / sec
0.02
p y2 p y2
1
pg 2g pg 2g
_I
V2
_ 10--4 X 0.1 -
-
10-6
- lO m / s (P1 -P,)= p[ v,' -�; w-(1-�:)vi]
From equation ( 1)
(P, -Pi) = {(1-�: Jv; +(�:)w-v; J
�(0.0346) -(0.00866)
2 2
05. 06.
Sol: Given data: Sol: Consider the control volume which encloses
Venturimeter throat diameter (d2) = 10.5 cm the nozzle. Let F be the backward force
Inner diameter of pipe line (d1 ) = 21 cm required to hold the nozzle. This force is
Coefficient of discharge (Co) = 0.984 provided by the pipe connected to the
Inclined Manometer reading (L) = 9.5 cm nozzle.
Angle of manometer tube (0) = 30°
Let Q = volume flow rate (m3/sec)
Fluid in pipe is water Density
p = 1000 kg/m3
Applying linear momentum balance m x
:. Q,-, - Cn ��,.}zii, direction we get,
J
Where h = pressure head difference between
main pipe line and throat of venturimeter, in
LFX =(mv)out -(mv)D + (mv1.v !
=> -F+P1 A 1 = m(V2 ) -m(V1) = 0
terms of water (in meters)
1.e F = P1 A 1 +m(V1 -V2 )
h = x (SHg -1J
SW
J
3
(
10_4
A 1 = 1t (0.21)2 = 0.0346 m 2
4 = 300-36 = 264 N
A2 = 1t (0. 105)2 = 0.00866 m2
4
03. The velocity profile m fully developed keeping the volume flow rate constant, then
laminar flow in a pipe of diameter D is given the pressure drop in the pipe due to friction
by u =u 0 (1-4r 2 / D 2 ) , where r is the radial will decrease by (GATE- PI-1 1)
distance from the center. If the viscosity of (a) 33% (b) 50% (c) 70% (d) 80%
the fluid is µ, the pressure drop across a
length L of the pipe is (GATE-ME-06)
07. Water flows through a pipe having an inner
radius of 10 mm at the rate of 36 kg/hr at
µ u 0L 4µ u 0 L
(a) (b) 25° C. The viscosity of water at 25 ° C is 0.001
kg/m.s. The Reynolds number of the flow is
D2 D2
04. Two pipes of uniform section but different 08. For a fully developed flow of water in a pipe
diameters carry water at the same volumetric having diameter 10cm, velocity 0.1 mis and
flow rate. Water properties are the same in kinematic viscosity 10-5 m2/s, the value of
the two pipes. The Reynolds number, based Darcy friction factor is
on the pipe diameter, (GATE- PI-08) (GATE- 14) (S-1)
(a) is the same in the both pipes
(b) is large in the narrow pipe 09. Water flows through a 10mm diameter and
(c) is smaller in the narrower pipe 250 m long smooth pipe at an average
(d) depends on the pipe material velocity of O. lm/s. The density and the
viscosity of water are 997kg/m3 and 855x10-
05. The pressure drop for laminar flow of a 6N.s/m2, respectively. Assuming fully
liquid m a smooth pipe at normal developed flow, the pressure drop (in Pa) in
temperature and pressure is (GATE- PI-09) the pipe is __ (GATE- 14) (S-2)
(a) directly proportional to density
(b) inversely proportional to density 10. Consider laminar flow of water over a flat
(c) independent of density plate of length lm. If the boundary layer
(d) proportional to (density)°-75 thickness at a distance of 0.25 m from the
leading edge of the plate is 8mm, the
06. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe of boundary layer thickness (in mm), at a
\
1 distance of 0.75m, is
constant diameter and the flow is laminar. �f
the diameter of the pipe is increased by 50% (GATE- 14) (S-2)
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ACE
.:-\.J=
�� · ==·=
=== cnng =·=·==========:=
Publicatioos 6=
0=
3= =rn
: =====H d=
=·= ==
M h=
ec= =
am s=
·c= =ur=
&=T =M
oo = =·=e=cy
�=hin =
1 1. A fluid of dynamic viscosity 2x 10-5 kg/m.s 15. Consider steady flow of an incompressible
and density l kg/m flows with an average
3
fluid through two long and straight pipes of
velocity of l m/s through a long duct of diameters d1 and d2 arranged in series. Both
rectangular (25 mm x 15 mm) cross-section. pipes are of equal length and the flow is
Assuming laminar flow, the pressure drop turbulent in both pipes. The friction factor
(in Pa) in the fully developed region per for turbulent flow though pipes is of the
meter length of the duct is ____ form, f = K(Reln, where K and n are known
(GATE-ME-14) (S-3) positive constants and Re is the Reynolds
number. Neglecting minor losses, the ratio
12. For a fully developed laminar flow of water of the frictional pressure drop in pipe 1 to
(dynamic viscosity 0.00 1 Pa-s) through a
pipe of radius 5 cm, the axial pressure
that in pipe 2, ( !: ) , is given by
di J
di di
{5
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SOLUTIONS
. =-
v
max
. . vmean -
One Mark Solutions 1 .5
6
: VMean = -= 4m/s
0 1 . Ans : Twice . 1 .5
2gD
:. h f oc V 2
4fL-- 4fLQ 2
Q = -----'--
-
h - -
' 2gDA '
2g x ( :) ' D'
03. Ans : (a)
Sol: Average velocity lies at a distance of L
}i
h f oc -5 (If f, Q are cons tan t)
r= from centre of pipe. D
:. Vavg
2
= -R ( )
dp
4 µ dx
[i-�J 2R 2
=
- R 2 dp
( )
8 µ dx
Note: Quantity outside bracket represent
hr 1
maximum velocity. Average velocity _1 = -
hf2 64
is half of maximum velocity.
h r2 = 64 h rI
04. Ans: (c)
Sol: Given data : 06. Ans: (b)
Maximum velocity, VMax = 6m/s Sol:
Mean velocity, VMean -?
- •
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07. Ans: (d)
Sol: Couette flow is the laminar flow of a
Two Marks Solutions
viscous fluid m the space between two
parallel plates, one of which is moving
01. Ans (d)
relative to the other. The flow is driven by
Sol: Given data :
virtue of viscous drag force acting on the
Diameter of pipe (d) = 0.04m
fluid and the applied pressure gradient
Centre line velocity (Vmax) = 1.5 mis
parallel to the plates. Discharge (Q) = ?
Vmax
08. Ans: (b) For pipe flow, =2
vavg
Sol: Average velocity is defined as ratio of
2
discharge and area. In fully developed :. Vavg = � = 0.75 m / s
= 7t (
2
and area is constant average velocity in 4 75 n x 4 x 75
) =
developing region as well has to be constant. 4 100 X 100 1000000
n x 300 3n 3 (m
10000 00 10000 Sec J
= =
09. Ans: (c)
(X ) 1 1 0.332
Sol: = -Crx P Uoo = - x
2
x pU<X)2
2 2 pU00 x
'tw
02. Ans: (c)
µ
t'¥ Sol: In Laminar flow through a long pipe, the
1 32 µ. V. L
pressure drop (hr) =
pg . D 2
oc -
,J-;.
3 2 µ.�
Pressure drop per unit length =
pg .D
hr cx: - 1
L D
- 2
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" " ACE
�•-�PuNiramw
. . . . : 309: Laminar Flow
Circular pipe
u0 [o -�] = -
D2
I 8p . r
2µ ox
8r 2µ 16µu 0
Ap
=U o ( 2 ) ( )=
•
..u
D r D2
L L
Shear
04. Ans : (b)
Velocity stres
* d2
profile
Sol: d1
R e, = v1 .D 1 ,
V1
I· L
·I
Shear stress (t) across a section varies with Similarly
'r' as 1
ap
R e oc (Keeping volume flow rate and
D
ax
ap r
t =- .- -- - (1) fluid properties same)
ax 2
Newton's law of viscosity across section, 05. Ans: (c)
du Sol: Pressure drop for laminar flow of fluid in
-r =µ . [where y =R -r :. dy =0 -dr]
dy
� 32µUL
[Negative sign is used, as r is measured from pipe P=
centre line of profile]
D2
Where,
du µ = Dynamic viscosity of liquid (Pa-se�)
t =-µ . - ___ (2)
dr
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U = Average velocity (mis) Af> oc 1
L = Length of pipe (m) D4
Pressure drop in the pipe decrease by
D = Diameter of pipe (m)
(1 .SD ) -(D )
4 4
Pressure drop is independent of density, = = 0.8 = 80%
(1.5D )
4
re--
:WATER
R =
� = l OOO x n(0.01) 2 x V
3600
:. V = 0.0318 mlsec
pVD
---- L ---�
0.001
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: 31 1 : Laminar Flow
lx0.0683xlx(1) 2
= = l.8N / m 2 = l.8Pa
2 X 0.01875
x 1=0.25m
I
4 �,
j.--x2 =0.75m----+I
� �0.25 dP 32µVavg
= =
82 0.75 dL d2
:. 82 = 13.86 mm 32 X 0.001 X Vavg
=> lQ =
(10x10-2 J
11. Ans : 1.7 to 2.0
=> Yavg = 3.125 mis
Sol:
V or laminar flow
b� Ymax = 2 X Yavg = 2x3.125 = 6.25 mis
)'J-
�
0
V, - 6.2{1- ( / 6.24 m /sec
2ab
Hydraulic mean diameter (Dm) =
a+b
25x15 13. Ans: (c)
Dm = 2 ( )
25 + 15 Sol: For laminar flow
Dm = 18.75mm = 0.01875m 32µVL
hr =
pgd 2
p.V.D m 1 X 1 X 0.01875
V2 = 2v 1
Re = = d
2
µ 2 x 10 � , d 1 _ _2
Re = 937.5 < 2000 (Laminar flow)
-
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' ;a,." ACE . . . . : 312 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
n 5-n
8P -n d;- d
u = -� ( )(1-__c_2 J = 2 -n =
J
2
� d 5- n
•.. �pl Q
dI
2
4µ dx R
X
2 I
Q
R 2 8P - R 2 R 2 8P l
u· 1 = - ( ) (l = - ( )x
4µ c1x 4 x R2 J 4µ 4 ax Five Marks Solutions
8P l6µu 1
(- )= 01.
ax 3R 2 Sol: Diameter of pipe (d) = 0.2m
8P R K x µ x u Length of pipe (l) = 20 km = 20,000 m
= -- x - = ---1
2 axR
't
Oil flow rate (Q) = 0.01 m 3 / Sec
w
16 x µ x--C..
- u R K x µxu Dynamic viscosity of oil ( µ )=0.08 pa-sec
-2 1 x - = __ 1
3R 2 R Density of oil (p) = 900kg/m 3
___c_
: . K = l6µ 2u 1 R _!_ �
= = 2.66
Loss of head due to viscosity (hL) of oil,
x
3R 2 µu 1 3 32µVf
x x
hL=
pgd 2
Discharge (Q) = Area x velocity (Average)
15. Ans: (a)
. fLy2 ptl.,y2 = d2 X V
Sol: �P = pghr = pg x -- = -- 4
7t
2gd 2d
0.01 =
For both the pipes p & L are same 4( 0.2)2 x v
7t
fV 2 :. V = 0.3183 m/Sec
:.� oc -
. h _ 32 X 0.08 X 0.3183 X 20000
900x9.8Ix(0.2) 2
Now V= _Q_2
.. L -
Q
A d hL= 46.146 meters of oil
oc
viscosity of oil
p = pgQh L
= 900 x 9.8 1 X 0.01 X 46. 146
= 4074.23 Watt
= 4.074 kW
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Turbulent Flow
04. Oil flows through a 200mm diameter
One Mark Questions horizontal cast iron pipe (friction factor,
f = 0.0225) of length 500m. The volumetric
01 . The parameters which determines the friction
flow rate is 0.2m3Is. The head loss (in m) due
factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are:
(GATE-ME-88)
to friction is (assume g = 9 .81 m/s2)
(a) 116.18 (b) 0.116
(a) Froude number and relative roughness
(c) 18.22 (d) 232.36
(b) Froude number and Mach number
(c) Reynolds number and relative roughness.
05. For steady, fully developed flow inside a
(d) Mach number and relative roughness
straight pipe of diameter D, neglecting
02. Prandtl's mixing length in turbulent flow gravity effects, the pressure drop �p over a
signifies (GATE-ME-94) length L and the wall shear stress 'tw are
(a) the average distance perpendicular to the related by (GATE-ME-13)
mean flow covered by the mixing pD pD 2
(a) t w = � (b) t w = �
particles. 4L 4L2
(b) the ratio of mean free path to pD
(c) t w = �
characteristic length of the flow field. 2L
(c) the wavelength corresponding to the
lowest frequency present in the flow field. 06. Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid
(d) the magnitude of turbulent kinetic energy. through a circular pipe of diameter, D.
Identify the correct pair of statements.
03. Consider steady laminar incompressible axi I. The fluid is well-mixed
symmetric fully developed viscous flow II. The fluid is unmixed
through a straight circular pipe of constant III. Ren < 2300
cross-sectional area at a Reynolds number of IV. Ren > 2300 (GATE-ME-14) (S-3)
5. The ratio of inertia force to viscous force (a) I, III (b) II, IV
on a fluid particle is (GATE-ME-07) (c) II, III (d) I, IV
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,r ' .
· · · .·.·. ·.·.·.·. .· · · ·
07. The instantaneous stream-wise velocity of a
. .. ...
turbulent flow is given as follows: � �
I I
u' (x,y, z, t)
L
(GATE - 16 - SET - 1) TANK. I
t !
(a) u'/2 (c) zero (d)
TANK. 2
u
(b) -- u
2 2
03. Fluid is flowing with an average velocity of
V through a pipe of diameter D. Over a
Two Marks Questions length of L, the "head" loss is given by
fLV 2
The friction factor, f, for laminar
01. In the case of turbulent flow of a fluid through 2gD
•
a circular tube (as compared to the case of flow in terms of Reynolds number (Re) is
laminar flow at the same flow rate) the ___ (fill the blank) (GATE-ME-94)
maximum velocity is .................., shear
stress at the wall ts 04. The discharge velocity at the pipe exit in
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . , and the pressure figure is (GATE- ME-98)
drop across a given length is .............. The
correct words for the blanks are, respectively: h
(GATE- ME-87)
(a) higher, higher, higher
(b) higher, lower, lower
(c) lower, higher, higher
(d) lower, higher, lower (a) figli (b) �2gh
(c) �g(H+h) (d) 0
02. Shown below are three tanks, tank 1 without
an orifice tube and tanks 2 and 3 with orifice
tubes as shown. Neglecting losses and Statement for Linked Answer QOS & Q06
assuming the diameter of orifice to be much A syringe with a frictionless plunger contains
less than that of the tank, write expressions water and has at its end a 100 mm long needle of
for the exit velocity in each of the three 1 mm diameter. The internal diameter of the
tanks. (GATE-ME-93) syringe is 10 mm. Water density is 1000 kg/m3 •
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: 315 : Turbulent Flow
-
tube is The diameter of the pipe is increased by 10%
p for the same flow rate and a head loss of h2 is
noted. Assume friction factor for both the
cases of pipe flow is the same. The ratio of
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ACE . : 316 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans : (a)
One Mark Solutions Sol: Reynold's Number =5
. Inertia force
1.e ----- = 5
01. Ans:(c) Viscous force
Sol:
04. Ans: (a)
Q
2
{ -)
f..f.v f..e A
Sol: hr = =
2
2gd 2gd
f.£.Q 2
12.lxd
VD
Reynolds number, Re = -
V
= ---5
0.0225x500x(0.2) 2
From Moody's diagram it can be concluded = 116_18 m
12.1X (0.2) 5
_
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�•· r..,,,,,.Pnlimnllfl
• • • • : 318 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
L-----"--� d =lmm
-�-:-�1
-�1 : -_ :. : : :
�q\:_- -
needle Vz, .<;;
01. Ans : (c)
-f�.-
10 mm/s
F
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: 319 : Turbulent Flow
1000 2
P1 = (1 -O.O I 2 )
2
P1 = 499.95 N / m 2 P1 v; - v/
= ---+ h f [where y = pg]
Fore on Plunger _ F_ pg 2g
p1 = =
Area of plunger 1t 0 2 p
4 => P1 = (V; -V/ ) +pgh r
F
2
499.95 = lOOO
p1 = ((1) 2 -(0.01) 2 )+ lOOO x9.81x 0.3262
1t (0.01) 2
2
P1 = 499.95+3200 � 3 700 N/m 2
4
:. F = 0.0393 say 0.04(N)
Force on Plunger
P = Pr essure on Plunger = -----
Area of Plunger
06. Ans (c)
1
F
V.D 3 700 = => F � 0.3N
Sol: Reynolds number of water in needle = 1t (0.01) 2
Re = p.V.D = lOOOxlx0.001
V
4
= lOOO 07. Ans:(c)
µ 1.0xl0-3
Since, Re is less than 2000, the flow 1s Sol: Applying continuity equation and law of
Laminar. conservation of energy;
The velocity at P and at end of pipe (open to
f = Darcy friction factor
atmosphere end) is same since diameter of
64
= = � = 0.064 pipe is same i.e.,Vp = Vend
Re 1000
Kinetic energy of water = potential energy
. f.R.V 2
Head 1oss m needle , h r =
2gd
2
0.064 X 0. 1 X (1)
2 X 9.8 1 X 0.00 1
h r = 0.3262m of Water
Applying Bernoulli's Equation at point 1
and point 2
p1 y p y
+Z +- ' = -2 + Z 2 + - 2 + hr
2 2
Y 2g Y 2g
_
I
·: Z 1 = Z 2 , P2cgauge> = O(Atmosphere)
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: 320 : Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
d 2 V = 0.02122 _(l )
h OC -5 � -2 = =0.62
5
1 h I d
d h i (l . l d 1 J Reynolds Number,
V.d V.d
Re = = = 5000V.d
V 0.0002
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: 321 : Turbulent Flow
Friction factor
64 64 0.0128
(f ) = = =
V.d
Re 5000 V.d
Darcy's friction head loss in pipe flow
f.L.V 2
hc -
2gd
0.0128
x400xV 2
V.d
8 = ----- = 0.0128x 400V
2x9.8I xd 2x9.81 d 2
0.261V V
8 = -- 2 => -2 = 30 .656 ------ (2)
d d
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C7 Boundary Layer
05. Flow separation in flow past a solid object is
One Mark Questions caused by (GATE-ME-02)
(a) A reduction of pressure to vapour
01. A streamlined body is defined as a body pressure
about which (GATE-ME-87) (b) A negative pressure gradient
(a) The flow is laminar (c) A positive pressure gradient
(b) The flow is along the streamlines (d) The boundary layer thickness reducing
(c) The flow separation is suppressed to zero
(d) The drag is zero
06. If 'x' is the distance measured from the
02. The predominant forces acting on an element leading edge of a flat plate, then laminar
of fluid in the boundary layer over a flat plate boundary layer thickness varies as
in a uniform parallel stream are: (GATE-ME-02)
(GATE-ME-90) (a) 1/x (b) X 4 5
I (C) x 2
(d) X 112
(a) Viscous and pressure forces
(b) Viscous and inertia force 07. Consider an incompressible laminar
(c) Viscous and body forces boundary layer flow over a flat plate of
(d) Inertia and pressure forces length L, aligned with the direction of an
incoming uniform free stream. If F is the
03. The necessary and sufficient condition which ratio of the drag force on the front half of the
brings about separation of boundary layer is plate to the drag force on the rear half, then
dP (GATE-ME-07)
- > 0 (True /False) (GATE - ME-94)
dx (a) F < ½ (b) F = ½
(c) F = 1 (d) F > 1
04. As the transition from laminar to turbulent
flow is induced in a cross flow past a circular 08. Within a boundary layer for a steady
cylinder the value of the drag coefficient incompressible flow, the Bernoulli equation
drops. State: True /False. (GATE -15 -Set 2)
(GATE-ME-94)
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: 323 : Boundary Layer
-
u I
frictional p
Two Marks Questions 02. The mass flow rate (in kg/s) across the
section q-r is
01. For air flow over a flat plate, velocity (U) (a) zero (b) 0.05 (c) 0.10 (d) 0.15
and boundary layer thickness (8) can be
expressed respectively, as 03. The integrated drag force (in N) on the plate,
between p-s, is
::. = ¾� - �(�)' ; 0 = � (a) 0.67 (b) 0.33 (c) 0.17 (d) zero
placed along a gas stream flowing at U = 10 mis. The velocity profile is uniform with a value
The thickness of the boundary layer at section r-s of Uo at the inlet section A. The velocity
is 10 mm, the breadth of the plate is 1 m (into the profile at section B down stream is
paper) and the density of the gas, p = 1.0 kg/m3 . y
vm 8'
Assume that the boundary layer is thin, two -
o ::; y ::; 8
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25 velocity and '8' is the local boundary layer
thickness. If o * is the local displacement
07. Air ( p =1.2 kg/m and kinematic viscosity,
3
8*
v = 2x10-5m2/s) with a velocity of 2m/s 8
thickness, the value of is
flows over the top surface of a flat plate of (GATE - 17 -SET -l)
2
length 2.5m. If the average value of friction (a) - (b) 1 -� (C) 1+� (d) 0
7t 7t 7t
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" . ACE . . : 325 :
�"··�:,,.........PuHir,qg Boundaiy Layer
Vo
YL Yo
,,.,•'
I
I
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SOLUTIONS
05. Ans : (c)
One Mark Solutions
06. Ans : (d)
0 1 . Ans : (c) eg : Aero foil Sol: For Laminar boundary payer 8 oc x 1 1 2
For Turbulent boundary layer 8oc x 4 1 5
02. Ans : (b)
�-.-9 �
Laminar Turbulent
0 = 82° 0 = 120°
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: 327: Boundary Layer
Where x = Distance from leading edge (m) = l m = (1.5 X 10-5 X 1.23) x __3_ 2_
2 X 0.0127
x_
V 1.5 X 10-5
Sol: m = pQ
•
(Critical Reynold's Number for laminar =p dA.U
flow)
O=
4.64 x 4.64xl = p. B.dy. U y = p . B. -.
u Jo d
JR::
y y
.J1,33 X 10 6
= 8 8
�.[�I -
0
u= Y _.!.(Y ) ]
2 8 2 8
00
't 8
Where -2 = 0 = -
pu 6 :. mentering = m leaving
Proof :
. . pVm 8
m Bc = m oE = --x 1
0 = J � (1-� ) dy 2
ffi co = pVm {H - 28)xl
OU U
0 = J Y (1- Y ) dy V 8 pV 8
0 8 8 :. pu 0 Hxl = P
-m-+pVm {H -28)+-m-
6
0= [r -L]
28 382
2
PUoH =pVm8 + p Vm (H -28)
2
Incompressible (p = c)
0
8
0 =- UoH =Vm8 +VmH - Vm28
uoH =VmH -Vm8
UoH =Vm (H - 8)
't =p.u2.0
Vm --H
! O xt'
- I x ( 1 0) x ( J U o H -8
2
- =
1
vm = --
=0.167 N say 0.17 N
Uo 1 - l
-
H
04. Ans : (c)
Sol: 05. Ans : (b)
Sol: Applying Bernoulli's Equation at (1) and (2)
outside Boundary layer
2 2
llo
-+ -
PAVA = PB + VB
- -
pg 2g pg 2g
A B X
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-:,".•" · �CE
.. .. =Fii�1p1�-
:·.!
·
::rm�11[!Pu�li�
· ·
��-=·�=======....:,.;
ilir-i = 329 =========== Boundary Layer
�� ����:����
! u dy u,! 2
= (
r)- (r)'
6
= u0 [i__LJ
8 38 2
= u0 [ 8 -§. J
3
06. Ans: (c)
6
0
2
Sol: J pudy = - u 0 p8 . . . . . . . . . .. (2)
0
3
Substitute (2) in 1
8/ = � · . . 2 s:
m(ba) = m(bd) + 3 u ou
1 2p u 0 8
82 = 1 X - = 0.5 tnm
2 ril 3
1 = _M_ + --=---
rilba P 8
Uo
07. Ans: 0.0158 to 0.0162
Sol: p = 1.2 kg/m3
v = 2 x 10-5 m2/sec
V = 2 m/sec 09. Ans: (b)
nI
Cr -
�Rex
pV 2
F0 = C r x -- x A
2
++: cot
2 2
= [& + : cot) - o - : cos(o)]
1.328 l .2 x 2 2
x x (2.5 x l )
2 x 2.5 2
=
- 28
2 x l0-5 =8
7t
= 0.0 1 59 N o· 2
:. - = 1 - -
()
7t
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. . .
�Niliralml : 330: Fluid Mechanics & Turbo Machinery
� � =========================================
Any particle which crossing line AC has
Five Marks Solutions velocity in x direction as free stream
velocity Vo.
Momentum influx m x direction can be
01. calculated as
Sol: Consider the control volume ABC as shown (momentum in flux)x =( rhin ) x Vx
in the diagram.
pV0 xv = p Vg
=(
2 ) ° 2
8 8
_ _ _ _ _ __ __ _c
As the layer above any fluid element in the
I
:---,r
1 1---+--..r
I
boundary layer moves faster, the shear stress
on top face of the element is towards the
I
direction of flow
The continuity consideration shows that the
mass coming into the control volume by ---+'tyx
crossing line AC must be same as the mass
going out of control volume by crossing line
BC because there is no mass flow across line
AB
l DL
By the complementary action of shear
stresses 'txy ='tyx and the direction of stresses
must be such that there is balance of all
=rn.BC =f pudy
forces as well as moments.
rn.AC
0
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C8 Dimensional Analysis
02. For the laminar flow of water over a sphere,
the drag coefficient CF is defined as CF =
F/( pU2D2), where F is the drag force, p is the
Two Marks Questions
01. Oil (kinematic viscosity, = 1.0 x 10-5 fluid density, U is the fluid velocity and D is
m2/s) flows through a pipe of 0.5 m the diameter of the sphere. The density of
Voil
diameter with velocity of 10 mis. Water water is 10000 kg/m3 . When the diameter of
(Kinematic viscosity, = 0.89 x 10� m2/s) the sphere is 100 mm and the fluid velocity
is flowing through a model pipe of diameter is 2 mis, the drag coefficient is 0.5. If water
Vw
20 mm. For satisfying the dynamic now flows over another sphere of diameter
similarity, the velocity of water (in mis) is 200 mm under dynamically similar
conditions, the drag force (in N) on this
(GATE - 16 - SET - 1) sphere is _____
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
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SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: 20
Two Marks Solutions Sol: For dynamic similarity
(Re)1 = (Re)i
01. Ans: 22.25 (range 22.0 to 22.5)
Sol: Oil Water
U1D1 = U2D2 . . . . . . . . . . . . (1)
d = 0.5 m d = 0.02 m In general CF = f (Re) hence in dynamically
v = l O m/sec v=? similar conditions CF1 = CF2 . . . . . . . . . . (2)
Now,
F2 = CF2 pU;D;
--- V x0.02
l O x 0.5 ---- = cF1 pu�o�
=
l .O x l0-
5 6
0.8 9 x l0-
( ": CF1 = CF2 & U 1D1 = U2D2)
� V = 22.25 mis = 0.5 X 1000 X 2 X 0. 1 2
= 20 N
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Cg Turbo Machinery
(b) 15.0 kW
(a) 7.5 kW
One Mark Questions (c) 22.5 kW (d) 37.5 kW
01. In terms of speed of rotation of the impeller 05. A phenomenon 1s modeled usmg n
N , discharge Q and a change in total head H , dimensional variable with k pnmary
through the machine, the Specific Speed for a dimensions. The number of non-dimensional
pump 1s ____ (fill the blank) variables is (GATE-ME-10)
(GATE-ME-94) (a) k (b) n (c) n - k (d) n + k
(GATE-ME-93)
_
Exit
Entry
03. At a Hydro-electric power plant site, this point equals 200 kPa gauge and velocity
available head and flow rate are 24.5 m and 1s 3 mis. Steam tables show saturation
3
1 0. l m /s respectively. If the turbine to be pressure at 65 °C is 25 kPa, and specific
installed is required to run at 4.0 revolution volume of the saturated liquid is 0.00 1 02
m3/kg. The pump Net Positive Suction Head
(GATE-ME-06)
per second (rps) with an overall efficiency of
(GATE-ME-04)
90%, then suitable type of turbine for this (NPSH) in meter is
site is ----------------------
(a) Francis (b) Kaplan ---------------
--------
(a) 24
(c) Pelton (d) Propeller
(b) 26
(GATE-ME-07)
(a) 0.449 bar (b) 5.503 bar inlet. The blade efficiency of the runner is
(c) 44.9 1 1 bar (d) 55.203 bar
(a) 25% (b) 50 %
05. A large hydraulic turbine is to generate 300 (c) 80% (d) 89%
kW at 1 00 rpm under a head of 40m. For
initial testing, a 1 :4 scale model of the 08. A model of a hydraulic turbine is tested at a
turbine operates under a head of 1 0 m. The head of 114th of that under which the full
scale turbine works. The diameter of the
(GATE-ME-06)
power generated by the model (in kW) will
be model is half of that of the full scale turbine
If N is the RPM of the full scale turbine, then
(a) 2.34 (b) 4.68 (c) 9.38 (d) 1 8.75
(GATE-ME-07)
the RPM of the model will be
06. A horizontal - shaft centrifugal pump lifts
water at 65 °C. The suction nozzle is one (a) N/4 (b) N/2
meter below pump centerline. The pressure at (c) N (d) 2N
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09 . Match the items in columns I and II. (a) 0 (N-m) / (kg/s)
(GATE-ME-07) (b) 1 .25 (N-m) / (kg/s)
Column I Column II (c) 2.5 (N-m) / (kg/s)
P: Centrifugal compressor 1 : Axial flow (d) 3.75 (N-m) / (kg/s)
Q: Centrifugal pump 2: Surging
R: Pelton wheel 3 : Priming
Five Marks Questions
S: Kaplan turbine 4: Pure impulse
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-1 , S-4 01. Identify the type of turbo machinery for
(c) P-3, Q-4, R- 1 , S-2 the following case. Specify the reasons.
(d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 Power developed = 430 kW;
Operating head = 300 m;
10. Water having a density of 1000 kg/m3 , issues Speed = 600 rpm. (GATE- ME-90)
from a Nozzle with a velocity of 10 mis and
the jet strikes a bucket mounted on a Pelton 02. A 7MW hydro turbine working under a
wheel. The wheel rotates at 10 rad/s. The head of 10 m at a rotational speed of 125
.mean diameter of the wheel is 1 m. The jet is rpm is to be designed and developed by
split into two equal streams by the bucket; conducting model tests in a laboratory.
such each stream is deflected by 120° , as Maximum possible discharge to the model is
shown in the figure. Friction in the bucket 600 liters per second at a constant head of
may be neglected. Magnitude of the torque 5m. Determine the minimum scale of the
exerted by the water on the wheel, per unit model and its speed if the expected
mass flow rate of the incoming jet, is efficiency of the model is 85 %.
(GATE-ME-OS) (GATE- ME-91)
Deflected Jet
04. In a hydroelectric station, water is available 05. A water turbine delivering 10 MW power is
at the rate of l 75m3/s under a head of 18m. to be tested with the help of a geometrically
The turbines run at a speed of 150 rpm with similar 1 :8 model, which runs at th� same
overall efficiency of 82%. Find the number speed as the proto type.
of turbines required if they have the (a) Find the power developed by the model
maximum specific speed of 460. assuming the efficiencies of the model
(GATE-ME-96) and the proto-type is equal.
(b) Find the ratio of the heads and the ratio
of mass flow rates between the proto-
type and the model. (GATE-ME-97)
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SOLUTIONS
05. Ans: (c)
Unit power,
02. Ans: (b)
p
Pu = (for hydraulic turbines)
03. Ans: (c) (Ht 2
Sol: Number of Non-dimensional Parameters P, P2
=m -n (as per Buckingham's 7t -Theorem) (H , yi (H 2 )3 1 2
--- 2
= ---
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: 339: Turbo machinery
09. Ans: 0.25 (range 0.24 to 0.26) Specific work = [Vw l + Vw2] . u
N-# = [271.8 9 + 80.76] 150
Sol: N5 = -5-
X
p
� p: = N�
[N ]2 (1 )2 = = 0.25 Two Marks Solutions
2
01. Ans: (d) 02. Ans: (c)
10. Ans: 52.807 (range 50 to 54)
Sol: Given: V1 = 300 mlsec
03. Ans: (a)
u = 150 mlsec
Sol: Given data:
Vn = Vn (a = 25 °)
H = Head available = 24.5 m
Q = Flow rate = 10.1 m3/sec
N = Speed of turbine = 4 rev/sec
= 4 X 60 = 240 rpm
r1 o = Overall efficiency = 0. 9 .
Power developed by turbine,
p = p g QH x 11 0
1000 x 9 .8 l x l0. l x 24.5 x 0. 9
p= ;;; 2185 kW
Specific work = [Vw l + Vw2] . u 1000
Vw 1 = V1 cos 25 Specific speed of turbine, Ns:-
Vw 1 = 300 cos 25 = 271.8 9 mis _ N fp _ 240
N - -
.J2i8s
Vn = Vn = V 1 sin 25 s (H) ¾ (24.5) ¾
Vn = 300 sin 25 = 126. 78 mis Ns = 205.816
Yw2 = )v; -Vf� The value of Ns in the range of 50 - 250.
r
f = 0.01
( : ) � )
02 m . D' ,12
,
V =2m / s
H = 5m
P2 = ?
:. Pm = P, ( �: J (::
Frictional head loss in pipe - 300(-1 ) (-
2
-
1 0 ) .5
1
4 40
f.LV 2 O.O lx4000x2 2
hr = =
2gD 2x9.81x0.2 = 2.34 kW
40.77 meters of water
06. Ans: (a)
=
l
In model analysis approach Ps 980.4 kg / m 3
0.00102
We have, P ocQH
:. H v = 25x10 2.6m
3
oc (AV) H 980.4x9.81
oc D 2 .JH. H NPSH = ?
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"·•"
'!.
. .ACE
.. ,,.,,.,,..Ni:atm
. : 341 : Turbo machinery
= u2 = 8
. ', llb I ) - � 8 9%
9 u 21 9
g(-
8g
= He = U 1 Vw1 = u �
llb H g.H g.H
The energy balance gives
(Energy supplied to the turbine) = (Turbine
output) + (Losses at exit)
= /f x 2 x N = � x 2 x N
Assuming no losses with turbine and no
draft tube is used. The energy loss will be : . Nm = N
unconverted kinetic energy at exit i.e., Speed of model turbine is equal to speed
(Note: draft tube converts this kinetic energy of prototype (actual) turbine.
at exit partially into useful work)
=
10 rad/sec. N# 600J4'3o
Specific speed (Ns) = =
Deflection angle =
120°
9 . 965 =
Let u =
u1 u2 mean tangential velocity of
= =
D 1
=
- . co = - x l O = 5 m / s Head of model turbine (Hm) = 5 m
2 2
Nm Speed of model turbine
=
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: 343 : Turbo machinery
( Hp )½ ( DP )
pm
( Hm )½ ( Dm ) :. N m = 178.94 rpm
2 2
Dm Pm H p 312
7000 2_ ½ Scale ratio ( ) )
( ) Dr Hm
=
Pp
X(
25 10
=
Dp 9.95
= say(lO:l)
(5 3 1 2
Dm 1 25000 5
= 20 0)
X
Dm 1
Scale ratio = 1 : 10 -- 0.159
DP 6.287
= = =
04.
03.
Sol: Discharge of water (Q) = 175 (m3 I sec)
Sol: Given data:
Head of water (H) = 18 (m)
Prototype turbine power (Pp) = 25 MW
Speed of turbine (N) = 150 (rpm)
25000 (kW)
Overall efficiency (11 0) = 82% = 0.82
=
460 =
rp;:
150 -y ro
(18) ¾
:. Po = 12927.5 kW
:. Number of turbines required
25830
s14 s14
Hm
p
= - --
H
05.
Sol: Given data :
Power developed by proto-type turbine,
Pp = lO MW
Dm
Geometric scale ratio = =1:8
DP
(a) ( ) =
N;D, . ( /o' ),
= 3.05x10 -4 MW
= 0.305 kW
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Fyderabad
1 1 . I I H ( ! I ll� P1 1 l d 1t .1!11 1 1 1 ...
Heat (Questions)
Transfer
PageNo.346
CONTENTS
-- --- ---=- ---------===---
---= - -- -- - --- -
01. Thermal conductivity is lower for 04. In descending order of magnitude , the
thermal conductivity of a) Pure iron, b) liquid
(a) wood (b) air water, c) Saturated water vapour, d) Pure
(GATE-ME-90)
(a) a b c d (b) b c a d
(GATE-ME-01)
02. Two insulating materials of thermal
conductivity K and 2K are available for (c) d a b c (d) d Cb a
lagging a pipe carrying a hot fluid. If the
05. One dimensional unsteady state heat transfer
radial thickness of each material is same
equation for a sphere with heat generation at
the rate ' qg ', can be written as
(a) Material with higher thermal conductivity
(GATE-ME-94)
values of dimensions are given 06. In case of one dimensional heat conduction
in a medium with constant properties, T is
07. A well machined steel plate of thickness L is 08. In a composite slab, the temperature at the
kept such that the wall temperatures are Th interface (Tinter) between two materials is
and Tc as shown in the figure below. A equal to average of the temperatures at the
smooth copper plate of the same thickness L two ends. Assuming steady one dimensional
is now attached to the steel plate without any heat conduction, which of the following
gap as indicated in the figure below. The statements is true about the respective
temperature at the interface is Ti. The thermal conductivities. (GATE-ME-06)
temperatures of the outer walls are still the
same at Th and Tc · The heat transfer rates are
q1 and q2 per unit area in the two cases
respectively in the direction shown. Which
of the following statements is correct ?
(GATE-PI-05) 2b b
L
Tc (a)2K1 = K2 (b)K1 = K2
(c)2K1 = 3K2 (d) K1 =2K2
STEEL
09. A pipe of 25 mm outer diameter carries
steam. The heat transfer coefficient between
the cylinder and surrounding is 5 W/m2K. It
is proposed to reduce the heat loss from the
,.._L ...... L ... pipe by adding insulation having a thermal
conductivity of 0. 0 5 W/mK. Which one of
q2 T;
q2 the following statements is TRUE?
(GATE-ME-11)
Steel Copper
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· .A!
�.. ..t'"=.!Fn�,gm
" � · CE
:� ��l,li:·.r,ti
:-�·0111
==========::::.,·· ��
349 · · =============�����
Conduction
...
f.t�,,
ic,:rq Pu
(b) The outer radius of the pipe is less than (a) The direction of heat transfer will be
the critical radius. from the surface at 100 ° C to the surface
(c) Adding the insulation will reduce the at 0 ° C
heat loss. (b) The maximum temperature inside the
(d) Adding the insulation will increase the wall must be greater than 100 ° C.
heat loss. (c) The temperature distribution is linear
within the wall
1 0. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat (d) The temperature distribution 1s
conduction, without heat generation, in a symmetric about the mid-plane of the
plane wall; with boundary conditions as wall.
shown in the figure below. The conductivity
of the wall is given by k=ko+bT; where ko 12. Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and
and b are positive constants, and T is outer radii, ri and r0, respectively, length, L
temperature. (GATE-ME-13) and thermal conductivity, k. Its inner and
outer surfaces are maintained at Ti and To,
respectively (Ti > T0). Assuming one
dimensional steady state heat conduction in
the radial direction, the thermal resistance in
the wall of the tube is
As x increases, the state temperature gradient (GATE-ME-14-SET-3)
(dT/dx) will
(a) remain constant (b) be zero
(c) increase (d) decrease
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ACE
t.•·=
,:·���·-:
·� �m���N��Y�®�::oo:•=========�:��:�:============��:���:::
35 0 Heat Transfier
1 3. As the temperature increases, the thermal 16. A hollow cylinder has length L, inner radius
Ji
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant ln(r2 / r1) ln(r1 / r2)
(GATE-16- SET-2)
(a) (b)
(d) increases upto a certain temperature and 2 1tkL 2 1tkL
then decreases 2 1tkL 2 1tkL
(c) (d)
ln(r2 /r1 ) ln(r1 !ri}
14. If a foam insulation is added to a 4cm outer
diameter pipe as shown as figure, the critical 17. Steady one-dimensional heat conduction
radius of insulation ( in cm) is __ takes place across the faces 1 and 3 of a
composite slab consisting of slabs A and B in
perfect as shown in the figure, where kA , k8
(GATE-15-Set 2)
A B
Pipe
kp;pe= 15 W/m-K
2 3
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: 351: Conduction
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: 352: Heat Transfer
(d) 2xl0 4
(c) 944.72 W/m (d) 9447.21 W/m
4
(GATE-ME-07)
0.5m 0.25m
08. The location of maximum temp within the (a) 17.2 (b) 21.9 (c) 28.6 (d) 39.2
plate from left face is
(a) 15mm (b) 10mm
2.5x3x3m size thermally insulated room
12. A 100 W electric bulb was switched on in a
13. With an mcrease in the thickness of 16. For the three dimensional object shown in
insulation around a circular pipe, heat loss to the fig below. Five faces are insulated. The
surroundings due to (GATE-ME-06) sixth face (PQRS) , which is not insulated,
(a) Convection increases, while that due to interacts thermally with the ambient, with a
conduction decreases convective heat transfer coefficient of
(b) Convection decreases, while that due to 10W/m2K. the ambient temperature is 30°C.
conduction increases heat is uniformly generated inside the object
(c) Convection and conduction decreases at the rate of 100W/m3 • assuming the face
(d) Convection and conduction increases PQRS to be at uniform temperature, its
steady state temp is (GATE-ME-08)
14. A long glass cylinder of inner diameter =
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: 356 : Heat Transfer
insulation.
!lti•i!@jjj4i.jl4Aflnj@jj.jjii I I I I I I I I I I
yderabad Delhi Bhopal Punc Bhubaneswar Lucknow! Patna Bcngaluru Olennai Vuayawada Vmg T'lfUpari I Kukatpally I Kolkata
"" . ACE
. .. : 357: Conduction
:.�.,"F�PoNir:mma
02. An electric hot plate 1s maintained at a
temperature of 350°C, and is used to keep a
Insulated
03. A gas filled tube has 2mm inside diameter T1 = 200°C, h 1 = 50 W/m2K,
and 25cm length. The gas is heated by an T2 = 25 °C, h2 = 10 W/m2 K,
electrical wire of diameter 50microns located Assuming one dimensional heat transfer
along the axis of the tube. Current and condition. Determine the rate of heat transfer
voltage drop across the heating element are through the wall. (GATE-ME-2001)(5M )
0.5A and 4 volts, respectively. If the
05. A copper tube of 20mm outer diameter' 1 mm
measured wire and inside tube wall temps are
thickness and 20m long (thermal
175 °C and 150°C respectively, find the
conductivity 400 W/mK) is carrying
thermal conductivity of the gas filling the
saturated steam at 150°C (Convective HTC
=
tube.
=150 W/m2K). The tube is exposed to
(GATE-ME98) (SM)
(GATE-ME-2002)(5M)
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SOLUTIONS
03. A ns: (c)
One Mark Solutions Sol: . Q = same , �x = same
. �T
0 1 . A ns: (b) Q=-
R th
Sol: Generally fluids will have lower K than
:. �T oc Rth
solids and within fluids, gases will have low
� 1
"K" and out of steam and air the density and �T oc -· � �T oc -
K
viscosity of steam is higher than air hence
Ko1asswool< K refractory brick < Ksteel < Kcopper
air has low "K"
Hence (�T) for glasswool is maximum
02. A ns: (b)
Sol: Case (i) Case (ii)
04. A ns: (c)
Sol: Out of the given substances pure Aluminum
has high K and steam has low K.
ax a. at
2 2 --2 = --
BT 8 2 T
Q I < Q; - oc --2
Hence case(ii) is correct at ax
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: 359 : Conduction
Rs 2b - b
S ol:
K I A K 2A
-- = -
q2 - - Tc
Th
Rs + R c 2 1
=> - = -
Because Rs + Re > Rs Kl K2
:. q 1 > q2 => K1 = 2 K2
1
·: Q oc ----
Resistance 09. Ans: (c)
Resistance is inversely proportional to S ol: r0 = 0.01 25 m = 1 2.5 mm ,
thermal conductivity. Hence , it is fact that ho = 5 W/m2 K, Ki = 0.05
conductivity of steel is less than conductivity K i 0.05 �
r = = = = -1- = O.O l m
of copper. h 5 1 00 1 00
: . Rs Re
C
= 1 0 mm
0
(Th - TJ (T - TJ
>
Q Q
- Ti > Ti - Tc
Th
re = 1 0 r0 12.5 �r
S ol:
=
1 0. Ans: (d)
S ol: Given , K = Ko + bT
T - T1 - Ti
Q= i =
! ( K :) = 0 - ( 1 )
T2
RI R2
= Tl + T2 -------- (2)
(K 0 + bT)- = C 1
Tavg
dx
2
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•
"" ..�
-:, , , �FtipiC'ftqNJiracv.D
dT
. . ACE
C1
. . : 360 :
dx K 0 + bT 03 < 02 < 0,
� - = ----'--
Note:
dT
dx
decreasing.
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. �CE . . : 361 : Conduction
�:&ia,n,,erqPoNicaarm
=====================================
14 . A ns: 4 .9 to 5.1
S ol: Critical Radius = klho
l30 - T
Q= = 1 2500
0. 1
= 0.1/2 = 0.05 m = 5 cm
:. T = 67.5°C
20
15 . A ns: (a)
18 . A ns: 0 .4 17
S ol:
S ol:
ro
ro = 1mm , k = 0.15 W/m-K
h = 25W/m2-K 50 mm
16 . A ns: (a)
T - Tz L'.lT
S ol: Q = 1 =
.en(�)
2n x 50 x l
R"
= 4.17075 X 1 0-4 K/W
1 03 K
fn(})
21t kL = 4. 1 7075 x10- 4 X
103 W
RTo = 0.417 K/kW
Rth = _.en_(���)
21tkL
20 100
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: �
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V
P.iira«vn
• •
: 362 :• •
Heat Transfer
. � ==========================================
�T , Tanp = -
Tana = - 1 L 2 L
�T-
Two Marks Solutions
K 1 x A(�Ti ) K 2 x A(�T2 )
i 2
Q= =
01. Ans: A-2, B-5, C-6 , D-4 LI L2
K1 K 2- K 1 Tana
02. Ans: (d) => - = --
Tana Tanp K2 Tanp
:. -- =-
20
Sol: r2 = - = 10 mm , Ki = 0.5 As a > P
Tan a > Tan P => K1 > K2
2
ho = 20 W/m2K
0· 5
rC = K; 0.025 = 25 mm Note:
h0 20
= =
tc = re - r2 = 25 - 10 = 15 mm
05. Ans: (b),
Sol: r0 = 0.5mm
04. Ans: (a)
ki = O. l W/mK
Sol:
hi = l OOW/mK
O. l =
r = .!s_ = 0.001m = Imm
C h i 100
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: 363 : Conduction
glass : K� = 1.2W/mK
I
q
I
solid
After integration w.r.t. x
8T
k
= - q X+ Cl ------ ( 1 )
Tw 48 C, Tg 40 C, 8x
=
° =
°
Kw 0.6 W/mK,
=
Kg 1 2
. W/mK
= Again integration w.r.t. x
x2
( :a = l x ! O ' Kim T = - q + c 1 x +c 2 ----- (2)
k2
(Q cond)glass = (Q cond)water Boundary condition at x 0, T 1 6 0 °C
= =
dT dT 1 6 0 0 +0 + C2 => C2 1 6 0 °C
- K g .A( J = - K w .A( J
= =
dy g dy w At X 0.02 m, T
= =
120 °c
80 x 10 6 0.022
dT K dT 0.6 120 = +C l X 0 •02+1 6 0
=> ( J = w ( J = X l X l0 200 X 2
4
dy g K g dy 1 2
.
=2000 °C/m
� (:;J,
w
C1
(:a
dx
S ol: (Qconv) water (Qcond} water
Differentiating equation (3) w.r.t. x
=
6 00
Sol:
= -------
0.025 0.055
ln In
0.01 + 0.025
21t x1 9 21t x 0.2
I 60°C
= --- 0__ = 944.23 W/m
6 0_
0.0076 79+0.627
°
120 c
ITmm 20 mm
Sol:
Im
From the equation (3)
At x = 5 mm = 0.005 m
.
q 0 ·005 2
T = Tmax = - +2000 x0.005+1 6 0
k 2
0.5m
Tmax = 1 6 5 ° C
R.,q = R1 + R23
R 2 R 3 =25 + 3.57
= R1 +
R 2 +R 3
=28.57 k/W � 28.6 k/W
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�·• · ACE
:�PuNic:atiooa : 365: Conduction
� � ====================================
12. A ns: (d) 13. A ns: (a)
S ol: r ---- Electrical work (8W) S ol: As the insulation thickness increases, the
I
I
surface area exposed for H.T by convection
I
I
I increases and wall thickness also increases
I
: Boundary hence the convection H.T increases and
I
I
conduction H.T reduces. This is because as
I
I
the radius increases effective material
I
·---------------� I
increases � Resistance increases
Assuming, air inside the room 1s at
atmospheric condition 14. A ns: (b)
Patrn = 100 kPa 0.03 m =
S ol: ri = 0.015 m ,
Cv = 718 J/kgK, 2
R = 287 J/kgK 0.05
r0 = = 0.025 m
2
PV = mRT
Kg = 1.05 W/mK
100 x 3x 3x2.5 = m x 0.287 x 293
� m = 26.75 kg
(8W)electrical = -100 J/s X 24 hr
(work done on the system)
0.025
= -100 J/s X 24 X 3600 S In
= O.Ol 5 = 0.0774 K / W
=-100 X 24 X 3600 J 2n x l .05 x l
For non-flow process
8 Q = dU + 8W 15. A ns: (b)
0 = dU + (8W)e1ectrical [8Q = 0 insulated] S ol:
K
2 1 0c -23 ° C
of = 0' of = 1 0 x 2 = 20
1 0. 1 10c
(DBT)
m
(Tdp)
ox oy
As Q is same -+ due to y- direction.
2 1 - 1 0. 1 7 1 0. 1 7 - (- 23)
= => L = 0. 407 m
1 L 1
-- + - - 1 8. A ns: (c)
8A 1 .2A 23A
S ol:
1 6. A ns: (d)
Sol: Q=O 20°c - 2° C
0.3 0. 1 5
20A 20A 50A 50A
Q
Q=O
Q=O
Q
conduction
Q=O s
20 - T T+2
As all other '5' surfaces are well insulated, 0.3 1 0. 1 5 1
--
- +- +-
heat transfer occurs in 1 dimension that is 20 20 50 50
froI? surface PQRS to outside.
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: 367 : Conduction
600 - Ti Ti - 300
f. / kA f. / 2 kA
= --'----
. ,,, .... - -- ... ... . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
(600 - Ti )k = 2k(Ti - 300)
. . . .
600 - T = 2T - 600
Assuming water is in contact with the lateral
1200 = 3 Ti
I I
dx 2 k k at
X
0.9 20 =- 17.5 kW
-- +-
qg = 4x10 7 W/m3
Co = 800 C, CJ
° = -250 C /m, C2 = -40 C/m
° ° 2
k = 25W/mK
T(x) = Co + C1X + C2X qs R 2
Tmax - Ts = 4K
2
( !: J = C1 + 2C 2
4xl0 7 x(5xl0 -3 ) 2
Tmax - Ts = -------
X
d2 = 4 X 25
': 2c 2 = 2 x(- 40) = -80 °C / m 2
dx Tmax-Ts = 10 °C
dT
( J = c 1 =-250 C
dx x=O
°
d 2 T Q 8 1 of
-2 +- = -- r2 = 0.057 m, Ki = O. l W/mK
dx k a at
ro = 0. 157 m, hi = 570 W/m2K
k
Where, a = - ho = 12 W/m2K, Ti = 500 C
p cP
L= l m To = 30 ° C
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: 369 : Conduction
1 1
Ri conv = o 0.025
h; x A1 570 x 1t x 2 x 0.05x l (R:ond)CI = -- = -- = 0.0005
=
Kc1 A 50 x l
5.58 X 10-3
0.0008
=
(R:ond)E = -- 0.000762
o
1n r2 1n
57 K E A l .05 x l
Rs Cond -
- r, 5o - 4.852 x 10-4
2:n:K p L l l
21t x 43 x l (R:onv) - 0.000182
=
h s x A 5500 x l
ln ro 1n
157
Rtotal = 1.444 X 10- 3
Ri Colltl - r2 - - 57 = 1.613
2:n:K . L 21Z' X 0.1 X 1 1
(i) UA = --
1 = 1 R totat
I
Ro conv =
h Ao 12 x 2.1r x 0.157 x l 1
:. U = = 692.5 W/m2 K
0.0845 A (R totat )
0
- o
Q = Ts T 03.
Ro conv Sol: r, = 1 mm , L = 0.25 m ,
=> Ts = To + Q x Ro conv. = 53.31°C r2 = 25 microns = 0.025 mm
I = 0.5 A , V = 4 volts.
02. T1 = 175 C ,
°
T2 = 150°C
Sol:
: ho = 5.5kW/m2K
9s 0c
j_
}mm
KE = l .05 Enamel 0.8mm
C.I
Kc1 =50
3so0c
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_
" � . . . . : 370 : Heat Transfer
'!.,."F....,,..Pwiliranrm
ACE
0.025 R 2 = -- = = 3.33
h 2 A I 0 x 0.03 x1
1
2 x ln --
0.025 = 0.1878 W/mK Reg = R1 + Ra + Rbc + � + R2
=> K =
21t X 0.25(25) 0.67+0.0335+0.6088 + 0.0335 + 3.33
4.67
=
04. T1 - T2 200 - 25
Sol: B = 1 m Q= = = 37.4 W
R eq 4.67
Ka = Ki = 50 ,
Ha = Hd = 3 cm , Hb = He = 1.5 cm
05.
L1 = L3 = 0.5 m , L2 = 0.1 m.
do = 20 mm , di = 18 mm ,
The resistance network for the given
Sol:
0.075
R1 = Conv. Resistance of fluids r = .!s_ = x l OOO = 15 mm
ha 5
1 1
= - = --- = 0.67
C
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'!.�-�
., \I •
ACE
..��PnNirma
• • •
: 371 : Conduction
ln � 40
1n
r2 =
Ri cootl - 20
21t K . L 21t x 0.075 x 20
20 mm Insulation
-
= 0.0735
I
l���I:((� Pipe
Ra conv =
h. x A 3
1
=
5 x 2n x 0.04 x 20
1
= 0.0398
1---------\ \/
Req = 0.119
�T 150 - 27 =
Q= 1033 W
R. CODY R eq 0.119
=
Rp cond R; coDd Ra coDY
= = 0.00589
150 x n x 0.018 x 20
r
1n 2 ln
20
- r , = 18
Rp cootl
- 21t K c L 21tK400 x 20
= 0.0000021
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erabad Delhi Bhopal Punc Bhubaneswar Lucknow I Patna! Bcngalwu I Chcnnai !Vuayawada I Vmg I TllUpati I I
Kuk.alpaily Kolkatt I
Fins and THC
(GATE-ME-1994)
One Mark Questions
04. Lumped heat transfer analysis of a solid
01 . The heat transfer process between a body object suddenly exposed to a fluid medium
and its ambient is governed by an internal at a different temp is valid when.
conductive resistance (ICR) and an external (GATE-ME-01)
convective resistance (ECR). The body can (a) Biot number < 0.1
be considered to be a lumped heat capacity (b) Biot number> 0.1
system if (GATE-ME-89) (c) Fourier number < 0.1
(a) ICR> ECR (d) Fourier number >O.1
(b) ICR is marginally smaller than ECR
(c) ICR = ECR 05. The value of Biot number is very small (less
(d) ICR is negligible. than 0.1 ) , when (GATE-ME-02)
(a) The convective resistance of fluid is
02. Biot number signifies (GATE-ME-91) negligible
(a) The ratio of heat conducted to heat (b) The conductive resistance of fluid 1s
convected negligible
(b) The ratio of heat convected to heat (c) The conductive resistance of solid 1s
conducted negligible
(c) The ratio of external convective (d) None of the above
resistance to internal conductive
resistance 06 . Which one of the following configurations
(d) The ratio of internal conductive has the highest fin effectiveness?
resistance to external convective (GATE-ME & Pl-12 )
resistance (a) Thin, closely spaced fins
(b) Thin, widely spaced fins
03. When the fluid velocity is doubled the
(c) Thick, widely spaced fins
thermal time constant of a thermometer
(d) Thick, closely spaced fins
used for measuring the fluid temperature
reduces by a factor of 2 (TIF )
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. ACE
. . .
07. Biot number signifies the ratio of
: 373 :
(c)55°C (d)100°c
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: 374 : Heat Transfer
convective heat transfer coefficient 1s c = 600 J/kgK. The time required in seconds
40W/m2K, the heat loss (in W ) from the fin to cool the steel ball in air from 10 30 ° C to
1s 4 30 °C is
(a) 0.08 (b) 5.0 (b) 9 31
(GATE-ME- IO)
(a) 519
(GATE-ME-13)
05. A spherical steel ball of 12mm diameter is 07 . A steel ball of 10 mm diameter at 1000 K is
initially at 1 OOK. It is slowly cooled in a required to be cooled to 350 K by
surrounding of 300K. The heat transfer immersing it in a water environment at 300
coefficient between the steel ball and the K. The convective heat transfer coefficient
surrounding is 5W/m2K. The thermal is 1000 W/m2-K. Thermal conductivity of
conductivity of steel is 20 W/mK. The steel is 40 W/m-K. The time constant for
temperature difference between the centre the cooling process is 16s. The time
and the surface of the steel ball is required (in s) to reach the final temperature
't
1s___
(a) large because conduction resistance is
(GATE-ME-11) (GATE-16- SET-1)
far high than the convective resistance. 08. Two cylindrical shafts A and B at the same
(b) large because conduction resistance is initial temperature are simultaneously
far less than the convective resistance. placed in a furnace. The surfaces of the
(c) small because conduction resistance is shafts remain at the furnace gas temperature
far high than the convective resistance. at all times after they are introduced into the
(d) small because conduction resistance is furnace. The temperature variation in the
far less than the convective resistance. axial direction of the shafts can be assumed
to be negligible. The data related to shafts A
06. A steel ball of diameter 60 mm is initially in and B is given in the following Table.
thermal equilibrium at 10 30 °C in a furnace.
It is suddenly removed from the furnace and
Diameter (m) 0.4 0.1
Quantity Shaft A Shaft B
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: 375 : F1NS & THC
0 - X L
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
(GATE - PI-16) (a)141 (b)163 (c)189 (d)210
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• •
F.ugioeaq • •
ACE
PuNiravn : 376 : Heat Transfer
.,,,,??
(GA TE-ME-1989) (SM)
Area= I 0m2
02. An iron rod (K= 41.5W/mK) of 15mm
diameter and 160mm long extends out of a
hot surface of temp 150°C into environment
at 36°C. the free end of the rod is insulated.
x= l
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SOLUTIONS
1
't'* OC -
One Mark Solutions
oc ! For laminar
v ·5
't'* �
; = �J
.8 = (_y_)0.8 = ( )0 8
_!_ . = 0 .574
't'•
0
0 3. Ans: False 2v 2
(
Sol: From Transient heat conduction equation
't' 1 V2
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: 378 : Heat Transfer
1 00 °C 1 00° c
fin.
I
I
2L
Too = 40°C
08. Ans: 8
°
1 00 °c
Sol: Q t = 6W
_____ 55 C
_
. hf
B =
k k k
(OR)
Shorter rod I
dT 400x0.706xl0-3
100°C ___ --Insulated
=0 0.00235
.,.__
20 x 6
L
°
100 c dx
T
Hence Bi <0.1 � The problem can be
ss 0c analyzed by using Lumped heat parameter
[100°c [,___
• �j_
L :
_____,<I
x longer rod
L
10o•c I
analysis
-
T ---
T00 = -B x F
Tb - Too
e I 0
298 - 300
--- = e -B x F
T
30 -300
°
100 c - -------·------- - I 0
-2
-- = e -B, x F
ss 0c - - - - - -
- 270
0
270
= e ( P�p t)
X -
In shorter rod ,
dT
at x = L , = 0 and (T)x=L = 55° C - = - (for sphere)
V d
dx A 6
Similarly , 270 = hA 't
fn( )
dT 2 p v cP
For longer rod , at x = L, - = 0 ,
400 x 6 x -r
fn(I35) =
dx
The temperature of longer rod will be 55 C °
8500 X 0.000706 X 400
(T)x=L = 55° C [for longer rod also] -r = 4.906 sec
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03. Ans: (c)
m= {4h = 8.944
S ol: Given, TO = 500 K, Too = 300 K \l kd
d = 5 x10-3 m , K = 400 W/mK Le = 100 +1 .25 = 101 2
. 5mm
p = 9000 kg/m3 Cp = 385 J/kg K
h =250 W/m2 K Q = �hP k A c x S b x Tan h(mLJ
Heat loss by cooper ball = heat gained by fluid
= �40 x n x 5 x l0 -3 x 400 x : x25 x l0 -6
p at
- m e of = h A (T.O - T00 )
x (1 30 - 30) x Tan h(8.944 x101 2
. 5 x10 -3 )
of
at
- p vcP = hA (500 - 300) = 0.0702 x 100 x0.71 9 = 5.05W
0.005 d 12x l0 -3
of = 50000 5 x - 5 x ---
6 at
- 9000 X X 385 h 6 = --- 6 - = 0.0005
Bi = f = -
k K 20
of Since Bi < 0.1 , lumped head analysis
at
=> - = -1 7.31 K/s IS
valid.
Hence Rconctuction <<<<< Rconvection
(-ve sign indicates cooling of copper ball)
t------'
temperature drop from centre to surface is
S ol: Too = 30°C
almost tends to zero
1 30°C ct5mm
10mm I
06 . Ans: (d)
h = 40W/m2K ' k = 400 W/mK
Sol : Given ' d = 6 0 X 10-3 m ' To = 1030 °C '
using concept of correction length 1.e =20
Too = 30 ° C, h W/m2K ,
L c = L +(:) , it can be converted as short p= 7800 kg/m3 , k = 40 W/mK,
Cp = 6 00 J/kg K , T = 430 °C
fin with insulated end tip.
h.L c h.R
(a) Bi = = = 5 x10 -4
k 3k
Bi < 0.1 Lumped analysis can be applied .
Fydcrabad l Delhi I Bhopal I Pune l Bhubaneswarl Lucknow I Patna. I Bengaluru l Chcnmi IVuayawada j Vizag I Tirupari I Kukatpally l Kolkala I
: 381 : FINS & THC
430 - 30
20x6xt
1 0 30 - 3 0
3
= e 7800x600x60xW-
400
-- = e -4 2735x!0- xt
4
1000 .
- 0.9162 = - 4.2735 X 10--4 X't Temperature difference = 0, but still heat is
't = 2144.122 secs transferring, this will happen only when heat
transfer coefficient will be infinite.
07. Ans: 42.22 sec (range 42.0 to 42.5) If h � oo,
hLc Then Bi � oo
Sol: Biot Number =
Dimensionless from the functional
Volume d dependence may be expressed as
For sphere Le = =
surface area 6 0* = f (r*, Fo, Bi)
hd l OOO x 0. 01 0 0 As Bi � oo
:. Bi = = = . 416 < 0 .1
6k 6 x 40 And at center line, r* = 0
Hence lumped heat analysis is used. The only variable is Fourier number
T-T :. (Fo)A = (Fo)B
-hA,t -t
-=e = e(
pVCp
00
Ti - Too
=(
(;:t
--
1000 - 300
0
T0- T00
pvc
1t 2
V --4-=-D---
L DL
= = -__
1t
A 2x-D2 + 1tDL 2D + 4L T = Tco + (TO- Tco ) e
-ht
pcL,
T = 141 °C
= 0.0024 39
4
300- 100
=e
750 - 100
t
780 1x4���� 002439
250x 't
Five Marks Solutions
- 1.178 =
7801 X 473 X 0.002439
't = 42.4 3 sec 01.
Sol: ll r.n =
(Q
�rx
Sol: For long fin
10 . A ns: (b) 8=8b
Q max
T - Tco
--'-'-- = e-mx
decreases with x.
Q without fin
Q without fin =
h . A (Tb- Too)
R = 0.0 3m , To = 220 C
Sol: Given data
°
c As 4 1tR 3
the surface area.
. . hL 200x0 .01
B 10t number 8 1 = --c = ---- Q without fin = h. Ac (Tb- Too )
k 400
= 5x10-3
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.,....
� ,�""' ACE : 383: FINS & THC
':, :�PnlilirPD
. . . .
.
T = A +Bx + Cx2
T - T 00 cosh(m(L - x)) At x = 0 , T = A = 900 ° C
T - T 00 cosh(mL)
0 At x = 1 , T = 900 + -
( 200)-50
_
-
82 T . = a T
- k- + q p c-
ax.
in
82 (A + Bx + C x 2 ) 8T
2
k + q - pc
m
• _
-
ax. 2
8T
- k(0.8x0 +2c)+ q = p c
in
8T
40(0 + O + 2x(- 50))+1000 = p c
in
aT
- 4000 + 1000 = p c-
m
aT
- 3000 = p c-
m
aT
p c- = rate of change of energy storage per
in
unit volume.
Total rate of change of energy storage
aT
= p c-xvol
in
=- 3000 x (A x L)
= -3000 ( l Q X } ) =- 30000 W
=- 30 kW
X
= 30 kW -
( ve sign indicates that decrease
in energy storage).
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Convection
04. Heat transfer coefficients for free convection
One Mark Questions in gasses , forced convection in gases and
vapors , and for boiling water lie ,
01. For the fluid flowing over a flat plate with respectively , in the range of
Prandtle number greater than unity , the (GATE-ME-98)
thermal boundary layer for laminar forced (a)5-15 , 20-200 and 3000 - 50000 W/m2K
convection (GATE-ME-88) (b) 20-50 , 200-500 , and
50000-l OOOOOW/ m2K
(a) is thinner than the hydrodynamic (c) 50 -100 , 500 -1000 and
boundary layer 100000 - 1000000 W/ m2K
(b)Has thickness equal to zero (d) 20 - 100 , 200 - 1000 and
(c) is of same thickness as hydrodynamic a constant 1000000 WI m2K
boundary layer
(d) is thicker than the hydrodynamic 05. For flow of fluid over a heated plate , the
boundary layer following fluid properties are known:
Viscosity = O.OOl Pa.s; Specific heat at
02. In pool boiling the highest HTC occurs in constant pressure = 1 kJ/kgK; Thermal
(GATE-ME-90) conductivity = 1 W/mK , The hydrodynamic
(a)Sub-cooled boiling zone boundary layer thickness at a specified
(b)Nucleate boiling zone location on the plate 1s 1mm , thermal
(c)Partial film boiling zone boundary layer thickness at the same
(d)Film boiling zone location is (GATE-ME-08)
(a)0.001mm (b)0.01mm
03. For air near atmospheric condition flowing (c)1mm (d)1000mm
over a flat plate the laminar thermal
boundary layer is thicker than hydrodynamic 06. A coolant fluid at 30°C flows over a heated
flat plate maintained at a constant
temperature of 100°C. The boundary layer
boundary layer (T/F) (GATE-ME-94)
equation
08. For laminar forced convection over a flat (b) third-order nonlinear partial differential
plate, if the free stream velocity increases by equation
a factor of 2, the average heat transfer (c) second --0rder nonlinear ordinary
coefficient differential equation
(a) remains same (d) third-order nonlinear ordinary
(GATE-ME- 14- SET-2)
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: 387: Convection
(GATE-ME-92)
thickness of the thermal boundary layer
12. In the laminar flow of air (Pr = 0.7) over a would be
heated plate, if 8 and 8r denote, respectively (a) 0.1mm (b) 0.5mm
the hydrodynamic and thermal boundary (c) 1.0mm (d) none
(GATE-ME-96)
(b) 8 >81 correct answer using the code given below
(d) 8 = 0 but 81 0 * the Lists:
List - I List - II
13. The ratio of momentum diffusivity (v) to A. Grashof number 1. Mass diffusion
(GATE - 16 - SET - 3)
14. Grashof number signifies the ratio of 6. Radiation
(a) inertia force to viscous force 03. Water (Prandtl number = 6) flows over a flat
(b) buoyancy force to viscous force plate which is heated over the entire length.
(c) buoyancy force to inertia force Which one of the following relationship
(d) inertial force to surface tension force between the hydrodynamic boundary layer
(GATE-ME-01)
thickness(c5) and thermal boundary layer
thickness (81) is true
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ACE : 388 : Heat Transfer
�-� " • • • •
w
negligible. The ambient temperature is 25 °C, 11. The ratios of the laminar hydrodynamic
the plate has a total surface area of O. l m2 boundary layer thickness to thermal
and a mass of 4 kg. boundary layer thickness of flows of two
The specific heat of the plate material is
fluids P and Q on a flat plate are _!_ and 2
2.5KJ/KgK. The convective heat transfer 2
coefficient in W/m2K, at instant when the respectively. The Reynolds number based on
plate temp is 225 °C and the change in plate the plate length for both the flows is 10 4 • The
temp with time d T/dt = -0.02K/s, is
Prandtl and Nusselt numbers for P are _!_ and
8
(a) 200 (b)20 (c) 15 (d) 10 35 respectively. The Prandtl and Nusselt
(GATE-ME-07)
1 3. The non-dimensional fluid temperature 15. For flow through a pipe of radius R, the
profile near the surface of a convectively velocity and temperature distribution are as
cooled flat plate is given by follows :
Tw - T = a + b 1. + c(.r.J where y is 1-(;)'l
2
(c) 0.6C 2
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SOLUTIONS
agitation induces considerable fluid m1xmg
One Mark Solutions and that promotes substantial increase in the
heat flux and boiling heat transfer coefficient.
01 . Ans: (a)
Sol: Pr> l 03. Ans: False.
=> momentum diffusion > thermal diffusion Sol: For air near the atmosphere condition,
oh Prandtle number, Pr = 1 => Ob = Ot
= (Pr)½ => oh > ot
ot
04. Ans: (a)
02. Ans: (b) Sol: h = 5 to25 � free convection in gasses
Sol: =25 to250 � force convection in
Interface
-=-==---- Bubbles --o...,____ Film
evaporation
gasses and vapours
1 --- II IV v-----'VI-- = 5000 to 10 5 � Boiling and
condensation
· · · hgases < hvapour < hliquid
Pure convection:
heat transferred
by super heated
Sol: o =1mm,
evaporation talces
place
Partial, nucleate
c O.OO l x l OOO
Pr = µ P =
boiling & unstable
interface nucleate film =l
K 1
Because Pr = 1
0.1 1 .0 10 100 1 000 1 0,000
oh
Temperature excess, (ts - tsa1)C
=> - =1 => oh = ot = 1
ot
(Boiling curve for water : Surface heat flux as a
06 . Ans: (b)
function of excess temperature)
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: 392 : Heat Transfer
os
� = ( 2v ) .
h1 V
- - -)
- - -)
S ol: P - 4 ; Q - 1 ; R - 3 ; S -2
In the No slip region
Heat transfer by conduction = Heat transfer
10. Ans: (d)
by convection in y direction
S ol: The differential equation is 2f "' + ff ' = 0
- KA( ! J = hA(Tp - TJ
T
y =O
y 11. Ans: (d)
- K(: (30 + 70e-y )J = h(Tp - T"' ) S ol: No thermal boundary layer smce heat
y ) y=O transfer is zero
- (1)(0 + 70 X (-1)e- y t=O = h(100 - 30)
12. Ans: (c)
- (- 70e -y t=O = h X 70
S ol: Hydrodynamic thickness/ thermal thickness
70 x l
70e --0 = h x 70 =:> h = = 1 W/m2K
70 � Pr
81
�
113
If Pr > 1 � 8 > 81
07. Ans: (b)
If Pr < 1 � 8 <81
Sol: For laminar flow � flow separation occurs
at 82 ° i.e. , approx at point 2. so that local
13. Ans: (a)
heat transfer coefficient will be minimum at
C
point 2. S ol: Prandtl number = µ P = �
K a
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: 393 : Convection
pV Dh
·: Pr = 1 => Sol: Reynolds No (Re)=
� (Pr)3 µ
I
81
_ h
()
=> h = = 25 _ 58 W / m 2 K
µc 0.67
Pr = _P = 0.0248 Heat transfer Q = hA 11 T = h( Pl )11T
2(1.5) X 1 (30-20)
k
Note : = 25.58 X
=> h = 10 W/m2K
Local heat transfer coefficient ,
2
by , -h = -
1 L
h .dx
L Io x Pr = .!. for fluid P
h = 2 X hL
and Pr = 8 for fluid Q
�=2
hL For laminar flow over flat plate
:. In laminar flow h = 2h L Nu oc (Re)°. s . (Pr)°-3333
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. ACE
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" : 395: Convection
-k(ofJ = h(Tw -T J
O'j y=O 2C 1 C 2 R ( �
r- J dr
U m R J0
=
{{�;.J
2 3
R
- h .L
a(r)
=> Nu = - = ----,-----,--
K
2'.=o
L
{•+b(t)+{t)'J
a(r)
=
=
(f) o
=i._ c 1 c 2
10 u m
= [b + c2(L)] =b + 2c(0) = b
L ( )=o = 0.6 C2
f
16. Ans: 6 (range 5.90 to 6.25)
14. Ans: 4613.66
Sol: V = 10 mis, x = 0.5m,
pVD 10 3 x1 x 25 x10-3
Sol: R = = v = 30x10 -6 m 2 /s
µ 7.25 X 10-4
e
V xx lOx0.5
Re = =
=�xl0 4 =34482.75
X
U 30 x10-6
7.25 = 166666.66 = 1.667xl0 5 < 5x10 5
Nu = 0.023(34482.75) °- 8 x (4.85) 0.4
:. Flow islaminar,
Nu =184.54 = hD/k
0
2. =(Pr)3 =1
I
Nu xk 184.5488x0.625 8,
h= = =4613_66
D 25xl0-3
:. 8h = 8t
5x0.5
0 -�-
15. Ans: (c)
Sol: U (r,x) = C1 h - Fe: - .Jl.667 X 10 5
are specified as 0.86 and 0.08 respectively, two surfaces of the plate is
the absorptivity of the glass plate is (GATE-ME-03)
(ME-GATE-88) (a) 13.66 W (b) 27.32 W
(a) 0.86 (b) 0.08 (c) 27.87 W (d) 13.66 MW
(c) 1.00 (d) 0.06
05. The following figure was generated from
experimental data relating spectral black
02. A diffuse radiation surface has
body emissive power to wave length at three
(ME-GATE-91)
temperatures Ti, T2 and T3 (T, > T 2 > T3 ).
(a) Radiation intensity independent of angle
(b) Emissive power independent of angle
(c) Emissive power independent of wave
length
(d) Radiation intensity independent of both
angle and wavelength
A.(µm)
03. The shape factors with themselves of two
infinitely long black body concentric The conclusion is that the measurements are
cylinders with a dia ratio of 3 are ...... For (ME-GATE-OS)
the inner and ...... for the outer (a) correct because the maxima in Eb;i.. show
(ME-GATE-94) the correct trend
(b) correct because Planck's law is satisfied
04. A plate having 10 cm 2 area each side is (c) wrong because the Stephen Boltzmannn
hanging in the middle of a room of 100 m 2 law is not satisfied
total surface area. The plate temperature and (d) wrong because Wien's displacement
emissivity are respectively 800 K and 0.6. law is not satisfied
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'!..•:F�Pm,li,:ati,u
" : 397: Radiation
� �==========================================
06. For an opaque surface , the absorptivity (a),
transmissivity (t) and reflectivity (p) are Two Marks Questions
related by the equation:
(ME & PI-GATE-12) 01. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area
(a) a+p = t (b) p+a+t=O (W/m2) between two plane parallel gray
(c) a+p =1 (d) a+p=O surfaces (emissivity = 0.9) maintained at
400K and 300K is (crb= Stephen Boltzmann
07. Consider the radiation heat exchange inside constant 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2K4)
an annulus between two very long concentric (ME-GATE-93)
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is (a) 992 (b) 812
Ro and that of the inner cylinder is Ri. The (c) 464 (d) 567
radiation view factor of the outer cylinder
onto itself is (GATE - 16 - SET- 2) 02. F or the circular tube of equal length and
R diameter shown in fig below , the view
(
(a) 1-ffe, (b) �I- ;
Ro factor F 13 is 0.17. The view factor F 12 in this
(ME-GATE-01)
J
l/3 case will be.
(c) 1- ::
(a) 0.17
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ACE
:'EFn�.,,.�· -:: :�:m:·:,========:=:=�3:9�8,:,:===========�H
��- �eat�T�ran
�s:fe�r
� "= �·�Po�b�ili-,_
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04. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the form a two surface enclosure and steady state
centre of a hollow sphere (surface!). The condition to exist. Stephen Boltzmannn constant
diameter of the sphere is 1 m, while the as 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2K4
cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m
each. The radiation configuration factor F 11 06. The irradiation (in kW/m2) for the upper
IS. (ME-GATE-OS) plate is (ME-GATE-09)
(a) 0.375 (b) 0.625 (a) 2.5 (b) 3.6
(c) 0.75 (d) 1 (c) 17.0 (d) 19.5
05. A hollow enclosure is formed between two 07. If plate is also a diffuse gray surface with an
infinitely concentric cylinders of radii l m emisivity value of 0.8, the net radiant heat
and 2m respectively. Radiative heat exchange (in kW/m2) between plate 1 and
exchange takes place between the inner plate 2 (ME-GATE-09)
surface of the larger cylinder (surface -2) (a) 17.0 (b) 19.5
and the outer surface of the smaller cylinder (c) 23.0 (d) 31.7
(surface-I) the radiating surfaces are diffuse
and the medium in the enclosure IS non 08. Consider two infinitely long thin concentric
participating. The fraction of the thermal tubes of circular cross section as shown in
radiation leaving the larger surface and the figure. If D 1 and D2 are the diameters of
striking itself is (ME-GATE-OS) the inner and outer tubes respectively, then
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 the view factor F22 is given by
(c) 0.75 (d) 1 (ME&PI-GATE-12)
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: 399: Radiation
09. Two large diffuse gray parallel plates, 12. Two infinite parallel plates are placed at a
separated by a small distance, have surface certain distance apart. An infinite radiation
temperatures of 400 K and 300 K. If the shield is inserted between the plates without
emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8 and the touching any of them to reduce heat
Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.67 x10-8 exchange between the plates. Assume that
W/m2K4, the net radiation heat exchange rate the emissivities of plates and radiation shield
in kW/m2 between the two plates is are equal. The ratio of the net heat exchange
(GATE-ME-13) between the plates with and without the
(a) 0.66 (b) 0.79 shield is (GATE-ME-14-SET-4)
(c) 0.99 (d) 3.96 (a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
10. A hemispherical furnace of 1 m radius has 13. The total emissive power of a surface is 500
the inner surface (emissivity, E =1) of its W/m2 at a temperature T 1 and 1200 W/m2 at
roof maintained at 800K, while its floor a temperature T2, where the temperature are
(E=0.5) is kept at 600K. Stefan-Boltzmannn in Kelvin. Assuming the emissivity of the
constant is5.668xl 0- W/m .K
8 2 4
. The net surface to be constant, the ratio of the
radiative heat transfer (in kW) from the roof
temperatures -
7; 1s (GATE-15-Set 2)
to the floor is_ (GATE-ME-14-SET-2) T2
(a) 0.308 (b) 0.416
11. A solid sphere of radius r 1 = 20 mm is placed (c) 0.803 (d) 0.874
concentrically inside a hollow sphere of
radius r2 = 30 mm as shown in the figure. 14. A solid sphere 1 of radius 'r' is placed inside
a hollow, closed hemispherical surface 2 of
radius '4r'. The shape factor F2_ 1 is ...
(GATE-15-Set 3)
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"" . ACE
. .. :400:
"
�
��-� ..
:� Publiacima Heat Transfer
15. An infinitely long furnace of 0.5m x 0.4m F12 = 0.5, T1= 800 K, T2 = 600 K, Tsurrounding
cross - section is shown in the figure below. = 300 K and Stefan Boltzmann constant,
Consider all surfaces of the furnace to be cr = 5.67 x 10-8 W/(m2K4), the heat transfer
black. The top and bottom walls are rate from surface 2 to the surrounding
maintained at temperature T1 = T 3 = 927 °C
environment is ____ kW.
while the side walls are at temperature T2 =
A
T4 = 527°C. The view factor, F1-2 is 0.26.
The net radiation heat loss or gain on side 1
1s W/m. Stefan-Boltzman constant =
5.67 x10- W/m2-K4
8 Surrounding
Side 3, T3
Surface 1
Side 4, T4 Side 2, T2 0.4 m
(GATE- 17- SET-1)
Side l. T,
1� 0.5m �1
(GATE- 16- SET- 1)
Five Marks Questions
16. Two large parallel plates having a gap of 10
mm in between them are maintained at
O1. Two black plates, each one meter square, are
temperatures T1 = 1000 K and T 2 = 400 K.
placed parallel to each other in such a way
Given emissivity values, E1 = 0.5, E2 = 0.25 that the radiation shape factor for the system
and Stefan-Boltzmann constant cr = 5.67 x is 0.4. If the plates are maintained at 800°C
10-8 W/m2-K, the heat transfer between the and 400°C respectively, determine the net
plates (in kW/m2) is ____ radiant heat transfer between the plates. Also
(GATE- 16- SET- 3) calculate the net heat exchange if the plates
were infinite in size. Stephen Boltzmann
17. Two black surfaces, AB and BC, of lengths constant= 5.67 x10-8 W/m2K4
5 m and 6 m, respectively, are oriented as (ME-GATE-89)
shown. Both surfaces extend infinitely into
the third dimension. Given that view factor
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. ACE . . : 401: Radiation
02. An object has the shape of cubical box of absorptivity of 0.9 at solar wavelength and
side 10cm, with no top cover. The box is an emissivity of 0.1 at the long wavelength.
placed inside a room whose dimensions are Neglecting any heat loss from the lower
much larger than those of the box. All the surface, determine the incident solar
five surfaces of box are at a temp of 500 C °
radiation intensity in kW/m , if the measured2
and have an emissivity of 0.6. The walls of equilibrium temperature of the plate is 50 °C.
the room are at 25°C and have an emissivity Stephen Boltzmannn constant is
of 0.4. All these surfaces can be assumed to 5.67x10- W/m K
8 2 4
(ME-GATE-00)
be diffuse-gray. Find the net radiative heat
loss from the inner surface of the box to the
walls of the room. Stephen Boltzmann
constant 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2K4. View factor
between two parallel square plates placed
directly opposite to each other is 0.2
(ME-GATE-91)
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SOLUTIONS
F11 = 0 ( ·: surface 1 is convex )
One Mark Solutions :. F12 = 1
From Reciprocity theorem
01. Ans: (d)
A1F'i 2 = A 2F2 1
Sol: Reflectivity p 0.08
F21 _ A1F'i 2 _ mi1L X l-�-_!_
= =
Transitivity = t = 0.86 -
A2
-
ml 2L - d 2 - 3
Absorptivity = a = ?
a + t + p=l
a = 1-(t + p)
= 1 - ( 0.08 + 0.86) = 0. 06
2
:. F11 = 0 & F22 =-
3
Diffuse body
04. Ans: (b)
Sol: Total Area of the plate
Ap = 2 x 1 0cm 2
= 2 0 X 1 0---4 m 2
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: 403: Radiation
Q = --5- .6_ 74 _ _ x l_ 0-
_ _ (�80_0 _ - _ _0�)__
_ 30
8 4 4
1- 0.6
----- 1 - 1 -0.3
+-----+ --
0.6 X 20 X 10- 20 X 10- X 1 0.3 X 100
4 4
Q = 27.32 W F1 1 = O,
F12 =1
05. Ans: (d) A1 2nRiL - Ri
F21 -
- X F12 -
- X1-
Sol: According to Wein's displacement law A2 21tR 0 L R0
Amax T = 2898
1
=> Toc--
A max
From the above as the temperature is 08. Ans: (d)
increasing, A should reduce i.e the max peak
Sol: Eoc T4
has to shift towards left but it is not
T 2 = 2T1
happening in the given figure, hence it is
E1 P
violating Wein's displacement law .
=
EI TI4
E2 T24
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W 2 = 2W 2 - 2W 2 cos0
Two Marks Solutions W3 = 2W sin(0 / 2)
F32 = F31
F32 + F31 = 1
01. Ans: (b)
F32 = F31 = 0.5
Sol: A = 1.0 m 2,
F 13+ F 12 = l
t 1 = t 2 = 0.9 A3F32
+ rD12 -
-1
Tl = 400K, T 2 = 300K, (jb = 5.67 X 10-8 A1
Q_ cr(Tt-T;) A3 F3 2
==> R1 2= 1 -
A _!__ _ 1 -l AI
+
t1 t 2
=1-sin� l-sinl0=0.83
1 X 5.67 X 10-8 (400 4 - 300 4 ) 2
=
Q 12net =
1 1
- + --1 04 . Ans: (b)
0.9 0.9
Sol: D = lm, d = / = 0.5 F 22 = 0
= 812 W/m 2
( ·.· Inner cylinder has convex and flat surface)
02. Ans: (d) :. F 21 + F 22 = 1 ==> F 21 = 1
Sol: Given, F., 3= 0.17
Now F 11 + F 12 = 1
F.12 -?
