Utn Prep 2019 - Test 1 Fix

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TEST 1

Pedagogy

Directions: To answer questions 1 – 20, Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and
E – to each question.

1. Language proficiency includes the following aspects of language knowledge EXCEPT


knowing how to ....
A. produce and understand different text types
B. maintain communication despite limitations
C. use language for different functions
D. use different kinds of strategies
E. vary our use of language

2. Young children, especially those up to the ages of nine or ten, learn differently from
older children in the following ways EXCEPT ….
A. they respond to meaning
B. they can engage with abstract thought
C. they display an enthusiasm for learning
D. they often learn indirectly rather than directly
E. their understanding comes from what they see and hear

3. The principles of the Direct Method in languange learning include the following
propositions EXCEPT ....
A. only everyday vocabulary and sentences are taught
B. both speech and listening comprehension are taught
C. grammar iss carefully taught in deductive manner
D. correct pronunciation and grammar are emphasized
E. new teaching points are introduced orallym

4. The term "Notions" used in the area of notional-functional curriculum is referred both
to abstract concepts such as existence, space, time, and quality and ....
A. contexts or situations
B. natural circumstances
C. various different functions
D. communicative competence
E. travel, health, and education

5. A syllabus should identify the following aspects of language use in order to be able to
develop the learner’s communicative competence EXCEPT ....
A. the purposes for which the learner wishes
B. the setting in which they will want to use the target language
C. the communicative events in which the learners will participate

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D. the functional characteristics involved in various linguistic events
E. the socially defined role the learners will assume in the target language

6. An objective stating that “students will learn ‘passive voice’” is not testable because we
do not know whether....
A. students are exposed to real or simulated situations in expressing it
B. students should be able to understand them in spoken or written language
C. both teachers and students are capable of providing communicative tasks
D. teachers are encouraged to supply their students with varied examples
E. E. students are able to find out appropriate situations to apply it

7. An innovative teacher may apply a peer assessment scheme to test students in speaking
skill.
Employing this scheme, he/she expects that the students are sincere and ….
a. use the scheme as a means of obtaining higher grades
b. compete against their colleagues to obtain the best scores
c. are not motivated to achieve high scores in the subject
d. apply the scheme to enhance their oral proficiency
e. are able to measure their potential in speaking

8. The warm-up session mentioned in a lesson plan of should include the following
activities EXCEPT
….
A. questions and answers you have written
B. a revision of the previous lesson linked to the new lesson
C. questions to elicit conversation using the new structures and functions
D. examples of what your students will learn in this particular lesson E. a specifically
designed game to trigger the students’ interest

9. In order to define your lesson's objectives, consider asking yourself the following
questions
EXCEPT ….
A. what will the students accomplish during this lesson?
B. to what specific level will the students perform a given task?
C. how will the students show that they understood and learned the goals?
D. does the lesson's objective fit in with your state educational standards ?
E. will you ensure that you are making the most of your teaching time?

10. The presentation activities of a lesson plan focus on the learning objectives for the
lesson. This is the teacher guided section of the lesson in which we might do the
following examples EXCEPT …
A. explaining grammar at the white board
B. identifying the learners’ attitude towards the lesson

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C. showing a short video to introduce a topic of discussion
D. presenting new vocabulary making sure to provide lots of context E. presenting
written work for a class discussion of structure

11. Which learning resource is most suitable to teach a group of haptic students the focus of
the learning objective of which is describing a kite?
A. Outdoor activities in which the group has the chance to fly a kite
B. Worksheets with questions guiding the group to describe a kite
C. In class activities with a real kite on which the group can touch
D. A video recording showing the group pictures of kites to describe
E. Role play requiring the group members to share ideas of kite making

12. Ms. Ana wants her students to write an autobiography of a national figure. She wants
her students to get the data from not just written, spoken, but also pictographic
materials. For the purpose, the learning sources she can make use for her students to
get the information needed would involve them to….
A. browse the Internet
B. interview a historian
C. read historical books
D. do small library research
E. exchange ideas with classmates

13. Controlled yet contextual use of vocabulary items of a written descriptive text may be
best practiced through which of the following?
A. Minimal pairs
B. Cloze exercises
C. Simulated Dialogs
D. Substitution drills
E. Matching tasks

14. To get the most out of the potentials of extroverted students, Mr. Marzuki will set up
learning activities that allow them to do a lot of….
A. listening and reading
B. speaking and listening
C. reading and writing
D. writing and speaking
E. speaking and reading

15. In a reading class, Janet is at loss when Mr. Rohanda asks her a question about the topic
of the passage they are dealing with. The appropriate empathetic communication
strategy Mr. Rohanda should hold is….
A. ask her classmate next to her to help her answer the question
B. repeat the question to help her answer the question correctly

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C. make her read the whole passage once again more carefully
D. ask her questions for not being able to answer his question
E. tell her to pay attention to him more seriously in his class

16. At the pre-reading phase, Mr. Mahmud raises a leading question about the theme of the
day’s discussion. Sarah answers the question incorrectly. Mr. Mahmud’s empathetic
communication response should be….
A. “Why is that your answer? Please let us know!”
B. “You answer wrongly Sarah. Please try again!”
C. “That’s not the answer Sarah. Listen to me”
D. “Sarah, you do not answer my question.”
E. “Anyone, is it the correct answer?”

17. By being criterion-based, assessment means that….


A. students can be compared to other students
B. students’ achievement is based on materials
C. assessing students’ learning is required
D. students’ learning is assessed on standards
E. learning should be followed by assessment

18. With reference to the condition element in the indicator, the authentic assessment type
that is appropriate to measure the indicator that follows:
Based on two contexts: online sources and observations, students make a
report on an extended account explaining reasons for a kite to fly in the
sky. has the basic format that is called….
A. extended response
B. performance
C. interview
D. portfolio
E. project

19. Ms. Nastiti observed that her class was below the mastery learning criterion in writing
on how to do things. The reason is not due to language problems, but is more on
generating ideas to be written. To solve the problem, she designs an innovative strategy
through classroom action research the steps of which have the elements of….
A. think-pair-share
B. mind mapping
C. jigsaw
D. SQ3R
E. KWLH

20. A research title for classroom action research encompasses these components: focus,
locus, and modus as suggested in which of the following?

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A. Effectiveness of mind mapping to improve descriptive writing of first graders of
SMPN 5
B. Mind mapping for improving teaching descriptive texts of first graders of SMPN 5
C. Using mind mapping to improve descriptive writing of first graders of SMPN 5
D. The effect of mind mapping on descriptive writing of first graders of SMPN 5
E. Mind mapping as a strategy for descriptive writing of first graders of SMPN 5

Professional

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 21 – 23 refer to the text below.

Osso buco is a dish of tender veal shanks that's perfect for any special occasion.
Ingredients
50 g plain flour; 1⁄4 teaspoon salt; 1⁄4 teaspoon pepper; 3 kg veal shanks; 180 ml canola oil;
1 medium onion; 1 small carrot; 1 celery stick; 1 garlic clove, minced; 2 tablespoons butter;
410 g can diced tomatoes; 1 3/4 cups chicken broth; 1⁄2 teaspoon dried basil; 1⁄2 teaspoon
dried thyme; 2 bay leaves; 1 tablespoon minced fresh parsley, to garnish; 1 tablespoon
grated lemon peel, to garnish.
Preparation
1. In a large resalable plastic bag, combine the flour, salt and pepper.
2. Add the veal, a few pieces at a time, and shake to coat. In an oven-proof Dutch oven,
brown meat in oil in batches on all sides, then drain.
3. In a large frying pan, sauté the onion, carrot, celery and garlic in butter until tender.
Return veal to the Dutch oven; top with vegetable mixture. Add the tomatoes, broth,
basil, thyme and bay leaves.
4. Cover and bake at 160°C for 2 to 2 1/4 hours or until the meat and vegetables are
tender. Remove and discard the bay leaves. Just before serving, combine the parsley and
lemon peel, and sprinkle over the veal.
21. The word “thyme” in the passage most nearly means ….
A. a herb used in cooking
B. a herb used to add flavor
C. a thin soup with rice in it
D. curly leaves used to add flavor
E. flat leaves used to make food attractive

22. The purpose of cooking the onion, carrot, celery and garlic in butter over heat is to ….
A. make the ingredients soft
B. mixed them altogether

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C. change their color to brown
D. make them warm before serving
E. give a particular taste to food

23. The best title of the text is ….


A. Osso Buco
B. Veal Shanks
C. Lamb Legs
D. Tender Lamb
E. Garnished meat

Questions 24 – 26 refer to the text below.

