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FIITJEE

ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES


JEE (Advanced)-2025
PART TEST – II
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 24-12-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 51 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 17 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 –03, 18 – 20, 35 – 37): This section contains NINE (9) questions. Each question has FOUR
options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – A (04 – 07, 21 – 24, 38 – 41): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (08 – 11, 25 – 28, 42 – 45): This section contains TWELVE (12) Matching List Type Questions.
Each question has FOUR statements in List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II
entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which, ONLY ONE of
these four options is correct answer.
Section – B (12 – 17, 29 – 34, 46 – 51): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) numerical based questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

1. n moles of an ideal gas undergo an isothermal process at temperature T. P


P-V graph of the process is as shown in the figure. A point A (V1, P1) is
located on the P-V curve. Tangent at point A, cuts the V-axis at point D.
AO is the line joining the point A to the origin O of PV diagram. Then, A (P1, V1)
 3V1 
(A) coordinates of points D is  , 0 V
 2  O D
(B) coordinates of points D is  2V1, 0 
(C) area of the triangle AOD is nRT
3
(D) area of the triangle AOD is nRT
4

gRe
2. A body is thrown from the surface of earth with velocity at some angle from the vertical. If
2
Re
the maximum height reached by the body is . Then choose the correct option(s) (Re = Radius
4
of earth)
 5
(A) the angle of projection from the vertical is sin1  
 4 
gRe
(B) the velocity of the body at maximum height is v 
10
 5
(C) the angle of projection from the vertical is sin1  
 6 
(D) the velocity of the body at maximum height is zero.

3. A block A of mass m connected with a spring of force constant k


is executing SHM. The position (x) and time (t) equation of the
block is x  x0  a sin  t . An identical block B moving towards
negative x-axis with velocity v0 collides elastically with block A A v0 B
x
at time t = 0. Then
m
(A) displacement time equation of A after collision will be x  x0  v 0 sin t
k
m
(B) displacement time equation of A after collision will be x  x0  v 0 sin t
k
(C) velocity of B just after collision will be a  towards positive x-direction
(D) velocity of B just after collision will be v 0 towards positive x-direction

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3 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

4. A uniform rod of length L and mass M is pivoted at the centre. It’s two
ends are attached to two spring of equal spring constant k as shown in
the figure. The rod is free to oscillate in horizontal plane. The rod is
gently pushed through a small angle  in one direction and released.
The frequency of oscillation is
1 2k 1 k
(A) (B)
2 M 2 M
1 6k 1 24k
(C) (D)
2 M 2 M

5. When two tuning forks A and B sounded together produce 4 beats per second. After filing of A
and waxing of B, the number of beats remains unaltered. If initial frequency of A is 250 Hz then
the initial frequency of B is
(A) 246 Hz (B) 250 Hz
(C) 254 Hz (D) 242 Hz

6. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under different processes. Process (1) is isobaric (2) is
isothermal and (3) is adiabatic. Let U1, U2 and U3 be the change in internal energy of the gas
in these three processes then:
P

1
P0
2

3
V
V0 2V0
(A) U1  U2  U3 (B) U1  U2  U3
(C) U2  U1  U3 (D) U2  U1  U3

7. The height of water in a vessel is h. The vessel wall of width b is at an B


angle  to the vertical. The net force exerted by the water on the wall
is
1 h
2
(A) bgh 2 g cos  (B) bh g 
3 A
1 2
(C) ph g sec  (D) zero
2

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 4

SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

8. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken round the P


cyclic process ABCA as shown in the figure. B
3P0

P0 C
A
V0 2V0 V

List–I List-II
(P) Work done by the gas 5
(1) P0V0
2
(Q) Heat rejected by gas in path CA
(2) P0V0
(R) Heat absorbed by gas in path BC 25P0V0
(3)
8R
(S) Maximum temperature attained by the gas
P0V0
(4)
2
25 P0V0
(5)
R
(A) (P) – 2, (Q) – 1, (R) – 4, (S) – 3 (B) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 4, (S) – 3
(C) (P) – 2, (Q) – 1, (R) – 3, (S) – 4 (D) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 3, (S) – 4