- •
t}
03. Ans: (a), Front view
D
F11 = O
F12 = 1 s+p= l
A1 F12 = A2 F21 p= (1 - s)
A dl Equation (1) we get
F2 1 = 1 = n i = � = !!._ = _!_ = 0.5
A 2 1t d i £ d 2 r2 2 = (1 - E2) CJ TI 4 + E2 CJ T2
4
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" . ACE
"':. . . . :406 : Heat Transfer
,.,��PnblirJnms
09. Ans : (a) 11. Ans: (b)
Sol: Given , T 1 = 400 K , T 2 = 300 K Sol: r 1 = 20mm, r2 = 30 mm
E 1 = f:2 = 0.8 F1 1 + F12 =1 R
2
� 1
cr b (T14 - Ti ) F 1 1 = O ; F 12 = 1
QIA = 1 0 1
-1 1
+ -- 1 A1F 12 = A2 F21
E1 E2
2 4/9 5/9
A1
5.67 x l 0-8 ((400)4 - (3oo)4 ) => F21 = - x F1 2
= A2
-1 1
+ -- 1
0.8 0.8
= 0.66 15 kW/m2
4
F21 = -
10. Ans: 25.0156 kW 9
Sol:
12. Ans: (a)
1 1
Q shield
-----'-'=- = -- - -
n +l 2
Q with out shield
2 0
A1 = 1t r , F11 =
E b2 = 1200 W / m 2 at T2
Q= cr[T - T; ]
4
-
1__ E 1 - 1- 1-- - E2 => IL = � 500
1
= = 0.803
Ehl Tl:
+ + T2 T2 1200
e 1 A 1 A 1 F1 2 E 2 A 2 E b2
\
Surrounding
Side 4, T4
\
\
Side 2, T2 0.4 m \
\
B Surface 1 C
Side 1. T 1 '
0.5 m A1F1 2 = A2F21
T 1 = 927 ° C = 1200K, A
F21 = -1 x F12
A2
T2 = 527 ° C = 800K
F 1 2 = F 1 4 = 0.26 6
F2 1 = - x 0.5
F 1 1 + F 1 2 + F13 + F 1 4 = 1 5
F13 = 0.48 F21 = 0.6
Q = Q12 + Q13 + Q1 4 F21+F22+F23 = 1 [·: F22 = 0]
Q13 = 0 since the temperatures are same F23 = l-F21
Q = Q1 2 + Q14 = 2x crb xA x F 12( T14 - T: ) F23 = 1-0.6=0.4
Q = 2 x5.67 x I0- x (0.5 x l ) x 0.26 x(1200 -800 )
8 4 4
Q23 = A2 F 23 cr (T/ - T /)
= 24530.688 W
=5 X 0.4 X Cf (6004-3004)
= 13.797 kW
16. Ans: 11.05 (range 10.9 to 11.2)
cr(T14 - T:) 5 .67 X1o-s (1000 4 - 400 4 )
Sol: Q = =
1 1 1 1
- + --1 - + ---1
E1 E2 0.5 0.25
= 11.05 kW/m2
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: 408 : Heat Transfer
(black plates) ,, 2
F 1 2 = F 2 1 = 0.4
T1 = 800+273 = 1073 K
T 2 = 400 +273 = 673 K cr b = 5.67 xl 0-8 W / m 2 K 4
F1-1 = O
F1-3 = 0.2, F 2-R = 0.2
F1-1 + F1- 2 + F1_3 + F1-4 + F1-s + F 1-R= 1
5.67 xl0-8 (10734 - 6734 ) F1 - 2 = f1 -4= F 1-s
=
1 4F1-R = 1-0.2
l x0.4
08
= 25410 W = 25.4 kW/m 2 F1-R = · = 0.2
4
If the plates are infinite in size F12= F21=1
Similarly, F 2-R = FJ-R = F4-R= Fs-R = 0.2
A crb (T/-T/ )
Q 12 net = ,
1 1
- + - -1 1- E
c, C2 __I
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: 409 : Radiation
03.
Sol: Given ,
T1 = 727 °C = 1000 K , CJ = 0.8 , (1) = plate , (2) = surrounding
T2 = 227 ° C = 500 K ' S2 = 0.4, F1 -2 = 1
ts = 0.05 TP = 50 ° C = 50 + 273 = 323K
Q-Q cr b = 5.67 xl0-8 W / m 2 K 4 ,
% Reduction in Heat Transfer = '
Q
Qa = 0.9Q
cr (T, ; T2 ) 4 4
= HT by convection+ HT by radiation
Q = H.T. without shields = ;
- + --1 0.9Q = h 6T + \
4
c/T - T24 )
s, t 2 1-s' + -- 1 + -- 1-s2
I
--
s, A, Aif,_ 2 s2 A2
crA, (T,4 - T;)
0.9Q = l 7.4x(50-30)+
_!_ _ 1 + ! + _& (_!_-1)
1 1 s, 1 A2 s 2
1 1 1 1 2
- + - -1 - + - + --2
A2 >>> A1
% Reduction
1
:. A , � O
1 -
1 +-
- 1 A2
s, t 2
cr , (T,4-T;
= 0.3636 -0.0239 = 93.4% 0 .9 Q = 17.4 x 20 + t )
0.3636 --1 + 1 + 0
s,
04.
0.9 Q = 17.4 x 20 + CJ cr A1 (3244- 3034)
Sol: T00 = 30 ° C = 30 + 273 = 303K
= 17.4 x 20 + 0.1 x 5.67x 10-8x 1 x (3244 - 3034)
h v = 1 7.4 W / m 2 K Q = 0.402 kW/m 2
a = 0.9 at solar wave length
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cs Heat Exchangers
(a) Greater for parallel flow heat exchanger
One Mark Questions than the counter flow heat exchanger
(b) Greater for counter flow heat exchanger
0 1. In shell and tube heat exchanger , baffies are than the parallel flow heat exchanger
mainly used to (ME-GATE-91) (c) Same for both parallel and counter flow
(a) Increase the mixing of fluid heat exchangers.
(b) Increase the heat transfer area (d) Depending on the properties of fluid .
(c) deflect the flow in desired direction
(d) Reduce fouling ofthe tube surface. 04. In a condenser of a power plant , the steam
condenses at a temperature of 60 ° C. The
02. The practice to use steam on the shell side cooling water enters at 30 °C and leaves at
and water on the tube side in condensers of 45°C. The logarithmic mean temperature
steam power plant is because difference (LMTD) of the condenser is
(ME-GATE-94) (ME-GATE-1 1)
(a) to increase overall HT coefficient, water (a) 16.2 C
°
(b) 21.6 ° C
side velocity can be increased ifwater is (c) 30 °C (d) 37.5°C
on the tube side
(b) condenser can act as a storage unit for 05. In a heat exchanger , it is observed that
condensed steam LiT 1 = LiT2 , where LiT 1 is the temperature
(c) rate of condensation of steam is
difference between the two single phase
invariably smaller than the mass flow
fluid streams at one end and LiT2 is the
rate of cooling water
temperature difference at the other end. This
(d) it is easier to maintain vacuum on the
heat exchanger is (GATE-ME-14-SET-2)
shell side than on the tube side
(a) a condenser
(b) an evaporator
03. For the same inlet and exit temps of the hot
(c) a counter flow heat exchanger
and cold fluids, the Log mean temperature
(d) a parallel flow heat exchanger
difference (LMTD) is
(ME-GATE-02)
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. .
ACE . . : 41 1 : Heat Exchangers
condenser is. (GATE-15 -Set 3) 01. In certain HE, both the fluids have identical
mass flow rate-specific heat product. The hot
1 -exp [- NTU(I + Cr )] fluid enters at 76°C and leaves at 47°C, and
(a)
l + Cr the cold fluid entering at 28°C leave at 55°C.
1-exp[- NTU(I - Cr )] the effectiveness ofthe HE is
(b)
1- cr exp[- NTU(I - Cr )] (ME-GATE-97)
NTU (a) 0.16 (b) 0.58
(c) (c) 0.72 (d) 1.0
I+NTU
(d) 1-exp(- NTU)
02. Air enters a counter flow HE at 70 °C and
leaves at 40°C. Water enters at 30 °C and
07. For a heat exchanger, �T max is the maximum
leaves at 50°C. the LMTD in deg C is
temperature difference and �Tmin is the
(ME-GATE-00)
minimum temperature difference between
(a) 5.65 (b) 14.43
the two fluids. LMTD is the log mean
(c) 19.52 (d) 20.17
temperature difference. C min and C max are the
minimum and the maximum heat capacity
03. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot
rates. The maximum possible heat transfer
fluid the heat capacity=2 kJ/kg K, mass flow
(Qmax) between the two fluids is
rate=5kg/s, inlet temperature=l 50° C, outlet
(GATE- 16- SET- 3)
temperature = 100 ° C. For the cold fluid,
(a) C minLMTD (b) C min�Tmax
heat capacity = 4 kJ/kg K, mass flow rate=10
(c) C max�Tmax (d) C max�Tmin
Kg I s, inlet temperature = 20 ° C. neglecting
heat transfer to surroundings, the outlet
08. Saturated steam at 100 °C condenses on the temperature of the cold fluid in °c is
outside of a tube. Cold fluid enters the tube (ME-GATE-03)
at 20 ° C and exits at 50 °C. The value of the (a) 7.5 (b) 32.5 (c) 45.5 (d) 70.0
Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD)
lS --- °C . (GATE- 17- SET- l)
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: 412 : Heat Transfer
04. In a cond enser, water enters at 30°C and specific heat at constant pressure of the fluid
flows at the rate l 500Kg/hr. The condensing is twic e that of the cold fluid . The exit
steam is at a temperature of 120°C and temperature of the cold fluid is
cooling water lea ves the cond enser at 80°C . (ME-GATE-08)
Specific heat of water is 4.187KJ/KgK. If (a) 40 C
°
(b) 60 C
°
flow rate of 2 kg/s and the temp of 100°C . in remains constant at 2270 W /m 2K. Calculate
the tube side, cold water enters at a flow rate the heat transfer area required, assuming the
of 10 kg/s with an inlet temp of 25°C. the two streams are in parallel flow, and for
OHTC based on the outer surface area of the both the streams C p= 4.2 kJ/kg K
tubes is 50 W/m2K . the specific heat of (ME-GATE-97)
water is 4. 1 8 kJ/kg-K and the latent heat of 07. A hot fluid at 200 ° C enters a heat exchanger
steam is 2500 kJ/kg. What is the condition of at a mass flow rate of 104 kg/hr. Its specific
the steam at the exit. (ME-GATE-91) heat is 2000 J/kg-K. It is to be cooled by
another fluid entering at 25 ° C with a mass
04. Two streams of fluids of unit constant
flow rate 2500 kg/hr and specific heat 400
specific heats and unit mass flow rate
J/kg-K. the overall heat transfer coefficient
exchange thermal energy in an adiabatic heat
based on outside area of 20 m 2 is 250 W /m 2
exchanger. The inlet temps of hot and cold
K. Find the exit temperature of the hot fluid
streams are 300°C and 30 °C respectively.
when the fluids are in parallel flow.
Calculate the LMTD and effectiveness ofthe
(ME-GATE-98)
heat exchanger if the hot fluid is cooled to
zero entropy condition. (ME-GATE-94) 08. Hot water flows with a velocity of 0.1 mis in
a 100mm long, 0.1 m diameter pipe. Heat lost
05. A counter flow heat exchanger is to heat air from the pipe outer wall is uniform and
entering at 400 °C with a flow rate of 6 kg/s equal to 420 W/m2 . If the inlet water
by the exhaust gas entering at 800 ° C with a temperature is 80°C, calculate the water
flow rate of 4 kg/s. the overall heat transfer temp at the exit . Neglect effect of pipe wall
coefficient is 100 W/(m 2K) and the outlet thickness. Cp (water) = 4.2 kJ/kg-K and
temperature of the air is 55 l .5 ° C. Specific density ofwater = 1000 kg/m 3 .
heat at constant pressure for both air and the (ME-GATE-98)
exhaust gas can be taken as 1 100 J/(kgK). 09. Two fluids, A and B exchange heat in a
Calculate the heat transfer area needed and counter-current heat exchanger. Fluid A
the number oftransfer units.
enters at 420 ° C and has a mass flow rate of
(ME-GATE-95)
1 kg/s. Fluid B enters at 20 ° C and also has a
06. In a certain double pipe heat exchanger hot
mass flow rate of 1 kg/s, Effectiveness of
water flows at a rate of 50,000 kg/h and gets
heat exchanger is 75%. Determine the heat
cooled from 95 ° to 65 °C. At the same time
transfer rate and exit temperature of fluid B.
50,000 kg/h of cooling water at 30 °C enters
(Specific heat of fluid A is 1 kJ/kg K and
the heat exchanger . The flow conditions are that offluid B is 4 kJ/kgK). (ME-GATE-99)
such that the overall heat transfer coefficient
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SOLUTIONS
For counterflow :
One Mark Solutions Hot fluid 200 7 100
Cold fluid 80 7 20
01. Ans: (a)
01 = 180, 02 = 80
02 Ans: (d) 120 - 80
Li0 me= 98.65° C
Sol: If steam is supplied on tube side, one single 120
=
Rn ( -)
vacuum pump is not sufficient to maintain 80
vacuum but if the steam is supplied on shell
side single vacuum pump is sufficient 04. Ans: (b)
to maintain the vacuum. Sol: Hot fluid is steam & Cold fluid is cooling
water
03. Ans: (b)
Thi = Tho = 60 °C
Sol: For same inlet and exit temp of hot and cold
fluids in parallel and Counter flow heat Tei = 30°C ,
exchanges are Tc0 = 45°C
= 0counter
0parallel Thi = 60°C
(UALi0 Jp = (UALi0Jc T
01 = Th,Tci
(ALi0JP = (ALi0Jc
A Li0mc
-P = -- To; = JO'C 1
Ac Li0mp
Means that, if Li0 mc > Li0 mp �Ap > Ac 01 = 60 -30 = 30 ,
Eg: Letfor parallelflow: 02 = 60-45 =15
Hot fluid 200 7 100 01-02 30-15
LMTD= = 21.6 o C
Cold fluid 20 7 80 ln(01 / 02 ) 3 0
=
ln
01 = 180, 02 = 20 15
Fyderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Punc I Bhubancsw.ir I Lucknow I Patna I Bcnpluru I Chcnnai I Vijayawada IV17.ag I Tuupati I KukatpalJy I Kolkata I
: 417 : Heat Exchangers
05.Ans : (c)
I
Sol: If �T 1 �T 2 then temperature distribution
=
Thi
Tei
______
.__
�T 1 = T h1-T 1 =
c 100-20 =80 °C
�T2 = Thi-Tc2 = 100-50 = 50°C
(Counter flow)
�T1 = �T2 = LMTD
The heat exchanger is only counter flow
Heat exchanger only when C min = C max Two Marks Solutions
1500
m e= --=0.417 kg / sec
3600
T hi = 120 °C, CPc 4187 J/kg K
8 1 70 - 50 20
=
U = 2000 W /m 2K
= =
Tc; = 30°C
rilh=5kg/s
C pe 4000 JI kgK,
= 8 1 = 120 - 30 = 90, 8 2 = 120 - 80 = 40
rile=10kg/s 90 - 40
�0 = = 61.66 o C
ch rilh X C Ph = 5x2000 = 10 J/K
=
4
mp
Rn( :� )
Cc rile x C Pc =10x4000 = 4x104 J/K
Heat transfer = ril c C P c (Teo - TC i ) = UM0 m
=
T hi= 150 C,
0.417 x4187(80-30)
°
T ei 20 °C,
=
Tei 30 °C, T e0 = 40 °C
fluid
=
01 =
Thi = 80°C
Thi-Tc0
Tc0 40°C
I Sol: T hi = 65 °C
ril h = 1 kg/s ,
Tc 0 = 30 °C
ril e =2 kg/s
Cph = 104 J/kgK, Cpc = 5000 J/kgK
=
01 = 80-40 = 40 ° c ,
02 = 50 - 30 = 20 ° c
0 1-0 2 40 - 20
( LMTD)parallel 28.85 C
0
J 40
0
(Counter flow)
= = =
ln (_1 ln -
02 20
If the given H.E is parallel fluid C h = 1X10 4 = 10 4
Ch Cc
}
Cc = 2x5000 = 10 4
=
65 � Th2
30 +- Tei
When C h = Cc, the temp distribution lines are
straight lines and in case of counter flow H.E
01 =0
2
= �0 m = LMTD
01 = 80-30 = 50 ° C , :. LMTD = 65 - 30 = 35 °C
0 2 = 50 - 40 = 10 ° C
0 1 -0 2 50 -10 07. Ans: (c)
( LMTD)counter = 24.5 C
ln (� ln -
02 10 Tei = 20 ° C, T hi = 100 ° C
But designer chosen LMTD is 26 which is Cp h = 2 Cp c
greater than parallel flow LMTD and less
than counter flow LMTD; Hence it is taken
as cross flow H.E :. Temperature distribution is straight line
01 = 0 2 = LMTD=20 (given)
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: 420 : Heat Transfer
:. 0 1 = 100-Tc = 20
0
:=>Teo = 80 ° C
And also, :. 0 2 = Th -20 = 20
0
:=>Tho = 40°C
yderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune l Bhubaneswarl w:knowl Pama ! Bengalwu l Oicnnai I Vliayawada!Vizag I Tirupati I Kukalpallyl Ko1kata
: 421 : Heat Exchangers
Wat.;,\�
Te o - 30
3=-
r
0.8 = => Tc ° =70
80- 30
0 1 = 1 0, 0 2 = 1 0
rilw C Pw = 1 .5 x 4 1 78
LMTD = 0 1 = 0 2 = 1 0
m01.• c P.;1 = l x 2 1 30
12. Ans : (b)
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ACE Heat Transfer
':,
�•"fnpneerql'oNiramna : 422 :
" V • • • •
Tc = l 0 ° C, TC2
38 I
-?
- •
T = 24.72 ° C
� T 1 = 46 - 38 = 8
Parallel flow Heat exchanger
� T2 = 24.72 - 1 0 = 1 4.72
0° c
0 1 =55 °C {
2s 0c so0c }
02=40°C
NTU
C = 1 , effectiveness = ( = 0.5 J
l + NTU ) �T2 50- 25
. (t- 280) 43.7054
Effectiveness = = 0.5 =
(300 - 280)
(LMTD)c. F =
�TI 2 = (80 - 2 - ( - 1 0)
�: Jo ��
T
�t = 290 K -
ln(-J1 In ( --- )
�T2 50- 1 0
= 47. 1026
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: 423 : Heat Exchangers
In
Counter flow
8T1 = Thi - Tc 2 100
8T1 = 120 - 80 = 40 °C (LMTD) act = 0.9(LMTD) = 129.84°C
8T2 = Tb 2 - Tc1 C w = fil w X C Pw
8T2 = 60 - 40 = 20 = 12 x 4.2 x 10 3 = 50.4 kW/K
-::ti) - ;:i)
Heat transfer from cold water
LMTD
( Qw= C w X (Tw0 - Tw;}
= 50.4( 140-80)=3024 kW
Energy balance :
A = 21.84 m 2
Heat lost by gas = heat gained by water
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V ACE• •
l'oolir*n
• •
: 424 : Heat Transfer
ril h = 2 kg/s,
02.
Tb; = T11. = 100 °C ,
Sol: C ounter flow H E
ffi c = 1 0 kg/S,
ril h = 1 2000 = 333 kg/s Tc; = 25°C ,
3600
U = 50 W/m 2K
C ph = 1.95 kJ/kgK,
C pc = 4. 1 8 kJ/kgK,
Tb; = 85°C , T11. = 55°C ,
hrg = 2500 kJ/ kg
Tc; = 30 °C , Tc. = 45°C
U = 400 W /m 2K
Tho = I 00°C t-----------1Th; = I 00°C
Th; =85°C
01 = Th,Tc0 I
Tc0 = 45°C
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"•
"
, ...,,," ACE . .
:� PmlirJcm
. . : 425 : Heat Exchangers
C = C min/C max = 1
Qc = m c C Pc(Tco - TCi) = 1 4 1 W
x = 99.9972%
s Energy balance,
( 1) = initial condition of steam Heat lost by hot fluid = heat gain by cold
(2) = final condition of steam fluid
For minimum entropy case,
Heat loss by steam = heat received by cold 0 1 = 02 = LMTD
fluid T ee = T he = T
ms (h i-h 2) =m W cpw (Teo-Tei) C h (Thi-The) = Cc (T ce - Tci)
ms (h g - (h r + x(h g-h f )))=lOx41 8(\25.003382-25) 300 - T = T - 30
� T = 1 65°C
2(h 8 - hr - x(h 8 - hc )) = 10 x 4 1 80 (0.003382) Effectiveness,
C h (Thi -The) 300 - 1 65
2 (hrg - x hrg) = 4 1 80 x 0.003382 E= = =0_5
C miJTm - TJ 300-30
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Heat Transfer
,, "'..t
{-�� � : 426 :
� �=================================
05. 4400(800 - 572.75)
47_99m 2
Sol: C ounter flow heat exchanger, 100x208.33
Tc; = 400 ° C, m e= 6kg/s, UA 100x47.99=
NTU = 1.09
Th; = 800°C, m h = 4 kg/s, c min 4400
U = I OO W/ m2K
Tc. = 551 .5 °C, 06.
C ph = C p. =l 100 J/kg K 50000
Sol: m h = 1 3.88 kg I s
ch = 1 100 x 4 = 4400 = C min, 3600
C c = 1 100 X 6 = 6600 = C max Th; = 95°C, Th. = 65°C
. 50000
Th; =800 me= 1 3.88kg /s
l 3600
Tc; = 30 °C
Tc0 = 55 I .5°C
81 = Th,Tco U = 2270 W /m 2K,
Th; = 95°C
Energy balance,
Heat lost by hot fluid = heat gain by cold
fluid
C h(Th;-Th.) = C c (Tc.-Tc;)
4400 (800-Th.) = 6600 (55 1 .5 - 400)
T ho = 572.75 Both are water,
0 1 = Th; - Th. = 800 - 551 .5 = 248.5 °C C ph = C p. = 4.2 kJ/ kg-K
02= Tb. - Tc; = 572.75 - 400 = 172.75°C 50000
Ch = C = x4200 = 58.33 x 10 3
3600
L\9m = 0 1-0 2 75.75= 208.33
C
=> A =
Uxl\0 m Tc. = Tc; + (Th; - Th.)
I •
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: 427 : Heat Exchangers
e, = 95 - 3 0 = 65 25 00
C c = -- x4 00 = 277.8 = C mm.
82 = 65 - 6 0 = 5 36 00
1 04
�em = B, -:2 =23.39 Ch = X 2 000 = 5555.6 = C max
ln -1 36 00
02 c.
C= � = 0. 05
Heat transfer from hot fluid is given by cmax
C h (Th - Th ) = UM0 m UA 25 0x2 0 =
NTU = 17.99 � 18
cmin 277.8
1 0
=
5 0000
X 42 00(95 - 65)
=> A = 36 00 =32.96m 2 Effectiveness for parallel flow in heat
227 0x23.39 exchanger is given by
1-exp (- NTU(l + C)) = cc (Tc. -TCJ
07. cp =
1+ C cmin (Th ; -TC; )
Sol: Th ; = 2 00° C
1-eHs c1+ 0.osJJ 277 .8(Tc. - 25 )
-
ril h = 1 04 kg/hr = � = 2.77kg /s 1 + 0. 05 277.8(2 00- 25)
36 00
(T -25)
C P h = 2 000 J / kgK 0952= --"-__
175
co
Tc ;= 25 ° c Tc 0
= 191.67 ° C
25 00 = Energy balance ,
rilC = 0.694kg / s
36 00 Heat lost by hot fluid = heat gain by cold
C Pc = 4 00J / KgK fluid
U = 25 0 W /m 2K, Ch(Tb; - Th.) = C c(T c. - Tc;)
A = 2 0m 2 554 0(2 00 - Th.) = 277.6(191.67 - 25)
Parallel flow heat exchanger Tb. = 191.67°C
08.
Sol: V = O.l mis , d = lOO mm = 0.1 m
Thi = 200°C
::::.,·-•Tho
= Tco L = O.l m q = 42 0W/m 2
= 1 9 1 .67 °C
Ti = 8 0° C ,
Tc; = 25 °C C p = 42 00kJ / kgK
p = 1 000kg/m 3
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ACE
�".�
= 428 Heat Transfur
� "=
·�·
:� �
· im
= m�·�Pub
��-:
·��:
•===.========��:��:===========::..:�::,:��,:::�
(Th ; - TC; )
c min
=
m 0. 785 kg/sec
1000(420-Th )
Total Heat transfer from pipe to water 0.75 = 0
= q xA
1 000(420- 20 )
°
= 420 X 1tdL � Tb = 420-300 = 1 20 C
0
= 420 X 1t X 0.1 X 0.1 Heat loss by heat fluid = heat gain by cold fluid
= 1 3. 1 88 W mh cp h (Thi - Tho ) = me c pc (Teo - Tei )
Neglecting other losses 1 X 1 X {420 - 120) = 1 X 4 X {Teo - 20)
Heat transfer from pipe = Heat rejected by Teo = 95°C
water
1 3. 1 88 = mCp (Ti - T0 )
= 1 X 1000 X (420-120)
.9
� T0 = Ti - 0.004 = 79.996 C
= 300 kW
09.
Sol: Counter flow heat transfer exchanger
Fluid A � hot fluid
Th; = 420°C , m h = 1 kg/s
Te; = 20°C , m e = 1 kg/s , s = 0.75 ,
Cph = 1 000 J/kgK CPc = 4000 J/kg
Th; =420°C
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Thermodynamics
(Questions)
Page No. 430
CONTENTS
:' Chapter Questions Solutions
, N ame o f th e Chap te r
No. Page No. Page No.
- - - - - - - - I - - - --
03. The definition of lK as per the 06. The internal energy of an ideal gas 1s a
internationally accepted temperature scale is function of (GATE - 16- SET - 2)
(GATE-ME-94) (a) temperature and pressure
th
(a) 11100 the difference between normal (b) volume and pressure
boiling point and normal freezing point (c) entropy and pressure
of water (d) temperature only
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•
��-�;' .t;Fn�p:;:AJCE
�- ���========�:432
:�•�Pl�:tblicdima
- The�rm
��:===========�� odyn�anu
�� ��c:.s
"=
" V 1 • • 1
.,a;,
07. The molar specific heat at constant volume (a) No heat is transferred
of an ideal gas is equal to 2.5 times the (b) No work is done
universal gas constant (8.314 J/mol.K). (c) No mass flows across the boundary of
When the temperature increases by 100 K, the system
the change in molar specific enthalpy is (d) No chemical reaction takes place
---- J/mol. within the system
(GATE - 17- SET- l)
03. Match items from groups , I , II , III , IV and
V (GATE-ME-06)
List- II
(c) F-H-J-L-N (d) E-G-J-K-N
1. Ideal gas
E-H-I-L-M F-H-J-K-N
2. Vander Waals gas
3. S. I. engine
Statement for Linked Answer Q04 & Q05
4. C. I. engine
A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1
5. Cooling towers
bar when the ambient temperature was 1 S °C.
6. Heat exchangers
When the game started next day , the air
temperature at the stadium was S °C.
02. An isolated thermodynamic system executes
Assume that the volume of the football remains
a process. Choose the correct statement (s)
constant at 2S00cm3
from the following (GATE-ME-99)
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: 433 : Therm odynamics
04. The amount of heat lost by the air in the 07. Temperature of nitrogen in a vessel of
football and the gauge pressure of air in the volume 2m 3 is 288 K. A U-tube manometer
football at the stadium respectively equal connected to the vessel shows a reading of
(GATE-ME-06) 70cm of mercury (level higher in the end
(a) 30 .6 J, 1.94 bar (b) 21.8 J, 0.93 bar open to atmosphere). The universal gas
(c) 61.1 J, 1.94 bar (d) 43.7 J, 0.93 bar constant is 8314 J/kmol -K, atmospheric
pressure is 1.01325 bar, acceleration due to
05. Gauge pressure of air to which the ball must gravity is 9.81 m /s 2 and density of mercury
have been originally inflated so that it would is 13600 kg/m 3 • The mass of nitrogen (in kg)
equal 1 bar gauge at the stadium is in the vessel is ---
(GATE-ME-06) (GATE-15-Set 1)
(a) 2.23 bar (b) 1.94 bar
(c) 1.07 bar (d) 1.00 bar 08. The volume and temperature of air (assumed
to be an ideal gas) in a closed vessel is 2.87
06. A certain amount of an ideal gas is initially m 3 and 300 K, respectively. The gauge
at a pressure p 1 and temperature T 1. First, it pressure indicated by manometer fitted to
undergoes a constant pressure process 1-2 the wall of the vessel is 0.5 bar . If the gas
such that T 2 =3T 1/4. Then, it undergoes a constant of air is R = 287J/kgK and the
constant volume process 2-3 such that atmospheric pressure is 1 bar, the mass of air
T3 =T 1/2. The ratio of the final volume to (in kg) in the vessel is
the initial volume of the ideal gas is (GATE- 17 - SET - 2)
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3) (a) 1.67 (b) 3.33
(a) 0.2� (b) 0.75 (c) 5.00 (d) 6.66
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.5
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SOLUTIONS
N m 6 Nm 4
a=- X - = --
One Mark Solutions m 2 kg 2 kg 2
kgm - m4 -m5
01. Ans: (d) = -- x = -
s 2 kg 2 kgs 2
Sol: W = 0.5 x 50 = 25 J
Sol: Cp = yR
M(y -1) Two Marks Solutions
M = Molecular weight
y depends on Atomicity of gases. 01.
Sol: A - 4 B -5 C -2 D- 1
05. Ans: (c)
m' (;;)'
N a
= ---
03 . Ans: (d)
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" . ACE. . .
.,':. :EPpw.nngPnNicdions : 435 : Zeroth Law & Basic Concepts
�-�
05. Ans: (c) 06. Ans: (b)
Sol: P1 100 + 101.325 = 201.325 kPa
= Sol:
p
T1 = 288 K , V1 = 2500 C.C
-6 2----
pl vi --------
-- 201.325 x l0 3 x 2500 x 10- P=c
m= =
R Tl 287 x 288
V=c
= 6.089 X 10 -3 kg
As volume is constant, dW = 0 3
:. dQ = dU = m Cv dT
= 6.089 x 10-3 X 0.718 X 10 3
V
(15 -5) Process 1-2 (P = c)
= 43.7 J
v1 = -
- v2
Tl Tz
T2
P 2 = Pressure on day of play = P1 x -
T1
= 201.325x
278
288
= 194.33 kPa (absolute)
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08. Ans: (c)
Sol: V 1 = 2.87 m3
T1 = 300 K
+
Pabs = Pa1m Pgauge
R = 0.287 kJ/kgK
m = P1 V1 = 150 x 2. 87 = 5kg
RTI 0.287 x 300
06. A mass m of a perfect gas at pressure p 1 and 02. Nitrogen at an initial state of 10 bar , lm 3
volume VI undergoes an isothermal pro cess. and 300 K is expanded isothermally to a
The final pressure is p2 and volume is V2. final volume of 2m 3 • The p-v-T relation is
The work done on the system is considered
positive. If R is the gas constant and T is the
(p + ;2 ) v= RT, where a >O. The final
mlet
Fydcrabad l Ddhi l Bhopal ! Pune l Bhubaneswarl Lucknow l Patna ! Bcngaluru ! Olennai l Vuayawadal Vu.ag ITirupati J �I Kolkm I
.
SOLUTIONS
05. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions Sol: W = vdP
= -dP = - x 30 - 1 x l O 2
1 1 ( )
0 1. Ans: (b) 02. Ans: (b) p 990
kJ
= 2.93 -
03. Ans: (d) kg
-PI VI fn .!i_
Whatever work is done is converted to
internal energy which will raise the p
2
temperature of the system.
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��•
"
:.,,...
�- :!��
N�
· ·
ACE ·= 441
�=.,========� ��= ==========��
·
Wo:rk
�and He:
��: at
Ji "= Niarioos
T2= 3oo( ·
(P, + T) x1 = (P2 + �) x 2 0.1
= 396.18 K
8Q -f>W = dU
=> (10 + a)=2P2 + � 8Q = O
2
- 8W = dU
P2 =5 + -
a
4 R
-W = C V (T 2 - T 1) = -- (T2-TI )
As 'a ' is positive P 2 is > 5 bar M(y-1)
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: 442 : Thermodynamics
200
07. Ans: 4158 kJ I
Sol: Constant pressure process (P = C)
I
1 00 I
I
P1 = P2 = P , I
8314 1
R 02 = � = = 259.8125 --
M 02 32 kg K
8314 1
R co 2 = __!_ = = 188.954 --
M CO2 44 kg K
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I
Chapter
3 First Law of Thermodynamics
(GATE-ME-12)
Nozzle exit
11. The exit area of the nozzle in cm2 is 14. Work is done on a adiabatic system due to
(GATE-ME-12) which its velocity changes from 10 mis to 20
(a) 90.1 (b) 56.3 mis elevation increase by 20 m and
(c) 4.4 (d) 12.9 temperature increases by 1K. The mass of
the system is 10 kg, Cv = 100 J(kg.K) and
12. Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at gravitational acceleration is 10 mls2 . If there
inlet and exit of a steam turbine, running is no change in any other component of the
under steady state, are as given below: energy of the system, the magnitude of total
work (in kJ) on the system is ___
(GATE-15-Set 2)
Specific Velocity
enthalpy (mis)
(kJ/kg) 15. A piston-cylinder device initially contains
Inlet steam condition 3250 180 0.4 m3 of air (to be treated as an ideal gas) at
100 kPa and 80° C. The air is now
Exit steam condition 2360 5
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg isothermally compressed to O.l m 3 . The work
of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting done during this process is ____ kJ.
changes in potential energy of steam, the (Take the sign convention such that work
power developed in kW by the steam turbine done on the system is negative)
per kg of steam flow rate, is (GATE-16- SET-2)
(GATE-ME-13) 16. Steam at an initial enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg and
(a) 901.2 (b) 911.2 inlet velocity of 100 mis, enters and
(c) 17072.5 (d) 17082.5 insulated horizontal nozzle. It leaves the
nozzle at 200 mis. The exit enthalpy (in
13. A well insulated rigid container of volume kJ/kg) is__ (GATE-16- SET-3)
l m 3 contains 1.0kg of an ideal gas [Cp =
1000 J/(kg.K) and Cv = 800J/(kg.K) at a 17. One kg of an ideal gas (gas constant, R =
pressure of 105 Pa. A stirrer is rotated at 400J/kg.K; specific heat at constant volume,
constant rpm in the container for 1000 Cv = 1000 J/kg.K) at 1 bar, and 300 K is
rotations and the applied torque is 100 N-m. contained in a sealed rigid cylinder. During
The final temperature of the gas (in K) is an adiabatic process, 100 kJ of work is done
(GATE-15-Set 1) on the system by a stirrer. The increase in
entropy of the system is ___ J/K.
(GATE-17- SET-1)
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: 447: First Law of Thermodynamics
18. A calorically perfect gas (specific heat at H1 =220 kJ, H2=247 kJ, and S1 = 0.23 kJ/K
constant pressure 1OOOJ/kgK) enters and and S2 = 0.3 kJ/K where T, U, H and S
leaves a gas turbine with the same velocity. represent temperature, internal energy,
The temperatures of the gas at turbine entry enthalpy and entropy respectively.
and exit are 1100K and 400K, respectively. (GATE-ME-00)
The power produced is 4.6MW and heat
escapes at the rate of 300kJ/s through the
turbine casing. The mass flow rate of the gas
(in kg/s) through the turbine is
(GATE-17- SET-2)
(a) 6.14 (b) 7.00
(c) 7.50 (d) 8.00
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SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: (a)
One Mark Solutions Sol: msX c p, (Tl -Tr) = mwX CPw (Tr-T2 )
=> 1 x 0.4 x [60-Tc] = 1 x 4.2 (Tr-20)
01. Ans: (b).
=> 24-0.4 Tr = 4.2 Tr-84
Sol: For flow Process W =-JVdP
=> 4.6 Tr = 24 + 84 = 108
Jv dP = Area ( OA1C) +Area(C12B)-Area(DOB2) 108
:. Tr = = 23.48 ° C
= P1 V1 + JPd V-P2V2 4.6
D - -r- - 2
3000 + Q = 2700 + 250
:. Q =-50 kJ
=> Vw Pw CPw(�T)w = PX t
I
=> 40 x 10-3 xlOOO x4.2x(�T)w= 2x20x60
:. (�T)w = 14.285°C = 14.3°C
:. dU = + 3000 kJ
JvdP=m CP(Tl -T 2) = H1 -H2
=-[Hz-Hi] =-�H 06. Ans: 100
i.e. An adiabatic flow work is equal to Sol: Power = ril.vdP
change in the enthalpy of the system. p = 1000kg/m 3
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: 449: First Law of Thermodynamics
1 1 oQ oW
V = - = -- m / kg = 0 (adiabatic ), =0
3
p 1000 dm dm
dP = 1OOkPa = 105Pa h1 = h2 => Cp (T1 -T2) = 0
ril = l kg / sec :. T1= T2
1
Power = l x -- x l 0 5 = 100W 03. Ans: (b)
1000
Sol: By applying steady flow energy equation to
nozzle:
+Q = h 2 + +W
y2
h1 +
y2
2x1000 2x1000
2
I
Two Marks Solutions
V1 = O, Q = O, W = O
01. :.V2 = 44.72./M = 44.72.Jo.s
Sol: Rigid, W = 0 ; = 40 ml sec
Insulated, Q = 0
:. dU = O; Cv dT = O 04. Ans: (c)
T=C Sol: Neon is Mono atomic gas, y = 1.67
dT = O .. .
P = C} Ysonic = �yRT = �1.67x421x 500
= 592 m/se
(dS)co 2
= O; (dS) N = 0
2
(dS)mix = -n R :r Xi /n Xi
05. Ans: (c)
= -2 x 8.31 4 [ X /nX + X
N N c /n Xc 02 02]
Sol: oQ = 0 (Insulated)
/n(�) + (�) /n(½}
2 2
= �2 X 1005(400-239.73)
=567.57 ml sec T1 = 500K, P2 = 100 kPa
Pe 50 P1 = 300 kPa, V2 = 180 m/sec
p --- -
e - RTe 0.287 X 239.73 V1 = lOm/sec, T2 = ?
k A, = 80 cm 2 , A2 = ?
=0.7267 �
m Cp = 1008 J/kgK
2 2
v + v2 +
h 1 +-1 Q=h 2 +-
rh= Pe Ae Ve
W
= 0.727 0.005 X 567.57
X 2 2
= 2.06 kg/sec ril = P1 A1 V1 = p 2 A2 V2
Q = O, W = O
09. Ans: (b)
:. V2 =�Vl2 +2C p (TI -T2 )
2 g
Sol: m s [h I +l+ 1 J+Q � 180=�10 2 +2x1008(500-T2 )
2000 1000
=m
[ h2 +-2-+-
g] +W
v 2 z 2- �32400 = 100 + 2016 (500-T2)
:. T2 = 484K
s
2000 1000 T
+·
12. Ans: (a) 14. Ans: 4.5
Sol: + �� + �� =
2 0 J m( h +
, 2 �io J +
6
:
Sol:U 1 +-
V12
2
8Q V22
+z 1 g +-=U2 +-
dm 2
8W
+z2 g +- •
Q
dm
8W _ . . (v/ - vf 8Q ·: adiab atic process, f:J =O
- - m (h - h2 )+m ---'----=-J +-
dt I 2000 dt dm
8W V2 -V22
180 - 5 2 2 =( u 1 - u2 )+( i J+(z 1 -z2 )g
=1[ 3250 - 2360]+1( J-5 dm 2
2000
= 90 1.2 kW
1kg kg 0.4
8Q-8W=dU; 8Q=O
16. Ans: 85 (range 84 to 86)
Sol:
0 - (-W) =C v dT
2
W = 628
dT = =785
CV 0.8 h 1 = lOOkJ/kg
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: 452: T hermodynamics
v ? oQ
h +-1-+- = h
v
+--+-
2 ow Cp = 1000 J/kgK = 1 kJ/kgK
2000 dm 2000 dm V 1= V2
2
2
I .
P = 100 kPa
T 1= 300 K
Wstirrer = Ws = -lOOx lOOOJ
Adiabatic process dQ = 0
dQ -dW = dU = mCv(T2-T 1) Five Marks Solutions
lx lOOO(T2-300)
0-(-105) =
T2 = 100+300 = 400K
T 400 01.
ds = mC .en 2 = 1x1000.en
v Tl 300 Sol:
= 287.681/K
( 1)
Sol:
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1
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. . : 453: First Law of Thermodynamics
y;I 02.
P 2 �: :
T2 =T1 ( 2 J =500x ( ) =315.7K Sol: Heat transfer =Area under T-S diag ram
Pi 10
1
y2 y2 1 Q 2 =-x{ T1 +T2 )x{S 2 -S i )
h i +-I + Q= h 2 +-2 + w 2
2 2g
= !(33o+44oXo.3-o.23)=26.95k1
Q=O, W=O, V1 =O 2
:. V2 = � 2CP (T1 -T2) I W2 =I Q2 -dU =26.95-(190-170)
=6.95kJ
= �2x1005{500-315.7)
=608.64 m I sec
RT
T2= 440K 2
Specific volum e, v2 = 2 T
P2
287x 315.7 m3
= =0.453
2x10 5 kg
T 1 = 330K
1
A 2V2
Mass flow rate, ril=
V2
St = 0.23 kJ/ K S2=0.3 kJ / K
2.5 x 10-4 x 608.64
= 03358kg / sec
0.453
----+S
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C4 Second Law of
Thermodynamics
04. Consider a refrigerator and a heat pump
One Mark Questions working on the reversed Carnot cycle
between the same temperature limits. Which
01. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects of the following is correct? (GATE-ME-95)
heat at a rate of 120 kW, while its (a) COP of refrigerator = COP of heat
compressor consumes a power of 30 kW. pump
The coefficient of performance of the (b) COP of refrigerator = COP of heat
system would be (GATE-ME-92) pump+ 1
(a) 1/4 (b) 4 (c) 1/3 (d) 3 (c) COP of refrigerator COP of heat
pump - 1
02. A reversible heat transfer demands: (d) COP of refrigerator = mverse of the
(GATE-ME-93) COP of heat pump
(a) The temperature difference causmg
heat transfer tends to zero 05. In the case of a refrigeration system
(b) The system receiving heat must be at a 8
undergoing an irreversible cycle, f ;
constant temperature.
(c) The system transferring out heat must is___(<0/ = 0/>0) (GATE-ME-95)
be at a constant temperature.
(d) Both interacting systems must be at 06. An industrial heat pump operates between
constant temperatures the temperatures of 27°C and -13°C. The
rates of heat addition and heat rejection are
03. Any thermodynamic cycle operating 750 W and 1000W, respectively. The COP
between two temperature limits is reversible for the heat pump is (GATE-ME-03)
if the product of the efficiency when (a) 7.5 (b) 6.5
operating as a heat engine and the COP (c) 4.0 (d) 3.0
when operating as a refrigerator is equal to
1. (GATE-ME-94) 07. The following four figures have been drawn
to represent a fictitious thermodynamic
cycle, on the P-v and T-S planes.
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: 455 : Second Law of Thermodynamics
• •
p T
rejected by CE-1 to reservoir B is used by
CE-2. For one cycle operation, if the net Q
absorbed by CE-1 from reservoir A is 150
MJ, the net heat rejected to reservoir C by
CE-2 (in MJ) is ____
V s
Figure 1 Figure 2
• •
p T
08. A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator 12. A heat pump absorbs 10 kW of heat from
maintains a temperature of -5 °c. The outside environment at 250 K while
ambient air temperature is 35 °c. The heat absorbing 15 kW of work. It delivers the
gained by the refrigerator at a continuous heat to a room that must be kept warm at
rate is 2.5 kJ/s. The power (in watt) required 300 K. The Coefficient of performance
to pump this heat out continuously is (COP) of the heat pump is ____
(GATE - 17- SET- l)
(GATE-ME-14-SET-4)
01. Round the clock cooling of an apartment temperature of low temperature reservoir?
having a load of 300 MJ/day requires and (GATE-ME -02)
air-conditioning plant of capacity about (a) 23° C (b) -23° C
(GATE-ME-93) (c) 0° C (d) 250° C
(a) 1 ton (b) 5 tons
(c) 10 tons (d) 100 tons 06. A heat engine having an efficiency of 70%
is used to drive a refrigerator having a
02. A solar energy based heat engine which
coefficient of performance of 5.The energy
receives 80 kJ of heat at 100° C and rejects absorbed from low temperature reservoir by
70 kJ of heat to the ambient at 30° C is to be the refrigerator for each kJ of energy
designed. The thermal efficiency of the heat absorbed from high temperature source by
engme 1s (GATE-ME-96) the engine is (GATE-ME -04)
(a) 70% (b) 18.8% (a) 0.14 kJ (b) 0.71 kJ
(c) 12.5% (d) Indeterminate (c) 3.5 kJ (d) 7.1 kJ
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: 457 : Second Law of Thermodynamics
08. A heat transformer is a device that transfers the heat pump delivers heat to its high
a part of the heat, supplied to it at an temperature sink is (GATE-ME-09)
intermediate temperature, to a high (a) 50 (b) 250
temperature reservoir while rejecting the (c) 300 (d) 360
remaining part to a low temperature heat
sink. In such a heat transformer, l OOkJ of 1 0. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of
heat is supplied at 350 K. The maximum heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain
amount of heat in kJ that can be transferred amount of heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It
to 400K, when the rest is rejected to a heat rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at 400 K.
sink at 300K is (GATE-ME-07) The net work output (in kJ) of the cycle is
(a) 12.50 (b) 14.29 (GATE- ME-14- SET-l)
(c) 33.33 (d) 57.14. (a) 0.8 (b) l .O (c) l.4 (d) 2.0
09. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat 1 1 . A reversible cycle receives 40 kJ of heat
from a high temperature source at a rate of from one heat source at a temperature of
1 OOkW and rejects heat to a sink at a rate of 127°C and 37 kJ from another heat source at
50kW. The entire work output of the heat 97°C. The heat rejected (in kJ) to the heat
engine is used to drive a reversible heat sink at 47°C is
pump operating between a set of (GATE-16- SET-2)
independent isothermal heat reservoirs at
I 7°C and 75 °C. The rate (in kW) at which
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (c)
One Mark Solutions Sol: 300 K
Q1 1000 W
01. Ans: (d)
=
...
Sol: =
250 W
W=30 kW 260 K
Q 1000
(COP)HP = I = =4
W 250
T2 = 268K
04. Ans: (c)
05. Q T2
(COP) R = 2 =
W T1 -T2
Sol: f Bi < 0 for irreversible process. 268
2.5 ---
w 308-268
=
f Bi = 0 for reversible process. (w) Ref = i6� = 62.·75 = 0.3731kW = 373. lW
f Bi > 0 for impossible process. 40
: 459 : Second Law of Thermodynamics
09. Ans: 50
QA Qc
Sol: =
TA Tc
Two Marks Solutions
1 50 -
Q 0 1 . Ans: (a)
900
= C
300 300 x 1 0 3 kJ
-
Sol: = 3 .472 kW = 1 Ton
Q C = 50MJ 24 x 3600
Qs = 66.67 kJ
W = Q s - QR
� 50 = 66.67- QR
:. QR = 1 6.67 kJ
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�.r�.�:�Publicabrm Thermodynamics
================================
05. Ans: (b) T, - T2 350-3 1 3
2_ 5 = ( ) x Q, = ( x Q1
T2 � 350 )
Sol : 11E - -- � 0.75 = 1 - - ;
- T1 - T2
T, Ti = 0. 1 057 1 Q i
0.25 = � · Q i = 23 .65 kW
1 000 Q1 23 · 65
Area = = = 78.83 m 2
T2 = 250 K = - 23 C 11 c 0.6 X 0.5
°
Cd X
T2 = 350 K
100 - Q
Q2
w
(COP)R = 5 = = -2L_
W 0.7 Q
Q2 = 3.5 Q = 3.5 X 1 = 3.5 kJ
( 100 - Q -W)
T2=300 K
Q+W 400 T,
W = 2.5kW
( COP ) = = =
HP w 400-350 T,-T2
_g_ = 7 · Q = 7W
w
cd = Collector density = 0.6 kW/m2 7(1 0 - Q)
Q= � ; Q = 50 kJ
11c = Collector efficiency = 0.5 Q 50
W= = = 7. 1 43 kJ
W = 11 Q 1
Heat Rejected = Q + W = 57 . 1 43 kJ
7 7
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09. Ans: (c)
Sol: High T3 = 273+75
temperature =348 K
source
--2 Q2 --1
+- =0
Irreversible
1000 800 400
Q2 = - 1 2 5 -4
- --- = --
800 400 1000 2000
800
:. Q z= -- = 0.4kJ
2000
Low T4 = 273+ 1 7
temperature = 290 K
sink Wnet=Q i+ Q 2 -Q3
= 2 + 0.4 -1 = l .4kJ
Q i = 100 kW ; Q2 = 50 kW ;
Work 'W' = 100 - 50 = 50 kW 1 1 . Ans: 64 (range 63 to 65)
T3 Sol:
Q
(COP) H.P = 3 = T 1 = 400 K
w T3 -T4
Q 3 = 348
=6
50 348-290
Q3 =300 kW
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cs Entropy
m entropy for the heater is ___ J/K and
One Mark Questions for water ___ J/K.
(GATE-ME -94)
O 1 . Which among the following relations is/are
valid ONLY for reversible process 05. For an ideal gas the expression
undergone by a pure substance?
(GATE-ME -93)
[r( ;; ), -T( ;;)J is always equal to:
(a) 8Q = dU + 8W (GATE-ME-97)
(b) T dS = dU + 8W (a) Zero (b) Cp I Cv (c) R (d) RT
(c) T dS = dU + p dv
(d) oQ = p dV + dU 06. A system undergoes a state change from 1 to
2. According to the second law of
02. When a system executes an irreversible thermodynamics, for the process to be
cycle: feasible, the entropy change, S2 - S1 of the
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ACE . .
Pl� . . : 463 : Entropy
09. If a closed system is underg oing an 01. Fig ure below s hows a reversible heat eng ine
irreversible process, the entropy of the ER having heat interactions with three
system (GATE-ME -09) constant tem perature system s. Calculate the
(a) m ust increase therm al efficiency of the heat engine.
(b) always rem ains constant
(c) m ust decrease
(d) can increase, decrease or rem ain constant
11. Whic h one of the following pairs of (a) 13.38 kJ/K (b)40 1 4.3 kJ/K
(c) 0.0446kJ/K (d) -0.0446 kJ/K
equations describes an irreversible heat
eng ine? (GATE-ME-14- SET-3)
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111 •
: 464 :
• •
Thermodynamics
•
� � ====================================
03 . Considering the relationship 06. A vapour absorption refrigeration system is
TdS = dU + PdV between the Entropy (S), a heat pump with three thermal reservoirs as
Internal energy (U), Pressure (P), shown in the figure. A refrigeration effect of
temperature (T) and Volume (V), 1 00 W is required at 250 K when the heat
Which of the following statements 1s source available is at 400 K. Heat rejection
correct? (GATE-ME-03) occurs at 300 K. The minimum value of heat
(a) It is applicable only for a reversible required (in W) is (GATE-ME-05)
process 1400K I
(b) For an irreversible process,
TdS > dU + PdV
(c) It is valid only for an ideal gas
( d) It is equivalent to first law, for a
reversible process 250K
(a) 1 67 (b) 1 00 (c) 80 (d) 20
Common Data for Question 04 & 05
Nitrogen gas (molecular weight 28) is enclosed in 07. A cyclic device operates between three
a cylinder by a piston, at the initial condition of 2 thermal reservoirs, as shown in the figure.
bar, 298 K and 1 m3 • In a particular process, the Heat is transferred to/from the cyclic device.
gas slowly expands under isothermal condition, It is assumed that heat transfer between each
until the volume becomes 2m3 . Heat exchange thermal reservoir and the cyclic device takes
occurs with the atmosphere at 298 K during this place across negligible temperature
process. difference. Interactions between the cyclic
device and the respective thermal reservoirs
04. The work interaction for the Nitrogen gas is that are shown in the figure are all in the
(GATE-ME-03) form of heat transfer.
(a) 200 kJ (b) 1 38.6 kJ (GATE-ME-08)
(c) 2 kJ (d) - 200 kJ SOO K
I OOO K 300 K
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. . . : 465 : Entropy
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��Nwa,ims
08. Consider the following two processes; 09. If the air has to flow from station P to station
(GATE-ME -10) Q, the m axim um possible value of pressure
(I) A heat source at 1200 K loses 2500 kJ in kPa at station Q is close to
of heat to a sink at 800 K (GATE-ME -11)
(II) A heat source at 800 K loses 2000 kJ (a) 50 (b) 87 (c) 128 (d) 150
of heat to a sink at 500 K
10. If the pressure at station Q is 50 kPa, the
Whic h of the following statem ents is true? c hang e in entropy (SQ - Sp) in kJ/kg K is
(a) Process I 1s m ore irreversible t han (GATE-ME -11)
process II (a) - 0.155 (b) 0
(b) Process II 1s m ore irreversible than (c) 0.160 (d) 0.355
process I
(c) Irreversibility associated in both the 11. An ideal g as of m ass m and tem perature T 1
processes are equal underg oes a reversible isotherm al process
(d) Bot h t he processes are reversible from an initial pressure P1 to final pressure
P2. T he heat loss during the process is Q.
Common Data for Question 09 & 10 The entropy chang e dS of the g as is
In an experim ental set-up, air flows between two (GATE-ME -12)
stations P and Q adiabatically. The direction of
flow depends on the pressure and tem perature (a) mR � :: ) (b) mR ln ( :: )
conditions m aintained at P and Q. The conditions
at station P are 150 kPa and 350 K. The (d) zero
tem perature at station Q is 300 K. The following
are the properties and relations pertaining to air:
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: 466: Thermodynamics
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (d) 07. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions
08. Ans: (b)
01. Ans: (d) Sol: When similar gases are mixed
Sol: dQ = dU + Pd V for reversible process (dS)mixing = 0
ds cv ds cp
Sol: (M tiv > 0 , Irreversible process
v=c P=C
(dS)w,,., - m Cp In ( � J 01.
:
8
353 Sol: f ; = 0 For reversible engine
= 20 x 4.186 /n (-)
303
= 12.787 kJ/K � + Q 2 -Q 3 = 0
T1 T2 T3
(:a -;,
+ O
1000 500 300
Sol:
(:t = ;v Q 3 = 0.2 . 3 = 60 kJ
300 ' Q
Cp = T (:l Cv = T (:t 150 -60
11 = 150 = 0.6 Or 60 %
:, Cp -Cv = R
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: 469 : Entropy
= 2.26 x (
8.314 2
) x298xln( ) = 138.61 kJ 07. Ans: (a)
28 1
Sol: f o Q = 0 for Reversible cycle
(·: R-�J T
Q, + Q2 - Q3 = 0
I Q 2 - 138.61 kJ T.. T2 T3
�S-S2 -S1 -- - - 0.4652
298
-
100 50 _ 60 =
+ O
T1 K
1000 500 300
06. Ans: (c) Cycle is Reversible; As it is a forward
Sol: T1 =
400K
device it is a heat engine.
Q2 = Q3 +W + Q1 - W
08. Ans: (b)
= Q3 + Q1
2500 _ 2500
Sol: ((�S) . ) I = _g_ _ _g_ =
uruv T2 TI 800 1200
= 3.125 - 2.083 = 1.042 kJ/K
T3 = 250K
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: 470: Thermodynamics
:: =(�: t = G��y--,
y
300 400
1.4 =-
mT
P1 = 150 kPa, P2 = 50 kPa
Q
s g = S r +
T1 = 350 K T2 = 300 K mT
T P
S Q -S P = C P 1n( 2 J - R 1n( 2 J = 0.88+
16.2x l0 3
TI pI lOx 283
300 50 = 0.88 + 5.7244 = 6.6044 kJ/kg.K
1.005 1n() -o.2811n( )
350 150
=
= -0.1549+0.3153 = 0.16>0
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: 471 : Entropy
Given , T = C
V
dS = S 2 - S 1 = R ln-2
v1
Tr
= 287 .en( 06
· = -116.368kJ / kg
0.9 )
Tds = Cv dT + Pdv P2
dT 1
ds = C + p dv = 1 X 287.en - =-198.93 J /K
V T T
dT R
= C - +-dv
V T V
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: 472 : T hermodynamics
18. Ans: 3 kJ
Sol:
=> IDi x C P; x(673 -323) = 1Ox4. l 86 x(323 -298)
(1)
kJ
mI x CP; = 2.99 -
T1 = 500 K
K
Cpw = 4. 1 86kJ/kg K
mw = 1 0 kg
T3 = 300K T; = 673K
(3 )
Reversible Engine
f ; =o
8
Tr = 323K
-9.!_ + Q 2 -Q 3 =0
T
T1 T2 T3 (8 S)·I mI x C P; /n ( r J
T
=
3
_!_Q_+ Q 2 _ __ = 0
I
0.01+ Q2 = 0
400 T
=> (8 S)water _
- IDw X C Pw X /n ( r J
Q2 = -4 kJ = 4 kJ (heat rejected) Tw
Wne1 = Q1 -Q2 -Q3
323 kJ
= 10 -4 -3 = 3 kJ = 10 X 4.186 /n = 3.372
298 K
kJ
(8S)univ = (8S) iron + (8 S) HzO = 1.1773 K
Five Marks Solutions
(8S)un iv > 0 so it is an irreversible process.
01.
Sol:
Heat lost by Iron = Heat gained by water
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I
Chapter
6 Properties of Pure substances
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: 474: Thermodynamics
09. A rig id container of volum e 0.5 m 3 contains 02. In the vicinity of the triple point, the vapour
1.0 kg of water at 120°C (Vr = 0.00106 pressures of liquid and solid am m onia are
m 3/kg , vg=0.8908 m 3/kg ). The state of water respectively g iven by
IS (GATE -15 -Set 3) 1n P = 15.16 -3063/T and
(a) Com pressed liquid 1n P = 18.70 - 3754/T
(b) saturated liquid Where p is in atm osp heres and T is in
(c) A m ixture of saturated liquid and Kelvin. Wh at is the tem perature at the triple
saturated vapor point. (GATE-ME -93)
(d) Super heated vapor
Statement for Linked Answer Q03 & Q04
10. The INCORRECT statem ent about the
c haracteristics of critical point of a pure
The following table of properties was printed out
substance is that
for saturated liquid and saturated vapour of
(GATE - 16 - SET - 3)
am m onia. T he titles for only the first two
(a) there IS no constant tem perature
colum ns are available. All that we know is that
vaporization process
the other colum ns (colum ns 3 to 8) contain data
(b) it has point inflection with zero slope
on specific properties, nam ely, internal energ y
(c) the ice directly converts from solid
(kJ/kg ), enthalpy (kJ/kg ) and entropy (kJ/kg .K).
p hase to vapor p hase
(d) saturated liquid and saturated vapor
states are identical
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: 475 : Properties of Pure Substances
Piston
Specific Volume
3
Enthalpy (kJ/kg)
Temp Psat (m /kg)
(OC) (bar) Saturated Saturated Saturated Saturated
liquid vapour liquid vapour
45 0.9593 0.001 0 1 0 1 5.26 1 88.45 2397.8
342.24 150 0.00 1 658 0.0 1 0337 1 6 1 0.5 26 1 .5 Stop System
I
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: 476 : Thermodynamics
06. At the end of the process, which one of the 08. The net entropy generation (considering the
following situations will be true? system and the thermal reservoir together)
(GATE-ME -08) during the process is closest to
(a) superheated vapor will be left in the (GATE-ME -08)
system (a) 7.5 J/K. (b) 7.7 J/K.
(b) no vapour will be left in the system (c) 8.5 J/K. (d) 10 J/K.
(c) a liquid + vapour mixture will be left in
the system 09. Steam enters a turbine at 30bar, 300° C
(d) the mixture will exist at a dry saturate (u = 2750 kJ/kg, h=2993 kJ/kg) and exits the
vapour state. turbine as saturated liquid at 15 kPa (u= 225
kJ/kg, h=226 kJ/kg). Heat loss to the
07. The work done by the system during the surrounding is 50 kJ/kg of steam flowing
process 1s (GATE-ME -08) through the turbine. Neglecting changes in
(a) 0.1 kJ (b) 0.2 kJ kinetic energy and potential energy, the
(c) 0.3 kJ (d) 0.4 kJ work output of the turbine (in kJ/kg of
steam) is ----
(GATE -15 -Set 3)
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (a)
h 1 =h2
Two Marks Solutions 371.43 = h12 + x2 (hg2 - h12 )
= 89.05+ X2(1418 - 89.05)
01. X2=0.212
Sol: Mass of liquid (m1) =
Ve O. l x1
= = I 00 kg
0.001
05. Ans: (a)
Yr
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: 479 : Properties of Pure Substances
m = mv + m, = 1.03 kg 1000
= 10- = 8.5 J /K.
V1 = v1 x m = 3.871 x 10-3 x 1.03 673
= 3.987 X 10-3 m3
V2 = 1.5 X 3.987 X 10-3 09. Ans: 2717
Sol: h i + - = h 2 + -
8Q 8W
V2 = 5.98 x10-3 m3
dm dm
Vz = 0.00598
Vz = = 0.0058 m3/kg 8W h _ h 8Q
m 1.03 =( I 2)
+
dm dm
At 200 kPa, vg2 = 0.002 m3/kg
= (2993-226) - 50 (-: Q = -50)
As v2 > Vg2 => state (2) is in superheated
= 2993-276 = 2717 kJ / kg
W =P (V2-V1)
= 200 X (0.00598 -0.00398) = 0.4 kJ
Fyderabad l Delhi l BhopaJ I Pune l Bhubaneswar l Lucknow l Pa!na l Bengaluru J Oicnnai l Vuayawada J Vizag I TIIUpati I Knkatpallyl Kolkatl I
C7 Availability
01. Availability of a system at any given state is 01. A heat reservoir at 900 K is brought into
(GATE-ME -00) contact with the ambient at 300 K for a short
(a) a property of the system time. During this period 9000 kJ of heat is
(b) the maximum work obtainable as the lost by the heat reservoir. The total loss in
system goes to dead state availability due to this process is
(c) the total energy of the system (GATE-ME -95)
(d) the maximum useful work obtainable as (a) 18000 kJ (b) 9000 kJ
the system goes to dead state (c) 6000 kJ (d) None of above
02. The maximum theoretical work obtainable, 02. A steel billet of 2000 kg mass is to be cooled
when a system interacts to equilibrium with from 1250 K to 450 K. The heat released
a reference environment, is called during this process is to be used as a source
(GATE-ME-14- SET-1) of energy. The ambient temperature is 303 K
(a) Entropy and specific heat of steel is 0.5 kJ/kg K. The
(b) Enthalpy available energy of this billet is
(c) Exergy (GATE-ME -04)
(d) Rothalpy (a) 490.44 MJ (b) 30.95 MJ
(c) 10.35 MJ (d) 0.10 MJ
03. A source at a temperature of 500K provides
1000 kJ of heat. The temperature of 03. A gas expands in a frictionless piston
environment is 27° C. The maximum useful cylinder arrangement. The expansion
work (in kJ) that can be obtained from the process is very slow, and is resisted by an
heat source is ambient pressure of 1OOkPa. During the
(GATE-ME -14- SET-3) expansion process, the pressure of the
system (gas) remains constant at 300 kPa.
The change in volume of the gas is O.O lm3 •
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. . : 481 : Thermodynamics
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SOLUTIONS
0 1 . Ans: (c)
Sol:
Total loss in available energy = Irreversibility 300 1
= 1 .005 ln - - 0.287 1n -
= To X �s
(_g_ - _g_J
500 5
( s2 - S1 ) = -0.5 1 34+0.46 1 9 = - 0.05 1 5
= T0
T2 T1 ( s1 - S2) = + 0.05 1 5
9000 _ 9000 50 2
= 300( ) = 6000 kJ AE = [0. 05(500 - 300 ) + ]
300 900 2000
- 300x(0.05 1 5)
02. Ans: (a) = 20 1 + 1 .25- 1 5 .45
= 20 1 .25- 1 5.45 = 1 87 kJ/kg
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: 483 : Availability
= T0 (_g_ _ _g_J
T2 T1
In (
T
300
2 ) = 0.2321
01.
Sol: I = To . (�S)univ
= m [ c. (T, -Ti ) - C, T0 ( �'. £n J]
3
Sgen = TO (�Ssys + �S surr) = 2x [0.7 ! !{37&37-300)-0.7 1 8x 300x l{ :�� )]
7
(�S)surr = 0 (Insulated)
= 1 2.56 kJ
I = To X (�S)sys .
I 00 = T0 x m x C, In ( �: J
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I8
Chapter
Air cycles
03. Which one of the following is NOT a
necessary assumption for the air-standard
(GATE-ME -08)
One Mark Questions
Otto cycle?
01. A cycle consisting of two reversible (a) All processes are both internally as well
isothermal processes and two reversible as externally reversible.
isobaric processes is known as (b) Intake and exhaust processes are
(GATE-ME -96) constant volume heat addition process.
(a) Atkinson cycle (c) The combustion process is constant
(b) Stirling cycle volume heat addition process.
(c) Brayton cycle (d) The working fluid is an ideal gas with
(d) Ericsson cycle constant specific heats.
02. A P-v diagram has been obtained from a test 04. Air enters a diesel engine with a density of
on a reciprocating compressor. Which of the 1.0 kg/m3.The compression ratio is 21. At
following represents that diagram? steady state, the air intake is 30x 10-3 kg/s
(GATE-ME -05) and the net work output is 15 kW. The mean
(a) effective pressure (in kPa) is ___
P (b)
Pout
p (GATE-15-Set 1)
---u_
Pout -
-1�
Pout
V
temperature, respectively, the efficiency of
the cycle is (GATE-15-Set 3)
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: 485 : Air Cycles
T4 -Ti
(a) 1 -
T3 -T2
T4 -T1
Two Marks Questions
(b) 1-
y (T3 -T2 )
(T4 -Ti ) 01. In air - standard Otto cycle the terminal
(c) 1 y pressures at the end of compression, heat
T3 -T2
release and expansion are respectively P2,
T4 -T1
(d) 1- P3 and P4. If the corresponding values are
(1-1XT3 -T2 )
P2', P3', and P4', taking into account the
effect of variable specific heat and
06. Propane (C3Hs) is burned in an oxygen
dissociation of the working fluid, then.
atmosphere with 10% deficit oxygen with
(GATE-ME -89)
respect to the stoichiometric requirement.
Assuming no hydrocarbons in the products, (a) P2 < P2' and P3 > P3',
the volume percentage of CO in the products (b) P3 < P3' and P4 > P4',
1s ___ (GATE - 16 - SET - l) (c) P2 > P2', P3 > P)' and P4 < Pi
(d) P2 >P2', P3 > P3'
07. The figure below shows an air standard
Diesel cycle in p-V diagram. The cut-off 02. An air -standard Diesel cycle consists of:
ratio is given by: (GATE - PI-16) (GATE-ME -90)
(a) Two adiabatic and two constant
volume processes
(a) 2 (b) �
V1 V1 03. The Figure below shows a thermodynamic
cycle undergone by a certain system. Find
(c) V 3 (d) 2 the mean effective pressure in N/m
V2 V3
(GATE-ME -93)
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: 486: T hermodynamics
10. In a spark ignition engine working on the (a) 879.1 kJ (b) 890.2 kJ
ideal Otto cycle, the compression ratio is (c) 895.3 kJ (d) 973.5 kJ
5.5. The work output per cycle (i.e., area of
the P- V diagram) is equal to 23.625xI05xVc 14. A reversible thermodynamic cycle
J, where Ve is the clearance volume in m3 • containing only three processes and
The indicated mean effective pressure is producing work is to be constructed. The
(GATE-ME -01) constraints are (GATE-ME -05)
(a) 4.295 bar (b) 5.250 bar (i) there must be one isothermal process,
(c) 86.870 bar (d) 106.300 bar (ii) there must be one isentropic process,
(iii) the maximum and minimum cycle
11. An ideal air standard Otto cycle has a pressures and the clearance volume are
compression ratio of 8.5 If the ratio of the fixed,
specific heats of air (y) is 1.4, what is the (iv) polytropic processes are not allowed.
thermal efficiency in percentage of the Otto Then the number of possible cycles are
cycle? (GATE-ME -02) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 57.5 (b) 45.7 (c) 52.5 (d) 95
Common Data for Question 15 & 16
12. For an engine operating on air standard Otto In two air standard cycles - one operating on the
cycle, the clearance volume is 10% of the Otto and the other on the Brayton cycle - air is
swept volume. The specific heat ratio of air isentropically compressed from 300 to 450 K.
is 1.4. The air standard cycle efficiency is Heat is added to raise the temperature to 600K in
(GATE-ME -03) the Otto cycle and to 550 K in the Brayton cycle.
(a) 38.3% (b) 39.8 %
(c) 60.2% (d) 61.7% 15. If TJo and TJs are the efficiencies of the Otto
and Brayton cycles, the (GATE-ME -05)
13. An engine working on air standard Otto (a) TJo =0.25, TJs =0.18
cycle has a cylinder diameter of 10 cm and (b) TJo=TJ B=0.33
stroke length of 15 cm. The ratio of specific
(c) TJo=0.5, TJs =0.45
heats for air is 1.4. If the clearance volume
(d) It is not possible to calculate the
is 196.3 cc and the heat supplied per kg of
efficiencies unless the temperature after
air per cycle is 1800 kJ/kg, then work output
the expansion is given
per cycle per kg of air is (GATE-ME -04)
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ACE Thermodynamics
4
"
.�
V • • • •
: 488 :
16. If W0 and W8 are work outputs per units 18. The Stroke and bore of a four stroke spark
mass, then (GATE-ME -05) ignition engine are 250mm and 200mm
(a) Wo > Ws respectively. The clearance volume is
(b) Wo < Ws 0.001m3 • If the specific heat ratio y = 1.4,
(c) Wo = Ws the air-standard cycle efficiency of the
(d) It is not possible to calculate the work engine is (GATE-ME-07)
outputs unless the temperature after (a) 46.40% (b) 56.10%
. . .
expansion is given (c) 58.20% (d) 62.80%.
17. Group I shows different heat addition Common Data for Question 19 & 20
processes in power cycles. Likewise, Group A thermodynamic cycle with an ideal gas
II show different heat removal process. working fluid is shown below.
Group III lists power cycles. Match items
from Groups I, II and III (GATE-ME -06)
p
3
400kPa
3. Carnot Cycle lm
R. Temperature U. Temperature
4. Diesel cycle
constant constant
5. Brayton cycle
19. The above cycle is represented on T-S plane
by (GATE-ME -07)
Q-S-5 P-S-5 d1
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: 489 : Air Cycles
20. If the specific heats of the working fluid are 24. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of
constant and the value of specific heat ratio 17 and cut-off takes place at 10% of the
y is 1.4, the thermal efficiency (%) of the stroke. Assuming ratio of specific heats (y)
cycle is (GATE-ME -07) as 1.4, the air-standard efficiency (in
(a) 21 (b) 40.9 (c) 42.6 (d) 59.7 percent) is----
(GATE-ME -14- SET-3)
21. In an air-standard Otto cycle, the 25. In a compression ignition engine, the inlet
compression ratio is 10. The condition at the air pressure is 1 bar and the pressure at the
beginning of the compression process is end of isentropic compression is 32.42 bar.
1 OOkPa and 27°C. Heat added at constant The expansion ratio is 8. Assuming ratio of
volume is 1500 kJ/kg, while 700 kJ/kg of specific heats (y) as 1.4, the air standard
heat is rejected during the other constant efficiency (in percent) is ---
volume process in the cycle. Specific gas (GATE-ME -14- SET-4)
constant for air = 0.287 kJ/kgK. The mean
effective pressure (in kPa) of the cycle is 26. In an air-standard Otto cycle, air is supplied
(GATE-ME -09) at O. lMPa and 308 K. The ratio of the
(a) 103 (b) 310 (c) 515 (d) 1032 specific heats (y) and the specific gas
constant (R) of air are 1.4 and 288.8 J/kg.K,
22. A turbo-charged four-stroke direct injection respectively. If the compression ratio is 8
diesel engine has a displacement volume of and the maximum temperature in the cycle
0.0259m 3 (25.9 liters). The engine has an is 2660 K, the heat (in kJ/kg) supplied to the
output of 950 kW at 2200 rpm. The mean engme 1s ___ (GATE-ME -14- SET-l)
effective pressure (in MPa) is closest to
(GATE-ME -10) 27. For the same values of peak pressure, peak
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 temperature and heat rejection, the correct
order of efficiencies for Otto, dual and diesel
23. The crank radius of a single-cylinder I.C. cycles is (GATE-15-Set 2)
engine is 60mm and the diameter of the (a) 11otto >
11dual> 11Diesel
cylinder is 80 mm. The swept volume of the (b)
(GATE-ME -12)
11diesel >
11Dual >
11otto
cylinder in cm3 Is
(C) 11Dual 11Diesel 11otto
(a) 48 (b) 96 (c) 302 (d) 603
> >
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::•�t1�Pu
490 Thermod anncs
�-�cci:•�=======�:��:.;.:==============,,::;;:,;�:yn
�:;:'�
04. An air standard Otto cycle has a volumetric
compression ratio of 6, the lowest cycle
Five Marks Questions pressure of 0.1 MPa and operates between
temperature limits of 27° C and 1569° C.
01. The exhaust gas composition obtained from (GATE- ME-94)
an Orsat apparatus in a test on a spark (a) Calculate the temperature and pressure
ignition engine is as follows: CO2 = 11 after the isentropic expansion (Ratio of
percent , 02 = 0.4 percent and CO = 9 specific heats = 1.4).
percent. If the fuel is !so-Octane (Cs H is). (b) Since it is observed that values in are
Determine the Air/Fuel ratio of the mixture well above the lowest cycle operating
supplied to the engine. Assume molecular conditions, the expansion process was
weight of Air = 29, H2 = 2.0 and C = 12.0 allowed to continue down to a pressure
Molar ratio of Nitrogen to oxygen in air is of 0.1 MPa. Which process is required
3.76 (GATE-ME -89) to complete the cycle? Name the cycle
so obtained.
02. A four cylinder, four stroke compression (c) Determine by what percentage the
ignition engine develops an indicated power cycle efficiency has been improved.
output of 150 kW at 150 rpm. The stroke is
1.5 times the bore and the indicated mean 05. Propane (C3 Hs) is used as a fuel in an
effective pressure (imep) is 6.0 bar. engine with 30% excess air. Assuming
Determine the dimensions of the cylinder. complete combustion determine the
(GATE-ME -90) composition of exhaust gases on mass basis.
Atomic weights are C = 12, 0 = 16, N = 14,
03. A double acting single stage compressor H = 1. Molar ratio of nitrogen to oxygen is
running at 200 rpm has an average piston 3.76. (GATE -ME-94)
speed of 3m/s. Its indicated horse power is
50 hp while compressing air from 1 bar to 6 06. The minimum pressure and temperature in
bar with a compression index of 1.2. If the an Otto cycle are 100 kPa and 27°C. The
temperature of air at inlet is 20°c, determine amount of heat added to the cycle is 1500
the dimensions of the cylinder neglecting kJ/kg. Determine the pressures and
clearance. (GATE-ME - 91) temperatures at all points of the air standard
Otto cycle. Also calculate the specific work
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: 491 : Air Cycles
and the therm al efficiency of the cycle for a m 3/s m easured at suction conditions. Given
J.
com pression ratio of 8 : 1 [Take Cv(air) as that the percentage clearance is 4 and that
the index of compression and expansion is
0.72kJ/kgK and (�r =1.4 ].
1.2, calculate (a) the ideal volum etric
V air
(GATE-ME-98)
efficiency and (b) the cylinder bore and
stroke, assum ing the bore/stroke ratio is 0.8.
(GATE-ME-00)
07. A large diesel engine runs on four stroke
cycle at 2000 rpm . The engine has a
10. A reciprocating com pressor 1s to be
displacem ent of 25 liter and a brake m ean
designed to com press 4.5kg/m in of air from
effective pressure of 0.6 MN/m 2 • It
consum es 0.018 kg/s of fuel (calorific value 100 kPa and 27°C through an overall
= 42000 kJ/kg). Determ ine the brake power pressure ratio of 9. The law of com pression
and the brake therm al efficiency. is PV 1 3 = constant. Calculate the savings in
(GATE-ME -99) power consum ption and gain in isotherm al
efficiency, w hen a two-stage com pressor
08. An isentropic air turbine is used to supply with com plete inter-cooling is used in place
0.1kg/s of air at 0.1 MN/m 2 and at 285 K to of a single stage com pressor. Assum e equal
a cabin. The pressure at inlet to the pressure ratio in both the stages of the two
turbine is 0.4 MN/m 2 . Determ ine the stage com pressor.
tem perature at turbine inlet and the power (Gas Constant = 0.287kJ/kg-K).
developed by the turbine. Assum e Cp = 1.0 (GATE-ME-02)
kJ/kgK. (GATE-ME -99)
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SOLUTIONS
05. Ans: (b)
One Mark Solutions Sol: Heat supply = Qs = C P (T3 -T2 )
Heat rejection = Q R = CJT -T1 )
01. Ans: (d) 4
T
02. Ans: (d) 2 Qs 3
6:
pressure.
11 diesel
=1 -
04. Ans: 525
Sol: rk =21 = l - C v (T4 -T1 )
C p (T3 - T2 )
1 = m3
v1 = - l-
P1 kg
06. Ans: 14.29% (range 13.7 to 14.9)
1 m3
V = - = -=0.04762 - Sol: C3Hs+ x02 � aC02+ bH20
V1
2 21 21 kg
Carbon balance :
P(kW) a=3
m(kg / sec)
hydrogen balance:
m3
(v 1 - v ) 2b = 8 � b = 4
2 kg
Oxygen balance:
2x = 2a+b
-
_ 30 x l 0-3
b 4
(1- 0.04762) � x = a+ - = 3+ - = 5
15
2 2
= =525 kPa For chemically correct or stoichiometric
30 X 10-3 X 0.95238
burning, no. of moles of 02 required are = 5.
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ACE · cycles
�.�•..,:·=
l!i&�p
�·- :•:,.========....,;,.= :;:49:3�:
::rm�i�Pu�li�ifi.�'311�:c.i Air
=============::���:;;;;:
As it is burnt with 10% deficient oxyg en, it
will g enerate CO. p 3
The new equation is
C3Hs + 0.9 x 502 � aC02 + bCO + cH20
Carbon balance: 4'
a+b=3
Hydrogen balance:
2c = 8 � c = 4
V
Oxygen balance:
2a + b + C =0.9 X 5 X 2 =9
2a + b + c = 9 02. Ans: (c)
=> 2a + b + 4 =9 => 2a + b = 5 ... (1)
a + b =3 (2) 03.
By solving (1) & (2) 1
Sol: W = - x (500-200) x lOO x 0.02
2
a=2&b= l
in the ex haust products the no. of m oles of _!_ x 300 x0.02 = 3 kJ
=
2
CO are 1.% by volum e ofCO in exhaust.
W = 3 kJ
b Mep =
x lOO V8 (0.03-0.01)
a +b+c
1 3
=---x lOO = - X 100 = 150 kPa.
2 +1 + 4
1
= - x lOO = 14.29% 04. Ans : True
16 kg s + 64 kg s � 44 + 36
0 1 . Ans: (d) 1 kg CH4 requires 4 kgs of 02
Sol: Dotted line with variation of specific heats,
s olid line without variation of specific heat
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. .t\CE . �.-:oo:,•========�:494 ·
��-� Thermod anncs
"'t'=
.l!lfti�,am�IH'l ::! • �Pn�Ni�d
:;1'!'111 =
.a; :;:�==========����yn�=�:_
07. Ans: (a) 11. Ans: (a)
Sol: 11 = 1 -
( 1 J y -l
rk
= 1-
( 1 )0.4
8.5
= 0.5751 or 57.51%
T1 = 300 K ; Pd = 9 bar ; Ps = 1 bar.
-1
1.4-1 1
=
r ]
Sol:
111.13 kJ / kg
vs +O. l VS = 11
=
=
O.l VS
08. Ans: (c)
1 Jy-l ( 1 ) 0.4
11 =1-( = 1- = 0.6167 or 61.7 %
1 .
-
Sol: T2 = T1 x r/ 300 (4) 445.8 K
01 44 =
rk 11
y = .
T2 -T1 445.8-300
T� = Ti = 300 +
'Il e 0.8 13. Ans: (d)
+
Sol: p2 =M=4
Pi
5 .5 Ve -Ve 3 1
4.5 Ve
X
=
�2
V V
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: 495: Air Cycles
Wnet
v8 v1 - v 2 V3 =
2.6V2
V3
1500 -700 Cut offratio (re) = 2.6
1032.39 kPa. V2
=
0.861- 0.0861
= =
( 2;�:�� 1
Power(kW)
Sol: mep=
k C
Actualdiplacementvol( in m 3 /sec)
-[ 1 - \ ,, J]xtOO
950 1.4x 7
=-----
2200
0.0259x _ 1 3.8103-1
120 - [1 - ( )] X 100
1.4x3.1058 2.6 -1
= 2000 kPa � 2 MPa
=
59.6 %.
23. Ans: (d)
Sol: L = 2r 2 x 60= 25. Ans: 59.6%
=
120 mm = 0.12 m = 12cm Sol:
p
D 0.08 m 8 cm
2
= =
Vs = 1t 1t 2
4 D L = 4 x8 x12
2
4
p2
Jr
Sol: I
Compression ratio(rk) = �= (
V2 pt
4
32.42 1.4
= (--) =12
1 1
V
i.-- V 1 -V2--+I
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. . : 497: Air Cycles
_ 1 [ r[ -lJ
11th- 1-� --
4
re -1
4
yrk . I I v=c
Isentrop1c process
_ 1 (1.5)1-4 -1
- 1- [ ]
(1.4x12r4 1.5-1
V s
26. Ans: 1409.63 kJ/kg Area of Diesel is more than Area of Otto
Sol: (Work)oiesel > (Work)otto
Hence (11)niese1 > (11) > (rt) otto
For any comparison dual cycle is a1Wf1YS in
P1 = 100 kPa
between Otto and Diesel cycles.
T 1 = 308 K
T3 = 2660 K V
y= 1.4
Five Marks Solutions
R = 288.8 J/kg.K
01.
rk = compression ratio -= 8 Sol: xCsH1s + a(02 + 3.76N2)
. • = V1
288·8
Cv = � = = 7221 /kgK C -balance fu- balance
y- 1 1.4-1
8x = 11+9 = 20 2d = 18x
T2 = T1.(rk)Y-1 = 308 (8)°"4 = 707.6K
Heat supplied (Q) = Cv (T3- T2) X = 2.5 d = 9x = 9 X 2.5 = 22.5
= 0.722(2660 - 707.6) Qi -balance
= 1409.63 kJ/kg 2a = 22+ 9+ 0.8 + 22.5 = 54.3
a = = 27.15
543
Fyderahad j Delhi j Bhopal j J'unej Bhubaneswarl Lucknow! Patna j Benpiuruj Chcnnai IVuayawadal Vizag IT1111pati I .Kukatpallyj Kolkata I
: 498: Thermodynamics
02 = 50x0.746
3835.72 491.723
13.458
285 D = 0.2754 metres 27.54 cm
= =
=
02. 04.
= pmi LANn
Sol: IP (kW)
Sol:
120 p
600xl.5Dx ,r D2 x150x4
150 = 4
120
3 150x120 = 0.042463
D =
600 X 1.5 X 1[ X 150
D = 34.88 cm V
f-,J
P 1 = 1 bar ; P 2 = 6 bar T 1842
(a) T4 = rr-13 = = 899.55 K
1 [(;,
k 6 o.4
2
Power (kW)- � . P1 V T4
P 4 �P4= P 1 X -
n 1 -
Pi -
T4
=
1'i 1'i
= 100 X 899·55 = 299.85 kPa
,r D2 LN [( P2 J lj
1
= � . P1 n�
- 300
n -1 60
x
J r;'
4 Pi
(b) = (p3
2 X 1.2
T3
50 X 0.746 = 100 T4 P4
1.2-1
X
X 1t D2
0.45 X 200
[(6)�:� -l] P = (T r�'
3 3
60 J
x
4 P4 T4
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: 499 : Air Cycles
05.
p3 = p4 (
T3 r-
y
1
= 299_85
(
1842 )o.4
1.4
2 X 3 + 4 + 2c = 13
(7.13)
1 - 1.4 0.592 or 59.2 % 2c = 13 - 10 = 3 , C = 1.5 � 02
24.49
r
= =
= 15.71 %
Qs = 1500 kJ I kg 07.
fk = 8
Sol: BP (kW) =
b xLANn
_m_ep___
689.21 K
Brake Thermal efficiency
=
brake power(k W)
(ri) =
mr (kg/ sec) xCV(k J / kg)
1 .4
250
----- = 0.3307 or 33.07 %
p2
T
pI ( 2
r- y
1
l 00 (
689.21 o.4
)
=
0.018 X 42000
TI J 300
= =
TI = � = = 423.5 K
0.673 0.673
11,.- t-( :.f-1-( ½f-o.S647
WT = Cp (T1 -T2) = 1 (423.5 -285)
Qs = Cv (T3 - T2) = 138.5 kJ/kg
= 0.718 (2778 - 689.21) = 1500 kJ / kg
WT (kW) = 0.1 x 138.5 = 13.85 kW
QR = Cv (T4 -T1)
= 0.718 (1209.2 - 300)
= 652.8 kJ/ kg
09. 45
=
(_!2_) X · X 0.287 X 300[9�:! - 1 ]
Sol: Single Acting; Single Cylinder, D = 0.8 1.3- 1 60
L
= 18.48 kW
= 1 + C- C - mRT1 /n -
(Wc)Isothermal -
Pi
11Vol
(p J¼
�
Pi
600 ½. 45
1 + 0.04 - 0.04 (-) = 0.862 = · x0.287x300x£n _!_
2
60 9
=
1 00
= 14. 1 88 kW
V1 =V2 (
p ½ 6 ½.
0. 1 2 ( ) = 0.431 5
J
4
�
=
I
N
;r D L-xn 45 2xl.3
Volume flow rate = - x17.,"0 · = · x 0.287 x300[9�:! - 1 ]
2
4 60
1
60 0.3
0.43 1 5 = ;r x x D x7.5xlx0.862 1 6. 1 49 kW
4 D 0.8
2
=
14·188
Single stage = xlOO= 76.77%
18.48
11isothermal -
1 0.
Sol: m = 4.5 kg/min P1 = 1 00 kPa 14· 1 88
2 stage = xlOO = 87.85%
T1 = 300K;
llisothermal -
1 6. 1 49
% gain in Isothermal efficiency
Pi
= 9 = pressure Ratio ·
p 87.85- 76.77
xlOO 14.43%
76.77
= =
py l .3 = C
I
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Psychrometry
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.027
One Mark Questions (c) 0.25 (d) 0.75
01. For air with a relative humidity of 80% 04. Water at 42° C is sprayed into a stream of
(GATE-ME-03) air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb
(a) the dry bulb temperature is less than temperature of 40 ° C and a wet bulb
the wet bulb temperature temperature of 20° C. The air leaving the
(b) the dew point-temperature is less than spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of
wet bulb temperature the following statements is true?