The government will soon unblock the web version of messaging application Telegram
following a meeting between Communications and Information Minister Rudiantara and
Telegram CEO Pavel Durov in Jakarta on Tuesday. “We hope this week we will unblock the
application,” the Communications and Information Ministry’s director general for
information applications, Samuel Abrijani Pangarepan, said. Durov met Rudiantara at the
latter’s office in Jakarta on Tuesday to discuss ways to prevent Telegram from being used by
terrorists to spread their violent ideology and plot attacks. Telegram,
Durov told reporters after the meeting, had agreed to open a special communication line
for the Indonesian government, which would enable Telegram and the government to
act on terror-related activities on the messaging application. Durov claimed that he had
expedited the process of blocking accounts used for spreading terrorism, which
previously took around 24 to 36 hours to complete. Telegram can now block the
accounts within hours as it had hired people with Indonesian backgrounds.

24. The text above intends to ….


A. report the government’s plan to unblock Telegram
B. argue about terrorists’ plan to spread their ideology
C. describe the government plan to ban Telegram
D. persuade Telegram to avoid being abused by terrorists
E. explain the opening of a special communication line

25. Pangarepan and Durov had made an agreement to ….


A. enable Telegram and the government to act on terror-related activities
B. open a special communication line for the Indonesian government
C. unblock the web version of messaging application Telegram
D. prevent Telegram from being used to spread their ideology
E. act on terrorists’ activities on the messaging application

26. The text implies that Telegram is committed to …. A. block accounts containing radical
ideologies
B. ban messages about spreading terrorism

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C. minimize the number of terror-related activities
D. prevent terrorism from spreading in Indonesia
E. avoid spreading violent ideologies

Questions 27 – 29 refer to the graph below.

27. Compared to human beings, some animals are capable of….


A. detecting sounds produced in different frequencies
B. communicating at frequencies of human beings
C. hearing a much wider range of frequencies
D. vibrating much more hearing frequencies
E. listening to much softer sounds from far away

28. The chart shows that the frequency range of bat is around … wider than that of
grasshopper.
A. 25 times
B. 100 times
C. 400 times
D. 1000 times
E. 100000 times

29. It can be inferred that such animals as dolphin are….


A. more sensitive than human beings at hearing
B. less sensitive than bat at distinguishing sounds
C. the most sensitive animal at listening to sounds
D. capable of hearing more sounds than other animals
E. as sensitive as human beings at identifying sounds

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Questions 30– 32 refer to the text below.

According to the 13th-century Saga of Erik the Red, Leif, a sailor like his father, voyaged
from Greenland to Norway, the homeland of his family, shortly before 1000. There, King
Olaf I sent him back to Greenland to win its Viking settlers. Journeying westward, Leif lost
his way and happened upon land in the west with which he was unfamiliar. There he found
“fields of self-sown wheat” and a country rich with grapevines and trees of a kind called
mösurr. Because of the grapes and the land’s fertility, Leif called the land Vinland (or
Wineland). The saga also relates that on Leif’s return journey, he came upon a wrecked
trading vessel and rescued its crew. For this deed he received the vessel’s entire rich cargo
and, subsequently, the nickname Leif the Lucky. After he reached his home in Greenland, he
carried out his commission to bring Christianity to the settlers. One of his converts was his
mother, who is said to have built Greenland's first Christian church at Brattahlid.

30. Leif inherited his first profession from ….


A. his father
B. his mother
C. King Olaf
D. Viking settlers
E. his ancestors

31. Journeying westward, Leif found a land ….


A. on which wheat grew well by itself
B. where grapevines were found everywhere
C. with generally fertile soil
D. where was saved by a trading vessel
E. in which he got his nickname

32. It is implied from the text that Vinland was ….


A. accidentally discovered
B. Leif’s first destination
C. under King Olaf’s authority
D. Named after Leif’s ancestors
E. Full of trees called mösurr.

Questions 33– 35 refer to the text below.

Bittoo was a very naughty boy. One day he sat atop a tree with his catapult. Just then, he
saw the priest of the village temple passing by. His bald head was shining in the sun. Bittoo
could not resist himself, so he took a stone and aimed it at the priest's head. The stone
struck the priest's head causing a wound that started bleeding. The priest cried out in pain.
He looked around and soon spotted Bittoo on the tree with the catapult in his hand. He

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called Bittoo down and said, "Your aim is excellent, son. Tomorrow the king will pass this
way. You must hit a stone to his head. He will reward you for the excellent aim."
Next day when the king passed by, Bittoo hit a stone on his forehead.
As the king started bleeding, he sent his guards to get Bittoo. The king ordered that
Bittoo be whipped a hundred times in public. Bittoo cried for forgiveness. The king forgave
him when he promised not to be naughty anymore.

33. The story is about….


A. a naughty boy who deserves to get severe punishment
B. a naughty boy who catapulted a priest and the king
C. the king’s anger towards the naughty boy
D. the king’s ways to avoid severe punishment
E. a lesson received by a naughty boy from a priest

34. The text implies that….


A. the naughty boy promised not to repeat his bad conduct
B. the priest was very angry with the boy for catapulting him
C. the priest just let he king to punish the naughty boy severely
D. the naughty boy thought what the priest said was true
E. the naughty boy and the kings were close to each other

35. We learn from the story that…. A. anger does not solve any problem
B. bad conduct deserves punishment
C. naughtiness causes irritation
D. truth requires a lot of patience
E. good conduct needs practice

Questions 36– 38 refer to the text below.


When it rains or snows, some of the water is retained by the soil, some is absorbed by
vegetation, some evaporates, and the remainder, which reaches stream channels, is called
runoff. Floods occur when soil and vegetation cannot absorb all the water; water then runs
off the land in quantities that cannot be carried in stream channels or retained in natural
ponds and constructed reservoirs. About 30 percent of all precipitation is runoff, and this
amount may be increased by melting snow masses. Periodic floods occur naturally on many
rivers, forming an area known as the flood plain. These river floods often result from heavy
rain, sometimes combined with melting snow, which causes the rivers to overflow their
banks; a flood that rises and falls rapidly with little or no advance warning is called a flash
flood. Flash floods usually result from intense rainfall over a relatively small area.

36. The best title of the text is ….


A. Various Types of Floods
B. Land-Water Relations
C. Causes of Floods

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D. Effects of Floods
E. flood Rises and falls

37. The followings are the causes of floods, EXCEPT….


A. soil and vegetation cannot absorb all the water
B. intense rainfall over a relatively small area
C. ponds and reservoirs are too small to retain water
D. heavy rains causes the rivers to overflow their banks
E. the formation of flood plain along the river is too slow

38. The text implies that compared to other types of floods, flash floods can be disastrous
because….
A. they rise and fall very rapidly
B. they combine with melting snow
C. they result from heavy rainfall
D. they occur in a relatively small area
E. they come without advance warning
Questions 39– 41 refer to the text below.
Cinnamon
Several studies show that this delicious spice can help reduce blood sugar. One, published in
the journal Diabetes Care, noted how people with type 2 diabetes who had taken one or
more grams of cinnamon daily had dropped their fasting blood sugar by a whopping 30 per
cent, compared to people who took no cinnamon. They also reduced their triglycerides, LDL
cholesterol and total cholesterol by upwards of 25 per cent. Here's why: cinnamon is rich in
chromium, a mineral that enhances the effects of insulin. It’s also loaded with polyphenols,
antioxidants that gather up all the free radicals in your blood to protect you from cancer and
also lower systemic inflammation, further guarding you from diabetes and heart disease. …

39. It is implied in the text that cinnamon provides a number of benefits for ….
A. human health
B. diabetes care
C. proper fitness
D. cancer sufferers
E. heart disease

40. The word “whopping” in the text means …


A. extremely large
B. surprisingly good
C. quite significant
D. great amount of
E. very important

41. The text suggests that in order to be healthy, we need to ….

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A. consume as much cinnamon as possible
B. put adequate cinnamon in our daily menu
C. mix cinnamon with any liquid we drink
D. add some cinnamon to any food we have
E. take some cinnamon during daily meal times

Items 42 and 43 are based on the following passage.


Flipped classroom is an instructional strategy and a type of blended learning that (53)
reverses the traditional learning environment by delivering instructional content, often
online, outside of the classroom. It moves activities, including those that may have
traditionally been considered homework, into the classroom. In a flipped classroom,
students watch online lectures, (54) collaborate in online discussions, or carry out research
at home and engage in concepts in the classroom with the guidance of a mentor.

42. The underlined word ‘reverses’ is synonymous with….


A. swops
B. alters
C. mixes
D. returns
E. combines

43. The antonym of the underlined word ‘collaborate’ is ….


A. distinguish
B. connect

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C. isolate
D. differ
E. attach

Once a new idea becomes a buzzword, pinning down the definition can become a little
more (44) …. The flipped learning network has developed what they hope will be seen as
the definitive definition.

44. The word that best completes the blank spaces in (44) is….
A. challenging
B. challenged
C. challenge
D. challenger
E. challenges

Items 45 and 46 are based on the following passage.


Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills (BICS) are language skills needed in social
situations. It is (45) … to interact socially with other people. English language learners (ELLs)
employ BIC skills when they are on the playground, in the lunch room, on the school bus, at
parties, playing sports and (46) …. Social interactions occur in a meaningful social context.