9. The speed (v) of a particle of mass 1 kg moving along a straight line, when it is at a distance (x)
2 2
from a fixed point on the line, is given by, v  144  9 x . Match the following
List-I List-II
(P) Motion is simple harmonic with time period (1) 2 / 3 units
(Q) Max. displacement from the fixed point is (2) 27 units
(R) Magnitude of acceleration at a distance 3 units
(3) 4 units
from the fixed point is
(S) Potential energy at a distance x = 2 unit from
(4) 2 units
fixed point is.
(5) 18 units
(A) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 3, (S) – 5 (B) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 3, (S) – 4
(C) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 4, (S) – 5 (D) (P) – 1, (Q) – 3, (R) – 2, (S) – 5

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5 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025

10. Match the following:


List-I List-II
(P) The object moves on the x-axis under a (1) The object executes a simple
conservative force in such a way that its harmonic motion.
“speed” and position” satisfy v  c1 c2  x 2
where c1 and c2 are positive constants.
(Q) The object moves on the x-axis in such a way (2) The object does not change its
that its velocity and its displacement from the direction.
origin satisfy v   kx, where k is a positive
constant.
(R) The object is attached to one end of a (3) The kinetic energy of the object
massless spring of a given is attached to the keeps on decreasing.
ceiling of an elevator. Initially everything is at
rest. The elevator starts going upwards with a
constant acceleration a. The motion of the
object is observed from the elevator during
the period it maintains this acceleration.
(S) The object is projected from the earth’s (4) The object can change its direction
surface vertically upwards with a speed only once
2 GM e / Re , where, M e is the mass of the
earth and Re is the radius of the earth,
Neglect forces from objects other than the
earth.
(A) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 3, (S) – 4 (B) (P) – 1, (Q) – 3, (R) – 1, (S) – 2
(C) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, 3, (R) – 1, (S) – 2, 3 (D) (P) – 1, (Q) – 2, (R) – 4, (S) – 3

2R
11. Density of a sphere of radius R with concentric spherical cavity of radius r = is given by,
3
0  2R 
 (R-x), where x is distance from its centre and   x  R  , then
R  3 
List-I List-II
(P) a0 GR 2 (1) 14
If potential on its outer surface then a =
81
(Q) b0 GR2 (2) 11
Potential at its inner surface then b =
81
(R) c0 GR (3) 0
Field on its surface , then c =
81
(S) R d0 GR (4) 12
Field at a distance from its centre , then d =
2 81
(A) (P) – 1; (Q) – 2; (R) – 3; (S) – 4 (B) (P) – 2; (Q) – 1; (R) – 2; (S) – 3
(C) (P) – 1; (Q) – 4; (R) – 2; (S) – 3 (D) (P) – 2; (Q) – 1; (R) – 3; (S) – 2

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 6

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

12. If amount of heat given to a system be 50 J and work done on the system be 15 J, then change in
internal energy (in J) of the system is

13. A spherical tank of 1.2 m radius is half filled with oil of relative density 0.8 . If the tank is
given a horizontal acceleration of 10 m/s2. The maximum pressure on the tank is 2 P pascal.
Find the value of P.

14. The end correction of a resonance column is 1.0 cm. If the shortest length resonating with a
tuning fork is 14.0 cm, find the next resonating length (in cm).

15. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the frequency of third harmonic of
the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the fundamental frequency of the open pipe.
The fundamental frequency (in Hz) of the open pipe is

16. A barrier AB of length 12 m is hinged at A. At the lower end a


horizontal spring keeps the barrier closed. The height of the water is 6 d 4m A
m and the width of the barrier is 5 m. Water level is 4 m below the 12m
hinge A. If minimum elongation of spring to keep barrier closed is 1 m 6m
find the spring constant.
B

17. The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is three times that inside a second bubble. The ratio
of the volume of the first bubble to that of the second is (1/X). Find the value of X.