(c) the dew point and wet bulb (GATE-ME--05)
temperatures are equal (a) Air gets cooled and humidified
(d) the dry bulb and dew point (b) Air gets heated and humidified
temperatures are equal (c) Air gets heated and dehumidified
(d) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
02. During chemical dehumidification process
of air (GATE-ME-04) 05. Dew point temperature is the temperature at
(a) dry bulb temperature and specific which condensation begins when the air is
humidity decrease cooled at constant (GATE-ME -06)
(b) dry bulb temperature increases and (a) Volume (b) Entropy
specific humidity decreases (c) Pressure (d) Enthalpy
(c) dry bulb temperature decreases and
specific humidity increases 06. If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is
(d) dry bulb temperature and specific heated to a higher temperature, then
humidity increase (GATE-ME-11)
(a) Specific humidity of the air increases
03. For a typical sample of ambient air (at 35°C, (b) Specific humidity of the air decreases
75% relative humidity and standard (c) Relative humidity of the air increases
atmospheric pressure), the amount of (d) Relative humidity of the air decreases
moisture in kg per kg of dry air will be
approximately (GATE-ME -OS)
07. · The pressure, dry bulb temperature and with no condensation, the humidity ratio of
relative humidty of air in a room are 1 bar, kg
the final stream (in J is ---
30° C and 70 %, respectively. If the saturated kg dry air
steam pressure at 30°C is 4.25 kPa, the (GATE -15 -Set 1)
specific humidity of the room air in kg water
vapour/kg dry air is (GATE-ME -13) 11. If a mass of moist air contained in a closed
(a) 0.0083 (b) 0.0101 metallic vessel is heated, then its
(c) 0.0191 (d) 0.0232 (GATE - 17-SET -2)
(A) relative humidity decreases
08. Moist air at 35° C and 100% relative (B) relative humidity increases
humidity is entering a psychrometric device (C) specific humidity increases
and leaving at 25°C and 100% relative (D) specific humidity decreases
humidity. The name of the device is
(GATE-ME -14-SET-4)
(a) Humidifier (b) Dehumidifier Two Marks Questions
(c) Sensible heater (d) Sensible cooler
01. Wet bulb depression, under saturated
09. A sample of moist air at a total pressure of ambient air conditions: (GATE-ME-89)
85 kPa has a dry bulb temperature of 30° C (a) is always positive
(Saturation vapour pressure of water = 4.24 (b) is always negative
kPa). If the air sample has a relative (c) is always zero
humidity of 65 %, the absolute humidity (in (d) may have a value depending upon the
gram) of water vapour per kg of dry air is dew point temperature
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3)
02. Atmospheric air from 40° C and 60 percent
10. A stream of moist air (mass flow rate = 10.1 relative humidity can be brought to 20°c
kg/s) with humidity ratio of 0.01 and 60 percent relative humidity by
kg (GATE-ME-90)
mixes with a second stream of
kg dry air (a) Cooling and dehumidification process
superheated water vapour flowing at 0.1 (b) Cooling and humidification process
kg/s. Assuming proper and uniform mixing (c) Adiabatic saturation process
(d) Sensible cooling process
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:504: Thermodynamics
03. If moist air is cooled by sensible heat (a) the wet bulb temperature and specific
removal, which of the following is true? enthalpy increase
(GATE-ME-91) (b) the wet bulb temperature and specific
(a) Neither relative humidity nor specific enthalpy decrease
humidity changes ( c) the wet bulb temperature increases and
(b) Specific humidity changes but not specific enthalpy decreases
relative humidity ( d) the wet bulb temperature decreases and
( c) Both relative humidity and specific specific enthalpy increases
humidity change
( d) None of the above 06. Dew point temperature of air at one
atmospheric pressure ( l .013bar) is 18°C.
04. Select statements from List II matching the The air dry bulb temperature is 30°C. The
processes in List I. Entry your answer as D, saturation pressure of water at l 8°C and.
C if the correct choice for ( 1 ) is (D) and that 30°C are 0.02062 bar and 0.04241 bar
for (2) is (C) (GATE-ME -99) respectively. The specific heat of air and
List -I water vapour respectively are 1 .005 and 1 .88
( 1 ) Cooling and dehumidification kJ/kg K and the latent heat of vaporization
(2) Chemical dehumidification of water at 0°C is 2500 kJ/kg. The specific
List II humidity (kJ/kg of dry air) and enthalpy
(a) Dry bulb temperature increases, but (kJ/kg of dry air) of this moist air
dew - point temperature decreases. respectively, are (GATE-ME -04)
(b) Dew - point temperature increases and
(a) 0.0 1 05 1 , 52.64 (b) 0.0 1 291, 63. 1 5
Dry bulb temperature remains
(c) 0.0 1 481, 78.60 (d) 0.1 532, 8 1.40
unchanged
( c) Dry-bulb and wet - bulb temperatures
07. Various psychrometric processes are shown
decrease
in the figure below. (GATE-ME -05)
( d) Dry - bulb temperature decreases, but
dew - point temperature increases
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: 505 : Psychrometcy
08. The statements concern psychrometric chart. 10. Atmospheric air at a flow rate of 3 kg/s (on
(GATE-ME -06) dry basis) enters cooling and dehumidifying
1. Constant relative humidity lines are coil with an enthalpy of 85 kJ/kg of dry air
uphill straight lines to the right and a humidity ratio of 19 grams/kg of dry
2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines are air. The air leaves the coil with an enthalpy
downhill straight lines to the right of 43 kJ/kg of dry air and a humidity ratio of
3. Constant specific volume lines are
8 grams/kg of dry air. If the condensate
downhill straight lines to the right
water leaves the coil with an enthalpy of
4. Constant enthalpy lines are coincident
with constant wet bulb temperature lines. 67kJ/kg, the required cooling capacity of the
Which of the statements are correct? coil in kW is (GATE-ME -07)
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 75.0 (b) 123.8
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (c) 128.2 (d) 159.0
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ACE : 506 : Thermodynamics
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11. Moist air at a pressure of 1OOkPa is is 4.24 kPa and the total pressure is 90 kPa,
compressed to 500kPa and then cooled to then the relative humidity (in %) of air
35°C in an after cooler. The air at the entry sample is (GATE-ME -10)
(a) 50.5 (b) 38.5
to the after cooler is unsaturated and become
(c) 56.5 (d) 68.5
just saturated at the exit of the after cooler.
The saturation pressure of water at 35° C is 14. A room contains 35kg of dry air and 0.5kg
5.628 kPa. The partial pressure of water of water vapor. The total pressure and
vapour (in kPa) in the moist air entering the temperature of air in the room are 1OOkPa
compressor is closest to (GATE-ME-08) and 25°C respectively. Given that the
(a) 0.57 (b) 1.13 saturation pressure for water at 25° C is
(c) 2.26 (d) 4.52 3. l 7kPa, the relative humidity of the air in
the room is (GATE-ME-12)
12. Air (at atmospheric pressure) at a dry bulb (a) 67% (b) 55%
temperature of 40° C and wet bulb (c) 83% (d) 71%
temperature of 20° C is humidified in an air
washer operating with continuous water 15. Air in a room is at 35° C and 60% relative
recirculation. The wet bulb depression (i.e. humidity (RH). The pressure in the room is
the difference between the dry and wet bulb 0.1 MPa. The saturation pressure of water at
temperatures) at the exit is 25% of that at 35° C is 5.63 kPa. The humidity ratio of the
the inlet. The dry bulb temperature at the air (in gram/kg of dry air) is___
exit of the air washer is closest to (GATE -15 -Set 3)
(GATE-ME-OS)
(a) 10 C
°
(b) 20° c 16. The partial pressure of water vapour in a
(c) 25 C
°
(d) 30 c °
moist air sample of relative humidity 70% is
1.6 kPa, the total pressure being 101.325
kPa. Moist air may be treated as an ideal gas
13. A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature mixture of water vapour and dry air. The
of 30°C and specific humidity of 11.5 g relation between saturation temperature (Ts
water vapour per kg dry air. Assume in K) and saturation pressure cPs in kPa) for
molecular weight of air as 28.93. If the water is given by
saturation vapour pressure of water at 30°C /n(PJP0) = 14.317 - 5304/Ts ,
Fydcrabad J Dclhi l Bhopa) J Pune l Bhubaneswar l Lucknow l Patna l Bengaluru l Chennai l Vuayawada J V,zag ITllUpali I �I Kolkatl I
: 507 : Psychrometry
02. 20 kg/s of air at 30° C and a humidity ratio saturation, enthalpy and dew point. Assume
of 0.01 kg water vapour/kg air are mixed that air and water vapour may be treated as
with 1 2 kg/s of air at 38° C and a humidity perfect gases. The following data may be
ratio of 0.02 kg water vapour/kg air. If there used:
is no external addition or removal of 29 ; Mwater = 1 8 ;
Mair =
moisture and heat, determine the Universal Gas constant= 8.3 1 4 kJ/kg moleK
temperature and humidity ratio of the CPa = 1 kJ/kgK, CPw = 4. 1 86 kJ/kgK
resultant air steam from first principles. Vapour pressure of water follows the
Indicate the process on a psychrometric equation
chart. 5325
(GATE-ME-89) In P = 1 9.0 1 3 - , P in kPa & T inK
T
03. In an air-conditioning system 200 m3/min (GATE-ME-94)
air is cooled and dehumidified from 32°C
and specific humidity 0.01 4 kg/kg of dry air 05. On the psychometric chart consider a point
to 16°C and specific humidity 0.01 1 kg/kg at a given dry and wet bulb temperature. At
this point show directions of
of dry air. Draw the psychrometric process
and calculate the sensible heat factor.
(GATE-ME -95)
(a) Sensible cooling
Average property values may be taken as:
(b) Sensible heating
Density of air, p = 1.2 kg/kg of dry air
( c) Adiabatic saturation
Specific heat of air, Cp = 1.0216 kJ/kgK
( d) Isothermal humidification
Latent heat of water, h1 = 2500 kJ/kg
( e) Cooling and dehumidification
(GATE-ME -90)
( f) Chemical dehumidification
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions Sol: Sensible Heating process
Py
(j> =
psat
2 975
= 0.622 X ·
1 00- 2.975
03. Ans: (b)
kg of vapour
Sol: From steam table at 35°C, Psat = 5.628 kPa = 0_0191
kg of dry air
(j> = pv =:> 0.75= �
Psat 5.628
08. Ans: (b)
P v = 4.221 kPa Sol: Dehumidifier
ro = 0.622 pv
patm - Pv
Pv = 2.756 kPa
pv 2· 756
ro= 0 .622 = 0.622 X Two Marks Solutions
patrn - pv 85- 2.756
= 0 . 0 20 84 kg ofVapour /kg of dry air 0 1. Ans: (c)
= 20 .84 gm ofVapour /kg of dry air Sol: At RH = 1 00% DBT = WBT = DPT.
m 1 0. 1
- = l + rol � m a = -= 1 0 kg / s
ma 1 .0 1 20°C 40°c
m v l = 0) 1 X m a =O O. lx1 0 =O . lkg / sec DBT
2V i
(J)
t - DBT
0)
06. Ans: (b)
0.622 pv
Sol : ro =
DBT - patrn - pv
kg of vap
ro = 0 .622x 2. 062 = 0 _ 0 1 292
1 0 1 .3- 2.062 kg of dry air
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�•,I
�
,I
:E
ACE
' =L�·�·..,,
:��·!
•�
N���-
�-�·:=:=======�
h = c P. (T-O) + ro{2500+1.88(T-O)}
: 5���:============P
11
����:::�
y try s chfome
1 kg vap
07. Ans: (b) 08. Ans: (a) kgd.a
co1 = 0.0 1 9 -"---C-
gmvap
14. Ans: (d) = 21.745
kg d.a
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: 513 : Psychrometry
19 kg of vap
= 0.622x · O.Ol18
17. Ans: 17.0410 (range 16.9 to 17.1) 102 -1.9 kg of dryair
P Enthalpy at inlet condition
Sol: co= 0.622 y
Patm - Pv h1 = 1.005t + C01 (2500 + 1.88t)
20 kg vapour = 1.005 X 25 + 0.0118 (250Q+ 1 .88 X 25)
= 0.622x = 0.01704
750 - 20 kg dry air
= 25.125 + 30.055
= 17.0410 gm vap/kg da = 55.18 kJ/kg d.a.
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: 514 : Thermodynamics
03.
Sol:
- DBT
Section - I Section - II
. kg kg
m 1 = 20 -, m2 = 12
sec sec
�ro = ro1- ro2 = 0.014 - 0.011
kg vap kg of vap
ro1 = O.01 --, ro2 = 0.02 = 0.003 kg vap / kg of dry air.
kg da kg of d.a
�T = T 1 - T2 = 32- 16 = 16° C
T1 = 30°C,
SHF = 1
= 0.6851
l
0 003
=
20+12 = ffi3 1 + 2451x ·
16
" " . ACE
. .
-:.�-�� FflllDN',IDII Pnbtiaooo•
. : 515 : Psychrometry
04. =
5325
DPT = 294.44 K
Sol: P atm = 960 milli bar = 96 kPa 1 8 .0852
T = 303 K , $ = 60 % = 294.44 - 273 . 1 5 = 2 1 .29 OC
° =
From the steam table at 30 c, Enthalpy ha + rohv
Psat = 4.2 1 5 kPa = ha + ro [25 1 4 + 1 .88 (T - O)]
5325
/n(Psat ) = 1 9. 0 1 3 - -- = Cpa (T - 0) + ro [25 14 + 1 .88 (T - 0)]
T = 1 .005 (30 - 0) + 0.01 683
5325 [25 14 + 1 . 88 X (30)]
= 1 9.0 1 3 -
303
kJ
P sat = 4.2 1 5 kPa = 30. 1 5 + 43.26 = 73.4 1 - .
kg
$ = Pv
Psa1
05 .
0.6 = ____!}_ Pv = 2.529 kPa Sol:
4.2 1 5 ' d
C
X
2· 529 f
= 0.622
96 - 2.529
= 0.0 1 683 kg of vap / kg of dry air.
X
PSat 42 1 5 o-a : Sensible cooling
rosat = 0.622 =
96 - 4.2 1 5
0.622
Patm - Psat
o-b : Sensible heating
= 0.028563 kg vap / kg d.a o-c : Adiabatic saturation
. ro 0.0 1 683
Degree of saturation = - = = O .5 89
0.028563
--- o-d : Isothermal humidification
(!)sat
o-e : Cooling & dehumidification
5325
ln (Pv) = 1 9.0 1 3 - -- o-f : chemical dehumidification
DPT
5325
ln (2.529) = 1 9.0 1 3 -
DPT
5325
0.9278 = 1 9.0 1 3 -
DPT
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CtO Rankine Cycle
05. Which among the following is the boiler
One Mark Questions mounting? (GATE-ME-97)
(a) Blow- of cock (b) Feed pump
01. For a given set of operating pressure limits
(c) Economizer (d) Super-heater
of a Rankine cycle the highest efficiency
occurs for
06. If V N and a are the nozzle exit velocity
(GATE-ME-94)
(a) Saturated cycle
(b) Superheated cycle and nozzle angle in an impulse turbine, the
(c) Reheat cycle optimum blade velocity is given by
(d) Regenerative cycle (GATE-ME-98)
(a) V N cos 2a (b) V N sin 2a
02. For a single stage impulse turbine with rotor
V N cos a V N sin a
diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm (c) (d)
2 2
when the nozzle angle is 20°, the optimum
velocity of steam in mis is
07. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50%
reaction stage in a steam turbine are
(GATE-ME-94)
(a) 334 (b) 356
examples of
(c) 668 (d) 711
(GATE-ME-98)
(a) different types of impulse stages
03. In adiabatic flow with friction, the (b) different types of reaction stages
stagnation temperature along a streamline (c) a simple impulse stage, a velocity
(increases / remains constant) compounded impulse stage and reaction
(GATE-ME-95) stage
(d) a velocity compounded impulse stage, a
04. Consider a Rankine cycle with superheat. If simple impulse stage and a reaction stage
the maximum pressure in the cycle is
increased without changing the maximum 08. Which of the following is a pressure
temperature and the minimum pressure, the compounded turbine? (GATE-ME-00)
dryness fraction of steam after the isentropic (a) Parsons (b) Curtis
expansion will increase / decrease (c) Rateau (d) all the three
(GATE-ME-95)
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: 517 : Rankine Cycle
09. The Rateau turbine belongs to the category water remains the same, the specific work
of (GATE-ME 01) (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
(a) pressure compounded turbine (GATE-ME-14-Set-l)
(b) reaction turbine (a) 0.34 (b) 2.48 (c) 2.92 (d) 3.43
(c) velocity compounded turbine
(d) radial flow turbine 1 3 . Which of the following statements regarding
a Rankine cycle with reheating are TRUE ?
1 O. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in
(i) Increase in average temperature of heat
higher efficiency because (GATE-ME-03)
addition
(a) pressure inside the boiler increase
(ii) Reduction in thermal efficiency
(b) heat is added before steam enters the
(iii) Drier steam at the turbine exit.
low pressure turbine
(GATE -15 -Set 2)
(c) average temperature of heat addition (a) only (i) and (ii) are correct
in the boiler increases
(b) only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) total work delivered by the turbine (c) only (i) and (iii) are correct
increases
(d) (i) , (ii) and (iii) are correct
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: 518: Thermodynamics
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: 519 : Rankine Cycle
09. In steam and other vapor cycles, the process 13. The following data pertain to a single stage
ofremoving non-condensable is called: impulse steam turbine: (GATE-ME-97)
(GATE-ME-92) Nozzle angle = 20°;
(a) Scavenging process Blade velocity = 200 mis;
(b) Deaeration process Relative steam velocity at entry = 350 mis;
( c) Exhaust process Blade inlet angle = 30°;
( d) Condensation process Blade exit angle = 25°.
If blade friction is neglected the work done
10. Asteam turbine operating with less moisture per kg steam is
1s __ (more/less) efficient and__ (a) 124 kJ (b) 164 kJ
(less/more) prone to blade damage. (c) 169 kJ (d) 174 kJ
(GATE-ME 92)
14. Consider an actual regenerative Rankine
11. The equivalent evaporation (kg/hr) of a cycle with one open feed water heater. For
boiler producing 2000 kg/hr of steam with each kg steam entering the turbine, if m kg
enthalpy content of 2426 kJ/kg from feed steam with a specific enthalpy of h1 is bled
water at temperature 40° C (liquid enthalpy from the turbine, and the specific enthalpy
= 168 kJ/kg) is (Enthalpy of vaporization of of liquid water entering the heater is h2, then
water at 100° C = 2258 kJ/kg). h3 the specific enthalpy of saturated liquid
(GATE-ME 93) leaving the heater is equal to
(a) 2000 (b) 2149 (GATE-ME-97)
(c) 186 (d) 1649 (a) mh1- (h2 - h1)
(b) h1 - m(h2 - h1)
12. A steam power plant has the boiler (c) h2 - m (h2 - h1)
efficiency of 92%, turbine efficiency (d) mh2 - (h2 - h1)
(mechanical) of 94%, generator efficiency of
95% and cycle efficiency of 44%. If 6% of 15. Match the following
the generated power is used to run the List -I
auxiliaries, the overall plant efficiency is A. Steam nozzle
(GATE-ME-96) B. Compressible
(a) 34% (b) 39% C. Surface tension
(c) 45% (d) 30% D. Heat conduction
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: 520: Thermodynamics
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"•
..
.
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:�PubtirJCitw
. . : 5.21: Rankine Cycle
turbine.
Reason(R): The regenerative feed water
20. The thermal efficiency of the plant heating raises the average temperature of
neglecting pump work is (GATE-ME-04) heat addition in the Rankine cycle.
(a) 15.8% (b) 4 1 . 1 % (GATE-ME-06)
(c) 48.5% (d) 58.6% (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct Reason for A
21. The enthalpy at the pump discharge (h2) is (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(GATE-ME-04) correct reason for A
(a) 0.33 kJ/kg (b) 3.33 kJ/kg ( c) Both A and R are false
(c) 4.0 kJ/kg (d) 33.3 kJ/kg ( d) A is false but R is true
22. In the velocity diagram shown below, u = 24. Assertion (A): Condenser 1s an essential
blade velocity, C = absolute fluid velocity equipment in a steam power plant.
and W = relative velocity of fluid and the Reason(R) : For the same mass flow rate
subscripts 1 and 2 refer to inlet and outlet. and the same pressure rise, a water pump
25. Which combination of the following Common Data for Question 27 & 28
statements is correct? (GATE-ME-07) The inlet and the outlet conditions of steam for an
The incorporation of re-heater in a steam adiabatic steam turbine are as indicated in the
power plant. figure. The notations are as usually followed.
P: always increases the thermal efficiency h 1 =3200kJ/kg
of the plant. V 1 = 160m/s
Z 1 = 10m
Q: always increases the dryness fraction of P1 = 3MPa h2=2600kJ/kg
steam at condenser inlet. V2 = lOOm/s
R: always increases the mean temperature Z2 = 6m
of heat addition
P2 = 70kPa
adiabatic efficiency of the turbine is 90%. The 32. An ideal reheat Rankine Cycle operates
thermodynamic states of water and steam are between the pressure limits of 1 OkPa and 8
given in table. MPa, with reheat being done at 4MPa. The
temperature of steam at the inlets of both
State h (k:J/kg) s(k:J/kg.K) v(m3/kg)
turbines is 500 °C and the enthalpy of steam
is 3185 kJ/kg at the exit of the high pressure
Steam
29. The net work output (kJ/kg) of the cycle is 500 8 0.04 1 77 3 399 6.7266
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�-t . A:CE . . : 524 : Thermodynamics
� �==========================================
� :F�PnNicmooa
relative velocity and the axial component of Intermediate stage: h = 2776 kJ/kg
velocity remain the same between the inlet Exit of turbine : P = 9kPa, hr = 1 74 kJ/kg,
and outlet of the blades. The blade inlet and hg = 2574 kJ/kg, Sf = 0.6 kJ/(kg.K) ;
outlet velocity triangles are shown in the Sg = 8. 1 kJ/(kg.K)
figure. Assuming no losses, the specific If the flow rate of steam entering the turbine
work (in J/kg) is ___ is 1 00 kg/s , then the work output (in MW)
1s ___ (GATE -15 -Set l)
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.t . �CE . . = 525 Rankine C cle
w ;!
&�ip
�-::
m
�•t� ���========::..:;�:�:============�:��-���y�:
�,�Niratio,,a
39. In the Rankine cycle for a steam power plant 02. A power station produces 500 MW of
the turbine entry and exit enthalpies are 2803 power. Assuming a plant thermal efficiency
kJ/kg and 1800 kJ/kg, respectively. The of 33.3 per cent, calculate the rate of cooling
enthalpies of water at pump entry and exit water flow required in tones per hour, if the
are 121 kJ/kg and 124 kJ/kg, respectively. rise of cooling water temperature is to be
The specific steam consumption (in restricted to 5° C. The specific heat of the
kg/k.W.h) of the cycle is ___ water used is 4.2 kJ/kg-K.
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2) (GATE-ME-90)
Exit Exit
Entry to Entry to Entry to
m kgs Condenser
Location from from
Turbine Heater Condenser
heater
7 2 h
2993.50 2622.22 2056.39 1 88.45 640.23
(kJ/kg)
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526 ThermodynaII11cs
.. "=
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� :l'!'lll Nb cm,M
iei:1
:• ! ���•���!
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� �� : ============�������:�
05. In a single stage single row impulse turbine, p To Specific Specific enthalpy Specific entropy
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· · ACE
�:s•"= �·-
�· i;L�p :- �:.:..:·�========.,;,=,,::5�2:7.,;,:============�Rankin
:·�11�Pl�ii�ili�.,,. ��·:e�Cy
�c�le
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SOLUTIONS
07 . Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions
08 . Ans: (c)
0 1 . Ans: (d)
09. Ans: (a)
02. Ans: (c)
cos a
Sol: - - --
u 1 0. Ans: (c)
2 Sol : 11 = f(Tm)us
2u
V 1 = -- 21tDN Thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle
= ---
Cosa 60Cosa depends on mean temperature of heat supply
2 X 7t X 2 X 3000 = --
----- 628
1 1 . Ans: (d)
=
60 x cos 20 cos 20
= 628 I 0 . 9397 = 668 . 64 m/sec Sol: Pressure is constant and velocity decreases
in moving blades
03 .
Sol: Increases 1 2 . Ans: (d)
w S =c
Sol: 1l p t p = --
04 . w actual
Sol: decreases vdp
= -- = --
W =
S C
Wactual
1l p t p 1l p t p
T
dp
=
P 1l p t p
= (3000 - 80) =
3.435 kJ/kg
lOOO x 0.85
s
13. Ans: (c)
05. Ans: (a)
14. Ans: (a)
06. Ans: (c)
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: 529 : Rankine Cycle
= 30° ; 25° ; k = 1
04. Ans: (b)
�I �2 =
06.
Sol: Curtis; Pressure
1 1 . Ans: (a)
= 126.39 kJ / kg
(2426 -168)2000
Sol: We = = 2000 kg / hr.
2258
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: 530 : Thermodynamics
l 50
Ve = �= = 300 m / s
22. Ans: (a) 23. Ans: (a) 24. Ans: (b)
0.5 0.5
V
Ve = vlC-
ln ,
25. Ans: (b)
Sol: Reheat Cycle
ei
Ve 300
Ve =
' -= � = 316.23 m / sec
v'll n -v 0.9
26. Ans: (a)
I
ve i = 44.72� Sol: m kg
y2 z2g
= ril[ h 2 + -2- + -
s
- +W
2000 1000
T
Wp = V 3(PBoil - P con)
(Q = 0) = 0.001014(4000 - 15)
2 2 114 - h3 = 4.04 kJ/kg.
114 = h3 + 4.04 = 225.94 + 4.04
1 60 - 100 9.81(10 - 6)
WT = 20 (32 00 - 2 600) + ---- + ---]
= 229 . 98 kJ/kg
2 000 1000
[
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Wnet = WT-Wp= (h 1-h2)- Wp 33. Ans: 88.3
= (2800-1800)- 0= 1000-
kJ Sol: ll rnax = cos2 a = cos2 20
kg = 0.883x100 = 88.3
3600 __!L 3600 __!L
SSC = = 3.6
wnet kWhr 1000 kWhr
=
34. Ans: 3280.65 J/kg
Sol: T
-------
1 3-
= 3469 kJ/kg
WT -W P = 1413-0 ril 2 = 8.5kg / s
11 th = xl OO = 40.73 %
2
Q. 3469 m1 = 1.5kg I s 3
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J!l .t\CE . .
.
l'n�,p1�IC'J'!l
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bticmoos · :e;,.:Cy
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�;:;;� ;,:::,::
w(kw)=m(h 1 - h 2 ) + mi {h 2 -h 3 ) 37. Ans: 3.6 to 3.8
=10(3214-2920 ) + 8.5(2920-2374) kJ
Sol: WT = h 1 -h 2 = 3159- 2187 = 972 -
kg
= 2940 + 4641 = 7581 kW
kJ
Wp = 2 -
kg
36. Ans: 123.56 to 127.57
= 972-2 = 970 -
kJ
Sol: wnet = WT -WP
T kg
3600 = 3600 =
Steam rate = 3.711__!L
wnet 970 kWhr
h1 = 3115.3 kJ/kg
= 174 + 0.8(2574-174) = 2094kJ / kg S 1 = 6.7428 kJ/kg-K
SI = S2 = Sf X Sfg
WT (kJ I kg)= l(h l - h i ) + 0.8(h 2 - h 3 )
6.7428 = 1.213 + X X 6.2434
=1[3486-2776] + 0.8[2776-2094] 6.7428-1.213 = 5.5298
X= = 0_8857
kJ 6.2434 6.2434
= 710 + 545.6 = 1255.6
kg h2 = hr + x hrg
= 384.39 + 0.8857 X 2278.6
Power(kW) = �. (kg / sec)W, (�J
= 384.39 + 2018.16 = 2402.55 kJ/kg
=100xl255.6 =125560 Pump work, Wp = vr(P4 - P 3 ) = 3.033 kJ/kg
14 = h3 + Vf X (P4 - P3)
125560 =
Power(MW) = 125.56 MW = 384.34 + 0.001037 (3000 - 75)
1000
= 384.34 + 3.033 = 387.37 kJ/kg
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: 534 : Thermodynamics
1- m
39. Ans: 3.6
1
R hs
Sol: WT = h1-h2 = 2803 - 1800 = 1 003 kJ/kg
Wp = l4- h3 = 1 24 - 1 2 1 = 3 kJ/kg
WNET = WT - Wp = 1 003 - 3 = 1 000 kJ/kg Energy balance:
Specific steam consumption mh2 + ( 1- m)hs = l h6
3600 m(h2-hs ) = h6-hs
kg /kWhr
WT - Wp h6 - h5
m = ---'---'-
3600 = h2 - h5
= 3.6 kg/kWhr
1 000
02.
Five Marks Solutions Sol: Power = 500 MW
11th = 0.3333
Power W 500
01. Qs = = = = 1 500 MW
11 th 11 th 0.333
Sol: h
Heat Rejected ,Qs - W = 1 500- 500
= lOOO MW
m W (kg/sec) Cpw (kJ/kgK) (�T)w = lOOO x 1 03
. 1 000 X 1 0 3
m w (kg / sec) =
s
4.2 x 5
= 47 .62 x 1 03 kg /sec
Turbine work = WT
= 47.62 Tons/sec
= 1( h 1 --'-h2 ) + ( 1-m ) (hi-h )
3
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: 535: Rankine Cycle
03. 451.79
= = 0.1856 kgs.
Sol: 2433.78
1 04.
T
Sol: Superheated steam properties
B
h = 3097 kJ/kg
At 100 bar and 673K {
4 Sg = 6.218 kJ/kgK
s
T
h2 2993.5 kJ/kg ;
=
h3 = 2622.22 kJ/kg
hi = 2056.39 kJ/kg
hs = � = 188.45 kJ/kg
Neglect pump work
h1 = 640.23 kJ/kg s
m h3 + (1 - m) hs= lh1
h7 - h5 640.23 -188.44
m = =
3097 - h 2' .
h3 - h5 2622.22 -188.44 0.9 =
3097 - 2672.4
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: 536 : Thermodynamics
kJ h2 = h / +
h2 = 2714.86 -
(h h/
kg
Xz g2 - 2 )
2
05.
07.
Sol: Axial exit V w 2 = 0
Sol:
V = V 1 cosa 1 = 1200cos20
Wt
= 1127.63 m/sec.
u
- = 0.6; U = 1127.63 X 0.6
vw I
Blade velocity = 676.57 m/sec
s
Vw I UX
= 676.57 X 1127.63
W= h 1 = 3642 kJ/ kg
1000 1000
= 762.92 kJ/kg s1 = 7 .0206 kJ / kg.K
s, = S2 = 7.0206 kJ/kg.K
06. sli + x2 (sg2 - s1J = 7.0206
Sol: h 1 = 2751 kJ/kg ; s 1 = 5.7081 kJ/kgK
0.6488 + X2 7.5006 = 7.0206
s 1 = s2 = 5.7081 < 5.9735 (sg at discharge)
X
7.0206-0.6488
Wet state Xz = = 0.85
7.5006 .
s f + x2 (s - s f ) = 5.7081
2 K2 2 h2 = h r2 + x 2 (hrg ) 2
2.9206 + X2 (5.9735 - 2.9206) = 5.7081
=191.9+0.85x2392.3=2225.36 kJ/kg
5.7081-2.9206 2.7875
2 = = = 0.9 l 3 h3 = 191.9 kJ / kg
X
s
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"T.1 •
ACE
• pg1..r • : 537 : Rankine Cycle
�-�
tit
� �,ngme,,Jq A1Rl'#iOOI
� 4 ===============================
- h4 -h3 08.
h 4 ' - h 3 = wa
ll p
-
3642- h 2 . 09.
=> 0.9 =
3642 - 2225.36 Sol: V = 44. 72 �( Mi )
h 2. = 2367.02kJ / kg
= 44.72 �(2935- 2584) = 837.83 m / sec
Wr = h1 h 2 . = 3642- 2367.02
u = --
cos a
-
= 1 274.98 kJ/kg V 2
-
Wp = h 4. - h 3 = 201 .99 - 1 9 1 .9 U =V
--cos a
2
= 1 0.09 kJ/ kg
837.38cos 20
= = 393.44 m/sec
Qs = h1- h 4, = 3642- 201 .99 2
= 3440 kJ/ kg
1 0.
11th =
WT - WP = 1 274.98- 1 0.09
Q8 3440 Sol: m h1 + Q = m h2 + W
(0.25x3486)-50 = (0.25 X 31 75.8) + W
= 0.3677 or 36.77 %
W = 0.25x (3486 - 31 75.8) - 50
= 27.55 kW
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Chapter 11 Gas Turbine
(a) P, Q (b) R, S
One Mark Questions (c) Q, R (d) P, S
0 1 . A gas turbine cycle with infinitely large 04. Consider a simple gas turbine (Brayton)
number of stages during compression and cycle and a gas turbine cycle with perfect
expansion leads to (GATE-ME-94) regeneration. In both the cycles, the pressure
(a) Stirling cycle (b) Atkinson cycle ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific heats
(c) Ericsson cycle (d) Brayton cycle of the working medium is 1 .4. The ratio of
minimum to maximum temperatures is 0.3
02. The thermal efficiency of an air-standard (with temperature expressed in K) in the
Brayton cycle in terms of pressure ratio rp regenerative cycle. The ratio of the thermal
and y (= Cp/Cv) is given by efficiency of the simple cycle to that of the
(GATE-ME-14-SET-2) regenerative cycle is __
1 1 (GATE - 16 - SET - 2)
(a) l - -
r-1
(b) 1 - -
rP rYp
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.... '<>,,ACE : 540 : Thermodynamics
�
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===================================
09. An ideal Brayton cycle, operating between 1 2. In an ideal Brayton cycle, atmospheric air
the pressure limits of 1 bar and 6 bar, has (ratio of specific heats, Cp I Cv = 1 .4, specific
minimum and maximum temperatures of heat at constant pressure = l .005kJ/kg.K) at
300 K and 1 500 K. The ratio of specific 1 bar and 300 K is compressed to 8 bar. The
heats of the working fluid is 1 .4. The maximum temperature in the cycle is limited
approximate final temperatures in Kelvin at to 1280K. If the heat is supplied at the rate
the end of the compression and expansion of 80MW, the mass flow rate (in kg/s) of air
processes are respectively. required in the cycle is ____
(GATE-ME-11) (GATE-ME-14-set-2)
(a) 500 and 900 (b) 900 and 500
(c) 500 and 500 (d) 900 and 900 1 3 . The pressure ratio across a gas turbine (for
air, specific heat at constant pressure, Cp =
Statement for Linked Answer QlO & Qll 1 040 J/kg.K and ratio of specific heats, y =
In a simple Brayton cycle, the pressure ratio is 8 1 .4) is 1 0. If the inlet temperature to the
and temperatures at the entrance of compressor turbine is 1 200 K and the isentropic
and turbine are 300 K and 1400 K, respectively. efficiency is 0.9, the gas temperature at
Both compressor and gas turbine have isentropic turbine exit is --- K.
efficiencies equal to 0.8. For the gas, assume a (GATE - 17 - SET - l)
constant value of Cp (specific heat at constant
pressure) equal to 1 kJ/kgK and ratio of specific Five Marks Questions
heats as 1 .4. Neglect changes in kinetic and
0 1 . A gas turbine is supplied with gas at 5 bar
potential energies.
and 1 000 K and expands it adiabatically to 1
bar. The mean specific heats at constant
1 0. The power required by the compressor in
pressure and constant volume are
kW/kg of gas flow rate is (GATE-ME-13)
l .0425kJ/kgK and 0.7662 kJ/kg K
(a) 1 94.7 (b) 243 .4
respectively.
(c) 304.3 (d) 378.5
(a) Draw the temperature-entropy diagram
to represent the processes of the simple
1 1 . The thermal efficiency of the cycle in
gas turbine system.
percentage (%) is (GATE-ME-13)
(b) Calculate the power developed in kW
(a) 24.8 (b) 38.6
per kg of gas per second and the
(c) 44.8 (d) 53 . l
exhaust gas temperature.
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: 541 : Gas Turbines
03. In a gas turbine the compressor is driven by ratio is 4. The fuel used has calorific value
the high pressure turbine. The exhaust from of 42000 kJ/kg. There is a loss of 10% of
the high pressure turbine goes to a free low calorific value in the combustion chamber.
pressure turbine which runs the load. The air (GATE-ME-98)
flow rate is 20 kg/s and the minimum and
maximum temperatures are respectively 300 06. In an ideal air - standard Gas turbine cycle,
K and 1OOOK.The compressor pressure ratio the minimum and maximum temperatures
is 4.Calculate the pressure ratio of the low are respectively 310 K and 1100 K. Draw
pressure turbine and the temperature of the the cycle on a T-S diagram and calculate the
exhaust gases from the unit. The compressor optimal pressure ratio of the cycle for
and turbine are isentropic. Cp of air and maximum work output. Assume for air
exhaust gases 1.005 kJ/kgKand y
= =
1.4. (y - 1)1 r is the ratio of specific heats.
(GATE-ME-95) (GATE-ME-00)
04. In an air - standard regenerative gas turbine 07. A Brayton cycle ( air standard) has a
cycle the pressure ratio is 5. Air enters the pressure ratio of 4 and inlet conditions of
compressor at 1 bar, 300Kand leaves at 490
K. The maximum temperature in the cycle is
one standard atmospheric pressure and
27 °C. Find the air flow are required for 100
1000K. Calculate the cycle efficiency given kW power output if the maximum
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: 542: Thermodynamics
temperature in the cycle is 1 000°C. Assume 09. An ideal, air standard regenerative Brayton
y = 1 .4 and Cp = 1 .0 kJ/ kg-K. cycle is working between minimum and
(GATE-ME-01) maximum temperatures of 300 K and 1 200
Krespectively. (GATE-ME-02)
08. Air at 327 ° C and 400 kPa with a volume (a) Find out the value of critical pressure
flow rate of 5 m3/s flows through a turbine rat io where the degree of regeneration
and exits at 1 00 kPa and 182° C. If the becomes zero.
expansion process is polytropic, calculate Calculate the efficiency of the cycle when
power output , rate of heat transfer and rate the operating pressure ratio is 60% of the
of change in entropy(specific heat at critical pressure ratio.
constant pressure of air = 1.0035 kJ/kg-K,
and Gas constant of air = 0.287 kJ/kg-K).
(GATE-ME-02)
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SOLUTIONS
(11th )B = � = 0.803
I
Sol: 11 th = - (
1 1 J y; 1 (1
(11th )IR 0.498
y -1
rP
= - -;:-
J
03.
Sol:
T
20
· '\
3
V
4'
f 4
03. Ans: (a) 1
s
04. Ans: 0.803 (range 0.79 to 0.81)
P3= 6 bar, r = - p3 = 6
Sol: _!!!!!.!.. = 0.3 p4
T .
p
T3= 800K
Tmax
Pressure ratio = rp = 6
P 1 = P4· = 1 bar
y= 1.4
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: 544 : Thermodynamics
c1
T3 = 1500 K
0.98
y- - =1.3
cp
--
C V 0.7538
-
520
30o {[ un -0.3 ln _!._J+ � }
800 6 300 T3 1500
=
T4 = =
751.36K
= 300 [-0.4307 + 0.5375 + 0.0333] ( rp )( y; ) (201 ii
0. 3 )
l
s
T1 300 K ,
=
T 3 1500 K
=
P P
4 1 rP = -2 = -3 =
pressure ratio
P1 P4
6
V
r =-=6
p 1
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:545: Gas Turbine
0
T
ril=?
rp = 8 T1 = 300K
'Ile = 11T = 0.8 T3 = 1280K
T1 = 300K 1 rp = Pressure ratio = 8
T3 = 1400K s T
1- T2 -Ti
T2- T1+�- 1
1le
s
544-300
= 300+ = 604.29K
0.8
T3 1400
T4 = = = 772.86K
(r r )r-i
(8)°'41 1 .4
P
= 898.29K
01.
Sol:
3
T
s 2
4
Cp = 1040J/kgK
C
r=-P =1.4 s
Cy
P2 = P3 = 5 bar
p2 =10
r =- T3 = 1000 K
p pI
Cp = 1.0425 kJ/kgK
Tinlet = T1 = 1200K
Cv = 0.7662 kJ/kgK
Cp 1.0425
= = =1.36
y Cv 0.7662
Temperature at exit is isentropic P1 = 1 bar
T2 = 621.53K P2 _ P3 _ 5 _
------ 5
P1 P4 1
llT = 0,9 =
T-T
I 3
T1 -T2
T3 = TI - llT (TI-T2)
T
T4 = _ �\_-1 =
10
= 653.098K ?.�
(rp ) Y (5) u6
= 1200-0.9(1200-621.53)
WT = ma Cp (T3-T4)
= 679.38K = 680K
= 1 X 1.0425 [ 1000 -652.098]
= 361.645 kW
�ydcrabad I Dellii I Bhopal I Punc I Bhubancswarl Lucknow I Palnal Bcngaluru I Cheruiai I Vuayawada I Vizag I Tllllpati I Kukatpa))y I Kolkata I
: 547: Gas Turbine
300 (4) 14
=
T2 = T1 (rp) r = = 445.8 K
ma C pa T2 + mr(CV) YJc = ma C Pa T3
WHPT = We
Cp (T3-T4) = Cp (T2-T,)
1000-T4 = 445.8-300
(AFR) C Pa T2 + (CV) YJc = (AFR) C Pa T3 T4 = 854.2 K
4 = 1.736 X (rP)iPT
Wr = Cr(T3- T4,)
( )-
r-1
T
--1__ r
rP LPT
T. = 1.005 (1000- 705.1)
0
5
s 05.
Sol:
P 1 = 1 bar; T1 = 300K
p
T
rp = 5 = .....1.
pI
T� = 490K; T3 = 1000K
T3, - T2
= effectiveness ofregenerator =
T4,-T2
E
s
T1 = 300K
T3 -T4,
llT = 0.8 = T3 = 875 + 273 = 1148K
T3 -T4
rP = 4 ; llc = 0.8 ; llr = 0.85
- T3= 100_0 04 = 631.38K
T 4-
= 300 (4) 1.4 = 445.8K
=T1 . rr r
y-1
T2
y-1
(rp )r (5)ii
0.4
1000-T4,
O8=
flT . (1000- 631.38)
=
T4, = 705.1K
T3 -490
0.8 = . => T3. = 662K
705.1-490
!M11ijj§jjji4.jjiRflftjM\11.jj..)ltyderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pime I Bhubaneswar I Lucknow! Patna I Bengaluru I Chennai I Vuayawada I Vizag I Tirupati I Kukatpally I Kolkata I
Pnb6rarioos
ACE
� EF.ngintaing : 549 : Gas Turbine
�-�
. �=====================================
T� = T3 -1h(T3 -T4 ) T1 = 300 K , T3 = 1273 K ; rp = 4
=1148-0.85(1148-772.5) =829.5K y-1 0.4
T2 = T1 (rP )r = 300 (4)ii = 445.8 K
T 1273
T4 = 3r-1 0.4 = 856.7 K
-
(rp )r 4 1 .4
WT = Cp (T3-T4 )
= 1(1273 - 856.7) = 416.3 kJ / kg
Cv;ll c Wc = Cp (T2-T1)
m. = 1(445.8 - 300) = 145.8 kJ/kg
Cpa;
,__--+--� T3
= 416.3 - 145.8 = 270.5 kJ/kg
Power = ma X Wnet
CV· llc 100 = ma x 270.5;
(AFR) =
er. (T3 - T2I )
ma = 0.3696 kg I sec.
42000x0.9
= =56_76
1(1148-482) 08.
Sol: T 1 = 600 K ; P 1 = 400 kPa ;
06. V = 5 m3 /sec ; P2 = 100 kPa ;
Sol: 3 T2 = 273 + 182= 455 K
T
T 2(:- 1 )
(rP )optimum = ( max ]
Tmm.
---------
1 .4
1100 2(0.4) 455
=(--) =9.715 1n( )
300 600
n
s
= ---
l
ln( OO)
400
07.
Sol:
0·2766
T
= = 0.199 n = 1.25
1.3863
P1 V1 _ 400x5
m= ---
RT! 0.287x 600
= 11.616 kg/sec
s
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: 550 : Thermodynamics
fl.Brayton
--
' /
'
'
1200 = -75
2x0.4
= { } (4) 1 = 11.313
Rate of change of entropy 300
mR l n ( 2)
n-y T r p = 0.6x rp c = 0.6 x 11.313 = 6.78
-
- (y -l)(n-1) � = 1 _ Tmin (rp f�')
1.25 -l.4
fl.
Tmax
X 11.616
= ( Brayton )
ideal regenrative
(1.4 -1)(1.25-1)
300
455
= 1- (6.78) �::
X 0.287 X ln (-) 1200
600 = 0.25(6.78)° -2857
= 1.3832 kW/K = 0.568 or 56.8%.
I I I I I I I I I I
�ydcrabad Delhi Bhopal Punc Bhubaneswar Lucknow Patna Benga)wu Chennai Vtjayawada Vizag rnrupati I Kukatpally I Kolkata I
ACE �·��========�: :55�3�: ============�R:e:frig
�·:era
:�ti:o:n
�-�
�
� ..E'.!=Fn�p�· -:�rin�·�Puhtiamooa��·
refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated
vapour and leaves as saturated liquid. The
enthalpy and entropy values for saturated
liquid and vapour at these temperatures are
given in the table below.
Temp hr hg Sf
Sg
(kJ/kg
65 207
O
( C) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg K)
K)
176
h kl/kg
-20 20 180 0.07 0.7366
40 80 200 0.3 0.67
Q: For a system undergoing a process, its 11. The power required for the compressor in
entropy remains constant only when kW is
the process is reversible. (a) 5.94 (b) 1.83 (c) 7.9 (d) 39.5
R: The work done by a closed system in
12. A heat pump with refrigerant R22 is used for
an adiabatic process is a point function.
space heating between temperature limits of
S: A liquid expand upon freezing when
-20° C and 25° C. The heat required is
the slope of its fusion curve on
200MJ/h. Assume specific heat of vapour at
Pressure Temperature diagram 1s
the time of discharge as 0.98kJ/kg.K. Other
negative.
. (b) P andQ
relevant properties are given below. The
(a) R and S
enthalpy (in kJ/kg) of the refrigerant at
(c)Q, R and S (d) P,Q and R
isentropic compressor discharge is ___
(GATE-ME-14-SET-2)
Common Data for Question 10 & 11
Saturation Pressure Specific enthalpy Specific entropy
A refrigerator operates between 120kPa and
p hr hg Sg
temperature
Su erheated R-134a
800 31.31 95.5
(GATE-15-Set 3)
10. The rate at which heat is extracted, in kJ/ s
(a) Reversed Carnot cycle
from the refrigerated space is
(a) 28.3
(b) Reversed Brayton cycle
(b) 42.9
(c) 34.4 (d) 14.6
(c) Vapor compression cycle
(d) Vapor absorption cycle
yderahadl Delhi I Bhopal I Punel Bhubaneswarl Lucknow I Patna! Bengaluru I Chennai IVuayawada JVu.ag ITU11pali I Kukatpallyj Kolkala
: 555 : Refrigeration
14. Refrigerant vapor enter s into the compressor evaporation for the refrigerant at 310 K is
of a standard vapor compression cycle at 1 0 54 kJ/kg.
-10 ° C (h = 402kJ/kg) and leaves the
compressor at 50 ° C (h 432 kJ/ kg). It
T
=
02. A Freon - 12 vapour compression system is (i) The refrigerant mass flow rate , and
operating at a condenser pre ssure of 9.6 bar (ii) The compressor intake volume flow
(960 kPa) and an evaporator pressure of 2 .19 rate if the compressor volumetric
bar (219 kPa). Its refrigerating capacity is 15 efficiency is 0.72 .
tons. The value s of enthalpy at the inlet and Use the refrigerant property data given m
the outlet of the evaporator are 64.6 kJ/kg Table below . (GATE-ME-93)
and 195 .7 kJ/kg . The specific volume at the Enthalpy Volume
1.13. (GATE-ME-88)
Determine 05 . Sketch the standard vapour compression
(a) The power input in kW refrigeration cycle on the enthalpy (y-axi s) -
(b) The coefficient of performance entropy (x-axis) plane , indicate the
directions and processe s clearly.
03 . A reciprocating compressor in a vapour (GATE-ME-94)
compression refrigeration system has a
clearance factor of 4 percent and a swept 06 . A refrigeration compressor of 50 mm bore
volume of 26 liter s/second . If the ma ss flow and 40 mm stro ke operates at a speed of
of refrigerant is 0.46 kg/s and the specific 1460 rpm between condensing and
volume of vapour at compressor suction and evaporating pressure limits of 1 .219 MPa
discharge are 37 liters/kg and 12 liter s/kg and 0.151 MPa . The clearance ratio is 5%,
respectively, calculate the clearance ratio of specific heat s of refrigerant is 1 .18 ,
volumetric efficiency and the actual specific volume of refrigerant at suction is
volumetric efficiency of the compre ssor . 0.11 m 3/kg and the enthalpy change of
(GATE-ME-89) refrigerant in the evaporator i s 93 .7 kJ/kg .
Calculate the refrigeration load the
04. A refrigeration system of 15 ton s capacity
compre ssor can serve .
operates on standard simple vapour
(GATE-ME-94)
compression cycle using Refrigerant-22 at
an evaporator temperature 5 °C and
condensing temperature of 50° C. Draw the
p-h diagram for the cycle . Calculate .
!li11Qjj§jjj44ijji4Rflfl!M\iiih� yderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswar I Lucknow I Patna I Bengaluru I Chennai I Vliayawada j Vizag I Tuupati I Kukatpal)y I Kolkata
: 557: Refrigeration
07. A refrigeration cycle uses Freon-12 as condenser temperature of 40°C, the enthalpy
working fluid. The temperature of the of the refrigerant, Freon-12, at the end of
refrigerant in the evaporator is - 1 o° C. The compression is 220 kJ/kg. Show the �ycle
condensing temperature is 40° C. the cooling diagram on T-s plane. Calculate (a) the COP
load is 150 W and the volumetric efficiency of the cycle (b) the refrigerating capacity
of the compressor is 80%. The speed of the and the compressor power assuming a
compressor is 720 rpm. Calculating the mass refrigerant flow rate of 1 kg/min. You may
flow rate of the refrigerant and the extract of the Freon - 12 property table
displacement volume of the compressor. given below. (GATE-ME-97)
(GATE-ME-95)
Properties of Freon- 12
TCUC) P(MPa) hr (kJ/kg) hg(kJ/kg)
-10 0.2 1 9 1 26.85 1 83 . 1
Enthalpy (kJ/kg) Specific
Satu- 40 0.9607 74.53 203 . 1
Saturated volume
-ration
Temp (m3 /kg)
pressure Liqui
(OC) Saturated
!li•ii@jjjqg.mjRflnlM\dijj.yderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswar! Lucknow ! Patna I Bengaluru I Chennai I Vrjayawada IVizag I Tuupati I Kukatpally I Kolkata I
,:.:.�
. .t\CE . . ���========:::::,,���:===========�����yn
Thermod anncs
��·�
.. ..t'=.l!:Fii�,gm
�W'l:!'ffll:•!:Pl
��,Nic:atiooa
= 55 8
(a) COP
(b) Power input to compressor and (a) Calculate the Coefficient of performance
(c) Rate of heat transfer at the condenser. (COP) of this system
(GATE-ME-00) (b) If the capacity of the plant is 5 kW, calculate
mass flow rate of refrigerant
12. An ice making plant using refrigerant R-1 2
1s having an evaporator saturation
temperature of -25 ° C and the condenser
saturation temperature of 35 ° C. The vapour
is leaving the compressor at 65 °C. The
following table shows the properties of the
refrigerant. (GATE-ME-02)
llJ•li@jjj44ijjj$RftijiM\jj.jj� yderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswar I Lucknow I Patna I Benga]wu I Chennai I Vijayawada J Vmg I Tlfllpati I Kukatpally I Kolkatl
SOLUTIONS
h 3 =h 4 =116kJ / kg
One Mark Solutions h -h4
(COP) = I
�LL
n+1 = 9, n = 8 H2
Sol: R 1 3 4a
P = 0 flourine
p = 4 � Fluorine n + p + q = 2m + 2
n + 1 = 3; n = 2 � Hydrogen 8 + 0 + q = 2x3 + 2
m-1= 1; m = 2 � Carbon q = O � Ch
Formula is Cm Hn F p C/q Formula CmHnF pClq � C3Hs
C2 H2 F4
R502 � Azeotrope which is a mixture of two
Sol:
exhibits entirely different properties from
2 that of the parent.
T
Two Marks Solutions
s
01.
Sol: Cannot; higher
kJ kJ
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ACE
":�
= GJ:•�=======�:�::�:==============��:�yn
Thermod � =·c:s
��- :'� 5 60 arm
.Iii.
� · :enng
F.nginra: �®
N�� =
= 6.904 x l 0 -3 �
3
08 . Ans: (d)
06. Ans: (b)
Sol: 09. Ans: (a)
T
Sol: For irrever sib le process if frictional heat
gain equals to heat loss from turbine casing
40°c
h 1 = hn + x(h g 1-hn)
= 20 + 0.9(180-20)
= 20 + 144 = 164 kJ/kg
h3 = 14 = 80 kJ/kg s
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AJCE
'!.�-�
:&pw,qJ'ubliomN :561 : Refrigeration
J . � ================================
" \I • • • •
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: 562 : Thermodynamics
s
s
h -h 3 1054
h 2-h3 = 1054 s2 - s3 = 2 = = 3 .4 kJ / kgK
Tsat 310
h 2 - Cpl (T3-To) = 1054
S2-S3 = SJ- S3•
h 2-4.8 (310-273) = 1054
Take reference point a s 'O'
h 2 = 1231.6 kJ/kg
T3 310
Reference temperature = 273 = T s 3-s 0 = c P .en ( J = 4.8 .en ( ) = 0.8442 kJ / kgK
T0 260
S3 - So = S3•- So
At reference temperature entropy is zero. s1- s0= 3.4 + 0.8442 = 4.2442 kJ/kgK
s 3 =c ,, {i) =4.8£n G��)=0.61kJ / kgK h1-ho = T sat(S 1 - So)
= 260 x4.2442 = 1103.492 kJ/kg
T2( s2- S3) = h 2-h3
310 (s2 - 0.61) = 1054
Five Marks Solutions
1054
S2 = 0.61 + -- = 4.01 kJ/kgK
310
01.
S2 = SJ = 4.01 kJ/kgK
Sol:
s, =c,, e{;) T
3s0c
260
= 4.8.en ( -) =-0.23 kJ I kgK
273 --1 '
h1 -ho = To (s 1- so)
4'
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: 563 : Refrigeratio n
h : = 174.96 kJ/kg ; kg
m, ( ) (195 .7 - 64.6) = 52.755
sec
h � = h3 = 14 = 69.74 kJ/kg ;
52.755
h 1 = 190.88 kJ/kg m, = -- = 0.4024 kg / sec
131.1
Work of compression
Between 35 °C and 5 °C
= 30.54 kW sec kg
0.4024 x28.93 = 11.64 kW
02.
=
NRE(kW) = 52.755 = _
Sol: COP = 4 53
Wc (kW) 11.64
T
03.
Sol: Clearance ratio(C) = 0.04
Swept volume (Vswept) = 26 litres / sec
Mass flow rate of refrigerant
s
mr = 0 .46 kg/sec
P 1 = P 4 = 2 .19 bar P 2 = P 3 = 9. 6 bar
Specific volume at suction (v1)
h 3 = h 4 = 64.6 kJ h t 195.7 kJ/kg.K
= = 3 7 litres / kg,
v t = 0.082 m 3 /kg n = 1.13 Specific volume at discharge (v2)
Net refrigerating effect = NRE = 12 litres / kg
= 1 5 x 3 . 5 1 7 = 52.755 kW Volume flow rate at suction
= 0.46 kg/sec x 37 litres/kg
kg kJ
m, ( ) (h t - h 4 ) = NRE (kW) 17.02 litres/sec
sec kg
=
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Volumetric efficiency = 1lvolumetric m r x(407 .1 - 2 63.3) = 52 .7550
_ Volume flow rate at suction 52.755 = kg
mr = 0367
vswept 143.8 sec
17 02 Volume flow rate (m 3 / sec)
= · = 0.6546
26 kg m3
= mr ( ) v1 ( )
Clearanc e volumetric efficiency sec kg
N
tr D 2 Ln x -
=- x ny
4 60 '
I o
1
�
0.367 X 0.0404 = X X 0.72
:: = ( ::Y = :�
= 0.9167 or 91.67 %
04 .
Sol:
�2
-s
/
4Lf Fig : h- s diagram
h
06.
11Vol = 0.72 Sol:
N RE � 15 x 3.517 = 52 .755 kW
T
h 1 = 407 .1 kJ/kg
h 3 = h i = 263.3 kJ/kg
V1 = 0.0404 m 3/kg
m r (kg / sec) (h1 -h i) kJ/kg
= Net Refrigerating Effect (kW) s
lli11ijj§jjj40@MRflnj@@jj.jHyderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune J Bhubaneswarl Lucknow I Patna! Bengaluru I Chennai J Vijayawada I Vmg I Tirupati I Kukatpally J Kolkata I
'!.�-���PuNicmona : 565 : Refrigeration
" A ,CE · ·
"' · �
� � =================================
D = 0.05 m ; L = 0.04 m ; mr (kg/sec)x (h 1 h.i) kJ/kg = CL (kW)
kJ mr ( 1 83 - 74.5) = 0. 1 5
-
v, O . l l m / kg ; h1 - h.i = 93.7 -
kg
3
O. l 5
=
kg
mr = = 1 .3824 1 0-3
N = 1 460 rpm ; C = 0.05 ; 1 08.5 sec
r
X
TJv,1 - I + C - C (�
n N
= - D i Ln x - x n' I Vol
4 60
1 2 1 9 ½. is
= 1 + 0.05- o . o 5 ( ) 720
0. 1 5 1 1 .3824 1 0-3 0.08 = X X X 0.8
60
X X
= 0.7564
Displacement Volume(x) = 1 . 1 52 x 1 0-5 m3 .
kg N
mr (-) v 1 ( -J = - D 2 Ln x - x n· i voi
m 1t
3
sec kg 4 60 08.
1 460
mr x 0. 1 1 = tr (0.05)2 (0.04) x 1 x x 0.7564 Sol:
4 60 T
mr = 0.0 1 3 1 4 kg I sec
Refrigerating Load
= mr (kg I sec) x (h1 - h.i) kJ/kg
= 0.0 1 3 1 4 x 93.7 = 1 .23 1 kW s
= 0.00083 m 3
kg
07. h3 = 84.9 kJ/kg ; h2 = 222.6 kJ/kg ;
V3 /
D 2 Ln = 1 .5 x 1 0-
m3
4 Stroke
3
° 7t
40 c
-10 C °
llVol = 0.8 ; N = 1 600 rpm
!M•1i!@jjji4ibi4RflniM\jijjj. I I I I I I I I I
yderabad Delhi Bhopal Pune Bhubaneswar Lucknow Patna Bengaluru Cheruiai Vtjayawada !Vizag I Tirupati I Kukatpally! Kolkata
mr (kg I sec) x 0.0767 m3 I kg 108.57
= = 2.942
1600 . 36.9
= 1.5 10-3 X X 0.8
60 Capacity of plant
X
!MIIQ@jjjH@MQnbiM\Uijj.jHyderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Punc I Bhubaneswarl Lucknow I Patna I Bengaluru I Chermai I Vijayawada I Vmg I Tuupati I Kukatpa1Jy I Kolkata I
: 567: Refrigeration
O. l x 0.9638 = m 12.
x= 0 . 1 1474
3
1 1. h3 = 14 = 69.6 kJ/kg ;
Sol: N RE h1 - h4
COP = =
WC h2 - hi
2
176 .5-69.6 106 .9
T = = = 2. 18 1
225 .5- 176 .5 49
�2
NRE(kW) = m r(kg/sec)(h 1 -14) kJ/kg
/44
5 = ffir X ( 176.5 - 6 9.6)
ffir = 0.04677 kg/sec
s h
m = � = 0 .0463 kg / sec
1 08
We ( kW) = m (h2 - h1)
= 0.0463 ( 2 1 0 - 183) = 1 .25 kW
\( l l 1 1l!,l [lt t l l l 1 ..., P1ild11 ,!IJ1 1 J I ', yderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswarl Lucknow I Patna I Benga)uru I Chennai I Vgayawada I Vizag I Tirupati I KubtpaUy I Kolkata
C13
Thermodynamic relations &
Reciprocating compressors
========================:::::::!J
02. In a 3-stage air compressor , the inlet
pressure is P 1 , discharge i s P4 and the
Two Marks Questions
intermediate pre ssure are P2 and P3 and P3
(P2 < P3 ). The total pressure of the
01. For water at 25 ° C, dPsfdTs = 0.189 k Pa/K compressor is 10 and the pressure ratio s of
(P s is the saturation pre ssure in kPa and Ts the stages are equal. If P 1 = 100 kPa , the
is the saturation temperature in K) and the value of the pre ssure P3 (in kPa) is __
specific volume of dry saturated vapour i s (GATE- 16 - SET - 3)
43.38 m 3/k:g. Assume that the specific
volume of liquid i s negligible in comparison
with that of vapour. Using the Clau siu s
Clapeyron equation , an e stimate of the
enthalpy of evaporation of water at 25 ° C (in
kJ/k:g) is _
(GATE- 16- SET- 1)
�yderabad J Delhi JBhopa! JPuneJBhubane-.arJ LucknowJ Patna J Bcnga!uru J ChennaiJVgayawadaJVmg JTirupati I KukalpallyJ Kolkala I
SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: 464.151 (range 460 to 470)
Two Marks Solutions
Sol: ( r, lon = (� )' = (10)¼ = 2. 1544
01. Ans: 2443.25 kJ/kg (range 2400 to 2500)
dPs kPa
Sol: = 0.189
dTS K
P2 = 2.1544 x 100 = 215.44
Tsat = 273 + 25 = 298 K
= 43.38 m3/kg p3 = 2.1544
P2
Vg
vr = 0
P3 = 2.1544 x 215.44 = 464.15 kPa
Vfg = Vg - Vf
m3
= 43.38 - 0 = 43.38-
kg
dP
dT Tsai X v fg
h fg h fg
0.189 = =- ----''---
Tsai x vfg 298 x 43.38
hrg = 2443.25 kJ/kg
conditions.
Two Marks Questions
(c) <I> > 1 for idling and <I> < 1 for peak
power conditions.
(d) <I> < 1 for both idling and peak power 01. The power output from a spark ignition
conditions. engine is varied by : (GATE-ME-90)
(a) Changing the ignition timing.
03. A diesel engine is usually more efficient (b) Regulating the amount of air-fuel
than a spark ignition engine because inducted.
(GATE-ME-03) (c) Regulating the amount of air-fuel
(a) diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon , mixture.
releases more heat per kg than gasoline (d) Regulating the amount of fuel.
!ltl•i!i§jji§4ijj,i@fliM\jjii!� yderabad I Delhi I Bhopal I Pune I Bhubaneswar I Lucknow! Patna I Bengaluru I Chennai I Vijayawada I V17.ag ! Tirupati I � I Kolkala
�-t Thermodynamics
ACE : 571 :
':. ��� Pnblic:atiooa
02. For determining the ignition quality of 06. Brake thermal efficiency of the three basic
compression ignition engine fuels, the types of reciprocating engines commonly
reference fuels used are (GATE-ME-91) used in road vehicles are given in the
(a) !so-octane and n- heptane increasing order as: (GATE-ME-92)
(b) Cetane and a-methylnapthalene (a) 2 Stroke SI engine, 4 stroke SI engine,
(c) Hexadecane and n-heptane 4 stroke CI engine
(d) cetane and iso-octane (b) 2 Stroke SI engine, 4 stroke CI engine,
4 stroke SI engine
03. If air fuel ratio of the mixture m petrol (c) 4 Stroke SI engine, 2 stroke SI engine,
engine is more than 1 5 : 1 (GATE-ME-91) 4 stroke CI engine
(a) NOx is reduced (b) CO2 is reduced (d) 4 Stroke CI engine, 4 stroke SI engine,
(c) HC is reduced (d) CO reduced 2 stroke SI engine
04. BHP of a diesel engine can be increased by 07. Knocking tendency in a SI engine reduces
(GATE-ME-91) with increasing (GATE-ME-93)
(a) Increasing the pressure of intake air (a) Compression ratio
(b) Increasing the temperature of intake air (b) Wall temperature
(c) Increasing the density of intake air (c) Supercharging (d) Engine speed
(d) Decreasing the density of intake air
08. An IC engine has a bore and stroke of 2
05 . Alcohols are unsuitable at diesel engine units each. The area to calculate heat loss
fuels because: (GATE-ME-92) can be taken as (GATE-ME-98)
(a) The cetane number of alcohol fuels is (a) 4n (b) 5n (c) 6n (d) 4
(b) The cetane number of alcohol fuels is altitude where the air density is half the
very high which prevents their ignition value at. ground level. With reference to the
by compression ground level, the a1r - fuel ratio at this
(c) The octane number of alcohol fuels is altitude will be (GATE-ME-98)
very low which prevents their ignition
by Compression
( a) 1/2 ( )
b ff
(d) None of the above. (c) 2 (d) 4
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10. The silencer of an internal combustion 13. Air contains 79% N2 and 21% 02 on a molar
.,j
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: 573 : Thermodyn ami cs
design reduces the frictional losse s by 5 kW, 05. A four cylinder, four stroke, spark ignition
calculate the amount of fuel saved per hour. engine develop s a maximum brake torque of
Assume that the indicated thermal efficiency 160 N.m at 3000 rpm. Calculate the engine
remains the same. Calorific value of fuel i s displacement, bore and stroke. The brake
42000 kJ/kg. (GATE-ME-90) mean effective pressure at the maximum
engine torque point is 960 k Pa. Assume bore
03. A four stro ke, four cylinder spark ignition i s equal to stroke. (GATE-ME-'92)
engine having bore 7 cm and stroke 9 cm
develops 20 kW at 3000 rpm. If the 06. A six cylinder four stroke CI engine
clearance volume in each cylinder is 50 cm 3 , developing a power output of 270 kW at
the brake thermal efficiency i s 50 % of air 1000 rpm has a fuel consumption of 0.25
standard efficiency and the calorific value of kg/kWh. The injection takes place over 20 °
the fuel is 43 MJ/kg, find out torque, brake cran k angle with pressure across the injector
thermal efficiency and fuel con sumption. orifice of 100 MPa. Fin d.
(GATE-ME-91) (i) The rate of fuel injection in mg/s
through each hole of a four hole
04. A single cylinder four stroke Diesel engine injector fitted in the engine cylinders,
having bore 18 cm and stroke 32 cm and
develops torque 390 Nm and indicated mean (ii) Thermal efficiency of the engine.
effective pressure (imep) 700 kPa at 280 (GATE-ME-93)
rp�. The following observations were made
during experiment; fuel consumption 3 07. A single cylinder, 4 -stroke diesel engine
kg/hr, cooling water flow 4 kg/min, increase running at 1800 rpm ha s a bore of 85 mm
in cooling water temperature 35 ° C, air fuel and a stroke of 110 mm. It takes 0.56 kg of
ratio 22, room temperature 20 ° C and air per minute and develops a brake power
barometric pressure 1 bar. If the calorific output of 6 kW while the air fuel ratio i s
value of the fuel i s 42 MJ/kg, find out IHP, 2 0 :1. The calorific value of the fuel u sed i s
indicated thermal efficiency ( llth), 42550 kJ/kg and the ambient air density is
mechanical efficiency ( llm), volumetric 1.18 kg/m 3 • Calculate
efficiency ( ll voI) and heat lost in cooling (a) The volumetric efficiency, and
water. (GATE-ME-91) (b) Bra ke specific fuel consumption.
(GATE-ME-95)
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08. The power output of an LC. Engine 1s are 120 mm in diameter. The mechanic
measured by a rope brake dynamometer. bores the cylinder and replaces the piston
The diameter of the brake pulley is 700 mm with new pistons that are 2 mm larger in
and the rope diameter is 25 mm. The load on diameter than the originals.
the tight side of the rope is 50 kg mass and (a) Keeping all other factors same, what
the spring balance reads 50 N. The engine will be the percentage change in power
running at 900 rev/min consumes the fuel, of output?
calorific value 44000 kJ/kg, at a rate of 4 (b) By what percentage will the engine
kg/h. Assume g = 9.8 m/s2 . Calculate efficiency change?
(a) Brake specific fuel consumption. (GATE-ME-01)
(b) Brake thermal efficiency.
(GATE-ME-97) 11. The Willan's line measured for a four
stroke, four-cylinder is expressed as:
09. A Diesel engine develop a Brake power of FC = 0.15 + 0.03 x B.P., where FC is the
4.5 kW. Its indicated thermal efficiency is rate of fuel consumption in gm/s and B.P. is
30% and the, mechanical efficiency is 85%. the brake power in kW. The bore of each
Take the calorific value of the fuel as 40000 cylinder is 75 mm and stroke is 90 mm and
kJ/kg and calculate the speed is 3000 rpm.
(a) The fuel consumption in kg/h and Calculate indicated power, mechanical
(b) The indicated specific fuel consumption. efficiency and indicated mean effective
(GATE-ME-00) pressure, when the engine is developing a
brake power of 20 kW.
10. A mechanic has an engine from a 1970 (GATE-ME-02)
model car which works on the basis of Otto
cycle. The engine displaces 1.8 liters, has a
compression ration of 10.2: 1 and has six
cylinders. The pistons in the original engine
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SOLUTIONS
08. Ans: (c)
Sol: A = 7t D L + 2 x tr D
One Mark Solutions 2
4
01. Ans: (a) tr X 2 2 = 47t + 2 7t = 61t
= 7t X 2 X 2 + 2 X -
4
02. Ans: (b)
Sol: 09. Ans: (b)
�> l ( AFR ti
S�: -- Ai -
� - /E J½
(AFR ) sL - PsL - 2
Idling Cruising Peak
Power (AF s,,
(AFR),1 = !J = O.?O?( AFR) s,,
Stroke Volume
03. Ans: (a) 04. Ans: (a) and (c)
m 22.22
= th = = 22.22 m3.
1
05. Ans: (d) 06. Ans: (a) Pa
W = 1J x mr (CV)
07. Ans: (d) = 0.3 X 1 X 45000 = 13,500 kJ
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: 576 : Thermodynamics
Work 13500 0: 2a + b + 2c = 6
Mep = =
Stroke volume 22.22 2xl + 2 + 2c = 6
= 607.56 kPa = 6.075 bar 2c = 2
c =l
12. Ans: (c) N: 2d = 6x3.76
Sol: I = 4B - (B1 + B2 + B3 + B4) d = 3x3.76 = 11.28
(I = Indicated power) CO2 = lmole
= 4x3037-(2102+2102+2100+2098) H2 = 2moles
( B = Brake power) 02 = lmole
= 3746 kW N2 = l1.28moles
(B1 , B2 , B3 , B4 , Brake power with respective
Percentage nitrogen in products
cylinders cutoff).
Numberof molesof N2
= x lOO
B 3037 Totalnumber of moles
ll m = - = -- =0.8107 (or) 81.07%
I 3746
11.28
=( )XlQO
1 + 2 + 1 + 11.28
13. Ans: 73.82 %
Sol: Cfit+a(02+3. 76N2)�bC02+CH20+dN2 = ll.28 X 100 = 73.82%
15.28
C: b = 1
H: 2C = 4
C=2 Five Marks Solutions
0: 2a = 2b+c
01.
a = b+c/2
Sol: Brake power with all cylinders firing
=1 + �=2 = B = 30 kW
Brake power with first cylinder cut off (B1 )
N2 = 7.52a = 2d
= 20.75 kW
d = 3.76a = 3.76x2 = 7.52
Brake power with second cylinder cut off
50% excess air is used
(Bn) = 20.50 kW
Clit+2x 1.5(02+3.76N2)�aC02+bH20
Brake power with third cylinder cut off (Brn)
+C02+dN2
= 20.50 kW
C: a = 1
Brake power with fourth cylinder cut off
H: 2b = 4
(BIV) = 20.75 kW
b=2
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: 577 : Internal Combustion Engin e
rk = = 7 _93
+
and v = 250 x10 ---6 m 3
VC 50
30
= x l OO 4
850 x 250 x l 0 -3 x l 0 -3 x 40000 = 1-
1 y-l 1 ) o.
Tl a (-J = 1 - (- = 0.5632
85 rk 7.93
= 30% = 0.5 Tla = 0.5 X 0.5632
llar.Th
= 0.2816 = 28.16 %
02.
2:rNT
Sol: BP = 100 kW ; = 0. 8 ; BP (kW) = -- (T � Torque(Nm))
60,000
Tt m
Tl Br.Th -
_ IP(kW) x 3600
mr (kg / hr) x CV (kl I kg)
T'l i th - _ BP(kW) x 3600
mr (kg / hr) x CV(kJ / kg)
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0 4. m.
AFR =
Sol: Single Cylinder ; 4- Stroke rilr
d = 18 cm ; L= 32 ems m.
22 =
T = 390 Nm ; N = 280 rpm 3 '
Pmi = 700 kPa ; ril r = 3 kg/ hr m. = 66 kg/hr
m . = 4 kg / min ; ( L\T)w = 35 ° C 100 = 1.189 kg Im
p
Pa = =
3
66
2 1tNT 3600
BP(kW) = =
60000 280
l.189 x " x (0.18}2 (0.32) x
2 x3.1 4 x 280 x390 4 120
= = l l. 43 kW
60000 0.01833333
= ----
0.0225799
P . x 7t D LNn 2
= 0.8119 or 81.19 %
IP(kW) = , ---'4--
_m_
120
x 4.187 x 35 1t D 2 L x -N
= 4
- x4
4 120
= 586.18 kJ I min
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: 579 : Internal Combustion Engine
50.24 X 1 20 X 4 0.56
6.66666 1 0-4 84.47 %
7Z" X 3000 X 960 X 4 0.66289
X =
06.
. . Bsfc x (BP) x 1 0 6 08.
Sol: Fuel mJected per hole = ------
3600 x 4 Sol: D = 700 mm , d = 25 mm
_ 0.25 x 270 x 1 0 6 mg mg W = mg = 2 x 25 x 9.8 = 2 x 245 N
4687_5
3600 x 4 sec sec 490 N
=
3600
=
S = 50 N ; N = 900 rpm
Bsfc X CV
mf = 4 kg I hr ; CV = 44000 kJ/kg
=
llBr th
(D + 2d)
Torque =
(W - S) ---
2
0.36 or 36 % (490- 50) (700 + 2 X 25)
=
=
1 000 2 x 1 000
07. 0. 1 65 kN-m
Sol: ma 0.56 kg / min
=
m a 0 56 = kg 21tNT = 2n x 900 x 0. 1 65
mr = = · 0.028 kg I min = 1 .68 BP (kW) =
20 20 hr 60 60
1 5.56 kW
a) D = 0.085 m ; L = 0. 1 1 0 m ;
=
N = 1 800 rpm. k
4 stroke Single Cylinder 4 = kg
bsfc = m, ( ¼,) = - - 0.257
1 5.56 kW hr
ma ma
TJVol -
- - -
BP(kW)
m th N 3600 3600
p x - D 2L x -
=
- -----'----
1t
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: 580 : Thermodynamics
09.
l 1 ) .4
Sol: BP = 4.5 kW 11 1 1- ( k J -1 1- (
r 0
r, 10.511
= =
BP 45 = .
IP = = · 5 294 kW
0.85 = 0.6098
11 m
IP(kW) x 3600 % Increase in efficiency
11 1 th =
mr (kg / hr) x CV(kJ / kg) 0.6098 - 0.605
X l OO = 0 _ 793 %
0.605
5.294 x 3600
0_ 3 =
=
m1 x 40000
1.5882 kg / hr 11.
Vs = 300 x 310.083
100 P . x 0.09 x 1t x (0.075) 2 x 3000 x 4
=> 2 5 =
=
4 x120
V Ve = 310.083 + 32.6
rki = s
_
m1__________
= 10_ 511
+
Ve 32.6 :. Pmi =
628.76 kPa
�-1-(,'.f- 1-C�J· =
0.605
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Production
(Questions)
Page No. 582
CONTENTS
-Cha pte r ' -N �11t� 0; t�� Ch a;te r - -TQi.;stions 1Sol�ti ons--
1,
J
No . _ _ L __ _ -- ___ ___ _ � _____ _Page No .__�Pag� No._ ;
01 Casting 583 - 602 603 - 623
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: 584 : Production
08. In a green sand moulding process, uniform 1 2. Disposable patterns are made of
ramming leads to (GATE-ME-2000)
(GATE-ME-92) (a) wood (b) rubber
(a) Less chance of gas porosity (c) metal (d) Polystyrene
(b) Uniform flow of molten metal into the
1 3 . Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to
mold cavity
compensate for shrinkage when
(GATE-ME-01)
(c) Greater dimensional stability of the
casting
(a) the temp of liquid metal drops from
(d) Less sand expansion type of casting
pouring to freezing temp
defect
(b) the metal changes from liquid to solid
state at freezing temp
09. Centrifugally casted products have
(GATE-ME-93)
(c) the temp of solid phase drops from
freezing to room temp
(a) Large grain structure with high porosity
(d) the temp of metal drops from pouring to
(b) Fine grain structure with high density
room temp
(c) Fine grain structure with low porosity
(d) Segregation of slug towards the outer 14. In centrifugal casting, the lighter impurities
skin of the casting are (GATE-ME-02)
(a) uniformly distributed
1 0. Light impurities in the molten . metal are (b) forced towards the outer surface
prevented from reaching the mold cavity by (c) trapped near the mean radius of the
providing (GATE-ME-96) casting
(a) Strainer (d) collected at the center of the casting
(b) Button well
1 5 . The primary purpose of sprue in casting mold
(GATE-ME-02)
(c) Skim bob
is to
(d) All of the above
(a) Feed the casting at rate consistent with
1 1 . Which of the following materials requires the the rate of solidification
largest shrinkage allowance, while making a (b) Act as a reservoir for molten metal
pattern for casting (GATE-ME-99) (c) Feed molten metal from the pouring
(a) Aluminum (b) Brass basin to the gate.
(c) Cast iron (d) Plain carbon steel (d) Help feed the casting until all
solidification takes place
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Kukatpally Kolkata I
: 585 : Casting
(GATE-ME-03)
1 6. Hardness of green sand mould increase with 20. Two streams of liquid metal which are not
(GATE-ME- 11)
(d) increase in both moisture content and 2 1 . Green sand mould indicates that
permeability
(a) Polymeric mould has been cured
(GATE-ME-04)
1 7. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due (b) mould has been totally dried
to (c) mould is green in colour
(a) very high pourmg temperature of the (d) mould contains moisture
metal
(GATE-PI-89)
(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal 22. Negative allowance is provided on the pattern
(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal to take care of
(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks (a) The distortion allowance
(b) The draft allowance
(GATE-ME-06)
1 8. An expandable pattern is used in (c) The machining allowance
(d) The shake allowance
(a) slush casting
(GATE-PI-89)
(b) squeeze casting 23. The process by which shell like castings (like
(c) centrifugal casting toys) are made is
(d) investment casting (a) Shell molding
(b) centrifugal casting
19. Which of the following engineering materials (c) slush casting
(d) die casting
(GATE-ME-07)
1s the most suitable candidate for hot
chamber die casting
(a) Low carbon steel 24. Poor collapsibility of the mold leads to
(b) titanium . . . . . . . . . . . . type of casting defect in aluminum
(c) Copper castings. (GATE-PI-89)
(d) tin
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25. For casting of turbine blades made of high 30. The optimum pouring time for a casting
temp and high strength alloys, the mo st depends on several factors. One important
suitable process is (GATE-PI -90) factor among them is (GATE-PI -91)
(a) Die casting (b) Investment casting (a) location of riser
(c) Centrifugal casting (d) Slush casting (b) porosity of sand mold
(c) fluidity of casting metal
26. For the same material, powder metallurgy (d) area o f the pouring basin
process is superior to casting for
(GATE-PI -89) 3 1. Ceramic slurry is used in making the molds
(a) making large products for (GATE-PI -91)
(b) better control over the density of product (a) investment casting
(c) better strength of the finished product (b) die casting
(d) making parts with wide variations of (c) shell mold casting
thickness at different sections (d) centrifugal casting
27. Green strength in powder metallurgy refers to 32. Low permeability molds and low pouring
the strength of (GATE-PI -89) temperature of the molten metal causes
(a) original material in the bulk form ...................... defect in castings.
(b) the powder before compaction (GATE-PI -91)
(c) The powder after compaction
33. Pressure die casting deals with casting metals
(d) the powder after sintering and cooling
of relatively . . . . . .. . . . .. A......... melting
point and provides ..... . B .. . ... production
28. The problem of shrinkage cavity is more
rate.
likely to occur while
(GATE-PI -91)
A. higher / lower B. higher / lower
casting ....... A................ B........ a chill
block (GATE-PI -90)
34. Increase in carbon content in plain carbon
A. metal / plastic B. with / without
steels raise its (GATE-PI -92)
29. Assertion: Co nverging passage is used for (a) Ductility and UTS
feeding liquid metal into a mould (b) Tensile strength and malleability
Reason: Inhalation of air promotes blow (c) Tensile strength and hardness
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ACE : 587 : Casting
�-�
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� .,: � P.d,lir;ariooa
45. In hollow cylindrical parts made by 49. Which of the following casting processes
centrifugal casting, the density of the part is uses expandable pattern and expandable mold
(GATE-PI-08) (GATE-PI-11)
(a) Maximum at the outer region (a) Shell mod casting
(b) maximum at the inner region (b) Investment casting
(c) Maximum at the mid point between (c) Pressure die casting
outer and inner surfaces (d) Centrifugal casting
(d) Uniform throughout
50. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 mm.
46. Hot chamber die casting is NOT suited for The solidification time in min for a cube of
(GATE-PI-09) the same material, which is 8 times heavier
(a) Lead and its alloys than the original casting, will be
(b) zinc and its alloys (GATE-ME & PI- 13)
(c) Tin and its alloys (a) 1 0 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 40
(d) Aluminum and its alloys
51. Match the casting defects (Group A) with the
47. Solidification time of a metallic alloy casting probable causes (Group B):
(GATE-PI-10)
Group A Group B
(a) Directly proportional to its surface area
lS
(b) Inversely proportional to the specific P: Hot tears 1 : Improper fusion of tw0
heat of the cast material streams of liquid metal
(c) Inversely proportional to the thermal Q: Shrinkage 2: Low permeability of the
diffusivity of the mould material sand mould
(d) Inversely proportional to the pouring R: Blow 3 : Volumetric contraction
temp holes both in liquid and soli d
stage
48. In sand casting fluidity of the molten metal S: Cold shut 4: Differential cooling rate
increases with (GATE-PI-11)
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3)
(a) Increase in degree of superheat
(b) Decrease in pouring rate
(a) P- 1 , Q-3, R-2, S-4
(b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(c) Increase in thermal conductivity of the
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
mold
(d) P- 1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(d) Increase in sand grain size.
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: 589 : Casting
52. The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to (a) P-l Q-2
, , -3 ,S-4
R (b) P-2 Q-4
, R, -1 , S-3
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3) (c) P-4Q-2, R, -1 ,S-3 (d) P-2Q-4
, , -3 ,S-l
R
(a) high fluidity
(b) high melt temperature 56. The part of a gating system which regulates
( c) wide range of solidification temperature the rate of pouring of molten metal is
( d) low coefficient of thermal expansion (GATE - 16- SET- 1)
(a) pouring basin (b) runner
53. Chills are used in casting moulds to
(GATE-PI-14)
(c) choke (d) ingate
(GATE - PI -15)
shrinkage
respectively.
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Densities of steel, copper and aluminum are D. Centrifugal casting 4. Hollow castings
7854 , 8 933 and 2700 kg/m 3 , respectively.) like lamp shades
(GATE - 16 - SET- 3) 5. Rain water pipes
(GATE - P I- 17)
binder used i s A. Investment ca sting
(a) Sodium bentonite B. Die casting
(b) Calcium bentonite C. Centri fugal casting
(c) Sodium silicate D. Drop forging
(d) Phenol formaldehyde E . Extrusion
F. Shell molding
Product
Two Marks Questions
1. Turbine rotor s
2. Turbine blades
0 1. Two cubical casting s of the same metal and 3. Connecting rod s
sizes of 2cm side and 4cm side are moulded 4. Galvanized iron pipes
in green sand. If the smaller ca sting solidifie s 5. Cast iron pipe s
in 2min s, the expected time of solidifications 6. Carburetor body
of larger casting will be
(GATE-ME-89) 04. Match the following (GATE-ME-98)
(a) 16 min (b) 2 .Js min Group - I
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3. Minimum po st casting process (a) A-3 ' B-2 ' C-4 ' D-5
4. Part s have soft skin and hard interior (b) A-1 ' B-3 ' C-4 ' D-5
5. Parts a have tendency to warp (c) A-1 , B-2 , C-3, D-4
6. Suitable only for non ferrous metal s. (d) A-3 ' B-2 ' C-5 ' D-4
05. With a solidification factor of 0.97 x I 06s/m 2 , 08. A mould has a down sprue whose length is
the solidification time (in seconds) for a 20 cm and the cross sectional area at the base
spherical casting of 200mm diameter is of the down sprue is 1 cm 2 • The down sprue
(GATE-ME-03) feeds a horizontal runner leading into the
(a) 539 (b) 1078
mould cavity of volume 1000 cm 3 • The time
(c) 4311 (d) None
required to fill the mould cavity will be
(GATE-ME-05)
06. Gray cast iron bloc ks 200 x 100 x 10 mm are
(a) 4.05 s (b) 5.05 s
to be cast in sand moulds. Shrinkage
(c) 6.05 s (d) 7.25 s
allowance for pattern making is 1 %. The ratio
of the volume of pattern to that of the casting
09. In a sand casting operation , the total liquid
will be (GATE-ME-04)
head is maintained constant such that it is
(a) 0.97 (b) 0.99 (c) 1.01 (d) 1.03
equal to the mould height. The time taken to
fill the mold with a top gate is tA, If the same
07. Match List - I (products) with List - II
mold is filed with a bottom gate , then the
(casting process) and select the correct
answer u sing the codes given below the list s time taken is ta. ignore the time required to
(GATE-ME-05) fill runner and frictional effects. Assume
atmospheric pressure at the top molten metal
List - I List - II
surfaces. The relation between the t A and ts i s
A. Hollow statues I .Centrifugal casting
(GATE-ME-06)
B. Dentures 2.Investment casting
(b) ts = 2 ,tA
C. Aluminum
alloy pi ston s 3.Slu sh casting (d) ts = 2 ..J2 ,tA
D. Rocker ar m 4.Shell moulding
5.Gravity die casting
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(GATE-ME-07)
(a) High speed steel 200 mm
(b) Hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) Hyper eutectoid steel
(d) Cast irons
(a) 650 (b) 350 (c) 290.7 (d) 1 90.0
(b) (41t/6).(rll/
2 3
(c) (41t/6) . (rll) (d) (41tl6)2 . (r/[)4
14. Match the following (GATE-ME-09)
12. A 200 mm long down sprue has an area of Part used in casting Purpose
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15. In a gating system, the ratio 1 :2 :4 represents 18. Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to
(GATE-ME-10) compensate for shrin kage when
(a) Sprue base area : Runner area : in-gate (GATE-PI-89)
area (a) the temperature of liquid metal drop s
(b) Pouring basin area in-gate area from pouring to freezing temperature
Runner area (b) the metal changes from liquid to solid
(c) Sprue base area : in-gate area casting state at freezing temperature
area : (c) the temperature of solid pha se drops from
(d) Runner area : in-gate area : Casting area freezing to room temperature
(d) the temperature of metal drops from
16. For the case of molding , it is decided to pouring to room temperature
replace a spherical ri ser of diameter 100 mm
19. What is the velocity of the steel at the bottom
by a cylindrical riser. Determine size of the
of the sprue if the sprue height i s 30 cm?
cylindrical riser that will have the identical
a ssume the frictional and other losses to be
solidification time. Assume blind risering & 20%. (GATE-PI-89)
ratio of height to radius of cylinder i s 2.