45. Which option best completes the blank spaces in (45)?


A. the day-to-day language needed
B. needed the day-to-day language
C. the day-to-day needed language
D. the needed language day-to-day
E. the language needed day-to-day

46. Which option best completes the blank spaces in (46)?


A. talking on the telephone
B. on the telephone to talk
C. on the talking telephone
D. the talking on telephone
E. to talk on the telephone

Assessment is an essential component of the teaching and learning cycle. Assessment for,
assessment as and assessment of learning are approaches that enable teachers to gather
evidence and make judgments about student achievement. (47) These are not necessarily
discrete approaches Also, they may be used individually or together and formally or
informally. The principles of assessment for learning and assessment as learning strategies
have some common elements.

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47. The underlined part These are not necessarily discrete approaches in the passage may
be best rephrased as….
A. these methods are as a whole to be linked
B. these strategies are similar to one another
C. they do not have to make any distinction
D. by system these practices are one notion
E. methodically these are one in system

48. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘The facilitator lent me his book.’
and ‘It was very interesting to me.’ is….
A. The facilitator lent me his book that I found it very interesting
B. The facilitator lent me his book I found it was very interesting
C. The facilitator lent me his book, which I found it very interesting
D. The facilitator lent me his book that I found it was very interesting
E. The facilitator lent me his book, which was I found it very interesting

49. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘I do not know the steps of the
PQRST strategy.’ and ‘I cannot implement the strategy in my reading class.’ is….
A. If I know the steps of the PQRST strategy, I will implement it in my reading class
B. If I knew the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would implement it in my reading class
C. If I knew the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would implement it in my reading class
D. If I would knew the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would implement it in my reading
class
E. If I did not know the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would not implement it in my
reading class

50. … randomly out of the 5 classes as the accessible population, the subjects of the
experiment represented the students of high-level achievers
A. Drawn
B. Were drawn
C. Being drawn
D. Having drawn
E. They were drawn

51. Sentences in the active voice have energy and directness, … will keep your reader
turning the pages.
A. both of which
B. two of which
C. which they
D. which both
E. of which

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52. When traveling by …. trains, we can not only arrive on time but also save our time to our
destination. A. express
B. speedy
C. quick
D. rapid
E. swift

53. … riding a motorcycle or driving a car can be blamed as the main cause of accidents on
the road. A. Reckless
B. Hurried
C. Speedy
D. Quick
E. Rapid

54. Everyone present in the seminar was … petrified seeing that Raisha answered the
examiner’s questions brilliantly.
A. completely
B. massively
C. extremely
D. wholly
E. fully

55. Some birds do migrate in a particular season by flying … across continents in the sky.
A. high
B. in height
C. in altitude
D. at highness
E. highly

56. The issue of unemployment in many parts of the world has recently become ….
A. a burning question
B. a severe concern
C. a trending topic
D. a serious talk
E. a grave theme

57. Izal lost his laptop in which he kept his draft of his research instruments. There was
anything he could do to continue writing his draft, except that he needed to … with his
research instruments. A. turn over a new leaf
B. take it to his heart

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C. work up a sweat
D. cross his mind
E. give a hand

58. He is still completely down upon the examiners’ feedback on his thesis proposal during
the seminar. But he will be … as soon as he reviews the feedback from the examiner and
the audience during the seminar. A. dead in the water
B. back on his feet
C. on cloud nine
D. full of beans
E. in hot water

59. The best arrangement of these sentences to make a logical paragraph is…
1. There is only one way to all dreams which is good education.
2. In such a competitive world, it is a must for all to have good education.
3. Sometimes parents dream for their kids to become a doctor, engineer and other
high level positions.
4. Proper education also creates lots of ways to go ahead in the future.
5. But, every kid has their own dream of doing something different in the life.
6. It makes us strong mentally, socially and intellectually by increasing our knowledge
and technical skills.
7. Sound education is important in increasing the chance in getting a good job and a
position.

A. 1–7–4–3–6–5–2
B. 2–6–7–4–3–5–1
C. 2–7–4–6–3–5–1
D. 1–6–4–7–2–3–5
E. 3–5–7–4–6–2–1

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TEST 2

Items 1 and 2 are based on the following passage.

BUSSINES OPPORTUNITY
An Excellent Investment
New Business property of brick, with limestone front construction, carrying a 5-year lease
with an average yearly rental of $2,200. Tenant makes all inside repairs and carries plate
glass insurance. This property has no other expenses, other than taxes and fire insurance.
Located on finest thoroughfare of Washington, where there is an established and increasing
demand for business property. The price is $22,500.
If you are interested and want further details, call:
SHANNON & LUCHS, INC
713 14St. N. Y. Main 2345

1. This passage fits the following characteristics


of an advertisement EXCEPT….
A. using familiar language and simple vocabulary
B. using complex and compound sentences
C. using simple and colloquial language
D. using the Simple Present Tense
E. using familiar words and phrases

2. From the advertisement, we are informed


that… A. Shannon & Luchs, Inc. is a proper
company
B. the taxes and fire insurance are included
C. the annual rental is less than $3,000
D. the company is thoroughfare
E. tenant makes all inside repairs

Items 3 and 4 are based on the following passage.

Consumable Safeguards
Ensure that batteries are installed with correct polarity. Incorrectly installed batteries can
burst or leak, resulting in spillage or injuries.
• The machine has a built-in circuit for protection against lightning-induced surge current.
If lightning strikes in your neighborhood, maintain ample distance from the machine, and
do not touch the machine until the lightning has stopped.
• If you notice flickering or distorted images or noises on your audio-visual units, your
machine may be causing radio interference. Switch it off. If the interference disappears,

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the machine is the cause of the radio interference. Perform the following procedures
until the interference is corrected.
! Move the machine and the TV and/or radio away from each other.
! Reposition or reorient the machine and the TV and/or radio.
! Unplug the machine, TV and/or radio.
! ....

3. In order to detect whether the machine causes radio inference on your appliance, you
need to ...
A. switch if off and on to see its effect
B. switch it off and see what happens
C. maintain ample distance from the machine
D. notice any flickering or distorted images
E. perform necessary procedures to check it

4. The expected step after unplugging the machine and the TV and/or radio is ...
A. Moving the machine far enough from the appliance
B. Checking whether the interference has been corrected
C. Re-plugging them into outlets operating on different circuits
D. Switching the machine on and off several times
E. Making sure that there is no more electric circuit

Items 5 - 7 are based on the following passage.

This popular South-East Asian noodle soup is very versatile.


Ingredients
150 g packet rice vermicelli noodles; 1 tablespoon peanut oil; 3 tablespoons ready-made laksa
paste; 3 cups (750 ml) salt-reduced chicken stock; 400 ml can coconut milk; 500 g boneless
skinless chicken breasts, thinly sliced; ½ teaspoon salt; 1 heaped cup (100 g) bean sprouts,
tails trimmed; 3 tablespoons chopped fresh Vietnamese mint or regular mint; 2/3 cup (20g)
fresh coriander leaves; 1 small red chilli, seeded and sliced; lime wedges, to serve.

Preparation
1. Place noodle in a heatproof bowl and pour enough boiling water over to over. Leave
to soak for 5 minutes, or according to the packet instructions.
2. Meanwhile, in a wok or large heavy-based saucepan, heat the oil over medium heat.
Add the laksa paste and fry until fragrant, about 1 minute. Stir in stock and bring to a
boil.
3. Add the coconut milk and simmer for 2 to 3 minutes. Add the chicken and simmer for
5 minutes, or until it is just cooked through. Add the salt.
4. Drain the noodle and divide among serving bowls. Then, top each with bean sprouts,
Vietnamese mint and coriander.
5. Garnish with chilli and serve immediately, with lime wedges.

5. The best title of the text is....

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A. Quick Chicken Laksa


B. Rice Vermicelli Noodle
C. Boneless fried Chicken
D. Ready-made Laksa Paste
E. Salt-Reduced Chicken Stock

6. The word “wedges” in the passage most nearly means....


A. triangular-shaped pieces of food
B. a part of a plant that is beginning to grow
C. large fruits like with a thick brown shell
D. a deep round pan with straight sides
E. long thin strips made from flour or rice

7. How long does it take to make the food stuff ready to serve? A. Less than 12
minutes.
B. Exactly 13 minutes.
C. More than 14 minutes.
D. More or less 15 minutes.
E. Appropriately 21 minutes.

Items 8 – 9 are based on the following passage.

I usually woke up at 8 a.m. and went to the press center to check the daily schedule of
briefings and press conferences, usually held by the United Nations officials or disaster
mitigation team chief, Alwi Shihab.
It was challenging to visit different refugee camps to find soft stories, human interest
stories. Then, I went back to the press center in between to cover the press conferences of
the day.
It was heart breaking when I saw these survivors fight for food and secondhand clothing,
which they said were limited and inadequate. Emerging to a glaring, full noon, it was time to
go back to the press center to write stories and race against time, always fearing that the
internet connection would come crashing down.
And after everything was done, only then I remembered to eat. Most times, I only ate
once a day because you always had to rush and it was difficult to find food. You had to travel
quite far, about a 30to 45-minute trip by car to find fresh food.