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7 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

18. Select the correct statement about silicates:


(A) Cyclic silicate having three Si atoms contains six Si – O – Si linkages.
1
(B) 2 over oxygen atoms of per tetrahedron unit are shared in double chain silicate
2
2n 
(C)  Si2 O5 n is formula of double chain silicate
(D) SiO 44  units polymerize to form silicate because Si atom has less tendency to form -bond
with oxygen

19. Consider the following statements for diborane:


1. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridized
2. B–H–B angle is 180º
3. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atom
4. There are only 12 bonding electrons available
Of these statements
(A) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

20. Mark the correct statements out of the following


(A) He has the highest I.E.1 in the periodic table
(B) Cl has the highest E.A. out of all the elements in the periodic table
(C) Hg and Br are liquid at room temperature
(D) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble gas is lowest

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

21. Which of the following compounds has most acidic hydrogen?


(A) (B)
O S
CH CH
O S
(C) H (D)
N O
CH CH
N N

H H

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 8

22. Which of the following is a meso compound


(A) CH3 (B) CH2 CH3

H Br H OH
H OH
H Br
CH2 CH3
CH3
(C) H (D) All of these
H

OH OH

23. CH3 Ha
Hb

 Br  

Hd OH

CH2 Hc

Br will abstract which of the hydrogen most readily?
(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d

24. Thermal stability of MCO3 is in order:


(A) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(B) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(C) CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3 < BeCO3 < MgCO3
(D) BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3 < BeCO3

SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph.

25. Match the List- I & List-II


List-I List-II
(P) (1) Activating group

N O

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(Q) (2) De-activating group

(R) O CH CH2 (3) o/p-director

(S) S Et (4) Meta-director

(A) P– (1, 3); Q– (1, 3); R– (1, 3); S– (1, 3) (B) P– (1, 3); Q– (1, 3); R– (1, 4); S– (1, 3)
(C) P– (1, 3); Q– (1, 3); R– (1, 4); S– (1, 4) (D) P– (1, 3); Q– (1, 3); R– (1, 3); S– (1, 4)
26. Match the List-I & List-II
List-I List-II
(P) (1) Identical
Cl Cl
and
CH3 CH3
(Q) (2) Enantiomer
Cl
Cl
and
CH3 CH3
(R) (3) Diastereomer
Cl
CH3
and
CH3
Cl
(S) (4) Structural Isomerism
Cl Cl
and
CH3
CH3
(A) P–(3); Q– (3); R–(2); S–(4) (B) P–(3); Q– (3); R–(1); S–(4)
(C) P–(3); Q–(2), R– (2), S–(4) (D) P- (3); Q–(2); R–(1); S–(4)
27. Match the List-I & List-III
List-I List-II
(P) BaF2 < SrF2 < CaF2 < MgF2 < BeF2 (1) Lattice energy
(Q) LiBr < NaBr < KBr < RbBr < CsBr (2) Solubility in water
(R) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (3) Thermal stability
(S) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3 (4) % ionic character
(A) P– (1, 2); Q– (2, 4); R– (2, 3, 4); S– (1, 3) (B) P– (1, 2); Q– (2, 3, 4); R– (2, 4); S– (3, 4)
(C) P– (1, 3); Q– (4); R– (2, 3, 4); S– (3, 4) (D) P– (1, 3); Q– (4); R–(3); S– (1, 2, 3, 4)