(GATE-ME-10) 20. When there i s no room temp change , the total
(a) 10cm (b) 100cm shrin kage allowance on a pattern 1s
(c) 50cm (d)5cm INDEPENDENT OF (GATE-PI-90)
(a) pouring temperature of the liquid metal
17. A cubic casting of 50 mm side undergoes (b) freezing temperature of the liquid metal
volumetric solidification shrinkage and (c) the component size
(d) coefficient of thermal contraction of
volumetric solid contraction of 4% and 6%
solidified metal
respectively. No riser is u sed. Assume
uniform cooling in all direction s. The side of 21. Match the application with type of pattern
cube a fter solidification and contraction is Application
(GATE-ME-1 1) A. Undercut in components
(a) 48.32 mm (b) 49.90 mm B. Large bells
(c) 49.94 mm (d) 49.96 mm C. Mass production of casting by Machine
molding
D. Components with irregular parting lines
l
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Type of pattern 4. Loosely rammed sand mold
1. Cope and drag 5. Gas entrapment (GATE-PI-95)
2. Follow board
3. Gated 25. The height of the down sprue is 175 mm and
4. Loose piece its CS area at the base is 200 mm2 • The CS
5. Sweep (GATE-PI-92) area of the horizontal runner is also 200 mm2 •
Assuming no losses , indicate the correct
22. Manufacturing process Property choice for the time (seconds) required to fill a
(GATE-PI-93) mold cavity of volume 106 mm3 .( use g =10
A. Hot tears 1. Mould restraint m!s2) (GATE-PI-02)
B. Porosity 2. Inadequate risering (a) 2.67 (b) 8.45 (c) 26.72 (d) 84.50
C. Sand inclusions 3. High pouring temp
D. Shrinkage cavity 4. Loosely rammed 26. The permeability of molding sand was
sand mold determined using a standard AFS sample by
5. Gas entrapment passing 2000cc of air at a gage pressure of 10
g/ cm2 . If the time taken for the air to escape
23. According to Chvorinove ' s rule , the was 1 min , the permeability number is:
solidification time of a casting is proportional (GATE-PI-02)
to [Volume/ Surface area ] n where n =... (a) 112.4 (b) 100.2 (c) 75.3 (d) 50.1
(GATE-PI-94)
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 27. Proper gating design in metal casting
(GATE-PI-02)
24. Match the cast defect with their cause P: Influences the freezing range of the melt
Casting Defect Q: Compensates the loss of fluidity of the
A. Hot tears melt
B. Porosity R: Facilitates top feeding of the melt
C. Sand inclusions S: Avoids misrun
D. Shrinkage cavity (a) P, R (b)Q , S (c) R , S (d) P ,S
Most Appropriate Cause
1. Mold restraint 28. A 10 mm thick steel bar is to be horizontally
2. Inadequate risering cast with two correctly spaced top risers of
3. High pouring temp adequate feeding capacity. Assuming end
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effect without chill, what should be the (a) 14.38 (b) 20.34
theoretical length of the bar ? (GATE-PI-02) (c) 28.76 (d) 57.52
(a) 96 mm (b) 132 mm
(c) 192 mm (d) 156 mm 32. Chaplets are placed between mould and core
surfaces in order to: (GATE-PI-03)
29. Process - Mold making technique (a) Reduce directional solidification
(GATE-PI-02) (b) Help local alloying of molten metal
P: Green sand molding 1. Pouring (c) Help easy removal of core from casting
Q: Shell molding 2. Dipping (d) Prevent core movement due to buoyancy
R: Investment molding 3. Compaction
S: Ceramic molding 4. Resin bonding 33. Match the items of List I (Equipment) with
p Q R s p Q R s the items of List II (Process) and select the
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 correct answer using the given codes
(c) 4 2 2 3 (d) 3 4 1 1 (GATE-PI-04)
List-I(Equipment) List-II (Process)
30. Gating ratio of 1: 2: 4 is used to design the
P : Hot Chamber Machine 1 - Cleaning
gating system for magnesium alloy casting.
Q : Muller 2 - Core making
This gating ratio refers to the cross section
R : Dielectric Baker 3 - Die Casting
areas of the various gating elements as given
S : Sand Blaster 4 - Annealing
below (GATE-PI-03)
2. Runner 3. Jngates
5 - Sand mixing
1. Down sprue
p Q R s p Q R s
The sequence of the above elements in the
(a) 2 1 4 5 (b) 4 2 3 5
ratio 1: 2; 4 is
(c) 4 5 1 2 (d) 3 5 2 1
(a) 1 , 2& 3 (b) 1, 3& 2
(c) 2, 3 & 1 (d) 3, 1 & 2
34. The shape factor for a casting in the form of
an annular cylinder of outside diameter 30
31. A casting of size 100 mm x100 mmx50 mm
cm, inside diameter 20 cm and height 30 cm
is required. Assume volume shrinkage of (correction factor k = 1.0) will be
casting as 2.6%. If the height of the riser is 80
(GATE-PI-05)
mm and riser volume desired is 4 times the (a) 21.77 (b) 6.28
shrinkage in casting, what is the appropriate
(c) 9.42 (d) 12.28
riser diameter in mm? (GATE-PI-03)
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35. A cast steel slab of dimension 30x2ox5 cm is 39. The mold filling time in seconds is
poured horizontally using a side riser. The (GATE-PI-07)
riser is cylindrical in shape with diameter and (a) 2.8 (b) 5.78 (c) 7. 54 (d) 8. 41
height, both equal to D. The freezing ratio of
the mould is (GATE-PI-05) 40. In sand casting of hallow part of lead , a
(a) 8D / 75 (b) 4D / 75 cylindrical core of diameter 120 mm and
(c) 75 I 8D (d)75 / 4D height 180 mm is placed inside the mould
cavity. The densities of core material and
36. A casting of size 400mmx200mx140mm
lead are 1600kg/m3 and 11300 kg/ m3
solidifies in 20min. the solidification timefor
respectively. The net force ( in N ) that tends
a casting 400mmx200mmx35mm under
to lift the core during pouring of molten
similar conditions is (GATE-PI-06)
metal will be (GATE-PI-08)
(a) 2min (b) 3.3min
(a) 19.7 (b) 64. 5 (c) 193.7 (d) 257.6
(c) 4min (d) 8. l min
37. Match the following. (GATE-PI-07) 41. A solid cylinder of diameter D and height
Group-1 Group-II equal to D, and a solid cube of side L are
P. Sand casting 1. Turbine blades being sand cast by using the same material.
Q. Centrifugal casting 2. I.C engines Assuming there is no superheat in both the
R. Investment casting 3. Large bells cases, the ratio of solidification times of the
S. Die casting 4. Pulleys cylinder to the solidification time of the cube
p Q R s p Q R s lS (GATE-PI-09)
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 4 3 1 (a) ( L ID) 2
(b) ( 2L /D)2
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 4 (c) ( 2D/L)2 (d) ( DIL)2
Statement for Linked Answer Q38 & Q39 42. During the filling process of a given sand
In a sand casting process, a sprue of 10mm base mould cavity by molten metal through a
diameter and 250mm height leads to a runner horizontal runner of circular C.S, the
which fills a cubical mold cavity of 100mm size. frictional head loss of the molten metal in the
(GATE-Pl-07) runner will increase with the (GATE-PI-10)
38. The volume flow rate (in mm /s ) is
3
(a) Increase in runner diameter
(a) 0. 8 X 105 (b) 1.1 X 105 (b) Decrease internal surface roughness of
(c) 1. 7 X 105 (d) 2.3 X 105 the runner
44. A mold having dimensions 10ox9ox20 (all (a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
in mm) is filled with molten metal through a
gate with height 'h' and C. S area A, the 47. A cylindrical riser of 6 cm diameter and 6 cm
mould filling time is t1. The height is now height has to be designed for a sand casting
quadrupled and the cross sectional area is mould for producing a steel rectangular plate
halved. The corresponding filling time is t2. casting of 7cmx10cmx2cm dimensions
The ratio t2/t 1 is (GATE-PI-12) having the total solidification time of 1.36
casting is to be produced. A cylindrical hole 48. For a given volume of a riser, if the
of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm length is solidification time of the molten metal in
made in the casting using sand core (density riser needs to be quadrupled, the surface area
1600 kg/m3 ). The net buoyancy force (in of the riser should be made
Newton) acting on the core is ___ (GATE-PI- 14)
(GATE-ME-14-SET-l) (a) one-fourth (b) half
(c) double (d) four times
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49. The solidification time of a casting 1s 52. Ratio of solidification time of a cylindrical
casting (height = radius) to that of a cubic
proportional to (�)' ,Where Vis the volume
casting of side two times the height of
of the casting and A is the total casting cylindrical casting is ____
surface area losing heat. Two cubes of same (GATE-15-Set 3)
material and size are cast using sand casting
process. The top face of one of the cubes is 53. In a metal casting process, molten copper
completely insulated. The ratio of the alloy is poured into a sand mould. The level
solidification time for the cube with top face of molten metal in the pouring basin is at a
insulated to that of the other cube is height of 300 mm from the runner having
(GATE-15-Set 1) diameter of 10 mm. if the density and melting
25 36 temperature of molten copper alloy are 9000
(a)
36
(b)
25
(c)l (d) i5 kg/m3 and 1000°C. respectively then the rate
of flow of molten metal into the mould
50. A cube and a sphere made of cast iron (each neglecting friction and other losses, in cm3 Is
volume 1000 cm3 ) were cast under identical lS
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Assuming uniform temperature throughout of the ratio of its volume to its surface area.
the volume of the metal during solidification, The ratio of solidification time of the block P
the latent heat of fusion of the metal (in to that of the block Q is ___
kJ/kg) is __ (GATE - PI-16)
(GATE-16-SET-1)
58. A 300 mm long copper wire of uniform
55. A cylindrical job with diameter of 200 mm cross-section is pulled in tension so that a
and height of 100 mm is to be cast using maximum tensile stress of 270 MPa is
modulus method of riser design. Assume that developed within the wire. The entire
the bottom surface of cylindrical riser does
deformation of the wire remains linearly
not contribute as cooling surface. If the
elastic. The elastic modulus of copper is 100
diameter of the riser is equal to its height,
then the height of the riser (in mm) is GPa. The resultant elongation (in mm) is
(GATE-16-SET-1) (GATE - PI-16)
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 125
59. A sprue in a sand mould has a top diameter
56. Gray cast iron blocks of size 100 mm x 50 of 20 mm and height of 200 mm. The
mm x 10 mm with a central spherical cavity velocity of the molten metal at the entry of
of diameter 4 mm are sand cast. The the sprue is 0.5 mis. Assume acceleration
shrinkage allowance for the pattern is 3%. due to gravity as 9.8 m/s2 and neglect all
The ratio of the volume of the pattern to losses. If the mould is well ventilated, the
volume of the casting is ___
velocity (upto 3 decimal points accuracy) of
(GATE-16- SET-2)
the molten metal at the bottom of the sprue
IS ___ m/s.
57. Two cast iron blocks P and Q, each of 500
mm length, have the same cross-sectional (GATE-17-SET-l)
area. Block P has rectangular cross-section
of 100 mm x 200 mm. Block Q is of square 60. Schematic diagram of pouring basin and
cross-section. Both P and Q were cast under sprue of a gating system is shown in the
the same conditions with all their surfaces Figure. Depth of molten metal in the
enclosed within the mould. The solidification pouring basin is 100 mm and the height of
time of a casting is proportional to the square the sprue is 1,500 mm.
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of cast iron is 78 kN/m3 and that of the mold
sand 16 kN/m3 , find lifting force on the cope
created by buoyant force, weight of sand in
the cope, the net force at the liquid-sand
interface and additional weight to be kept on
1500 mm the cope.
(GATE-ME-91) (6M)
bottom to avoid the aspiration of liquid entirely in the drag of a green sand flask & is
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SOLUTIONS
05. Ans: (c)
Sol: Maximum pressure occurs m the gating
One Mark Solutions
system where the ratio of cross sectional
01. Ans: (a & c) area of in gate to sprue is maximum.
Sol: The riser should be designed in such way For option(a) the ratio is 3/4
that it should supply molten metal to For option(b) the ratio is 3/1
compensate liquid shrinkage. This can be For option(c) the ratio is 4/1
achieved only when the molten metal in the For option(d) the ratio is 1/1
riser solidified after or at the same time of Among above all options option (c) has max
the casting. ratio.
1 4. Ans: (d)
10. Ans: (c)
Sol: In centrifugal casting the centrifugal force
Sol: The bottom part of the skim bob 1s
acting the particles depends on the density
sometimes called as bottom well as it
of the particles, the lighter impurities have
prevents only heavy impurities, some
lower density and so they are collected at
extent strainer may removes lighter
the center.
impurities but skim-bob is only separating
the lighter impurities.
15. Ans: (c)
Sol: Sprue is the connecting passage between the
11. Ans: (b)
pouring basin and runner for supplying
Sol: Out of all the materials brass has the highest
molten metal to the casting cavity. It is
coefficient of thermal expansion hence it
always vertical with straight tapered circular
requires highest shrinkage allowance to be
cross section.
provided on the pattern.
16. Ans: (c)
12. Ans: (d) Sol: To increase the hardness of green sand mold
Sol: In case of polystyrene patterns, the pattern it is necessary to apply large amount of
will not be removed from the mold, but the ramming force so that the porosity property
hot molten metal is directly poured so that of the mold will comes down which reduces
the molten metal will melt and evaporate the permeability of the mold.
the polystyrene pattern. In this way
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44. Ans: (c) "t1 = solidification time for the 1st casting = 5 min
Sol: Cold shut is the discontinuity produced due Given V2 = 8V1 = a� . . ... say
a 3 = 8a 3 => a2 -
hindered contraction. This is due to
- 2a1
unmixing of two streams of molten metal
2 1
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Sol:
2
(A . tube
taking place during solidification like liquid
tsp
217 cm/sec
�(�I -(�I
=
Volume of casting after solid shrinkage freezing temp and then room temp. hence
= 0. 94 x120000 the only parameter which is not influencing
=112800 mm3 = a3 is pouring temp
� a = (112800)°.3 33
21. Ans: A-5, B-3,C-2, D-4,
= 48. 32mm
Side of the cube after solidification and
22. Ans: A-3, B-5,C- 4, D-2,
shrinkage and contraction = 48. 32mm
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A c x Vmax 26
Vsc = · x Ve = 1 3000mm 3
106 1 00
= ------;:::===== 2.67 mm3/sec
200 x .J2 x 98 1 0 x 1 75 Riser height = 80mm
Vr = 4 Vsc
26. Ans: (d)
2
7t D H = 4 X 1 3000
Sol: Permeab·1·
501 .28 4
1 1ty number = ---
PT
4 X 1 3000 X 4
501 .28 � D= = 28_ 7? mm
= --- = 50. 128 1t x H
lOx 1
According to sufficient condition
27. Ans: (b)
Sol: Gating system will be designed such that
the time taken for pouring the molten metal
into the cavity must be as minimum as
possible, it should avoid aspiration effect, it
should not allow the impurities present in :. Based on this Dr > 28.77
the molten metal etc.
Hence Dr = 57.52 cm
28. Ans: (b)
Sol: Length of casting plate with two risers with 32. Ans: (d)
end wall effect and without chills is Sol: Chaplets are used as additional supports for
L = 1 3 x t = 1 3 x 1 0 = 1 30mm supporting the core to prevent movement of
30 + 20 28 x 10 s
W =nx D = nx M2 13.86
2 =
202000
=
= n x 25 = 78.5
30 - 20
t= = 5 ,, =•,(�:]'
30 + 78.5 13·86
S.F = 2 1.7 = 20( ) 3.29min .
2
5 34.15
= =
Ac =- <l s - 10 2 = 78.54 mm 2
= ( D x 17 ) 8D
7t 2 = 7t
= 0.095 D :::::- 4 4
30 x 6 75 Flow rate = 173966 mm3 /sec = 1.7 x 105
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40. Ans: (c)
Sol: Net B. F = V.g ( p - d )
45.Ans: 7.7
� (�] 2 =�2
Sol: Net Buoyancy force = V.g ( PAI - Pcore )
= 76
( ) = (; D L ) x g(p AI
2
- P cor J
't cube
De = R{Il = 1. 75 Rs H=
4V
-----------(1)
nD 2
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Surface area of riser exposed for heat 48. Ans :(b)
Sol: Volume of riser 1 = Volume of riser 2 ,
transfer As= 1tDH + - D 2
i.e. V1 = V2
1t
4
4V 1t t2 = 4t1 => M ; = 4M �
A 8 = nD x --2 + - D 2
1tD 4
= 4V + 1t D 2
D 4
For minimum As
d(A s )
=0
dD
- 4V -
=> -- 2 + x 2D = 0 '·
D 4
1t
Mc =
7 x 10 x 2 = 140 _ 6)
- (- _ 36
2
2(7 X l Q + l Q X 2 + 2 X 7 ) 208
( 5 25
- -
t, M, 1
�= M
J =( ) 50. Ans: 6.16
2 2
140 3
3
x = R vF = l .6 12 R
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. . : 616 : Production
J J
.'.S_ = ( (V / A) s A
2 2 2=
( c
(V / A) c As
'tc
(�J 't cyl = Vcyl A cube
2
=
[ ]
J 't cube Vcube A cyl
X
6(1.6 12) 2 x R 2
2 2
(
4nR 2 4nR 2
(
nR 3 --
24R 2
J
= =
= --x 2
8R 3 4nR 2
- (H - 05625
'ts = 1.54 x 4 = 6. 16 sec
25 + 15 = 40
L + W = --
Shape factor = -- sectional area
t 5 5
From table corresponding to S.F = 8
vr = 0.5
Ve
Vr = 0.5 xVc = 0.5 x 1875 = 937.5 CC
n 2 =n 3 = 190.45 eels
DH D 937 .5
=
=
4 4
D = H = 10.6 cm 54. Ans: 50 (range 49.9 to 50.1)
Sol: m = 2 kg, Q = l O kW
52. Ans: 0.5625 Time taken for removing latent heat
't cy1indnca1 = ? = 20 - 10 = 10 sec
't cube
Sol:
. Latent heat
T1me = ----
Given that
H = R � Cylinder Latent heat = time x Q
x= side of cube = 2x H = 2R = D = 10 X 10 = 100 kJ
Vcy1 = nR2H = nR3
100
Vcube= x3 = D3 = 8R3 Latent heat/kg = - = 50 kJ/kg
2
Acyl = 2nRH +2nR2 = 2nR2 +2nR2
= 4nR2
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: 617: Casting
=
(:!_) 1 2(:!_)
As R • As C
� D = 6 Mc � Mr
2
=( J
x ( 200} x lOO
2 'tQ MQ
4
7t
D = 6 x -- ______
...,:__
29.411
2
2 x 7t x 2002 + 1t x 200 x100 =( ) = 0.9016
4 30.974
6 x 200 x 100
D=H= = 150mm
400 + 400 58. Ans: (0.81 mm)
Sol: Given, / = 300 mm
56. Ans: 1.0927 (range 1.08 to 1.10) O'max= 270 MPa
Sol: Ratio of volume of pattern to casting E = 100 GPa
1.033 x100 x 50 x 10
= = 1.0927 /if,
= E£
l OO x 5 0 x 10
(J' max
(d1/d2) 1/2
= d 3 = �0.5 x 20 2 = 14.14 mm.
02.
Five Marks Solutions Sol: Weight of cope = volume of cope x density
= 03x0.2x0.05 x 16
01. = 48 N
Sol: Height of sprue = 180 mm = hs Buoyancy force = weight of liquid displaced
Diameter of sprue on top = 20 mm = d2 = Vol. of casting x Density
Height of molten metal in the pouring basin
= 60 mm = hb
= 0.15 xO. l x0.05x78
.·. Total height of molten metal
= 58.5
= 180 + 60 = 240mm = ht Net B.F. = (58.5 - 48) = 10.5 N
Additional Weight = 10.5 N
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: 619: Casting
= - 4 -----
- ---'- � 7t D 3 = 180 � D = 6.2cm
4
-
7t 30 X 2 + X 30 X 60
2
7t
As per sufficient condition
13500
= =6
2250 'tr � 't c
For Riser 2, Mr � Mc
D a
-�-�D�a
M 2 = Modulus = ( :: ) 6 6
� 6. 2 � I O. It is not satisfied.
60 2
30
27000
7t
4
X
= = = 7.5 Hence by using sufficient condition
7t 60 2 x 2 + 1t x 30 x 60 3600
4 rr = rc � Mr = Mc � D = a = l O cm
Ratio ofSolidification times
� = (�) = �) = 0. 64 05.
2 2
(
t2 M2 7.5 Sol: The dimension of pouring basin will not
affect the pouring time
04. L et V= maximum velocity of molten metal
Sol: Casting size = 10 x 10 x 10 cm cube in the gating system,
For Riser D = H d = dmin = dia. Sprue bottom
Volumetric % shrinkage = 6% volume.of casting
Pourmg time = -------=-
. .
A c X vmax
100 4
1253
= __i_x l O x l O x l O � V= --- = 99472/ d 2 • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • (1)
1 00 7t d X 25
2
= 60 cc = Vsc
4
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: 620 : Production
To ensure the laminar flow in the gating hb = Height of molten metal in the pouring
system Re s 2000 basin from top of sprue
At limiting case Re = 2000 ht = h2+hb = 8.24+20=28.24 cm
A3 � 8.24
V�
pVd R= = =� = 0.54
R = 2000 =
A2 28.29
2000 X 0.9 1 800
� V = --- = -........................ (2)
d d
ct[ = 0.54
d2
from (1) & (2)
d 3 = d 2 .J0.54 = d 2 X 0.734
99472 1 800 99472
2
= �d= = 55_3 mm = 2.87 x 0.734 = 2 . 1 1 cm
d d 1 800
08.
06. Sol: Volume of cube = Volume of slab
Sol: Asp = Acube
a3 = l x 2 x 4 = 8
1/8 = 2 = side of cube
4nR2 = 6a 2
a=
�R = a (6/4n)°.s = 0.69.a
( )
a3 a 2 1
= = =
,:: (:ru: r [n � '
Mcube = -2 = - = - = -
6a 6 6 3
V l x 2x4 8 2
( 2 ( 2 x o.:9 x a
Mstab == - = ------- = - = -
A s 2 (1 x 2 + 2 x 4 + 4 x l) 28 7
= ;) = J
2
2
= (2 X 0.69 ) = 1 .9 1
07.
Jtl
6
A
� ( s)
- sufficient condition satisfied V R 1 .4
Hence diameter of riser = 4 cm
L
X , = (t = ( tL = l .4
11.
Sol: Volume of casting = Vc
= 1 00 X 1 50 X250
(� l (tl,
1 .4
= 3750000
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: 622 : Production
o.8( 1 x 20 2 x 10 ) = -----;======
353429 1
2oo x .J2 x9810x 250
20 x 20 x 1 0
1767 1
= 0.628 = = 8 sec
.J2 x 9810 x 250
1 3.
1 5.
Sol: Volume ofCasting l =V1 = 200 x l OOx70
Sol: i) A & ii) B,
14x 105 mm3
3 castings of spherical, cylindrical and
=
= 4 ffR3
A82 46000 ff
D3
2
't 2 = 't 1 ( M 2 J = 1 0( 4. 348 ) = 0.65min .
2 4 3
14.
Sol: Volume of casting
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: 623 : Casting
D
75 g = - (21t N)2
2
41t 2
75 x98 10 = N2 D x -
2
N 2 D = 75 x 982 10 = 37273
2 1t
= 1.306.
N 2 D = 37273
0 5 + 0 · 52
16. D = · = 0.5 1 m = 5 10 mm
2
Sol: In centrifugal casting
Centrifugal force = Fe = ma = m r ro2 N = �37273 = �37273 = 8 _55 rp 8
D 5 10
a = rro2
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c2 Welding
04. For resistance spot welding of 1.5mm thick
One Mark Questions steel sheets, the current required is of the
order (GATE-ME-92)
01. Penetration is increased by (a) l OAmp (b) l OOAmp
(GATE-ME-90) (c) l OOOAmp (d) 10,000Amp
(a) Increasing welding current and welding
speed 05. In an explosive welding process, the . . . . . . . . . .
(b) Increasing welding current and (maximum/minimum) velocity of impact is
decreasing welding speed fixed by the velocity of sound in the . . . . . . . . .
(c) Decreasing welding current and welding (flyer/ target) plate material. (GATE-ME-92)
speed
06. In DC welding, the straight polarity
(d) Decreasing welding current and
(electrode negative) results in
increasing welding speed
(GATE-ME-93)
02. At small variations of arc length at operating (a) Lower penetration
conditions, the manual metal arc welding (b) Lower deposition rate
transformer provides nearly (c) Less heating of work piece
(GATE-ME-90) (d) Smaller weld pool
(a) Constant power
07. The electrodes used m arc welding are
(b) Constant power factor
coated. This is not expected to
(c) Constant voltage
(GATE-ME-94)
(d) constant current
(a) Provide protective atmosphere to weld
03. For gas welding a particular job using a (b) Stabilize the arc
neutral oxy-acetylene flame the acetylene (c) Add alloying elements
consumption was 1 0 ltrs. The oxygen (d) Prevent electrode from contamination
consumption from the cylinder in liters will
08. The ratio of acetylene to oxygen 1s
be (GATE-ME-91)
approximately . . . . . . . . . for neutral flame used
(a) 5 (b) 1 0 (c) 1 5 (d) 20
in gas welding (GATE-ME-94)
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: : Welding 625
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09. Generally cylindrical parts produced by 1 3. Which of the following arc welding
powder metallurgy should not have non processes does not use consumable electrode
uniform cross section and length to diameter (GATE-ME-02)
ratio exceeding . . . . . . . . . . . (GATE-ME-94) (a) GMAW (b) GTAW
(c) SAW (d) none
1 0. Preheating before welding is done to
(GATE-ME-96) 1 4. In oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at
(a) Make the steel softer the inner cone of the flame is around
(b) Bum away oil, grease etc from the plate (GATE-ME-03)
surfaces (a) 3500 C
°
(b) 3200 C
°
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: 626: Production
1 7. Which one among the following welding 2 1 . In welding brass with oxy-acetylene flame ,
processes uses non-consumable electrode? the type of flame used is (GATE-PI-89)
(GATE-ME-11)
(a) Gas metal arc welding 22. The mode of metal transfer in CO2-MIG
(b) Submerged arc welding welding at low temperature is
(c) Gas tungsten arc welding (GATE-PI-90)
(a) Spray transfer
(d) Flux coated arc welding
(b) Short circuiting type of transfer
1 8. The major difficulty during welding of (c) Globular transfer
aluminium is due to its (d) Droplet transfer
(GATE-ME-14-SET-l)
(a) high tendency of oxidation 23. With increasing joint thickness, the tensile
(b) high thermal conductivity strength of a brazed joint (GATE-PI-90)
(c) low melting point (a) Continuously decreases
(d) low density (b) First decreases and then increases
(c) Continuously increases
1 9. In solid-state welding, the contamination (d) First increases and then decreases
layers between the surfaces to be welded are
removed by (GATE-ME-14-SET-l) 24. Welding Process
(a) alcohol (b) plastic deformation A. Thermit welding
(c) water jet (d) sand blasting B. Projection welding
C. MIG welding
20. Within the Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) in a D. Friction welding
fusion welding process, the work material Heat Source
undergoes (GATE-ME- 14-SET-4) 1 . Electric arc
(a) microstructural changes but does not 2. Mechanical work
melt 3. Exothermic chemical reaction
(b) neither melting nor microstructural 4. Ohmic resistance (GATE-PI -90)
changes
( c) both melting and microstructural 25. In TIG welding a . . . . A. . . . and . . . .B . . . .
changes after solidification electrode is used . (GATE-PI- 90)
(d) melting and retains the original A. non-cons umable I cons umable
microstructure after solidification B. coated I bare
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Pub1icationa : 627 :
26. High alloy steel components are preheated (a) cellulose (b) acidic
before welding for reducing (c) rutile (d) oxide
(GATE-PI-91)
(a) Heat affected zone 32. Filler material 1s . . . . A. . . in resistance
(b) Total energy consumption welding and the heat generated in the process
(c) Total time of welding is directly proportional to . . . . . . B . . . . . . .
(d) Welding stresses (GATE-PI-92)
a. used / not used
27. In spot welding of aluminum sheets, the b. square of the current / cube of the current
welding current should be . . . . . . A . . . . and weld
time should be kept . . . . . . . . . B . . . . . . than for 33. The composition of an oxy-acetylene flame
MS sheet of same thickness. for cutting of steel contain more oxygen.
(GATE-PI-91) (GATE-PI-94)
a. higher I lower b. higher I lower
34. The consumption of an oxy-acetylene flame
28. Continuous rails for Indian railways are for cutting of steel contains more oxygen
welded by . . . . . .. Welding process. (T/F) (GATE-PI-95)
(GATE-PI-91)
35. Which of the following powders should be
29. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . is the non-fusion method of fed for effective oxy-fuel cutting of stainless
joining dissimilar metals with metals whose steel (GATE-PI-01)
melting temp is greater than 400 C. °
(a)Steel (b) Aluminum
(GATE-PI-91) (c)Copper (d)Ceramic
30. The joint configuration best suited for 36. High speed electron beam welding is focused
adhesive bonding is on the weld spot using
(GATE-PI-92) (GATE-Pl-03)
(a) butt (b) fillet (c) lap (d) spot (a) vacuum lens
(b) inert gas lens
31. The type of coated electrode most widely (c) optical lens
used for welding low carbon steel is (d) magnetic lens
(GATE-PI-92)
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37. In resistance welding, heat is generated due 42. Brazing and soldering are (GATE-PI-14)
to the resistance between (GATE-PI-03) (a) plastic joining methods
(a) electrode and work piece (b) homogeneous joining methods
(b) asperities between touching plates (c) autogenous joining methods
(c) two dissimilar metals being in contact (d) heterogeneous joining methods
(d) inter-atomic force s
43. In a linear arc welding process, the heat input
38. The current in Amperes used in resistance per unit length is inversely proportional to
spot welding of plain carbon steel sheets (1 (GATE - 15-Set 1)
to 3 mm thick) lies within the range: (a) welding current
(GATE-PI-04) (b) welding voltage
(a) 10-50 (b) 50-500 (c) welding speed
(c) 500-5000 (d) 5000-50000 (d) duty cycle of the power source
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: 629 : Welding
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Type of joining 07. In arc welding process, the voltage and
1. Submerged Arc Welding current are 25V and 300A respectively. The
2. Soldering arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and
3. Thermit Welding welding speed is 8 mm/sec. The net heat
4. Atomic Hydrogen Welding input (in J/mm) is (GATE-ME-06)
5. Gas Tungsten Arc welding (a) 64 (b) 797 (c) 1103 (d) 79700
6. Laser Beam Welding
P Q R S p Q R S 08. A DC welding machine with a linear power
(a) 2 5 1 3 (b) 6 3 4 4 source characteristic provides open circuit
(C) 4 1 6 2 (d) 5 4 2 6 voltage of 80V and short circuit current of
800A. during welding with the machine, the
05. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot
measured arc current is 500A corresponding
welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming
to an arc length of 5.0 mm and the measured
effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms
arc current 460A corresponding to an arc
and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat
length of 7.0 mm. the linear voltage (E) &
generated during the process will be
arc length (L) characteristic of the welding
(GATE-ME -04)
arc can be given as (where E is in Volts and
(a) 0.2 Joule (b) 1 Joule
L is in mm) (GATE-ME-07)
(c) 5 Joule (d) 1000 Joules
(a) E = 20 + 2L (b) E = 20 + 8L
06. Spot welding of two 1 mm thick sheets of (c) E = 80 + 2L (d) E = 80 + 8L
steel (density=8000kg/m3) is carried out
successfully by passing a certain amount of 09. Two metallic sheets , each of 2.0 mm
current for 0.1 second through the electrodes. thickness are welded m lap joint
The resultant weld nugget formed is 5 mm in configuration by resistance spot welding at a
diameter and 1.5 mm thick. If the latent heat welding current of 10 KA and welding time
of fusion of steel is 1400 kJ/kg and the of 10 milliseconds. A spherical fusion zone
effective resistance in the welding operation extending up to the full thickness of each
is 200µQ, the current passing through the sheet is formed. The properties of the
electrodes is approximately metallic sheets are given below:
(GATE-ME-OS) Ambient temp = 293 K
(a) 1480 A (b) 3300 A Melting point temp = 1793 K
(c) 4060 A (d) 9400 A Density = 7000 kg/m3
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: 631 : Welding
Latent heat of fusion = 300 kJ/kg 314th radius of the rotating bar . The power
Specific heat = 800 J/kgK (in kW ) consumed at the interface of the
Assume: welding is (ME-GATE-10)
(i) Contact resistance along sheet - sheet (a) 12.33 (b) 16.44 (c) 18.50 (d) 24.66
interface is 500 micro-ohm and along
electrode -sheet interface is zero.; 12. In welding a mild steel sheet using an oxy
(ii) No conductive heat loss through the bulk acetylene flame, the total amount of
sheet material; and acetylene consumed was 8.0 ltrs. the oxygen
(iii) The complete weld fusion zone is at the consumption from the cylinder is
melting temperature, the melting (GATE-PI-89)
efficiency (in %) of the process is..... (a) 8.0 ltrs (b) 16 ltrs
(GATE-ME-07) (c) 20 ltrs (d) 24 ltrs
(a) 50.37 (b) 60.37
13. Match the following (GATE-PI-89)
(c) 70.37 (d) 80.37
List -1 List -2
A. Cellulose coating 1. Alloying agent
10. In arc welding of a butt joint, the welding
B. Rutile coating 2. Absorb gasses
speed is to be selected such that highest
C Iron powder coating 3. forming slag
cooling rate is achieved. Melting efficiency
D Basic coating 4. shielding gasses
and heat transfer efficiency are 0.5 and 0.7,
respectively. The area of the weld cross 14. In welding process, penetration is increased
section is 5 mm2 and the unit energy required by (GATE-PI-91)
to melt the metal is 10 J/mm3 . if the welding (a) increasing current and decreasing speed
power is 2 kW, the welding speed in mm/s is (b) decreasing both current and speed
closet to (GATE-ME-08) (c) increasing both arc voltage and speed
(a) 4 (b) 14 (c) 24 (d) 34 (d) increasing arc voltage and decreasing
current
1 1. Two steel bars each of diameter 10mm are
coaxially friction welded end to end at an 15. Application
axial pressure of 200MPa and rotational A. Highly reactive metals
speed of 400rpm. The coefficient of friction B. long straight butt joint in thick sections
between the mating faces of the rotating bars C. site weld of rails
is 0.50. the torque is assumed to act at the D. MS rods to plate like components
Fyderabad l Dellii l BhopaI I Pune l Bhubancswar l Lucknowl Patna l Bengaiuru l Oiennai l Vuayawadal Vizag I T,rupati I Knkalpally l Kolbtll
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1 6. During gas welding of copper sheets a 1 9. The cold cracking susceptibility of the heat
neutral flame was used consuming 8 liters of affected zone in an arc weld is influenced by
acetylene. But the weld was found to be (GATE-PI-03)
defective. So it was re-welded using an P. Entraped hydrogen,
oxidizing flame. The likely consumption of Q. Residual stresses
oxygen in liters will be (GATE-PI-93) R. Martemsitic transformation
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 1 0 (d) 1 6 S. Slag inclusion
(a) P, S (b) P, Q, S
1 7 . In spot pulsed laser welding of aluminum (c) P, Q, R (d) R, S
plates (density=2700kg/m3 , specific
heat=896J/kg, melting temp=933K, latent 20. Which of the following process can be used
heat of melting = 398 kJ/kg) at a temp of for welding of Aluminum alloys
30° C, pulse with energy of 0.5J is focused (GATE-PI-03)
onto an area of 0.05mm2 . if the entire energy P. Submerged arc welding
is coupled into the material, what will be the Q. Gas metal arc welding
depth of weld assuming the CS area of the R. Electroslag welding
weld is circular and is uniform throughout its S. Gas tungsten arc welding
depth and only heat conduction in the (a) P,Q (b) Q,S (c) Q,R (d) R,S
direction of penetration (GATE-PI-02)
(a) 5.34mm (b) 2. 1 5mm 2 1 . Group I Group II
(c) 4.23mm (d) 3.85mm P. Arc welding 1 . Diffusion
Q. Friction welding 2. Polarity
1 8. A 900 mm long steel plate is welded by R. Solid state welding 3. Focusing
manual metal arc welding process using S. Laser welding 4. Kinetic energy
welding current of 1 50 A, arc voltage of 20 (GATE-PI-03)
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: 633 : Welding
(a) 4 3 2 (c)
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40( 80)
b 6
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(b) 3 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
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6
(d) 2 4 1 3
22. Match list-I (welding defects) with List-II 24. Two 8 mm thick steel plates are placed 5 mm
(causes) and select the correct answer using apart and welded by a butt joint. Welding is
the codes given below the lists carried out at 20 V and speed of 5 mm/sec.
(GATE-PI- 03) Heat transfer efficiency is 0.80. If the heat
List- I List- II
required to melt steel is 10 J/mm3 and
A. spatter 1. Damp electrodes
melting efficiency is 0.625. the weld current
B. Distortion 2. Arc blow
(in Amperes) will be (GATE-PI-05)
C. slag inclusion 3. Improper cleaning in
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400
multi pass welding
D. Porosity 4. Poor joint selection
25. Match List - I (Welding problems) with List
(a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 - II (Causes) and select the correct answer
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 using the codes given below the lists:
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (GATE-PI- 05)
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 List- I (Welding problems)
A. Cracking of weld metal
23. In a fabrication shop, a T-joint is to be made
B. Cracking of base metal
between two plates using a chain
C. Porosity
intermittent, double fillet weld of 6 mm leg
D. Inclusions
length. The intermittent welds are 40 mm
List- II (Causes)
long and spaced 80 mm apart, edge to edge.
1. Excessive stresses
The welding symbol of the joint is
2. High joint rigidity
6 b-,_ 40
(a) �--..:....
6 �V
...,..., (80
---+4o� <8o)--
)
-::-'.'
<
(GATE-PI-OS)
3.
4.
Failure to remove slag from previous
deposit
Oxidation
<
5. Excessive H2 , 02 , in the welding
(b) t6
�6
40- 80
[>40-80 atmosphere
N2 ,
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32. Aluminum strips of 2mm thickness are (a) 27 (b) 35 (c) 45 (d) 55
joined together by resistance spot welding
process by applying an electric current 36. During a steady gas metal arc welding with
6000A for 0. 1 5sec. the heat required for direct current electrode positive polarity, the
melting aluminum is 2. 9J/mm3 • the diameter welding current , voltage and weld speed are
and thickness of the weld nugget are found to 1 50A, 30V and 6rn/min respectively. A
be 5 mm and 2. 5mm respectively. Assuming metallic wire electrode of diameter 1 . 2mm is
the electrical resistance to be 75 micro-ohms, being fed at a constant rate of 1 2rn/min. the
the percentage of total energy utilized in density , specific heat and melting temp of
forming the weld nugget is (GATE-PI-08) the wire electrode are 7000 kg/m3 , 500 J/kg
(a) 28 (b) 35 (c) 65 (d) 72 and 1530°C respectively. Assume the
ambient temp to be 30 °C and neglect the
33. Which pair among the following solid state
latent heat of melting. Further consider that
welding processes uses heat from an external
2/3rd of the total electrical power is available
source (GATE-PI- 08)
for melting of the wire electrode. The
P- Diffusion welding
melting efficiency (in percentage) of the wire
Q- Friction welding
electrode is (GATE-PI-10)
R- Ultrasonic welding
(a) 39.58 (b) 45.25
S- Forge welding
(c) 49. 38 (d) 54.98
(a) P & R (b) R & S
(c) Q & S (d) p & s
37. In a DC arc welding operating, the length
34. Which of the following powders should be
characteristic was obtained as Varc = 20 +5/
fed for effective oxy-fuel cutting of stainless
where the arc length l was varied between
steel (GATE-PI-08)
5mm and 7mm. Here Varc denotes the arc
(a)Steel (b) Aluminum
voltage in Volts. The arc current was varied
(c)Copper (d)Ceramic
from 400A to 500A. Assuming linear power
35. Autogeneous gas tungsten arc welding of a source characteristic , the open circuit
steel plate is carried out with welding current voltage and the short circuit current for the
of 500A, voltage of 20V, and weld speed of welding operation are
20mrn/rnin.Consider the heat transfer (GATE-ME & PI-12)
efficiency from the arc to the weld pool as (a) 45V, 450A (b) 75V, 750A
90%. The heat input per unit length (in kJ I (c) 95V, 950A (d) 150V, 1 500A
mm ) is (GATE-PI-09)
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38. For spot welding of two steel sheets (base 41. A DC welding power source has a linear
metal) each of 3 mm thickness, welding voltage-current (V-I) characteristic with open
current of 10000 A is applied for 0. 2 s. The circuit voltage of 80V and a short circuit
heat dissipated to the base metal is 10001. current of 300A. For maximum arc power ,
Assuming that the heat required for melting the current (in Amperes) should be set
1mm volume of steel is 20 J and interfacial
3
as___ (GATE-15 - Set 1)
contact resistance between sheets is 0. 0002
Q, the volume (in mm 3 ) of weld nugget is 42. During a TIG welding process, the arc
(GATE-ME-14-SET-4) current and arc voltage were 50 A and 60 V,
respectively, when the welding speed was
39. A butt weld joint is developed on steel plates 150 mm/min. In another process, the TIG
having yield and ultimate tensile strength of welding is carried out at a welding speed of
500 MPa and 700 MPa, respectively. The 120rnrn/rnin at the same arc welding voltage
thickness of the plates is 8mm and width is and heat input to the material so that weld
20 mm. Improper selection of welding quality remains the same. The welding
parameters caused an undercut of 3mm depth current(in A) for this process is
along the weld. The maximum transverse (GATE-15-Set 2)
tensile load (in kN) carrying capacity of the (a) 40. 00 (b) 44. 7 2
developed weld joint is __ (c) 55. 90 (d) 62. 25
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3)
43. Two aluminum alloy plates each 10 mm
40. In an arc welding operation carried out with a thick and 1 m long are welded without
power source maintained at 40 volts and 400 crowning by multipass tungsten inert gas butt
amperes, the consumable electrode melts and welding. The joint configuration is V-type
just fills the gap between the metal plates to with 60 ° angle and root gap is maintained at
be butt-welded. The heat transfer efficiency
5 mm. if electrode of 5 mm diameter with
for the process is 0.8, melting efficiency is
500 mm length is used for welding, then the
0. 3 and the heat required to melt the
number of electrodes required is
electrode is 20 J/mm3 • If the travel speed of
(GATE - Pl - 15)
the electrode is 4 rnrn/s, the cross-sectional
(a)7 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 13
area, in mm2 , of the weld joint is ____
(GATE-PI- 14)
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: 637 : Welding
44. The voltage -length characteristic of a direct Two welding cases are given below.
current arc in an arc welding process is V = Case I: V= 15 V, I = 200 A, v = 5 mm/s,
(100 + 40/), where l is the length of the arc in k = 150 W/mK, p = 3000 kg/m
3
,
45. Spot welding of two steel sheets each 2 mm refer to the thermal conductivity, the density
thick carried out . successfully by passing 4 and the specific heat of the plate materials,
kA of current for 0. 2 seconds through the respectively. Consider that electrical energy
electrodes. The resulting weld nugget formed is completely converted to thermal energy.
Assuming cylindrical shape for the nugget, The ratio of the peak temperature in Case I to
the thickness of the nugget is ___ mm. that in Case II is (GATE - PI-16)
1 1
L atent heat of fusion for steel 1400 kJ/kg (a) - (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
3 2
Effective resistance of the 200 µ0
weld joint 47. Two flat steel sheets, each of 2.5 mm
Density of steel 8000 kg/m j
thickness, are being resistance spot welded
(GATE- 16- SET- 3) using a current of 6000 A and weld time of
0. 2 s. The contact resistance at the interface
46. In linear gas tungsten arc welding of two
between the two sheets is 200 µO and the
plates of the same material, the peak
specific energy to melt steel is 1Ox 109 J/m3 .
cq
temperature T (in K) is given as T = , , A spherical melt pool of diameter 4 mm is
formed at the interface due to the current
where q is the heat input per unit length (in
flow. Consider that electrical energy is
J/m) of weld, a, is the thermal diffusivity (in
completely converted to thermal energy. The
m2/s) of the plate materials and C 1 is a
ratio of the heat used for melting to the total
constant independent of process parameters
resistive heat generated is ___
and material types.
(GATE - PI-16)
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=====================================
linear V-I characteristics DC power source.
The following data is available.
Five Marks Questions
O.C voltage of the power source = 62V,
S.C current for the setting used = 130A,
01. An arc welding DC power source has a linear Arc length = 4mm,
power source characteristic with open circuit Traverse speed of welding = 15crn/min
voltage VO = 80 volts and short circuit Efficiency of heat input = 85%
current Is = 1OOOamps. The voltage-length The relation between the arc length L in mm
characteristic of the arc is given by V= 20 + and arc voltage Vis V= 20 + 1. 5L
4L volts where L is the arc length in mm, Calculate the heat input into the work piece.
calculate the optimum length of arc for (GATE-ME-92)
obtaining maximum arc power at welding. 04. The cross section weld bead is shown in fig
What voltage and current setting should be the profile of the bead and the fusion zone
done on the power source for maximum arc are taken circular for convenience. Bead
power. (GATE-ME-89) width and radii of curvature of circular
profiles are given in fig. The bead height and
02. Manual metal arc welding is to be used for depth of penetration are (GATE-ME-96)
welding two plates each measurmg 1 0mm
800x200x 19mm. Given that
I• •I
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10. The arc - voltage characteristics of a DC i) What is the heat generated due to the
power source has a linear power source supply of power if effective resistance
characteristic of V = 20 + 40L , where V is has 200micro ohms,
the arc voltage in volts and L is the arc length ii) The maximum indentation is 1oyo of
in cm. the static volt-ampere characteristic of sheet thickness and density of the spot
the power source is approximated by a weld nugget 8 gm/cc. If 1380 Joules are
straight line with open circuit voltage = 80V required to melt 1gm of steel, determine
and short circuit current is 600Amps, heat required for welding operation if
determine the optimum arc length for D= 6SQRT (t) to determine nugget
maximum power (GATE-ME-03) diameter D and assume the nugget size
to be equal to metal between the two
11. A resistance welder is rated at 50 kVA, at electrodes
50% duty cycle. Secondary voltage is always (GATE-PI-92)
constant at 25 volts. If a job requires
1500Apms current, determine the maximum 14. In MIG welding the power source
welding time in a total cycle time of 30secs. characteristics is Vp=36-I/60 and the arc
(GATE-PI-91) characteristics is Va=2La +27. find the
change in power of the arc if the arc length
12. The voltage-arc length characteristics of a changed from 2mm to 4mm. If the maximum
DC arc is given by V=20+40L. where L = arc current capacity of the power source is 300
length m cm. The power source Amps, the maximum arc length sustainable is
characteristics can be approximated by a (GATE-PI-92)
straight line. Open circuit is 80V and short
circuit current 1OOOAmps. The optimum arc 15. The voltage-arc length characteristics of a
length in mm (GATE-PI-91) power source 1s V=20+40L, where
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 10 V=operating voltage in volts and L = arc
length in cm. The open circuit voltage and
13. Two sheets of low carbon steel 1. 5mm thick short circuit current for arc lengths ranging
each are spot welded by passing a current from 3 to 5mm and current from 400 to
10000 amps for 5 cycles in 50 Hz main 500amps during welding operation are
supply. (GATE-PI-92) (GATE-PI-93)
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16. Two plates with symmetrical V joint diameter: 1.2 mm; Wire feed rate:4m/min;
penetration of V angle 60deg are to be arc Thermal efficiency of the process : 65%
welded in a single pass. The power P(kW) - (GATE-PI-03)
arc length L (mm) characteristic is given by
19. The heat input per unit length of the weld in
P = 4+0.8L -0. 1L 2 Assuming that the top
kJ/cm is:
surface of the weld is flat & flush with the
(a) 0.18 (b) 0. 28 (c) 10. 83 (d) 16.66
plate top surface, & the energy losses are
20%, The density of filler material is 8gm/cc 20. The area of cross section of weld bead in
and the energy required to melt 1 gm is 1400 mm2 is:
joules. The plate dimensions are 1000mm (a) 16. 3 (b) 25. 1
length & 5mm thickness. The maximum (c) 30.3 (d) 38. 6
welding speed is . . . . . . (GATE-PI-95)
Statement for Linked Answer Q 21 & Q22
Common Data for Q uestion 17 & 18 Resistance spot welding of two steel sheets 1s
A weld is made using MIG welding process with carried out in lap joint configuration by using a
the following welding parameters: Current: 200A; welding current of 3KA and a weld time of 0.2s.
Voltage:25V; Welding speed:18 cm/min; wire a molten weld nugget of volume 20mm3 is
diameter: 1.2 mm; Wire feed rate: 4 m/min; obtained. The effective contact resistance is
Thermal efficiency of the process : 65% 200µ0. The material properties of steel are given
(GATE-PI-01) as (i) latent heat of melting 1400 kJ/kg, (ii)density
8000 kg/m3 , (iii) melting temp 1520 °C, (iv)
17 The heat input per unit length of the weld in
specific heat 0.5kJ/kgC. The ambient temp is
kJ/cm is:
20C. (GATE-PI-09)
(a) 0.18 (b) 0. 28 (c) 10.83 (d) 16.66
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (b)
Sol: In DCSP the work is positive and electrode
One Mark Solutions
is negative, due to work is positive the heat
generated at the work is high, depth of
0 1. Ans: (b) penetration is high. Hence high melting
Sol: By increasing welding current the heat point and high thickness plates can be
generated will increase and by reducing easily welded but due to lower heat
welding speed more concentration is taking generation at electrode the melting rate of
place, hence depth of penetration of the electrode is low and so deposition rate is
weld will increase. low.
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with the some quantity of zinc and forms materials and to prevent cracks during
zinc-oxide which is floating on the weld . joining of ring like structures.
pool and it is not allowing remaining zinc to
evaporate. 27. Ans: (a)
Sol: Welding current should be higher & Weld
33. True
thick steel plates is lOOOOAmps, for 1mm
Sol: Because steels are having higher MP, if thick steel plates the current is less than
oxidizing flame is used it is possible to melt 1OOOOAmps and for 3mm thick steel plate
and the carbon present in the steel will act the current is more than 10000 amps.
as deoxidizer.
39. Ans: (a)
34. True Sol: In thermit welding Iron oxide + aluminum
Sol: Because steels are having higher MP, if powder will chemically react and produces
oxidizing flame is used it is possible to melt aluminum oxide which is used as slag, iron
and the carbon present in the steel will act is produced which is used as filler material
as deoxidizer. and heat is generated which is used as heat
Sol: By feeding the steel powder, the powder 40. Ans: (c)
will burned for producing heat required for Sol: The size of the LASER is very small , hence
rising the temperature of plates. RAZ also small.
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42. Ans : (d) 47. Ans: (d)
Sol: Brazing and soldering are the non-fusion Sol: Pure tungsten electrodes are frequently
welding operations i.e. parent metal will coated oxides of Th, Zr, La, and Ce. These
not be melted, hence the joint formation is oxides are expected to perform two
heterogeneous.
important functions (a) increasing arc
stability and (b) increasing the current
43. Ans: (c)
carrying capacity of the electrodes.
_ A 1 xV 1 - A w 1 xV 1 - A w 1
X X
V
a + bL=V0 - o xi m Heat generated = I2 R 't
Is
= (10000) 2 x 500 x10 -{; x0.01
at L = 5 mm, Is= 800, Vo = 80 V, Im=500A
=500 kJ
80
a + b(5 80- -x 500
)= 35 .9
800 Efficiency(�)= l = 70.38 %
500
a + 5b = 30 . ... .. . ....... . . ... ....(1)
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= 240 V -3V2
= 142.35 J
For optimum power
Actual heat generated (HG) = I 2Rt
dp = 0 => 240 - 6V = 0 = 60002 x75 xlf 6 x0. 15
f
= 405 J
dV
240
=> V= = 40 V
6 . H.R 142.28
Efficiency 11 = --= --= 35¾o
H.G 405
3 1. Ans: (b)
33. Ans: (d)
Sol: Volume= (1 102 - 1002) x 2
4
1C
V v2 kindling temperature
Power (P)= VI = V x-= -
R R
302 35. Ans: (a)
= -= 21.43 J/sec
42 VI
Sol: Power P = --x Tl
Power Speed
Energy(heat)--. -
time 20 x500
= x0.9 = 27 kJ I mm
. 2 12.4 20 / 60
=> Time = -- = 10 sec
2 1.43
3
=
At L = 5, I = 500
(t-d)
20+5(5) = V0 - x500
Is = CTut x area = 700 x 100 = 70 kN
-
Vo
45- V0 - - x 500 ..................(1) 40. Ans : 48
Is
Sol: Heat generation rate = V.I
At L = 7, I= 400
40 x 400 = 16000W
V0
=
Is
Volume filling rate of weld bead
Solve (1) & (2) for V0 & Is C.S area velocity
We get Is 950 A
=
(A x 4) mm3 /sec
x
=
=
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V1 V2
Is
=
(H.1)1 =(H.1)2
(
V.I
Speed 1
- J( J
V.I
Speed 2
V0 40 _±
= =
I s 50 5
11 V0 = 140 + -x250
12 = xSpeed 2 5
4
Speed,
140 +200 = 340
50
=
V0 4 V x5 _ 340 x 5
- x120
150
40 A = �I _ 0 = 425 A
Is 5 4 4
= =
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ACE : 653: Welding
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46. Ans: (a)
k
Sol: a=-
pC
Five Marks Solutions
15 0 0 1.
a =--- -=55.5 x10 -6
3 000 x900 Sol: V0 = 8 0V; 1 s = 1 000A
1
50 80
a 2=----= 13.88 x10-6 Va= 2 0 +4L; Vp= 8 0--- xI
8 000 x45 0 1000
VI 15 X 200
q= = =6X 105 At equilibrium condition
i r 5 X 1 0 -3
Va= Vp
15 x300
q 2= = 4_5 xl 05
1 0X 10- 2 0 +4 L = 8 0-� xI
1 000
3
T q a 6 xl 05 13.88 xl 0-6
-1 =-1 X-2 =---5 X---- l OOO
q2 a 1 4.5 x10 55.5 x 10 -6 => I= ( 60- 4L)
80
6X 13.88
= 0333= _!_
T2
= Power (P) = VI
4.5 X 55.55 3
1 0
(20 +4L{ �� (6 0-4L)]
47. Ans: (0.2327)
=
I= (60-4 x 4)= 55 0 A
=
Heat required 80
=
Heat generated P = VI = 40 x 55 0 = 22 kW
llH.1
335.1032
= = 0.2327
1440
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02. 03.
Sol: Total area A = A1 +A2 +A3 Sol: VO = 62, Is = 1 30 , L = 4 mm,
= A1 +2 A2 Welding speed = 15 cm /min
1 TJ 85% , V = 20 + 1 .5 L
=( 1 9 x2)+.,2 ( x 1 7 tan30x 1 7)
=
At equilibrium conditions
2
204.8 mm
Va = Vp
= 2
19 h=1 7
At L = 4 mm,
62
,, 2
20 + l .5(4) = 62 - - x I
\ I
1 30
H
2
1 963 Watt
Total Volume of weld bead
=
02A = 02C = 20 mm
=-tr 2
x3 x( 450 - 50)
4
= 2826 mm 3
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5 Va = 20 + 4( 5) = 40 V
We get C1 = -- = 0.79
6.32
V0 8
C2 = 0 VP = VO - -x I � 40 = 80 - - x I
Is 1 00
t = c 1 Ji + c 2 � t = 0.79./i Current I =500 A
Now for t = 8 mm Power(P) = VI = 40 x 500 = 20 kW
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: 656 : Production
B = width of weld
=
600
= [1200 +1600L - 1600L2 ]
B = 2x5 tan 30 = 5.77 mm = 5 . 77x 10- m 3
80
(on substitution of the following For optimum arc length
parameters) dp = 0 => 1600- 3200L = 0
=> V 14.2 mm/s Welding speed dL
1600
= 0_5
= =
=> L =
09. 3200
0 85P 0.85 X 2 X 10-5 At L=0.5 mm
Sol: R e1 = ___:___ = 1.082 10-5
n l nr 25 x ,r x 0.02 V = 20+(40 x 0.5) = 40 V
= X
V2 52 600
H.G 1 VI = -x V = - = ----5 I= (60-40 x .05) 300 A
80
V
R Re, 1.082 x 10-
=
=
Re2 = 1 1.
n2 ,rr 50 X 7r X 0.02
Sol: Rated Power = Yr Ir = 5 x 103
0.54 1 10-S
50 X 10 3
v2 52 => Rated current, 1, = --- = 2000 A
=
X
H.Gz = - = = 4.6 MW 25
Re2 0.54 l x l0-5
Rated duty cycle Dr = 50%,
If desired current Id = 1500 A
10.
1; D, = 2000
Sol: Va 20+40L Dd ( 1500 ) X 50 = 88.8
2
80
= =
Vo = 80 V, 1S = 600A, Vp = 80- - 1
1/
Ans: (c)
D2h
Sol: At equilibrium conditions Va
12. ,r
Volume of nugget =
= Vp 4
2 0 + 40L = 8 0- (
80 )1 = ,r
2
( 7.35} x 2.7 =
458
mm3
4 4
Heat required = Volumexp x H. Rig
1 00
l OOO
=> I = (60 - 40L )
80 458
= x l 0-3 x 8 x 1 3 8 0
1 0 4
P = VI = (20 + 40L { �� (60 - 40L)]
= 1 264 joule
l OOO [
= 1200 - 800L + 2400L - 1 600L2 ] 14.
Sol: VP = 36 - _!_
80
l OOO
= [12 00 + 1 600L - 1 600L2 ] 60
80
dL
At equilibrium conditions
I
=> 1 600-32 00L = 0 Va = Vp
=> L = 0 .5 cm = 5 mm 27 + 2 L = 36 - => I = 60 (9 - 2L)
60
13. If current is 3 00 amps
�1�t
I = 60 (9 - 2 x4) = 60 A
p = 35 X 60 = 2 1 00 W
Change in power = 93 00-2 1 00 = 72 00 W
O.lt
If the maximum current capacity is 300A,
the maximum arc length is 2mm
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15.
Sol: When L= 3 mm, I = 500 A 5 tan 30
V
V = V0 - -o x I
V = 20 +40 x 0.3 = 32
Is
V
32 = V0 - -o x500 .... ( 1)
Is Vol. of W.B = 14.43 x 1000= 14433 mm3
When L = 5 mm , I = 400A Weight of W.B = 14433 x 10-3 x 8
V = 20 +40 x 0.5 = 40 = 1 15.5 g
Vo H.R for melting of W.B = 1 15.5 x1400
40= V0 x400 . ... (2)
Is 16 1. 66 kJ
-
=
lOO
I s= V.O = 900A
36
x
8 = 27.78 mm /sec
08 10.83K.J I cm
L= · = 4 mm
=
0.2
18. Ans: (b)
P = 4 +0.8L- 0.1 L 2
Sol: Filling rate of weld bead filled rate by
4 +0.8 x4- 0. l x 42 =
=
= 5.6 kW electrode
Energy losses = 20% =>11= 80%
area of W.B x Speed =
4d xf
,r 2
180
= 14.43
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19. Ans: (c) 2 1. Ans: (c)
Sol: I= 200, V = 25, speed= 18 cm /min Sol: I= 3000 A, -c = 0.2, R= 200 µQ
D = 1.2 mm, f = 4 m /min , 11= 65%, Vol. of nugget"= 20 mm3
VI11 25 200 x 0.65 x 60 H.G = 12 R -c = 30002 x200x l 0-6 x0.2
H. I= = x
speed 18 = 360 J
= 10.83 kJ / cm H.R= 20 x 10-9 x 8000 (500 ( 1520-
20)+1400 103 ))
20. Ans: (b) = 344 J
X
180
= 25. 12 mm2
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Metal Cutting
(c) forms a low shear strength film of work
One Mark Questions material at the tool chip interface
(d) serves as a dielectric , minimizing
01. Cutting tools are provided with large thereby reactions due to EMF at the
(GATE-ME-87)
positive rake angle mainly for interface
(GATE-ME-89)
(a) Increasing the strength of the cutting 04. The size of BUE in metal cutting increases
edge with
(b) Avoiding rubbing action with the (a) very high speed
finished surfaces (b) large uncut chip thickness
(c) Reducing the magnitude of the cutting (c) use of cutting fluid
force (d) increase in positive rake angle
(d) Better heat dissipation
05. Crater wear always starts at some distance
(GATE-ME-89)
02. If in a turning operation both the feed rate from the tool tip because at that point
(GATE-ME-87)
and the nose radius are doubled the surface
finish values will be (a) cutting fluid does not penetrate
(a) Decreases by 50% (b) chip tool interface temp is maximum
(b) Increases by 300% (c) normal stress on rake face is maximum
(c) Increases by 1 00% (d) tool strength is minimum
(d) Remain unaffected
(GATE-ME-90)
06. Most of the metal cutting heat goes into the
03. The ideal cutting fluid for low speed
(GATE-ME-88)
machining of metals should be one which (a) Moving chip (b) cutting tool
(c) Work material (d) machine tool
(a) removes the heat faster from the cutting
zone, 07. The effect of rake angle on the mean friction
(GATE-ME-92)
(b) forms a coating on the cutting tool by angle in machining can be explained by
chemical reaction
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(a) Sliding model of friction 12. A built up edge is formed while machining
(b) Sticking and then sliding friction model (GATE-ME-00)
(c) Sticking friction model (a) ductile materials at high speed
(d) sliding and then sticking friction model (b) ductile materials at low speed
(c) brittle materials at high speed
08. Cutting power consumption in turning can (d) brittle materials at low speed
be significantly reduced by
(GATE-ME-95) 13. Friction at the tool - chip interface can be
(a) Increasing rake angle of the tool reduced by (GATE-ME-09)
(b) Increasing cutting angle of the tool (a) Decreasing the rake angle
(c) widening the nose radius of the tool (b) Increasing the depth of cut
(d) Increasing the clearance angle (c) Decreasing the cutting speed
(d) Increasing the cutting speed
09. Most of the metal cutting heat goes into the
(GATE-ME-91)
14. The minimum shear strain in orthogonal
turning with a cutting tool of zero rake angle
(GATE-ME-09)
(a) Moving chip (b) cutting tool
IS
(c) work material (d) machine tool
(a) 0.00 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
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1 7. A straight turning operation is carried out 20. In HSS, the tungsten can be substituted by
using a single point cutting tool on an AISI (GATE-PI-89)
1 020 steel rod. The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and (a) Chromium (b) Nickel
the depth of cut is 0.5 mm. The tool has a (c) Molybdenum (d) Cobalt
side cutting edge angle of 60°. The uncut
chip thickness (in mm) is_ 21. In comparison to HSS, super HSS contains
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3) higher percentage of (GATE-PI-90)
(a) Tungsten (b) Carbon
18. Cutting tool is much harder than the work (c) Vanadium (d) Cobalt
piece. Yet the tool wears out during the tool-
work interaction, because 22. BUE formation ... A.. the cutting force and
(GATE-ME-14-SET-3) ... B... the surface finish (GATE-PI-90)
(a) Extra hardness is imparted to the work (a) decreases/ increases
piece due to coolant used (b) spoils / improves
(b) Oxide layers on the work piece surface
23. Assertion: a diamond tool is used for USM
impart extra hardness to it
of glass work-piece
(c) Extra hardness is imparted to the work
Reason: diamond is harder than glass
piece due to severe rate of strain
(GATE-PI-90)
(d) Vibration is induced in the machine tool
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26. Amount of energy consumption for unit 31. Hot hardness is an essential property for
volume of metal removal is maximum in (GATE-PI-95)
(GATE-PI-91) (a) Gear materials
(a) turning (b) milling (b) Shaft materials
(c) reaming (d) grinding (c) Welding electronics
(d) Tool materials
27. In metal cutting with a carbide tool, at the
maximum recommended speed, the largest 32. In HSS Tool materials the ele!nent tungsten
% of heat generated goes to the can be completely replaced, without
(GATE-PI-92) changing the material property by
(a) tool (b) chip (GATE-PI-95)
(c) work (d) tool post (a) Molybdenum (b) Carbon
(c) Cobalt (d) Vanadium
2 8. Machinability of steels is improved by the
(GATE-PI-94)
33. Only negative rake angles are used v,rith the
addition of
following tool materials
(GATE-PI-95)
(a) Sulphur (b) Silicon
(c) Phosporous (d) all of the above
(a) HSS (b) Carbon tool steels
(c) Carbides (d) Diamond
29. Only negative rake angles are used with the
following tool material
(GATE-PI-94)
34. In metal cutting BUE fonnation results in
(GATE-Pl-95)
(a) HSS (b) Carbon tool steels (a) Improvement in surface finish
(c) Carbides (d) Diamonds (b) Reduction in cutting force
(c) Deterioration of surface finish
30. In metal cutting BUE formation results in
(GATE-PI-94)
(d) Improvement in tool life
(a) improvement in surface finish 35. When the depth of cut is increased, the
(b) reduction in cutting force specific cutting energy (GATE-PI-95)
(c) deterioration of surface finish (a) Increases
(d) improvement in tool life (b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Reaches an optimum value
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36. The effects of setting a boring tool above 39. Diamond cutting tools are not recommended
centre height leads to a/an. for machining of ferrous metals to
(GATE-PI-05) (GATE-PI-08)
(a) increase in the effective rake angle and a (a) High tool hardness
decrease in the effective clearance angle (b) High thermal conductivity of work
(b) increase in both effective rake angle and material
effective clearance angle (c) Poor tool toughness
(c) decrease in effective rake angle and an (d) Chemical affinity of tool material with
increase in the effective clearance angle iron.
(d) decrease in both effective rank angle and
effective clearance angle 40. Diamond cutting tools are not recommended
for machining of ferrous metals due to
37. If each abrasive grain is viewed as a cutting (GATE-PI-09)
tool, then which of the following represents (a) High tool hardness
the cutting parameters in common grinding (b) High thermal conductivity of the work
operations? (GATE-PI-05) material
(a) Large negative rake angle, low shear (c) Poor tool roughness
angle and high cutting speed (d) Chemical affinity of tool material with
(b) Large Positive rake angle, low shear iron
angle and high cutting speed
(c) Large negative rake angle, high shear 41. A spindle speed of 300 rpm and a feed
angle and low cutting speed 0.3mm/revolution are chosen for
(d) Zero negative rake angle, high shear longitudinal turning operation on an engine
angle and high cutting speed lathe. In finishing pass, roughness on the
work surface can be reduced by
38. The cutting tool material normally used for (GATE-PI-14)
turning steel of very high hardness is (a) reducing the spindle speed
(GATE-PI-06) (b) increasing the spindle speed
(a) HSS (b) tungsten carbide (c) reducing the feed of tool
(c) CBN (d) diamond (d) increasing the feed of tool
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42. Under certain cutting conditions, doubling 500 N and 250 N, respectively. The
the cutting speed reduces the tool life to coefficient of friction between the tool and
c�
index
r
of the original. Taylor's tool life
43. The angle of a twist drill that determines its found to be 0.25 mm. The inclination angle
rake angle is of the main cutting edge is 10° . The back
rake angle (in degrees) is ___
(GATE - PI -15)
(a) Lip relief angle (b) Chisel edge angle
(c) Helix angle (d) Point angle (GATE - PI-16)
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The machine preferred for producing 100 1 1. In a machining operation, doubling the
pieces 1s cutting speed reduces the tool life to 118th of
(a) Conventional lathe (b) CNC lathe the original value. The exponent n in
(c) Any of the above (d) None Taylor's tool life equation VTn = C, is
(GATE-ME-04)
08. During orthogonal cutting of MS with a (a) 1 /8 (b) 1 /4
1Odeg rake angle tool, the chip thickness (c) 1 /3 (d) 1 /2
ratio was obtained as 0.4. The shear angle
(in degrees ) evaluated from this data is 12. The figure below shows a graph which
(GATE-ME-01) qualitatively relates cutting speed and cost
(a) 6.53 (b) 20.22 per piece produced. (GATE-ME-OS)
(c) 22.94 (d) 50.00
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13. Two tools P and Q have signature 5 ° -5 ° -6 ° 16. The percentage of total energy dissipated
-6 ° -8 ° -30 ° -0 and 5 ° -5 ° -7 ° -7 ° -8 ° - 15 ° -0 due to friction at the tool chip interface is
(both ASA) respectively. They are used to (GATE-ME-06)
tum components under the same machining (a) 30% (b) 42%
conditions. If hp and hQ denote the peak-to (c) 58% (d) 70%
valley heights of surfaces produced by the
tools P and Q, the ratio hp / hQ will be Statement for Linked Answer Ql 7 & Q18
(GATE-ME-OS) A Low carbon steel bar of 147mm diameter
with length of 630mm is being turned with
tan8 ° +cot15 ° tan 15 ° +cot8 °
(a) (b) uncoated carbide insert. The observed tool
tan8 ° +cot 30 ° tan30 ° +cot8 °
lives are 24 and 12 for cutting velocities of
tan 15 ° +cot 7 ° tan 7 ° +cot 15 °
(c) (d) 90m/min and 120m/min respectively. The
tan 30 ° +cot 7 ° tan 7 ° +cot 30 °
feed and depth of cut are 0.2mm/rev and
2mm respectively. Use the unmachined
Common Data for Questions 14, 15 & 16: diameter to calculate the cutting velocity.
In an Orthogonal cutting operation
Uncut chip thickness = 0.5 mm 17. When tool life is 20min. the cutting velocity
Cutting speed = 20 m/min in m/min is (GATE-ME-07)
Width of cut = 5 mm (a) 87 (b) 97 (c) 107 (d) 1 14
Chip thickness = 0.7 mm
Thrust force = 200 N 18. Neglect over travel or approach of the tool.
Cutting force = 1200 N When tool life is 20min, the machining time
Assume merchants theory in min for a single pass is (GATE-ME-07)
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
14. The values of shear angle and shear strain,
respectively are (GATE-ME-06)
19. In orthogonal turning of a low carbon steel
(a) 30.0 and 1.98 (b) 30.3 and 4.23
bar of diameter 150mm with uncoated
(c) 40.2 and 2.97 (d) 40.2 and 1.65
carbide tool, the cutting velocity 1s
15. The coefficient of friction at the tool chip 90m/min. the feed is 0.24mm/rev and the
interface is (GATE-ME-06) depth of cut is 2mm. The chip thickness
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.46 obtained is 0.48mm. if the orthogonal rake
(c) 0.85 (d) 0.95
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of cut are 120m/min, 0.2mm/rev and 2mm 23. The shear plane angle (in degrees) and the
respectively. The main cutting force N is shear force respectively are
(GATE-ME-07) (GATE-ME-08)
(a) 40 (b) 80 (a) 22.65 ; 150N (b) 22.65; 320N
(c) 400 (d) 800 (c) 28; 400N (d) 28; 320N
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(b) n = 1.0, and K = 4860 30. In a cutting test with 0.3mm flank wear as
(c) n = - 1.0 , and K = 0.74 tool failure criterion, a tool life of 1Ornin
(d) n = - 0.5, and K = 1. 155 was obtained at a cutting velocity of
20m/min. taking tool life exponent as 0.25,
26. What is percentage increase in tool life the tool life in minutes at 40m/rnin of
when the cutting speed is halved. cutting velocity will be (GATE-PI-93)
(GATE-ME-09) (a) 0.506 (b) 0.625
(a) 50% (b) 200% (c) 3. 140 (d) 5.002
(c) 300% (d) 400%
3 1. The heat generated in metal cutting 1s
27. For tool A Taylor's tool life exponent (n) is
dissipated in different proportions into
0.45 and constant (K) is 90. similarly for
environment, tool, chip and work-piece. The
tool B, n 0.3 and K= 60. the cutting speed
correct order of this proportion m
=
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feed rate of 0.2 mm/rev and O.lmm/rev 36. Orthogonal machining of a steel work-piece
respectively. The tool that gives better finish is done with a HSS tool of zero rake angle.
(GATE-PI-02)
and the value of ideal surface roughness are The ratio of the cutting force and the thrust
force on the tool is 1:0.372. The length of
(a) Tool A and 4.166 µm respectively cut chip is 4.71 mm while the uncut chip
(b) Tool B and 3.78 µm respectively length is 10 mm. What are the shear plane
(GATE-PI-03)
(c) Tool A and 8.333 µm respectively angle � and friction angle B in deg.? Use
(d) Tool B and 8.333 µm respectively Merchant's theory.
(a) 32.49,10.22 (b) 25.22,20.41
34. Tool life equations for two tools under (c) 64.78,20.41 (d) 25.22,23.21
(GATE-PI-03)
consideration are as follows
37. A cylinder of 25 mm diameter and 100 mm
length is turned with a tool, for which the
HSS : VTo.2 = 150
relation VT0·25= 55 is applicable. The
Carbide : VT0.3 = 250
cutting velocity is 22m/min. For a tool feed
Where V is the cutting speed in m/min and
of 0.046 mm/rev, the number of tool
T 1s the tool life m mm. the
(GATE-Pl-03)
regrinds required to produce 425 cylinders
breakeven cutting speed above which the
1s
carbide tool will be beneficial is
(a) 12 (b) 22 (c) 43 (d) 85
(a) 54 m/min (b) 150 m/min
(c) 194 m / min (d) 250 m/min 38. In which of the choices given below, the
cutting tool materials are placed in the
35. A single point cutting tool with a nose
(GATE-PI-04)
ascending order of permissible cutting speed
radius of 0.4 mm was used to turn a for machining of steel ?
component in a lathe employing a feed rate (a) K Group Cemented Carbide-P Group
of 0.3 mm/rev. if the feed-rate is doubled, Cemented Carbide-Ceramic -Cubic
the ideal surface roughness (peak-to-valley Boron Nitride
height ) produced on the component will (b) Cubic Boron Nitride - K Group
(GATE-PI-03)
increase by a factor of Cemented Carbide - P Group Cemented
Carbide - Ceramic
(a) 2 (b ) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (c) P Group Cemented Carbide - K Group
Cemented Carbide - Cubic Boron
Nitride - Ceramic
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(d) Ceramic - Cubic Boron Nitride - K 41. In a machining operation chip thickness
Group Cemented Carbide - P Group ratio is 0. 3 and the back rake angle of the
Cemented Carbide tool is 10 ° . What is the value of the shear
strain? (GATE-PI-OS)
39. Two identical cylindrical jobs are turned (a) 0.31 (b) 0.13 (c) 3.00 (d) 3. 34
using (a) a round nosed tool of nose radius 2
mm and (b) a sharp comer tool having 42. Consider the following statements
During the third stage of tool-wear, rapid
principal cutting edge angle = 45 ° and
deterioration of tool edge takes place
(GATE-PI-OS)
auxiliary cutting edge angle = 10 ° . If the
because
operation is carried out at a feed of 0.08
1. Flank wear is only marginal.
mm/rev, the heights of micro irregularities
2. Flank wear is large.
on the machined surfaces (in mm) in the two
(GATE-PI-04)
3. Temperature of the tool mcreases
cases will be
gradually.
(a) 0.0001, 0.024 (b) 0.0002, 0.012
4. Temperature of the tool mcreases
(c) 0.0003, 0.024 (d) 0.0004, 0.012
drastically.
Which of the statements given above are
40. Consider the following statements with
correct ?
respect to the relief angle of cutting tool
(GATE-PI-04)
(a) 1 & 3 (b) 2 & 4 (C) 1 & 4 (d) 2 & 3
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Codes: 1. As the cutting speed increases, the cost
(a) A-1 ' B-4' C-2 ' D-5 of production initially reduces, then after
(b) A-4' B-1 ' C-3' D-2 an optimum cutting speed it increases.
(c) A-4 ' B-1 ' C-2 ' D-3 2. As the cutting speed increases the cost
(d) A-1' B-4 ' C-3 ' D-5 of production also increases and after a
critical value to it reduces.
44. Match List - I (Cutting tool materials) with 3. Higher feed rate for the same cutting
List-II (Manufacturing methods) and select speed reduces cost of production.
the correct answer using the codes given 4. Higher feed rate for the same cutting
below the lists: (GATE-PI-05) speed increases the cost of production
List- I List- II Which of the statements given above are
A. HSS 1. Casting correct ?
B. Stellite 2. Forging (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 only
C. Cemented carbide 3. Rolling
D. UCON 4. Extrusion 47. Assertion (A): The ratio of uncut chip
5. Powder metallurgy thickness to actual chip thickness is always
Codes: less than one and is termed as cutting ratio
(a) A-3 ' B-1 ' C-5 ' D-2 in orthogonal cutting
(b) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-3 Reason (R): The frictional force is very
(c) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2 high due to the occurrence of sticking
(d) A-2' B-1' C-5' D-3 friction rather than sliding friction.
(GATE-PI-05)
The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15° , shear
Statement for Linked Answer Q48 & Q49
45.
angle 45° and cutting velocity 35 m/min.
What is the velocity of chip along the tool A batch of 500 jobs of diameter 50 mm and
face? (GATE-PI- 05) length 100 mm is to be turned at 200 rev/min and
(a) 28.5 m/min (b) 27. 3 m/min feed 0.2 mm/rev.
(c) 25. 3 m/min (d) 23.5 m/min
48. Applying Taylor's equation VT0·25 = 160,
the tool life in minutes is (GATE-PI-05)
46 Consider the following statements
(GATE-PI-05)
(a) 20. 36 (b) 22.43
(c) 674 (d) 28.20
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49 . The number of components per tool life 53. If the cutting force and the thrust force are
(GATE-PI-05) 900N and 8 1 ON, the mean strength in Mpa
(a) 138 (b) 270 (c) 62 (d) 6 1 (a) 137.94 (b) 477.91
(c) 500.58 (d) 635 . 84
Statement for Linked Answer Q 50 & Q 51
A � 40 mm job is subjected to orthogonal turning Common Data for Question 54 & 55
by a +10 rake angle tool at 500 rev/min. By
°
In an orthogonal cutting test, the following
direct measurement during the cutting operation, observations were made
the shear angle was found equal to 25 . °
Cutting force = 1200N; Thrust force = 500N
Tool rake angle = zero; Cutting speed = 1 mis,
50. The velocity (in m/min) with which the chip
Depth of cut = 0.8mm;
flows on the tool face is (GATE-PI-05) Chip thickness = 1.5 mm
(a) 32 (b) 63 (c) 22 (d) 27.5
460N/mm2 '•
52. The shear angle is Depth of cut = 0.25mm;
(a) 14 ° (b) 25 ° (c) 29° (d) 75 ° Coefficient of friction at chip tool interface = 0.7.
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56. Shear plane angle (in degrees) for minimum 60. In an orthogonal machining operation, the
cutting force is (GATE-PI-08) tool life obtained is 1Omin at a cutting speed
(a) 20.5 (b) 24.5 (c) 28.6 (d) 32.5 of l OOm/min, while at 75m/min cutting
speed, the tool life is 30min. the value of
57. Minimum Power requirement ( in KW ) at a index (n) in the Taylor's tool life equation is
cutting speed of 150m/min is (GATE-PI-09)
(GATE-PI-08) (a) 0.262 (b) 0.323
(a) 2.6 (b) 3.25 (c) 3.35 (d) 3.45 (c) 0.423 (d) 0.52 1
58. During machining, the wear land (h) has Common Data for Question 61 & 62
been plotted against machining time (T) as An orthogonal operation is carried out at 20m/min
given in the following figure. cutting speed, using a cutting tool of rake angle
(GATE-PI-08) 15deg. The chip thickness is 0.4mm and uncut
chip thickness is 0.2mm.
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64. Following data refers to an automat and a 66. Two cutting tools are being compared for a
center lathe, which are being compared to machining operation. The tool life equations
machine a batch of parts in a manufacturing are : (GATE-ME & PI-13)
(GATE-PI- 13) Carbide tool: VT . = 3000
1 6
shop
6
HSS tool : VT0 · =200
Center Where V is the cutting speed in m/min and
Automat
Lathe
T is the tool life in min. The carbide tool
Machine Set-up Time in min 1 20 30
Machine Set-up Cost in Rs/min 800 1 50 will provide higher tool life if the cutting
Machining Time per piece speed in m/min exceeds
2 25 (a) 15.0 (b) 39.4
in min
Machining Cost in Rs/min 500 100 (c) 49. 3 (d) 60.0
Automat will be economical if the batch size Common Data for Question 67 & 68
exceeds In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100 mm
(a) 28 (b) 32 (c) 61 (d) 75 diameter with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev, depth
of cut of 4 mm and cutting velocity of 90
65 Details pertaining to an orthogonal metal m/min, it is observed that the main
cutting process are given below. (tangential) cutting force is perpendicular to
Chip thickness ratio 0.4 the friction force acting at the chip-tool
Under formed thickness 0.6mm interface. The main (tangential) cutting
Rake angle+1o0 force is 1500 N.
Cutting speed 2.5m/s
Mean thickness of pnmary shear zone 67. The orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool
25microns in degree is (GATE-ME & PI-13)
The shear strain rate m s- 1 during the (a) zero (b) 3.58
process 1s (c) 5 (d) 7.16
(GATE-ME&PI-13)
(a) O . l 781x105 (b) 0.7754 x105 68. The normal force acting at the chip-tool
(c) 1.0104x105 (d) 4.397x 105 interface in N is (GATE-ME & PI-13)
(a) 1000 (b) 1500
(c) 2000 (d) 2500
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69. During pure orthogonal turning operation of 72. An orthogonal turning operation is carried
a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is found that the out under the following conditions; rake
thickness of the chip produced is 0.5mm. angle = 5 °, spindle rotational speed = 400
The feed given to the zero degree rake angle rpm, axial feed = 0.4 m/min and radial depth
tool is 0.2mm/rev. The shear strain of cut = 5mm. The chip thickness , tc, is
produced during the operation is ___ found to be 3mm. The shear angle (in
(GATE-ME-14-SET-1) degrees) in this turning process is __
(GATE-15-Set 1)
70. Which pair of following statement is correct
for orthogonal cutting using a single-point 73. A single point cutting tool with o0 rake
cutting tool? (GATE-ME-14-SET-3) angle is used in an orthogonal machining
P. Reduction m friction angle mcreases process. At a cutting speed of 180 m/min the
cutting force thrust force is 490N. If the coefficient of
Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases friction between the tool and the chip is 0.7,
cutting force Then the power consumption (in kW) for
R. Reduction in friction angle mcreases the machining operation is _
chip thickness (GATE-15-Set 2)
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases
chip thickness 74. Orthogonal turning of a mild steel tube with
(a) P and R (b) P and S a tool of rake angle 1 o0 is carried out at a
(c) Q and R (d) Q and S feed of 0.14 mm/rev. If the thickness of the
chip produced is 0.28mm, the values of
7 1. A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being shear angle and shear strain will be
shaped in a shaping machine with a depth of respectively. (GATE-15 -Set 3)
cut of 4 mm, feed of 0.25 mm/stroke and the (a) 28°20' and 2.19
tool principal cutting edge angle of 30 °.
(b) 22°20' and 3.53
Number of cutting strokes per minutes is 60.
Using specific energy for cutting as (c) 24°30' and 4.19
l .49J/mm3 , the average power consumption (d) 37°20' and 5. 19
(in Watt) is ---
(GATE-ME- 14-SET-4)
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75. In an orthogonal machining experiment (a) 19.24 (b) 29. 70
carried out using a cutting tool with zero (c) 56.00 (d) 68.75
degree rake angle, the measured cutting
79. In a single point turning operation with
force was 1700 N. If the friction angle at the
cemented carbide tool and steel work piece,
rake face-chip interface is 26 ° , then the it is found that the Taylor's exponent is
thrust force value, in N is _____ 0.25. If the cutting speed is reduced by 50%
(GATE - PI-15) then the tool life changes by
times. (GATE- 16- SET- 3)
76. The too life equation for HSS tool is
VTo .1 4f- 7do.4 = Constant. The tool life (T) of 80. A cylindrical bar of 100 mm diameter is
30 min is obtained using the following orthogonally straight turned with cutting
cutting conditions = 45 m/min, f = 0.35 mm, velocity, feed and depth of cut of 120
d = 2.0 mm. If speed (V), feed (f) and depth m/min, 0.25 mm/rev and 4 mm,
of cut (D) are increased individually by respectively. The specific cutting energy of
25%, the tool life (in min) is the work material is 1 x 109 J/m3 . Neglect the
(GATE - 16- SET - 1) contribution of feed force towards cutting
(a) 0.15 (b) 1.06 power. The main or tangential cutting force
(c) 22.50 (d) 30.0 (in N) is ___ (GATE - PI-16)
77. For a certain job, the cost of metal cutting is 8 1. A 60 mm wide block of low carbon steel is
Rs. 18CN and the cost of tooling is Rs. 270 face milled at a cutting speed of 120 m/min,
C/(TV). Where C is a constant, V is the feed of 0. 1 mm/tooth and axial depth of cut
cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life of 4 mm. A schematic representation of the
in minutes. The Taylor's tool life equation is face milling process is shown below. The
VT0·25 = 150. The cutting speed (in m/min) diameter of the cutter is 120 mm and it has
for the minimum total cost is _ _ 12 cutting edges. The material removal rate
(GATE- 16- SET-2) (in mm3 /s) is _ _ (GATE - PI-16)
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82. Two cutting tools with tool life equations T = C V -2.S f --0.9 d--0.IS
given below are being compared: where, C is a constant. The suggested
Tool 1: VT0 · 1 =150 values for the cutting parameters are: v=1.5
Tool 2: VT03 = 300 mls, f= 0.25 mm and d = 3 mm for normal
where V is cutting speed in m/minute and T rough turning. If the operation is performed
is tool life in minutes. The breakeven at twice the cutting speed and the other
cutting speed beyond which Tool 2 will have parameters remam unchanged, the
a higher tool life is ___ m/minute. corresponding percentage change in tool life
(GATE- 17- SET- l) IS ------ (GATE-PI- 17)
83. During the turning of a 20 mm-diameter 86. The Merchant circle diagram showing
steel bar at a spindle speed of 400 rpm, a tool various forces associated with a cutting
life of 20 minute is obtained. When the process using a wedge shaped tool is given
same bar is turned at 200 rpm, the tool life in the Figure
becomes 60 minute. Assume that Taylor's
tool life equation is valid. When the bar is
turned at 300 rpm, the tool life (in minute) is -r--�---
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
Uncut chip
thickness
approximately
(a) 25 (b) 32 (c) 40 (d) 50
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1 3. A single point turning tool is designated as 17. In a turning trail using orthogonal tool
10° - 12 ° - 7 ° - 5 ° - 20° - 50° - 0° (0RS) The geometry , a chip length of 84mm was
values of normal rake and normal clearance obtained for an uncut chip length of
of the above mentioned tool.. ... 200mm. the cutting conditions were
(GATE-ME-95) V= 30m/min, t1 = 0.5mm, rake
angle=20deg, cutting tool is HSS.Estimate
14. If under a condition of plain turning the life shear plane angle, chip thickness and the
of the cutting tool decreases by 50% due to shear plane angle for minimum chip strain.
increase in the cutting velocity by 20%, then (GATE-ME-97)
what is the % increase in tool life due to
reduction in the cutting velocity by 20% 18. A Throwaway carbide insert was used to
from its original value. machine a steel work pieces with a cutting
(GATE-ME-95) speed of 60 m/min, tool life of 40minutes
was observed, when the cutting speed was
15. While turning a Cl5 steel of 160mm increased to 100 m/min, the tool life
diameter at 2 15rpm, 2.5mm depth of cut and decreased to 10 minutes. The cutting speed
feed of O. l 6mm/rev by a tool of geometry 0- for maximum productivity, if tool change
10-8-9- 15-75-0mm, the following time is 2 minutes is
observations were made. Tangential (GATE-ME-97)
component of the cutting force = 500N,
axial component of the cutting force = 19. In an orthogonal cutting experiment with a
200N, chip thickness = 0.48mm. Determine tool of rake angle 7deg, the chip thickness
the dynamic shear strength of the work was found to be 2.5mm when the uncut
piece material. (GATE-ME-95) chip thickness was set to 1 mm , find the
shear angle and find the friction angle p
16. Tool life of a 10 hours is obtained when
<I>
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is the tool life in sec. Find out the speed V Length of continuous chip in one revolution
at which both the tools will have the same = 60mm
life. Feed force = 800N. Calculate the chip
Also calculate the corresponding tool life. If thickness, shear plane angle, velocity of
you have to machine at a cutting speed of chip along tool face and coefficient of
l m/s, then which one of these tools will you friction.
choose in order to have less frequent tool
changes? (GATE-ME-99) 24. A cylinder is turned on a lathe with
orthogonal machining principle. Spindle
2 1. Tool life testing on a lathe under dry cutting rotates at 200rpm. The axial feed rate is 0.25
conditions gave 'n' and 'C' of Taylor tool mm per revolution. Depth of cut is 0.4mm.
life equation as 0.12 and 130 m/min, the rake angle is 10°. In the analysis it is
respectively. When a coolant was used, 'C' found that the shear angle is 27.75 ° ,
increased by 10%. The increased tool life (GATE-ME-03)
with the use of coolant at a cutting speed of i) The thickness of the produced chip is
90 m/min is (GATE-ME-01) (a) 0.5 1 1mm (b) 0.528 mm
(a) 47.4min (b) 37.4min (c) 0.8 18 mm (d) 0.846 mm
(c) 27.4min (d) 17.4min
ii) In the above problem, the coefficient of
22. Identical straight turning operation was friction at the chip tool interface
carried out using two tools : 8-8-5-5-5-25-0 obtained using Earnest and Merchant
(ASA) and 8-8-5-5-7-30-0 (ASA). For same theory is
feed the tool which gives better surface (a) 0.18 (b) 0.36
finish is (GATE-ME-01) (c) 0.7 1 (d) 0.98
23. A tube of 32mm outside diameter was 25. In an orthogonal cutting test on mild steel,
turned on a lathe and the following data was the following data were obtained
obtained (GATE-ME-02) (GATE-ME-04)
Rake angle = 35deg, Cutting speed : 40 m/min,
Feed rate O. l mm/rev
=
Depth of cut : 0.3 mm,
Cutting force = 2000N, Tool rake angle: +5 ° ,
Cutting speed = 15m/min Chip thickness : 1.5 mm,
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ii) The diameter of the job at which, while 32. A generalized tool life equation for carbide
parting, the tool will start rubbing tool for machining steel is given by
(a) 35mm (b) 28.7mm V T1 Fb Dc = K'
(c) 57.4mm (d) none Where V = Cutting speed, meters/min,
T = Tool life, minutes,
30. The following data apply to machining a F = feed, mm/rev,
part on turret lathe and a general purpose D = depth of cut in mm, Indices have
lath (GATE-PI-90) magnitudes a=0.3, b=0.3, c = 0.15,
(GATE-PI-92)
General Turret
Purpose lathe lathe
i) If the feed is halved and depth of cut
Cycle Time 20 min 5 min doubled, for identical tool life of 60
Labour rate Rs. 1 1/hr Rs. 8/hr minutes, the percentage change in speed
Machine rate Rs. 7/hr Rs. 1 0/hr (a) 5% (b) 11% (c) 25% (d) l 30%
The setup cost and the cost for special ii) The change in productivity for the new
tooling on the turret lathe would be Rs. processing conditions
3000/- . These costs are negligible on the (a) 5% (b) 11% (c) 25% (d)130%
general purpose lathe. Calculate the batch
seize which justifies the use of turret lathe. 33. Parting-off operation is carried out on a
cylindrical work-piece of 100mm diameter.