8. How often did the writer eat a day? A. Three times.


B. Seldom.
C. Twice.
D. Never.
E. Once.

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9. " ........ mitigation team chief Alwi Shihab ." (Paragraph 1) The synonym of the underlined
word is....
A. Decreases
B. Lightener
C. Reliever
D. Developer
E. Writer

Items 10 – 11 are based on the following chart.

10. The text implies that the population of whales....


A. can be higher than that of dolphins
B. is the most stable among the three
C. goes up or down very rapidly
D. can be predicted very easily
E. can never exceed that of bears

11. In March, the population of dolphins is....


A. much lower than that of bears
B. a bit higher than that of whales
C. around two-third of that of whales
D. almost the same as that in February
E. much higher than that in April

Items 12 – 14 are based on the following passage.


Galileo Galilee (1564-1642) — Astronomer and Scientist. Galileo developed a superior
telescope and made many significant discoveries in astronomy. He was sentenced to life
imprisonment by the inquisition for his support for the Copernican theory that the sun was at
the center of the solar system. Galileo was born in Florence, Italy in 1564 to a poor but noble
family. His parents recognized their child’s innate intelligence and talents and so made
sacrifices to have him educated. At his father’s insistence, Galileo studied the profitable
career of medicine. But, at the University of Pisa, Galileo became fascinated in a wide range

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of subjects. He was also critical of many of Aristotle’s teaching which had dominated
education for the past 2,000 years. Galileo was appointed to be a mathematics professor at
the University of Pisa, but his strident criticisms of Aristotle left him isolated among his
contemporaries. After three years of persecution, he resigned and went to the University of
Padua, where he taught math. His entertaining lectures attracted a large following and he
was able to spend the next 18 years pursuing his interests in astronomy and mechanics.

12. According to the biography, why did Galileo Galilee resign from his teaching job at the
University of Pisa?
A. he had attracted many followers
B. he was persecuted for three years
C. he was appointed as a mathematics professor
D. he had a better offer from the University of Padua
E. he wanted to pursue his interests in astronomy and mechanics

13. From the fact that Galileo Galilee was imprisoned for supporting the Copernican theory,
which later was proven to be true, we know that Galileo Galilee was....
A. reckless
B. stubborn
C. tenacious
D. arrogant
E. foolish

14. Something that we can learn from Galileo Galilee’s biography is....
A. we must always belief whatever the society believes to avoid being persecuted
B. we must never go against the believe of the society to avoid being imprisoned
C. we should believe in something and stay faithful to it no matter how hard it is
D. we must sacrifice everything to get ourselves educated
E. we should spend 18 years to pursue our interests
Items 15 – 17 are based on the following passage.

Once upon a time there was a poor widow who had an only son named Jack. They were
so poor that they didn't have anything except a cow. When the cow had grown too old, his
mother sent Jack to the market to sell it. On the way to the market, Jack met a butcher who
had some beautiful beans in his hand. The butcher told the boy that the beans were of great
value and persuaded the silly fad to sell the cow for the beans.
Jack brought them happily. When he told his mother about this, his mother became so
angry that she threw the beans out of the window.
When Jack woke up in the morning, he felt the sun shining into a part of his room but
all the rest was quite dark and shady.

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So he jumped to the window. What did he see? The beanstalk grew up quite close past
Jack's window. He opened the window and jumped to the beanstalk which ran up just like a
big ladder.
He climbed ... and climbed till at last he reached the sky. While looking around, he saw
a very huge castle. He was very amazed.
Then Jack walked along the path leading to the castle. There was a big tall woman on
the doorstep. Jack greeted her and asked for the giantess mercy to give him breakfast,
because he felt very hungry. Although the giantess grumbled at first, finally she gave Jack a
hunk of bread and cheese and a jug of milk.
Jack hadn't finished when the whole house, began to tremble with the noise of
someone's coming. "Oh! It's my husband!" cried the giantess. "What on earth shall I do?"
Hastily the giantess opened a very big cupboard and hid Jack there.

15. What is the story about....?


A. Jack and a butcher
B. Jack and the giantess
C. Jack and the bean stalk
D. A poor widow and his son
E. The giantess and her husband

16. It can be inferred from the text that....


A. Jack and his mother lsubsequently lived happily
B. Jack was quite worried about the coming giant
C. Jack and the giantess were actually mother and son
D. The giant did not like anybody to come to his castle
E. The giantess was scared of being scolded by her husband

17. We learn from the text....


A. Poverty makes people hopeless
B. Sincerity makes Jack get something precious
C. Jack's mother was a furious mother
D. The giantess took pity on Jack
E. Jack was an innocent boy

Items 18 – 20 are based on the following passage.

All human beings eat food and make use of the chemical energy in it, so do all other
animals. Perhaps you wonder where all that chemical energy comes from. Why doesn’t the
food all get used up?
The answer is that new food is being grown as fast as old food is used to. It is the green
plants that form the new food. Animals either eat the plants or eat other animals that have
eaten plants.
The green substance of plants is chlorophyll. Chlorophyll can absorb sunlight. When it
does so, it changes the energy of the sun into chemical energy. The chemical energy present
in sunlit chlorophyll is used to combine dioxide in the air with water from the soil. Starch and

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other complicated compounds are formed. These are high in chemical energy obtained from
the sunlit chlorophyll.
They make up the food on which mankind and all other animals live. In the process of
forming this food, some oxygen atoms are left over. These are given off into the air by the
plants. The whole process is called photosynthesis.
Thus, plants use sunlight to from food and oxygen to from carbon dioxide and water
again. Plants change the sun’s energy into chemical energy. And animals change the animal
energy into kinetic and heat energy.

18. What will happen when the chlorophyll absorbs sunlight? It will....
A. Change heat into kinetic energy
B. Form complicated compound
C. Make use of heat energy
D. Change kinetic energy into chemical energy
E. Change the sun’s energy into chemical energy

19. From the text we know that.... A. Plant need to heat energy to live
B. All human beings need chemical energy
C. Plants absorb sunlight to produce kinetic energy
D. Chlorophyll is the most important thing in photosynthesis
E. Sun’s energy cannot be formed into kinetic energy

20. The green substance of plants is chlorophyll. The underlined word in the above is closest
in meaning to....
A. Core
B. Body
C. Stuff
D. Essence
E. Material

Items 21 – 23 are based on the following passage.

Nowadays, the police have been applying the new regulation concerning the use of seat
belts. In European countries, this regulation has been applied for a long time.
However, this new regulation has become controversial and is an interesting topic to
discuss. Here are some of the arguments. The use of seat belts has been proven to reduce the
risk of injury or death in an accident. Seat belt has become a standard component in cars. The
research shows that most car accident will cause an injury to the head. Frequently, drivers or
the passengers driving without seat belts die because of this. By wearing the seat belts, the
injury will not happen since belts restrain our body on the car seat when the accident
happens. Unfortunately, many cars, especially the old ones, don’t have seat belts. This is

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because the traffic conditions in the past were unlike the recent traffic conditions. The
designer of old cars didn’t consider a seat belt as an important part.
Besides, the drivers wearing the seat belt will think that they are completely safe, so
they may drive carelessly. They are safe, indeed, but how about safety of other? The seat belt
is only one of the ways to reduce the risk of car accidents. It doesn’t mean that we are
completely safe. In short, our safety depends on ourselves.

21. What is the function of seat belts?


A. To reduce the traffic conditions.
B. To become a standard component in cars.
C. To reduce the risk of injury or death in an accident.
D. To prevent the drivers driving cars carefully.
E. To increase the risk of injury in car accidents.

22. “… that they are completely safe.” What does the word “they‟ refer to? A. Cars.
B. Seat belts.
C. Drivers.
D. Designers.
E. Others.

23. Why does the writer present two sides of opinion of advertisement? A. S/he wants to
take side.
B. S/he wants to be in the affirmative side.
C. S/he uses opinions to emphasize her own stance.
D. S/he wants the readers know the opinion about the issue.
E. S/he wants to the readers to understand her stance.

Items 24 – 25 are based on the following passage.

The focus of a content-based instruction (CBI) lesson is on the topic or subject matter. During
the lesson students are focused on learning about something that interests them from (24)…
to their favorite pop star, or even a topical news story or film. They learn about this subject
using the language (25)…, rather than their native language, as a tool for developing
knowledge and so they develop their linguistic ability in the target language.

24. Which option best completes the blank spaces in (24)? A. A popular exciting hobby.
B. A humorous fiction topic.
C. A serious science subject.
D. A dramatic thriller theme.
E. A detective story novel.

25. Which option best completes the blank spaces in (25)? A. That becomes the tool.
B. They have firmly learnt.
C. That is considered useful.
D. They think it practical.

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E. They are trying to learn.

Items 26 and 27 are based on the following passage.