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 10

28. Match the List I & List-II


List-I List-II
(P) Sheet silicate (1)  SiO 
2n
3 n

(Q) Pyroxene chain (2)  Si4O11 n


6n 

(R) Pyro silicate (3) 3-corner oxygen atom are shared


(S) Amphibole chain (4) Non-planar
(A) P– (3, 4); Q- (1, 4); R–(4); S– (2, 3, 4) (B) P– (2, 3, 4); Q– (1, 4); R–(4); S– (2, 3, 4)
(C) P– (1, 4); Q– (4); R– (2, 3, 4); S–(4) (D) P– (3, 4); Q– (1, 2, 4); R–(4); S– (1, 4)

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

29. Number of meso compound possible in the following structure are


Br Br

Br Br

H1
O
H4
30. How many H will involve in keto-enol tautomerism?
H H2
O

31. Calculate X + Y + Z for the given compound


OH

 3  bromo bu tan 2  ol 
Br
Where, X = Total number of stereoisomers possible
Y = Total number of enantiomeric pairs possible
Z = Total number of diastereomeric pairs possible
32. If the following compound is treated with Pd/C in excess of hydrogen gas, how many
stereoisomers of the product will be obtained?

33.

Calculate sum of bond order between same bonded atoms in Q and R compounds.
34. The most common oxidation state of thallium is

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11 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

n 1
 k 
35. If S(n)   ( 1)k cosn   , then choose correct options.
k 0  n 
101 100
(A) S(101)  100 (B) S(100)  100
2 2
100 100
(C) S(100)  99 (D) S(101)  101
2 2

2n
36. Let f(n)   3 1   n  N . Then (where [ ] is denotes the greatest integer function)
2n
(A)  f(n)  1  f(n)   3 1
(B) f(n)  8f(n  1)  4f(n  2)
(C)  f(n)  1  2  2n
C 0  2n C 2 .3  2n C 4 3 2  ..... 2n C 4 3 2  .....  2n C 2n 3n 
(D)  f(n)  1 is divisible by 2 . n 1

37. Complex numbers z1 & z2 satisfying z1  12i  3 , z2  2 3  6i  3, and z3 is a complex


number for which z3  z1  z3  z 2 is minimum then select the correct option(s) (Consider
arg(z))  (  ])
(A) Maximum value of z3 is 111
369
(B) Maximum value of z3 is
2
  13 
(C) Sum of minimum and maximum values of argz3 is  cot 1  
2  17 3 
  13 
(D) Sum of minimum and maximum values of arg z3 is  tan1  
3  17 3 

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

38. If ,  are roots of equation 1!+2!+3! +…..+ (x – 1)! + x! = k2, where k  I &    if 1,  2 , 3 ,  4
x2  4  52 x2  3 
are roots of equation a  b   
 a b   2a where a2 – b = 1 then the value of
 1   2   3   4  1 2  3  4  ?
(A) 80 (B) 90
(C) 100 (D) None of these

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 12

n
39. Let (1 – x3)n =  ar xr (1  x)3n 2r , n > 2, then find the value of n so that a1, a2, a3 are in A.G.P.
r0
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 10 

z1z2  z2 z1
40. If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers, then the maximum value of is
z1z 2
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) 10
2 3 6 4 2
41. If tanx + tan x + tan x =1 then the value of 2 cos x – 2 cos x + cos x equals to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 0

SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.

42. Match the statement of List I with values of List II


List I List II
(P)  (1) a b c
In a ABC, let C  , r = inradius, R = circumradius
2
then 2(r  R)
(Q) If l, m, n are perpendicular drawn from the vertices of (2) a b
triangle having sides a, b and c then
 bl cm an 
2R      2ab  2bc  2ca
c a b 
(R) In a ABC, R(b2 sin 2C  c 2 sin 2B) equals (3) ab
(S)  (4) abc
In a right-angle triangle ABC, C  , then
2
A B (A  B)
4R sinsin
2 2
(A) P3; Q1; R4; S2 (B) P3; Q4; R1; S2
(C) P3; Q1; R2; S4 (D) P2; Q4; R3; S2