31. During orthogonal turning a steel rod at feed The groove width is 2 mm and an in feed of
0.25 mm per revolution and depth of cut 0.2 mm per revolution is given at a
°
4.00 mm by a tool of geometry o0 , -10 , 8°, maximum cutting speed of 60 m/mm. The
°
7°, 15°, 60 , 0 (mm) ; the following specific cutting force for the material is
observation were made: Tangential force = 800 N/mm2 • (GATE-PI-94)
1,600N , Axial force in feed direction = 800 i) The tangential force on the tool is
N, Chip thickness = 0.60mm. Find the (a) 160 N (b) 320 N
coefficient of friction between chip tool (c) 480 N (d) 640 N
interface and shear strength of work material ii) The maximum power requirement for
from shear force.
(GATE-PI-91)
the operation is
(a) 80 W (b) 1 00 W
(c) 200 W (d) 320 W
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ii) Shear velocity with the help of a i) The coefficient of friction between the
velocity triangle. chip tool interfaces will be
(a) 7.5 m/min (b) 12m/min (a) 0.235 (b) 0.339
(c) 25 m/min (d) 31 m/min (c) 0.467 (d) none
The cutting force and the thrust force are (c) 5.2mm2 (d) 7.l mm2
respectively 900 N and 600 N and the shear
angle= 30 deg.
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38. In a single pass turning operation the cutting 4 1 . A cutting tool is designated in 'Orthogonal
speed is the only variable Based on the Rake System' as : (GATE-PI-02)
cutting time cost and the cutting edge cost. 0 °- 0° - 6°- 6° - 25° - 75°- 0. 8 mm.
The tool life for minimum cost given that The following data were given
cost of 1 cutting edge is Rs.5, operator S0 = feed = 0. 1 2 mm/rev
wages including the machine tool cost is T = depth of cut = 2.0 mm
Rs.75/hour and tool life equation is VT0· 1 is a2 = chip thickness = 0.22 mm
1 00. (GATE-Pl-95) Vr = chip velocity = 52.6 m/min
(a) 1 0 (b) 1 7 (c) 29 (d) 36 'ts = dynamic yield shear strength = 400 MPa
Pz = main cutting force
39. Tool life in drilling steel using HSS drill is
expressed as T0·2 = 9. 8 D0.4 / V s0· 5 where D
= s
So t 'ts ( secy - tany + 1 )
is the drill diameter (in mm), T is the tool Where s = chip reduction coefficient and
life (in minutes), V is the cutting speed ( in y = orthogonal rake.
m/min) and s is the feed ( mm/rev). the feed The main cutting force (Pz) and cutting
is set at maximum possible value of 0.4 power assuming orthogonal machining are
mm/rev for a given drill diameter of 30mm.
the length of drilling is 50mm. the machine 42. The following data refers to an orthogonal
hour rate Rs 60 and the cost of drill is Rs machining of mild steel with a single point
400. HSS tool. Rake angle of tool = 1 0 °, uncut
i) For the given conditions, the tailor's chip thickness = 0. 3mm, width of cut =
exponent and constant are . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.0mm, single plane shear angle = 36° ,
ii) The optimum cutting speed, Vopt, shear strength of mild steel = 450 MPa,
neglecting the work-piece and tool using Merchants analysis (GATE-PI-03)
changing times is (GATE-PI-01) i) The coefficient of friction between the
chip and tool will be
40. In certain machining operation with a
(a) 0. 1 4 1 (b) 0. 344
cutting speed of 50 m/min, tool life of 45
(c) 0.532 (d) 0.688
minutes was observed, when the cutting
speed was increased to 1 00 m/min, the tool ii) The shear force in cutting will be
life decreased to 1 0 minutes. The cutting (a) 270 N (b) 333.75 N
speed for maximum productivity, if tool (c) 450 N (d) 459. 34 N
change time is 2 minutes is (GATE-PI-01)
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SOLUTIONS
05. Ans: (b)
One Mark Solutions Sol: During machining operation, when the force
is applied by the tool in upwards, the chip
01. Ans: (c) produced will directly lifts upwards, but due
Sol: With increase of positive rake angle, the to the self weight of the chip it falls on the
strength of tool reduces, tool life increases, rake face so that when the chip is lifting
forces induced during machining will come upwards and falling back, the chip will not
down etc. have contact with tool at the beginning of
the tool tip, hence no friction at tip and no
02. Ans: (c) wear.
°
Sol: Surface finish is indicated by When it falls back on to the rake face, it is
Rt= maximum peak to valley height trying to penetrate into the rake face so that
= :F/8r, where at some distance away from the tool tip
f= feed and r = nose radius of tool . If feed friction increases, heat generation increases
is doubled the Rt increases by 4 times and if and wear of tool increases and producing
nose radius is doubled the Rt reduces by 2 wear like crater (a shallow spherical
time hence the net value increases by 2times depression) hence named as crater wear.
means surface finish increases by 100%
06. Ans: (a)
03. Ans: (a)
Sol: Out of the total heat generated in the
Sol: The main purpose of using the cutting fluid
machining operation, maximum heat is
in machining is to carry away the heat
transferred into the chip (75 to 80%) , next
generated during machining and also it can
maximum to the work ( 15 to 20%) and least
act as lubricant for reducing friction at the
heat is transferred to tool (5 to 8%)
chip tool interface.
Ans: (a)
adhering of the chip will be high hence
09.
Sol: out of the total heat generated in the
BUE forms.
10. Ans: (b) plane, the shear angle is 45° and due to zero
Sol: During machining of ductile materials rake angles,
because of high toughness, the energy wave The shear strain induced= cot <I> + tan (<I> - a)
produced due to shear is absorbed by the = 1+1 = 2
because of high toughness, the energy wave T= (1�n x Tc ) = (1�-�·2 x 1 .5) = 6min
produced due to shear is absorbed by the
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n=
in G:J
Yi = /n (2) = 0.25
in (16)
Two Marks Solutions
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n {�) =
n
1 (W) = o.4463 = 2
0.223 1
n :� ) V2
1n J
� ;:) 1 ( n=
( V1
= ln 2 = 0.333 = .!_
T ) ln 8 3
ln -1
( T2
o
T3 T1 � ; l 5( �) .s = 1 o min
( V3 ) 144
= =
1 2. Ans: (a)
Note: strictly speaking the value of "n < l " Sol: With increase of cutting speed the time
taken for machining will be reduces and so
10. Ans: (a) the machining cost will reduces, the non
5 00 = productive cost will never depends on the
Sol: Tool life= T1 = 5 0, V1 = 5 0rpm
10
cutting velocity and with increase of cutting
T2 = \ : = 1 2.2, V2 = 80rpm velocity, the tool life will come down hence
2
tan30 + cot 8
1n
n= = = 0.333
(*l )
1.4 1
1n(;: ) 1n(i�o2 )
= P
f
hQ =
tan 15 +cot 8
hp
= tan l5 +cot 8
hQ
50 0.;33 -
tan 3 0 + cot 8
V3 (v
T3 = T1 -J¼ = 50(-)
1
60
_ 29
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Sol: Common Solution for 14, 15 & 16 Yr = rVe = 0.714 x20=14.28
t, = 0.5, Ve = 20, Fe
F= · A
smp
w = 5 = b, In
cosw-a )
0.7' FT= 200N Fe = 1200N 1200
xsin 24.59= 506 N
f2 =
n- In(
,
=>("'-a
"' )= cos_ (sin 40.27)
0.714
=><!>-a= 25.13=>a= <j>-25.13 (24)0.4IS
"- 90, Cs = 0
= Fs sin<j>
=
Fe = 1000 N , FT = 800 N , Ao
't
u
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P= 90 + 7- 28X 2= 41 27. Ans: (a)
F Sol: na = 0.45
Fe = s xcos(p-a)
cos( $+P-a) nb = 0.3
320 Tool A VT0 ·45 =90 ,
--xcos 34=565N
cos 62
=
Tool B VT0.3 = 60
F At BEP, TA= TB
F = s sin p
cos($+ p-a)
320
xsin 41 = 447 N
cos 62
=
V
T3 = T, ( :
n 81( 2)0.s = 324
29. Ans: (a)
Sol: For theoretically minimum possible shear
J
=
v
strain to occur
324-81= 2$-a= 90
% C hange in tool life = 300%
81
90 + ex. = 90 + 12 =
$= 51
2 2
i.- o.os...i
times the roughness value will increase by 4
1--
0.1
--1
times
8ra 8X 0.6
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: 699: Metal Cutting
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0.471cos0 40. Ans: (b)
$=tan -1( )= tan-1(0.471)
1-0.471sin 0
41. Ans: (d)
= 25.22
Sol: r = 0.3, a = 10
37. Ans: (d) 0.3cos10
$=tan_1( )=l?.3
1-0.3sin10
Sol: D = 25 mm, L = 100 mm' VT 0·25 =55 '
Vc = 22 m / min , f = 0.046 mm /rev Shear strain = cot$ + tan ( $- a)
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7 00 Product:J.on
1000
Fe =900,
50. Ans: (d)
F 810
51. Ans: (d) J3=a+ tan_, (_I_ J=15+ tan_, -
Fe 900
Sol: Common solution for 50 & 51 = 56.98
D 40 mm,a 10,
re
= =
Fs
=Shear strength = x sin <I>
r=-�
vr Yr =rVC Ao
,u
Ve
394·56
=0.437x62.8=27.5 m / min = x sin 29 = 478 MPa
2x0.2
J3=58 ° 10 1 , Fe =600N, FT =200N Note: Strictly speaking J3 > 45, hence we are
Fe . supposed to use classical friction theorem.
F= In xsm,-.,A
cosw-a) But if use classical friction theorem and
600 solve the problem, the answer is not
= x sin 58 °10' = 764
cos 48 °10 1 available in the multiple choice.
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Metal Cutting
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58 . Ans: (b)
2.0-0·8
Sol: s 1ope = =0. 024
500 60-10
= O+ tan- 1( )= 22.62
°
1200 If wear land=1.8 mm 2
Taking d = t1 = 0.8 (1.8 -0·8)
Tool life = T = 10+
0·8 0.024
r = _S_ = = 0.533
t 2 1.5 =51.67 min
Yr
r = - => Yr = rVe = 0.533 x1
Ve 59. Ans: (c)
= 0.533 m /sec Sol: During machining of brittle materials the
cutting forces induced are higher, to
56. Ans: (d) withstand for this, high strength of tool is
57. Ans: (a) required which is achieved by negative rake
angle.
Sol: Common solution for 56 & 57
w = b = 3.6 mm. 'Cu = 460
60. Ans: (a)
D = 0.2 = t1, µ = 0.7 Sol: T1 = 10 min, Ve1 = l OO m / min
p = tan- µ = tan- 1 1
0.7) = 35
T2 30min, Ve2 l OO m / min
(
= =
a = 10 = orthogonal rake angle in ORS
For minimum force, 2<1> + p -a = 90 1n(�l J l n( 75 )
</J
=
90+ a - /3
2
'Cu xA 0
=
90+ 10-35
2
460x3.6x0.2
=
_
32 5
n=
1{
=
�J =
0.2815 =
wo
1.09
1nG�)
0_262
Fs = = = 616N
sin <I> sin 32.5
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61. Ans: (c) 0.4 cos10
( )
tan·I l-0.4sinl 0 = 22.94
0
=
62. Ans: (b)
Sol: Common solution for 61 & 62 cos a .Y_
Shear strain rate = ( x J
Ve = 20m/min, a= 15 cos(<I> - a) /1Y
t2 = 0.4mm t1 = 0.2 mm coslO 2500
=( x J
0.2 = = cos(22.94 -10) 0.025
r = ..!.L = _!_ 0.5
t 2 0.4 2 = 101046.8 = 1.0104 x105
' 0.5cos15
<!> = tan- ( J = 29
1-0.5sin15 66. Ans: (b)
Sol: AtBEP, Ve = Vh = V & Te = Th
-i( Fe = N = 1500
<I> = Shear angle = tan rcosa )
. FT = F
1-rsma
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"�. . . . Metal Cutting
••�F�Pohlntioos
� : 703:
r=..!!_=0.5
t2 81. Ans: (1527.8872)
Sol: b=60 mm, V = 120 m/min
-1( r cosa
'I' = tan ) t=0.1 mm/tooth, d = 4 mm
1-r sin a
,1,.
(�: r =(�:J
= 1527 .8872 mm 3/sec
l O t 1 0
150 => T = ( � ) o. =( � )
�: =(�} =(�:)'�' =(�:J VT0 · =
_l_ 10
Sol:
1
= (2)4 = 16
3 0 3 0
VTo.3=300 => T=( � ) o.3 =( � )3
I 10
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: 7 06 : Pr oducti on
yio 10 i 1 __ t _ _ 0.2
- ( ;) - (150) °
-io -V rmin - i - - 0.5
10 t2m ax 0.4
V3 (300)3
V= 106. 069 1 m n co a
cl>min = tan- ( � i � ) = 28.18
1 rmin sma
83. Ans (b) 42 087
Ratio =cl> m ax = · =1. 493=1. 5
Sol: D = 20 mm , N 1 = 400 r pm= V1 , cl>min 28.18
T 1 = 20 min
N2 = 200 rp m= V2 , T2= 60 min , 85. Ans: 82.4 %
N3 = 300 r pm= V3 , T3 = ? Sol: B ec ause ther e is no change in the fe ed and
V1T i ° = V2T2n depth of c ut , the too l life equatio n c an be
wr itten as
T = C. V-2 5 :::::> T = (C / V2·5 )
:::::> y2 . s
T=C
Hence VI 2.5 T I -
- V2 2.5 T2 ,
rm ax co�. a
cl>m ax = tan-'(1-r sm ) = 42.087
m ax a
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ACE : 707 : Metal Cutting
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� �=�
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=================================
if V3 = 1 00 m /min,
V1 T/1= V2 T;1
Five Marks Solutions
01.
Sol: Orthogonal machining operation,
a = 0, f = 0.25 mm /rev= t 1 ,
d = 2 mm = b
Fe = 1 000 N, t2 = 1 .0, FT = 500
0.25 = 1 20 X 20 0.252
r !.J_= = 0.25 V1 TnI = V3 Tn3 � Tn3
1 00
=
! 1
2
= 2.55 min � T3 = 4 1 min
.h _ r cos a
1(
'I'= tan )
1 - r sin a
03.
0 5
= tan- 1 ( ·� ) = 1 4.03 °
Sol: t 1 = 0.25, Ve = 60 rn/min,
a = 0 , tz = 0. 7 5, Fe = 900 N,
tan (,B - a)= Fr FT = 450 N
Fe
t, 0.25 1
500 r = - = -- = -
fJ= tan -i ( ) = 26.56
°
!2 0.75 3
1 000
<I> = tan-' ( rco� )= 1 8.43
a
Fs = cos (¢ + P - a)
cos ?
1 - rsm a
p - a)
1 000 60
--- cos(1 4 + 26.56) Power = P = Fe x Ve = 900 x -= 900 W
60
=
cos 26.56
F
= 849.36 N tan(p - a)= T
Fe
Fs . ,h'l' 849.36 .
-ru = - x sm = --- x sm 1 4
A0 2 x 0.25
� p - a + tan�' ( � )
= 4 1 0.9 N/mm2 = 41 1 MPa
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04. I
yo.35 500 0.35
Sol: L et Q = N o. of components produced I =
T.C for produci ngQ components yo. I 200°·1
}
onTurret lathe yI 0 -2.857 = 1.99X 1 015
= 3 X 5+ - x( 4+ 2) X Q
4
60 V= (1. 99xl 01 5
)7.14)
2 ° 39
= 15+ Q = (t . 99xl 01 5 ) " = 133 . 8 m /mi n
5
B reak even cutti ng speed
T.C for produci ng Q components
=
}
on center lathe
06.
14
= 2x 4. 5 + - x(4. 5 + 2.5) xQ Sol: D0 = 100,
60
= 9+ 1. 633Q Di = 96, orthogonal machi ni ng
AtBEP N= 120, f = 0.5 mm/rev
T.C on tu rret L athe= T.C m center lathe r = 0.3 , Fe = 800N , FT = 600N
F 600
15+I Q = 9+ 1. 633 Q -tan-1 -T = tan-1 - = 3 6. 86
B-a -
5 Fe 800
!
15- 9 = (1. 633 - ) Q = 1.233Q
Vr Ve
= --,----,-
si n<I> cos{<I> - a)
6 si n<I>
Q = -- = 4.86 � vf = Ve X
1.233 cos q> -a
( )
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: 7 09 : Metal Cutting
07. 09.
Sol: a=35° , t1 = 0.15 , Fc= 200 , FT =90 Sol: TO = original tool life
T0 1
t2 = 0.3, b=2.5 , Vc = 30m / min T1 = n= 0.125 or
2, 8
0.15=
r= 0.5
0.3
.,, =
,1,
tan
_1 ( rcosa ) V, = V, ( �: r = V, ( 2) 0
"' = 1.09 V0
1-r sina
V1 = l .09 Vo
0.5cos 35 =
tan-i( ) 29_8 6 V1 - V0
= 9%
1-0.5sin 35 % change in sp eed=
=
Vo
/3 -a=tan-1 -
Fr = tan-1 (-
90
10.
200
)
Fe
= 24.22 Sol: w= b= 2.5 mm , t1 = 0.25 , a= 0
.
Sp ec1' fi1 c cuttmg energy = - p- = 794 N
MRR
670 = F 794
95 MW 'tu = s . sin<!> = x sin l l .31
7040xl 0-9 A0 0.25x 2. 5
=
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: 7 10: Production
11 .
Sol: C = 80, n = 0. 2
30
Cg = 2, L = = 0.5 1
m 60 ln( -)
l .2
= 0. 263
n L
VOP1 =C[- m ]" ln(0.5)
1-n C g
02
02 05
80[ · . · ] = 45. 94 m/min
0. 8 2
= '
1 2.
Sol: w = 40 mm, D = 70 mm, ( 1
38
T0 -) = 2.33T0
·
=
No. of teeth = Z = 30, N =
40 0.8
d = 2, fm = 20 mm/min % chang e in tool life
2 T2 -To
t1 max = fm � = = 1 .33 = 133%
NZ VD To
2 x 20
=
4o x 3o V w
/2
= 0.00563 mm
1 5.
Sol: D = 1 60 mm, N =
215rpm,
1 3. d = 2.5, f = 0. 16 mm/rev t1 ,A0 b x t1 = =
Sol: Norm al rake , an = tan- 1 (tan a x cos i) Tool g eom etry = 0- 10-8-9- 1 5-75-0 mm
Fe = 500, Fr = 200, = 0.48,
tan-1 (tan 120° x cos 10° )
f2
=
COS l
f2 0. 48 3
tan 7°
tan 1 (-- ) 7. 1 </> = Tan - ' (0.33)=18. 43
_
=
-J
Cos l O
=
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�•�========,..:=,::7�1,;,1 ,.:.:============��::::�:ttmg
:·�
500xcos(18. 43+ 21. 8) r co � a
= 411 <j>=tan-1 ( ) =24.74
cos 21. 8
=
1- r sma
0
relation is
Note: This problem also can be solved by
2<j>-a =90
assuming/machine process. B ut the values
90+ a 90+ 20
obtained are nearly same. <I> = = =550
2 2
16 Ans: (b)
Sol: V1 = 63 m/min, T1 = 10 hrs 18.
C = 257. 35 Sol: V1 = 60 m / min, T1 = 40 min
V2 =lOO m / min, T2 = lO min
ln(�)
V1 A ccording to Tay lor' s tool life equation
Ti° =� =>n =
V1 ln(T1 )
257. 35
1n( )
63
= = 0. 22
ln(600) 1 n(�) ln(1 00 )
, 60 = 0. 368
v2 = 2x 4 =126 m / min n= =
0. 368 1
r = L =0. 42 = 233. 2[--- x-]
1-0. 368 2
2
LI
t t 0. 5 148 m/min
r=-i => t2 =-i =- - =1. 19 mm
=
t2 r 0. 42
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: 7 12 : Pr oducti on
19. 21.
Sol: a= 7° , t2 = 2.5 m , t, = 1mm Sol: n= 0.12 , C = 130
t 1 C 1 = 1.1 X 130= 143 ,
r = -i = -= 0.4
t2 2.5 V= V1 = 90 m /min
1-rs ina
O
0.4cos 7 =
= ta n-1( ) 22. 65o = c =>r = (1 � ) = 47.4 min
Yo. 1 2
9
y 1 r 1"
1-0.4s in 7
i 1
\
5 = yH =>y = 2 "
�5)'
( Tool " l" gives low R1 va lue , hence better
s urfa ce finis h is p roduced by tool " 1"
= 0.77 m /s ec
I 23.
( 2·-
T= -
5 )m = 12348 s ec
Sol: D0 = 32 , a= 35° , K 1 = 0.1 mm,
0. 77
If V= 1 m/s ec Fe = 2000 N , Ve = 15 m/mi n ,
8 L 2 = 60 mm , FT = 800N
TA
(2 5)
= -t- = 1526Sec
r= s_
L
=�=�
rtD 32 1t x
= 0.59
1 0
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: 713 : Metal Cutting
= 100+ 20Q
22
6
T.C for producing Q components
=8.85 m/min
on automatic machine
24. (i)Ans: (a), (ii) Ans: (d)
= 2x800+- x800xQ
5
Sol: N =200 rpm, f=t1 =0.25 mm, 60
d = b = 0. 4 mm, � =27. 75 =16 00+ 5/6 0x 800Q
sin� sin 27. 75 AtBE P
r= = = 0.49
cos(� -a) cos 17. 75 T.C on standard machine
t, 0.25 =T.C on automatic machine
- = r � t2 =-- = 0. 511 22
t2 0.49 100+ X 20Q =16 00+66 .6 7Q
6
Using merchant theory
1500
2� +13-a =9 0 Q= = 225
6.6 7
13 =9 0 + 10- 2X 27.75=44. 5
µ = tanl3 = 0.9 8 27.
Sol: D iameter of fi nished hole= 75
25.
Rise per tooth=0. 03,
Sol: a = 5
p = n + tan-'( :: J 450
=5+ tan - =32
9 00
-I
Tooth pitch = 1 0mm
L ength of broach = 750mm
Ve = 6 m/min
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: 7 14 : Production
= 44.09 m / min
0.8 15
= 2.25 mm
= 45 m/min
:. Uncut chip thickness = t = 2.25 mm
Specific cutting pressure = 1 300 x 2.25 °.4
29.
= 1 798 N/mm2
Sol: e e 6° a b = 1 0°
Cutting force,
=
l OO �=
VA = 0.2
= 1 800.2 35 4 3 0.
Sol: Let Q = BEQ
T
1 20 1 20 =
VB 32 .76 T.C on G.P lathe = T.C on turret lathe
1 80 0.25
T0.25
= =
6Q = 1 .5Q + 3000
f2 = � ' d 2 = 2d
4.5Q = 3000 2
Q = 667
31. b c
Sol: f = 0.25 mm = t 1 , d = 4 mm = b,
Fe = 1 600 N, FT = 800 N, t2 = 0.6,
V2
v1
=
f2 (� J (�J d2
a = 0°
l
(l
O. 5
= 2 °3 -
) =1.11
F
tan (p - a)= T
Fe
800 V2 -V1
tan p= µ= --= 0.5 % change in speed = = 1 1%
1 600 v1
p = tan - I 0.5 = 26.56 ° Productivity is proportional to MRR
r= !i_= 0.25 = 0.42 % change in productivity
12 0.6 _ MRR 2 - MRR I
M RR I
-i( 0.42 cos 0
0= tan J
1 - 0.42 sin 0
= tan - 1 0.42 = 22.62 °
F8 = (c
cos p - a )
x cos(<!> + P - a) 33. (i) Ans : (b), (ii) Ans : (b)
Sol: D = 1 00 mm
1 600
= x cos 49.2= 1 1 69 N Parting off operation 1s orthogonal
cos 26.56
machining
F b = 2 mm, f = 0.2 mm
Shear strength = -r u = s x sin <I>
Ao Ve = 60,
1 1 69 Specific cutting energy = 800 MPa
= --- sm 22.62= 450 MPa
0.25 x 4 Cutting force, Fe = Sp. Energy x A0
= 800 x 0.2 x 2 = 320 N
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: 716 : Production
34. 37. (i) Ans: (c) , (ii) Ans: (b) , (iii)Ans: (c)
Sol: Let Q = no. of parts produced Sol:
T.C on E.L = T. C on T.L a = 6° , Ve = 0. 05m/s
30 60
- x Q x 80 = 500+- x Q x 1 60 b= w = 3, d = t1 = 1mm
60 60
40Q = 500 + 1 6Q ti = 1 .5 mm
500 t, 1 2
Q= = 20.83 = 21 r = - = - = - = 0.67
24 t2 1 . 5 3
35.
1( 0.67 cos6
Sol: Ve = 30m/min ,Vr = 1 5 m/min, a = 1 0° <j> = tan _ ) = 35_ 62
1 -0. 67sin 6
v
r= f = � = 0.5 j3 = 90 + U - 2q> = 90 + 6 -2 X 35.62
Ve 30
= 24. 75
e = tan-I ( 0.5COS 1 0 ) = 283 3 µ = tanj3 = tan 24. 75 = 0.461
1 - 0.5sin 1 0
V5 V V Vr = rVc = 0.67 x 0. 5x 60= 20m/min
-- = -r- = V = -r- x cosa
cosa sin<j> s sin<j> Area of sh ear plane = As = Ls x b
15 t,_
- x_ b= lx3 = _
= --- x coslO = 31 m/min = 5 2mm 2
sin 28.33 sin <j> sin 35.62
36.
Sol: d = 2 mm , w = b = 1 5 mm
38.
Ve = 0. 5m/s, a = 0
Sol: Cg = 5
Fe = 900, FT = 600, <!> = 30
75 =
600 = L = 1 .25
j3 = a+ tan- 33.69
1 m 60
900
VT 0 · 1 = 1 00
2
µ = tanj3 = 33. 69 = -
3 l -n C g
Optimum Tool life = Topi = ( . )
Pow er, P= Fe x Ve = 900x 0.5 = 450W n Lm
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: 7 17 : Me ta l Cutting
39. 41.
Sol: So = 0.12mm= t1 ,
t= 2.0 mm,
9.8x 30°.4 Maj or cutti ng for, b = p2 = Fe
= 60.4
0.40.5
=
40. Powe r,
Sol: V1 = 50 m/mi n T1 = 45 mi n
52.6
V2 = 100 m/mi n T2 = 10 mi n = p2 x Vr x i:.1.::, = 271x -- x l.83
60
= 436 W
1-0.461 2
=
= 195.44 m/min
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Machining
(c) Hob and work pi ece bo th are rotating
One Mark Questions (d ) A sp ecial multi- too th cutter (hob) 1s
used
O 1. The stand ard sp ecifica tion of a grinding
w heel is A-46-M- 6-V-21. I t m eans a w heel 05. Teeth of internal spur g ears can be
of (GATE-ME-88) accurately cut in a (GATE-ME-89)
02. In twist drills . . . .. . . . . (sm all/larg e) point 06. Minimum dim ensional and form a ccuracy
can be obtained in the cylind er bores of
angl e and ..... ... (sm all/larg e) helix angle
automobile engines if the bores are finished
are provi d ed for drilling soft, low streng th
by (GATE-ME -89)
steel. (GATE-ME-88)
(a) L apping
(b) Reaming
03. Cutting sp eed in grinding is set to a hi g h (c) Internal grinding
valu e to (GATE-ME-88) (d ) Honing
(a) Reduce the cu tting tim e
(b) Increase the bond streng th 07. If the longitudinal fe ed in center-less
(c) Improve cooling of job and w heel grinding is expressed by Vr = 7t D. N sin a.,
(d ) Reduce the w heel w ear D stands for (GATE-ME-90)
(a) Di am eter of blank
04 . Gear hobbing pro duces more accurate g ears (b) Diam eter of finished work pi ece
than milling because in hobbing (c) Diam eter of control w heel
(GATE-ME-89) (d ) Di am eter of grinding w heel
(a) There is a continuous ind exing operation
(b) Pressure angle is l arger than in milling
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: 719: Ma chining
08. I n small lot produc tion for mac hining T 13. Plain milling of mild steel plates produc es
slots on mac hine tables, it is ex pec ted to use (GATE-ME-95)
(GATE-ME-90) (a) I rregular shaped disc ontinuous c hips
(a) Shaping mac hine (b) Regular shaped disc ontinuous c hips
(b) B roac hing mac hine (c ) C ontinuous c hips without BUE
(c ) V ertic al milling mac hine (d) J ointed c hips.
(d) Horiz ontal milling mac hine
14. D iamond wheels should not be used for
09. W hen 1.0% plain c arbon steel is slowly grinding steel c omponents (T/F)
c ooled from the molten state to 740C , the (GATE-ME-95)
resulting struc ture will c ontain
15. The rake angle in drill
(GATE-ME-90)
(GATE-ME- 96)
(a) Pearlite and C ementite
(a) I nc reases from c enter to periphery
(b) Ferrite and C ementite
(b) D ec reases from c enter to periphery
(c ) Austinite and Ferrite
(c ) Remains c onstant
(d) austenite and C ementite
(d) I s irrelevant to the drilling operation.
10. I n horiz ontal milling proc ess . ... ...... .... ... 16. Hel ix angle of fa st hel ix drill is normally
(up/down) milling provides better surfac e (GATE-ME-97)
finish and .... .. .... . .. ... Up/down) milling (a) 35° (b) 60° (c ) 90° (d) 5°
provide longer tool life . (GATE-ME-92)
17. Abrasive material used in grinding wheel
11. To get good surfac e finish on a turn ed j ob, selec ted for grinding fe rrous alloy s is
one should use a sharp tool with a ... ..Feed (GATE-ME-00)
rate and .. ... Speed of rotation of thej ob. (a) SiC (b) diamond
(GATE-ME- 94) (c ) Ah0 3 (d) boron c arbide
12. Among the c onventional mac hining 18. D eep hole drill ing of small diameter, say 0.2
proc esses, max imum spec ific energy 1 s mm is done with E DM by selec ting the tool
c onsumed in (GATE-ME-95) material as (GATE-ME-00)
(a) Turn ing (b) D rill ing (a) copper wire (b) tungsten wire
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19. Allow ance in limits and fi ts refers to 23. Quality screw threads are produced by
(GATE-ME-01) (GATE-ME-03)
(a) m aximum clearance betw een shaft and (a) threa d milling
hole (b) thread chasing
(b) minimum clearance betw een shaft and (c) threa d cutting w i th single point tool
hole (d ) threa d casting
(c) difference betw een m aximum and
minimum siz e of hole 24. A goo d cutting flui d should have
(d ) difference betw een m aximum and (GATE-ME- 03)
minimum siz e of shaft (a) low therm al conductivity
(b) hig h sp ecific heat
20. A lea d screw with half nuts in a lathe, free (c) hig h viscosity
to rotate in both directions has (d ) hig h d ensity
(GATE-ME-02)
(a) V- threa ds 25. Internal g ear cutting op eration can be
(b) Wi th-worth threads p erform ed by (GATE-ME-08)
(c) Buttress threa ds (a) Milling
( d) Acm e threads (b) S haping with rack cutter
(c) S haping with pinion cutter
21. The hardness of a grinding w heel 1s (d ) Hobbing
d etermined by the (GATE-ME-02)
(a) hardness of abrasive grains 26. Abrasives are no t used in
(b) abili ty of the bond to retain abrasives (GATE-PI-89)
(c) hardness of the bond (a) Buffing process
(d ) abili ty of the grinding w heel to p enetrate (b) Burnishing process
the work pi ece (c) Polishing process
(d ) Sup er finishing process
22. Trep anning is p erform ed for
(GATE-ME-02) 27. In turning op eration the surface finish can
(a) finishing a drilled hole be improved by d ecreasing
(b) producing a large hole wi thout drilling (GATE-PI- 89)
(c) truing a hole for ali gnm ent (a) cu tting sp eed (b) F eed p er revolution
(d ) enlarging a drilled hole (c) Rake angle (d ) Nose radius
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: 72 1: Machining
28. Reamer is d esigned to have even number of 33. A blind hole 1s better tapp ed with a tap
flutes to: (GATE-PI- 90) having (GATE-PI-92)
(a) Balance the cutting forces (a) rig ht hand flutes (b) left hand flutes
(b) C onform to shop floor stand ard ( c) strai g ht flutes ( d ) no flutes
( c) Enable measurement of the reamer
diameter 34. In W hitw orth quick return mechanism (used
(d) H elp in regrinding of reamer. in shap ers) the velocity of the ram is
maximum at (GATE-PI-01)
29. Assertion: single start threa ds are used for (a) mi d dle of the forw ard stroke
fastening purposes. (b) beginning of return stroke
Reason: single start threads are easi er to ( c) end of return stroke
produce in a l athe. (GATE-PI-90) ( d ) mi d dl e of the return stroke
32. In a grinding w heel marked with 37. The material most commonly used for
AA -48 - L - 7 - V - 25, L refers to manufacturing of machine tool beds is
(GATE-PI-92) (GATE-PI-95)
(a) abrasive typ e (a) MS (b) Gray CI
(b) w heel structure ( c) W hite CI ( d) Galvanized iron
( c) wheel hardness
( d ) manufacturers cod e
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38. W hi ch one of the following is not a (c) friction w el ding
synthetic abrasive m aterial (GATE-PI-03) (d ) laser w elding
(a) silican carbi d e
(b) aluminum oxi d e 42. Tool life in the case of a grinding w heel is
(c) titanium nitri d e the tim e (GATE-PI-05)
(d ) cubic boron nitri d e (a) betw een tw o successive regrinds of the
w heel
39. The drawing shows a m achined shaft. The (b) taken for the w heel to be balanced
purp ose of provi d ing round ed grooves at M (c) taken betw een tw o successive w heel
and N is to (GATE-PI-03) dressings
(d ) taken for a w ear of 1 mm on its diam eter
·1
43. In a shap er m achine, the m echanism for tool
feed is (GATE-PI-05)
(a) G eneva m echanism
(a) Supply lubricating oil for bearing (b) W hitw orth m echanism
m ounting (c) Ratchet and Pawl m echanism
(b) Facilitate facing op eration (d ) W ard -Leonard system
(c) Facilitate grinding of bearing m ounting
surface 44. The final finishing process for the surface
(d ) Reduce stress concentration plate m a d e of cast iron w hi ch is used as a
referenc e surface is (GATE-PI-06)
40. The fl anks of teeth of rack-typ e g ear cutter (a) Buffing (b) Grinding
used for cutting involute g ear profil es are: (c) H and scraping (d ) honing
(GATE-PI-03)
(a) Cycloi d al (b) Circular 45. Reaming is prim arily used for a chi eving
(c) Involute (d ) Straig ht (GATE-PI-07)
(a) Hig her MRR
41 . T he cutting p ortion of a drill is to be w el d ed (b) Improved dim ensional tol erance
to its shank. The process best suited for this (c) Fine surface finish
1s (GATE-Pl-04) (d ) Improved p ositional tol erance.
(a) ultrasonic w elding
(b) electron b eam w elding
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: 723 : Machining
50. Grinding ratio is d efined as 53. Two separate slab milling op erations, 1 and
(GATE-Pl-11) 2, are p erform ed with i d enti cal milling
Volum e of wheel w ear cutters. The d ep th of cut in op eration 2 is
(a)
Volum e of work m aterial rem oved twice that in op eration 1 . The o ther cutting
Volum e of work m aterial rem oved param eters are i d entical. The ratio of
(b)
Volum e of wheel wear m aximum uncu t chip thickness in op era tions
Cutting sp eed 1 and 2 is ----
(c)
fe ed (GATE-ME-2014-SET-4)
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: 724 : Production
55. Reaming is a process used for 59. Internal gears are m anufactured by
(GATE-PI- 2014) (GATE -16 - SET -3)
(a) creating a circular hole in metals (a) hobbing
(b) cutting a slot on the existing hole surface (b) shaping with pinion cutter
( c) finishing an existing hole surface (c) shaping with rack cutter
(d ) m aking non- circular holes in metals (d ) milling
56. In a m achining operation, if the generatrix 60. Metric threa d of 0. 8 mm pitch is to be cut on
and directrix both are strai g ht lines, the a lathe. Pitch of the lead screw is 1. 5 mm .
surface obtained is (GATE -15 -Set 3) If the spindle rotates at 1500 rpm , the speed
(a) Cylindri cal (b) helical of rotation of the lead screw (rpm ) will be
(c) Plane (d ) Surface of revolution (GATE - 17 -SET -1)
57. W hi ch one of the following statements 61 . Turning , drilling, boring and milling are
related to grinding process is INCORRECT? comm only used m achining operations.
(GATE - PI -15) Am ong these, the operation (s) performed
(a) Grinding w heels m ade of fine abrasive by a single p oint cutting toolis (are)
grains produce better surface finish. (GATE - PI - 1 7)
(b) Abrasive grains tend to fracture (a) turning only
frequently during the grinding process. (b) drilling and milling only
(c) Specific energy is hig her than that in (c) turning and boring only
turning. (d ) boring only
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.t . A:CE . . : 725 : Machining
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� ��Pubtiations
02. A milling cutter having 10 teeth is rotating 05. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating at
at 1OOrpm. The table feed is set at 50mm per 150 rpm. If the feed per tooth is 0.1mm, the
03. Match the products and their manufacturing 06. A grinding wheel A 27 K7 V is specified for
process (GATE-ME- 91) finish grinding of a HSS cutting tool. What
do you understand about the wheel from the
Products above code. Is this an appropriate choice ?
A. Porous bearings (GATE-ME-94)
B. Fly wheels (a) yes
C. Double end spanners (b) no, because abrasive is not correct
D. Plastic bottles (c) no, grain size is not correct
(d) no, because grade is not correct choice
Manufacturing process
1. Powder metallurgy 07. Machine tool, structures are made . . . . . . for
2. Casting high process capability (tough/ rigid/ strong)
3. Closed die forging
(GATE-ME-95)
4. Blow molding
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. . . : 726 : Production
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1 1 . If each abrasive grain is view ed as a cutting has been fix ed with the 600 mm sid e along
tool, then w hi ch of the following represents the tool travel direction. If the tool over
the cutting param eters in comm on grinding travel at each end of the plate is 20 mm ,
op eration.? (GATE-ME-06) averag e cutting sp eed is 8 m/min, fe ed rate
(a) Larg e negative rake angle, low shear is 0.3 mm/stroke and the ratio of return tim e
angle and hig h cutting sp eed
to cutting tim e of the tool is 1 : 2, the tim e
(b) Larg e p ositive rake angl e, low shear
required for machining will be
angle and hig h cutting sp eed
(GATE-ME-OS)
(c) Larg e negative rake angl e, hig h shear
(a) 8 minutes (b) 1 2 minutes
angle and low cutting sp eed
(c) 1 6 minutes (d ) 20 minutes
(d ) Z ero rake angl e, hig h shear angle and
hig h cutting sp eed
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. J\,CE . . : 727 : Machining
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The correct connections and the correct 1 9. The diameter and rotational speed of a job
placement of Us are given below are 1 00mm and 500 rpm respectively. The
(a) Q & E are connected. Us 1s place high spots (chatter marks) are found at a
between P and Q spacing of 30 deg on the job surface. The
(b) S & E are connected. Us 1s place chatter frequency is (GATE-PI-90)
between R and S (a) 5 Hz (b) 1 2 Hz
(c) Q & E are connected. Us is place (c) 100 Hz (d) 500 Hz
between Q and E
20. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating at
(d) S & E are connected. Us 1s place
1 00 rpm. The work piece feed is set at
between S and E
40mm/min. the feed per tooth is
(GATE-PI-90)
1 6. If the number of double strokes per minute
(a) 5mm (b) 0.05mm
in a shaper is calculated by (0.643 x Cutting (c) 0.4mm (d) 0.2mm
speed in mm/min) / length of the stroke in
m, then the return speed is faster than the 21. The base of a brass bracket has to be rough
cutting speed by (GATE-PI-89) ground to remove the unevenness. The 4
wheels available m the store. The
(a) 40% (b) 60%
appropriate wheel is (GATE-PI-90)
(c) 80% (d) 1 00%
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(a) A 30 K 12 V (b) C 9 0 M 4B strokes/min, the planning tim e for a singl e
(c) C 30 Q 12 V (d ) C 50 G 8V pass will be (GATE-PI-93)
(a) 50 min (b) 100 min
22. A drilling machine has to be d esigned with (c) 200 min (d ) 220min.
8 spindle speeds ranging approximately
betw een 120 to 1200 rpm . T he 5 h spind l e
t 27. A 31.8MM HSS drill is used to drill a hol e
speed is (GATE-PI-91) in cast iron blo ck 100 mm thick at cutting
(a) 445 (b) 480 (c) 620 (d ) 865 sp eed of n20m/min and fe ed 0. 3mm/rev. if
the over travel of drill is 4mm and approach
23. Find the sp eed rang e ratio for the drilling 9mm, the tim e required to drill the hol e is
machine spind l e if the minimum and (GATE-PI-02)
maximum diam eters of drills used are 5 mm (a) l min 40s (b) l min 44s
and 25 mm resp ectively and if the (c) l min 49s (d ) l min 53s
machinability indices for the w ork materials
28. A si d e and face cutter 125mm diam eter has
are 120 ( brass) and 40 (alloy steel)
10 teeth. It op erates at a cutting sp eed of
(GATE-PI-92)
(a) 3/5 (b) 5/3 (c) 5 (d ) 15 14m/min with a tabl e traverse 1OOmm/min.
the fe ed p er tooth of the cutter is
24. If the ind ex crank of a divi ding head 1s (GATE-PI- 02)
turned throug h one compl ete revolution and (a) 10mm (b) 2. 86mm
10 hol es in a 30 hol e circle plate, the w ork (c) 0. 286mm (d ) 0. 8mm
pi ece turns throug h (in d egrees)
29. Match GROUP-I with GROUP-II
(GATE-PI-92)
Group I Group II (GA TE-Pl-02)
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 240 (d ) 480
P: Dressing 1. Blunting of grinding w heels
25. Assertion (A): Grinding needs hig her Q: Loading 2. Shaping of grinding w heels
sp ecific cutting energy than milling R: Glazing 3. Sharp ening of grinding w heels
Reason (R): Milling cutter material is S: Truing 4. Clogging of grinding w heels
hard er than abrasive grains. (GATE-PI-93) (d)
(a) (b) (c)
P-2 P-3 P-3 P- 4
26. A w ork-piece of 2000 mm l ength and 300
Q-1 Q-1 Q-4 Q- 3
mm wi dth was machined by a planning
R-4 R-4 R-1 R-1
op eration with the fe ed set at 0.3 mm/stroke.
S-3 S-2 S-2 S-2
If the machine tool executes 10 d ou bl e
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: 729 : Machining
30. Match list I (m a chine tool) with list II 33. A job of the shap e shown in the fi gure
(m a chine tool part) (GATE-PI-03) below is to be m achined on a l athe.
List -I List - II T he tool best suited for m achining of this
A. Lathe 1 . Lead screw j ob must have (GATE-PI-04)
B. Milling m achine 2. Rock er arm
C. S hap er 3. Universal ind exing
D. Drilling m achine 4. Flute
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4 (a) p ositive sid e rake angle
(b) p ositive back rake angle
31 . The purp ose of helical grooves in a twist (c) p ositive cutting ed g e inclination angle
drill is to (GATE-PI-03) (d) neg ative cutting ed g e inclination angle
1 . Improve the stiffness
2. Save a tool m aterial 34. A non stand ard thread of pitch 3.17 5 mm is
3. Provi d e spa ce for chip rem oval
to be cut on a l athe having l ea d screw of
4. Provi d e rake angle for the cutting ed g e
pitch 6 mm. A chang e g ear set provi d ed
S el ect the correct answ er suing the cod es
with the l athe has one g ear each with the
given below
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 3 & 4 (d) l & 4 following num ber of teeth: 20, 30, 40, 50,
60, 70, 80, 90, 1 00, 1 1 0, 1 20, 1 27 . The
32. Match the m echanism with Machine correct pairs of chang e g ears (alb x c/d) for
Mechanism Machine m achining the given thread are (assuming
(P) Pantograp h (1 ) Autom obil e
that the transmission ratio of the rest of the
(Q) Quick return (2) Lathe
kinem ati c train betw een the l athe spindle
(R) Ackerm an (3) Engraver
and l ea d screw is equal to (GATE-PI-04)
(S) Toggle (4) S hap er
(5) Press 1 27 20 1 27 20
(a) X (b) X
30 80 40 1 20
(GATE-PI-03)
(a) P- 3, Q- 1 ,R-2,S-4 1 27 30 1 27 30
(c) (d) X
(b) P- 3, Q-4,R- l ,S-5 20 1 20 50 80
X
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: 73 0: Pr oducti on
35. A <I> 20 mm t hro ugh ho le is to be drilled in a It is pro pos ed to mill a s pur gear of 28 t eet h
30 mm t hick plat e us ing a do uble fl ut ed, us ing s imple index ing met ho d. W hich o ne
120° lip angle drill. T he drill t ip is at a of t he following co mbin at io ns of index plat e
dist ance of 3 mm fro m t he plat e s urface and number of revo lut io ns is co rrect?
when cutt ing is st art ed and an o ver t ravel of (a) Plat e 1 : 1 revo lut io n an d 9 ho les in 18
2 mm is reco mmended as a margin to ens ure ho le circles
drilling t hro ugh t he fu ll t hickness of t he (b) Plat e 2 : 1 revo lut io n and 9 ho les in 21
plat e. If t he dr ill rot at es at 500 rev/min and ho le circles
t he fe ed per toot h is 0.01 mm, t he (c) Plat e 2 : 1 revo lut io n and 9 ho les in 33
machining t ime of t he o perat io n (in s ec) will ho le circles
be (GATE-PI-04) (d) Plat e 1 : 1 revo lut io n and 9 ho les in 15
(a) 4. 5 (b) 7.5 (c) 9 (d) 10.5 ho le circles
36. Co ns ider t he follo wing st at ements: 38. Mat ch L ist - I (C utt ing too ls) wit h L ist -II
(GATE-PI-04) (Feat ures) and s elect t he co rrect ans wer
T he helical fl ut e in a twist drill pro vides t he us ing t he co des given belo w t he lists:
necess ary (GATE-PI- 05)
1. C learance angle for the cutt ing edge. List -I List -II
2. Rake angle for t he cutt ing edge. (Cutting tools) (Features)
3. Space for t he chip to co me o ut during A. T urn ing too l 1. C his el edge
drilling. B . Reamer 2. Flut es
4. G uidance for t he drill to ent er into t he C. Milling cutt er 3. Ax ial relief
wo rk piece. 4. Side relief
W hich of t he st at ements given abo ve are (a) A- 1, B- 2, C- 3 (b) A- 4, B- 3, C- 2
cor rect? (c) A- 4, B- 2, C- 3 (d) A- 1, B- 3, C- 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 39. Mat ch L ist -I (Milling pro blem) with L ist
II (Pro bable caus es) and s elect t he cor rect
37 . On e brand of milling machin e has th e answ er using th e cod es giv en b elow th e
follo wing two index plat es s upplied alo ng lists: (GATE-PI-05)
wit h t he index ing head : (GATE-PI-05) List - I (Milling problem)
Plate 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 ho le circles. A. C hatt er
Plate 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33 ho le circles . B . Poor s urfac e fin is h
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'!i,. , :�Pulmboos : 731 : Machining
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: 732 : Production
4 7. In a singl e p ass drilling op eration, a throug h 50. Negl ecting the contribution of the fe ed force
hol e of 1 5 mm di am eter is to b e drill ed in a tow ards cutting p ow er, the sp ecific cutting
steel plate of 50mm thickness. Drill spindle energy in J/mm 3 is (PI-GATE-13)
speed is 500rpm , fe ed is 0.2mm/rev and drill (a) 0.2 (b) 2
p oint angle is 1 1 8 . °
Assuming 2mm (c) 200 (d ) 2000
cl earance at approa ch and exit, the total drill
tim e (in seconds) is 51 . A hole of 20 mm diam eter is to b e drilled in
(GATE-ME&PI-12) a steel block of 40 mm thi ckness. The
(a) 35.1 (b) 32 .4 (c) 31 .2 (d ) 30.1
drilling is perform ed at rotational sp eed of
400 rpm and fe ed of 0.1 mm/rev. The
48. In a shaping process, the numb er of d oubl e
required approach and overrun of the drill
strokes p er minute is 30 and the quick return
ratio is 0.6. if the length of the stroke is tog ether is equal to the ra dius of drill. The
2 50mm , the averag e cutting velocity in drilling tim e (in minute) is
rn/min is (GATE-PI-12) (GATE-ME- 14-SET-2)
(a) 3.0 (b) 4. 5 (c) 7.5 (d ) 1 2 . 0 (a) 1 .00 (b) 1 .2 5 (c) 1 .50 (d ) 1 . 75
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: 733 : Machining
52. An HSS drill of 20mm diam eter with 5mm 55. In a slab milling op eration, a cutter of 75
cone height is used to drill a through hole in mm diam eter with sufficient wid th is used to
a steel w ork-pi ece of 50mm thi ckness. rem ove 5 mm thi ck m aterial from a 200 mm
Cutting sp eed of 1 Om/min and fe ed rate of long part in a single pass. The minimum
0.3mm/rev are used . The drilling tim e, in length of travel, in mm , for the cutter to
seconds, neglecting the approach and over engage and completely cut the part surface
travel, is ----- (GATE-PI-14) lS ----- (GATE - Pl -15)
53. A shaft of length 90 mm has a tap ered 56. A block of length 200 mm is m achined by a
portion of length 55 mm. The diam eter of slab milling cu tter 34 mm in diam eter. The
the tap er is 80 mm a t one end and 65 mm at d ep th of cut and table fe ed are set at 2 mm
the other. If the tap er is m a d e by tailstock and 18 mm/minute, resp ectively.
set over m etho d , the tap er angle and the set C onsi d ering the approach and the over travel
over resp ectively are. (GATE -15 -Set 3) of the cutter to be sam e, the minimum
(a) 1 5° 32' and 1 2.1 6 mm estim a ted m achining tim e p er pass is __
minutes. (GATE -17 - SET - l)
(b) 1 8° 32' and 1 5. 66 mm
W ork pi ece i
I I
:
diam eter with p oint angle of 1 1 8 d egrees is
used . If the CNC comm and is used to ---+ Table fe ed :
execu te the drilling op era tion is G90 GO 1 -----------
I la :
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Pnbood¥>DI : 7 34 : Production
02 . In slab milling op eration the following d a ta 05. Cylindrical bars of 100 mm diameter and
w as observed 576 mm leng th are turned in a single p ass
Diameter of cutter : 90mm, op eration. The spindle sp eed used is 1 44
No. of teeth on cutter : 1 0, rpm and the total sp eed is 0.2 mm/rev.,
Cutting sp eed = 30m/min tailor tool life equa ti on is VT0· 75 = 75, w here
Table fe ed : 1 80mm/min , V = cutting sp eed in m/min and T = tool life
D ep th of cut = 3mm in min. calculate (GATE-ME-93)
C alculate the maximum and averag e chip i) The time for turning one pi ece is ..... .
thickness in milling (GATE-ME-89) ii) The averag e to tal chang e time p er
pi ece given that i t takes 3 minutes to
03. Estima te the shortest machining time chang e the tool each time is. ........... .
required in a shap er to machine a plate of iii) The time required to produce one
2 00 x 90mm und er the following conditions pi ece, given that the handling time is
(GATE-ME-90) 4min.
Cu tting sp eed = 13.3m/min,
Feed = 0 .57mm/double stroke 06. W hen milling a slot 20mm wide 1 0cm long
Number of p asses one Approach =
= in a rectangular plate 1 0cm x 20cm the
overrun = longi tu dinal = 2 0mm & lateral = cutting conditions used w ere
4 mm Cutting sp eed = 60 m/min,
Ratio of cutting sp eed to rapi d return= 0.83 Diameter of the end mill = 20 mm
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: 735 : Machining
rpm to about 650rpm. Assuming a proper are likely to be available on the machine.
series for the layout of the speeds, determine (GATE-PI-89)
the values of all those 6 spindle speeds.
Modify the computed values so as <ender 11. A surface 80 x 160mm is rough machined
them acceptable as standard using 150mm diameter face milling cutter
(GATE-ME-95) having 10 teeth . The cutter center is offset
by 15mm from the line of symmetry of the
08 . Fifty flat pieces I mm width and initial surface. Estimate the time to rough machine
dimensions 205x30x1mm are to be milled the surface, if a feed per tooth of 0 .25mm
m a single cut to the final dimensions and a cutting speed of 20m/min are
205x25x1mm using end mill cutter . if the employed. (GATE-PI-89)
cutter of diameter 25mm has 10 teeth and
rotates at 100 rpm, find the maximum uncut 12. A hydraulic shaping machine is set for 60
chip thickness if the horizontal feed of the double strokes per minute, while machining
table is 1Omm/min, assuming one teeth in a job of 90mm length. The ratio of the
contact and the material removal rate. cutting and idle speeds 1 :2 . Assume a 5mm
(GATE-ME-96) approach and 5mm overrun. If the lateral
feed per stroke is 0 .6mm and the width of
09. A 15 mm diameter HSS drill is used at a job is 36mm, calculate the machining time.
cutting speed of 20 m/min and a feed rate of (GATE-PI-90)
0 .2 mm/rev. Under these conditions, the
13. A gear having 29 teeth is to be machined on
drill life is 100 min. The drilling length of
a horizontal milling machine using a
each hole is 45 mm and the time taken for
idle motions is 20 s. The tool change time is
standard dividing head with worm gear ratio
40. $design the indexing movement, that is
300 sec.
crank revolution, hole circle selection and
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: 736 : Production
1 6. D ouble start rig ht hand m etric threads w i th 1 8. C alculate the tim e required for compl eting a
0.5 mm pitch are m achined in a g eneral 2mm deep finishing cut on a 1 50mm wide,
purpose lathe having a lead screw of 6 mm 400mm long face of a 1 00mm thick steel
lead. Gears, one number each of 20 teeth in block using a face milling cutter of 250mm
steps of 5 teeth are available. A compound diam eter w i th 8 teeth. T he cutting sp eed 1.2
g ear train for transmi tting the required m/sec and fe et p er tooth is 0.1 mm
m o tion from the spindle to l ead screw is (GATE-PI-94)
used .the hand of the thread can be change
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;.•�.;�Pnbtic:ationa : 737 : Machining
A .CE
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19. A planer has a m aximum strok e l ength of 2 21. The following d ata refers to slab milling
m eters. Return stroke occurs at twice the op eration (GATE-PI-02)
sp eed of the forw ard stroke. Six rectangular Diam eter of the cutter : 5 0mm
blokes of 900mm x 300mm are to be Num ber of teeth on cutter: 1 2
planned in one p ass with three tools equi Cutter spindle sp eed : 300rpm
spaced arrang ed . On the cross sli d e as D epth of cut : 2mm
shown in fig. (The triangl es in the fig. Length ofj ob : 5 00mm
represents initial position of the tools) Longitu dinal tabl e fe ed : 200mm/min
cutting sp eed is lm/sec and fe ed is i) The fe ed p er tooth during the milling
Imm/stroke. Over travel on either si d e op eration is
l ength wise is 5 0mm and wi dth wise is 5mm (a) 0. 05 6 mm (b) 0. 1 67 mm
on either si d e. The m achining tim e (in sec) (c) 8. 662 ( d ) 1 7.333
p er pi ece is. . . (GATE-PI-95)
ii) If the cutter over travel is 2 mm , the
m achining tim e for the singl e p ass
1°I
50 900 1 00 900 50
1-1----1-- 1----i-1
1
I�
I I IL 3
milling op eration will be
(a) 0.67 min (b) 1 .5 0 min
l"-J ( c) 1 .67 min ( d ) 2.5 6 min
12 1 C=:J i
�I 1�rl:'. Common Data for Question 22 & 23
D ata for plain milling operation are given below
Length of w ork pi ece = 200mm,
(a) 930 (b) 465 (c) 1 55 ( d ) none Cutter diam eter = 1 0mm,
No .of teeth = 4
20. The cutting length of the broa ch for the key Cutter sp eed = l OOrpm,
w ay cutting in a 1 5 0mm long cast iron g ear F eed = 200mm/min
hub. Given that wi dth of the key w ay is D epth of cut = 2mm,
9mm d epth of key w ay is 4.5mm no. of Total cl earance ( entry and exit) = 5mm
finishing teeth = 4 and no. of semi finishing
teeth = 8. (GATE-PI-95) 22. M ean un- d eform ed chip thi ckness (in
Rise per tooth Pitch mi crons) is
Rou g hing teeth O . 1 mm 22 mm (a) 142 (b) 1 00 ( c) 71 (d) 50
Semi finishing teeth 0. 0125 mm 20 mm
Finishing teeth 20 mm 23. Machining tim e for one singl e pass (in sec)
(a) 968 mm (b) 1 60 mm lS
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions Sol: Honing and lapping are same but honing is
used for producing intern al surfaces and
01. Ans: (c) lapping is used for ex tern al surfaces only.
Sol: G rinding wheel has been specified as A
aluminum ox ide , 46- grain siz e or grit siz e, 07. Ans: (c)
M - grade of G W, 6 - stru cture , V- vitrified Sol: I n centerless grinding operation the ax is of
bonding material and 21- suffix used as regulating or control wheel is tilted by an
secret code of manufa cturer. angle about 1 to 6 deg, this tilt causes the
velocity of regulating wheel will have two
02. components of velocities, one will be used
Sol: S mall point angle and large helix angle. for rotating thej ob and the other will be used
for fe eding the work piece.
03. Ans: (a)
Sol: I n grinding because of very small siz e chips 08. Ans: (c)
the metal removal is low hence time taken is Sol: Vertical mill ing machine with end and side
high . B y. increasing the cutting velocity the milling cutter can be used for producing T
machining time can be reduced. slots.
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EF.ngioecrmgPnbtiariona : 739 : Machining
cutting tools and rem aining are simply 19. Ans: (b)
rubbing on to the w ork pi ece without d oing Sol: Allow ance 1s the difference betw een the
any m a chining, hence loss of energy due to m aximum m aterial limi ts of shaft and hole,
friction is hig h and so the sp ecific cutting w hich is equal to minimum clearance or
energy is hig h m aximum interference.
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: 740 : Production
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ACE 741
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rubbing forces are not sufficient to pull out 43. Ans: (c)
the blunt abrasives and hence blunt abrasive Sol:Because of the intermittent fe ed used in
will simply rubbing without any m achining shaping op eration, the m echanism used for
called as glazing of grinding w heel. g etting fe ed in the shap er is Ratchet and p awl
m echanism .
36. Ans: True
Sol: Silicon carbi d e 1s the naturally availabl e Sol: Reaming 1s m ainly used for s1z mg and
abrasive m ateri al. finishing the hole.
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: 742 : Production
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: 743 : Machining
=2 X 1. 0=2 09.
Sol: Transformat ion rat io=t rain value
02. Ans: (d) = Pit ch of j ob t reads / Pit ch of
f 50 lead screw t hreads
Sol: Feed per t oot h=ft =�
NZ I 0x100 =1.0 mm / (1/4 inch)
=0.05mm lx 4 -
- 20
12
7 7
03. Ans: A- 1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4 (1! )
. (The ter m 12 7/5 is used for co nverti ng i nches
04. Ans: A- 5, B- 6, C- , 2 D- 3, int o mm)
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: 744: Production
2 vr
Ve
V= =1.81
14. Ans: (b) r 0.55
Sol: Given, L = 600 mm, AP = OR = 20 mm, Vr - Ve
% increase = =0.81=81 %
V e = 8 m /min, f= 0.3 mm/stroke Ve
M=_!_ · B = 30 mm
2 ' 17. Ans: A-3, B-4, C-1 , D-2
L = / + 20 + 20 = 600+20+20 = 640
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18. Ans: (d) 23. Ans: (d)
Sol: Feed rate in thread cutting
Sol: Speed range ratio =
. D xV
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�Fnpw:nogPnbtiratiool : 747: Machining
=lOOOmm= Im
D = 10 mm, t = 50 mm,N = 600,
= 43. Ans: (c)
Sol: According to six sigma limits of
f 0.2 mm /rev
AP1 = 0.3 D .......for blind hole
manufacturing if the number of defective
= 0.3 x}O = 3 mm
per million parts is less than 3.2 the whole
L = t + AP1 = 50 + 3 = 53
lot is acceptable.
L 53
Time/hole = - =--- = 0.442 min
44. Ans: (d)
fN 0.2x 600
No. of holes produced / tool Sol: Low carbon steels are used for making car
= 200 holes body panels, stainless steel is used for
Tool life = 200 x 0.442 = 88.33 min making kitchen utensils, gray cast iron is
used for making machine tool beds and
Given that VT03 = C titanium alloys are used for making aircraft
1tDN nxlOx 600 parts.
V= = =18_84 min
1000 1000
45. Ans: (c)
:. VT03 = C=> 18.84 X 88.33°3 = C
46. Ans: (d)
Sol: Common solution for 45 & 46
=> C= 72.26 = Tailors tool life constant.
a = O, t 1 =0.25mm, t 2 =0.75mm ,
w = b = 2.5mm, Fe = 950N, FT = 475N
D 0 =200mm
}D avg =
200 +80
140
D I =80mm 2
Fs = (c xcos($+�-a)
cos �-a) (because constant cutting speed is given)
950 f = 0.1 mm/rev d = 1 mm
= xcos(45)=751
cos 26.56 V = 90 m/min Fe = 200 N
AP = OR = zero
'tu = !s x sin($)
0 1000 x 90
N= =204
751 7t X 140
xsin(18.43)=380N/mm 2
025 X 2.5 D 0 -D; 200-80
Time/cut=�= 2 2
47. Ans: (a) fN O.lxN O.l x204
Sol: t = 50 mm, D = 15 mm 60
= =2.93
N = 500 rpm, f = 0.2 mm/rev O.lx204
2B = 118°, AP = OR = 2 mm Specific cutting energy
D/2 Fe 200
AP 1 = -- = 4.5mm = = =2000] /mm 3
tan 59 A 0 O.lxl
L=50 + 2 + 2 + 4.5 = 58.5
58·5
Time/hole = � = x 60 51. Ans: (b)
f .N 0.2x500
Sol: D= 20mm, t = 40mm, N = 400 rpm,
= 35.1 sec.
f=O.lmm/rev
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. L 216 .
T 1meIcut = -=-=12 min
90m
fm 18
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PnNiczioos
01.
03.
Sol: Dmi n =100mm, Dmax = 200mm Sol: L = 200 + 20+ 20= 240
vmin = 40 m/ min vmax =120m/ min B= 90 + 4 + 4=98
No . ofspeeds= 6= n B
Time/ cut= x�{l+M)
f V
Taking the geometric progression
240
=� x (1+0.83)= 0.57 min
Common ratio, r = n-1 �
� 0.57 13300
'N min
04.
Dmax-
= n-11-- ax = 6_1 200 X 120 = 1.43
Vm-
I
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D
Time /cut = 10 = B x L (l+M) L =l'+ AP1 =10 + -
f V 2
100 150 ! 20
V= x (1+ ) =10+ --=lO + l=llcm
0.25 10 2 2x10
= 9000 mm/sec = 540 m/min Time /cut = �
f1 ZN
05. 110
= =1.44 min
L 576 O.Olx8x955
Sol: Time / cut = - = ---= 20 min
tN 0.2x144
1tDN 1tx lOOx 144 07.
V= = = 45_2 m/ min
1000 1000 Sol: Nmin =1lOrpm, Nmax = 650 r pm
�J
With G.P
VT'" -75 =>T-(�f' Nmu
Common ratio - r -
)1.333
75
Nmin
= (-- =1.96 min
650
45.2 v =1.43
110
=
06. 08.
Sol: W = 20 mm, / = 10 cm, Sol: Initial dimensions = 205 x 30 x 1
Size = 10 x 20 cm, Vc = 60 m / min, Final dimensions = 205 x 25 x 1
D = 20 mm, No. of flutes = 8, Hence d = 5 mm
Feed = 0.01 mm /flute D = 25 mm,
lOOOxV 1000 x60 Z= 10, N = lOOrpm
N= = =955
1t D 7t X 20 fm = 10 mm / min
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2xf /d 10.
t1 ax= m
NZ VD Sol: N =34, Nmax = 353 rpm
m
min
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: 753: Machining
12. 80- 60 20
No . ofcuts = --- = -=4cuts
Sol: No . of D.S/min = 60, / =90, 2x2.5 5
AP = O.R = 5 mm each, IOOO V 1000x132
N2 = = = 560 rpm
F=0.6 mm/ D.S tr D, 1rx 75
1 1000V lOOOx132
W = B = 36mm ' M =- N3 = = = 600 rpm
2 tr D2 1rx 70
Time/cut = Bx!'...(1+ M) 1000V 1000x132
f V N4 = = = 646 rpm
tr D3 1rx65
B
xTime/Double stroke Machining time =I; + T2 + T3 + T4
f
=
B 1 36 1 120 120
-x -= -x -=l mm
f 60 0.6 60
= =---+---
0. 2 X 525 0.2 X 560
120 120
+ ---+ ---
13. 0.2 X 600 0. 2 X 646
40 40 11x 2 22 = 4.14min
Sol: C.R = = =1 =1
N 29 29x 2 58
Total machining time
After every cut the crank has to be rotated
=4.14 + 3 X 40/60
through 1 revolution and 22 holes in 58
6.14 min = 6.2 min
holes circle .
=
14. 15.
Sol: D0 =80, D1 =60 mm Sol: D=20 mm, t =30 mm,
AP = 2mm, OR = 3mm,
.e =116 mm, f =0.2 mm/ rev, d = 2.5mm
f =0.1mm/ rev, V=20 m/min
AP=2.5, OR = 1.5 mm
Time for return and resetting between 1000 V 1000x 20
N= = =318 _5 rpm
passes = 10 sec + 30 sec = 40 sec tr D 1rx20
. 1000V L = t + AP + OR = 30 + 2 + 3 = 35
Spmdle speed = --
tr D 35
Time /hole = ----
1000x132 O.lx 318 .5
_525rpm-
- -N1
,rx80 =1.09 min =1.1min
L= / +AP + OR = 116 + 2.5 + 1.5
= 120 mm
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: 754: Production
1 6. Ans: (a)
Time/cut= �
Sol: For producing RH threads the direction of f,NZ
rotation ofjob and lead screw must be in the 2 30
= =1.2 min
same direction, for this if the designed gear O.l x159x12
train is simple gear train use 1, 3, 5 odd Ifoffset = 5 mm with asymmetrical milling
number idle gear to get same direction of Wi = w+ 2(0r)= 80 + 2 x 5 = 90
rotation, if the designed gear train is
AP 1 = !(100-�1002-902 ) = 28.2 mm
compound gear train use 0, 2, 4, .. even 2
number of idle gears to get same direction. L = 200 + 28.2 + 5 + 5= 2 38.2
In the given problem the designed gear train L 2 38.2
Time/cut= -- = ---- =1.25 min
is a compound gear train, to change the f1 Nz O.l x12x159
hand of the thread it requires to change the
direction of rotation of job and lead screw 18.
Sol: Given, d = 2 mm, w = 150 mm,
for this use 1, 3, 5 Odd number of idle
t= 400 mm, D= 250 mm, Z= 8
gears.
Ye =1 .2ml sec,
17. l OOOx1.2
N= =1.5 3 RPS
Sol: Part size= 200 x 80 x 60 mm 7tX 250
= 5.78 min
= !(100-�1002-802 )=20mm 19.
2
Sol: L=2m
L = l +APi +AP + OR
= 5 0 + 900 + 5 0 + 50 + 900 + 50
200 + 20 + 5+5= 2 30
B = 300 + 5 + 5 = 310
=
f = 1 mm/stroke, Vc = 1 m /sec,
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1 OR = 2 mm
M=-
2 J, = -- 200
f, =____!!l_ - =0.056 mm/too th
NZ 300x12
Time per two pieces = B x L (1+M)
f V Ap 1 =�d(D-d) = �2(50 - 2) =9.79
BO 2000
= x (1+ 0.5) = 930 sec L = 500 + 9.79 + 2= 511.8 mm
1 1000
. L 511.8 .
930 T1meIpass = - = -- = 2.56 mm
Time/piece = = 465 sec fm 200
2
22.
20.
Sol: C L = 200mm, Z = 4,
Sol: d 101•1 = 4.5mm
fm = 200 m /min , D= 100mm,
d r =0
N = 1OOrpm, d= 2mm
d 5 = 0.0125x8 = 0.1 AP + OR= 5mm
d , = d total -(d r + d s ) =- x +-
t lma- t l min-
4.5 - 0.1 = 4.4 2
t1 avg
=
4.4 fm
=
/d
200 /2
n =�= = 44 teeth
=
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05. A test specimen is stressed slightly beyond
One Mark Questions the yield point and then unloaded. Its yield
strength (GATE-ME-95)
01. For wire drawing operation, the work
(a) Decreases
material should essentially be
(b) increases
(GATE-ME-8 7)
( c) remains same
(a) ductile (b) tough
( d)become equal to UTS
(c) hard ( d) malleable
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: 757 : Metal Forming
09. The maximum possible draft in cold rolling 14. While rolling a strip the peripheral velocity
of sheet increases with the of the roll is ....A ... than the entry velocity
(GATE-ME-11) of the strip and is ...B .....the exit velocity of
(a) increase in coefficient of friction the strip. (GATE-PI-9 0)
(b) decrease in coefficient of friction A. greater I less /equal to
( c) decrease in roll radius B. greater than / less than / equal to
( d) increase in roll velocity
15. Seamless long steel tubes are manufactured
10. Collapsible tubes are made by by rolling, drawing and .... (GATE-PI-91)
(GATE-PI-89)
(a) Drawing (b) spinning 16. At 1000° C the crystallographic structure of
( c) Extrusion (d) Rolling iron is .. . .. . . . . . . . . .. (GATE-PI-91)
11. The blank diameter used in thread rolling 17. Thread rolling is restricted to
willbe (GATE-PI-89) (GATE-PI-92)
(a) Equal to the major diameter of the thread (a) ferrous materials (b) ductile materials
(b) Equal to the pitch diameter of the thread ( c) hard materials ( d) none of the above
(c) little higher than the minor diameter of
the thread 18. In order to reduce roll pressure in strip
(d) little higher than the pitch diameter of rolling, back tension can be applied to strip.
the thread (True I False) (GATE-PI-94)
12. At the last hammer stroke the excess material 19. Forces in hot extrusion is a function of the
from the finishing cavity of a forging die is strain hardening component of the billet
pushed into .............. (GATE-PI-89) material. (True I False) (GATE-PI-94)
13. Semi brittle materials can be extruded by 20. A moving mandrel is used in
(GATE-PI-90) (GATE-PI-94)
(a) impact extrusion (a) wire drawing (b) tube drawing
(b) closed cavity extrusion ( c) metal cutting (d) forging
( c) hydrostatic extrusion
( d)backward extrusion
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21. Which one of the following manufacturing 26. Hot die steel , used for large solid dies in
processes requires the provision of 'gutters' drop forging , should necessarily have
(GATE-PI-94) (GATE-PI-10)
(a) closed die forging (a) high strength and high copper content
(b) centrifugal casting (b) High hardness and low hardenability
( c) Investment casting ( c) High toughness and low thermal
( d) impact extrusion conductivity
( d) High hardness and high thermal
22. In order to reduce roll pressure in strip conductivity
rolling, back tension must be applied to
strip.(T/F) (GATE-PI-9S) 27. Cold shut (lap) may occur m products
obtained by: (GATE-PI-10)
23 . Cold shut (lap) may occur m products (a) Casting (b) Forging
obtained by: (GATE-PI-OS) ( c) Machining (d) Welding
(a) Casting (b) Forging
( c) Machining (d) Welding 28. A solid cylinder of diameter 100mm and
height 50mm is forged between two
24. Flash and gutter are provided in drop forging frictionless flat dies to a height of 25mm.
dies at the following stage: The percentage change in diameter is
(GATE-PI-OS) (GATE-ME & PI-12)
(a) Blocking (a) 0 (b) 2.07 (c) 20.7 (d) 41.4
(b) Preforming (Edgering)
(c) Finishing 29. In a rolling process, the state of stress of the
( d) Fullering material undergoing deformation is
(GATE-ME & PI-1 3)
25. Anisotropy in rolled components is caused (a) pure compression
by (GATE-PI-09) (b) pure shear
(a) Change in dimensions ( c) compression and shear
(b) scale formation ( d) tension and shear
( c) closure of defects
( d) Grain orientation
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: 760 : Production
35. Match the following products with preferred strain hardening exponent of the material is
manufacturing process: (GATE - PI-15)
Product Process
p Rails 1 Blow molding 39. The value of true strain produced in
compressing a cylinder to half its original
(GATE -16 -SET- 2)
Q Engine crankshaft 2 Extrusion
R Aluminium channels 3 Forging length is
s PET water bottles 4 Rolling (a) 0.69 (b) -0.69 (c) 0.5 (d) -0.5
(GATE -15 -Set 1)
40. Engineering strain of a mild steel sample is
(a) P-4, Q-3,R-1,S-2 (b) P-4,Q-3,R-2,S- l
recorded as 0. 100%. The true strain is
(c) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 (d) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
(GATE -16 -SET- 3)
36. The true stress at fracture of a tensile tested (a) 0.010% (b) 0.055%
specimen, having an initial diameter of (c) 0.099% (d) 0.101%
13mm, is 700MPa. If the diameter of 4 1 . In a metal forming operation when the
specimen at fracture is 10 mm, then the material has just started yielding, the
engmeenng stress, in MPa, at fracture principal stresses are cr 1 = +180 MPa,
lS---- (GATE - PI-15) cr2 =- 100 MPa, cr3 � 0. Following Von
Mises ' criterion, the yield stress is ____
37. In rolling of a flat strip, the relative velocity
MPa. (GATE -17 -SET -l)
of strip with respect to the roller is
(GATE - PI -15)
42. It is desired to make a product having T
(a) positive at entry plane, negative at exit
shaped cross - section from a rectangular
plane
aluminium block. Which one of the
(b) negative at entry plane, positive at exit
following processes is expected to provide
plane
the highest strength of the product?
( c) positive throughout from entry to exit
(GATE -17 -SET -2)
plane
(a) Welding (b) Casting
( d) negative throughout from entry to exit
( c) Metal forming ( d) Machining
plane
43. A steel wire of 2 mm diameter is to be
38. The maximum reduction per pass during wire drawn from a wire of 5 mm diameter. The
drawing of an aluminum alloy ignoring value of true strain developed is ___ (up
friction and redundant work is 77%. The to three decimal places) (GATE -PI- 17)
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04. A strip with cross sectional area 150mm x
Two Marks Questions 4.5mm is being rolled with 20% reduction of
area using 450mm diameter rollers . The
01. Calculate the bite angle when rolling plates angle subtended by the deformation zone at
12mm thick using work rolls 600mm the roll center is (in radians)
diameter and reducing the thickness by 3mm (GATE-ME-98)
(GATE-ME-94) (a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.03 (d) 0.06
02. A wire of 0.1mm diameter is drawn from a 05. A brass billet is to be excluded from its
rod of 15mm diameter dies giving reductions initial diameter of 100 mm to a final diameter
of 20%, 40% and 80% are available . For of 50 mm . The working temperature is 700°C
minimum error in the final size, the number and the extrusion constant is 250 MPa . The
of stages and reduction at each stage force required for extrusion is
respectively would be (GATE-ME-96) (GATE-ME-03)
(a) 3 stages and 80% reduction for all three (a) 5.44MN (b) 2.72MN
stages (c) 1.36MN (d) 0.36MN
(b) 4 stages and 80% reduction for first
three stages followed by a finishing 06. In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm
stage of 20% reduction thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness . Roll
(c) 5 stages and reduction of 80%, 80%, is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100
40%, 40%, 20% in sequence rpm . The roll strip contact length will be
(d) None ofthe above (GATE-ME-04)
(a) 5 mm (b) 39 mm
03. List -I (c) 78 mm (d)120 mm
A . Rivets for aircraft body
B . Carburetor body 0 7. A 4mm thick sheet is rolled with 300 mm
C . Crank shafts D. Nails diameter rolls to reduce thickness without
List - II any change in its width . The friction
1 . Forging 2. Cold heading coefficient at work-roll interface is 0.1.The
3. Aluminum base alloy minimum possible thickness of the sheet that
4. Pressure die casting can be produced in a single pass is
5. Investment casting (GATE-ME-96) (GATE-ME-06)
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: 763: Met.al Forming
14. To stress relieve a cold worked steel part, it 3. Strength and hardness of the metal are
is heated to a temp close to . . . . A... and decreased
grains obtained after cooling are ........ . 4. Surface finish is reduced
B .... (GATE-PI-92) (a) 1 & 2 (b) 1, 2 & 3
A. lower critical temp/ upper critical temp ( C) 3 & 4 ( d) 1 & 4
B. fine / coarser
18. Consider the following steps in forging a
15. Production process Application connecting rod from the bar stock
(GATE-PI-92) (GATE-PI-03)
A. Extrusion 1. blocking 2. trimming
B. Hot forging 3. finishing 4. edging
C. Metal spinning Select the correct sequence of these
D. Explosive welding operations using the codes given below
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-4-1
1. Cladding of noble metal to base metal
( C) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-1-3-2
2. Long continuous metal tubes
3. Connecting rod of IC engine 19. The extrusion process( es) used for the
4. Long flanged pipes. production of toothpaste tubes is /are
5. House hold utensils. 1. Tube extrusion
2. Forward extrusion
16. An annealed copper wire of 25 mm diameter 3. Impact extrusion (GATE-PI-04)
is drawn into a wire of 5 mm dia. The (a) 1 only (b) 1 & 2
average yield stress in this operation if the (c) 2 & 3 (d) 3 only
flow curve of the material is given
20. A lever having 90° bend is to be produced by
cr =315e 0· 54 MPa (GATE-PI-94)
drop forging using mild steel bar as raw
(a) 592 MPa (b) 458 MPa
material. The various operations to be
(c) 342 MPa (d) None
performed on it during forging are:
P - Cutting;
17. Cold working produces the following effects
Q - Bending;
(GATE-PI-03)
R - Fullering;
1. Stresses are set up in the material
S - Blocking cum finishing;
2. Grain structure get distorted
T - Edgering
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: 764 : Production
The correct sequence for performing the 24. Assertion (A) : Cold working of metals
operations is: (GATE-PI-OS) results in increase of strength and hardness.
(a) P-Q-R-T-S (b) R-T-Q-S-P Reason (R) : Cold working reduces the total
(c) T-R-S-Q-P (d) R-Q-T-S-P number of dislocations per unit volume of
the material. (GATE-PI-OS)
21. The true stress-true strain curve is given by (a) Both A and R are individually true and R
cr = 1400 c 0 33
· , where the stress cr is in MPa. is the correct explanation of A
The true stress at maximum load (in MPa) is (b) Both A and R are individually true but R
(GATE-PI-OS) is not the correct explanation of A
(a) 971 (b) 750 (c) 698 (d) 350 ( c) A is true but R is false
( d) A is false but R is true
22. A round billet made of brass is to be
25. A solid cylindrical stainless steel work piece
extruded (extrusion constant = 250 MPa) at
of 200mm diameter and 150 mm height. This
700° C. The billet diameter is 100 mm and
component is reduced by 50% in height with
the diameter of the extrusion is 50 mm. The
flat die in open die forging. Assuming the
extrusion force required ( in MN) is
flow stress of the material as 1000 MPa and
(GATE-PI-OS) the coefficient of friction to be 0.2, the
(a) 1.932 (b) 2 .722 estimated forging force at the end of the
(c) 3.423 (d) 4.650 stroke is (GATE-PI-06)
(a) 20.8 kN (b) 31 kN
23. Consider the following statements : (c) 78.6 kN (d) 78.6 MN
In comparison to hot working, m cold
26. A copper strip of 200 mm width and 30 mm
working, (GATE-PI-OS)
thickness is to be rolled to a thickness of 25
1. higher forces are required
2. no heating is required mm. The roll of radius 300mm rotates at 100
rpm. The average shear strength of the work
3. less ductility is required
4. better surface finish is obtained. material is 180 MPa. The roll strip contact
length and the roll force are (GATE-PI-06)
(a) 15.8 mm & 0.569 MN
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(a) l , 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 18.97 mm, 0.683 MN
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 38.73 mm & 1.395 MN
(d) 38.73 mm & 2.09 MN
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: 765: Metal Forming
27. In a rolling process, thickness of a strip is 30. The power required for the drawing process
reduced from 4mm to 3mm using 300mm (in kW ) is (GATE-PI-08)
diameter rolls rotating at 1OOrpm. The (a) 8.97 (b) 14.0
velocity of the strip (in m/sec) at the neutral (c) 17.95 (d) 28.0
point is (GATE-PI-08)
31. The maximum possible percentage reduction
(a) 1.57 (b) 3.14
in area per pass during wire drawing of an
(c) 47.10 (d) 94.20
ideal plastic material without friction is of
the order of (GATE-PI-07)
28. By application of tensile force, the cross
(a) 37 (b) 50 (c) 63 (d) 75
sectional area of bar 'P' is first reduced by
30% and then by an additional 20%. Another 32. Using direct extrusion process, a round billet
bar 'Q' of the same material is reduced in of 100mm length and 50mm diameter is
cross sectional area by 50% in a single step extruded. Considering an ideal deformation
by applying tensile force. After deformation, process (no friction and no redundant work),
the true strain in bar 'P' and bar 'Q' will, extrusion ratio 4 and average flow stress of
respectively, be (GATE-PI-08) material 300 MPa, the pressure (MPa) on the
(a) 0.5 and 0.5 ram will be (GATE-PI-09)
(b) 0.58 and 0.69 (a) 416 (b) 624 (c) 700 (d) 832
(c) 0.69 and 0.69
(d) 0.78 and 1.00 33. In a rolling process , the roll separating force
can be decreased by (GATE-PI-10)
Statement for Linked Answer Q29 & Q3 0 (a) Reducing the roller diameter
A 10mm diameter annealed steel wire is (b) Increasing friction between the rolls and
drawn through a die at a speed of 0.5m/sec to the metal
reduce the diameter by 20%. The yield stress (c) Reducing front tension to rolled material
of the material is 800MPa . ( d) Providing back up r_ollers
29. Neglecting friction and strain hardening, the 34. During open die forging process using two
stress required for drawing (in MPa) is flat and parallel dies, a solid steel disc of
(c) 1287.5 (d) 2575.0 and radius of RFN· Along the die-disc
interfaces (GATE-PI-10)
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: 766: Production
(ii) In the region Rss s r s RFN, sliding strength of the material is 200 MPa. Ignore
40. A metal rod of initial length Lo is subjected in the first stage is 0.4. The fractional
to a drawing process. The length of the rod at reduction in the second stage is 0.3. The
any instant is given by the expression, overall fractional reduction is
L(t) = Lo( l + r), where t is the time in (GATE -15 -Set 2)
minutes. The true strain rate (in min- 1 ) at the (a) 0.24 (b) 0.58 (c) 0.60 (d) 1 .00
end of one minute is
(GATE-ME-14-SET-l) 44. The flowing stress (in MPa) of a material is
given by cr= 500 i? 1 ,
41. A 80 mm thick steel plate with 400 mm
When s is true strain. The Young's modulus
width is rolled to 40mm thickness in 4 passes
of elasticity of the material is 200 GPa. A
with equal reduction in each pass, by using
block of thickness 1 00 mm made of this
rolls of 800mm diameter. Assuming the
material is compressed to 95 mm thickness
plane-strain deformation, what 1s the
and then the load is removed. The final
minimum coefficient of friction required for
dimension of the block (in mm) is __
unaided rolling to be possible?