The flipped classroom intentionally shifts instruction to a learner-centered model in which


class time (26) explores topics in greater depth and creates meaningful learning
opportunities, while educational technologies such as online videos are used to deliver
content outside of the classroom. In a flipped classroom, content delivery may take a (27)
variety of forms. Often, video lessons prepared by the teacher or third parties are used to
deliver content.
26. The underlined word ‘explores’ is synonymous with….
A. reviews
B. synthesizes
C. considers
D. reflects
E. discusses

27. The antonym of the underlined word ‘variety’ is….


A. uniformity
B. inequality
C. diversity
D. dissimilarity
E. unity

Items 28 and 29 are based on the following passage.

CALP-Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency which requires students to demonstrate


understanding and comprehension of academic terms. Students move from (28)… to
actually understanding and participating in the regular classroom. CALP is said to occur in
'context reduced' academic situations. (29)… in the curriculum, language is `disembedded´
from a meaningful, supportive context.

28. Which option best completes (28)?


A. basic skills conversation
B. basic conversation skills
C. skills basic conversation
D. conversation basic skills
E. conversation skills basic

29. Which option best completes (29)?


A. Where are higher order thinking skills required
B. Where are required higher order thinking skills
C. Where higher order thinking skills are required

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D. Where required higher order thinking skills are


E. Where higher order thinking skills required are

Natural language processing (NLP) is one aspect of machine learning, big data, and artificial
intelligence that has the potential to truly change everything. (30) In its most critical terms,
natural language processing is the ability of a computer to understand natural human
speech as it is spoken.

30. The underlined part In its most critical terms in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. Practically
B. Technically
C. Empirically
D. Evidently
E. Basically

KWL charts help students to be active thinkers while they read, giving them specific things to
look for and having them reflect on what they learned (31) when they are finished reading.
KWL's use the metacognitive strategy of self-questioning to ensure that students
comprehend the content presented in the lesson. When students set their own purposes for
reading, they are more motivated and active as readers.

31. The underlined part when they are finished reading in the passage may be best rephrased
as….
A. when reading
B. upon reading
C. their reading end
D. their reading done
E. reading completion

32. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘Last year I was in Bali’ and ‘It is
perhaps still the best tourist destination island.’ is….
A. Last year I was in Bali that is perhaps still the best tourist destination island.
B. Last year I was in Bali that it is perhaps still the best tourist destination island.
C. Last year I was in Bali which is perhaps still the best tourist destination island.
D. Last year I was in Bali where it is perhaps still the best tourist destination island.
E. Last year I was in Bali which it is perhaps still the best tourist destination island.

33. If the workers ... a few hours per shift in the airlocks, instead of just 20 minutes, adjusting
to normal air pressure, then none of the deaths or illnesses ....
A. didn’t spend/would be occurred
B. would spend/occurred
C. were spent/would occur
D. had spent/wouldn’t have occurred
E. had spent/would have occurred

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34. ‘The instructors check the assignments and students’ responsibility is to complete them”.
The correct passive voice of the sentence is…
A. The instructors are checked the assignments and students’ responsibility is to
complete them.
B. The assignments checked by the instructors and students’ responsibility is to
complete them.
C. The assignments are checked by the instructors and students’ responsibility is to
complete them.
D. The assignments will be checked by the instructor and students’ responsibility is to
complete them.
E. The instructor will be checked the assignments and students’ responsibility is to
complete them.

35. We planned to attend the conference overland; but it was not easy to find the
transports… we traveled as most were fully booked.
A. by which
B. in which
C. which
D. where
E. that

36. Dominick reached the class at …. As a result, he missed a lot of important information.
A. the long odd
B. the main chance
C. the unhappy hour
D. the bad time
E. the eleventh hour

37. The educational product that a magister student developed not only has been patented
but also has... a publisher’s attention for further mass publication.
A. paid
B. obtained
C. caught
D. gained
E. reached

38. Based on her progress, her advisor does not see there is a… possibility that Nina will not
have finished her magister study by the end of the semester.
A. sad
B. blue
C. weak
D. low

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E. faint

39. Owning a very expensive car for an ordinary person will be….
A. a white elephant
B. a wet blanket
C. a queer fish
D. a past master
E. a knowing look

40. Upon approval on their research topic by their advisor, students need to … immediately
their proposal writing in order to have an earlier proposal seminar.
A. show up
B. work out
C. set off
D. get by
E. boot up

41. These two researchers have stuck by each other …. In fact, they have become almost
inseparable in conducting academic works.
A. through thick and thin
B. fair and square
C. meek and mild
D. short and sweet E. free and easy

42. The principal will not allow you to go back to campus for further studies, … it will benefit
your school.
A. while
B. supposing
C. even though
D. whenever
E. in as much as

43. The meaning that best expresses this: ‘The brochure arrived late. As a consequence,
students could not join the conference’ is…
A. The students could not have joined the conference if the brochure had arrived late.
B. The students could have joined the conference if the brochure did not arrive late.
C. The students could have joined the conference if the brochure had not arrived late.
D. The students could not join the conference if the brochure did not arrive late.
E. The students could join the conference if the brochure had not arrived late.

44. There are about eleven cycles in the research design, … may be adapted to be specifically
used in your prototype product as a model of educational product development.
A. in three cycles which
B. three cycles from which

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C. at which three cycles


D. by three cycles which
E. three cycles of which

If it’s a longer paper, a good place to start is by looking at what each paragraph was
about. For example, if you write a paper about zoo animals, each paragraph would probably
be about one particular animal. In your conclusion, you should briefly mention each animal
again. “Zoo animals like polar bears, lions, and giraffes are amazing creatures.”
Leave your readers with something to think about. Suggest that they learn more with a
sentence like, “We have a lot to learn about global warming.” You can also give them
something to do after reading your paper. For example, “It’s easy to make your own popsicles.
Grab some orange juice and give it a try!”
(45)…, remember that it’s important to wrap up your writing by summarizing the main
idea for your readers.
45. To end the paragraph, the best connector is....
A. To resume
B. To sum up
C. To the point
D. To prepare
E. To add

46. The best arrangement of these sentences to make a logical paragraph is…
1. Other small training institutes also provide education to enhance the skill level in
particular fields.
2. Education plays a paramount role in the modern technological world.
3. Education is not so costly anymore; anyone one with less money may study
continuously.
4. Furthermore, the whole criteria of education have been changed now.
5. We can get admission in the big and popular universities with fewer fees through the
distance learning.
6. We can study through the distance learning programmes after the 12 th standard
together with the job.
7. Now-a-days, there are many ways to enhance the education level.

A. 6–7–4–3–1–5–2
B. 2–6–7–4–3–5–1
C. 2–7–4–6–3–5–1
D. 1–6–4–7–2–3–5
E. 3–5–7–4–6–2–1

Items 47 and 48 are based on the following passage.

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Have we wondered how we get chocolate from? This time we will enter the amazing world
of chocolate. (47) …. This tree grows in equatorial regions, especially in place such as South
America, Africa, and Indonesia. The cacao tree produces a fruit about the size of a small
pineapple. Inside the fruits are the tree’s seeds also known as coco beans. (48) ….. After
fermentation for about a week, they are shipped to the chocolate maker. The chocolate
maker starts processing by roasting the beans to bring out the flavor.
47. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (47) is….
A. Chocolate starts a tree called cacao tree
B. Chocolate making is a long process
C. Chocolate comes from the nature
D. Chocolate is naturally from a fruit
E. Chocolate is originally beans

48. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (48) is….
A. The beans are dried in the sun for fermentation
B. Fermentation is a key process for the beans
C. While drying, the beans undergo fermentation
D. Dried beans are necessary for fermentation
E. Fermented beans become naturally dry

Items 49 and 50 are based on the following passage.


Good nutrition can help prevent disease and promote health. Consumption of important
fruits and vegetables ensures lower level of mortality and reduces various degenerative
diseases, During lifetime an individual consumes 30 tons of food on average in seemingly
endless dietary varieties. Nutrition is deemed functional on condition that it beneficially
influences various body functions. (49) ….
(50) …, Poor nutrition can impair our daily health and wellbeing and reduce our ability to
lead to an enjoyable and active life. Poor nutrition may be a result of poor eating habits that
include under- or over-eating, not having enough of the healthy foods we need each day, or
consuming too many types of food and drink, which are low in fiber, or high in fat, salt
and/or sugar.

49. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (49) is….
A. Weight issues have impacted our health, psychological and socio-emotional statess.
B. Therefore, keeping our body physically healthy can be a matter of one' personal
choice.
C. Health problems obviously become the roots of a number of ineffectiveness in our
life.
D. It is clear then that poor intake of good nutrition causes a number of health
problems.
E. Certainly our functionality in our daily life depends on a large part of our condition.

50. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (50) is….
A. A number of poor environmental conditions have worsened our wellbeing

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B. Health hazards have become a common concern due to poor nutrition eating.
C. Health issues are related to not only poor food consumption but also life styles
D. The phenomenon ubiquitously visible related to health matters is eating junk foods
E. Several illnesses are caused by several factors, one of which is obviously overeating

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TEST 3

Items 1 and 2 are based on the following passage.