43. Match the following List – I with List – II


List - I List - I
(P) If 1, 23 are three values lying in [0, 3) for which tan  = , (1) 3
then the value of
     2   3   3   1 
tan  1  tan  2   tan   tan    tan   tan   is
3  3   3   3   3   3
(Q) The diagonals of a parallelogram are inclined to each other at (2) 5 1
an angle of 45º, while its sides a and b (a > b) are inclined to
2
a
each other at an angle of 30º. Then the value of is
b
(R) The smallest side of a right-angle triangle with integer sides is (3) 23  24
23, then the perimeter of the triangle is

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2
(S) If sin  and – cos  are the roots of the equation ax – bx – c = (4) 3
0, where a, b, and c are the sides of a triangle ABC, if cos B 2
 c
is equal to     , then  +  is
 a
(A) P3; Q1; R4; S2 (B) P3; Q4; R1; S2
(C) P3; Q1; R2; S4 (D) P1; Q2; R3; S4

44. Match List – I with List - II


List – I List - II
(P) No. of possible 4 digit no. of the form a1a2a3a4 (1) 62
such that a1> a2  a3 > a4
(Q) No. of divisor of n = 23 × 78 × 56 of the form (2) 510  5 C1 59  5 C2 58  5 C3 57
4+2, 1
 5 C4 56  5 C5 55
(R) If f : {x1, x 2 ,x 3 , x 4 .......x10 }  {y1,y 2 , y 3 ,y 4 ,y 5 } then (3) 330
no. of possible function in which f (xi) yi
(S) Number of triangles can be formed by joining the (4) 120
3 vertices of a convex polygon of 35 diagonals
(A) P1; Q2; R2; S4 (B) P1; Q1; R2; S3
(C) P4; Q1; R2; S3 (D) P3; Q1; R2; S4

45. Match the following:


List I List II
(P) If  n  210, Then n 2
 is divisible by the greatest prime (1) 16
number which is greater than
(Q) Between 4 and 2916 is inserted odd number (2n+1) GM’s then (2) 10
the (n+1)th G.M is divisible by the greatest odd integer which is
less than
(R) In a certain progression four consecutive terms are 40, 30, 24, (3) 34
20. Then the integral part of next term of progression is more
than
(S) 4 7 10 a (4) 30
1   2  3  .....  where H.C.F (a, b) = 1 then a – b is
5 5 5 b
less than
(5) 0
(A) P –1,2,3; Q–1,2,3,4,5; R–1,2,5; S–3,4 (B) P–1,2,3,4,5; Q–1,2; R–1,2,3; S–5
(C) P–1,2,3,4,5; Q–3,4; R–1,2,5; S–3,4 (D) P–3,4; Q–1,2,3,4,5; R–1,2,5; S–3,4

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

46. ABC is a right-angled triangle with AC = 65 cm and B = 90º. If r = 7 cm, if area of triangle ABC
is abc (abc is three-digit number) then (a – c) is


47. If a and b are positive integers such that 8  32  768  acos , then find the value of
b
4 (a  b).

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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2025 14

20
a7
48. Let (2x 2  3x  4)10   ar xr . Then is equal to
r 0 a13

49. Consider line z 1  mi   z 1  mi  0 and z(1  ni)  z(1  ni)  0. Let arg(z') be the angle
 
between them such that arg(z')  0,  . There is another line z(1  i)  z( 1  i)  2i  0 which
 2

intersects the previous lines in A and B such that AB – OA = OB – AB. Then max(argz') is ,
k
then k =

50. Consider a 7-digit telephone number 336 – 7624 which has property that the first three-digit
prefix, 336 equals the product of the last four digits. How many seven-digit phone numbers
beginning with 336 have this property other than 336 – 7624.

4 4
51. If b
i 1
i  0,  bi zi  0, bi  R  0 and z1, z2 , z 3 ,z 4 are complex numbers representing concyclic
i 1
4
2
points, then b
i1
i zi  _____________

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