(GATE -15 -Set 2)
(GATE-PI-14)
(a) 0. 1 1 1 (b) 0. 1 58 45. In a rolling operation using rolls of diameter
(c) 0.223 (d) 0.3 1 6 500mm, if a thick plate cannot be reduced to
less than 20mm in one pass, the coefficient
42. In a slab rolling operation, the maximum of friction between the roll and the plate is
thickness reduction (�h maJ is given by (GATE -15-Set 3)
= 2
� max µ R , where R is the radius of the 46. Open die forging of a cylinder made of a
roll and µ is the coefficient of friction rigid perfectly plastic material with yield
between the roll and the sheet. If µ = 0. 1 , the strength of 200 MPa having a height of 25
maximum angle subtended by the mm and diameter of 25 mm is being carried
deformation zone at the centre of the roll (bit out. The cylinder is subjected to a true
angle in degrees) is____ compressive strain of 3.6 during the process.
(GATE -15 -Set 1) Assuming frictionless and homogeneous
deformation, the energy expended, in kJ is
43. In a two stage wire drawing operation, the (GATE - Pl -15)
fractional reduction (ratio of change in cross
sectional area to initial cross sectional area)
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47. A 300 mm thick slab is being cold rolled Assuming uniform roll pressure of 200 MPa
using roll of 600 mm diameter. If the in the roll bite and 100% mechanical
coefficient of friction is 0.08, the maximum efficiency, the minimum total power (in kW)
possible reduction (in mm) is _ _
_ required to drive the two rolls is___
(GATE - 1 6 -SET- 1) (GATE - 1 7-SET- 2)
48. In a single-pass rolling operation, a 200 mm 51. A rod of length 20 mm is stretched to make
wide metallic strip is rolled from a thickness a rod of length 40 mm. Subsequently, it is
10 mm to a thickness 6 mm. The roll radius compressed to make a rod of final length 10
is 100 mm and it rotates at 200 rpm. The roll mm. Consider the longitudinal tensile strain
strip contact length is a function of roll radius as positive and compressive strain as
and, initial and final thickness of the strip. If negative. The total true longitudinal strain in
the average flow stress in plane strain of the the rod is (GATE - 1 7 - SET -2)
strip material in the roll gap is 500 MPa, the (a)-0.5 (b)-0.69
roll separating force (in kN) is ___ (c)-0.75 (d)-1.0
(GATE - PI-1 6)
52. A metallic strip having a thickness of 12
49. Two solid cylinders of equal diameter have mm is to be rolled using two steel rolls,
different heights. They are compressed each of 800 mm diameter. It is assumed
plastically by a pair of rigid dies to create the that there is no change in width of the strip
same percentage reduction in their respective during rolling. In order to achieve 10%
heights. Consider that the die-workpiece reduction in cross-sectional area of the strip
interface friction is negligible. The ratio of after rolling, the angle subtended (in
the final diameter of the shorter cylinder to degrees) by the deformation zone at the
that of the longer cylinder is _____ center of the roll is (GATE - PI - 1 7)
(GATE - PI-16) (a) 1.84 (b) 3.14
(c) 6.84 (d) 8.23
50. A strip of 120mm width and 8mm thickness
is rolled between two 300 mm-diameter rolls
to get a strip of 120mm width and 7.2mm
thickness. The speed of the strip at the exit is
30m/min. There is no front or back tension.
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: 769 : Metal Forming
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions Sol: The method of deforming a material at a
temp greater than the recrystallization temp
01. Ans: (a) is called hot working.
Sol: Only ductile materials has highest
percentage elongation and hence wire 07. Ans: (b)
drawing can be done easily . Sol: When material is stressed beyond the yield
point under cold condition, the material will
02. Ends, Ce nter. experience the work hardening or strain
hardening which increases the yield strength
03. Ans: (c) and reduces the ductility.
L1 - L 2L - L
Sol: Engg. strain ( e)= ' = -- = 1
L; L 08. Ans: (c)
True strain = ln( l + e)= In (2)= 0. 693 Sol: The method of deforming a material at a
temp less than the recrystallisation temp is
04. Ans: (b) called cold working.
Sol: Curtain rods and SS tubes in furniture are
made by sheet bending and resistance 09. Ans: (a)
welding where as large size pipes used in Sol: �max = µ2 R , means that maximum
city water supply are produced by reduction can be increased by increasing the
centrifugal casting . coefficient of friction.
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11. Ans: (b) 22. Sol: True. With the application of back and
Sol: In thread rolling no material is removed but front tension, the forces induced in rolling
the materials is flown from one place to can be reduced.
other hence the dia. of original rod is equal
to pitch diameter. 23. Ans: (b)
Sol: Cold shut is most commonly produced in
12. Ans: Gutter forging and sometimes it may produces in
the casting operation also.
13. Ans: (c)
Sol: During extrusion of semi-brittle materials, 24. Ans: (c)
due to friction cracks are produced in the Sol: Flash and gutter are related to closed die
surface of the extruded component, hence to forging operation only. And out of the given
avoid the container wall friction the operations finishing is the only closed die
hydrostatic extrusion can be used. forging.
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Metal Forming
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= --------
-
/st draw
d0 - d1
= � A 1 = Ao - 0.2 Ao = 0.8 Ao
do = 540 mm2 =150x H1
2nd draw
d1 - d2
= � H 1 = 3.6 mm
di
D = 450 mm, R = 225 mm
(a) 3 stages with 80% reduction at each
LiH = 4.5 - 3.6 = 0.9
stage
tan a =
V R = 0.063 rad
- {MI
0.8 = do di => d1 = 0.2 d = 3mm
do
0
Ho - Hi = 1.5
H, = Ho - 1.5= 4 - 1.5 = 2.5mm H1 =18mm,
R = 250mm,
08. Ans: (b) N = 10 rpm, cr y = 300 Mpa
Sol: do = 10, dr= 8 mm, aY = 400 Mpa Ml =20 -18 = 2mm
Under idle conditions L =length of Deform ation Zone =.JRMI
Force Re quired =A rea x Stress x Strain = .J250 x 2 = 22.36 mm
20 +18
H=
2
= tr 8 X 400 X ln(�J = l9
4
2
di
= : 8 X 400 X ln (
2 10
g)
2
=8.97 k:N
Favg = R.S.F = 1 cr y b x L[l + ;� ]
0 089 X 22·36
= � X 300 X 100 X 22.36 [1 + · ]
v3 4 x19
09. Ans: (c)
=795 k:N.
Sol: d i = 200 mm, h i = 60 mm ,
dr = 400 mm
T = Favg x a,
True stram - m(J J - m( � )' Where a = moment arm
= ). L = 0.3 to 0.4 x L
400
ln( 1.386 Favg X 0.4L 795 X 103 X 0.4 X 22.36
2
= ) = = =
200
=7110
1 6. Ans: (a)
At maximum load, true strain = .!.
Sol: do = 25, di = 5mm 3
= 315 E 54
l) 33
cr y =1400( = 971 MPa
0
CY .
0
·
y
3
22. Ans: (b)
cr y = 315 (3. 22) 0.s4 = 592 MPa. Sol: Extrusion constant = K = 250
do = 100mm, dr = 50mm
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1 0·129 X 38·72
di = d. Jf = 200 :; = 282.8 = � X 150 X 200 X 38.72(1 + )
J3 4x 27.5
h1 =0.5xl 50=75, = 1402 kN = 1.4 MN
CJj = erY = 1000 .MPa, µ = 0.2
27. Ans: (a)
A1 = tr x 282.8 = 62800 mm
2 2 Sol: H0 = 4, H1 = 3mm,
4 R = 150mm, N = l OO rpm.
=
mJN
= 1r x 300 x100 =1.57 m/sec
= 62800 X 1000(1 + ) 1000 X 60 1000 X 60
3x75
= 78.6 MN. 28. Ans: (b)
Sol: A0p = C. S area of P originally
. 26. Ans: (c)
A1p = C. S area of P after 1st reduction
Sol: b = 200 mm, R = 300 mm,
= 0.7 Aop
L =.JRM! = 38.72 A2p = 0.8 x 0.7 x A0p = 0.56 Aop
H0 30 mm, N = 100 rpm,
A
= True strain in " P' = In( �J
=
a = tan -1 1 � = tan -1 � 5
fi-
!MNIIUYHiiiiMIAbblMihih�
300
= 7.36 °
AIQ J
e Q = ln ( AoQ = ln ( - 1 =
0.5 )
0.693
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AI = 4- = 490 mm 2
=-
(i) Ideal drawing stress - o , In(: J 4 4
:
=
8.967 kW - (A)
35. Ans: (d)
31. Ans: (c) Sol: H 0 = 30 mm (�H)
} = total =
Sol: At maximum possible reduction with µ = 0 Hr = 10 mm 30-10 20
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: 780 : Production
d
1( 2
=
4 7 40. Ans: 0.693
d1 = 2.21 mm Sol: L 1 = Length of the rod at the end of 1 min
= Lo ( 1 + 12 )= 2Lo
Ao LI
L1 = 2047 Ao. Lo = A 1 L 1 => - =-
A1 Lo
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: 781 : Metal Forming
r-
Maximum reduction per pass cr = 500 (ln (1+e))° -
= (Aff)max /pass = µ2R where, e = engineering strain,
(dr/do) = 6.049
A2 = 0.7A1= 0.7 x0.6 xAo= 0.42 Ao
dr = 151.24mm
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: 782 :
=
3592966.884N
Energy required = Force x distance
= 3591145 x (ho -hr) = 87.3 kJ
I l nd cylinder
47. Ans: 1.92 (range 1.90 to 1.94)
Aoho = Athr
Sol: Maximum possible reduction
do2ho = d/ hr
= L1HI pass = µ2 R =
0.082 x 300 =
1.92 mm
49. Ans: 1
Sol: Let, d 1 =
d2 = d
h1 = height of first cylinder = tan-• ( ��;� J =4.186°
h2 = height of second cylinder
assume h, < h2 L e = R a =�MI R 10.951 mm
Let % reduction in height = 10%
=
h o -h r
=0.1 = 262.82 kN
ho
We know that, power for two rollers
ho-hr = 0.1 ho
P = 2Tro
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: 783 : Metal Forming
30
V
ro = = 60 = 3.33 rad/s
R 0.15 Five Marks Solutions
L 10 95
T = F x e = 262.82 x · = 1438.93 Nm 01.
2 2 Sol: Dia. of Rollers = D
Power = 2 x 3.33 x 1438.93=9583.33 W Initial thickness = T = Ho
Power = 9.58 kW Final thickness = T - 2�T = H 1
Coefficient of friction = µ
51. Ans: (b) Max possible reduction = T - (T -2�T)
02.
Sol: H0 = 3.5, H 1 = 2.5mm, /)J{ =1
Ha + H 1 = 3mm
D = 250' R =125' H =----"------'-
2
b = 450mm, µ = 0.08
a-Y =140, L = -JR!)J{ = 11.2 mm,
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'!.�-
r-
( )[l - ( ) ]
0· 08X l l ,2 ] 1.903 A0
=
� X 1 40X 45 0X 11.2[1 +
v3 4x 3
=
03. = 1.903
Sol: do = 100mm, h o = 5 0 mm,
hf = 40mm , cr y = 80MPa
4
=
2
= =
no. ofdraws required
Work done = Fmin x (ho - hf ) = 7065J = 6 draws or passes or stages
7065
H= 0 .3 53 m
2 x10x l03 05.
=
Sol:
04.
Sol: di = 6mm, dr = 1.3 4mm
µ = 0 .2, a = 6° , cr y = 60MPa,
B = µ cot a = 1.903
For maximum reduction
a2
<Y2 = a => _ =1
: 0.2 0.4
ay
Y ---- E
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: 785 : Metal Forming
do = 12 .2 1 4, L0 = 100m
no. of p asses =
Af-[ total
10 10
CY
1
after = 400 MPa,
Ao Lo = Af L r 07.
A Sol: b = 4 00mm, H0 10mm,
Lr = L o =L
2
o
x
Af
(�J
o df H 1 = 8mm,
=
R = 300mm
= E = ln o = ln( 0 J = 0.4 = R xa
Ai di
= 300x 4 .67x-
Jr
From the graph 180
CY
1
at E = 0.2 = 24.4 mm
CY = 300 MPa If the condition is assumed as maximum
draft
Y
a = /3 = friction angle
06.
Sol: H0 = 2 00, Hf = lOO, D = 500 mm µ =tan /3 = tan a = tan 4 .67 ° = 0.082
µ = 0.2 , R = 2 50 mm
Aflmax p er p ass = µ 2 R
=0.2 2 x 2 50 =10
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Sheet Metal Operations
05. In blanking operation the clearance ts
One Mark Questions provided on (GATE-ME-02)
(a) The die
01. For blanking and piercing operations, (b) The punch
clearance is provided on the .. . . .. . . . and the (c) Both die and punch equally
.... ..... ... respectively (GATE-ME-87) (d) Neither the punch nor the die
02 . Wrinkling is a common defect found in 06. In progressive die (for sheet metal), spring
(GATE-ME-91) loaded stripper plate is used to clamps the
(a) Bent components stock until: (GATE-PI-91)
(b) Deep drawn components (a) The punch penetrates twice the stock
(c) Embossed components thickness
(d) Blanked component (b) It removes wrinkles on the product edges
(c) Automatic feeder plate releases it
03. In deep drawing of sheets , the values of (d) Punch is completely withdrawn from the
limiting draw ratio depends on stock
(GATE-ME-94)
(a) Percentage elongation of the sheet 07 . In ......A ..... ....operation the diameter of the
(b) Yield strength of the sheet desired hole will be smaller than the diameter
(c) Type of press used of the .... . . .. .B . .... .... .. .
(d) Thickness of sheet (GATE-PI-91)
A. blanking/ piercing
04. The cutting force in punching & blanking
B. punch/ die
operations mainly depends on
(GATE-ME-01) 08. A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter is
(a) The modulus of elasticity of the material to be made from a sheet metal of 2mm
(b) The shear strength of the material thickness . The number of deductions
(c) The bulk modulus of the material necessary will be (GATE-PI-91)
(d) The yield strength of the material (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
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09. Wall thickness of drawn cup is controlled by 14. For 50% penetration of work material, a
(GATE-PI-92) punch with single shear equal to thickness
(a) Deep drawing (b) Reverse drawing will (GATE-PI-01)
( c) Redrawing (d) Ironing (a) reduce the punch load to half the value
(b) increase the punch load by half the value
10. In a bending operation, if the modulus of
( c) maintain the same punch load
elasticity E is increased keeping all other
( d) reduce the punch load to quarter load
parameters unchanged, the spring back will
(GATE-PI-94) 15. A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter is
(a) increase to be made from a sheet metal of 2mm
(b) decrease thickness. The number of deductions
( c) remains unchanged necessary will be (GATE-PI-02)
( d)be independent of E (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
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(a) 118 mm (b) 161 mm 08. Match the items in column I and II
(c) 224 mm (d) 312 mm (GATE-ME-06)
Column - I Column - II
05. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be P. Wrinkling 1. yield point elongation
punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The Q. Orange peel 2. Anisotropy.
punch and the die clearance is 3%. The R. stretcher strain 3. Large grain size
required punch diameter is S. Earing 4. Insufficient blank
(GATE-ME-03) holding force
(a) 19.88 mm (b) 19.94 mm 5. Fine grain size
(c) 20.06 mm (d) 20.12 mm 6. Excessive blank
holding force
06. 10 mm diameter holes are to be punched in a (a) P-6, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-1
steel sheet of 3 mm thickness. Shear strength (c) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
of the material is 400 N/mm2 and penetration
is 40%. Shear provided on the punch is 2 09. The force requirement in a blanking
mm. The blanking force during the operation operation of low carbon steel sheet is 5.0 kN.
will be (GATE-ME-04) The thickness of the sheet is't' and diameter
(a) 22.6 kN (b) 37.7 kN of the blanked part is'd'. For the same work
(c) 61.6 kN (d) 94.3 kN material, if the diameter of the blanked part is
increased to 1.5d and thickness is reduced to
07. A 2 mm thick metal sheet is to be bent at an 0.4t, the new blanking force in kN is
angle of one radian with a bend radius of 100 (GATE-ME-07)
mm. If the stretch factor is 0.5, the bend (a) 3.0 (b) 4.5 (c) 5.0 (d) 8.0
allowance is (GATE-ME-05)
10. In the deep drawing of cups, blanks show a
---------+ Ti mm tendency to wrinkle up around the periphery
: 1 radian
(flange). The most likely cause and remedy
' g-
'
·,
'
'
I
I
I
of the phenomenon are respectively,
(GATE-ME-08)
(a) Buckling due to circumferential
' I
'!
'
' I
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: 790: Production
(b) High blank holder pressure and high 13 . The shear strength of a sheet metal 1s
friction: reduce blank holder pressure 3 00MPa . The blanking force required to
and apply lubricant produce a blank of 100 mm diameter from a
(c) High temperature causing increase m 1 .54 mm thick sheet is close to
circumferential length; apply coolant to (GATE-ME-11)
blank (a) 45kN (b) 70kN
(d) Buckling due to circumferential (c) 141kN (d) 3 500kN
compress10n; decrease blank holder
pressure . 14. Calculate the smallest punch diameter that
can be designed for piercing sheet metal strip
Common Data for Question 11 & 12 with the following data. Crushing strength of
In shear cutting operation, a sheet of 5mm the punch material is 1500 MPa . Thickness
thickness is cut along a length of 200mm . the of the sheet is 2 mm, factor of safety is 3, and
cutting blade is 400mm long ( see figure) and shear strength of the sheet material 500 MPa
zero -shear ( S =0 ) is provided on the edge . The 1s (GATE-PI-90)
ultimate shear strength of the sheet is 100 MPa (a) 2mm (b) 6mm
and penetration to thickness ratio is 0.2. Neglect (c) 8mm (d) 24mm
friction (GATE-ME-10)
400 15. A hemispherical cup of radius ' R ' is formed
in a press working operation. The radius of
blank would be (GATE-PI-92)
(a) Ji R (b) Jj R
- - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - s _l (c) J½ R (d) Pz R
11. Assuming force Vs displacement curve to be
rectangular, the work done in J is 16. In metal forming operation, the true strain in
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 3 00 the X-direction is 0.3 and in the Y-direction
is - 0.1. the true strain in the Z - direction is
12. A shear of 20mm (S 20) is now provides on
the blade . Assuming force Vs displacement
(GATE-PI-94)
(b) - 0.2 (c) 0.2 (d)- 0.03
curve to be trapezoidal, the maximum force
(a) 0
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Sheet Metal Operations
ACE
�-�::r..,,,,..� : 791 :
It " • •
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1 7. In sheet _metal working, the spring back 20. It is required to punch a hole of diameter
increase when (GATE-PI-02) 10mm on a sheet of thickness 3mm. The
P: Ratio of bend radius to sheet thickness is shear strength of the work material is
small 420Mpa. The required punch force is
Q: Young's modulus of the sheet is low (GATE-PI-06)
R: Yield strength of the sheet is high (a) 1 9. 78 kN (b) 39. 56 kN
S: Tension is applied during bending (c) 98.9 kN (d) 39 5. 6 kN
(a) P, Q, R (b) Q, R
(c) P, Q, S (d) P, Q, S 2 1 . A cylindrical cup of 48. 5 mm diameter and
52 mm height has a corner radius of 1. 5 mm.
1 8. A hydraulic press is used to produce circular cold rolled steel sheet of thickness 1. 5 mm is
blanks of 10 mm diameter from a sheet of used to produce the cup. Assume trim
2 mm thickness. If the shear strength of the allowance as 2 mm per 2 5 mm of cup
sheet material is 400 N/mm2 , the force diameter. What is the blank size in mm?
required for producing a circular blank is (GATE-PI-04)
(GATE-PI-03) (a) 1 02.0 (b) 1 1 5.4
(a) 8 kN (b) 2 5. 1 3 kN (c) 120. 5 (d) 128. 5
(c) 31.42 kN (d) 1 2 5. 66 kN
22. A hole of 4 0 mm diameter is pierced in a
1 9. Consider the following statements related steel sheet of 4 mm thickness without shear
piercing and blanking (GATE-PI-03) on the tool. Shear strength of steel is 400
1 . Shear on the punch reduces the N/mm 2 and penetration is 2 5%. What is the
maximum cutting force expected percentage load reduction if a shear
2. Shear increases the capacity of the press of 1 mm is provided on the punch?
needed (GATE-PI-04)
3. Shear increases the life of the punch (a) 2 5.00 (b) 33.33
4. Total energy needed to make the cut (c) 50. 00 (d) 66. 67
remains unaltered due to provision of
shear 23. Determine the load required to punch a 20
Which of the above statements are correct mm diameter hole · in 2 mm thick sheet . The
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1 & 4 properties of the material of the sheet are:
(c) 2 & 3 (d) 3 & 4 (GATE-PI-04)
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(a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 and die is to be kept as 40microns, the sizes
(b) P-4, Q-4, R-1, S-2 of punch and die should respectively be.
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (GATE-PI-07)
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (a) 35 & 35.040 (b) 34.92 & 35
(c) 35 & 35.080 (d) 35.040 & 34.92.
30. It is required to punch a hole of diameter
10mm on a sheet of thickness 3mm. The 34. Match the following (GATE-PI-08)
shear strength of the work material is Group - I Group - II
420MPa. The required punch force is P . Wrinkling 1. Upsetting
(GATE-PI-06) Q. Center burst 2. Deep drawing
(a) 19.78 kN (b) 39.56 kN R. Barrelling 3. Extrusion
(c) 98.9kN (d) 395.6 kN S. Cold shut 4. Closed die forging
(a) P-2, Q- 3 , R-4 , S -1,
Common Data for Question 31 & 32 (b) P - 3, Q - 4 , R -1 , S - 2
A cup is to be drawn to a diameter of 70mm with ( c) P - 2, Q - 3 , R - 1 , S - 4
35mm depth from a 0.5mm thick sheet metal. The (d) P - 2, Q -4 , R- 3 , S -1
cup is drawn in one operation. Assume cru = 430 35. A blank of 50mm diameter is to be sheared
MPa. from a sheet of 2.5mm thickness. The
required radial clearance between the die and
31. The required blank diameter is the punch is 6% of sheet thickness. The
(GATE-PI-06) punch and die diameter (mm) for this
(a) 86.7mm (b) 119.5mm blanking operation respectively are
(c) 121.24mm (d) 169mm (GATE-PI-08)
(a) 50.00 & 50.30 (b) 50.00 & 50.15
32. The maximum drawing force is (c) 49.70 & 50.00 (d) 49.85 & 50.00
(GATE-PI-06)
(a) 0.047MN (b) 0.82MN 36. A disc of 200mm diameter is blanked from a
(c) 0.83MN (d) 9.69MN strip of an aluminum alloy of thickness
3.2mm. The material shear strength to
33. Circular blanks of 35mm diameter are fracture is 150MPa. The blanking force (in
punched from a steel sheet of 2mm thickness. kN ) is (GATE-PI-09)
If the clearance per side between the punch (a) 291 (b) 301 (c) 311 (d) 421
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39. In a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness a hole of 03. A cup shown if fig is to be drawn from low
1 0 mm diameter needs to be punched. The carbon steel thickness 0.8mm. The edge
yield strength in tension of the sheet material trimming allowance to be provided is 4 mm
is 1 00 MPa and its ultimate shear strength is on radius. Neglecting comer radius, thinning
80 MPa. The force required to punch the hole & spring back. The diameter of the blank
(in kN) is __ (GATE - 16 - SET - 3) required is ... .... ... (GATE-ME-88)
04. Circular blanks of 50mm in diameter are to operation? The properties of steel are: Yield
be produced from a 3mm thick electrolytic point = 150MPa, UTS = 350MPa, LDR = 1.9
copper sheets for which the resistance to and neglect the entry radius and blank holder
shear is 350Mpa. Calculate the force required force. (GATE-ME-96)
for blanking assuming no shear on the punch.
How will the blanking force change if 08. Estimate the reduction in piercing load for
1
hexagonal blanks of 25mm are produced by a producing circular hole of 50mm diameter in
punch having a shear of 2mm and 50% a 3mm thick steel strip. When the punch was
penetration? (GATE-ME-89) provided with a shear of 1mm. (assuming
30% penetration and shear strength of steel
05. Equal no. of circular blanks of 60 & 100mm as 400 MPa) (GATE-ME-97)
diameter is required for a product line.
Design a strap strip layout which is giving 09. A 5mm thick MS plate is cut in a shearing
highest % utilization of sheet. machine and the length of cut is 500mm. the
(GATE-ME-90) shear strength of the material is 300 MPa.
Find the force required if the cutting blade is
06. Five holes of diameter 10mm each are to be inclined at 1 deg, if the percentage
punched in a sheet 3mm thick at a pitch of penetration is 40%. (GATE-ME-00)
25mm. what should be the minimum
capacity of the press required (in Tonnes) if 10. A contour having a perimeter of 200mm is
the yield point of material is 50 MPa and (a) pierced out from a 3mm sheet having
One hole is punched per stroke, (b) five holes ultimate shear strength of 250MPa. What
are punched in a single stroke (hint no shear will be the amount of shear, if the punch
is provided on the punches) force is to be reduced to 60%. Where it be
(GATE-ME-96) provided? Assume the penetration to be 30%.
(GATE-PI-89)
07. A steel cup of height 30mm and internal
diameter 40mm with a flange of width 10mm 11. A sheet of 1mm thickness and 10mm width
is to be deep drawn from a sheet of 1mm is to be formed by bending as shown in the
thick. Determine the diameter of the blank fig., what should be the length of the blank?
and the drawing force. What is the draw (GATE-PI-90)
ratio? Can the cup be drawn in single
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RS
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f
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:----30----- +
.::C=========i
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----..iTl
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lrnm
All dimensions in mm
l_l__--r-_
Tl-s-: 15. A cylindrical cup of diameter 12 mm &
height 16 mm has a comer radius of 0.5 mm,
it is made out of a sheet of 2 mm thick & the
BENT SHAPE
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16. The strain in the cup extrusion for the part 17. The part shown in fig is to be blanked from a
shown in fig is (GATE-PI-95) steel strip of 2 mm thickness. Assuming the
penetration to be 40 % & ultimate shear
strength of the material to 145 MPa,
(GATE-PI-95)
�1
100mm
50mm
45 deg
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SOLUTIONS
punch only, where as in piercing hole size is
One Mark Solutions made equal to punch size and clearance
provided on the die only.
0 1.
Sol: PUNCH and DIE , In blanking the size of 06. Ans: (d)
Blank is equal to size of die and clearance is Sol: Other wise during withdrawal of punch the
provided on the punch only, where as in drawn part may stick to the punch surface
piercing hole size is made equal to punch and it may become difficult to remove the
size and clearance provided on the die only. drawn part.
14. NO ANSWER,
19. Ans: (a)
Sol: K=50%, I =t
Fmax Kt Fmax x0.5t F
F= = = max 20. Ans: (0.25)
Kt+I 0.5t + t 3
From the given choices, there is no a nswer.
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13. Ans:(c)
t1 =
0.4t
Fmax = 5 = mi f 'l'u Sol: 'u =300 MPa , D =
100 mm,
5
'l'u T =
1.54 mm
Blanking force =Fmax=mi t ,u
=-
mit
5
Fmax
l
= tr d 1 I
f 'u = 1t X 1 . 5d X O . 4 t X- =tr X 100 X 1.54 X 300= 145 kN.
1tdt
=1.5 X 0.4 X 5=3 kN. 14. Ans:(c)
Sol: acp =1500 MPa, T = 2 mm , FOS=3
10. Ans:(a)
Sol: During deep drawing when the force is allowable =- -=500 MPa
1500
acp
3
applied by using punch on to the sheet, the
'tu =
500 MPa.
4( 'u
edges of blank is lifting upwards, produces
dmm. =
acp allowable
wrinkles and it can be eliminated by
applying BHF or increasing BHF.
4 X 2 X 500
= =8 mm
11. Ans:(a)
500
15. Ans:(a)
12. Ans:(b) Sol: One side surface area of blank= One side
Sol: Common Solution for 11 & 12 surface area of part
t 5 mm, L = 200 mm, 'tu 100 MPa,
= = tr 4 tr R 2
D 2=
K = 0.2 4 2
D2 = 8 R 2
Work done =
Fmax Kt =
Lxt x 'tu K.t
x
=
200 X 5 X 100 X0.2 X 5 D=2.fi R
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16. Ans: (c) d48·5
= =32.33 > 20
Sol: E =E
x y
+ Ez r 1.5
Comer radius is neglected
0.3 =0.1+ E :::>E 2 =0.3-0.1= 0.2
.J
2
D = d 2 + 4dh = 111.53 mm
oc- I= 1 mm.
E.
Fmax Kt= Fmax x0.25x4
Kt +/
F=
18. Ans: (b) 0.25 x4 + 1
Sol: d = 10 mm = B.S. Fmax
= =50% .
t = 2mm, 'tu = 400 MPa.
F max = 1tdt'tu
1tXI0x2x400 = 25.12 kN. 23. Ans: (b)
Sol: d = 20 mm, t = 2 mm, 'tu = 350 MPa
=
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5024 = 5.024 kN
P.S = D.S -2 x C 50 -2 x 0.15
=
=
49.7 mm
40. Ans: 28.7228
=
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03.
Five Marks Solutions Sol: t = 0.8 ,
Trimming allowance = T.A
1000
allowable = _ P = -- = 500 = .J60 2 +4x40x30
Fos 2
(Ye
a-ep
91.65 mm
Force Required = F,nsx = mi. t Tu
=
mi. t ru
= =
Aep 04.
Fmax
a-ep
4t T u Tu = 350 MPa,
O'cp = --
d Fmax = mi. t ru = Jr x50 x3x350
4 tTu 4 X 2 X 200 = 164.8 kN
. =
d mm =
cr cp allowable 500
For hexagonal Blank of side 25 mm
= 3.2 mm Fmax = 6x25x3x350 = 157.5 kN
If I = 2 mm, K = 50 %
02.
F x Kt
Sol: Dia. of Blank d 15 mm, t = 3mm , F = ma
Kt -I
= =
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06. D
LDR = l .9 = -
Sol: 5 holes of dia. = 10 mm each, d,
t = 3mm , Pitch = 25 mm 94 25
dI = · = 49.6 >30
50 1.9
cry = 50 Mpa => cru = - = 100 Mpa
0.5 49 · 6
d2 = = 26.1 < 30
= 0.6x <:Yu 60 MPa 1.9
No. of draws = 2
ru =
42 = outside diameter
Reduction in force = 188.4 - 89.2
=
Flange width = 10 mm
98.9 kN
d2 = d 1 + 2x10 = 42 + 2xlO = 62
=
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: 807 : Sheet Metal Operations
12.
tan 1°=_!_
500 Sol: d = 50 mm, h = 75 mm, t= 1.5 mm,
I = 500 tan 1° = 8.73 mm UTS = 300 MPa = au
Force required with shear Neglecting corner radius.
Fmax Kt 750 x 0.4 x 5
F= = =l 39_ 8 kN Blank diameter=..Jd 2 +4dh
Kt+I 0.4 x 5+8.73
=..J50 2 +4 x 50 x 75 = 132.3 mm
Sol: t= 1 mm, w = 10 mm
13.
Length of Blank = Lo
= 20+30+5+B 1 +B2
Sol: d = 200 mm, t= 4 mm, 'tu=30 MPa
! = shear = 1 mm K= 35%
re d t
=(r+0.5 x t) x (1 80 - 60 ) x _!!_
(i) Fmax = Tu=re x 200 x 4 x 30
1 80 = 75.36 kN
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14. 16.
Sol: The developed length
Sol: Stram = i:.,n
.
0 ( ------ ]
original C.S. area
= length of original flat starting strip Final C.S. area
= 60 + 35 +38 + 2B 1 + B2 +B3
= 133 + 2B, + B2 + B3
= 152.1 mm
17.
B2 =rn 2 X 02 =(2 + 0.5 X 1)6ox ; 2.62 mm Sol:
1 0
=
1 00
30
15. 50
��:
I
= 30.2 mm ,....__ __
80
h = 16 mm, r = 0.5 mm, t = 2 mm
(GATE-ME-96)
01. 0 010
· when
assembled will result in
(GATE-ME-87)
(a) Clearance fit
(b) running fit ( sliding fit )
(a) clearance fit (b) Interference fit
(c) Push fit(transition fit)
(c) transition fit (d) drive fit
(d) force fit ( interference fit )
02. In an engineering drawing one finds the
designation of 20G7f8. the position of 0 8. Allowance in limits and fits refers to
tolerance of the hole is indicated by (GATE:-ME-01)
(GATE-ME-88) (a) Maximum clearance between the shaft
(a) Letter G (b) Letter f and hole
(c) Number 7 (d) Number 8 (b) Minimum clearance between the shaft
and hole
03. Appropriate instrument to check the flatness (c) Difference between the maximum and
of slip gage is (GATE-ME-89) minimum size of hole
(a) dial indicator (d) Difference between the maximum and
(b) Pneumatic comparator minimum size of shaft.
(c) Optical interferometer
(d) Tool makers microscope with projection 09. In order to have interference fit, it is
facility essential that the lower limit of shaft should
be (GATE-ME-OS)
04. Slip gauges are calibrated by outside
(GATE-ME-95)
(a) Greater than the upper limit of the hole
micrometer (T/F) (b) Lesser than the upper limit of the hole
(c) Greater than the lower limit of the hole
05. Checking the diameter of a hole using GO
(d) Lesser than the lower limit of the hole
and NOGO gages is an example of
inspection by . . . . . . . . . (Variable / attributes )
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: 810: Production
(GATE-ME-06) (GATE-PI-91)
1 0. Ring gage is used to measure 1 4. Outside micrometer is calibrated with the
help of
(a) outside diameter but not roundness (a) inside micrometer
(b) roundness but not outside diameter (b) depth micrometer
(c) both outside diameter and roundness (c) ring gages (d) slip gages
(d) only external threads.
1 5 . Abbe's principle of alignment states that the
+0.0 1 5
(GATE-PI-91)
scale axis must coincide with the line of
1 1 . A hole is of dimension <j>9+0 mm. The
corresponding shaft 1s of dimension
+0.0 1 0 1 6. In mass manufacturing, two holes in a plate
<I> 9 +0·001 mm. The resulting assembly has
(GATE-ME-1 1) (GATE-PI-92)
type of component are ideally located with
the help of
(a) loose running fit (b) close running fit (a) one solid pin in the larger hole and one
(c) transition fit (d) interference fit diamond pin in the smaller hole
(b) two solid pins in either holes
(GATE-PI-89)
1 2. Flatness of slip gages is checked with (c) two diamond pins in either holes
(d) one solid pin in the smaller hole and one
(a) Interferometer diamond pin in the larger hole
(b) Optical flat
(c) Electronic comparator 1 7. The skid in a stylus type roughness
(d) Linear measuring machine measuring instrument is used to provide
. . . .. A. . . . . . . . . and define . . . . . . B . . . . . . . .
(GATE-PI-92)
1 3 . For angle measurement in metrology, the geometrical profile of the surface.
(GATE-PI-91)
following pair can be used in conjunction
A. support I datum
with each other
B. micro I macro
(a) sine bar and Vernier calipers
(b) bevel protractor and slip gages 1 8. The diameter of the best wire to measure the
(c) slip gages and sine bar effective diameter of a metric screw threads
(GATE-PI-92)
(d) sine bar and bevel protractor Of 0.5 mm pitch is . . . . . . . . . mm
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3 1. Which one of the Instrument is a comparator features of machine tools during their
(GATE-PI-07) assembly? (GATE-ME- 14-SET-l)
(a) Tool makers microscope (a) Ultrasonic probe
(b) GO/NOGO gage (b) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)
(c) Optical interferometer (c) Laser interferometer
(d) Dial gage (d) Vernier calipers
.
32. In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of 36 . Ho1es of diameter 25 . o +o.
+o.04
o
020 mm are
assembled interchangeably with the pins of
size 25.000 -0·0 1 0 mm mate with holes of size
+0.040
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: 813 : Metrology
37. Which one of the following statements 1s 39. The limits of a shaft designated as 100h5 are
TRUE? (GATE -15 -Set 2) 100.000 mm and 100.014 mm. Similarly, the
(a) The ' GO' gage controls the upper limit limits of a shaft designated as 100h8 are
of a hole 100.000 mm and 100.055 mm. If a shaft is
(b) The 'NO GO' gage controls the lower designated as 100h6, the fundamental
limit of a shaft deviation (in µm) for the same is
(c) The 'GO' gage controls the lower limit (GATE - PI-16)
of a hole (a) -22 (b) zero (c) 22 (d) 24
(d) The 'NO GO' gage controls the lower
limit of a hole 40. The roughness profile of a surface is
depicted below.
38. Match the following
List - I
Profile
P. Feeler gauge
height
- - -
Q. Fillet gauge
2 µm
R. Snap gauge
t :
S. Cylindrical plug gauge
c..,.
0
X
o 2 µm :
List -II -L , - -
]
tfi I
'..---
:,
-
I. Radius of an object ----:
, - 5mm
u
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42. Accuracy of a measuring instrument 1s 02. Two shafts A and B have their diameters
expressed as (GATE - PI -17) specified as 100±0.1 mm and
(a) true value -measured value 0.1±0.000l mm respectively. which of the
(b) measured value - true value following statements is/are true
true value -measured value (GATE-ME-92)
(c) 1 _
true value (a) Tolerance in the dimension B is greater
in shaft A
true value -measured value
(d) 1 + (b) The relative error in the dimension B is
true value
greater in shaft A
43. A machined surface with standard symbols (c) Tolerance in the dimension A is greater
indicating the surface texture is shown in the in shaft B
Figure. (All dimensions in the Figure are in (d) The relative error m the dimension 1s
micrometer). same for shaft A and shaft B
+0.05
50-50x 1 03
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. . . : 815 : Metrology
+
05. The dimensional limits on a shaft of 25h7 0 8. A hole of diameter 25.00 o.o i mm is to be
are (GATE-ME-03) inspected by using GO / NO GO gages. The
(a) 25.000, 25.02 1 mm size of the GO plug gage should be
(GATE-ME-04)
(b) 25.000, 24.979 mm
(c) 25.000, 25.007 mm
(a) 25.00 mm (b) 25.0 1 mm
(d) 25.000, 24.993 mm
(c) 25.02 mm (d) 25.03 mm
07. A threaded nut of M 16, ISO metric type, spindle. The mandrel axis is an extension of
having 2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter of the drill spindle taper hole axis and the
14.70 1 mm is to be checked for its pitch protruding portion of the mandrel surface is
diameter using two or three numbers of perfectly cylindrical. Measurement are
balls or rollers of the following sizes recorded as Rx = maximum deflection
(GATE-ME-03)
(a) Rollers of 2 mm q>
mmus mm1mum deflection, corresponding
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: 816 : Production
drill
spindle
/I
- 1 ¢:::i°'P
= 0.45 D 1 13 + 0.001D, where D is the
respective size in mm. tolerance value for
IT8 =25i, Fundamental deviation for "f'
shaft = -5.5Do.4i (GATE-ME-09)
mandrel 0i �ensor
¢:::i (a) 59.970 & 59.924 (b) 60.00 & 59.954
i \U" Q
(c) 60.016 & 59.970 (d)60.046 & 60.00
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: 817 : Metrology
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: 818 : Production
(GATE-PI-04)
''
' , , in degrees
1 •>i
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: 819 : Metrology
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: 820: Production
(a) 6 deg (b) 1 0 deg 36. A small bore is designated as 25H7. The
(c) 1 1 degree (d) 1 2 deg lower (minimum) and upper (maximum)
limits of the bore are 25.000mm and 25.021
34. An autocollimator is used to respectively. When the bore is designated as
(GATE-PI-09) 25H8, then the upper limit is 25.033mm.
(a) Measure small angular displacements on when the bore is designated as 25H6, then
flat surfaces the upper limit of the bore in mm is
(b) Compare known and unknown (GATE-PI-10)
dimensions (a) 25.00 1 (b) 25.005
(c) Measure the flatness error (c) 25.009 (d) 25.0 1 3
(d) Measure roundness error between
centers. 37. To measure the effective diameter of an
external metric thread (included angle is
35. Match the following 60°) of 3.5 mm pitch, a cylindrical standard
(GATE-PI-09) of 30.5 mm diameter and two wires of 2
DEVICE FUNCTION mm diameter each are used. The
P. Jig 1 . Helps to place work piece in micrometer reading over the standard and
the same position cycle after over the wires are 1 6.532 mm and 1 5.398
cycle mm respectively. The effective diameter
Q. Fixture 2. Holds the work piece only (in mm) of the thread is (GATE-PI-11)
R. Clamp 3..Holds and position the work (a) 33.366 (b) 30.397
piece (c) 29.366 (d) 26.397
S. Locator 4. Holds and position the work
38. Observation of a slip gauge on a flatness
piece and guides the cutting
interferometer produced fringe counts
tool during a machining
numbering 1 0 and 1 4 for two readings. The
operation
second reading is taken by rotating the set
up by 1 80° . Assume that both faces of the
slip gauge are flat and the wavelength of the
(a) P-4, Q-3, R- 1 , S-2
(b) P- 1 , Q-2, R-3, S-4
radiation is 0.5086 µm. The parallelism
(c) P- 1 , Q-4, R-3, S-2
(d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S- 1 error (in µm) between the two faces of the
slip gauge is (GATE-PI-11)
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: 821 : Metrology
(a) 0.2543 (b) 1.172 42. The diameter of a recessed ring was
(c) 0.5086 (d) 0.800 measured by using two spherical balls of
diameter d2 = 60mm and d 1 = 40 mm as
39. A Sine bar has a length of 250mm. each
shown in the figure.
roller has a diameter of 20mm. during taper
angle measurement of a component , the
height from the surface plate to the center of d1
a roller is 100mm. the calculated taper diameter
angle (in degrees) is (GATE-Pl-12)
(a) 21.1 (b) 22.8 (c) 23.6 (d) 68.9
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+0.03 +0.003
(C) 24.985-0.03 L, = 22.0 ±0·0 ' mm, L2 L 3 = 10.0 ±0 005 mm,
(d) 24.985-0·000
=
I
machine. A dial indicator is fixed to the
cylindrical spindle and the spindle is rotated
to make the indicator touch the base plate at
different points. The test inspects whether
1
� LJ
the (GATE-PI-14)
(GATE -15 -Set 1)
±0 oos ±0 . 0
Spindle (a) 2.0 (b) 2.0 12
(c) 2.0 ±0.0 1 6 (d) 2.0 ±0 020
�
figure.
Base pla'!e
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Monochromatic light
a part using standard balls of diameter 15
mm and 20 mm, the large ball is found to
protrude by 5 mm (h 1 ) and the top of small
ball is found to be 35 mm (h2) below the top
I
face of the gauge. The taper angle, in degree,
If the wavelength of light used to get a fringe
lS--- (GATE - PI -15)
spacing of 1 mm is 450 nm, the wavelength
of light (in nm) to get a fringe spacing of 1.5
mm 1s ----
(GATE - 16 - SET - 3)
(GATE - 17 - SET - l)
49. Two optically flat plates of glass are kept at
(a ) 5 (b) 6.67
(d) 20
a small angle e as shown in the figure. (c) 10
Monochromatic light is incident vertically.
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06. Mention which angle gauges will be used to 09. With reference to the fig given, write down
make an angle of 7 ° 56'48". The angle , so the equation relating the dimension "h" with
obtained is checked with a sine bar of length the diameter "D" and the angle "a". If a unit
250 mm what slip gauges combination will increase in D has to result in a unit increase
be required? (GATE-PI-91) in "h", what must be the angle "a" ?
(GATE-PI-94)
07. A 'V' block is produced with a 90 angle
a
°
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SOLUTIONS
08. Ans: (a)
One Mark Solutions Sol: for interference fit
L - shaft > H -hole
0 1. Ans: (c)
Sol: H - limit of shaft is lying in between H and 09. Ans: (a)
L limits of hole. Sol: Ring gages are used to inspect the outside
dia. of shaft, but it never measures the
02. Ans: (a) roundness.
Sol: Hole 1s indicated by capital letter "G", 10. Ans: (c)
whose lower limit 1s fixed. Hence the Sol: H limit of shaft is in between the H and L
position is decided by letter "G". limits of hole
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2 2 25.04 -25.02
0.25 sec 30 0.288 mm.
=
= = = 0.02 = 20 microns
-B,------r--1-
CPU = Upper specification calculation
CPL = Lower specification calculation
Minim um _j!J����
µ = 14.995 mm
Clearance
f - ----------------- USL -µ
(CPU ) =
3 cr
15.02 -14.995
= = 2.083
3x0.004
37. Ans: (c) µ -LSL 14.995 - 14.98
(CPL) = = = 1.25
3cr 3 X 0.004
38. Ans: (a) Process capability index = minimum (CPU,
Sol Feeler gauge 1s used for checking the CPL) = 1.25
clearance or gap between the parts, radius is Here, process capability ratio is 1. 667. There is
checked by fillet gauge, limits of diameter of no option matching. Out of given option best
4 1 . Ans: (B)
Sol: USL = 15.02 mm , LSL 14.98 mm,
cr = 0.004 mm
USL -LSL
Process capability ratio =
6cr
15.02 -14.98
= = 1.667
6x0.004
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':i�-��&ypw:rq pqNii,pn
6.67 X 2 = 13.33 mm
,-·
=
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2e = tan _, ( 3
)= 6 Effective dia = M -(d +; tan a)
28. 5 4
= 26.35 5 mm.
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14 - 10 0.5086 50 +AB
= --- x---
=
2 2 AB = (AC2 -CB2) 1 12
0.5086 mm. = {(R
1 +R2/-[(H2 + R2)-(H 1 +R 1 )] }
2 05
25.02+0.032x2 = 25.084 =
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45. Ans: (d)
= �(R + r )2 (D - (R +r ))2
= 22.01 -(9.995+9.995) = 2.02
-
= �2D(R +r) -D 2
= 21.99 - (10.005+10.005) = 1.98 H = (R +r ) + �2D(R +r) - D 2
L4 = 2 ± 0.02
49. Ans: 675 (range 674 to 676)
'A
46. Ans: 2.5 Sol: 1mm = n x -
Sol: Average surface roughness
2
'A
47. Ans: 3.7 to 3.9 1.5 = n x -2
2
Sol:
1.5 2 1. x 2
'A, 2 = : = \ = 1.5 X 450 = 675
0 1 02 = (35 + 7.5) - (10 -5) 450
42.5 - 5 = 37.5
A
Sol:
=
. 0 02A 2.5
Sln - =-- =--
2 Op 2 37.5
0
- = Taper angle = 3.82 °
2
Sol:
·
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,)
0 1.
L - Hole = Max ML = 35 mm 35
= - sec 30 2mm.
GO plug gage size
=
=
H -hole = Min ML = 35 .4 Hence the wire used is the best wire size
= NOGO plug gage size R1 13.3768 mm, R2 = 12.2428 mm
Because L - hole is greater than
=
=
=
3 5 -34.975 = 0.025
Effective diameter = M -( d +� tan a)
Max Clearance = H-hole -L-shaft
= 29.366 -( 2 + \ tan 30 )
= 35 .4 -34.4 1 mm.
5
=
= 26.35 5 .
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04. 06.
Sol: Difference in height Sol: 0 =7° 56 1 48 1
1
N ')..., = 9° - 1° -3 1 - 18 1 1 + 6 1 1
Of slip gages = x
2 2
Sin 0 = E._
N ')..., L
1.002 -1.00 = 0.002=- X -
2 2 h = L Sin 0 = 250 x Sin 7 ° 56 1 48 1 1
0.002 x 4
N= =13 35.563 mm.
0.00058928
=
05.
07.
Sol: Work tolerance (W.T) = 20.06 - 19.96
Sol: 0 = 90
0.lmm
0
exp ected
d2 - d 1 10
=
h2 -h , = 12.132
= 10%. W.T = 0.0 1 .
��-�-�---- NOGO
= 20.06
F ,NOGO
W.T Hole
A02 = r2 - r 1
O , 02 = (h2 - r2) - (h , -r , )
H.GO L.GO
(h2 - h , ) - (r2 - r , )
L -NOGO = 20.06 - 0.01 = 20.05
=
. A0, r -r
H - NOGO = 20.06 -0 = 20.06 sm a = --
01 02
= -------
(h 2 - h 1 ) - (r2 - r, )
2 2
2(h 2 - h , ) - (d 2 -d , )
L - GO = 19.96 + 0.0 1 = 19.97
= --------
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ACE : 838 : Production
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08.
A = 45 ± 0.16. = A ± LlA
Bmax = Amax -20min = 45.16 - 19.93
= 25.23
Bmin = Amin -20max 44.84 -20.07 Max straightness deviation occurs at 1
=
:. C = 100
+0.075
If D = O, h=O
- 0 21s
D = 1, h = 1
For the given conditions
a 1 1
Sin = = 14. 75 9. 7 5 - 1 05 10 05
2 2xl + l 3 C = ( l 00.1+ � + � ) ( 5; + ; )
a
- = 19.47 => a = 38.94 2. = 99.925 mm.
2
Because C is lying in between the limits, the
1 0. assembly is possible.
Sol: Position: 1 3 4
E Reading: +2 +2 +1 +2
2
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12.
p
Sol: (i) The best wire size = sec a
2
(ii) M = 16.455
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I
Chapter
8 Advance Machining Methods
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20. NC contouring is an example of 24. A robot arm PQ with end coordinates P(O,O)
(GATE-PI-OS) and Q(2,5) rotates counter clockwise about P
(a) continuous path positioning in the XY plane by 90 °. The new coordinate
(b) point to point positioning pair of the end point Q is
(c) absolute positioning (GATE-ME- 14-SET-2)
(d) incremental positioning (a) (-2,5) (b) (-5,2)
(c) (-5,-2) (d) (2,-5)
2 1. The interpolator in a CNC machine controls
(GATE-PI-07) 25. In an open loop, point-to-point controlled CN
(a) Spindle speed (b) Coolant flow drilling machine, a stepper motor, producing
(c) Feed rate (d) Tool change 200 angular steps per revolution drives the
table of a drilling machine by one angular
22. A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut a step per each pulse generated by a pulse
straight slot of 10mm width and 2mm depth generator (shown in figure). Each angular
by a cutter of 10mm diameter between points step moves the table by one Basic Length
(0, 0) and ( 100, 100) on the XY plane Unit (BLU) along X axis with a lead screw
(dimensions in mm). The feed rate used for having a pitch of 4mm. If the frequency of
milling is 50mm/min. Milling time for the pulse generator is doubled, the BLU will
slot (in seconds) is (GATE-ME&PI-12) (GATE -PI-14)
(a) 120 (b) 170 (c) 180 (d) 240
CNC drill table
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..... ""=
11
: : Q
(c) P - IV, Q - III, R - II, S - I
T l_ - -----•--------:- -------
12 (d) P - III, Q - IV, R - II, S - I
5
I I
I
X
l
I
•I
I
4
I• 3
(GATE -15 -Set 3)
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3 1. Consider the following statements. lead screw is 3.6mm, what is the expected
(P) Computer aided process planning positioning accuracy? (GATE-ME-97)
(CAPP) takes input from material (a) 1 micron (b) 10 micron
requirement plan (MRP). (c) 50 micron (d) 100 micron
(Q) Production flow analysis helps in work
cell formation. 03. A cylinder of 155mm diameter is to be
(R) Group technology takes input from reduced to 150mm diameter in one turning
choice of machining or cutting cut with a feed of 0.15mm/rev and a cutting
parameters. speed of 150m/min on a NC lathe. What are
Among the above statements, the correct the programmed feed rate and the material
one(s) is (are) (GATE - PI-16) removal rate. (GATE-ME-98)
(a) P only (b) Q and R only
(c) P and R only (d) Q only 04. In finish machining of an island on a casting
with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10mm diameter is employed. The corner
Two Marks Questions points of the island are represented by (0,0),
(0, 30), (50, 30), and (50, 0). By applying
0 1. With reference to NC machine, which of the cutter radius compensation, the trajectory of
following statement is wrong? the cutter will be (GATE-ME-00)
(GATE-ME-93) (a) (-5,0) , (-5,35),(55,35) ,(55,-5),(-5, -5)
(a) Both closed loop and open loop control (b) (0,-5) ,(55,-5) ,(55,35),(-5, 35) , (-5, -5)
systems are used (C) (5,5),(5,25),(45,25),(45,5),(5,5)
(b) Paper tapes , floppy drives and cassettes (d) (5,5),(45,5),(45,25),(5,25),(5,5 )
are used for data storage
(c) Digitisers may be used as interactive 05. During the execution of a CNC part program
input devices block
(d) Post-processor is an item of hardware N020 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0. The type of
tool motion will be (GATE-ME-04)
02. In a point to point control NC m/c, the slides (a) circular Interpolation - Clockwise
are positioned by an integrally mounted (b) Circular Interpolation-counterclockwise
stepper motor drive. If the specification of (c) linear Interpolation
the motor is l deg/pulse, and the pitch of the (d) rapid feed
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06. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular and lead screw-nut mechanism (pitch = 4mm,
arc of radius 5, specified from P 1 (15,10) to number of starts = 1). The gear ratio = Output
P2 (10,15) will have its center at speed / input speed is given by U = 1/4,. The
(GATE-ME-04) stepper motor (driven by voltage pulses from a
(a) (10, 10) (b) (15, 10) pulse generator) executes 1 step / pulse of the
(c) (15, 1 5) (d) (10, 1 5) generator. The frequency of the pulse train from
the pulse generator is f = 10000 pulses per
07. Which among the NC operations give below minute.
are continuous path operations? Arc Welding
Pulse
(A W), Milling ( M), Drilling (D), Punching
Stepper
in Sheet Metal (P), L aser Cutting of Sheet motor
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23. Consider the following characteristics : 25. Match the following (GATE-PI-06)
(GATE-PI-OS) Group - I Group - II
1. Single machine tool. P. G0 8 1. Linear interpolation
2. Manual materials handling system. Q. G41 2. Acceleration
3. Computer control. 3. Circular interpolation
R. GOl
4. Random sequencing of part to machines.
S. G02 4. Cutter radius compensation
Which of the above characteristics are
associated with flexible manufacturing (a) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
system? (b) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(a) l , 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 (c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
24. Complete the manual part program for 26. In a CAD package, a point P (6 , 3, 1) is
drilling a hole located at point (20, 20) from
projected along a vector v (- 2, 1, - 1). The
the target point. The depth of the hole to be
projection of this point on X-Y plane will be
drilled is 15mm
(GATE-PI-07)
FROM /TARG
(a) (4, 4, 0 ) (b) ( 8, 2, 0 )
GOT0/20, 20, 0 (GATE-PI-06)
(c) (7, 4, 0 ) (d) ( 2, 5 , 0 )
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28. In a CNC feed drive, a stepper motor with
step angle of 1.8deg drives a lead screw with (b)
pitch of 2mm. The basic length unit (BLU)
for this drive is (GATE-PI-08) y
(a) 1Omicrons (b) 20microns
(c) 40microns (d) 100 microns
X
LNl
30. Suppose point Pl in AP T (Automatically (d)
statement
y
causmg error 1s
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32. A titanium sheet of 5.0mm thickness is cut 35. For the CNC part programmmg , match
by wire cut EDM process using a wire of Group A with Group B:
1.0mm diameter. A uniform spark gap of
0.5mm on both sides of the wire is Group A Group B
maintained during cutting operation. If the P: Circular interpolation, I: G02
feed rate of the wire into the sheet is counter clock wise
20mm /min, the material removal rate (in Q: Dwell II: G03
mm3 /min) will be (GATE-PI-09) R: Circular interpolation, III: G04
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400 clock wise
S: Point to point IV: GOO
33. For a 3-axes CNC table , the slide along the countering
vertical axis of the table driven by a DC (GATE-ME- 14-SET-2)
servo motor via lead screw nut mechanism.
(a) P- II , Q- III, R- I , S - IV
The lead screw has a pitch of 5mm. this lead
(b) P- I, Q - III , R - II, S - IV
screw is fitted with a relative (incremental )
(c) P - I , Q - IV, R - II, S - III
circular encoder. The basic length unit (BLU)
(d) P- II, Q - I, R - III, S - IV
of the slide along the vertical axis of the table
is 0.005mm. When the table moves along the
36. Each axis of NC machine is driven by a
vertical axis by 9mm. the corresponding
stepper motor drive with a lead screw. The
number of pulses generated by the encoder is
pitch of lead screw is p mm. The step angle
(GATE-Pl-10)
of stepper motor per pulse input is a
(a) 1400 (b) 1800 (c) 4200 (d) 9000
degrees /pulse. The ratio of gear drive in
stepper motor drive is g(number of turns of
34. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D
the motor for each single tum of the lead
point P(5,10) is to be obtained about a line
screw). The number of pulses required to
which passes through the origin and makes
achieve a linear movement of x mm is
an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X
(GATE-PI- 14)
axis. The coordinates of the transformed
360g
point will be (GATE-ME & PI- 13) (a)�x (b)
360p p
X
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37. A CNC instruction 091001X30Y40F100 1. Stretch in the y-axis
P. [�
commands the movement of tool along the . �]
path at a feed rate of 1OOmrn/min (091- 2. Uniform stretch in x and y-axis
Q. [� �]
incrememtal format and 001-linear
interpolation). The feed rate of the tool (in 3. Projection in x-axis
40. Match the linear transformation matrices rotated in the X-Y plane about the vertex P
by angle 0 in clockwise direction. If sin 0 =
interpretations in the second column. 0.6 and cos0 = 0.8, the new coordinates of
listed m the first column to their
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45. Circular arc on a part profile is being
y 4,5) machined on a vertical CNC milling
j\
machine. CNC part program using metric
units with absolute dimensions is listed
v
� ,3. )
5 5
below:
P(l ,3)
o�------
43. A point P( l , 3, -5) 1s translated by The coordinates of the centre of the circular
2i + 3j-4k and then rotated counter arc are: (GATE-17-SET-1)
(a) (30, 55) (b) (50, 55)
A A A
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: 853: Advanced Machining Methods
Addressable point
Distribution of
mechanical errors
n/2 n/2
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SOLUTIONS
06. Ans: (d)
One Mark Solutions Sol: In CAD practice an arc can be defined by
two ends points and center or center, one
01. Ans: (b) end point and angle of arc, or radius, two
Sol: In CNC part program, the number specified end points and angle etc.
after ' S' indicating the spindle speed in rpm
07. Ans: (c)
02. BATCH, LARGER Sol: In group technology lay out if each and
every cell is independently implemented
03. Ans: (b) with DNC +AGV. If flexible manufacturing
Sol: In PTP only end points of movement of tool system to be implemented in each cell
is important but the path followed by the called flexible manufacturing cell or cellular
tool in between the point is not important, manufacturing.
hence the velocity of tool need not be
controlled. 08. Ans: (a)
Sol: For producing complex shapes , it needs
04. simultaneous control of x, y and z axis.
Sol: TRUE, By using encoder positioned on the
axis the actual distance travelled by thee 09. Ans: (a)
axis can be measured accurately and given Sol: Producing a contour is the path function
it as feed back to the MCU so that MCU can
10. Ans: (b)
generate the pulses required for traveling
Sol: D.C servo motors are used as axial or
remaining distance
spindle drives of CNC machine tools.
2 1 . Ans: (c)
P(O, 0)
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: 856 : Production
MRR = f d .V
= 0. 1 5 X 2.5 X 1 50 x l Q3
= 56250mm3
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: 857 : Advanced Machining Methods
NOS XS Y5
YlO
(0 , 0) ( 5 0, 0)
D \)I N l O G02 X l O RS
C (5 5 ,-5) Because in CNC part program we are not
(-5 , -5)
suppose to indicate information about one
Path trajectory : A - B - C - D axis more than once in one block.
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: 858: Production
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. . . : 860 : Production
.. . l&pccrmg PnNnrioos
-:.�-�
.,
the motor
.·. /11eArea = �s(s-a)( s-b)(s-c)
1 rev. of the motor = £. mm
where s = --- = 2.073
g
g
a +b+c
1mm distance = rev of the motor 2
p Area = �2.073(2.073 - 1 .4 1 4)(2. 703 - 1)(2. 703 - 1 .732)
g 0.707
= x 360 degrees
p
=
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: 861 : Advanced Machining Methods
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: 862 : Production
®- - - - - - - - (50, 35)
(30,35)
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Non- Traditional
Machining Methods
05. In ultrasonic machining process, the material
One Mark Questions removal rate will be higher for material with
(GATE-ME-93)
0 1 . In ultrasonic machining the tool . . . . . . .. at (a) Higher toughness
very high frequency with the help of . . . . . . . . . . (b) Higher ductility
Transducers. (GATE-ME-87) (c) Lower toughness
(d) Higher fracture strain
02. ECM . . . . . . . (Can/Cannot) be used for all
such materials for which ultrasonic 06. EDM imposes larger forces on tool than
machining is possible, while EDM . . . . . . . . ECM (T/F) (GATE-ME-94)
(Can/Cannot) be used for all such materials
for which ECM is possible. 07. EDM is more efficient process than ECM for
(GATE-ME-87) producing large non-circular holes (T/F)
(GATE-ME-94)
03. In USM the metal removal rate
would. . . . . . . . . . . . with increasing mean grain
08. USM is about the best process for making
diameter of the abrasive material
holes in glass which are comparable in size
(GATE-ME-92)
(a) increase with thickness of the sheet. (True / False).
(b) decrease (GATE-ME-94)
(c) increase and then decrease
(d) decrease and then increase 09. Selection of electrolyte for ECM is as
follows (GATE-ME-97)
04. The two main criteria for selecting the (a) non-passivating electrolyte for stock
electrolyte in ECM is that the electrolyte removal and passivating electrolyte for
should (GATE-ME-92) finish control
(a) chemically stable (b) passivating electrolyte for stock removal
(b) not allow dissolution of cathode material and non-passivating electrolyte for finish
(c) not allow dissolution of anode material control
(d) have high electrical conductivity
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Production
(c) selection of electrolyte is dependent on 13. Deep hole drilling of small diameter, say
current density 0.2mm is done with EDM by selecting the
(d) electrolyte selection IS based on tool tool material as (GATE-ME-00)
work electrodes. (a) Copper wire
(b) Tungsten wire
1 0. Inter electrode gap in ECG is controlled by (c) Brass wire
(GATE-ME-97) (d) Tungsten carbide
(a) controlling the pressure of electrolyte
flow 14. In ECM the MRR is due to
(b) controlling the applied static load (GATE-ME-01)
(c) controlling the size of diamond particle (a) Corrosion (b) erosion
in the wheel (c) Fusion (d) Ion displacement
(d) controlling the texture of the work
15. As tool and work are not in contact in EDM
1 1 . In EDM, the tool is made of process (GATE-ME-03)
(GATE-ME-99) (a) no relative motion occurs between them
(a) Copper (b) HSS (b) no wear of tool occurs
(c) Cast iron (d) Plain carbon steel (c) no power is consumed during metal
cutting
12. Choose the correct statement (d) no force between tool and work occurs
(GATE-ME-99)
(a) Fixture is to guide the tool as well as to 16. When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block ,
locate and clamp the work piece the number of degrees of freedom which are
(b) Jig is to guide the tool as well as to arrested is (GATE-ME-03)
locate and clamp the work piece (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 8
(c) Jigs are used on CNC machines to locate
and clamp the work piece and guide the 17. The mechanism of material removal in EDM
tool process 1s
(d) No arrangement to guide the tool Is (a) Melting and Evaporation
(GATE-ME-04)
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: 865 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
18. Arrange the processes in the increasing order 23. Fixtures are used in batch production for
of their maximum material removal rate (GATE-PI-90)
(GATE-ME-06) (a) Clamping the job
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM (b) Supporting and clamping the job
(b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM (c) Supporting and clamping the job and
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM guiding the tool
(d) LBM, EBM, U SM, EDM, ECM (d) Supporting, locating and clamping the
job.
19. In EDM, if the thermal conductivity of tool is
high and the specific heat of work piece is 24. A 10 mm square hole can be cut in a 2mm
low, then the tool wear rate and material thick glass plate by (GATE-PI-91)
removal rate are expected to be respectively. (a) USM (b) EDM (c) LBM (d) ECM
(GATE-ME-07)
(a) high and high (b) low and low 25. The use of fixture reduces
(c) High and low (d) low and high (GATE-PI-91)
(a) Only operation time
20. In ultrasonic machining process, the material (b) Tooling cost
removal rate will be higher for material with (c) Only setting time
(GATE-ME-10) (d) Both setting time and operation
(a) Higher toughness
(b) Higher ductility 26. In PM process of manufacturing maximum
(c) Lower toughness temp is associated with (GATE-PI-91)
(d) Higher fracture strain (a) Briquetting (b) Sintering
2 1 . The operation in which oil is permeated into (c) Pre-sintering (d) Blending
the pores of a powder metallurgy product is
27. The process of shot peening increases fatigue
known as (GATE-ME-11)
life of steel springs mainly because it results
(a) mixing (b) sintering
(GATE-PI-91)
(c) impregnation (d) infiltration
m
(a) Hardening of surface
22. The maximum depth to width ratio in EBM (b) Increased stiffness of material
welding is (GATE-PI-89) (c) Compressive residual stresses.
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 10:1 (d) 25: 1 (d) Microstructural changes in material
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28. Electrochemical grinding removes material 33. Ultrasonic machines used m material
by . . . . . . A . . . . And . . . . . . B . . . processes. removal process, reqmres ultrasonic
(GATE-PI-92) transducers.
A. Electrochemical / Chemical The transducers work on different working
B. Mechanical / Chemical principles. One of the working principles of
such ultrasonic transducers is based on
29. Assertion (A): In electron beam welding
(GATE-PI-10)
process, vacuum 1s an essential process
(a) Eddy current effect
parameter.
(b) Seebeck effect
Reason (R): Vacuum provides a highly
(c) Piezoresistive effect
efficient shield on weld zone.
(d) Piezoelctric effect
(GATE-PI-05)
30. Arrange the processes in the increasing order 34. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, the
of their maximum material removal rate tool wear in electrical discharge machining
(GATE-PI-OS) (EDM) would be less if the tool material has
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM (GATE-PI-10)
(b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM (a) High thermal conductivity and high
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM specific heat
(d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM (b) High thermal conductivity and low
specific heat
3 1 . Which one of the following process (c) Low thermal conductivity and low
conditions leads to higher MRR in ECM? specific heat
(GATE-PI-07) (d) Low thermal conductivity and high
(a) Higher current, large atomic weight specific heat
(b) Higher valency, lower current
( c) Lower atomic weight, lower valency 35. In the 3 -2-1 principle of fixture design, 3
(d) Higher valency, lower atomic weight. refers to the number of (GATE-PI-13)
(a) clamps required
32. In an AJM process, if Q = flow rate abrasives
(b) locators on the primary datum face
and d = the mean diameter of the abrasives,
(c) degrees of freedom of the workplace
then MRR is proportional to
(d) operations carried out on the
(GATE-PI-07)
primary datum face
(a) Q/d 2
(b) Qd (c) Qd 2
(d) Qd3
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: 867 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
36 . In abrasive jet machining, as the distance 39. The principle of material removal in
between the nozzle tip and the work surface Electrochemical machining is
increases, the material removal rate. (GATE-ME- 14-SET-4)
(GATE-ME & PI- 12) (a) Fick's law (b) Faraday's laws
(c) Kirchhoffs laws (d) Ohm's law
(a) increases continuously
(b) decreases continuously
40. Find the correct combination of
(c) decreases, becomes stable and then
manufacturing processes to produce the part,
mcreases. shown in figure, from a blank (holes shown
(d) mcreases, becomes stable and then are with square and circular cross-sections).
deceases
hole of square cross section of 6 mm x 6 mm (a) Drilling and milling on column and knee
type universal milling machine
and 25 mm deep is
(b) Die-sinking and CNC Wire-cut EDM
(GATE-ME- 14-SET-2)
process
(a) Abrasive Jet Machining
(c) Die-sinking and CNC drilling
(b) Plasma Arc Machining
(d) CNC Wire-cut EDM process only
(c) Laser Beam Machining
(d) Electro Discharge Machining
41. The primary mechanism of material removal
38. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy in electrochemical machining (ECM) is
(GATE - 15-Set 2)
for removing material is
(a) chemical corrosion
(GATE-ME- 14-SET-3)
(b) etching
(a) Ultrasonic Machining
(c) ionic dissolution
(b) Electrochemical Machining
(d) spark erosion
(c) Abrasive Jet Machining
(d) Laser Beam Machining
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42. Which of the following DO NOT influence 45. In a wire-cut EDM process the necessary
the material removal rate in Electrical conditions that have to be met for making a
Discharge Machine process ? successful cut are that
(i) Hardness of work piece material (GATE - 16 - SET-3)
(ii) Melting temperature of work piece (a) wire and sample are electrically non-
material
conducting
(iii) Hardness of tool material
(b) wire and sample are electrically
(iv) Discharge current and frequency
conducting
, (GATE - PI -15)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) wire is electrically conducting and
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i),(ii) and (iii) sample electrically non-conducting
(d) sample is electrically conducting and
43. The non-traditional machining process that wire is electrically non-conducting
essentially requires vacuum is
(GATE - 16 - SET- 1) 46. Consider the following statements.
(a) electron beam machining (P) Electrolyte is used in Electro -chemical
(b) electro chemical machining
machining.
(c) electro chemical discharge machining
(Q) Electrolyte is used m Electrical
(d) electro discharge machining
discharge machining.
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: 869 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
47. Match
Process
characteristics.
the processes
Characteristics
with their
I Two Marks Questions I
P: Electrical Discharge 1 . No residual stress 01. In ECM , the material removal rate will be
Machining higher for metal with
Q . Ultrasonic 2. Machining of electrically (GATE-ME-89)
(a) large density
Machining conductive materials
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04. 3-2-1 method of location m Jig or fixture 3. Electric Discharge Machining
would collectively restrict the work piece in 4. Ultrasonic Machining
'n' degrees of freedom, where the value of 5. Laser beam Machining
'n' is (GATE-ME-01) 6. Electrochemical Grinding
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12 (a) P-1,Q-5,R-3, S-4 (b) P-1,Q-4,R-1, S-2
(c) P-5,Q-1,R-2, S-6 (d) P-2,Q-3,R-5, S-6
05. Estimate the MRR (in cc /hr) of an alloy
containing 18% cobalt, 62% nickel and 20% 07. A zigzag cavity in a block of high strength
chromium during ECM with a current of alloy is to be finish machined.
500Amps. The density of the alloy is This can be carried out by using
8.28g /cc. The following data is available (GATE-ME-05)
(GATE-ME-02)
Gram atomic
Metal Valency
weight
Cobalt 58.93 2
(a) Electric discharge machining
Nickel 58.71 2
(b) Electro-chemical machining
Chromium 51.99 6
(c) Laser beam machining
Assume Faraday's constant as 96500
(d) Abrasive flow machining
coulombs /mole.
material removal
(b) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S- 1
Job
(a) 0.347 1 (b) 3.47 1
(c) 34.7 1 (d) 347. 1
1 . Making a printed circuit board
1 1 . Match the following non-traditional 2. Drilling a hole in glass plate
machining processes with the corresponding 3 . Making a die out of a die-steel block
material removal mechanisms: 4. Cutting a polyester sheet
(GATE-ME-11)
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: 872 : Production
(GATE-PI-91)
(a) density of work material
(b) gram atomic weight of the work materia
A. Explosive welding
(c) concentration of the electrolyte used
(d) thermal conductivity of the work B. brazing
material C. Thermit welding
D. manual metal arc welding
1 7. Process Properties of work material
(GATE-PI-91) 1 . Liquid state
A. Casting 1 . Ductility 2. Solid state
B. Forging 2. Malleability 3. Solid-liquid state
C. Wire drawing 3 . Machinability 4. Liquid state chemical
D. Turning 4. Fluidity
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'!i � : 873 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
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22. Electrical switches made out of thermostats 26. Match the following: (GATE-PI-93)
materials are produced by (GATE-PI-92) 1 . Masking
(a) compression molding 2. Stamping die
(b) transfer molding 3. Engraving
(c) injection molding 4. Stainless steel profiling
(d) vacuum molding 5. Drilling fine holes
A. Abrasive jet machining
23. Products (GATE-PI-92) B. PAM
A. Porous bearings C. Wire EDM
B. Fly wheels D. Chemical machining
C. Double end spanners
D. Plastic bottles 27. Match the following: (GATE-PI-93)
Manufaduring process A. Stamping die plate 1 . EDM
1 . Powder metallurgy 2. Casting B. Gas turbine blades 2. LBM
3. Closed die forging 4. Blow molding C. Twist drill 3. ECM
D. Carbide tool inserts 4. EBM
24. Manufacturing process Property E. Hole in a ceramic plate 5. ECG
(GATE-PI-93) 6. Friction welding
A. Cold rolling 1 . Machinability 7. Wire EDM
B. Milling 2. Weldability 8. USM
C. Brazing 3 . Ductility 9. Ultrasonic welding
D. Powder metallurgy 4.Tensile strength
5.Compact ability 28. Match the following: (GATE-PI-95)
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29. Match the following: (GATE-PI-95) (a) A-4, B-2, C- 1 , D-3
A. Rail sections 1 . Powder metallurgy (b) A-4, B-2 , C-3 , D- 1
B. Platic sheets 2. Rolling (c) A-2, B-4, C- 1 , D-3
C. Allen bolts 3. Cold forming (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D- 1
D. Porous bearing 4. Transfer molding
5. Calendering 32. Requirement in the design of jigs and
6. Injection molding fixtures Recommended device
P: Heavy clamping force on the work piece
30. Process Mechanism of material removal Q: Clamping on rough surfaces of work
(GATE-PI-03) piece
P EDM 1 . Erosion R: Four work pieces in a line to be
Q ECM 2. Thermal evaporation machined
R AJM 3. Anodic dissolution S: Drilling and reaming of work piece in
4. Etching one
p Q R p Q R 1: Clamp with a floating pad
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 2: Slip renewable bush
(c) 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 3: Indexing bush Machined in one loading
4: Equalizing clamp
3 1 . Match list - I (material) with list - II
5: Strap clamp Loading (GATE-PI-04)
(machining) and select the correct answer
suing the code given below the lists (a) P-5,Q- 1 ,R-4,S-2 (b) P- 1 ,Q-4,R-5,S-3
(GATE-PI-04) (c) P-5,Q- 1 ,R-2,S-3 (d) P-4,Q-5,R-3,S-2
List - I
A. machining of conductive material 33. Mechanism of Material Removal Process
B. ruby rod (GATE-PI-05)
C. electrolyte P: Abrasive grain throwing and hammerin
D. abrasive slurry Q: Erosion due to vaporization
R: Chipping and erosion
List - II
S: Melting and partial vaporization
1 . ECM
T: Electrolysis
2. EDM
3 . USM 1 - ECM 2 - USM 3 - PAM
4. LBM 4 - EDM 5 - AJM
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: 875 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
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(a) P-4, Q -3, R-1, S-2 of 2000 A with 90 % current efficiency, the
(b) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 expected material removal rate in gm /s will
(c) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 be (GATE-ME & PI-13)
(d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (a) 0.11 (b) 0.23 (c) 0.30 (d) 0.52
38. Match the following: (GATE-PI-11) 41. A hard ceramic marble, having density( p ) of
Type of material Name of material 3000 kg /m3 and diameter(d) of 0.025m, is
1. Thermoplastic P. SiAloN
dropped accidentally from a static weather
2. Thermosets Q. Polyvinylchloride
balloon at a height of 1 km above the roof of
3. Elastomers R. Epoxy
a greenhouse. The flow stress of roof
4. Ceramics S. Latex
(a) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P material ( cr) is 2.5GPa. The marble hits and
machined by the ECM process at the current (c) 7.5 (d) 10.0
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ACE
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usmg (GATE-PI-89)
(a) Fixed rectangular block and movable
V-clamp.
Work-piece (Iron) (b) Fixed V-block and movable rectangular
block
(GATE-16-SET-2)
(c) Fixed V-block and movable V-block for
making axial hole in vertical drilling
44. An electron beam welding process uses 15
mA beam current at an accelerating voltage machine of the diameter of the work
. . .
of 150 kV. The energy released per second piece 1s given as 60 +O·05 _ o.oo mm and
by the beam (in J) is ___ (up to one included angle ofV-block 120degrees.
decimal place). Calculate the positional error of the hole in
(1 Ampere = 6.28 x 10 electrons per 18
each case. Also recommend the choice of
second , 1 eV = 1.6 x 10- 19 J) location for fixture design.
(GATE-PI- 17)
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02. Fig shows a jig plate with two holes. The true (a) calculate the magnitude of the clamping
position coordinate dimensions and force
positional tolerance call outs are indicated in (b) direction of the clamping force with
the fig. determine the mm1mum and respect to vertical axis of symmetry
maximum center distance between the holes. (c) position (A) with respect to the vertical
(GATE-PI-90) axis of symmetry.
u 0
+-20
of 4mm thickness and block Q 3mm
thickness and placed on the V-faces of the
block and then the job is located and
clamped, what is the eccentricity achieved.
ALL DIMENSIONS IN MM For a same eccentricity of block of identical
thickness used on either face, what should be
03. A square block is located on 3 pins (two on the thickness of block used ? which of the
one side and the one on the second side) as two methods are selected and why.
indicated in fig. If the reactions on the pins (GATE-PI-93)
are to be the same as 1OO Kgs after clamping
from the top side. (GATE-PI-92)
Clamp
1 00
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Statement for Linked Answer Q OS & Q 06 05. The for one cycle, in milliseconds , is
In an EDM process using RC relaxation circuit, a (a) 0.55 (b) 0.32
1 2mm diameter through hole is made in a steel (c) 0.89 (d) 0.24
plate of 50mm thickness using a graphite tool and
kerosene as dielectric . assume discharge time to 06. Average power input (in kW) is
be negligible. Machining is carried out under the (a) 0.373 (b) 0.1 37
following conditions. (c) 0.218 (d) 0.5
Resistance = 40 n,
Capacitance = 20 µF
Supply voltage = 220V,
Discharge voltage = 1 1 OV
(GATE-PI-12)
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SOLUTIONS
06.
One Mark Solutions Sol: FAL SE, In EDM the mechanism of material
removal is by melting and vaporization
01. associated with cavitation and ECM it is by
Sol: Tool is vibrate, piezoelectric. ion displacement.
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: 881 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
z
f7, 2
particles which intern produces impact on
work , if the work is brittle (low toughness
work) ,the brittle fractures will takes place.
Four rotary motions and three
2 1. Ans: (d)
linear motions are arrested
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: 882 : Production
�r
becomes easier.
32. Ans: (d)
26. Ans: (b)
Sol: Sintering is the last operation in powder Sol: MRR = K Q. d 3 v ½ (
2
metallurgy in which the compacted part will
Q = Flow rate of abrasives,
be heated to a high temp which is less than
d = mean diameter
the MP of the powders used.
V = Velocity of abrasives,
Ans: (c)
I = density
27.
H = Hardness of work material.
28. Ans:
33. Ans: (d)
Sol: ELECTROCHEMICAL, and
34. Ans: (a)
Sol: As the thermal conductivity of tool material
MECHANICAL
Sol:
30. Ans: (b)
Sol: Out of all the NTM's EDM will give large
MRR and EBM will give very small MRR.
___. Tip distance
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: 883 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
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: 884 : Production
Ans: (d)
Two Marks Solutions
06.
Ans: (a)
MRR oc Thermal conduction of electrolyte.
08.
Ans: (c)
MRR = 50 mm3/sec
04.
A2 = 24, Z2 = 4, I = 2000A
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�.....��Pnbticdioos
ACE
Non Traditional Machining Methods
" V • • • •
� : 885:
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: 886 : Production
3000
= 1 000 X 0.025 X 1 4 1 .42 = (55.85 x 1 0 00) I (7860 x 1 0"6 x
2 X 96540 X 30 X 30)
5
6 X 2.5 X 1 0
1.58mm = 0.04089 mm /sec = 2.453mm /min.
=
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: 887 : Non Traditional Machining Methods
0 .
2
Sol: The theoretical center distance
Clamping force .J
Between holes = 40 2 + 0 2 = 50 = C 3
40
30
Fixed V - block and movable rectangular
·i2 ·i3
(b)
) = 49.975 mm
block 0 0
cm in = 50 - ( +
cmax = 50 + (
0
·i2 ·i3
+
0
) = 50.0 5 mm2
�Clamping
0 .
3
Sol: Resolving the force "F" into Horizontal
F sina = 1 00 --------------------- ( 1 )
30 F cos a = 1 00 + 1 00 = 00 ------( )
x1 = -- = 3 4.64
Sin 60
2 2
1 00
.Q2 = tan a =
0.0
X2 = 3 2 5 = 34.66 (2) 200
Sin 60
Positional error X2 - X 1 = 0.0 98mm = 2 a = tan - 1 (�) = 26.565
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: 888 : Production
ACE
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sm a
05. Ans: (a)
Taking the moments about vertical axis
X.F Cos a + l OO x 30 = 100 x 30 + 100 x 20 06. Ans: (c)
X = 10 mm. Sol: D = 12mm , t = 50mm, R = 40 n,
C = 20 µF, Vs = 220V, Vd = 110V
04.
V
Sol: Cycle time = R.C In [ s ] = tc
vs - vd
220
40 x20x10--6 x In [- ]
110
=
= 218 W = 0.218 kW
V-block
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Page No. 889
I M (Questions)
& OR
Page No. 890
CONTENTS
-=---------=---=-==----
----=-===-==---=--=--=- --==-=---==-=- -- - - - - - -�- �
01. If at the optimum in a linear programming 01. A manufacturer produces two types of
problem, a dual variable corresponding to a products, 1 and 2, at production levels of x 1
particular primal constraint is zero, then it and x2 respectively. The profit is given is
means that (GATE-ME-96) 2x 1 + 5x 2 • The production constraints are
(a) Right hand side of the primal constraint x 1 + 3x 2 � 40
can be altered without affecting the
3x 1 + x 2 � 24
optimum solution
x 1 + x 2 �10
(b) Changing the right hand side of the
primal constraint will disturb the x , > O, X 2 > 0
optimum Solution The maximum profit which can meet the
(c) The objective function is unbounded constraints is (GATE-ME-03)
(d) The problem is degenerate (a) 29 (b) 38 (c) 44 (d) 75
02. Simplex method of solving linear 02. A company produces two types of toys: P
programming problem uses and Q. Production time of Q is twice that of
(GATE-ME-10) P and the company has a maximum of 2000
(a) all the points in the feasible region time units per day. The supply of raw
(b) only the comer points of the feasible material is just sufficient to produce 1 500
region toys(of any type) per day. Toy type Q
(c) intermediate points within the infeasible requires an electric switch which is available
region @ 600 pieces per day only. The company
(d) only the interior points in the feasible makes a profit of Rs. 3 and Rs. 5 on type P
region. and Q respectively. For maximization of
profits, the daily production quantities of P
and Q toys should respectively be
(GATE-ME-04)
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(a) 100, 500 (b) 500, 1000 05. After introducing slack variables s and t, the
(c) 800, 600 (d) 1000, 1000 initial basic feasible solution is represented
by the table below (basic variables are s = 6
Common Data for Question 03 & 04 and t = 6, and the objective function value is
Consider a linear programming problem with two 0). (GATE-ME-08)
variables and two constraints. The objective
-4 -6 0 0 0
function is: Maximize X I + x2 .The comer points
s 3 2 1 0 6
of the feasible region are (0,0), (0,2), (2,0) and
t 2 3 0 1 6
(4 /3, 4 /3).
X y s t RHS
0 0 0 2 12
(GATE-ME-05)
Common Data for Question 05 & 06 06. The dual for the LP is (GATE-ME-08)
Consider the Linear programme (LP) (a) Zmin = 6u + 6v (b) Zmax = 6u + 6v
Max 4x + 6y subject to subject to
Subject to 3u + 2v 2 4 3u + 2v � 4
3x + 2y :::; 6 2u + 3v 2 6 2u + 3v � 6
2x + 3y :::; 6 U,V 20 U,V 20
x, y 2: 0
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: 893 : Linear Programming
�Pnblirarinns
ACE
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(c) Zmax = 4u + 6v (d) Zmax = 4u + 6v 09. The manufacturer can make a maximum
subject to subject to profit of Rs.
3u + 2v 2 6 3u + 2v :S 6 (a) 60000 (b) 135000
2u + 3v 26 2u + 3v :S 6 (c) 150000 (d) 200000
u, v 2 0 V20
10. A linear programmmg problem 1s shown
U ,
product P1 and P2 are Rs. 2000 and Rs. 3000 The maximum value of the objective
respectively. The manufacturer has 90 kg of function is ---- (GATE-ME-14)
resource R1 and 100 kg of resource R2.
(GATE-ME-11) 12. For the linear programming problem:
Maximize Z=3x1+2x2
08. The unit worth of resource R2. i.e. dual price
Subject to -2x1+3x2 :S 9
X1-5X2 2-20
of resource R2 i n Rs. per kg i s
(a) 0 (b) 1350
(c) 1500 (d) 2000 XJ , X2 2 0
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ACE : 894 : IM & OR
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The above problem has (GATE-15-Set 3) The profit per unit on parts I and II are Rs.40
(a) Unbounded solution and Rs. 100, respectively. The maximum
(b) Infeasible solution profit per week of the firm is Rs _____
(c) Alternative optimum solution
(d) Degenerate solution
Type of Machining Maximum
machine time required machining time
13. The value of (x1, x2) for an optimal solution
for the available per
for
machine part week(minutes)
Minimize Z= 6x1 -8x2
(minutes)
subject to : 5x1+10x2 s 30
I II
4x1+4x2 s 20 Turning 12 6 6000
XJ � 0, X2 � 0 IS
Center
(GATE - PI-15) Milling 4 10 4000
(a) (0,0) (b) (1,6) (c) (0,3) (d) (3,7) Center
Grinding 2 3 1800
14. Maximize Z= 15X1 + 20X2 Machine
Subject to
(GATE- 16 - SET-3)
12X1 + 4X2 � 36
12X1 - 6X2 s 24
16. Two models, P and Q, of a product earn
X1, X2 � 0
profits of Rs. 100 and Rs. 80 per piece,
The above linear programming problem has
respectively. Production time for P and Q
(GATE - 16- SET- 1)
are 5 hours and 3 hours, respectively, while
(a) infeasible solution
the total production time available is 150
(b) unbounded solution
hours. For a total batch size of 40, to
(c) alternative optimum solutions
maximize profit, the number of units of P to
(d) degenerate solution
be produced is ____
(GATE- 17 - SET- 1)
15. A firm uses a turning center, a milling center
and a grinding machine to produce two parts.