1. According to the advertisement, the document that should be submitted by applicants


is....
A. A curriculum vitae and a passport
B. A curriculum vitae and an application letter
C. An application letter and a school diploma
D. A curriculum vitae and a photo
E. An application letter and an ID card

2. What educational background is required for the job vacancy above?


A. An air conditioner engineer major
B. A hotel business major
C. A diploma in enginnering
D. An electrical engineer major
E. A business management major
Items 3 and 4 are based on the following passage.

Steps for Connecting a Laptop to a Projector


To connect a laptop to a projector, you need to prepare...
1. First, make sure your computer and laptop are both turned off.

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2. Second, connect the video cable (usually VGA) from your laptop’s external video port
to the projector.
3. Then, plug your projector into an electrical outlet and press the “power” button to turn
it ON.
4. Next, turn on your laptop.
5. If you need audio for your presentation, connect the laptop’s “audio out” port to the
projector, or to another sound system.
6. Sync the projector and laptop by holding down the FUNCTION key function (Fn) and
pressing one of the following keys to toggle.
(Note: Depending on your computer, you may have to use a different F key than those listed
above.)

3. The purpose of the text is to….


A. tell the readers how to connect a laptop to a projector
B. persuade the readers to connect a laptop to a projector
C. encourage the readers to connect a laptop to a projector
D. inform the readers kinds of laptop that connect to a projector
E. operate a laptop related to an overhead projector

4. What should you do to present the audio for your presentation?


A. Sync the projector and laptop by holding down the FUNCTION key.
B. Connect the laptop’s “audio out” port to another sound system.
C. Plug the projector into an electrical outlet.
D. Press the “power” button to turn it ON.
E. Plug the projector cable to the laptop outlet.

Items 5 and 6 are based on the following passage.

The Indus River Valley was once home to the most widespread and peaceful of the
ancient civilizations: the Indus Valley civilization also referred to as the Harappan civilization.
Known for its two major cities, Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, this society lasted from roughly
3300 B.C. to 1300 B.C., yet it was only recently rediscovered within the last one hundred years.
Studies of the long-buried sites show surprising and interesting findings about the people,
culture, and structures that made up this great civilization.
The phrase “early civilizations” usually conjures up images of Egypt and Mesopotamia
and their pyramids, mummies, and golden tombs.
But in the 1920s, a huge discovery in South Asia proved that Egypt and Mesopotamia
were not the only “early civilizations.” In the vast Indus River plains (located in what is today
Pakistan and western India), under layers of land and mounds of dirt, archaeologists
discovered the remains of a 4,600-year-old city. A thriving, urban civilization had existed at
the same time as Egyptian and Mesopotamian states—in an area twice each of their sizes.
The people of this Indus Valley civilization did not build massive monuments like their
contemporaries, nor did they bury riches among their dead in golden tombs. There were no
mummies, no emperors, and no violent wars or bloody battles in their territory.

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Remarkably, the lack of all these is what makes the Indus Valley civilization so exciting
and unique. While others civilizations were devoting huge amounts of time and resources to
the rich, the supernatural, and the dead, Indus Valley inhabitants were taking a practical
approach to supporting the common, secular, living people. Sure, they believed in an afterlife
and employed a system of social divisions. But they also believed resources were more
valuable in circulation among the living than on display or buried underground.
Amazingly, the Indus Valley civilization appears to have been a peaceful one. Very few
weapons have been found and no evidence of an army has been discovered. Excavated
human bones reveal no signs of violence, and building remains show no indication of battle.
All evidence points to a preference for peace and success in achieving it.
So how did such a practical and peaceful civilization become so successful? (To be
continued)

5. The Indus Valley civilization was described as …


A. rich and powerful
B. successful and resourceful
C. rich and supernatural
D. peaceful and practical
E. amazing and successful

6. The text implies that the early civilization ....


A. only referred to the culture of Egypt and Mesopotamia
B. did not only belong to Egyptian and Mesopotamia people
C. did not last for less than 2000 years
D. flourished well in the last one hundred years
E. became so successfull that it lasts forever

Items 7 - 9 are based on the following passage.

Growing Herbs Indoors


Materials you need:
Containers (with drainage holes and waterproof saucers); herb seeds and/or plants;
potting soil or soilless seed-starting mix; fertilizer

Procedures:
1. Prepare the herbs that you want to plant. The herbs you can choose for windowsill herb
garden are basil, cilantro, dill, oregano, rosemary, sage and thyme. You can start from
seed for annual herbs and from plants for perennial herbs.
2. Use individual pots for each herb so you can give each plant the specific care it needs. Be
sure containers have drainage holes and waterproof saucers. If you want to plant multiple
types of herbs in a single container, make sure they have the same cultural requirements.
3. If starting seeds, fill container with potting mix. Avoid using garden soil, which tends to
be heavy and may contain disease organisms. Sow seeds, checking the seed packet to
determine planting depth. Learn what conditions each herb prefers; for example, basil

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prefers warmth, while sage and rosemary like cooler temperatures. Consider choosing
compact or dwarf varieties to fit your space.
4. Next, place containers in a sunny, south-facing window. A south-facing window is
adequate for most herbs. Water your herbs to keep soil moist but not soggy, and drain
saucers after watering. Fertilize every two weeks with a half-strength solution of an all-
purpose fertilizer. Pinch back branching plants, such as basil, to keep them shrubby rather
than leggy.

7. What do you have to do before filling the


container? A. Choose to plant the herbs from
seed or plant.
B. Choose the herbs that you want to plant.
C. Select the container for each herb.
D. Prepare the soil to plant.
E. Wash the containier and fill it with fertilizer

8. It is not recommended to use garden soil to plant


the indoor herbs because ....
A. garden soil may give viruses to indoor herbs
B. the indoor herbs may be too heavy to carry
C. the garden soil is too warm for indoor herbs
D. the indoor herbs may become dwarf if planted in soil
E. Garden soil may harm the fertilizer for the herbs

9. After planting the herbs, you need to …. A. give


fertilizer to grow the plants well
B. take care of the plants by watering it regularly
C. find the most suitable spot to place the plants
D. occasionally pick the leaves to grow shrubby plants
E. put the new plants on a shady place for protection

Items 10 – 11 are based on the following passage.

Recently, I took a trip to Japan. I went across the country and visited most of its
famous places. One that I noted was Akihabara. One notable establishment which can be
found in Akihabara is called a Girl/Maid Cafe, a themed restaurant where the servers are
women and they come and have conversations with you at your table. Together with my
friends, we went to a Mermaid Cafe, which was themed to be under the sea. Our waitress
was named Momone, and while she did not look exactly like a Mermaid, she was
definitely wearing a stereotypical maid outfit. Unfortunately I did not speak Japanese,
though the rest of my small cohort did, so a long conversation ensued about our servers’
interests and adventures. I purchased a special drink, which costed a bit more than the
others, but came with a cute Polaroid which Momone and I posed for. She wrote all over

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the Polaroid with markers, writing cute messages and drawing hearts, to help build the
illusion that we were a cute (Kawaii) couple.
The arcades in Akihabara are filled with people playing games. I am a big fan of
Guilty Gear, but I could not find it in the arcade I was in, so I instead settled for Blaz Blu,
its cousin. This arcade, and many other buildings in the area, have very slow elevators
and no staircases. If there were a fire I could only assume everybody would die.
One of the shops I went to was several stories tall. The first story contained
modern console video games, the next stories contain retro console games. One story is
dedicated to movies, while another to board games. There I purchase one toy as a
souvenir for a friend back in the States, though I had not yet asked how it worked.
When riding between cities, the trains were very packed. In these trains one will
find many Japanese Businesspersons, who mostly appear sad and tired. This offers a
sharp contrast with the whole “Kawaii” culture which is especially prevalent in Akihabara.

10. The text mainly discusses.… A. the modern culture of Akihabara


B. the writer’s experiences in the maid café
C. the writer’s journey exploring the downtown of Akihabara
D. the trip to get special toys the writer could buy in Akihabara
E. the visit to Akibahara for culinary and games hunting

11. Which of these statements that is correct based on the text? A. The writer bought the
most expensive drink in the café.
B. The writer could assume everybody would die now or then.
C. The Mermaid Café is usually themed under certain themes.
D. Customers have to use stairs to go to the arcades in Akihabara.
E. The businesspersons give the different view about the culture in Akihabara.

Items 12 – 13 are based on the following table.

The table below shows the primary funding sources of international students in the US
during the years 2003/04 and 2013/14.

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12. In 2003, the funding is the least provided by.…


A. current employer
B. personal and family
C. U.S. college or university D. foreign government or university
E. other sources.

13. The statement that best conclude the table is….


A. the change increases by half number of the first data taken
B. the increase of primary funding sources is contributed by government
C. working and studying at the same time is not beneficial for the government
D. the number of international students in the U.S. is doubled from 2003-2013 E. the
primary funding resources on international students increase steadily

Items 14 – 16 are based on the following passage.

At the age of sixty-five, Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing a series of novels for young
people based on her early experiences on American frontier. Born in the state of Wisconsin
in 1867, she and her family were rugged pioneers. Seeking better farm land, they went by
overed wagon to Missouri in 1869, then on to Kansas the next year, returning to Wisconsin in
1871, and travelling on to Minnesota and Iowa before settling permanently in South Dakota
in 1879. Because of this constant moving, Wilder’s early education took place sporadically in
a succession of one-room schools. From age thirteen to sixteen, she attended school more
regularly, although she never graduated.
At the age of eighteen, she married Almanzo James Wilder. They bought a small farm in
Ozarks, where they remained for the rest of their lives. Their only daughter, Rose, who had
become a nationally known journalist, encouraged her mother to write. Serving as agent and
editor, Rose negotiated with Harper’s to publish her mother’s first book, Little House in the
Big Woods. Seven more books followed, each chronicling her early life on the plains. Written

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from the perspective of a child, they have remained popular with young readers from many
nations. Twenty years after her death in 1957, more than 20 million copies had been sold,
and they had been translated into fourteen languages. In 1974, a weekly television series,
“Little House on the Prairie”, was produced based on the stories from the Wilder books.

14. Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing novels….


A. when she was a child
B. right after she married Almanzo
C. when she was a young mother D. around the year 1930s
E. right after her husband’s death

15. Which one of the following events is not true in the life of Laura Ingalls Wilder? A. She
went west by covered wagon.
B. She graduated from one-room school.
C. She lived in Ozarks since her marriage.
D. Her daughter worked as a journalist.
E. She write seven books during her life.

16. It can be inferred from the passage that….


A. Laura Ingalls Wilder wrote scripts for the television series
B. Laura Ingalls Wilder started writing in Ozarks
C. Wilder’s daughter made negotiation for her mother’s books
D. the Wilder books have a universal appeal
E. Wilder had the chance to witness her success as a book writer

Items 17 – 19 are based on the following passage.

The Bear Who Married a Woman


Once upon a time there lived a widow of the tribe of the Gispaxlâ'ts. Many men tried to
marry her daughter, but she declined them all.
The mother said, "When a man comes to marry you, feel of the palms of his hands. If
they are soft, decline him. If they are rough, accept him." She meant that she wanted to have
a son-in-law who is skillful in building canoes.
Her daughter obeyed her commands and refused all young men. One night a youth
came to her. The palms of his hands were very rough, and therefore she accepted his suit.
Early in the morning, however, he had suddenly disappeared, even before she had seen him.
When her mother arose early in the morning and went out, she found a halibut (name
of fish) on the beach in front of the house, although it was midwinter. The following evening
the young man came back, but disappeared again before the dawn of the day. In the
morning the widow found a seal in front of the house. Thus they lived for some time. The
young woman never saw the face of her husband; but every morning she found an animal
on the beach, every day a larger one. Thus the widow came to be very rich.
She was anxious to see her son-in-law, and one day she waited until he arrived.
Suddenly she saw a red bear appear from the water. He carried a whale on each side, and put

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them down on the beach. As soon as he noticed that he was observed, he was transformed
into a rock, which may be seen up to this day. He was a supernatural being of the sea.

17. Which of the following statement is TRUE according to the text? A. The
daughter accepted a youth with rough palms.
B. The young woman rarely saw the face of her husband.
C. The woman wanted to have a man with soft palms as her son-in-law.
D. The daughter disobeyed her mom to refuse all men with soft palms.
E. The man and his wife objected to the daugher’s choice.

18. What can we conclude from the text?


A. The woman and her daughter lived in poverty forever.
B. The daughter did not love the young man but she had to marry him.
C. The woman finally realized that she had a red bear as her son-in-law.
D. The daughter knew the real identity of her husband yet still loved him. E. Having a
red bear as a son-in-law can be relatively amazing

19. We can learn from the text that....


A. we have to believe in the supernatural power
B. we have to be careful in taking our actions
C. we have to trust people with rough palms
D. we have to disobey our parents
E. man and animal may live hand in hand

Items 20 – 22 are based on the following passage.

The earth has four major layers: the inner core, outer core, mantle and crust. The crust
and the top of the mantle make up a thin skin on the surface of our planet. But this skin is not
all in one piece – it is made up of many pieces like a puzzle covering the surface of the earth.
Not only that, but these puzzle pieces keep slowly moving around, sliding past one another
and bumping into each other. We call these puzzle pieces tectonic plates, and the edges of
the plates are called the plate boundaries. The plate boundaries are made up of many faults,
and most of the earthquakes around the world occur on these faults. Since the edges of the
plates are rough, they get stuck while the rest of the plate keeps moving. Finally, when the
plate has moved far enough, the edges unstuck on one of the faults and there is an
earthquake.
While the edges of faults are stuck together, and the rest of the block is moving, the
energy that would normally cause the blocks to slide past one another is being stored up.
When the force of the moving blocks finally overcomes the friction of the jagged edges of the
fault and it unsticks, all that stored up energy is released. The energy radiates outward from
the fault in all directions in the form of seismic waves like ripples on a pond. The seismic waves
shake the earth as they move through it, and when the waves reach the earth’s surface, they
shake the ground and anything on it, like our houses and us!

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20. Why does the writer write the text?


A. To describe the major layers of the earth during the earthquake.
B. To explain to the readers how the earthquake occurs.
C. To inform the readers how to prevent earthquake.
D. To tell the readers the impacts of an earthquake.
E. To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the earthquake.

21. ... and most of the earthquakes around the world “occur” on these faults.
(Par 1) The underlined word has a closest meaning to....
A. happen
B. prevent
C. locate
D. hold
E. exist

22. The text mainly talks about.... A. the danger of an earthquake


B. the process of an earthquake
C. the location of an earthquake
D. the definition of an earthquake
E. the harmfull effect of an earthquake

Items 23 – 25 are based on the following passage.

Social Network Impact on Young People

The impact of social networks on young people is significant. Children are growing up
surrounded by mobile devices and interactive social networking sites such as Twitter,
Instagram, and Facebook, which has made the social media a vital aspect of their life. Social
network is transforming the manner in which young people interact with their parents, peers,
as well as how they make use of technology. However, hyper-connected to social network
cannot be bad for them.
The effects of social networking are twofold. On the positive side, social networks can
act as invaluable tools for professionals. They achieve this by assisting young professionals to
market their skills and seek business opportunities. Social networking sites may also be used
to network professionally. On the negative side, the internet is laden with a number of risks
associated with online communities. Cyber bullying, which refers to a type of bullying that is
perpetrated using electronic technology, is one of the risks. Bullies have taken to internet
sites such as Twitter and Facebook, where the hide behind the anonymity provided by the
internet to carry out their despicable acts.
Young people also run the risk of inadvertently disclosing their personal information
since on most occasions; they usually neglect to read carefully websites’ privacy policies.
Whenever young people fail to read the policies and disclaimers, they are exposed to risks of
having their personal information disclosed. This is especially a serious matter in light o the
rising cases of cyber crimes such as identity theft. New studies reveal that social networks

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have the ability to sway people to spend money by running advertisements on the user’s
page. Such forms of near-subliminal advertising can subconsciously cause an individual to buy
certain merchandise.
It is becoming increasingly clear that social networks have become part of people’s lives.
Many young people are using their tablet computers and smartphones to check Tweets and
status updates from their friends and family. As technology advances, people are pressured
to adopt different lifestyles. Social networking sites can assist young people to become more
socially capable. However, they may also make them clumsy and incompetent, as well.
Therefore, it is imperative to exercise caution and restraint when dealing with such issues.

23. What makes bullies are found on the social network?


A. People have their own privacy protected by the law set up in the internet.
B. Social networks have the ability to sway people to spend money.
C. People can hide behind the anonymity provided by the internet.
D. It can connect the people to the online communities easily.
E. The risks of bullying through the internet can be avoided.

24. “They” achieve this by assisting young professionals to market their skills and seek
business opportunities. (Paragraph 2) The underlined word refers to....
A. The effects
B. Social networks
C. The positive side
D. Business opportunities
E. Internet users

25. What is likely the writer’s opinion toward social networks?


A. The social networks are very good for young people.
B. The young people should deactivate their social networks.
C. The social networks only give bad impacts for young people.
D. The young people should be wise in using the social networks. E. People should use
the social networks only for education

Items 26 - 27 are based on the following passage.

Content-based instruction (CBI) is a teaching method that emphasizes learning about


something rather than learning about language. Although CBI is not new, there has been
(26)… in it over the last ten years, particularly in the USA and Canada where it has proven very
effective in ESL immersion programs. This interest has now spread to EFL classrooms around
the world (27)… that their students like CBI and are excited to learn English this way.

26. Which option best completes (26)?


A. an increased interest
B. a heated controversy
C. an amplified alarm

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D. a confusing trend
E. a current affair

27. Which option best completes (27)?


A. that everyone begins to realize
B. in which parents are conscious
C. where school principals observe
D. where teachers are discovering
E. that communities are now fond

Items 28 and 29 are based on the following passage.