17. Maximize Z = 5x 1 + 3x2
The table below provides the machining time
subject to + 2x2 S 10,
required for each part and the maximum
8'
X1
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ACE : 895 : Linear Programming
':.•.� F..,.,.,..PoNn4nw
" V • • • •
In the starting simplex tableau, x 1 and x2 are 02. A furniture manufacturer produces chairs and
non-basic variables and the value of Z is tables. The wood-working department is
zero. The value of Z in the next simplex capable of producing 200 chairs or 1 00 tables
tableau is-----
or any proportionate combinations of these
(GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
per week. The weekly demand for chairs and
tables is limited to 1 50 and 80 units
respectively. The profit from a chair is Rs.
Five Marks Questions
1 00 and that from a table is Rs. 300.
(GATE-ME-02)
01 . Solve the following linear programmmg (a) Set up the problem as a linear program
problem by simplex method (b) Determine the optimum product mix for
(GATE-ME-00) maximizing the profit.
(c) What is the maximum profit?
(d) If the profit of each table drops to Rs.
200 per unit, what is the optimal mix and
(a) What ts the solution to the above profit?
problem?
(b) Add the constraint x2 � 2 to the simplex
table of part (a) and find the solution.
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SOLUTIONS
+ X2 � 1 0 ; -
X1
+ 2 � 1 . . . (3)
X
10 10
X1
One Mark Solutions
> 0 ; X2 > 0
X1
0 1 . Ans: (a) Optimal point A
Sol: Intersection of (2) and(3) equations, solving
(i) Shadow Price of Primal is solution of Dual. them x 1 = 7; x2 = 3 .
(ii) Shadow Price zero Signifies un-utilised Zmax = 2 X 7 + 5 X 3 = 29
resource.
02. Ans: (c)
02. Ans: (b) Sol: Let, P type toys produced = x ,
Q type toys produced = y
j Two Marks Solutions
p Q
0 1 . Ans: (a) Time 1 2 2000
Sol: Raw material 1 1 1 500
40 Electric switch - 1 600
30 Profit 3 5
20
X y
10
Zmax = 3x + 5y
x_ + _L_ =s; l
x + 2y =s; 2000 '· _2000 1 000
x Y
x + y � 1 500 . __ + __ � l
' 1 500 1 500
y � 600 . _r___ <
x 1 + 3x2 � 40 ; - + 2 � 1 . . .(1) ' 600 - l
X1 X
40 40
3 x, y � O
+ X2 � 24 ; - Zmax = 3x + 5y
+ -.-2 � 1 . . . . (2)
X1 X
8 24
3X 1
ZA = 3 x 1 500 + 5 x O = 4500
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: 897 : Linear Programming
ZB = 3 x O + 5 x 600 = 3000 8
Zc = -
Zc = 3 x 1 000 + 5 x 500 = 5500 3
Zo = 3 800 + 5 600 5400
Optimal at (c) (; ; ;)
x x =
y
2000 By adding a new constraint solution space
does not change.
Hence Ans: (� ; ;)
ZB = 2 Zmin = 6u + 6v
u 3 2 6
Subject to
(0,5)
3u + 2v z 4 V 2 3 6
2u + 3v z 6
4 6
u, v :2: 0
A (5,0)
(2,0)
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: 898 : IM & OR
1 00 50
X
B(0,6) 6 a&-.,....��----
4 x , y 2: 0 x , y 2: 0
2 y
2 4 6 8 10 x,
A(4,0) 50
B(O, 45)
Subjected to
x, � 4
X2 �6 A(30, 0) 1 00
3x,+ 2x2 � 1 8
Zmax = 2000x+3000y
x,2:: O; X2 2:: 0
Comer points satisfying both the constraints
Zmax = 3x, + 2x2
are A(30 , 0) B(O, 45).
Zo = O
Z A =2000 X 30 + 3000 X 0
ZA = 3 x 4 + 2 x O = 1 2
Zs = 3 x O + 2 x 6 = 1 2 60,000/-
=
Za = 2000 x O + 3000 x 45
Zc = 3 6 = 18 } Multiple solutions
x 2+2 x
= 1 ,35,000/-
Z0 = 3 x 4 + 2 x 3 = 1 8
Solution is optimal at B ; x = 0 ; y = 45
08. Ans: (a)
09. Ans: (b)
3x + 2y + S 1 = 90 ; 3 x O + 2 x 45 + S 1 = 90
Sol: => S 1 = 0 i. e., R 1 resource is fully utilized.
x + 2y + S 2 = 100 ; 0 + 2 x 45 + S 2 = 1 00
=> S 2 = 1 0
P1 P2 Availability
R1 3 2 90
i.e., R2 resource is unutilized at optimality.
R2 1 2 1 00
2000 3000 Hence dual price of R2 is zero.
Profit per
unit
y
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ACE
"•t"'Ii'....:..-:.... P.iNiratiooa : 899 : Linear Programming
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10. Ans: (b) Z (x1 ,x2)=3x1+9x2
Sol: Subject to
4 Xt + X2 � 8
Xt + 2X2 � 4
3
Zmax = 3x+7y
Xt � 0, X2 � 0
s.t 2
C (0, 4/3) �+� � 1
3x+7y � 1 0 I 8 8
4x+6y� 8 �+� � 1
4 4 2
x,y � O
Z = 3x 1 +9x2
X y
-+-� 1 Z = (3x0) + (9x0) = 0
10 -
- 10
3 7 ZA = (3x4) + (9x0) = 1 2
X y Zs = (3x0) + (9x2) = 1 8
-+- � 1
2 4/3 X J = 0, X2 = 2 , Zmax = 1 8.
Sol: Z max=3x1+2x2
ZA = 3x0+7x0 = 0
Zs = 3 x2+7x0 = 6
4 28
Zc = 3 x0+ 7 x - = - = 9.33
3 3
Optimal at 'C' unique solution.
1 1 . Ans: 18
Sol:
X2
6 Unbounded
Solution
4
2 20 10
B(0,2)
:. Unbounded optimal solution to the problem.
(0,0) 2 4 6 8
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: 900 : IM & OR
�+� s l X1 = 0 , X2 = 3
6 3 Zmin = 6x1 -8x2
= 6x0 - 8x3= -24
Zmin = -24
5 Subjected to
4 12X1 + 4X2 2: 36
12X1 - 6X2 :S 24
B(0,3)
3
2 X 1, X2 2: 0 ,
0
X, X 2
(0,0) 2 3 4 5A 6 x,
+ =1
3 9
(5,0)
20x2 = 20
5
4
=> x2 = 1
A (2.6, 1.2 ) ;
3
4x1 + 4x2 = 20
2
B (3, 0)
4x1 + 4x l 20
C (0, 9) ;
=
4x1 16
-1
D (2, 0) ;
= -2
=> XJ = 4
-3
E (0 , -4) -4
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: 901 : Linear Programming
4x = 1 500
MIC MIC
= 1 500 = 375
I II X
Zmax = 40 X + 1 00 y 1 000
Subject to 800
1 2x + 6y � 6000,
600
4 x + 1 Oy � 4000 C(0,400)
2x + 3y � 1 800 400
x, y 2: 0 200
�+- Y- � 1
500 1 000 A(O,O)
200 400
-X
-+-y
�1 8(500,0)
1 000 400
ZA = O
�+l � 1
900 600 Z 8 = 40 x 500 + 1 00 x O = 20,000
1 2x + 6y = 6000 Zc = 40 x O + 1 00 x 400 = 40,000
4x + l Oy = 4000 Optional at (D) & (C)
1 2x + 6y = 6000
1 2x + 30y = 1 2000
- 24y = -6000
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: 902 : IM & OR
16. Ans: 15 + 25 = 40
Sol: = 15
X
17. Ans: 40
� + L =1 Sol: Max z = 5x1+3x2
30 50
Subject to x1+2x2 :s; 10 ,
y
+- = l X1 - X2 :s; 8 , XJ, X2 � 0
-
40 40
X
X1 + 2x2 + S1 = 10
X1 - X2 + S2 = 8
y
50
40 cj � 5 3 0 0 Bo Min ratio
30
20
sv-!- X1 X2 S1 S2
10 OS 1 1 2 1 0 10 1 0/ 1
OS2 1 (PE) -1 0 1 8 8/ 1
O(O ,O) 1 0 20 30 4 0 5 0 -+
x
� LV
A(30,0)
zJ 0 0 0 0 0
5x+3y = 150 Ci - Zi 5 3 0 0
+ y = 40 t (EV)
= 40- y
X
OS 1
5 (4 0 - y) + 3 y = 1 5 0
X
5x1 1 -1 0 1 8
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Zmax = 4 X1 + 6 X2 + X3 + 0 S1 + 0 S2
z·1 0 0 0 0 0 t EV
Cj - Zj 4 1 0
Cj � 4 6 1 0 0 Bo mm
s v -!.. x, X2 X3 s, S2 Ratio
4 x1 1 0 3/2 1/2 1/2 7/2
6 X2 0 1 0 0 1 2
Entering vector exists but leaving vector z·1 4 6 6 2 8 26
Cj - Zj 0 0 - 5 -2 -8
doesn't exist as minimum ratio column is
having negative values. It is a case of
= 26;
½; X2 = 2 ; X3 = 0
Zmax
unbounded solution space and unbounded
X1 =
optimal solution to problem.
Zmax = 4 X 1 + 6 X2 + X3 02 .
s.t 2x 1 - x2 + 3x3 s 5 Sol: x + 2y s 200 ; � + L s 1 . . . . ( 1 )
X2 S 2
200 1 00
X1 X2 X3 � 0 X S 1 50 ; . . . . (2)
1 50
�sl
2 X 1 - X2 + 3 X3 + S 1 = 5
X2 + S2 = 2
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"� " . ACE . . . IM & OR
�-�1.:,..,.,,.. Pntirwn : 904 :
y � 80 ; L �1 . . . (3)
80
Zmax = l OOx + 300y
Comer Point of Solution space are ZA = 1 00 x 1 50 + 300 xO = 1 5,000
0(0, 0) ; A(1 50, 0) ; B(1 50 , 25) ; Zs = 1 00 x 1 50 + 300x 25 = 22500
C(80, 60) ; D(O , 80) Zc = 1 00 x 80 + 300 x 60 = 26000
Zmax = 1 OOx + 300y Zo = 1 00 x O + 300 x 80 = 24000
Zo = l OOxO + 300xO = 0 Zmax = 26000 at x = 80 y = 60 optimal at C
y
1 50 If Zmax = 1 OOx + 200y
Zmax = 1 00 X 80 + 200 X 60
1 00 Zc = 20, 000
D .,____,.�.-------li--
1 50 x 1 00 + 250 x 200=20,000/
Zs =
50
The problem has multiple solutions
50 1 00 200
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c2 PERT & CPM
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IM & OR
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".� :n11�1�N ��:
(a) between 1 8, 1 9 day
Two Marks Questions (b) between 20, 22 days
(c) between 24, 26 days
0 I . In the construction of networks, dummy (d) between 60, 70 days
activities are introduced in order to:
(GATE-ME-90) 04. A project has six activities (A to F) with
(a) Compute the slack on all events respective activity durations 7, 5, 6, 6, 8, 4
(b) Transfer resources, if necessary, during days. The network has three paths A-B, C-D
monitoring and E-F. All the activities can be crashed
(c) Clearly designate a precedence with the same crash cost per day. The
relationship number of activities that need to be crashed
(d) Simplify the crashing plan to reduced the project duration by 1 day is
(GATE-ME-OS)
02. A project consists of three parallel paths with (a) l (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
durations and variances of ( 1 0,4), ( 1 2,4)
and(l 2,9) respectively. According to the Statement for Linked Answer QOS & Q06
standard PERT assumptions, the distribution Consider a PERT network for a project involving
of the project duration is (GATE-ME-02) six tasks (a to f)
(a) Beta with mean 1 0 and standard deviation 2. Task Predecessor Expected Variance of
(b) Beta with mean 12 and standard deviation 2. task time the task time
(c) Beta with mean 10 and standard deviation 3. (in days) ( in days2)
(d) Beta with mean 12 and standard deviation 3. a - 30 25
b a 40 64
03. A project consists of activities A to M shown C a 60 81
in the net in the following figure with the d b 25 9
duration of the activities marked in days. e b, c 45 36
The project can be completed f d, e 20 9
(GATE-ME03)
05. The expected completion time of the projects
IS (GATE-ME-06)
(a) 238 days (b) 224 days
(c) 1 7 1 days (d) 1 55 days
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4 ==================================
06. The standard deviation of the critical path of The optimistic time, most likely time and
the project is (GATE-ME-06) pessimistic time of all the activities are given in
(a) .Jisi days (b) .Jiss days the table below:
�
O' ""
Activity
(�)'
T0 + 4T. +T,
6 6
1 -2 1 2 3 2 1/3 1/9
07. For the network below, the objective is to 1 -3 5 6 7 6 1/3 1/9
find the length of the shortest path from node 1 -4 3 5 7 5 2/3 4/9
2-5 5 7 9 7 2/3 4/9
P to node G. Let dij be the length of directed
3-5 2 4 6 4 2/3 4/9
are from node i to node j . Let Sj be the length 5-6 4 5 6 5 1 /3 1/9
of the shortest path from P to node j . Which 4-7 4 6 8 6 2/3 4/9
6-7 2 3 4 3 1 /3 1/9
of the following equations can be used to
find so? (GATE-ME-OS)
---------:)41o---�e..:Q
08. The critical path duration of the network (in
p days) is (GATE-ME-09)
(a) 1 1 (b) 1 4 (c) 1 7 (d) 1 8
R
09. The standard deviation of the critical path is
(GATE-ME-09)
(a) so = Min{sQ, S R}
(b) so = Min { SQ-doo , SR - dRo}
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.55 (c) 0.77 (d) 1 .66
(c) so = Min{SQ+<lQo , S R + dRo}
(d) So = Min{doo, dRo} 1 0. The project activities, precedence
relationships and durations are described in
Common Data for Question 08 & 09 the table. The critical path of the project is
Consider the following network (GATE-ME-10)
Duration
Activity Precedence
(in days)
p - 3
Q - 4
R p 5
s Q 5
T R,S 7
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908 & OR
�:��:
b a 4 shown below.
C a 5 Normal
d a 4
Cost slope
Activity duration Predecessor
(Rs./day)
e b 2
(days)
f d 9
p 3 - 500
7 p
g c,e
Q 1 00
6 R 4 p 400
h f,g 2 s 5 R 200
12. If the duration of activity "f "alone is numbers along various activities represent
changed from 9 to 10 days, then the the normal time. The free float on activity
(GATE-ME-12) 4-6 and the project duration, respectively, are
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: 909 : PERT CPM
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ACE : 910: IM & OR
.. " .. ==========================================
20. A project starts with activity A and ends
with activity F. The precedence relation and
durations of the activities are as per the
following table:
Activity Immediate Duration
predecessor (days)
A - 4
(GATE - 16- SET 2) B A 3
C A 7
19. Consider a network with nodes 1, 2, 3 , 4, 5 D B 14
and 6. The nodes are connected with directed E C 4
arcs as shown in the table below. The F D,E 9
respective costs (in INR) incurred while
traversing the directed arcs are also The minimum project completion time (in
mentioned. days) is ___
Directed arcs Cost (in INR) (GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
6 (i.e. the path that has the second least total The time required (in days) to complete the
cost and does not use any part of the shortest project along the critical path is ___
path) has a total cost (in INR) of (GATE-PI - 17)
(GATE - PI- 16)
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 1 5 (d) 1 9
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: 91 1 : PERT CPM
2 None
A - IO 2
- B
C 7 A
B 5 1
C A
12 A
16 2
D A 12 2 D
10
E B,C 15 1
E B
(i) Draw the project network in activity on F 3
D, E
arc mode G 4 C, F
(ii) Under PERT assumptions, determine the (a) Construct a PERT network
distribution of project duration. (b) Find the critical path and estimate the
project duration. (GATE-ME-97)
02. A project with the following data is to be
(GATE-ME-95)
04. Given below are the data for a project
(GATE-ME-00)
implemented:
network.
Activity Predecess Duration Cost
Immediately
ors (s) (days) (Rs/day) Activity Duration
preceding
A - 2 50
A -- 3
B - 4 50 ---
B 5
C A 1 40 C A, B 5
D B 2 1 00 D A 4
E A, B 3 1 00 E C, D 4
F E 2 60 F A 4
(a) What is the mm1mum duration of the G A, B 6
project? (a) Draw the network for the above project
(b) Draw a Gantt chart for the early capturing the precedence relationships.
schedule (b) Find the critical path and its duration.
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: 912: IM & OR
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SOLUTIONS
04. Ans: (c)
One Mark Solutions Sol:
Path Duration
0 1 . Ans: (c) 02. Ans: (a) AB 7+5= 1 2
CD 6+6=1 2
03. Ans: (b) 04. Ans: (a) EF 8+4=1 2
� � ======================================
• • • •
: �Pww:aiooa
Path Duration
abegh 3 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 2 =17
a cg h 3 + 5 + 6 + 2 =16
adfh 3 + 4 + 9 -l- 2 = 18 � critical path
Path Duration
Longest path = a d f h =18 days
1-2 -5-6-7 2+7+5+3= 17
1-3-5-6-7 6+4+5+3 = 18�Critical Path
12. Ans: (a)
1-4-7 5+6 = 11
Sol: Activity "f' is on critical path and its
duration is changed from 9 days to 10 days
Standard Deviation,
hence the duration of critical path changes
1 4 1 1
- + - + - + - = 0.77 to 19 days.
9 9 9 9
crcp =
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ACE
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� �=� ====� ==================================
Critical path is 12 days 14. Ans: (a)
TC = Total Cost for 12 days Sol:
( TC)1 2 = Normal Cost + Overhead Cost
= 10,000 +(12x200) = 12,400 3 3 3
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916 · IM & OR
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17. Ans: 39 to 40
Sol:
Paths Duration
1-3-5-6 1 2+ 1 1 + 1 0=33
Paths Duration 1-2-5---0 14+ 1 2+ 1 0=36
1-4-5 3+4=7 1-2-4-5---0 14+7+9+ 1 0=40(CP)
1-4-3-5 3+3+2=8
Critical Duration = 40 days
1-2-3-5 2+1 +2=5
Longest path = minimum time for completion.
1-2-5 2+3 =5
18. Ans: 14
Sol:
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From the given statement, we got shortest
path (least total cost) is 1-2-5-6 and a path Paths Duration
which does not have 1 -2, 2-5, 5-6 activities A -E-J 8+ 1 6+4=28
should be considered. A-D-F-I-J 8+ 1 0+ 1 7+9+4 = 48
The next path which does not have the above B-F-I-J 10+ 17+9+4=40
activities is 1 -3-4-6 = 1 5 and 1 -3-2-4-6 = 1 6. C-G-I-J 8+18+9+4 = 39
.·. In this second least total cost is 15. C-H-J 8+ 14+4 = 26
F(9)
Five Marks Solutions
r;\
1----0
01.
D
Paths
ABDF 4+3+ 1 4+9 = 30 days
ACEF 4+7+4+9 = 24 days
= ,J2 2 + 22 + 12 = ,Jg = 3
14
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t'J!;fn�'llll
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... .. =
Max CT = Te + 3 = 41 + 3 x 3 = 50 03.
Sol:
O'cp
02.
Sol:
2 C
Paths in Network
0� .
J
A
ACG = 2 + 7 + 4 = 13
EST . )P -..... � .E �
ADFG = 2 + 12 + 3 + 4 = @
/�� 2- \V
B ;l 4 7 9
BEFG = 2 + 10 + 3 + 4 = 19
4
3 J---�,._________,,
LST O / .
4 / D
2 Critical Path - Longest Path - ADFG
Duration - 21 days
4
CP � B E F � 4 + 3 + 2 = 9
04.
Sol:
1 2 5 6 7 8
A
4 9
50 50 40
- _ ._ E
1
B Critical path � B C E � 14 days
50 50 50
05.
100 100 90 100 60 60 Sol:
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(LST)s = (LFT)8-Duration = 8-4 = 4
Paths Duration
�(TF)e = LST-EST = 4-0 = 4
ADI 2+8+6 = 16
ACEI 2+6+6+6 = 20 � CP (LST)o = (LFT)o - Duration = 1 4-8 = 6
ACFGI 2+6+4+2+6 = 2 0 � CP �(TF)o = 6 - 2 = 4
BEi 4+6+6 = 16 = LST - EST = 6 - 2 = 4
BFGI 4+4+6+2 = 16
BFH 4+4+8 = 16
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�ydc
Queuing Theory
distributed service time. The average number
One Mark Questions of the customers in the queue will be.
(GATE-ME-06)
01 . The cost of providing service in a queuing (a) 3 (b) 3.2 (c) 4 (d) 4.2
system increases with (GATE-ME-97)
(a) Increased mean time in the queue 04. In an M /M /1 queuing system , the number of
(b) Increased arrival rate arrivals in an interval of length T is a Poisson
(c) Decreased mean time in the queue random variable (i.e. , the probability of there
(d) Decreased arrival rate being n arrivals in an interval of length T is
e-)..T (JTr
---- ). The probability density
02. Consider a single server queuing model with n!
Poisson arrivals (11,= 4 /hour) and exponential function f(t) of the inter-arrival time is given
service (µ = 4 /hour). The number in the (GATE-ME-08)
system is restricted to a maximum of 1 0. The
( e )..2/
(b)
probability that a person who comes in 12 J
leaves without joining the queue is
e A.I
(GATE-ME-OS) (d) _-
-
A
1
(a) - (b)
11 10
_!_
05. Little's law is a relationship between
1
(c) - (d) _!_ (GATE-ME-10)
2
(a) stock level and lead time in an inventory
9
system
03. The number of customers amvmg at a
(b) waiting time and length of the queue in a
railway reservation counter is Poisson
queuing system
distributed with an arrival rate of eight
(c) number of machines and job due dates in
customers per hour. The reservation clerk at
a scheduling problem
this counter takes six minutes per customer
(d) uncertainly in the activity time and
on an average with an exponentially
project completion time
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"-:. . Queuing Theory
�-�;FNIIW'J'JIW PuNiraiooa
� . ACE
. . : 921 :
06. Cars arrive at a service station according to (a) Service time distribution and queue
Poisson's distribution with a mean rate of 5 discipline
per hour. The service time per car is (b) Number of servers and size of calling
exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At source
state, the average waiting time in the queue is (c) Number of servers and queue discipline
(GATE-ME-1 1) (d) Service time distribution and maximum
(a) 10 min (b) 20 min number allowed in system
(c) 25 min (d) 50 min
10. In a single-channel queuing model, the
07. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a rate customer arrival rate is 12 per hour and the
of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in the servicing rate is 24 per hour. The expected
order of their arrival. The average time taken time that a customer is in queue is ___
minutes. (GATE - 16-SET - 2)
for issuing a ticket is 1 min. Assuming that
customer arrivals form a Poisson process and
11. For a single server with Poisson arrival and
service times are exponentially distributed,
exponential service time, the arrival rate is
the average waiting time in queue in min is
12 per hour. Which one of the following
(GATE-ME-13) rates will provide a steady state finite queue
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 length? (GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
(a) 6 per hour (b) 10 per hour
08. The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in a (c) 12 per hour (d) 24 per hour
random manner. The probability distribution
of number of arrivals of jobs in a fixed time
interval is (GATE-ME-14) Two Marks Questions
(a) Normal (b) Poisson
(c) Erlang (d) Beta
01. On the average 100 customers amve at a
09. In the notation (a /b /c) (d /e /f) for place each hour, and on the average the
server can process 120 customers per hour.
summarizing the characteristics of queuing
What is the proportion of time the server is
situation, the letters 'b' and 'd' respectively
idle?
for
(GATE-ME-95)
(GATE -15 -Set 3)
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: 922 : IM & OR
05. A maintenance service facility has Poisson 08. Arrival of machines for repair in a
arrival rates, negative exponential service maintenance shop follows a Poisson
time and operates on 'first come first served ' distribution at a rate of one per 1 8 hours. The
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: 923 : Queuing Theory
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SOLUTIONS
07. Ans: (c)
One Mark Solutions Sol: A = 50 hr- 1 = Arrival Rate
µ = 60 hr- 1 = Departure Rate
0 1 . Ans: (c) A 50
W = =
q µ(µ - 1., ) 60(60 - 50)
02. Ans: (a)
= _!_ hours = 5 minutes
4 12
Sol: A = 4 hour- 1 , µ = 4 hour- 1 , p = "' = = 1 ,
µ 4
Po + P 1 + P2 +....... +Pio = 1 08. Ans: (b)
Po + pPo + p2Po +..... ....= 1 Sol: Random Arrivals is an example of Poisson
Po( 1 + p + p2+ .... + p 1 0) = l distribution.
1
As p = 1 ' Po = -
11 09. Ans: (d)
Sol: (a/b/c : d/e/f)
03. Ans: (b) a : Inter arrival time distribution
Sol: A = 8 hour -I b : service time distribution
1 c : number of servers
µ = l O hour -
L = 2
--,---
"' = 8
2 d : number of buffers (system capacity)
= 3 .2
q µ(µ - 1., )
--,--
4X 4 Time taken 1
Lq = = = � = 3 .2
2
µ= = __ = 8 min _1
Time taken
04. Ans: (c)
½
Mean number of jobs in system
Sol: J = 0. 1 min· 1 µ =0.33 min- 1
')... 5 5
"A L 8 = -- = -- = - = 1 .67
� p0 = 1 - p 1 - - = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7 µ - "A 8 - 5 3
µ
=
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: 926 : IM & OR
=
').. 8 1
c) W = = hrs
q -
µ(µ ')..) 1 2(12 - 8) 6
1 1 1
d) Ws = -- = -- = -hrs
µ - ').. 1 2 - 8 4
').. 8
e) p = - = - = 0.67
µ 12
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C4 Inventory Control
======================="
(a) Labour cost of setting up machines 05. An item can be purchased for Rs. 1 00. The
(b) Ordering cost of raw material ordering cost is Rs.200 and the inventory
(c) Maintenance cost of the machines carrying cost is 1 0% of the item cost per
(d) Cost of processing the work piece annum. If the annual demand is 4000 units'
the economic order quantity (in units) is
03. One of the following statements about PRS (GATE-ME-02)
(Periodic Reordering System) is not true. (a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 400
Identify. (GATE-ME-98)
(a) PRS requires continuous monitoring of 06. The word Kanban is most appropriately
inventory levels associated with (GATE-ME-11)
(b) PRS is useful in control of perishable (a) economic order quantity
items (b) just-in-time production
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: 928 : IM & OR
07. Demand during lead time with associated (a) 500 (b) 2000
probabilities is shown below: ( C) 1 000 /,fj_ ( d) 1 ooo,fi,
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" . ACE
"i:i . . . Inventory Control
�-�;Eupwt1P1 PoNiaams : 929:
05. There are two products P and Q with the 08. Consider the following data for an item.
following characteristics Annual demand: 2500 units per year
(GATE-ME-04) Ordering cost: Rs. I 00 per order, Inventory
Demand Order cost Holding Cost holding rate: 25% of unit price. Price quoted
by a supplier (GATE-ME-06)
Product
(units) (Rs./order) (Rs.Ju nit/year)
100 50 4
Order quantity(units) Unit Price(Rs.)
p
Q 400 50 1
< 500 10
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) of
� 500 9
products P and Q will be in the ratio.
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:8 The optimum order quantity (in units) is
(a) 447 (b) 471 (c) 500 (d) � 600
06. A company has an annual demand of 1000
units, ordering cost of Rs.I 00 per order and 09. A stockiest wishes to optimize the number of
carrying cost of Rs. 100 per unit-year. If the perishable items he needs to stock in any
stock-out costs are estimated to be nearly Rs. month in his store. The demand distribution
400 each time the company runs out-of for this perishable item is
stock, then safety stock justified by the (GATE-ME-06)
carrying cost will be (GATE-ME-04)
Demand
(a) 4 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 100
(in units)
2 3 4 5
Probability
07. The distribution of lead time demand for an
0. 1 0 0.3 5 0.3 5 0.20
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t�� . : 930 : IM & OR
10. The maximum level of inventory of an item 13. Annual demand for window frames is 10000.
is 100 and it is achieved with infinite Each frame costs Rs.200 and ordering cost is
replenishment rate. The inventory becomes Rs.300 per order. Inventory holding cost is
zero over one and half month due to Rs. 40 per frame per year. The supplier is
consumption at a uniform rate. This cycle willing to offer 2% discount if the order
continues throughout the year. Ordering cost quantity is 1000 or more, and 4% if order
is Rs.I 00 per order and inventory carrying quantity is 2000 or more. If the total cost is
cost is Rs. 10 per item per month. Annual to be minimized , the retailer should
cost (in Rs.) of the plan, neglecting material (GATE-ME-10)
cost, is (GATE-ME-07) (a) order 200 frames every time
(a) 800 (b) 2800 (b) accept 2% discount
(c) 4800 (d) 6800 (c) accept 4% discount
(d) order Economic Order Quantity
11. In a machine shop, pins of 15mm diameter
are produced at a rate of 1000 per month 14. Consider the following data with reference to
and the same is consumed at a rate of 500 per elementary deterministic economic order
month. The production and consumption quantity model
continue simultaneously till the maximum Annual demand of an item 100000
inventory is reached. Then inventory is Unit price of the item (in Rs.) 10
allowed to reduced to zero due to
Inventory carrymg cost per 1.5
consumption. The lot size of production is
unit per year (in Rs.)
1000. If backlog is not allowed, the
Unit order cost (in Rs.) 30
maximum inventory levels is
The total number of economic orders per
(GATE-ME-07)
year to meet the annual demand is ---
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 700
(GATE -ME-14)
12. A company uses 2555 units of an item
annually. Delivery lead time is 8 time is 15. A manufacturer can produce 12000 bearings
days. The recorder point (in number of units) per day. The manufacturer received an order
to achieve optimum inventory is of 8000 bearings per day from a customer.
(GATE-ME-09) The cost of holding a bearing in stock is
(c) 56 (d) 60 Rs.0.20 per month. Setup cost per production
run is Rs.500. Assuming 300 working days
(a) 7 (b) 8
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ACE .. : 931 : Inventory Control
in a year, the frequency of production run charge on an annual basis is 20% of the
should be (GATE -ME-2014)(Set-3) purchase price of the com flour per kg. The
(a) 4.5 days (b) 4.5 months optimal order quantity (in kg) is ___
(c) 6.8 days (d) 6.8 months (GATE - 16 - SET - 2)
1 6. The annual requirement of rivets at a ship 19. An electrical appliances showroom sells
manufacturing company is 2000 kg. The 2,400 ceiling fans in one year (52 weeks).
rivets are supplied in units of 1 kg costing Rs. The holding cost is 1 0% of the cost of the
25 each. If it costs Rs. 1 00 to place an order ceiling fan. The most of one ceiling fan is
and the annual cost of carrying one unit is Rs. 600. The cost incurred for placing an
9% of its purchase cost, the cycle length of order is Rs. 20 1 . There is a lead time of 5
the order (in days) will be ____ weeks. The economic order quantity (EOQ)
(GATE -15 -Set 3) and the reorder level, respectively (rounded
to the next higher integer) are
17. The annual demand for an item is 1 0,000 (GATE - PI - 1 7)
units. The unit cost is Rs. 1 00 and inventory (a) 23 1 , 1 27 (b) 38, 23 1
carrying charges are 14.4% of the unit cost (c) 127, 23 1 (d) 1 27, 1 3
per annum. The cost of one procurement is
Rs.2000. The time between two consecutive 20. The potential production alternatives for
orders to meet the above demand is manufacturing a product along with their
month(s). (GATE - 16 - SET - l) unit cost and monthly capacity are given in
the Table.
1 8. A food processing company uses 25,000 kg
of com flour every year. The quantity S.NO Production Unit Capacity I
discount price of com flour is provided in the Alternatives cost month
table below: (Rs.)
Quantity (kg) Unit price (Rs/kg) 1 Regular time 5 300
1 -749 70 production
750- 1499 65 2 Overtime 6 200
1 500 and above 60 production
3 Subcontrating 10 500
The order processing charges are Rs.
500/order. The handling plus carry-over
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ACE : 932 : IM & OR
':.�-�
t, V ' • • •
_ : &p,rtqPnNira4vn
The inventory at the end of July is 1 00
units. If the demand for the month of 03. A company places orders for supply of two
August is 620, then the minimum total cost items A and B. The order cost for each of the
(in Rs.) to meet the demand is ____ items is Rs.300/order. The inventory carrying
(GATE - PI - 17) cost is 1 8% of the unit price per year per unit.
The unit prices of the items are Rs. 40 and
Rs.50 respectively. The annual demands are
Five Marks Questions 1 0,000 and 20,000 respectively. (a) Find the
economic order quantities and the minimum
0 1 . Consider the following data for a product: total cost? (b) A supplier is willing to give a
Demand = 1 000 units/year 1 % discount on price, if both the items are
Order cost = Rs.40/order ordered from him and if the order quantity
Holding cost = 1 0% of the unit cost / unit-yr for each item is 1 000 units or more. Is if
Unit cost = Rs.500 profitable to avail the discount?
(a) What is the economic order quantity? (GATE-ME-OO)(SM)
(b) Under the EOQ what is the number of
annual orders? 04. A company is offered the following price
( c) With a policy of ordering every month breaks for order quantity
02. Determine the number of production runs Ordering cost is Rs.60 per order while the
and also the total the incremental cost in a holding costs is 1 0% of the purchase price.
factory for the data given below: Determine the economic order quantity
Annual requirement = 1 5,000 units (EOQ) if the annual requirement is 1 000
Preparation cost per order = Rs. 25 Units. (GATE-ME-Ol)(SM)
Inventory holding cost = Rs. 5/unit/year
Production rate = 1 00 units/day
Number of working days = 250/year
(GATE-ME-97)(5M)
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SOLUTIONS
08. Ans: 34000 to 36000
One Mark Solutions Sol: Given:
Annual demand (D)= 50000 units
01. Ans: (a) Ordering cost per order (Co) = 7000
Sol: EOQ = �
2AS EOQ = 1 0000 units
CI At EOQ
Annual inventory holding cost
= Annual ordering cost
= No. of orders/yearsxCo
50000
= X 7000
:. EOQ unchanged
Sol:
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: 934: IM & OR
0 5. Ans: (c)
Two Marks Solutions AS
{ �
(EOQ)p - CI } P � CI
Ans: (d)
01 .
{P�8L
Sol:
(EOQ -
)Q
2AS
Sol: EOQ = �
CI
2 x l OO x 5 0
1 000
--- = --===
(EOQ) 1
JW = -'-;:::==== 4
2 x 400 x 5 0
=1:4
� 1
Ans: (c)
Reorder level (ROL) > Average Lead Time
03 .
Demand (ALTD)
Sol: TVC oc ../A
:. Service Level (SL) = 75%
TVC 1 oc Jl .4 A
(TVC) 1 = (.Ju") TVC
= 1 . 1 83(TVC) or 1 8.3 %
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ACE
::m!�!��iNicdiooa
.. ":E=&�p�·.,,,
�,. �n�tr�o�l
�·�·=========�:;9�35�:==========�ln�v�en�ro�cy�Co
The EOQ does not satisfy the given quantity
range. Hence we need to compare the total
cost and EOQ & discount eligible quantity. Q=l OO
( TAC)EOQ = AC + �2 ASCI
500 ( TAC)9 /- = AC + � S + i CI A Q
TVC= - S + - CL
Q 2
2500 500 100
= 2500 x 9 + x lOO + x 9 x 0.25 = 8 X 100 + - X 120 = Rs. 6800
500 2 2
= 22 ,500 + 500 + 562.5
= 23,562.5 /- 11. Ans: (b)
( TAC)9 < ( TAC)EOQ Order 500 units Sol:
500
Demand
units Probability Service Level 12. Ans: (c)
0.1 0.1 . 2555
2 Sol: Consumption rate= --= 7
3 0.35 0.45 365
Stock level - @ 0.35 0.8 � 0.5 ROP= AL T x CR= 8 x 7= 56 units
5 0.2 1.0
13. Ans: (c)
2 AS
10. Ans: (d) Sol: EOQ= �
CI
A 12 months _ � _
Sol: (No of orders = -=---- _ 8)
Q 45 days 1.5 2 X 10,000 X 300
= 389 29
40
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: 936 : IM & OR
(_!__)
10 ,000 2000
+
2000
x 300 +
2
x 40 (1_
100
_±_) EPQ =
2AS
CI P-r
= 19,20 ,000 + 1500 + 38 ,400 = 19,59,900
2 x 8000 x 300 x 500 12000
10•000 = ( )
( T A c) 200 = 10' ooo x 200 + 2.4 12000 -8000
200
200 = 54772.25
x 300 + - x 40 EPQ
2 Frequency of production =
= 20 ,00 , 000 + 15000 + 4000
= 21,90 , 000 /- 54772.25
= 6_84day s
8000
Accept 4% Discount at 2000 order
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�..... Inventory Control
.."�&lgiom· PnNiariooa
...
� -....... ACE : 937 :
�
Q
Time between orders = x Time Period 16,43,027.75
A
=
(TAC)8333 502563.25
x l OO x l OO
20. Ans: 2900
Sol: Demand in August = 620 units (TAC)EOQ 5 02000
=
r = -- = 60 umts I day
250
Five Marks Solutions C I = 5 / unit / year, S = 25
01.
A 1000
No. of orders = - -- = 25
Q 40
=
2AS P
(TAC)EOQ = .J2ASCI + AC Q=
CI P - r
-- x --
= x( ) = 61237
= 5, 02, 000 /- 5 100 - 60
. A 1000 l 5, 000 =
Order Quantity per month = - = -- = 83.33 No. of Pr oduction runs 24.5� 25
12 12 612.3
=
A Q
(TAC)s3 .33 = AC + S + CI P-r
Q 2 Incremental Cost = 2ASCI( p )
1000
= 1000 500 + -- x 40
83.33 l OO - 60
2 X 15000 X 25 X 5 X )
X
(
8333
=
+x 500 x 0. l
1 00
2 = Rs 1224.75
= 5 ,00 , 000 + 480 + 2083.25
= 5 , 02,563.25
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: 939 : Inventory Control
0 3. 1 l O, OOO
= 1 0 '000 X 40 ( 1 - -- ) + X 3 00
Sol: First Option: 1 00 1 000
A 1 000
+ -- x 40 x 0 . 1 8( 1 - -)
1
S = 3 00 /- I = 0. 1 8 2 1 00
A 1 = 1 0, 000 = 3,96, 000 + 3, 000 + 3564 = 4, 02,564 /-
2 X 1 0, 000 X 3 00 = (TAC) 1 1 54.7 = A2 C2 ( l - � ) + �: S
913 1%
1 0
40 x 0 . 1 8
Q r
TAC 1 = A 1 C 1 + �2A 1 S C 1 I + -2 C2 I ( 1 - - )
2 1 00
= 1 0,000 X 40 + �2 X 10,000 X 40 X 300 X 0. 1 8 1 20, 000
= 20 '000 X 5 0 ( 1 - -- ) + X 3 00
1 00 1 1 54.7
=4, 00 , 000 + 6572.67
1 1 54 · 7 1
TAC 1 = 4,06,572.67 + x 50 x 0 . 1 8(1 - --)
2 1 00
B = 9,90, 000 + 5 1 96. 1 5 + 5 144. 1 8
S = 3 00 /- , I = 0 . 1 8 = 1 0, 00 ,340 .33
C2 = 5 0 /- , A2 = 20, 000
(TAC) = 4, 02,564 + 1 0, 00 ,340 .33
� 2A2 S � 2 x 20,000 x 300 � I I S4_7 = 14, 02,9 04.33
C2 I
Q, �
50 x 0. 1 8 Second option is better
TAC2 = A2 C2 + �2A 2 SC 2 I
04.
= 20,000 X 5 0 + �2
Sol: A = 1 000 units,
X 20,000 X 50 X 300 X 0. 1 8
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cs Transportation
02. A company has two factories S 1 , S2 and two
One Marks Questions warehouses D1 , D2 • The supplies from and
S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively.
S1
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: 94 1 : Transportation
04. Transportation costs (in INR/unit) from destination requires 8 units. If the north-west
factories to respective markets are given in comer method provides the total
the table below. The market requirements transportation cost as X (in Rupees) and the
and factory capacities are also given. Using optimized (the minimum) total
the North-West Comer method, the quantity transportation cost is Y (in rupees), then (X
(in units) to be transported from factory R to Y), in rupees, is (GATE - 17 - SET - 2)
market II is (a) 0 (b) 1 5 (c) 35 (d) 1 05
Requirements
Factory
(in units) Five Marks Questions
p Q R s
I 3 3 2 1 50 0 1 . A company rents three warehouses A, B and
Market II 4 2 5 9 20 C from which they supply bearings to two
III 1 2 1 4 30 customers P and Q. The profit per piece, the
Factory
annual demands of the customers and the
supplies available from the warehouses are
capacity
20 40 30 10
shown below
(in
p Supply
units)
(GATE - PI-16)
Q
A 3 4 4000
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 1 0 (d) 0
B 2 3 4000
C 5 4 3000
05. A product made in two factories, P and Q is
Demand 6000 6000
transported of two destinations, R and S. The
As the company is not able to meet the
per unit costs of transportation (in Rupees)
demands it is proposed to replace warehouse
from factories to destinations are as per the
C with a warehouse rented at D whose
following matrix.
supply capacity would be 5000. The expected
� R
profit would be Rs. 6 and Rs. 5 per piece
s
distributed to P an Q respectively. The rental
P 10 7
charges for warehouse D is Rs. 5000 per
Q 3 4
year. Find the increase in the profit of the
company after replacing warehouse C by D.
Factory P produces 7 units and factory Q
(GATE-ME-97)(5M)
produces 9 units of the product. Each
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: 942 : IM & OR
02. Given below is a basic feasible solution to a (a) Compute the cost corresponding to the
transportation problem with three supply present solution
points (A. B, C) and three demand points (P, (b) It is optimal?
Q , R) that minimizes cost of transportation in ( c) Does an alternate optimum exist ?
the standard tabular format. (GATE-ME-00)(5M)
A B C Demand
4 8 8
p 1 50
50 1 00
12 8 11
Q
1 00 1 00
10 6 9
R 250
50 200
Supply 50 1 50 300
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SOLUTIONS
=> X - y = 105 - 77 = 28
20 40 30 10
Q Supply
v� p R
Pnet 49,000
0 A
1 CD X X =
= 8,000 /-
-3 1 x x X
0 0 0 X
02.
Sol:
G) 0 0
1 0
-2 0) 0
8 Demand
X 0 8
= 41,000
1 00
9
Number of allocations = 5
0 4000 1 CD X X
R + C- 1 = 3 + 3- 1 = 5
-3
+1 B 4000 1 1 1 -2
C x x X No degeneracy.
Since, No. of allocations equal to R+C-1
-2 3000 1
+3
D 0 0 0 X
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Chapter
6 Production Planning
and control
04. A component can be produced by any of the
four processes I, II, III and IV. The fixed cost
and the variable cost for each of the processes
One Mark Questions
01. The manufacturing area of a plant is divided are listed below. The most economical
into four quadrants. Four machines have to process for producing a batch of 100 pieces is
located one in each quadrant. The total
Process Fixed cost Variable cost per
number of possible layouts is
(in Rs) piece (in Rs)
I 20 3
(GATE-ME-95)
(a) 4 (b) 8
II 50 1
(c) 16 (d) 24
III 40 2
IV 10 4
02. Production flow analysis (PFA) is a method
of identifying part families that uses data (GATE-ME-14)
from (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
(GATE-ME-01)
(a) engineering drawings Two Marks Questions
(b) production schedule
(c) bill of materials 01. List- I (Problem areas)
(d) route sheets A. IlT
B. Computer assisted layout
03. Which one of the following 1s NOT a C. Scheduling
decision taken during the aggregate D. Simulation
production planning stage?
List- II (Techniques)
1. CRAFT
(GATE-ME-12)
(a) Scheduling of machines
2. PERT
(b) Amount of labour to be committed
3. Johnson's rule
(c) Rate at which production should happen
4. Kanbans
(d) Inventory to be carried forward
5. EOQ rule
6. Monte Carl (GATE-ME-95)
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.
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... :�Publirarions
A,CE : 946: IM&OR
.. '=====================================
02. Capacities of production of an item over 3
consecutive months in regular time are 100,
100 and 80 and in overtime are 20, 20 and
Five Marks Questions
40. The demands over those 3 months are 90, 01. The forecasts for a product for the next three
130 and 110. The cost of production in months are given as 750, 850 and 1000 units.
regular time and overtime are respectively The number of regular time days and
Rs. 20 per item and Rs. 24 per item. overtime days available are 22, 18 22 and 4,
Inventory carrying cost is Rs. 2 per item per 4, 5 respectively. With the existing number
month. The levels of starting and final of employees, the company can produce 38
inventory are nil. Backorder is not permitted. units per day. To meet the high demand in
For minimum cost of plan, the level of the third month, the company decides to hire
planned production in overtime in the third people to increase the daily production to 45
month is (GATE-ME-07) units. (GATE-ME-OO)(SM)
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 0
The following costs are given
03. A manufacturer has the following data Cost of regular time production
regarding a product: = Rs. 20 per unit
Fixed cost per month = Rs 50000 Cost of overtime production
Variable cost per unit = Rs 200 = Rs. 25 Per unit
Selling price per unit = Rs 300 Cost of hiring = 200L2
Production capacity = 1500 units per month where 'L' is the mcrease m daily
If the production is carried out at 80 % of the capacity
rated capacity, then the monthly profit(in Rs)
Inventory = Rs. 10 per unit per month
(based on average inventory)
(GATE-15-S et 2)
lS
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SOLUTIONS
02. Ans: (b)
One Mark Solutions Sol:
q(s-v)=F+P
= 1200(300-200)-50000
01.
D-6
=120000-50000 = 70000
Sol: A -4 ; B - 1 C -3
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ACE
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: 950: IM&OR
(b) moving average method 10. Sales data of a product 1s given in the
(c) weighted moving average method following table:
(d) exponential smoothing method
Month January February March April May
08 . In exponential smoothening method, which (a) Moving average will forecast a higher
one of the following is true ? value compared to regression
(GATE-ME-14) (b) Higher the value of order N, the greater
(a) 0�a� 1 and high value of a is used for will be the forecast value by moving
stable demand average
(b) 0�a�1 and high value of a is used for (c) Exponential smoothing will forecast a
unstable demand higher value compared to regression
(c) a � 1 and high value of a is used for (d) Regression will forecast a higher value
stable demand compared to moving average
The forecast of the sales, using the 4-month (d) Control charts
(c) Gantt chart technique
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: 951: Forecasting
02. In a forecasting mod el, at the end of period 05. The sales of a product during the last four
13, the forecasted value for period 14 is 75. years were 860, 880, 870 and 890 units. The
Actual value in the periods 14 to16 are forecast for the fourth year was 876 units. If
constant at 100. If the assumed simple the forecast for the fifth y ear, using simple
exponential smoothing parameter is 0.5, then exponential smoothing, is equal to the
the MSE at the end of period 16 is forecast using a three period moving average,
(GATE-ME-97) the value of the exponential smoothing
(a) 820.31 (b) 273.44 constant a is
(c) 43.75 (d ) 14.58 (GATE-ME-OS)
1 2 2
(a) - (b) _!_ (c) - (d) -
03. In a time senes forecasting model, the 7 5 7 5
d emand for five time periods was
10,13,15,18 and 22. A Linear regression fit 06. A moving average system 1s used for
resulted in an equation forecasting weekly demand. F1(t) and F2(t)
F= 6.9 + 2.9 t where F is the forecast for are sequences of forecasts with parameters
period .The sum of absolute d eviations for m1 and m2, respectively , where m1 and
the five data is m2(m1>m2) d enote the numbers of weeks
(GATE-ME-00) over which the moving averages are taken.
(a) 2.2 (b) 0.2 The actual d emand shows a step increase
(c) -1.2 (d) 24.3 from d 1 to d 2 at a certain time. Subsequently ,
(GATE-ME-08)
04. The sale of cy cle in a shop m four (a) neither F1(t) nor F2(t) will catch up with
consecutive months are given as 70,68,82,95. the value d2
Exponentially smoothing average method (b) both sequences F1 (t) and F2(t) will reach
with a smoothing factor of 0.4 is used in d 2 in the same period
forecasting. The expected number of sales in (c) F1(t) will attain the value d2
the next month is (d) F2(t) will attain the value d 2
(GATE-ME-03)
(a) 59 (b) 72 (c) 86 (d) 136 07. The d emand and forecast for February are
12000 and 10275, respectively. Using single
exponential smoothening method
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" "' · � A.CE · ·
1Nie:aloi& 952 IM&OR
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(smoothening coefficient = 0.2 5), forecast for 10. In a calendar year, the demand forecast of
the month of March is (GATE-ME- 10) motorbikes for the month of June is 200.
(a)431 (b) 958 7 The actual demand of motorbikes for the
(c) 10 706 (d) 11000 month of June and J uly are 300 and 350,
respectively. If single exponential
08. For a canteen, the actual demand for smoothing method with smoothing constant
disposal cups was 500units in January and 0. 7 is used, then the demand forecast for the
600 units in February. The forecast for the month of August is _____
month of january was 400 units. The (GATE-PI-1 7)
forecast for the month of March considering
smoothing coefficient as 0. 75 is ___
(GATE-15-S et 1)
Ft = Ft-I +a(Dt-1-Ft-1)
4
Feb
280+250+190+240
= 240units
Sol:
= 25 +0.2(20-25) = 24
=
4
demand
:DC = I:Y= :D(Y= l:Y2= :DC2 =
If ft = dt-1
15 81 281 1463 55
Then a = 1
b=
IxY-nXY L(di- ti = 8 20.31
Ix 2 -nx
-2 '
MSE= :E(di -ti In 8 20.31 / 3= 2 73.44
=
281- 5x3x16. 2
b= 2 = 3.8
55- 5x (3) 03. Ans: (a)
Sol:
a= Y-bX = 16. 2-3.8 x 3= 4.8
Y= a+ b X= 4.8+ 3.8 X Period D1
Fi
= 6.9 + 2.9 t ID1-F1I
=!!.=16. 2
5 04. Ans: (b)
2
Regression wil l forecast a higher value Sol: St+I=aS 1+a(1-a); 1_1+a(1-a) S 1 _2
compared to moving average method. + a(l - Cl )
3
s,_3
Feb 600
Mar ? 10. Ans: 326
Sol: FJUNE = 200 units
FJan= 400 units DJUNE = 300 units
D1an = 500 units DJULv= 350 units
a = 0.75 a = 0.7
FJULy = FJUNE + a (DJUNE- FJUNE)
= 400 +0 .75(500-400) = 475
= 200 + 0.7 (300-200) = 270 units
FAUGU ST= FJULy+ a(DruLy- FJULy)
D Feb = 600
= 270 + 0.7 (350-270)
FMar = FFeb +a(D Feb -FFeb) = 270 + 56= 326 units
= 475 +0.75(600-475) = 568.75
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Chapter
8 Line Balancing
For line balancing the number of work
One Mark Questions stations required for the activities M , E and T
would respectively be
01. A line balancing problem is solved m the ( a) 2, 3, 1 ( b) 3, 2, 1
context of (GATE - PI-15) ( c) 2, 4, 2 ( d ) 2, 1 , 3
( a) process lay out
( b) Fixed position lay out 03. The table gives details of an assembly line.
( c) Product layout (GATE-ME-06)
( d ) production sched ule
Work station I II III IV V VI
Total task time at
Two Marks Questions the workstation 7 9 7 10 9 6
(in min)
01. In an assembly line for assembling toys, five
workers are assigned tasks which take times W hat is the line effi ciency of the assembly
of 10, 8, 6, 9 and 10 minutes respectively . The line?
balance d elay for line is (GATE-ME-96) ( a) 70% ( b) 75%
( a) 43.3% ( b) 14. 8% ( c) 80% (d) 85%
( c) 14. 0% ( d) 16. 3%
04. A manufacturing line requires 7.2 minutes to
02. A n electronic equipment manufacturer has make a product. The line has six
d ecided to add a component sub-assembly workstations arranged as per the required
operation that can produce 80 units during a sequence of operations. Total production
regular 8- hour shift. This operation consists required is 300 prod ucts in 7.5 hours. A t
of three activities as below. steady state, the line effi ciency, in % is
M . M echanical assembly 12
E. Electric wiring 16
T. Test 3
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SOLUTIONS
16
= 2 .67 = 3 E
6
=
One Mark Solutions
i = o .5 = 1 T
6
=
= 1-� = 0.14 or 14 %
5 x 10
= L ti x 100 = � x 100 = 96%
Cx x 1.5x 5
Lt
Tlactuat = --i X 100 = � = 80°//Co
02 . Ans: (a) nC 6x l .5
480 =
Sol: Cycle Time = 6min .
80
12
No. of work stations = =2 M
6
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Chapter
9 Scheduling
Average flow time (in days) for the above
Two Marks Questions jobs using shortest Processing time ru le is
(a) 20.83 (b) 23.16
01 . A set of 5 jobs is to be processed on a sing le (c) 12 5.00 (d) 139.00
machine. The processing time (in days) is
given in the tab le be low. The ho lding cost for Common Data for Question 03 & 04
each job is Rs . K per day. Four jobs are to be processed on a machine as per
(GATE-ME-08) data listed in the tab le. (GATE-ME-10)
Job Processing
Job Processing Due
p
time
Time (in days) date
6
5
2 1 4
Q
R 3 2 7 9
1
s 2 3 2 19
T 4 8 17
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ACE : 959 : Scheduling
.:-...�.. �Publntvn
w " • • • •
6
22 1 3
9
s 12
2
3 5 4
(GATE-1 7-SET- l) 4 9 14
07. In a gear manufacturing company , three
ord e rs P, Q and R are to be proce ssed on a Consid ering mean latene ss and me an fl ow
hobbing machine. The orders were re ce ived time, evaluate the shorte st-time rule and
in the sequence P - Q - R. The Table least- slack rule and re comme nd the d esirable
ind icates the proce ss time re maining and rule.
production calendar d ue date for each other.
R emaining(day)
for each day a j ob is in the shop. At the
beginning of a month there are five j obs in
4 Day 20 the shop with the follo wing data.
Q 16 Day 30 (GATE-ME-96)
R 6 Day 1 9
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: 960 : IM & OR
Job 3
6
1 2 4 5
Processing time 5 3 8 2
9
(days)
Due date (days) 10 12 20 8
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SOLUTIONS
04. Ans: (d)
Sol:
Two Marks Solutions
E DD- Rule
N o. of j obs delivered late are 3
01. Ans: (a)
Job Process C1 D1 C1-D 1
Sol: According to SPT rul e total inventory cost time(days)
. . .
1s mm1mum. 1 4 4 6 -2
2 7 11 9 2
8 19 17 2
02. Ans: (a) 3 2 21 19 2
Sol: SPT rule
2 9 32 Process
10
Job C1 D1 C rD1
4 42 time(days)
3 2 2 19 - 17
�C i 125 1 4 6 6 0
2 7 13 9 4
4 8 21 17 4
z:c.
n
1 .
Average F ow Ti me = --'
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•
: 962 : IM & OR
06. Ans: 31
Sol: SPT rule gives shortest average fl ow time Five Marks Solutions
Job Proc ess tim e Compl etion tim e
(T1) (Ci) 01.
Q 9 9 Sol: SPT R ul e
Job T1 Ci Di C i - D1
s 12 21
p 15 36 1 3 3 7 -4
R 22 58 3 5 8 4 4
2 6 14 9 5
L Ci = 124 4 9 23 14 9
L Ci = 48 L Ci -Di = 14
. L ei 124
Mea n fl ow ti me= -- = - = 31
n 4 Mean F low Ti me= -i
. I:C
- = 12
=
48
n 4
07. Ans: (d) L(C. -D. ) = -
14 =
Sol:
Mea n la teness = 1 1
3. 5
n 4
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: 963: Scheduling
7 7 C1
2 6 11 9 2
1 3 14 Job T1 D1 C1 - Di
4 9 23 14 9 2 2 15 - 13
L Ci = 53 C
r i -Di = 19
2 2 4 21 -17
1 3 7 17 - 10
4 4 11 12 -1
. rc 53
Me an Flow T1me --i = - = 13. 25 =
6 4 15 24 -9
n 4
r(C.' -D. ) = 19 = 3 9 24 5 19
Me an Late ne ss = ' - 4.75
n 4 I Ci = 63 I Ci -Di = 49
The be st ru le is SPT as Me an Flow Time and
Job Ti Ci Di Ci -Di
Me an Late ne ss are minimum.
3 9 9 5 4
4 4 13 12 1
02.
5 2 15 15 --
Sol: SPT rule is use d for minimiz ing me an fl ow
1 3 18 17 1
time
2 2 20 21 -1
EJ - EARLY JOB 6 4 24 24 0
OS - ON SCHEDULE L Ci = 99 I Ci -Di = 6
TJ - TARDY JOB
63
M FT = - = 10. 5; T; = Process Time ;
6 C; = Completion Time
Job ti Ci di Ci -di D; = Due Date ;
4 2 2 9 -7 EJ MT = !2_ = 3. 17 MFT = Mean Flow Time
6 MT = Mean Tardiness
2 3 5 12 -7 EJ
1 5 10 10 OS r ci =99 =
M FT = 16. 5
5 6 16 8 8 TJ n 6
3 8 24 20 4 TJ r c i -Di =� =
MT= 1
n 6
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Cto Sequencing
03. In a machine shop , four jobs need to be
Two Marks Questions assigned to four di fferent machines. Each
ofthe jobs is to be assigned to one machine
01. A manu facturing shop processes sheet metal only at a time . The time taken to complete
jobs , where in each job must pass through the job in di fferent machines is given in the
t wo machines ( Ml and M2 , in that order). Table.
The processing time (in hours) for these jobs
Machines
1s ( GATE-ME-06)
M1 M2 M3 Mi
Machine Jobs
11 15 13 14 17
pQ R s T u 11
8 2 7 11 16
rn Ji 12 15 13
Ml 1 5 32 ....., 13 13 12 10 11
M2 6 19 13 20 14 7 14 15 17 14 16
The optimal make -span (in hours) of the In order to ensure that the total time
shop is re quired to complete all the jobs in
(a) 120 (b) 11 5 (c) 109 (d) 79 minimum , the optional assignment of the
job is
02. Data on five products to be processed on a (GATE- PI- 17)
single machine is given belo w (a) 1 1 �M i, J i �M2 , 13 �M 3, 14 �M 1
Product Release Processing Due (b) 11 �M2 , J i �M , , l3 �M i, l4 �M 3
time time date (c) 11 �M2 , J i �M 1, l3 �M 3, l4 �M i
p 0 3 10 (d) 11 �M i, J i �M2 , h �M1 , l4 �M 3
Q 2 4 9
R 0 2 15
s 1 5 11
T 1 1 13
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ACE
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�
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��
blicatiooa
�
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9 Se uenc
q�:��ing
�
= 65
(GATE-ME-91)(SM)
percentage utilization of milling and drilling
machines?
DrillingMIC
12 8 9 14 6 7 10
10 12 6 8 14 9 5
(GATE-ME-9S)(SM)
for each car are given below.
Car 1 2 3 4 s 6
Denting
tim e (hrs)
4 10 2 5 6 1
Painting
tim e (hrs)
3 2 5 4 2 6
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: (b)
Two Marks Solutions Sol: Time Matrix --+ Minimi ze
M1 M2 M 3 �
01. Ans: (b) J 1 15 13 14 1 7
Sol: Se quence by J ohnson 's Rule is : J z 11 12 15 13
R, T, S, Q, U, P. J3 13 12 10 11
1 5 1 7 14 16
1 4
M -I M -II ]4
J ob J1 2 () row Transaction
T in T out T in T out
R 0 8 8 21 J2 () 1 4 2
I
T 8 19 21 35
s J3 3 2 0
]4 I
19 46 46 66
46 78 78 97 3 0 2
I i
u 78 94 9 7 104 J1 2 0 3 column transaction
p 94 109 109 11 5
T in = Time In , T out = Time Out
Make Span Time = 115hours
-
Jz 0
J3 3
1 4
2 0
1
0
1 3 0 1
02. Ans: 10
]4
Sol:
Ti = RT+ PT Ci Di Ci- Di
R 2 2 15 - 13
p 3 5 10 -5
s 6 11 11 0
T 2 13 13 0
Q 6 19 9 10
t Tardy Job
Positive lateness is called Tardiness .
Total Tardiness = 10 days
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: 967 : Se que nci ng
02.
Five Marks Solutions Sol: Se quen ce by Johnson 's Rule is:
6-3-4- 1-2-5
01
Sol: Se quen ce by Joh nson 's Rule is: DENTING PAINTING
E- F- B- A- D- C- G CAR Out Out
In time In time
time time
Milling MIC Drilling MIC Idle time 6 0 1 1 7
In Out In Out 3 l 3 7 12
Job
time time time time 4 3 8 12 16
E 0 6 6 20 6 1 8 12 16 19
F 6 13 20 29 2 12 22 22 24
B 13 21 29 41 5 22 28 28 30
A 21 33 41 51
D 33 47 51 59 Minimum Make Span = 30
C 47 56 59 65 1
G 56 66 66 71
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Ctt Assignment
01 . T he tota l n umber of d ecision va riables in 01. A firm is required to procure three items
the obj ective fun ction of an assignmen t (P, Q an d R) . T he prices quoted for these
problem of siz e n x n ( n j obs an d n items (in Rs. ) by suppliers S1, S2, an d S3 a re
machin es) is given in table. T he management policy
(a ) n2 (b) 2n (c) 2n-1 (d ) n requires that ea ch item has to be supplied by
(GATE-ME-1 4) on ly on e supplier an d on e supplier supply
on ly on e item. T he min imum tota l cost (in
02. Solution to the ba lan ced assignmen t problem Rs. ) of procuremen t to the firm is
is bina ry d ue to (GATE - PI-15) (GATE-ME-06)
S uppli ers
It em
(a ) linea r formula tion
(b) n on-empty feasible region S1 S2 S3
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SOLUTIONS
machine.
R 1 25 1 45 1 65 ) 1 0 20
p 0 1 0 20 Row 5 e 6
Q 0 25 25
Transactior
e l0 e
R 0 20 40 e 5 15
P-S 2 - 1 20
Q- S 3 - 1 40 } 385�
R-S 1 - 1 25
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c12 Material Requirement
Planning
(d ) Production schedule
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: 97 1 : MRP
01. 01.
Sol: MRP. Sol : O level
�
l leve� l level D- 1
i 3 ' 5 ' 1 I
....
Dl8CBIPUOl'f DIICRIP?IOl.'I l
Two Marks Solutions p Pl. 20 10 58
'l E C 20
0 1-i
LF L OHi - - - - - -- --
58
li] JO 40
Week S S=O POB. 200
Demand l OOC 1 000 1 000 1 000 1 200 1 200 LT=2'W
B P B. 20 '20 IOI
x- 2x- 3 x- 4x- 5 x- 6x- 2 1cftl I.EC ·- '20 UNI
Ending
LFL ORI f! 20 20 ·- - -
Inventory 200C 4000 6000 8000 1 040C 1 2800 S S=O P O I. 20 100
LT •2W
10
PR = Projected Requirement
LT = I 'W
= 12800 =
2133 ;::; 2200
6 REC = Receipts
X
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Ct3 Miscellaneous
04. If standard production is 20 units, a
One Mark Questions worker's actual output is 1 8 units, piece rate
is Rs. 500 per unit, and over - achievement
01. For an assembly made of n components, the rate is Rs. 750 per unit, then the wage paid
dimensions on each component i follow a to the worker, (in Rs.), as per Taylor's
normal distribution and have tolerance Ti. differential price rate wage incentive plan,
(GATE - PI -15)
Overall dimension of the assembly is La lS ----
(GATE - PI-15)
with tolerance Ta· The relationship between
(GATE - PI-15)
(b) T = �L�=I T;2 05. Ishikawa diagram represents
3
(GATE - PI-15)
for a classified movement of human body ? causes
(d) Prioritized quality defects
(a) Knee (b) Elbow
(c) Torso (d) Wrist
06. Which one of the following is NOT in the
(GATE - PI-15)
scope of Enterprise Resource Planning
03. For air travel over a distance of 500 km, the
(ERP) system ?
ticket price is Rs. 4000. The comfort of the
air travel can be monetized at Rs.3000, and (a) General ledger entries
the monetary value of time saved because of (b) Materials management system
air travel is Rs. 3000. The value of air travel (c) Order management system
(GATE - PI-15)
is ------ (d) Employee promotion policy
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: 974 : IM&OR
07. The facility layout technique that uses (b) directly proportional to its functions
relationship (REL) chart is and inversely proportional to its cost
(GATE - PI-16) (C) inversely proportional to its functions
(a) CRAFT. (b) Travel chart. as well as its cost
(c) Partial Set Covering. (d) ALDEP. ( d) directly proportional to its functions as
well as its cost
08. For a random variable, X, let Xbe the
sample average. The sample size is n. The 11. The operating characteristic curves of three
mean and the standard deviation of X are µ single sampling plansX, Yand Z with same
and cr, respectively. The standard deviation lot size and acceptance number are shown
of X is (GATE - PI-16) in the figure.
(a) ncr (b) cr
cr
(c ) - (d) �
8 1
§
c. 0.8
fn II)
C)
� 0.6
.....
09. ST and NT denote the standard time and the
;E' 0.4
normal time, respectively, to complete a job.
� 0.2
correct?
Considering the above operating
(GATE - PI-16)
NT
(a) ST = characteristic curves, the correct
(1-LL)
relationship of the plans with respect to
(b) ST=NT(l +LL)
sample size is
NT
(GATE- PI- 17)
(c) ST = (a) Sample size ofX< sample size ofY<
(l + LL)
sample size of Z
(d) ST=NT(l-LL)
(b) Sample size ofX= sample size ofY=
sample size of Z
1 0. In Value Engineering approach, the value of
(c) Sample size ofX> sample size ofY>
the product is
sample size of Z
(GATE- PI- 17)
(a) inversely proportional to its functions
(d) Sample size ofX> sample size ofY<
and directly proportional to its cost
sample size of Z
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12. Match the ASME process chart symbols 02. A machine is bought for 25,00,000. The
with their correct description organization follows a declining balance
Symbols Description method of depreciation with a depreciation
P. 0 1. STORAGE charge of 25%. If the machine is sold at Rs.
1750000 at the end of second year, then the
Q. => 2. TRANSPORTATION
profit on the book, m Rs. . , · is
R. D 3. OPERATION (GATE - PI �lS)
S. V 4. DELAY
T. D 5. INSPECTION 03. There are three alternatives to meet the
(GATE-PI-17) demand of a product
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2 Alternative I:
(b) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1, T-3 Manufacture using a process P -
(c) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-1, T-4 Alternative II:
(d) P-1' Q-5' R-3' S-2' T-4 Manufacture using a process Q
Alternative III:
13. A Shewhart X-chart was developed for an Buy the product from a vendor
in-control process. Considering the The costs associated with each alternative is
probability of a point falling outside the 3cr given below.
control limits as 0.0026, the value of
average run length for this chart is
Alternative Alternative Alternative
Cost
(GATE-PI-17)
I II III
Fixed cost Rs. 1 ,00,000 Rs. 1,90,000
Variable
Rs. 75 Rs.60
cost(per unit)
Purchase price
Two Marks Questions (per unit)
Rs.87.50
04. In a manufacturing process, 24 samples For the mam study, the minimum sample
each of size 50 items were inspected and a size for the sample mean time of any work
total of 52 defective items were observed . element to be within 0.1 minutes of its true
The lower and upper control limits set for mean time with 95% confidence
the p-chart should, respectively, be (corresponding standard normal value,
(GATE - PI-15) Zo.02s = 1.96 is ------
(a) (0.043, 0.12) (b) (-0 .043, 0 .086) (GATE - PI-1 6)
(c) (-0.043, 0.10) (d) (0,0.13)
0 7. Consider a system with 10 identical
05. A quality control engineer has collected 5 components connected in series. The time to
samples, each of size 30. The numbers of failure of each component is exponentially
defective items in the samples are given in distributed with a failure rate of 0 .10 per 500
the table below. days. The reliability of the system after 400
Sample Number I II III IV V days of operation is __
Number of defective items 3 2 4 1 5 (GATE - PI-1 6)
Work Mean completion Standard 09. In a given year, a restaurant earned INR
element time (in minutes) deviation 38,500 in revenues. In that year, total
(in minutes) expenses incurred were INR 30,000 and the
p 1 0.50 depreciation amount was INR 3,200. At 40%
Q 1 0.05 tax rate, the net cash flow (in INR) for that
year was __ (GATE - PI-1 6)
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10. An air con d itioner un it is expected to run 150. The fi xed cost of production is Rs.
con tin uously . The mean time between 80,000 an d variable cost of production per
failures (MTBF) for this un it is 2,000 hours un it is Rs. 70. If the compan y wishes to
an d the mean time to repair (MTTR) is 48 achieve a profi t of Rs. 20,000 durin g the
hours. The availability of the ai r calendar y ear, then the min imum quan tity to
con d ition in g un it is ___ (up to three be produced is__ (GATE - PI - 1 7)
d ecimal places) . (GATE-Pl-1 7)
13. A fi rm manufactures capacitors using a
11. The ann ual d eman d of wrist watches specializ ed process. The d esired
produced on an assembly lin e is 1,03,125 specifi cation for the capacitan ce is 40± 10
un its. The lin e operates 50 weeks/y ear, 5 picofarad s (pF). The process used is in
shifts/ week an d 7. 5 hours/shift. The uptime statistical con trol. If the process mean is 41
effi cien cy of the line is 99% . The cycle pF and the estimated standard deviation is 3
time (Tc ) of the assembly lin e (in pF, then the process capability in dex ½k is
minutes/un it) is __ (up to two d ecimal (GATE-PI - 1 7)
places). (GATE-PI-1 7)
14. Quality con trol d epartmen t of a company main tain s ' c' chart to assess the quality of laptops. In
this process, twen ty laptops are examin ed randomly . The number of non conformities observed per
laptop is given in the Table.
L aptop n umber 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
N umber of
1 3 7 4 10 6 1 5 4 3 6 4 2 7 4 2 9 8 5 2
n on conformities
B ased on the data, the upper con trol limit for the ' c' chart is ____ (up to two d ecimal places) .
(GATE-PI- 1 7)
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08. Ans: (d)
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= 468750
Two Marks Solutions B ook value at end of second y ear
= 1875000 -468750 = 1406250
01. Ans: 1 4. 85 min (or) 15 min Profi t = 1750000 -1406250 = Rs. 343750
Sol: Observed time= OT = 15 minutes
Ope rator rating = 90% 03. Ans: (d)
Contingency allowance for delay is not
Sol: q1 = Fz -Fi
consid ered for calculation of work content. V1 -Vz
. OTxR
B as1c T'1me = --- = 190000 -100000 = 90000 _ 6000 units
SR 75-60 15
= 15x90 = 13.5min Quantity < 6000 units lower fixe d cost
=
Sol:
(or) _ = Total number of d efe ctives
p -----------
Total work content no.of samplesx items per sample
BT 52
- = = 0.04333
PWA+ FA+ CWA 24x 50
( l+ )
100 CL = 0.0433
13. 5 =
=- .
- 15 mmute s U CL � CL + 3�p(i: p)
0.9
h,
- ( z:s')'
O. l l 1--------- UCL
0.09
= (1.96x0. 5 ) = 96.04 obser vations
2
0.07 0.1
Standard deviation = s2 = 0.0 5 minutes
0.05
0.03
Error ofstudy = h = 0.1 minutes
0.01 1---------
CL Zo.ozs = 1.96
O
0. 1 0.2 0.3 0.4
x LCL
h,
- ( z:s, )'
05. Ans: UCL = 0.26 43
= (1 ·96x0.0 5 ) = 1 observations
2
Sol: p = -----------
sum ofde fectives 0.1
samplesi ze x number ofsamples Larger ofthe t wo values is 96.
= 3--
+2 +4 +1 + 5
--- Hence study should be continued upto 96
5x30 obser vations.
= � = _!._ =0.1
07. Ans: 0. 4 49
t
5x30 10
Standard error ofproportion Sol: R = e-nA.
s
n v 30 500
t =400 days , n = 10 in series
= �O.lx0.9 =0.0 54 772
R s =e 500
30 -10x�x400
=0.449
Central line = p = 0.1
Upper control limit = p +3 cr P 08. Ans: (c)
Sol: R =
= 0.1 + 3x0.0 54 772 = 0.2643 Ao
Lo wer control limit = p -3 cr P (�o )2
R = Quality loss coefficient
= 0.1 -3x0.0 54 772 = 0
Ao = Economic consequence
06. Ans: (96) �o = Functional limit or customer tolerance
Sol: Standard deviation = s 1 = 0. 5 minutes R = 5 , Ao = 80,
Error ofstudy = h = 0.1 minutes
vs
�0 = � = [so = -J16 =4
Zo.ozs = 1.96 VR
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Sol:
10. Ans: 0.976
Sol: MTBF = 2000 hours
MTTR = 48 hours
. MTBF
Ava11ab·t·
1 1ty = LSL =30pf µ = 4 1 pf USL=50pf
MTBF +MTTR
= 2000 = 0.976
2000+48 USL = 50 pf , LSL = 30 pf, cr = 3 pf
1 1. Ans: 1.08
USL -LSL
Proce ss Capab.1.
1 1ty = ----
Sol: N umbe r of units re quire d,
6cr
50-30 =
N = 1,03,125 units = 1.11
6x 3
Available time for production,
USL-µ = 50-41=
T = N o.of hours/shift x N o. of shifts/ wee k (CPU ) = +l
3cr 3X 3
x N o. of wee k/ye ar x 1l1ine(uptime )
µ -LSL = 41-30 =
T = 7. 5 x 5 x 50 x 0.99 x 60 minute s (CPL) = 1. 22
3cr 3X 3
= 111375 minutes
Proce ss capability index ,
Cy cle Ti me = C = _!. Cpk = min (CPU ; CPL) = 1
N
111375 .
= = 1.08 mmute s
103125
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: 982: IM & OR
1 4. Ans: 1 1.11
Sol: LC = 93 , n = 20
c = LC = 93 = 4. 65
n 20
Cont rol limit , CL = C = 4.65
U pper Control Limit ,
U CL = C+3.Jc = 4.65 + 3.J 4.65 = 1 1 .1 1
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Page No. 983
Material Science
(Questions)
Page No. 984
CONTENTS
- �r- - '-"'--- --
(c) Combined hard ness and toughness 14. The powd er metallurgy technique for the
(d ) High strength production of precision components is
characteriz ed mainly by reduction in
10. The final heat treatment given to a forging (GATE -PI-88)
die is (GATE -PI-88) (a) M aterial cost (b) M achining cost
(a) Process annealing (c) Equipment cost (d ) Tool related cost
(b) Hard ening and tempering
(c) N ormalising and stress relieving 15. W hich of the following is / are not generally
(d ) Homogenising employ ed for shaping of thermoplastic
materials (GATE -PI-88)
11. The hard ness testing method which does not
(a) Inj ection molding
involve resistance to plastic d eformation is
(GATE -PI-88)
(b) Compression molding
(c) B low mold ing
(a) Shore scleroscope (b) B rinell
(d ) Extrusion
(c) Rockwell (d) Vickers
12. The method most widely used for 16. W hich of the following commonly used
items are not prod uced using thermosetting
(GATE -PI-88)
production of metal powders for use in
powder metallurgy (GATE -PI-88) plastic
(a) Crushing using impact (a) House hold buckets
(b) B all mill (b) Electric switches used in d omestic
(c) Liquid metal spray wm ng
(d ) Electroly tic deposition (c) Dining table tops
(d ) M elamine dinner set
13. During sintering of a powder metal compact
the following process takes place
(GATE -PI-88)
17. M etals which can be plastically d eformed
very easily have unit cells of
(a) All the pore reduce in size (GATE -PI-89)
(b) The powder particles fu se and j oin (a) B .C .C structure
together (b) F .C.C structure
(c) The powder particles do not melt but a (c) H. C.P. structure
bond is formed between them (d ) Cubic structure
(d ) Some of the pores gro'Y
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18. The temperature required for heating (a) Density (b) Hardness
hypereutectoid steel for normalizing is (c) Yield strength (d) Elastic modulus
(GATE -PI-89)
(a) Equal to that for annealing 23. PVC sheets are produced by GATE -PI-90)
(b) Greater than that for annealing (a) Melt spinning process (
(c) Lesser than that for annealing (b) Injection molding process
(d) Equal to that for tempering (c) Calendaring process
(d) Roto molding process
19. On analysis a piece of steel was found to
contain 0.3%C, 12.0¾Cr, 12.0% V. It is a 24. Green strength in powder metallurgy refers
(GATE -PI-89) to the strength of (GATE -PI-90)
(a) High speed steel (b) Carbon steel (a) The original material
(c) Low alloy steel (d) High alloy steel (b) The powder before compaction
(c) The powder after compaction
20. Thermosetting plastics are joined by (d) The product after sintering and
(GATE -PI-89) compaction
(a) Hot air welding
(b) Friction welding 25. Ass ertion (A): Thermosetting plastic are
(c) Ultrasonic method gradually being substituted by
(d) Adhesive bonding thermoplastics for many engmeenng
applications
21. Plain carbon steel is called hypoeutectoid R eason (R): Thermosetting plastics are
steel if it has carbon percentage difficult to process (GATE -PI-90)
(GATE -PI-90) (a) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(a) Less than 0.8 (b) Both A and R are true and R does not
(b) Equal to 0.8 explains A
(c) Between 0.8 & 2.0 (c) A is true and R is false
(d) Between 2.0 and 4.3 (d) A is false and R is true
22. The following property of a crystalline 26. At 1000° C the crystallographic structure of
material depends on crystal defects 1ron 1s ____ (GATE -PI-91)
(GATE -PI-90)
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27. Increase in ca rbon content in pla in ca rbon (a ) G lass (b) Ca rbon
steel ra ises its (GATE -PI-91) (c) Aluminium (d ) Magnesium
(a ) Ductility and UTS
(b) Tensile strength a nd ma llea bility 32. Electrica l sw itch es mad e out of th ermoset
(c) Tensile strength a nd ha rdness ma terial a re prod uced by (GATE -PI-92)
(d ) Ductility a nd melting point (a ) Compression mold ing
(b) Tra nsfe r mold ing
28. In pow d er meta llurgica l process of (c) Inj ection mold ing
ma nufacturing, max imum tempera ture is a (d ) Vacuum forming
a ssocia ted w ith (GATE -PI-91)
(a) B riquetting (b) Sintering 33. Pow d er meta llurgica l components hav e
(c) Pre-sintering (d ) B lending (GATE -PI-92)
(a ) Sa me density a s that of cast products
29. When 1. 0 percent of ca rbon steel is slow ly (b) High er d ensity than cast products
cooled from molten sta te to 740° C th e (c) Low er density than cast products
resulting structure w ill conta in (d ) High er d ensity tha n forged products
(GATE -PI-91)
(a) Austenite and Ferrite 34. Ma tch th e poly mer w ith th e a ppropriate
(b) Austenite and Cementite product. (GATE -PI-93)
(c) Ferrite a nd Cementite List - I
(d ) Pea rlite a nd Cementite (P) Poly ester resin
(Q) M ethyl methacry la te
30. The percenta ge of ca rbon content in w rough t (R) Polyu retha ne
iron is (GATE -PI-92) (S) Polyv iny l ch loride
(a) less tha n 0. 01
(b) between 0.1 and 1. 0 List - II
(c) between 1.0 a nd 3. 0 (1) M old ed luggage
(d ) b etw een 3 .0 and 5.0 (2 ) Refri gera tor insula ti on
(3) FRP
31. The most w id ely used reinforcement in (4) Contact lenses
modem day FRP (Fibre reinforcement ( 5) Floor tiles
Plastic) tennis racket. (GATE -PI-92)
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Codes: 38. Inoculating cast iron melt with magnesium
(a) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 gives (GATE -PI-94)
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (a) Gray cast iron
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5 (b) White cast iron
(d) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3 (c) Spheroidal graphite iron
(d) Malleable iron
35. Match the following. (GATE -PI-93)
List - I 39. FRP is a (GATE -PI-95)
(P) Strengthening of A/-4% cu alloy (a) Thermoplastic (b) Thermoset
(Q) Improvement in machinability (c) Composite (d) Elastomer
(R) Wear resistance of 0.45% low alloy steel
(S) Redrawing of cold worked copper wires 40. The iron-carbon diagram and the TTT
List - II curves are determined under
(1) Normalizing (GATE -ME-96)
(2) Precipitation hardening (a) equilibrium and non-equilibrium
(3) Process annealing conditions respectively
( 4) Induction hardening (b) non-equilibrium and equilibrium
(5) Tempering conditions respectively
Codes: (c) equilibrium conditions for both
(a) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (d) non-equilibrium conditions for both.
(b) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3 41. The iron carbon diagram and the TTT
(d) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3 curves are determined under
(GATE-ME-96)
36. Full annealing is a process in which the part (a) Equilibrium and non-equilibrium
can be heated above___ Temperature conditions respectively
and cooled in a turned off furnace. (b) Non-Equilibrium and equilibrium
(GATE -PI-94) conditions respectively
(c) Equilibrium conditions for both
37. The common measures employed to (d) Non-equilibrium conditions for both
quantify ductility are percent elongation and
percent __ Area. (GATE -PI-94)
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: 990: ME GATE Previous solutions
42. In powder metallurgy, the sintering 1s 47. The capacity of a material to absorb energy
carried out in (GATE -PI-01) when deformed elastically, and to release it
(a) Oxidising atmosphere back when unload is termed as
(b) Inert atmosphere (GATE -PI-08)
(c) Reducing atmosphere (a) Toughness (b) Resilience
(d) Air ( c) Ductility (d) Malleability
43. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment 48. Which of the following process is used to
is to improve (GATE -PI-06) manufacture products with controlled
(a) Hardenability of low carbon steels porosity (GATE -PI-08)
(b) Machinability of low carbon steels (a) Casting (b) Welding
( c) Mardenability of high carbon steels (c) Forming ( d) Powder metallurgy
( d) Machinability of high carbon steels
49. In powder metallurgy, sintering of a
44. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than component
0.83% carbon, it is called (GATE -PI-07) (a) Improves strength and reduces hardness
(a) high speed steel (b) Reduces brittleness and improves
(b) hypo-eutectoid steel strength
(c) hyper eutectoid steel (c) Improves hardness and reduces
(d) cast iron toughness
(d) Reduces porosity and improves
45. Which one of the following cooling method brittleness
is best suited for converting austenite steel
into very fine pearlite steel (GATE -PI-07) 50. Which one among the following statements
(a) Oil quenching (b) Water quenching are TRUE ?
( c) Air cooling (d) Furnace cooling (a) Thermoplastic polymers have cross
linked chain structure
46. A typical Fe3 C alloy containing greater than (b) Thermosetting polymers have covalent
0.8% C is known as (GATE -PI-08) bonded three dimensional structure
(a) Eutectoid steel ( c) Polyethelene 1s a thermosetting
(b) Hypoeutectoid steel polymer
(c) Hypereutectoid steel ( d) Thermosetting polymers harden on
( d) Mild steel heating and soften on cooling
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5 1 . Crystallographic structure of austenite is 55. Match the heat treatment processes (Group
(GATE -ME-11) A) and their associated effects on properties
(a) BCC (b) FCC (Group B) of medium carbon steel
(c) CPH (d) Simple cubic
Group A
52. The crystal structure of austenite is (P) Tempering
(GATE-ME-11) (Q) Quenching
(a) body centered cubic (R) Annealing
(b) face centered cubic (S) Normalizing
(c) hexagonal closed packed Group B
(d) body centered tetragonal (I) Strengthening and grain refinement
(II) Inducing toughness
53. During normalizing process of steel, the (III) Hardening
specimen is heated (GATE -ME-12) (IV) Softening (GATE -14-SET-4)
Cod es :
(a) Between the upper and lower critical
temperature and cooled in still air
(b) Above the upper critical temperature (a) P - III , Q - IV, R - II, S - I
and cooled in furnace (b) P - II , Q - III, R - IV, S - I
(c) Above the upper critical temperature (c) P - III , Q - II, R - IV, S - I
and cooled in still air (d) P - II , Q - III, R - I, S - IV
(d) Between the upper and lower critical
temperature and cooled in furnace 56. For a metal alloy, which one of the
following descriptions relates to the stress
54. The process of reheating the martensitic relief annealing process? (GATE -PI-14)
steel to reduce its brittleness without any (a) Heating the work piece material above
significant loss in its hardness is its recrystallization temperature,
(GATE -14-SET-1) soaking and then cooling in still air
(a) Normalizing (b) Heating the workpiece material below
(b) Annealing its recrystallization temperature,
(c) Quenching holding for some time and then furnace
(d) Tempering cooling.
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(c) Heating the workpiece material up to 59. The atomic packing factor for a material
its recrystallization temperature and with body centered cubic structure is __
then rapid cooling. (GATE-15-S et 2)
(d) Heating the workpiece up to its
recrystallization temperatue and 60. The strain hardening exponent n of stainless
cooling to room temperature alternately steel SS 304 with distinct yield and UTS
for a few cycles . values undergoing plastic deformation is
(GATE-15-S et 3)
57. Which one of the following methods is NOT (a) n < 0 (b) n=O
used for producing metal powders? (c) O < n < l (d) n= l
(GATE -PI-1 4)
(a) Atomization 61. The "Jominy test" is used to find
(b) Compaction (GATE-1 6-SET-l)
(c) Machining and grinding (a) Young's modulus
(d) Electrolysis (b) Hardenability
(c) Yield strength
58 . Which of the following types of stress strain (d) Thermal conductivity
relationship best describes the behaviour of
brittle materials, such as ceramics and 62 . In the phase diagram shown in the figure,
thermosetting plastics, (cr stress and i:: = four samples of the same composition are
strain)? (GATE-15-S et 1) heated to temperatures marked by a, b, c and
d
(a)
cr c (b)
cr
� 650
_j
700
crc. crL
600
j
( )
550
g_ 500 a
c
( .-. 450 -+-------+-------+----�
d) 5 10 15
Composition (Arbitrary Units)
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At which temperature will a sample get 68. In powder metallurgy, the process
(GATE - PI-1 6)
63. The elastic modulus of a rigid perfectly (c) sintering of powder compacts
plastic solid is (d) blending of metal powders
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 00 (d) infinity
69. The ideal stress-strain behavior for a
(GATE - PI-16)
64. Which one of the following is a natural
completely brittle material during tensile
polymer?
testing up to failure is described by
(a) Cellulose (b) Nylon
(c) Polyester (d) Polyvinyl chloride (A) (B)
Stress Stress
(GATE - PI-1 6)
65. In powder metallurgy, sintering of the
component
(a) increases density and reduces ductility Strain
(GATE-1 7-SET-2)
in cementite (Fe3 C) is----
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: 994 : ME GATE Previous solutions
71. In Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic (GFRP) 03. Copper-zinc proportion in brasses used for
composites with long fibers, the role of cartridges and drawn tubes is
matrix is to (GATE-ME-91)
(P) Support and transfer the stresses to the (a) 90: I 0 (b) 85: 1 5
fibers (c) 70: 30 (d) 50: 50
(Q) Reduce propagation of cracks
(R) Carry the entire load 04. Poisson's ratio for an incompressible
(S) Protect the fibers against damage material is (GATE-ME-91)
The correct statements are (a) always less than 0.5
(GATE - PI - 17) (b) sometimes less than 0.5
(a) P, Q and R (b) Q, R and S (c) always equal to 0.5
(c) P, Q and S (d) P, R and S (d) never equal to 0.5
0 1 . Spheroidal graphite cast iron is produced by 06. Match the terms used in connection with
(GATE- ME-91) heat-treatment of steel with the micro
(a) Spheroidizing gray cast iron structural/physical characteristics.
(b) Tempering white cast iron (GATE-ME-92)
(c) Adding spheroidal graphite to cast iron List - I
melts (P) Pearlite
(d) Inoculating gray cast iron melts (Q) Martensite
(R) Austenite
02. Austempering of steel is done for obtaining (S) Eutectoid
(GATE-ME-91)
List - II
(a) Bainite structure
( 1 ) Extremely hard and brittle phase
(b) Martensitic structure
(2) Cementite is finely dispersed in ferrite
(c) Austenitic structure
(3) Alternate layers of cementite and
(d) Ferritic structure
ferrite
(4) Can exist only above 723 °C
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Codes: Codes:
(a) P-4 Q-6 R-2 S-3 (a) P-3 Q-2 R-4 S-1
(b) P-3 Q-2 R-1 S-4 (b) P-1 Q-3 R-4 S-2
(c) P-2 Q-1 R-4 S-5 (c) P-2 Q-4 R-3 S-1
(d) P-4 Q-5 R-1 S-3 (d) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1
07. Assertion(A): Powder metallurgy products 09. Match the following. (GATE-PI-06)
are relatively weaker as compared to List- I
wrought iron products made from the same (P) Degree of polymerization
material. (Q) Polymer degradation
Reason (R): In powder metallurgy, (R) Vulcunisation
controlled atmosphere is necessary during (S) Tempering
sintering (GATE-PI-93) List- II
(a) Both A and R are true and R explains (1) Toughness (2) Melting point
A (3) Stabilizer (4) Sulphur
(b) Both A and R are true and R does not
explains A Codes:
List- I
10. Match the following . (GATE-PI-06)
List- I
(P) Annealing
(Q) Normalising
(P) Composite (Q) Lead
(R) Martempering
(R) Vanadium (S) Titanium oxide
(S) Nitriding
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: 996: ME GATE Previous solutions
P. Gears Q. Helmets
Engineering Strain
R. Lenses S. Food packing
(GATE - PI -15)
Process
(a) Curve P represents the composite, Curve
1. Polymethylemethacrylate
Q the matrix and Curve R the fiber.
2. Polyamides
(b) Curve Q represents the composite, curve
3. Polyethylene
R the matrix and Curve P the fiber.
4. Acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene
(c) Curve R represents the composite, curve
Codes:
P the matrix and Curve Q the fiber.
(a) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2
(d) Curve P represents the composite, curve
(b) P-3 Q-1 R-2 S-4
R the matrix and Curve Q the fiber.
(c) P-1 Q-4 R-3 S-2
(d) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3
14. In a binary system of A and B, a liquid of
20% A (80% B) is coexisting with a solid of
12. Elastic moduli of a fibre reinforced plastic
70% A (30%B). For an overall composition
composite and fibres are 200 GPa and 400
having 40% A, the fraction of solid is
GPa. respectively. The longitudinal fibres
(GATE - 16 - SET-2)
are taking up 50% of the load. Assuming the
(a) 0.40 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.60 (d) 0.75
area fraction equal to the volume fraction,
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: 1001: Material Science
a represents the applied stress on the Sol: cellulose is made by C, H,O atoms can be
material, s is the strain, extracted from trees.
For SS304 steeV any metal n value between Sol: The percentage of carbon (Fe3C)
0.10 and 0.50. 12
= -----x100=6.67%
56x3+12xl
� xE f = (1- X)Em
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: 1004: ME_GATE_Previous Solutions
Weight of solid of A
= WsA = Sa (WT- Wt) = 0.7 x (WT- Wt)
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General Aptitude
(Questions)
Page No.1006
CONTENTS
-- - --
- - -�- -
- ---- - - - - --
Chapter f h h - � �
Questions ', Solutions
Name o t- e C apter
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1
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08. The statistics of runs scored in a series by four 13. In which of the following options will the
batsmen are provided in the following table. expression P < M be definitely true?
Who is the most consistent batsman of these (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
four? (a) M < R > P > S (b) M > S < P < F
Batsman Average Standard deviation (c) Q < M < E < P (d) P=A < R < M
K 31.2 5.2 1
L 46.0 6.35 14. Let f(x, y ) = x n y m = P . If x is doubled and
M 54.4 6.22 y is halved, the new value of f is
N 17.9 5.90 (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-4)
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-l) (a) 2 n-m p (b) 2 m-n p
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N (c) 2(n - m)P (d) 2(m - n)P
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
M,N,O and P, in that order. The cumulative
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distances travelled and the corresponding 20. Five teams have to compete in a league, with
electricity consumption are shown in the every team playing every other team exactly
Table below:- once, before going to next round. How many
Stretch Cumulative Electricity matches will have to be held to complete the
distance (km) used (kWh) league round of matches?
M 20 12 (GATE-ME/INST/Pl - lS_Set-3)
0 75 45
p 100 57
2 1. In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both
ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are
The stretch where the electricity
unripe fruits . Of the unripe fruits, 45% are
consumption per km is minimum is
apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If
(GATE-ME/EC - 15_Set-l)
the pile contains a total of 5692000 fruits,
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) P
how many of them are apples?
(ME/EC - 16)(Set 1)
18. If x>y>l , which of the following must be
(a) 2029198 (b) 2467482
true?
(c) 2789080 (d) 3577422
(i) /n x > /n y
(ii) ex > eY
22. Michael lives 1 0 km away from where I live.
(iii) yx > xY
Ahmed lives 5km away and Susan lives 7
(iv) COS X > COS y
km away from where I live. Arnn is farther
(GATE-ME/EC - 15_Set-2)
away than Ahmed but closer than Susan
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
from where I live. From the information
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
provided here, what is one possible distance
(in km) at which I live from Arun's place?
(ME/EC - 16)(Set1)
19. Find the missing sequence in the letter series
below:
(a) 3.00 (b) 4.99 (c) 6.02 (d) 7.01
A, CD, GHI, ? , UVWXY
(GATE-ME/EC - 15_Set-2)
23. A window is made up of a square portion
(a) LMN (b) MNO and an equilateral triangle portion above it.
(c) MNOP (d) NOPQ
The base of the triangular portion coincides
with the upper side of the square. If the
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perimeter of the window is 6m, the area of 27. The sum of the digits of a two digit number
the window in m2 is is 12. If the new number formed by
(ME - 16) (Set 2) reversing the digits is greater than the
(a) 1.43 (b) 2.06 original number by 54, find the original
(c) 2.68 (d) 2.88 number. (GATE - PI - 16)
(a) 39 (b) 57 (c) 66 (d) 93
24. Given (9 inches) 112 = (0.25 yards) 112 , which
one of the following statements is TRUE? 28. In the summer, water consumption is known
(ME/EC - 16)(Set 3) to decrease overall by 25%. A water Board
(a) 3 inches = 0.5 yards official states that in the summer household
(b) 9 inches = 1.5 yards consumption decreases by 20% while other
(c) 9 inches = 0.25 yards consumption increases by 70%.
(d) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards (GATE-PI - 17)
Which of the following statements is
25. S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a term correct?
to finish a project. M works with twice the (a) The ratio of household to other
efficiency of others but for half as many . . 8
days as E worked. S and M have 6 hour
consumpt10n 1s -
17
shifts in a day, whereas E and F have 12 (b) The ratio of household to other
hours shifts. What is the ratio of contribution . . 1
of M to contribution of E in the project?
consumption 1s -
17
(ME/EC - 16)(Set 3) (c) The ratio of household to other
(a) l :1 (b) 1 :2 . . 17
consumption 1s -
(c) 1:4 (d) 2:1 8
(d) There are errors m the officials
26. (x% ofy) + (y¾ of x) is equivalent to __ statement.
(GATE - PI - 16)
(a) 2% of xy 29. 40% of deaths on city roads may be
(b) 2% of (xy/100) attributed to drunken driving. The number of
(c) xy% of 100 degrees needed to represent this as a slice of
(d) 100% of xy a pie chart is (GATE-PI - 17)
(a) 120 (b) 144 (c) 160 (d) 212
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30. Some tables are shelves. Some shelves are (a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 30,000
chairs. All chairs are benches. Which of the (c) Rs. 32,300 ( d) Rs. 40,000
following conclusions can be deduced from
the preceding sentences? 33. P, Q and R talk about S ' s car collection. P
(i) At least one bench is a table states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes
(ii) At least one shelf is a bench that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that
(iii)At least one chair is a table to his knowledge, S has at least one car.
(iv)All benches are chairs Only one of P, Q and R is right. The number
(GATE-PI - 17) of cars owned by S is
(a) Only I (b) Only ii (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -l)
( c) Only ii and iii (d) Only iv (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
31. A right-angled cone (with base radius 5 cm
and height 12 cm), as shown in the figure 34. P looks at Q while Q looks at R. P is
below, is rolled on the ground keeping the married, R is not. The number of pairs of
point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of people in which a married person is looking
the cone, as shown) touches the ground at an unmarried person is
agam. (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -2}
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) Cannot be determined
?
By what angle (in radians) about P does the even? (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -2)
cone travel? (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -1} (a) ab (b) a2 + b2+ l
Sn Sn 24n 10n (c) a2 + b+ l (d) ab - b
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 24 5 13
returned two back into the bowl. If the bowl 10 . The fuel consumed by a motorcycle during a
had 17 toffees left, how many toffees were journey while traveling at various speeds is
originally there in the bowl? indicated in the graph below.
(EC/EE/INST-11) 120
(a) 38 (a) 31 (c) 48 (d) 41
(EC/EE/INST-11)
The distances covered during four laps of the
(a) (4/81) ( l o -9n - 1]
n+ l
journey are listed in the table below
(b) (4/81) ( 10°- 1 -9n - 1]
(c) (4/81) ( l On+ l -9n - 10] Distance Average speed
Lap
(d) (4/81) [ 10° -9n - 10] (kilometers) (kilometers per hour)
15 15
09. The horse has played a little-known but very
p
75 45
important role in the field of medicine.
Q
40 10
Horses were injected with toxins of diseases
R
serum was made from their blood. Serums to From the given data, we can conclude that
fight with diphtheria and tetanus were the fuel consumed per kilometer was least
developed this way. It can be inferred from during the lap (EC/EE/INST-11)
the passage, that horses were (a) p (b) Q (c) R (d) s
(EC/EE/INST-11)
(a) given immunity to diseases 1 1 . A transporter receives the same number of
(b) generally quite immune to diseases orders each day . Currently, he has some
(c) given medicines to fight toxins pending orders (backlog) to be shipped. If
(d) given diphtheria and tetanus serums he uses 7 trucks, then at the end of the 4th
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day he can clear all the orders. Alternatively, (a) p (b) Q (c) R (d) s
if he uses only 3 trucks, then all the orders
13. A container originally contains1 Olitres of
are cleared at the end of the 10th day. What
pure spirit. From this container 1 litre of
is the minimum number of trucks required so
spirit is replaced with 1 litre of water,
that there will be no pending order at the end
(ME/CE/CSE/Pl-11)
Subsequently, l litre of the mixture is again
of the 5th day.
replaced with I litre of water and this process
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
is repeated one more time. How much spirit
12. P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous is now left in the container?
microbes recently found in a human habitat. (ME/CE/CSE/PI-11)
The area of each circle with its diameter
14. The variable cost (V) of manufacturing a
printed in brackets represents the growth of a
product varies according to the equation
single microbe surviving human immunity
V = 4q, where q is the quantity produced.
system within 24 hours of entering the body.
The fixed cost (F) of production of same
The danger to human beings vanes
product reduces with q according to the
proportionately with the toxicity, potency
equation F =100/q. How many units should
and growth attributed to a microbe shown in
(ME/CE/CSE/Pl-11)
be produced to minimize the total cost (V+F)
(ME/CE/CSE/PI-11)
the figure below:
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: 1016 : General Aptitude
2 1. An automobile plant contracted to buy shock 24. A political party orders an arch for the
absorbers from two suppliers X and Y, X entrance to the ground in which the annual
supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the convention is being held. The profile of the
shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are arch follows the equation y= 2x-O.l x2 where
subjected to a quality test. The ones that pass y is the height of the arch in meters. The
the quality test are considered reliable. Of maximum possible height of the arch is
X's shock absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of (ME/CE/CSE/PI-12)
Y's shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. (a) 8 meters (b) 10 meters
The probability that a randomly chosen (c) 12 meters (d) 14 meters
shock absorber, which is found to be
reliable, is made by Y is 25. What is the chance that a leap year, selected
(a) P,Q (b) Q,R (c) P,R (d) R.S 28. Find the sum to n terms of the series
10+ 84+ 734+ . ....... (EC/EE/INST-13)
23. Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK JP,
( + 1) 9 (9 n - 1)
(a) 9 9
n
29. Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 33. Find the odd one from the following group:
100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at W,E,K,O I,Q,W,A
random. What is the probability that the F,N,T,X N,V,B,D
selected number is not divisible by 7? (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-l )
(ME/CSE/PI-13) (a) W,E,K,O (b) 1,Q,W,A
(a) 13/90 (b) 12/90 (c) F,N,T,X (d) N,V,B,D
(c) 78/90 (d) 77/90
34. For submitting tax returns, all resident males
30. A tourist covers half of his journey by train with annual income below Rs 10 lakh should
at 60 Km/h, half of the remainder by bus at fill up Form P and all resident females with
30 km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. income below Rs 8 lakh should fill up From
The average speed of the tourist in km/h Q. All people with incomes above Rs 10
lakh should fill up Form R, except non
during his entire journey is
(ME/CSE/PI-13)
residents with income above Rs15 lakhs,
who should fill up Form S. All other should
(a) 36 (b) 30 (c) 24 (d) 18 fill Form T. An example of a person who
should fill Form T is
31. Find the sum of the expression (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-1)
I I I I
(a) a resident male with annual income Rs
.[i + ..fi +
..fi + .Ji .Ji + .[4
+ +
......
+
Jw + .Jsj
(ME/CSE/Pl-13)
9 lakh
(b) a resident female with annual income
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 1 0 Rs 9 lakh
(c) a non-resident male with annual
32. The current erection cost of a structure is Rs. income Rs 16 lakh
13,200. If the labour wages per day increase (d) a non-resident female with annual
by 1/5 of the current wages and the working income Rs 16 lakh
hours decrease by 1/24 of the current period,
then the new cost of erection in Rs. is
(ME/CSE/PI-13)
35. A train that is 280metres long traveling at a
uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60sec
(a) 16,500 (b) 15,180 and passes a man standing on the platform in
(c) 1 1 ,000 (d) 1 0, 1 20
20sec. what is the length of the platform in
metres? (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-l)
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: 1018 : General Aptitude
36. The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of (a) Q, W, Z, B (b) B, H, K, M
a country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the (c) W, C, G, J (d) M, S, V, X
following bar chart. If the trade deficit is
defined as excess of imports over exports, in 39. The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers
which year is the trade deficit 115th of the is 656. The average of four consecutive even
exports? (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-1) numbers is 87. What is the sum of the
smallest odd number and second largest even
number? (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2)
120
100
40. The total exports and revenues from the
exports of a country are given in the two
80
0
The pie chart for the revenues shows the
percentage of the total revenue generated
(a) 2005 (b) 2004 through export of each item. The total
(c) 2007 (d) 2006 quantity of exports of all the items is 500
thousand tones and the total revenues are
37. You are given three coins: one has heads on 250 crore rupees. Which item among the
both faces, the second has tails on both following has generated the maximum
faces, and the third has a head on one face revenue per kg? (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2)
and a tail on the other. You choose a coin at
Exports Revenues
random and toss it, and it comes up heads.
The probability that the other face is tails is
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-l)
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3
Item 3
38. Find the odd one in the following group 22% 19%
Q, W, Z, B B, H, K, M
W, C, G, J M,S, V,X (a) Item 2 (b) Item 3
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2) (c) Item 6 (d) Item 5
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.,.
�.. �5� P.iNirariooa : 1019 : Numerical Ability
===================================
41. It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
by draining it at a constant rate. It is decided (i) Butterflies are birds
to simultaneously pump water into the half (ii) There are more tigers in this forest than
full tank while draining it. What is the rate at red ants.
which water has to be pumped in so that it
(iii) All reptiles m this forest are either
gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2)
snakes or crocodiles.
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals m
(a) 4 times the draining rate
(b) 3 times the draining rate this forest.
(c) 2.5 times the draining rate (a) (i) and (ii) only
(d) 2 times the draining rate (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
42. Find the next term in the sequence. 7G, 1 l K, (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
13M, ____
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3) 44. A man can row at 8 km per hour in still
(a) 15Q (b) 17Q (c) 15P (d) 17P water. If it takes him thrice as long to row
upstream, as to row downstream, then find
43. The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows the stream velocity in km per hour.
the population of animals in a reserve forest. (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
The correct conclusions from this
information are: 45. A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units
in 2012. The following pie chart presents the
share of raw material, labour, energy, plant
& machinery, and transportation costs in the
total manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012.
The expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs.
4,50,000. In 2013, the raw material expenses
increased by 30% and all other expenses
increased by 20%. If the company registered
a profit of Rs. 10 lakhs in 2012, at what price
(in Rs.) was each air purifier sold?
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•t" • ACE : 1020: General Aptitude
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. . : 1021 : Numerical Ability
51. A five digit number is formed using the above information, which one of the
digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of following is TRUE?
them. What is the sum of all such possible (GATE-ME/INST/PI - lS_Set-3)
five digit numbers? (a) X and Y are not independent
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-4) (b) Y and Z are dependent
(a) 6666660 (b) 6666600 (c) Y and Z are independent
(c) 6666666 (d) 6666606 (d) X and Z are independent
57. A person moving through a tuberculosis evaluated out of 200 marks. It was observed
prone zone has a 50% probability of that the mean of group P was 105, while that
becoming infected. However, only 30% of of group Q was 85. The standard deviation
infected people develop the disease. What of group P was 25, while that of group Q
percentage of people moving through a was 5. Assuming that the marks were
tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but distributed on a normal distribution, which
does not shows symptoms of disease? of the following statements will have the
(ME/EC - 16)(Set1) highest probability of being TRUE?
(a) 15 (b) 33 (c) 35 (d) 37 (ME - 16) (Set2)
(a) No student in group Q scored less
1 1 1 marks than any student in group P.
58. If q-a - and r-b = - and s-C = - , the
r s q (b) No student in group P scored less marks
-
per day. Q worked 12 hours a day but took B,FH,LNP,----- (ME - 16) (Set2)
sick leave in the beginning for two days. R (a) SUWY (b) TUVW
worked 18 hours a day on all days. What is (c) TVXZ (d) TWXZ
the ratio of work done by Q and R after 7
62. The binary operation O is defined as a Ob =
days from the start of the project?
(ME/EC - 16)(Set1) ab + (a + b), where a and b are any two real
(a) 10: 11 (b) l l : 10 numbers. The value of the identity element
(c) 20:21 (d) 21 :20 of this operation, defined as the number x
such that a Ox = a, for any a, is _.
60. Students taking an exam are divided into two
groups, P and Q such that each group has the (ME - 16) (Set2)
same number of students. The performance (a) 0 (b) l (c) 2 (d) 10
of each of the students in a test was
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: 1023 : Numerical Ability
63. Which of the following curves represents the 64. The Venn diagram shows the preference of
the student population for leisure activities.
function y = ln(le�sinijxJ�ll) forlxl < 21t ? Here, x
(ME - 16)(Set 3)
represents the abscissa and y represents the
Read books Watch TV
ordinate. (ME - 16) (Set 2)
(A)
Play sports
(D)
(a) 18.60 (b) 22.50 (c) 20.61 (d) 25.00
I. All mammals build houses. 73. A contour line joins locations having the
II. Engineers are mammals. same height above the mean sea level. The
III. Some humans are not engineers. following is a contour plot of a geographical
(GATE - PI - 16)
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: 1025 : Numerical Ability
region. Contour lines are shown at 25 m 76. The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in
intervals in this plot. milk leads to curd formation. A minimum
bacterial population density of 0.8 (in
suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the
graph below, the population density of
lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a
function of time, at two different
i
0.9
(b) Down-Up-Down-Up
,8 0.8
0.1
j.
(c) Down-Up-Down
0.7
(d) Up-Down-Up
f5 0.S
J! C.<1
1
- ·- . . . . -r· · · 1 ..... .,-.. t·
a a.3
74. Trucks (10 m long) and cars (5 m long) go e_ : I
0.2 ••- : • ! •I f•
0 � � � M ioo t � 1� ™ iM �
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: 1026 : General Aptitude
77. What is the sum of the missing digits in the P says "Both of us are knights". Q says
subtraction problem below? "None of us are Knaves".
5 Which one of the following can be logically
-4 8 8 9 inferred from the above?
11 11 (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -2)
(GATE-ME - 17)(SET -l ) (a) Both P and Q are knights
(a) 8 (b) 10 (b) P is a knight; Q is a knave
(c) 11 (d) Cannot be determined (c) Both P and Q are knaves
(d) The identities of P, Q cannot be
78. Let S 1 be the plane figure consisting of the determined
points (x,y) given by the inequalities lx-11 �
2 and ly+21 � 3. Let S2 be the plane figure 81. In the graph below, the concentration of a
particular pollutant in a lake is plotted over
given by the inequalities x - y � -2, y � 1,
(alternate) days of a month in winter
and x � 3. Let S be the union of S 1 and S2 .
(average temperature l 0° C) and a month in
The area of S is
(GATE-ME - 17)(SET -l) summer (average temperature 30° C).
(a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 34 ..-. 1 1
E
g
10
9
79. There are 4 women P, Q, R, S, and 5 men V,
W, X, Y, Z in a group. We are required to �
i 6 ,.... .... .., .. . . ····-· ,. \·
T: ... . ;,
form pairs each consisting of one woman u 5 ; . . . (... ;.. . ., . .. ....... )
a
+ -� ; .
·1· .•• .,,.
i. j t r
0 .. ! . i · · · ! ., .. , ., ..... -'0•"
and one man. P is not to be paired with Z,
i ; : .
....... 3
i . :
�•••�-•1•-•-1"- • •0•• • ••-••n•• ;-•o-••• •....• •••-;..-. .,, ,... ,,...._
•..,_._,,,,.,.
i i •
�
and Y must necessarily be paired with � 2 .
; :· ;
I
I
someone. In how many ways can 4 such � :. .., ; : .: : . ... ... -···· ·
pairs be formed? o 2 " o e 10 1 2 14 10 1e 20 22 24 2e 2a 30
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SOLUTIONS
03. Ans: (b)
One Mark Solutions Sol: Given P = Q½ = R½
01. Ans: (d)
Sol:
Q2 = P4
Q2 = p . p 3 p3 = ( R ½ J = R
hockey players
Q2 = P . R
For above the logical venn diagram shows as
follows
04. Ans: (d)
Total No. of players = hockey only+ foot ball
Sol: (1.001)12 = 3.52 and (1.001)2° = 7.85
59 62
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�&JgjnmqPnhlionooa : 1029 : Nwnerical Ability
- 2 n .x n . L
m
12. Ans: 16 2m
-
Sol: 81 54 36 24 16
\__}\_A_)\__)
2 2 2 2 = 2n -m_f( x, y)
x- x- x- x-
3 3 3 3
15. Ans: 495
13. Ans: (d) Sol: x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8 . . . . . . .
M 5x + 20 =425
Sol: Given
p
5x = 405
Option (a) R p
- s X = 81
M � not True Hence 12 odd numbers
81, 83, 85, 87, 89, 9 1, 93, 95, 97, 99, 101, 103
_e
Option (b) F
£ F 16. Ans: (b)
£ F Sol:
A: Ram selected ( A ): Ram not selected
M � not True
.e
B: Ramesh selected ( B ) : Ramesh not selected
s
F
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ACE
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-:,�• : 1031: Nwnerical Ability
==================================
=> P ( A ): = 1 - P(A) = 1-
-
(ii) ex > eY
6
1 1 5
P(A) = =
6 6 e3 = 20.0�
P(B) = ½ => P( B ): = 1 - P(B) = 1- ½ = ; e2 = 7.38
\J\j\
Stretch P per km = 57 = 0.57
1 00
Therefore in the stretch 'N', the electricity
consumption per km is minimum.
B EF JKL QRST
(+I ) (+2) (+3) (+4)
18. Ans: (a)
Sol: For whole numbers, greater the value greater Therefore, the missing word in the sequence
will be its log and same logic for power of e is 'MNOP'
Example:
20. Ans: (b)
Assume x = 3, y = 2
Sol: For a match to be played, we need 2 teams
(i) lnx > lny No. of matches = no. of ways of selections 2
ln3 = 1.0986 teams out of 5 teams
ln2 = 0.6931 51
5C 2 -
-
lnx > lny is true 2 !><(5 - 2)!
5x4x3x2xl
= = 10
2xlx3x2xl
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. ACE
. . . : 1032: General Aptitude
45
=X � X 5692000 = 384210
X X
100 100
Ripe type of apples
34 85 X 5692000 = 1644988
X
=
100 100 The perimeter of the window = 5x = 6 m
X
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:&p,erqPnNiariool
: 1033 : Numerical Ability
... � ==================================
26. Ans: (a) 80H 170P 75
+ = (H + P )
100 100 100
Sol: (x¾ of y) + (y¾ of x) = 2- x y + L x x
100 100 80 H + 170 P = 75 H + 75P
xy + xy 80 H - 75 H = 75 P - 170P
100 5 H = - 95 P
2xy There is a negative ratio so, there are errors
= - = 2% of xy
100 in the official's statement .
27. Ans: (a)
29. Ans: (b)
Sol: The new number formed by reversing the
Sol: Sum of angles in a pie chart = 360°
digits is greater than the original number is
The relation between angle and percentage is
possible in options A and B only.
100 % = 360°
Options 'a':
% = 3.6°
Sum of two digits in the number = 3+ 9 = 12
After reversing the two digits number = 93 : . 40% = ?
The difference between the new number 40 X 3.6 = 144°
formed and original number = 93 - 39 = 54
30. Ans: (b)
:. option 'A' is correct.
Sol: From given statements the following Venn
Option 'b':
diagrams are possible
original number = 57
T = tables, S = shelves,
After reversing, the number is formed = 75
C = chairs and B = benches
The difference between these two numbers
= 75 - 57 = 18
:. It is not.
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ACE
��-� :F.ngiocr.riog P.,blic:ariooa : 1036 :
� - � ==================================
General Aptitude
I2 13 13 13 I 276
435
672
1623
= 2 x 3x 3 x 3 = 54
= 2x+ 12 - ( 2x - 24 )
General Number Octa numbers 3 12
0 0 8x+ 4 2x+ 24 -
� for R� = \� ( ; 4)
l l
6x+ 72
2 2
12
= ---
3 3
The remaining toffees in a bowl
4 4
5 5
6 6
� 3x - x+ 12
7 7 = x- +4=
3 3
( 2x+ I 2)
8 1 0 =
9 1
� for S �
10 2
11 3
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t.\ ��::1;����;:�. .t\CE . . 7 =
.l!lFti..,.W'J11111 Puibili.rati-oo• =======:;,..;l�0�3,:..
-:,.. ..:'= Numerical Abili
=========�::::;�:���;::;;;ty� ,;,,,
2x + 12 36
( 3 ) for r S => - = 9 => 36-9= 27+ 3 =30
-'------'--- - 2 => 2x + 12 _ 3 = 2x + 12 - 36 4
4 12 12 30
for T => - =15 => 30-15 = 15 + 2 =17
2x - 24
= --- 2
12 :. Ans 48 . (d)
The remaining toffees in a bowl
2x + l2 2x - 24
= -( )
07. Ans: (d)
3 12 Sol: Given that f(y) = 141/4
-
= 8x + 48 2x + 24 = --
6x + 72 Q = any non-zero real number
12 12 = +q (or) -<1
6x + 72 If q is the
( 12 ) 6x + 72
� for T => 2= 2 q
2 24 f(q) = l l = 1
q
6x + 72 - 48 --
= ---- = 6x + 24 -q
24 24 f(-<I) = I i = -1
-q
The remaining toffees in a bowl
6x + 72 6x + 24 :. I f ( q ) - f ( -q )I = 1 1 - ( - I )I = 11 +11 = 2
= -( )
12 24 If q is -ve
12x + l 44 - 6x - 24 6x + l20 -q
f(-v = I i = -1 => f(-v
24 24
= =
-q
6x +120 =
l7 -q
24 = I i = -l
-q
6x + l 20 = 17 x 24 = 408
q
6x = 408 - 120 = 288 f (-q) = l l = 1
q
288 =
j f ( q ) - f ( -q )I = 1 1 - ( - l )I = 1- 1 - 11 = 2
X= 48
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�F�NW'Jfiml : 1039 : Numerical Ability
.. � ===================================
What is the minimum number of trucks 12. Ans: (d)
required so that there will be no pending order Sol: P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous
at the end of the 5th day? microbes recently found in a human habitat
1 day = 7 x 4 = 28 No. of trucks In the graph
1 day 3 x 10 30 No. of trucks
= =
� on X-axis represents probability that microbe
L.C.M of 28, 30 = 420 will over come human immunity system and
Assume everyday received orders = 105 � on Y-axis represents Toxicity (in milligrams
First case of microbe required to destroy half of the
420orders+ back log (b) body mass in kilograms
1 day =
28 Microbe 'S' will have 80% of probability that
420 microbe will overcome human immunity
= 105
system and less weight of milligrams of
microbe required to destroy half of the body
Second case
mass in kgs.
10 days = 1050 :. Microbe 'S' is danger to human beings.
1050orders+ back log (b)
1 day = 13. Ans: (d)
30
420 + b 1050+ b Sol:
--- = JO lit
28 30 of pure spirit
Sol: V = 4q ,
l OO to find out the choice that is not related to
F=
death or situation before the death. Its about
100 healing process a person goes through after
(V + F) = 4q + -
losing a relative
(a): ' 5 '
100 16. Ans: (d)
Sol: The total monthly budget of an average
= 4x5 + - = 20 + 20 = 40
l OO = l 500 x l OO = 14.285%
= 4x6 + = 24 + 16.66 = 40.66 10500
6
No. of units should be produced to . ·. The approximate percentage of the
minimize the total cost (V + F) = ' 5 ' = 100 - 14.285 = 85.714 ::::: 86%
Monthly budget NOT spent on savings
15. Ans: (c)
Sol:
a) Letter of condolence is obviously related to 17. Ans: (c)
bereavement and grief because it is written to Sol: Two friends A and B
the family which is going through pain and
grief
b) This option even related to the situation and
mental agony a family goes through after a
death in the family
c) The leading causes of death are clearly not
related to bereavement and parting of
deceased person. This is the right choice 1 . 1 5 1 .30 1 .45 2.00
d) Giving support to a grieving friend means ( 1 . 1 5, 1 .00)
� Person A
dealing with situation after death
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ACE . . : 1 04 1 : Numerical Ability
The probability that they will meet on that 19. Ans: (a)
day Sol: Let us consider eight rice bags are A, B,C, D,
E, F, G and H
= 1-2 [!2 X
60 60 J
45 X 45
Case - I
(Area of ABCD) First weighing
_ l --
- 16
_ 16
9 - --
16
-9 -
_- 7
16
8 A, B & C
8
D, E &F
20 X + 1 0 y = 230 . . . . . .. . .. (ii)
solve (i) and (ii) If A,B & C (set 1) and D, E & F (set 2) are
X + y = 14 . . . . . . . . ...... (i) x20 not equal among set 1 and set 2 any one them
20 X +10 y = 230 . . . . . . . . .... (ii) is heavier than other.
If set 2 (D, E & F) is heavier than set 1, In
20 X + 20 y = 280 second weighing D Vs E
20 x + 10 y = 230 � if D and E are equal, than F is heavier
1 0 y = 50 � if D and E are unequal, then higher side one is
50 heavier.
y = = 5
10 From case I and case II, the minimum number
:. The number of Rs.10 notes that has is 5. of weighings required to identify the heavier
bag is '2'.
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: 1 042 : General Aptitude
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: 1043 : Numerical Ability
Time Distance
:. The maximum possible height of the arch is at 15 min 8 km
x = 10 15 min 6 km
Alternative method 15 min 16 km
y = 2x - O. lx2
y' = 2 - 0.1 X 2.x = 0 => X = 10 = 45 min = 30 km
y" = - 2 x 0 . 1 => y"(l O) = - 0.2 < 0 3
= - hrs
=> y is max @ x = 10
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ACE Gene titude
�-�
� ":E
= ·m
�
b�· •:
:·�·���j�
:- ·
·�
1 044
=·�=======�:�::� �A
: ==========:�;ral �p: :;::=
SI + l 15 + 60
a(r n - 1)
A
Sn + Sn=
n (2a (n 1)d
+ - )
r _1
=
2
Where Where 31. Ans: (b)
Sol: Given expression
a = 9, r = 9 a = l, d = 2
�[
9
t� !)] + [� (2 x I + (n - l)x 2)]
I
..fi + .fi
+
I
-h + -h
+
I
./J + .{4
1
+
......
+
I
.fso + .fsi
= I x fi - 1 = ..fi - I = fi Ji
-
fi + Ji fi - 1 2-1
29. Ans: (d) Similarly
Sol: From 1 to 100, 2-digit integers are possible fi - Ji + .Ji - fi + -.J4 - -J3 + ...... Jsi - Fso
from 10 to 99 is 90 = .Jsi - Ji = 9 - 1 = 8
From 10 to 99 divisible by 7 are 13 numbers
are not divisible by 7 are 77 numbers 32. Ans: (b)
The probability that the selected number is Sol: Current erection cost of a structure
. . 'ble by 7 = -77 = Rs. 13,200
not d1v1s1
90 The erection cost of a structure
= wages x time = x x y
1
The labour wages per day increased by - of
34. Ans: (b)
5 Sol: Option (a) people can fill Form P
the current wages Option (c) people can fill Form S
1 6 Option (d) people can fill Form S
The new labour wages per day = 1 + - = - th
5 5 :. Option (b) people can fill Form 'T'
of current wages
I Q W A
Sol:
9 17 23 1 Year Trade deficit 1
-(Exports)
"-.J�\_J (Imp-Exp) 5
+8 +6 +4
2005 20 1
14=-x70
F N T X
-::f.
5
6 14 20 24 2004 10 1
"-.J�\_J 14=-X 70
-::f.
+8 +6 +4 5
2007 10 1
N V B D
-::f.
5
22=-X 110
=
1� ,22 2 4
2006 20
"---/�\_J 20=-xlOO
1
+8 +6 +2 5
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: 1046: General Aptitude
½)
3 2
=--------- 8(x+7) = 656
(½x1 ) +(½xO ) +(½x 7=
656
= 82
X+
8
1
- 1 x = 75 (also smallest odd number )
1 6 1
6 = 6 =-X- =- Now let us consider fore even numbers be
1 1 --
2+ 1 6 3 3
-+ O + - x , x+2 , x+ 4, x+6
3 6 6
Given that Average = 87
38. Ans: (c) 4x +1 2
=87
Sol:
4 x +3
( ) =87 � X = 84
Q W Z B
17 23 26 2 second largest even number = x + 4 = 88
'---/
+6
�'---/
+3 +2 sum ofsmallest odd number & second largest
even number = 75 + 88 = 1 63
B H K M
2 8 11 13 40. Ans: (d)
��'---/
+6 +3 +2
Sol: 250 crore rupees = 25x 10 8 rupees
500 thousand tonnes = 5 x 10 8 rupees
W C G J Revenue per Kg
23 3 7 10
�
+6
'---/�
+4 +3
Item 2=
20%of25xl0 8
20%of5xl0 8
=5
23%of25xl0 8 = 23x5 1 1 5
Item 3= = =6_0 5
M S V X 19%of5X10 8 19 9
13 19 22 24
'---/
+6
'---/�
+3 +2
Item 6 =
19%of25xl0 8 19 x5
= =5_9 3
1 6%of5X10 8 16
20%of25xl0 8 100 25
Item 5= = = = 8_33
1 2%of5X10 8 12 3
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: 1 047: Numerical Ability
� Given drain pipe empties half full tank is 42. Ans: (b)
l th Sol: 7G, 1 lK, 1 3M, -11Q
3 0min. In one minute, - of half full
30 A sequence of letters whose place values are
tank is emptied. pnme.
� The purpose is to fill the remain half full
tank in 10 min. 43. Ans: (d)
Sol: By studing the pie-chart we can clearly say
When both the pipes are open. that all the 4 options are true.
th
So in one minute they can fill up - of half
l
IO 44. Ans: 4
full tank . Sol: Let the velocity of stream be x kmph
1 Up stream speed = ( 8 + x) kmph
! +- =
( 30) 1� Down stream speed = (8 - x) kmph
1 1 1
-= It is given that time taken in upstream
- +-
x 10 30 = 3x time in downstream
1 3 +-�-=-
1 4 2 d d
_ _= 3x ['d'is distance]
x 30 3 0 15 8-x (8 + x)
-=-
So the filling can fill the half full tank in � hour ( 8 + X ) = 3 (8- x)
2 x = 4 kmph
= 7. 5 hours which 4 times the rate of drain pipe.
Short -cut 45. Ans: 20000
10 �=
- 1
X 30 46. Ans: 0.80 to 0.82
10= _!_= 3+1
1+
X 3 3
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ACE
��-· 048 = 1 General A tirude
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Film directors
II First Choice
Film Stars
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: 1050: General Aptitude
70 50 35
= - x- = - = 351/o
0
s rb s
QT 2 2
S =-1 �-=-
1 1 �S c =
QR 2 +5 7 q
-=--=-
q Sc q
-C
= .!._x�x xPQxQR]
4 7 2
[.!.. :. abc = 1
\( I l r11
.
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�,,.,,...,..Nllirmrm : 1051: Nwnerical Ability
Distribution of P:
61. Ans: (c)
68% within one standard deviation of P Sol: The following letter series is in the order of
even letters series
+4 +2 +4 +2 +2 +4
B, F H, L N P,------- TVXZ
4km
:
:
DE
Play sports = n(s) = 44 + 7 + 17 +15 = 83 cos45 ° =-
4
n (R nS) = 44 + 7 = 51 DE = cos45°x 4 = 2.828 km
n (R u S) = n (R) + n (S) - n (R nS) . EN
sm 450 =-
= 76 + 83- 51 = 108
EN = sin 45° x 4 = 2.828 km
65. Ans: (d)
CN = NE + CE = 2.828 + 5
Sol: .Time back = 2 : = 2 hrs 15 min = 7.828 km
:. C.T 12.00
= = (7.828)2 + (7.171)2
1.30
10.30 :. NB = �(7.828) + (7.171)
2 2
= 10.616 km
:. NM = NB + BN = 10.616 + 10
.·. The actual time shown by the clock
= 20.61 km
= 10.30 + 2.15 = 12.45
: 1053: Nwnerical Ability
r
=[3 40-2x] +� x 2x
2
4 3 3 Option (b)
340 2x 2 ' Side of the square = x = 40mm
Perimeter of the square = 3 40- 16 0
-[ ; + ;
= 18 0 mm
Combined area of square + rectangle
= minimum 2x + 2x 2x = 18 0mm
f(
' x) = 0 6 x = 18 0mm
3 40- 2x 2 x = 3 0mm
f(X ) = [--- ]
2
'!,�
I
. .t\CE . .
: 1054: General Aptitude
=======================================
�:�Publir*n
1
=- xpx/
68. Ans: (d) X
Ananth Bharath
70. Ans: (d)
Sol: Base perimeter of square pyramid= x=p
/\
Read Not read
/\
Read Not read
2 pages IO pages 3 pages 9 pages
A
Bharath
:. it is not
4: 3
Down Up Down
Options 'c'
3 hrs
:. The path from P to Q is Down-Up-Down
option ( c) is satisfies this path
Ananth Bharath
2 :I =30 m
Length of car + gap required =5 + 15
After 3 hours is the number of pages to be
=20 m
read by Ananth, twice that to be read by
Total distance is need for truck and car for
Bharath.
passing alternatively=30 + 20=50 m
72. Ans: (a) Given, speed=36 kmph
Sol: From the given data, eight persons are seated =36x2-=10 m/sec
around a circular table as follows 18
Let 'x' be the number of repetitions of
Y T V S U Y (Truck + car) in one hour
(or) (or) 50xx =
lO m/s
V T Y Y U S 60x60
10x60x60
x =----
S-Z--T y
50
=720 numbers of (Trucks + cars)
In the sub group two Indians and remaining 78. Ans: (c)
are Chinese Sol: I x -11 � 2
= 3C2 [3C,+3C +3C ] = 3 [3 + 3 + 1]
2 3 => x-1 � 2 or x-1�-2
= 3x 7 = 21 => x � 3 or x � -1 ---------(1)
In the sub group three Indians and l y + 21 � 3
remaining are Chinese => y + 2 � 3 or y +2 � -3
= 3C3 [3C,+3C2+3C3 ]
or y �-5 --------(2)
= 1 [ 3 +3 + 1 ] = 7
S 1 plane can be obtained as area bounded by
lines x = 3, x = -1, y = 1 & y = -5
:. Total number of sub groups
= 7 +21 +21 + 7 = 56
Similarly, x=3
x-y � -2
76. Ans: (a)
1.e. y � x+2
Sol: From the graph statement (i) is correct
: . Area bounded by y y= I
• the time taken for curd formation @ 25 °C
= 1 20 min = x+2, y = 1 and x = 3 X
gives S2
• the time taken for curd formation @ 37°C
= 80 min
S = S, + S2
y = -5
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: 1057 : Numerical Ability
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Chapter
2 Verbal Ability
04. Choose the most appropriate word from the
One Mark Questions options given below to complete the
following sentence: (ALL BRANCHES-IO)
O I . Which of the following options is the closest His rather casual remarks on politics __
in meaning to the word below: his lack of seriousness about the subject.
(ALL BRANCHES-IO)
(a) masked (b) belied
Circuitous
(c) betrayed (d) suppressed
(a) cyclic (b) indirect
(c) confusing (d) crooked 05. Choose the word from the options given
below that is most nearly opposite in meaning
02. The question below consists of a pair of to the given word. (EC/EE/INST-II)
related words followed by four pairs of Frequency
words. Select the pair that best expresses the (a) periodicity (b) rarity
relation in the original pair. (c) gradualness (d) persistency
(ALL BRANCHES -10)
UNEMPLOYED : WORKER : :
06. Choose the most appropriate word from the
(a) fallow land options given below to complete the
(b) unaware sleeper following sentence.
(c) wit jester Under ethical guidelines recently adopted
(d) renovated house by the Indian Medical Association, human
genes are to be manipulated only to correct
03. Choose the most appropriate word from the diseases for which ----- treatments
options given below to complete the are unsatisfactory. (EC/EE/INST-11)
following sentence: (a) similar (b) most
If we manage to our natural (c) uncommon (d) available
resources, we would leave a better planet for
our children. (ALL BRANCHES-IO) 07. Choose the most appropriate word from the
(a) uphold (b) restrain options given below to complete the
(c) cherish (d) conserve following sentence.
I I I I I I I I I
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: 1059 : Verbal Ability
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!lii•f@!lii@ijjflGiiii@4*
: 10 60 : General Aptitude
(a) requested that (a) They gave us the money back less the
16. Choose the most appropriate word from the the stampede.
1 7. Which one of the following options is the (a) attempts (b) setbacks
closest in meaning to the word given below? (c) meetings (d) delegations
(ME/CE/CSE/PI-12)
Mitigate 21 . They were requested not to quarrel with
(a) Diminish (b) Divulge others.
(c) Dedicate (d) Denote Which one of the following options is the
closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
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ACE
��-�:&,inr,:rq Pnbliariooa
� �============= : 1061 : Verbal Ability
=====================
(EC/EE/INST-13) 26. Were you a bird, you ____ in the sky.
(a) make out (b) call out (ME/CSE/PI-13)
(c) dig out (d) fall out (a) Would fly (b) Shall fly
(c) Should fly (d) Shall have flown
22. Complete the sentence:
Dare ____ mistake. (EC/EE/INST-13) 27. Which one of the following options is the
(a) commit (b) to commit closest in meaning to the word given below?
(c) committed (d) committing (ME/CSE/PI-13)
Nadir
23. Choose the grammatically CORRECT (a) Highest (b) Lowest
sentence: (EC/EE/INST-13) (c) Medium (d) Integration
(a) Two and two add four
(b) Two and two become four 28. Choose the grammatically INCORRECT
(c) Two and two are four sentence: (ME/CSE/PI-13)
(d) Two and two make four (a) He is ofAsian origin.
(b) They belonged to Africa.
24. Statement: You can always give me a ring (c) She is an European.
whenever you need. (d) They migrated from India to Australia.
Which one of the following is the best
inference from the above statement? 29 . Choose the most appropriate phrase from the
(EC/EE/INST-13) options given below to complete the
(a) Because I have a nice caller tune. following sentence.
(b) Because I have a better telephone facility The aircraft ___ take off as soon as its
(c) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed fight plan was filed.
(d) Because you need not pay towards the (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-l)
telephone bills when you give me a ring (a) is allowed to
(b) will be allowed to
25. Complete the sentence: (c) was allowed to
Universalism 1s to particularism as (d) has been allowed to
diffuseness is to (ME/CSE/PI-13)
(a) Specificity (b) Neutrality 30. Choose the statement where underlined word
(c) Generality (d) Adaptation is used correctly. (CSIT - 2015)
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':.-� •
ACE
• _r_ • : 1062:
� �============
�� ==============================
Pnhnnma General Aptitude
(a) The industrialist had a personnel jet. 34. Choose the most appropriate pair of words
(b) I write my experience in my personnel from the options given below to complete the
diary. following sentence.
(c) All personnel are being given the day off. She could not__the thought of __the
(d) Being religious is a personnel aspect. election to her bitter rival.
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2)
31. Choose the most appropriate word from the (a) bear, loosing (b) bare, loosing
options given below to complete the (c) bear, losing (d) bare, losing
following sentence.
Many ancient cultures attributed disease to 35. "India is a country of rich heritage and
supernatural causes. However, modern cultural diversity".
science has largely helped ___ such Which one of the following facts best
notions. supports the claim made in the above
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-1) sentence?
(a) impel (b) dispel (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
(c) propel (d) repel (a) India is a union of 29 states and 7 union
territories.
32. Choose the most appropriate word from the (b) India has a population ofover 1 .1 billion.
options given below to complete the (c) India is home to 22 official languages and
following sentence. thousands ofdialects.
Communication and interpersonal skills are (d) The Indian cricket team draws players
__important in their own ways. from over ten states.
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2)
(a) each (b) both (c) all (d) either 36. The value of one U.S. dollar is 65 Indian
Rupees today, compared to 60 last year. The
33. Which of the options given below best Indian Rupee has___
completes the following sentence? (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
She will feel much better ifshe (a) depressed (b) depreciated
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2) (c) appreciated (d) stabilized
(a) will get some rest
(b) gets some rest 37. 'Advice' is -----
(c) will be getting some rest (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-3)
(d) is getting some rest (a) A verb (b) A noun
(c) An adjective (d) Both a verb and a noun
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ACE : 1063: Verbal Ability
� E�PuNirat',ooa
��-�
'====================================
38. Which of the following options is closest in 42. Choose the most appropriate word from the
meaning to the word underlined in the options given below to complete the
sentence below? following sentence.
In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to He could not understand the judges awarding
disagree with the government. her the first prize, because he thought that her
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-4) performance was quite___
(a) dissent (b) descent (a) superb (b) medium
(c) decent (d) decadent (c) mediocre (d) exhilarating
39. After the discussion, Tom said to me, 'Please 43. In a press meet on the recent scam, the
revert! ' . He expects me to _____ minister said, "The buck stops here". What
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-4) did the minister convey by the statement?
(a) retract (b) get back to him (GATE-14-Set-l)
(c) move in reverse (d) retreat (a) He wants all the money
(b) He will return the money
40. While receiving the award, the scientist said, (c) He will assume final responsibility
"I feel vindicated". Which of the following is (d) He will resist all enquiries
closest in meaning to the word 'vindicated'?
(GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-4) 44. Choose the most appropriate phrase from the
(a) punished (b) substantiated options given below to complete the
(c) appreciated (d) chastened following sentence. (GATE-14-S2)
India is a post-colonial country because
(a) It was a former British colony
4 1 . Which of the following options is the closest
(b) Indian Information Technology
in meaning to the phrase underlined in the
professionals have colo�i41P!tf-Wlj
sentence below?
( c) India does not follow any colonial
It is fascinating to see life forms cope with
practices
varied environmental conditions.
(d) India has helped other countries gam
(a) adopt to (b) adapt to
freedom
(c) adept in (d) accept with
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45. Who ___ was coming to see us this (a) Contentment (b) Ambition
evening? (GATE-14-S2) (c) Perseverance (d) Hunger
(a) you said (b) did you say
( c) did you say that (d) had you said 49. Which of the following options is the closest
in meaning to the sentence below?
46. Match the columns. (GATE-14-S2) " As a woman, I have no country"
Column 1 Column 2 (GATE -14-CE/IN/PI- set 2)
1 . Eradicate P. misrepresent (a) Women have no country.
2. Distort Q. soak completely (b) Women are not citizens of any country.
3. Saturate R. use (c) Women's solidarity knows no national
4. Utilize S. destroy utterly boundaries.
(d) Women of all countries have equal legal
Codes:
rights.
(a) 1 : S, 2 : P, 3 : Q, 4 : R
(b) 1 : P, 2 : Q, 3 : R, 4 : S
50.
(c) 1 : Q, 2 : R, 3 : S, 4 : P
The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class
(d) 1 : S, 2 : P, 3 : R, 4 : Q I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the
4 7. Choose the most appropriate word from the
sentence is grammatically incorrect?
options given below to complete the
(GATE - 13)
following sentence.
(GATE -14 -CE/IN/PI- Set 2) (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
A person suffering from Alzheimer's disease
____ short-term memory loss. 5 1 . Which of the following options is the closest
(a) experienced (b) has experienced in meaning to the word given below: Primeval
(c) is experiencing (d) experiences (GATE - 13)
(a) modern (b) Historic
48. Choose the most appropriate word from the (c) Primitive (d) Antique
options given below to complete the
following sentence. 52. Friendship, no matter how ___it is, has
(GATE -14 -CE/IN/PI- set 2) its limitations. (GATE - 13)
___ is the key to their happiness; they are (a) cordial (b) intimate
satisfied with what they have. (c) secret (d) pleasant
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"� ," r..,.,...,..PnNir.afiooa : 1065 : Verbal Ability
53. Select the pair that best expresses a (a) Rajan has decided to work only in a
relationship to that expressed in the pair: group.
(GATE - 13) (b) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group
MEDICINE HEALTH .. against their wishes.
(a) Science Experiment (c) Sajan had decided to give in to Raj an's
(b) Wealth Peace request to work with him.
(c) Education Knowledge (d) Rajan had believed that Saj an and he
(d) Money Happiness would be working together.
54. A student is required to demonstrate a high 57. Choose the statement where underlined word
level of comprehension of the subject, is used correctly. (CE - 2015)
especially in the social sciences. (a) The minister insured the victims that
The word closest m meaning to everything would be all right.
comprehension is (GATE -14- set 1) (b) He ensured that the company will not
(a) understanding (b) meaning have to bear any loss
(c) concentration (d) stability (c) The actor got himself ensured against any
accident
55. Choose the most appropriate word from the (d) The teacher insured students of good
options given below to complete the results
following sentence.
One of his biggest __ was his ability to 58. Which word is not a synonym for the word
forgive. (GATE -14- set 1) vernacular? (CE - 2015)
(a) vice (b) virtues (a) regional (b) indigenous
(c) choices (d) strength (c) indigent (d) colloquial
56. Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do 59. Choose the most appropriate word from the
the project on his own. On observing his options given below to complete the
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he following sentence. (CE - 2015)
preferred to work independently. The official answered ___ that the
Which one of the statements below is complaints ofthe citizen would be looked into
logically valid and can be inferred from the (a) respectably (b) respectfully
above sentences? (GATE -14- set 1) (c) reputably (d) respectively
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: 1066 : General Aptitude
60. The word similar in meaning to 'dreary' is 64. Which of the following options is the closest
(CE - 2015) in meaning to the sentence below?
(a) cheerful (b) dreamy (EE/CSIT - 2015)
(c) hard (d) dismal She enjoyed herself immensely at the party.
(a) She had a terrible time at the party
6 1 . Select the paIT that best expresses a (b) She had a horrible time at the party
relationship similar to that expressed in the (c) She had a terrific time at the party
pair: (CE, CSIT - 2015) (d) She had a terrifying time at the party
Children : Pediatrician
(a) Adult : Orthopaedist 65. Which one of the following combinations is
(b) Females : Gynaecologist incorrect?
(c) Kidney : Nephrologist (EE/CSIT - 2015)
(d) Skin : Dermatologist (a) Acquiescence - Submission
(b) Wheedle - Roundabout
62. Extreme focus on syllabus and studying for
( c) Flippancy - Lightness
tests has become such a dominant concern of
(d) Profligate - Extravagant
Indian students that they close their minds to
anything ___ to the requirements of the 66. Didn't you buy when you went
exam. (CE, CSIT-2015) shopping? (EE/CSIT - 2015)
(a) related (b) extraneous (a) any paper (b) much paper
(c) outside (d) useful (c) no paper (d) a few paper
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: 1067 : Verbal Ability
68. We ____ our friend's birthday and we (a) momento (b) memento
____ how to make it up to him. ( c) momentum (d) moment
(EE/CSIT -2015)
(a) completely forgot -- don't just know 72. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of
(b) forgot completely - - don't just know the four options given below, to complete the
( c) completely forgot -- just don't know following sentence:
(d) forgot completely-- just don't know Frogs____ (EC-2015)
(a) Croak (b) Roar
69. A generic term that includes various items of
(c) Hiss (d) Patter
clothing such as a skirt, a pair of trousers and
a shirt is (EE/CSIT -2015)
7 3. Choose the word most similar in meaning to
(a) fabric (b) textile
the given word: (educe) (EC-2015)
(c) fibre (d) apparel
(a) Exert (b) Educate
( c) Extract ( d) Extend
70. Out of the following four sentences, select the
most suitable sentence with respect to
74. The following question presents a sentence,
grammar and usage: (EE/CSIT - 2015)
part of which is underlined. Beneath the
(a) Since the report lacked needed
sentence you find four ways of phrasing the
information, it was of no use to them.
underlined part. Following the requirements
(b) The report was useless to them because
of the standard written English, select the
there were no needed information in it.
answer that produces the most effective
( c) Since the report did not contain the
sentence.
needed information, it was not real useful
Tuberculosis, together with its effects, ranks
to them.
one of the leading causes of death in India.
( d) Since the report lacked needed
information, it would not had been useful
(EC-2015)
(a) ranks as one of the leading causes of
to them.
death.
71. Choose the most appropriate word from the (b) rank as one of the leading causes of death.
options given below to complete the ( c) has the rank of the leading causes of
following sentence. (EC-2015) death.
The principal presented the chief guest with a ( d) are one of the leading causes of death.
____, as token of appreciation.
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. . . : 1068 : General Aptitude
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75. Choose the word most similar in meaning to 79 . Choose the most suitable one word substitute
the given word? (EC-2015) for the following ex pression: (EC-2015)
Awkward Connotation ofa road or way
(a) Inept (b) Graceful (a) Pertinacious (b) Viaticum
(c) Suitable (d) Dreadful (c) Clandestine (d) Ravenous
76. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of 80. Choose the most appropriate word from the
the four options given below, to complete the options given below to complete the
following sentence: (EC-2015) following sentence. (EC-2015)
Dhoni, as well as the other team members of Ifthe athlete had wanted to come first in the
Indian team, _____.present on the race, he ___ several hours every day.
occasion (a) should practise
(a) were (b) was (b) should have practised
(c) has (d) have (c) practised
(d) should be practising
77. What is the adverb for the given word below?
(EC-2015)
81. Choose the correct verb to fill in the below:
MISOGYNOUS
(EC-2015)
(a) Misogynousness (b) Mysogynity
Let us ---
(c) Misogynously (d) Misogynous
(a) introvert (b) alternate
78. In the following sentence certain parts are (c) atheist (d) altruist
underlined and marked P, Q, and R. One of
the parts may contain certain error or may not 82. Ram and Shyam shared a secret and promised
be acceptable m standard written to each other it would remain between them.
communication. Select the part containing an Ram ex pressed himself in one of the
error. Choose D as your answer ifthere is no following ways as given in the choices below.
error. (EC-2015) Identify the correct way as per standard
English. (EC-2015)
The student corrected all the errors that the
(a) It would remain between you and me.
instructor marked on the answer book.
(b) It would remain between I and you.
p Q R
(c) It would remain between you and I.
(a) p (b) Q (c) R (d) No Error
(d) It would remain with me.
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ACE : 1069 :
��-t:�Poolicatm Verbal Ability
� � ===================== ===============
83. Didn't you buy ____ when you went 87. Select the appropriate option in place of
shopping? (EE-2014) underlined part ofthe sentence.
(a) any paper (b) much paper
Increased productivity necessary reflects
(c) no paper (d) a few paper
greater efforts made by the employees.
(IN/ME-2015)
84. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of
(a) Increase in productivity necessary
the four options given below, to complete the
(b) Increase productivity is necessary
following sentence: (IN/ME-2015)
(c) Increase in productivity necessarily
Apparent lifelessness ----dormant life (d) No improvement required.
(a) harbours (b) leads to
(c) supports (d) affects 88. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of
the four options given below, to complete the
85. Choose the statement where underlined word following sentence:
is used correctly. (ME-2015)
(IN/ME-2015) Dhoni , as well as the other team members of
(a) When the teacher eludes to different Indian team, present on the
authors, he is being elusive. occas10n.
(b) When the thief keeps eluding the police, (a) were (b) was
he is being elusive. (c) has (d) have
(c) Matters that are difficult to understand,
identify or remember are allusive. 8 9. Choose the word most similar in meaning to
(d) Mirages can be allusive. but a better way the given word: (ME-2015)
to express them is illusory. AWKWARD
(a) Inept (b) Graceful
86. Fill m the blanks with the correct (c) Suitable (d) Dreadful
idiom/phrase. (IN/ME-2015)
That boy from the town was a ___ in the 90. In the following sentence certain parts are
sleepy village. underlined and marked P,Q and R. One of the
parts may contain certain error or may not be
(a) dog out ofherd
acceptable m standard written
(b) sheep from the heap
communication. Select the part containing an
(c) fish out ofwater
error. Choose D as your answer if there is no
(d) bird from the flock
error. (ME-2015)
. -
.•
.
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ACE : 1070 : General Aptitude
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94. The policeman asked the victim of a theft,
The student corrected all the errors that the
"What did you __?" (ME -16) (Set 1)
instructor marked on the answer book.
(a) loose (b) lose
p Q R
(c) loss (d) louse
(a) p (b) Q (c) R (d) No error
95. Despite the new medicine's ____ 1Il
9 1 . Choose the most suitable one word substitute treating diabetes, it is not ___ widely
for the following expression: (ME - 16) (Set 1)
(ME-2015) (a) effectiveness ---- prescribed
Connotation of a road or way (b) availability ---- used
(a) Pertinacious (b) Viaticum (c) prescription ---- available
(c) Clandestine (d) Ravenous (d) acceptance ---- proscribed
92. Choose the most appropriate word from the 96. The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is
options given below to complete the than the volume of a cube of side 1
following sentence unit.
If the athlete had wanted to come first in the (ME -16) (Set 2)
race, he ____ several hours every day. (a) least (b) less
(ME-2015) (c) lesser (d) low
(a) should practise
97. The unruly crowd demanded that the
(b) Should have practiced
accused be without trial.
(c) Practised
(ME - 16) (Set 2)
(d) Should be practicing
(a) hanged (b) hanging
(c) hankering (d) hung
93. Which of the following is CORRECT with
respect to grammar and usage?
98. Choose the statement(s) where the
Mount Everest is __ (ME -16) (Set 1)
underlined word is used correctly:
(a) the highest peak in the world
(i) A prone is a dried plum.
(b) highest peak in the world
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
(c) one of highest peak in the world
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are Prone to
(d) one of the highest peak in the world
heart disease.
(ME -16) (Set 2)
: 1071: Verbal Ability
(a) (i) and (iii) only 101. The students the teachers on teachers
(b) (iii) only day for twenty years of dedicated teaching.
(c) (i) and (ii) only (ME - 16) (Set 3)
(d) (ii) and (iii) only (a) facilitated (b) felicitated
( c) fantasized ( d) facillitated
99. Fact: If it rains, then the field is wet.
Read the following statements: 102. After India's cricket world cup victory in
(i) It rains 1985, Shrotria who was playing both tennis
(ii) The field is not wet and cricket till then, decided to concentrate
(iii) The field is wet only on cricket. And the rest is history.
What does the underlined phrase mean in
(iv) It did not rain
this context?
Which one of the options given below is
(ME - 16) (Set 3)
(a) history will rest in peace
NOT logically possible, based on the given
(b) rest is recorded in history books
fact? (ME -16) (Set 2)
( c) rest is well known
(a) If (iii), then (iv)
( d) rest in archaic
(b) If (i), then (iii)
( c) If (i), then (ii)
103. If I were you, I___ that laptop. It's
(d) If (ii), then (iv)
much too expensive (GATE - PI - 16 )
(a) won't buy (b) shan' t buy
1 00. Based on the given statements, select the
( c) wouldn' t buy (d) would buy
appropriate option with respect to grammar
and usage. (ME - 16) (Set 3) 104. He turned a deaf ear to my request. What
Statements does the underlined phrasal verb mean?
(i) The height of Mr. X is 6 feet. (GATE -PI - 16 )
(ii) The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet. (a) Ignored (b) appreciated
(a) Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y. (c) twisted ( d) returned
(b) Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y.
105. Choose the most appropriate set of words
(c) Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y.
from the options given below to complete
the following sentence.
(d) Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y.
(a) Wear, there, their 1 1 0. If you choose plan P, you will have to
(b) Were, their, there ___ plan Q, as these two are mutually
(c) Where, there, there
(d) Where, their, their (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -2}
(a) forgo, exclusive
1 06. I made arrangements had I (b) forget, inclusive
----- informed earlier. (c) accept, exhaustive
(GATE - PI - 17) (d) adopt, intrusive
(a) could have, been
(b) would have, being 1 1 1 . The ways in which this game can be played
(c) had, have __ potentially infinite.
(d) had been, been (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -2)
(a) is (b) is being
1 07. She has a sharp tongue and it can (c) are (d) are being
occasionally tum ____
(GATE - PI - 17)
(a) hurtful (b) left Two Marks Questions
(c) methodical (d) vital
0 1 . Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for the
1 08. As the two speakers became increasingly post of Field Interviewer to conduct personal
agitated, the debate became ---- interviews to collect and collate economic
(GATE-ME - 17)(SET -1} data. Requirements: High School-pass, must
(a) lukewarm (b) poetic be available for Day, Evening and Saturday
(c) forgiving (d) heated work. Transportation paid, expenses
reimbursed.
1 0 9. He was one of my best ____ and I felt Which one of the following is the best
his loss ---- inference from the above advertisement?
(GATE-ME - 17)(SET -1) (ME/CE/CSE/PI-12)
(a) friend, keenly (a) Gender-discriminatory
(b) friends, keen (b) Xenophobic
(c) friend, keener (c) Not designed to make the post attractive
(d) friends, keenly (d) Not gender-discriminatory
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: 1073 : Verbal Ability
02. Statement: There were different streams of (a) Failure is the pillar ofsuccess.
freedom movements in colonial India carried (b) Honesty is the best policy.
out by the moderates, liberals, radicals (c) Life begins and ends with- adventures.
socialists, and so on. (d) No adversity justifies giving up hope.
Which one of the following is the best 04. Lights of four colors (red, blue, green,
inference from the above statement? yellow) are hung on a ladder. On every step
(EC/EE/INST-13) ofthe ladder there are two lights. If one ofthe
(a) The emergence of nationalism in colonial lights is red, the other light on that step will
India led to our independence always be blue. Ifone ofthe lights on a step is
(b) Nationalism in India emerged in the green, the other light on that step will always
context ofcolonialism be yellow. (GATE-EC/ME-14-Set-2)
(c) Nationalism in India is homogeneous Which of the following statements is not
(d) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous necessarily correct?
(a) The number of red lights is equal to the
03. After several defeats in wars, Robert Bruce number ofblue lights
went in exile and wanted to commit suicide. (b) The number of green lights is equal to the
Just before committing suicide, he came number ofyellow lights
across a spider attempting tirelessly to have (c) The sum of the red and green lights is
its net. Time and again, the spider failed but equal to the sum of the yellow and blue
that did not deter it to refrain from making lights
attempts. Such attempts by the spider made (d) The sum ofthe red and blue lights is equal
Bruce curious. Thus, Bruce started observing to the sum ofthe green and yellow lights
the near-impossible goal of the spider to have
the net. Ultimately, the spider succeeded in 05. The Palghat Gap (or Palakkad Gap), a region
having its net despite several failures. Such about 30 km wide in the southern part of the
act of the spider encouraged Bruce not to Westem Ghats in India, is lower than the hilly
commit suicide. And then, Bruce went back terrain to its north and south. The exact
again and won many a battle, and the rest in reasons for the formation of this gap are not
history. clear. It results in the neighbouring regions of
Which one of the following assertions is best Tamil Nadu getting more rainfall from the
supported by the above information? South West monsoon and the neighbouring
(ME/CSE/PI-13) regions of Kerala having higher summer
temperatures.
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ACE
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: 1074 : General Aptitude
What can be inferred from this passage? 07. The old city of Koenigsberg, which had a
(GATE-14-Sl) German majority population before World
(a) The Palghat gap is caused by high rainfall War 2, is now called Kaliningrad . After the
and high temperature in southern Tamil events of the war, Kaliningrad is now a
Nadu and Kerala Russian territory and has a predominantly
(b) The regions in Tamil Nadu and Kerala Russian population. It is bordered by the
that are near the Palghat Gap are low Baltic Sea on the north and the countries of
lying Poland to the south and west and Lithuania to
(c) The low terrain of the Palghat Gap has a the east respectively.
significant impact on weather patterns in Which of the statements below can be
neighbouring parts of Tamil Nadu and inferred from this passage?
Kerala (GATE-14-S2)
(d) Higher summer temperatures result in (a) Kaliningrad was historically Russian in its
higher rainfall near the Palghat Gap area ethnic make up
(b) Kaliningrad is a part of Russia despite it
06. Geneticists say that they are very close to not being contiguous with the rest of
confirming the genetic roots of psychiatric Russia
illnesses such as depression and (c) Koenigsberg was renamed Kaliningrad, as
schizophrenia, and consequently, that doctors that was its original Russian name
will be able to eradicate these diseases (d) Poland and Lithuania are on the route
through early identification and gene therapy. from Kaliningrad to the rest of Russia
On which of the following assumptions does
the statement above rely? (GATE-14-Sl) 08. The number of people diagnosed with dengue
(a) Strategies are now available for fever (contracted from the bite of a mosquito)
eliminating psychiatric illnesses in north India is twice the number diagnosed
(b) Certain psychiatric illnesses have a last year. Municipal authorities have
genetic basis concluded that measures to control the
(c) All human diseases can be traced back to mosquito population have failed in this
genes and how they are expressed region.
(d) In the future, genetics will become the Which one of the following statements, if
only relevant field for identifying true, does not contradict this conclusion?
psychiatric illnesses (GATE-14-S2)
Fyder.wad I
'>'
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: 1075 : Verbal Ability
(i) He was already a successful batsman at 13. Humpty Dumpty sits on a every day while
the highest level. having lunch. The wall sometimes breaks. A
(ii) He has to improve his temperament m person sitting on the wall falls if the wall
order to become a great batsman breaks.
(iii)He failed to make many of his good Which one of the statements below is
starts count. logically valid and can be inferred from the
(iv)Improving his technical skills will above sentences? (GATE-15 -EC)
guarantee success. (a) Humpty Dumpty always falls while
having lunch.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Humpty Dumpty does not fall sometimes
(d) (ii) only
while having lunch.
(c) Humpty Dumpty never falls during
12. The given statement is followed by some
dinner.
courses of action. Assuming the statement to
(d) When Humpty Dumpty does not sit on the
be true, decide the correct option.
(GATE-15 -CSIT/EE)
wall, the wall does not break.
Statement:
There has been a significant drop in the water 14. Read the following paragraph and choose the
correct statement.
level in the lakes supplying water to the city.
Climate change has reduced human security
Course of action:
and threatened human well being. An ignored
I. The water supply authority should impose
reality of human progress is that human
a partial cut in supply to tackle the
security largely depends upon environmental
situation.
security. But on the contrary, human progress
II. The government should appeal to all the
seems contradictory to environment security.
residents through mass media for minimal
To keep up both at the required level is a
use ofwater.
challenge to be addressed by one and all. One
III. The government should ban the water
ofthe ways to curb the climate change may be
supply in lower areas.
suitable scientific innovations, while the other
(a) Statements I and II follow
may be the Gandhian perspective on small
(b) Statement I and III follow
scale progress with focus on sustainability.
(c) Statements II and III follow
(GATE-15 - EC)
(d) All statements follow
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ACE
: 1077 :
'!.�-�:&,pw.rq Pohliatioos Verbal Ability
J �======================= ===========�
(a) Human progress and security are 16. Ms. X will be in Bagdogra from 01/05/2014
positively associated with environmental to 20/05/2014 and from 22/05/2014 to
security. 31/05/2014. On the morning of 21/05/2014,
(b) Human progress is contradictory to she will reach Kochi via Mumbai.
environmental security. (GATE-15 -EC/ME)
(c) Human security 1s contradictory to Which one of the statements below is
environmental security. logically valid and can be inferred from the
(d) Human progress depends upon above sentences?
environmental security. (a) Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day, only
in May.
15. Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the arts in
(b) Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day in
school curricula, a group of prominent artists
May.
wrote to the Chief Minister last year, asking
(c) Ms. X will be only in Kochi for one day in
him to allocate more funds to support arts
May.
education in schools. However, no such
(d) Only Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day
increase has been announced in this year's
in May.
Budget. The artists expressed their deep
anguish at their request not being approved,
17. In the following question, the first and the last
but many of them remain optimistic about
sentence of the passage are in order and
funding in the future.
numbered 1 and 6. The rest of passage is split
(GATE-15 -EC/ME)
Which of the statement(s) below is/are into 4 parts and numbered as 2, 3,4 and 5.
logically valid and can be inferred from the These 4 parts are not arranged in proper order.
above statements? Read the sentences and arrange them in
(i) The artists expected funding for the arts to logical sequence to make a passage and
increase this year choose the correct sequence from the given
(ii) The Chief Minister was receptive to the options. (GATE-15 -EC/ME)
idea of increasing funding for the arts 1. On Diwali, the family rises early in the
(iii)The Chief Minister is a prominent artist morning
(iv)Schools are giving less importance to arts 2. The whole family, including the young
education nowadays. and old enjoy doing this.
3. Children let off fireworks later in the night
(a)(iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
with their friends.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
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: 1078 : General Aptitude
4. At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins
performs various rituals. more often than Leela does.
5. Father, mother and children visit relatives Which one ofthe following statements must
and exchange gifts and sweets. be TRUE based on the above?
6. Houses look so pretty with lamps all (ME - 16) (Set 1)
around. (a) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and
(a) 2, 5, 3, 4 (b) 5, 2, 4, 3 Pavithra, he often loses.
(c) 3, 5, 4, 2 (d) 4, 5, 2, 3 (b) Leela is the oldest ofthe three.
(c) Shiva is a better chess player than
18. In a world filled with uncertainty, he was Pavithra
glad to have many good friends. He had (d) Pavithra is the youngest ofthe three
always assisted them in times of need and
was confident that they would reciprocate. 20. A smart city integrates all modes of
However, the events ofthe last week proved transport, uses clean energy and promotes
him wrong. sustainable use of resources. It also uses
Which of the following inference(s) is/are technology to ensure safety and security of
logically valid and can be inferred from the the city, something which critics argue, will
above passage? lead to a surveillance state.
(i) His friends were always asking him to Which of the following can be logically
help them inferred from the above paragraph?
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his (i) All smart cities encourage the
friends would let him down. formation ofsurveillance states
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help (ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a
him when in need. smart city.
(iv) His friends did not help him last week. (iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand
(ME -16) (Set 1) in hand in a smart city.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (iv) There is a perception that smart cities
(c) (iii) only (d) (iv) only promote surveillance.
(ME - 16) (Set 2)
1 9. Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra, (a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
pavithra's brother Shiva is older than Leela. (c) (iv) only (d) (i) only
When Pavithra and shiva are visiting Leela,
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: 1079 : Verbal Ability
21. Social science disciplines were in existence Which of the following can be logically
in an amorphous form until the colonial inferred from the above sentences?
period when they were institutionalized. In (GATE - PI - 16 )
varying degrees, they were intended to (a) Emperors who do not leave significant
further the colonial interest. In the time of sculpted evidence are completely
globalization and the economic rise of forgotten.
postcolonical countries like India, (b) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts to
conventional ways of knowledge production ensure that later historians will respect
have become obsolete. him.
Which of the following can be logically (c) Statues of kings are reminder of their
inferred from the above statements? greatness.
(i) Social science disciplines have become (d) A king's greatness, as we know him
obsolete. today, is interpreted by historians.
(ii) Social science disciplines had a pre
colonial origin 23. "If you are looking for a history of India, or
(iii) Social science disciplines always for an account of the rise and fall of the
promote colonialism British Raj, Or for the reason of the cleaving
(iv) Social science must maintain of the subcontinent into two mutually
disciplinary boundaries antagonistic parts and the effects this
(ME - 16) (Set 3) mutilation will have in the respective
(a) (ii) only sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will
(b) (i) and (iii) only not find it in these pages; for though I have
(c) (ii) and (iv) only spent a lifetime in the country, I lived too
(d) (iii) and (iv) only near the seat of events, and was too
intimately associated with the actors, to get
22. Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler the perspective needed for the impartial
because of the copious evidence he left recording of these matters".
behind in the form of stone carved edicts. Here, the word 'antagonistic' is closest in
Historians tend to correlate greatness of a meaning to (GATE - PI - 17 )
king at his time with the availability of
(a) impartial (b) argumentative
evidence today.
( c) separated (d) hostile
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: 1080 : General Aptitude
24. "Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart James replied, "Maybe not, but at least I am
continued to fight his losing battle to allow the best player in my own family."
his sepoys to wear their caste-marks and Which one of the following can be inferred
their own choice of facial hair on parade, from this conversation?
being again reprimanded by the commander (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -l)
in-chief. His retort that 'A stronger instance (a) Mark was known to play better than
than this of European prejudice with relation James
to this country has never come under my (b) Steve was known to play better than
observations' had no effect on his Mark
superiors." (c) James and Steve were good friends
According to this paragraph, which of the (d) James played better than Steve
statements below is most accurate?
(GATE-ME - 17)(SET -1) 26. "If you are looking for a history of India, or
(a) Stuar's commander-in-chief was moved for an account of the rise and fall of the
by this demonstration of his prejudice. British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving
(b) The Europeans were accommodating of of the subcontinent into two mutually
the sepoys' desire to wear their caste antagonistic parts and the effects this
marks. mutilation will have in the respective
(c) Stuart's ' losing battle' refers to his sections, and ultimately on Asia, you will
inability to succeed in enabling sepoys not find it in these pages; for though I have
to wear caste-marks. spent a lifetime in the country, I lived too
(d) The commander-in-chief was exempt near the seat of events, and was too
from the European prejudice that intimately associated with the actors, to get
dictated how the sepoys were to dress. the perspective needed for the impartial
recording of these matters."
25. Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve Which of the following is closest in meaning
happened to be brothers, and played for to ' cleaving'? (GATE-ME - 17)(SET -2)
country K. Mark teased James, an opponent (a) deteriorating (b) arguing
from country E, "There is no way you are (c) departing (d) splitting
good enough to play for your country. "
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SOLUTIONS
which certain kinds of treatments are
One Mark Solutions unsatisfactory.
(a) If treatments are similar to those based
01. Ans: (b) on manipulation of human genes
Sol: Circuitous means of a route or journey, unsatisfactory then there is no point in
long and not direct which means indirect. trying to correct diseases in this way.
(b) If most treatments are unsatisfactory,
02. Ans: (a) then at least some treatments are
Sol: Analogy satisfactory. Therefore, these
A worker who is unemployed is un satisfactory treatments may be used to
productive just as a land which is fallow is correct diseases.
un productive. (c) To state that uncommon treatments are
03. Ans: (d) unsatisfactory would mean common
Sol: The latter sentence ' we would leave a better treatments are satisfactory, then there
planet for our children' supports the former is no need to manipulate human genes
sentence. The right word is ' conserve' to correct diseases.
(d) Correct: If available or other types of
04. Ans: (c) treatments are unsatisfactory, then
manipulation of genes could be
05. Ans: (b) allowed.
Sol: Frequency means the rate at which
something happens or is repeated. Its
07. Ans: (c)
Sol: The question refers to the country's
opposite is rarity (the quality of being rare).
problems. To call foreign technocrats back
who had been in the country before,
06. Ans: (d)
according to the author would be
Sol: The national Institute of Health has adopted
counterproductive. This implies that the
ethical guidelines regarding manipulation
foreign technocrats had not solved the
of human genes. The human genes are to be
countries problems and they did just the
manipulated only to correct diseases for
opposite.
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. . .
'!.�-��FJWIIC'ft'PI Pooliacaml : 1082 : General Ability
(a) If problems are identified, then (d) Lawyer fights (argues) in the court
problems should be solved but the room
word counter productive gives ex actly Lawyer is one who argues in the court
opposite meaning. room. The obvious analogical relationship is
(b) If the foreign technocrats have gladiator fights in an Arena just as lawyer
ascertained what the countries fights in the court room.
problems were then they would be Gladiator : Arena : : Lawyer : Court Room
ex pected to have some idea of
countries problems. To state that they 09. Ans: (b)
should not be invited back does not Sol: The given sentence is a contra sentence. If
make sense. you observe the first part of the sentence
(c) If the foreign technocrats had you see an ex pression strong impression. In
ex acerbated or worsened the countries the second part of the sentence you see
problems than improving the situation understated, tentative. When you compare
then calling those foreign technocrats these two words with the ex pression 'strong
would certainly be counterproductive. impression' we understand its a 'contrast'
(d) To analyze is to separate into parts in model sentence. Moreover, the given option
order to understand. If the foreign should be synonymous to tentative,
technocrats had analyzed the countries understated. Obviously a linking word
problems then that is not necessarily a should be closer to the meanings of
reason why they should not be called Understated (mute, inex pressive, tentative
back. (not confident). So it is clear that indifferent
is the word that goes with these words. 'D'
08. Ans: (d) is the right answer.
Sol: The analogical relationship is between
person and workplace. 10. Ans: (d)
Gladiator: (man trained to fight for public Sol: Amalgamate means to unite ( two or more
entertainment in Ancient Rome) things such as two business) into one thing.
Arena: (Level area in centre of sports Amalgam; especially: to merge into a single
stadium.) body.
Q.Gladiator fights in an Arena. (a) merge (means to unite) is a synonym
(a) Dancer doesn't fight on the stage. (c) collect is also a synonym
(b) Commuter doesn't fight in the train Obviously, there is a slight difference
(c) Teacher doesn't fight in the class room between split and separate.
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: 1083 : Verbal Ability
Split means to tear or rend apart (2) If + V2 - would/should (type 2)
Separate means to breakdown or break up. (3) If + had + V3 - would/should have + V3
Which is clearly antonym to amalgamate. (type 3)
'D'is the right choice. The verb in the if clause is in the past tense
i.e., V2(wanted). So the main clause should
11. Ans: (c) be would/should (type-2).
Sol: After verbs like stop, suggest, enjoy
contemplate take V 1 + ing form. So the 16. Ans: (d)
choice is (c) i.e., Visiting. Sol: This is a sentence in which one part of the
sentence contradicts what is said in the other
12. Ans: (a) part of the sentence. The blank is in the
Sol: Inexplicable means which can not be second part of the sentence. The first part of
explained or can not be understood. So the sentence contains a content word
clearly the choice IS 'A' 1.e. , 'seriousness' and the opposite of this word
incomprehensible. is 'nonchalance' which means an air of
Indelible means which cannot easy, unconcern or indifference.
erased/removed (a) beggary means poverty
Inextricable means which cannot be solved (b) nomenclature means name
Infallible means incapable of error (c) jealousy means envy
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: 1084 : General Ability
has been hidden or forgotten for a (d) Whether you pay the telephone bills or
long time or unearth. not is the concern but it is the need
(d) Fall out means to quarrel
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: 1085 : Verbal Ability
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: 1086 : General Ability
32. Ans: (b) (c) This statement supports the claim made
Sol: "Both" refers to two people or things and in the above statement. 'Rich heritage
saying that something is true about each of and cultural diversity has influence over
them. 'Both .. .. And' expressions go languages and thousands of dialects'.
together. Therefore, since the sentence is (d) Unwarranted (out of scope)
referring to two things i.e., communication
and interpersonal skills. 36. Ans: (b)
Option (B) is the befitting word. Sol: The sentence is with regard to fall in value
of US dollar and Indian Rupee. To meet the
33. Ans: (b) requirement of the comparison to a fall in
Sol: Conditional sentence type 1. value the right word is 'depreciated' which
In a type 1 conditional tense, the verb in the means to lower in estimation.
'if clause' is in the present tense and the
verb in the main clause is in the simple 37. Ans: (b)
future. The main clause normally has Sol: Words usually ending in 'ice' denote state,
(will/shall/can/may/must + base infinitive). action or result of an action
The modal verb is often will, which Advice is a noun. It is a suggestion or
expresses the idea of probability. The recommendation. Advise is a verb. It means
subordinate clause should be in simple to give advice and therefore refers to the act
present tense. Therefore, the 'if clause' of giving advice.
should be option 'B'.
Advice Advise
,!, ,!,
34. Ans: (c)
Sol: The right word is bear which means
Noun verb
something difficult to do or deal with and ,J, ,!,
losing means to miss from one's possession C s
or from a customary or supposed place. Pronunciation S Pronunciation Z
Thus 'she could not bear the thought of
losing the election to her bitter rival'. 38. Ans: (a)
Sol: Disagree means to fail to agree, to differ in
35. Ans: (c) opinion, to cause discomfort or distress. Its
Sol: (a) Out of scope closest meaning is dissent which means to
(b) Out of scope with hold.
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11.3g Tnupati I Kukatpallyj Kolkata
: 1087 : Verbal Ability
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:�PoNirmn
. . : 1088 : General Ability
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: 1090 : General Ability
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:F�PuNirP:D
. . . : 1091 : Verbal Ability
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: 1092 : General Ability
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t ACE
.!''!i..:'�Pubincm : 1093 :
� � =====================================
Verbal Ability
options states the Palght gap is caused (b) Correct: This is the right inference and
by high rainfall and. ... It 1s now it is a part ofRussia
contradicting the statement. (c) Kaliningrad is not original Russian name
(b) It is the Palghat gap that is low-lying (d) Out ofscope (unwarranted)
not the regions in Tamilnadu and
Kerala. 08. Ans: (d)
(c) Correct: The Palghat gap as Sol: It is a strengthen the argument question
significant impact on weather patterns (a) Unwarranted (out of scope) it doesn't
in neighbouring parts of Tamilnadu support the conclusion. The Passage
and Kerala. doesn't mention 'neighbouring
(d) The cause of the Palghat gap 1s not countries'
known. (b) Contradicts the conclusion
(c) Contradicts the conclusion
06. Ans: (b) (d) Correct: This is the right answer as it
Sol: Assumption is an un stated idea that supports the conclusion. Municipal
supports the conclusion. authorities have concluded that
(a) The sentence doesn't support the measures to control the mosquito
conclusion as it contradicts the population have failed in this region.
statement i.e. the passage states the
strategies are now available 09. Ans: (c)
(b) Correct: It supports the conclusion. Sol: (a) It is a general statements of twenty first
Therefore, this is the right assumption. century but the paragraph's main point is
(c) The word 'All human diseases' is the merits ofexactitude
ambiguous as the passage mentions (b) Big data changes our thinking.
only two diseases namely 'depression Contradicting the statement.
and schizophrenia'. It leads to fallacy (c) It is the right answer. This is the main
called generalization. point ofthe agreement.
(d) The word 'only' 1s ambiguous. (d) This is not the main point of the
Therefore, it doesn't support the argument. It is partial information.
conclusion.
10. Ans: (a)
07. Ans: (b) Sol: The keyword in the statement 'since' which
Sol: (a) Contradicting the passage - Kaliningrad in this context means 'because'
was never historically Russian.
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: 1095 : Verbal Ability
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ACE : 1096 : General Ability
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No. of selections 17
H EARTY CO N G RATU LATI O N S TO OU R
I ES-201 5 RAN K E RS
- Total No.of selections in IES 2015 - EC:52 EE:36 CE:24 M E:28 -
From Pain to Prosperity . . .
The Journey of Life
- G.K Sir
A science teacher was taking a biology class. She brought two silk-worm cocoons and told
the students to observe how the silk-worm gradually emerges from the cocoon. She went
out of the classroom for sometime. The students were keenly watching the emergence of
the silkworms from the cocoons. It is a very slow and laborious process for a silkworm to
come out of the cocoon. So, the two worms were labouring to come out. One of the students took pity on
them and though the others tried to prevent him, he went on to slowly snap the strings of the cocoon. He
thought that he was making it easy for the silkworm.
At that moment, the teacher returned to the classroom and when she came to know about what had
happened, she asked all the students to keep observing for some more time. Oddly, the silkworm which
was helped by the student died, and other one, which went through a lot trouble to come out of the cocoon
was moving about actively.
The teacher then explained to the students how slow and painful it is for silkworms to come out of
the cocoon. It takes a lot of time for them to adjust to the conditions outside. As they keep snapping the
silk threads that hold them back, their body gains strength and energy. But this process takes a very long
time and evokes pity in the onlookers. Even then, we should allow them to use their own strength, and
trying to help them would put their lives in danger. The teacher then cited Darwin's Theory "survival of
the fittest" to say that only the capable can survival in this world and seeking sympathy from others will
only weaken us and destroy our self image.
Life is not about sympathy-seeking or self-pity. Life is all about possessing a tenacious mind-set
to achieve success. They can conquer who believe they can. Let us recollect our childhood days. When we
were learning how to walk, we fell down many times. But did't we get up and walk again? If we had not
tried to getup, all of us would be crawling today. In many sports and games, the sportspersons get injured
several times. But it is their commitment and determination that makes them come back successfully and
become a Tendulkar, a P.T. Usha, a Saina or a MaryKom. Let us not seek pity from others. Let us
empower ourselves. Learn to put in your best and take every disappointment as a challenge. There is no
elevator or escalator to success. There are only steps. Start climbing them and don't look back. Any man
of achievement is highly respected because of his moral courage and hard work. The future beckons you.
Go and Enjoy it.
Remember - Life is like a rose. Every rose has a thorn: but aren't the roses sweet?
*** GOOD LUCK ***
"Every great success is preceded by a long
period of hard work with clear Goal in mind"