Flipped classrooms redefine in-class activities. In-class lessons (28) accompanying flipped
classroom may include activity learning or more traditional homework problems, among
other practices, to engage students in the content. Class activities vary but may include: in-
depth laboratory experiments, (29) original document analysis, debate or speech
presentation, current event discussions, peer reviewing, project-based learning, and skill
development or concept practice.

28. The underlined word ‘accompanying’ is synonymous with….


A. supplementing
B. supporting
C. upholding
D. relating
E. holding

29. The antonym of the underlined word ‘original’ is ….


A. imitation
B. artificial
C. secondary
D. false
E. replica

Items 30 and 31 are based on the following passage.

Cognitive Academic Language Proficiency (CALP) refers to formal academic learning. This
includes listening, speaking, reading, and writing about (30)…. This level of language learning
is essential for students to succeed in school. Students need time and support to become
proficient in academic areas, (31)… from five to seven years.

30. Which option best completes (30)?


A. material area content subject
B. area subject material content
C. content subject area material

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D. content area material subject


E. subject area content material

31. Which option best completes (31)?


A. usually which takes
B. which usually takes
C. which usually it takes
D. which it usually takes E. usually which it takes

Suppose we want to build a machine that understands or generates linguistic communication


between humans. So, we need models and processes for (32) getting chunks of information
from voice or textual utterances and manipulating them inside a computer. These models’
catch-all name is natural language processing.

32. The underlined part getting chunks of information in the passage may be best rephrased
as….
A. obtaining portions of materials
B. collecting bits of evidence
C. synthesizing facts of news
D. receiving reports of facts
E. attaining pieces of data

The K-W-L-H learning strategy is one of the most popular strategies that have been used by
the learning community to read and understand texts as well as work on different school
projects. This strategy that was developed by Donna Ogle in 1986 was originally developed
for studying literature. KW-L-H is an acronym.

33. The underlined part that was developed by Donna Ogle in the passage may be best
rephrased as….
A. Donna Ogle invented
B. Donna Ogle was found
C. discovered Donna Ogle
D. to be created by Donna Ogle
E. was Donna Ogle constructed

34. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘We joined a workshop by a
facilitator’ and ‘His workshop topic was inspiring.’ is….
A. We joined a workshop by a facilitator the workshop topic of whom was inspiring
B. We joined a workshop by a facilitator, the workshop topic of which was inspiring
C. We joined a workshop by a facilitator of whose workshop topic was inspiring
D. We joined a workshop by a facilitator whose workshop topic was inspiring E. We
joined a workshop by a facilitator that workshop topic was inspiring

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35. The meaning that best expresses this: ‘The computer program is not at hand now. As a
result, we analyze the data manually’ is….
A. If the computer program is at hand now, we will not analyze the data manually
B. Were the computer program at hand now, we would not analyze the data manually*
C. If the computer program was at hand now, we would not analyze the data manually
D. Should the computer program be at hand now, we will not analyze the data manually
E. If the computer program would be at hand now, we would not analyze the data
manually

36. … representative of the students of high-level achievers, the subjects of the experiment
will be students drawn randomly out of the 5 classes as the accessible population
A. Be considered
B. To be considered
C. Being considered
D. Having considered
E. They were considered

37. We planned to attend the conference overland; but it was not easy to find the transports
… we traveled as most were fully booked.
A. in which
B. which
C. where
D. that
E. by which

38. When traveling by ... trains, we can not only arrive on time but also save our time to our
destination.
A. express
B. speedy
C. quick
D. rapid
E. swift

39. … riding a motorcycle or driving a car can be blamed as the main cause of accidents on
the road. A. Hurried
B. Reckless
C. Speedy
D. Quick
E. Rapid

40. Everyone present in the seminar was … petrified seeing that Raisha answered the
examiner’s questions brilliantly.
A. completely
B. massively

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C. extremely
D. wholly
E. fully

41. During the interview session we must be confident. Do not even show in your words ….
A. brass farthing
B. besetting sins
C. broken accents
D. natural spirits
E. brute force

42. Thesis draft consultation can also be a challenge for some students. Not only do they
have to present their ideas but also to answer their advisor’s questions during the
consultation session. Many really feel they.… before even they meet their thesis advisor.
A. have butterflies in their stomach
B. sit on the edge of their seat
C. make their blood run cold
D. can’t stand the pace
E. are like a silly goose

43. The explanation on the new teaching method can take a long time. But, the lecturer did
not have much time as he had to go out of town on duty. So, he tried to keep the
explanation….
A. high and dry
B. free and easy
C. meek and mild
D. short and sweet
E. first and foremost

Items 44, 45, and 46 are based on the following passage.

The Input Hypothesis claims that humans acquire language in only one way--by understanding
messages, (44)... by receiving "comprehensible input." If acquisition is the core of this theory,
the crucial question then becomes: How do we acquire? According to the hypothesis, we
move from one stage of understanding to (45).... More specifically, we acquire a new rule by
understanding messages that contain this new rule. We move from stage "i", the present level
of the understood message or "current competence", to the next level, giving us the formula
"i+1." (46)…, "i+1", "comprehensible input" and the Input Hypothesis (IH) mean the same
thing and can be used interchangeably for the purpose of this paper.

44. Which option best completes (44)?


A. clearly
B. simply
C. amazingly

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D. basically
E. naturally

45. Which option best completes (45)?


A. others
B. another
C. the other understanding
D. others' understanding
E. one another understanding

46. Which option best completes (46)?


A. Henceforth
B. Given that
C. Following this
D. It follows that
E. Therefore

The main causes of obesity are: the decreased level of nutrients intake, and sedentary
lifestyle. For example, the intake of fast food meals tripled between 1977 and 1995, and
calorie level magnified four times during the same period. Nevertheless, it is insufficient
explanation of phenomenal rise in the obesity levels in the well-developed countries. Overall,
obesity is a major health and social problem, which has reached pandemic levels.
(47) … A survey indicates that more than 2 in 3 adults are considered to be overweight. There
are health risks caused by overweight or obesity. These are osteoarthritis, high blood
pressure, heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and nonalcoholic fatty liver diseases. Osteoarthritis
is the most common form of arthritis, affecting millions of people worldwide. It occurs when
the protective cartilage on the ends of your bones wears down over time. …

47. The sentence that best completes blank spaces in (47) is….
A. The causes of obesity are interrelated factors, such as genetics, lifestyle and body
energy use B. People who are obese are at increased risk for many serious diseases
and health conditions
C. A number of health hazards have been associated with overweight several studies
reveal.
D. Overweight and obese persons are often blamed for their condition and
considered lazy E. Recently obesity or overweight has been the subject of
intensive research medically

48. The best arrangement of these sentences to make a logical paragraph is…
1. Therefore, it needs a broad effort by everyone to make the proper education system
in such countries.
2. Education is very necessary for the betterment of everyone’s life.
3. However, the education system is still weak in the undeveloped countries.
4. It enables us and prepares us in every aspect of life.

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5. People living in such countries are poor and spend their whole day in arranging only
some basic needs.
6. Proper education also creates lots of ways to go ahead in the future.
7. Thus, we all should know the importance of education in our life.

A. 2–7–4–3–1–5–6
B. 2–6–7–4–3–5–1
C. 2–7–4–6–3–5–1
D. 2–6–4–7–1–3–5
E. 2–5–7–4–6–3–1

Items 49 and 50 are based on the following passage.

The planet is warming, from North Pole to South Pole. Since 1906, the global average
surface temperature has increased between 0.6 to 0.9 degrees Celsius–even more in
sensitive polar regions. The effects of rising temperatures are not waiting for some far-flung
future–signs of the effects of global warming are appearing right now. (49) ….
(50) …. Climate models predict that the addition of heat-trapping gases in the
atmosphere will shift precipitation in two main ways. The first shift is in a strengthening of
existing precipitation patterns. This is commonly called "wet get wetter, dry get drier."
Warmer air traps more water vapor, and scientists expect that additional water to fall in
already wet parts of the Earth.

49. Which option best completes (49)?


A. Two obvious signs are ensuing: precipitation patterns, and animals.
B. Several global sufferings have begun to become obvious and observable.
C. The danger is now appearing right in front of us approaching globally.
D. But, are we really aware of some obvious disastrous threats ahead?
E. These impact lives all over the globe hazardously in many ways.

50. Which option best completes (50)?


A. The most obvious signal is rainfall patterns are shifting now.
B. The shift is a change in storm tracks from the equator to the poles.
C. The greenhouse gases are implicated in how precipitation falls globally.
D. Climate change is altering rainfall patterns worldwide more extensively.
E. Wet areas get wetter, dry areas get drier, storm tracks move to the poles.

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TEST 4

Items 1 and 2 are based on the following passage.

SUPER SALE TO MARK CROSSROAD SUPERMARKET'S 10TH ANNIVERSARY


In the whole month of July
Come and visit us this July to celebrate our 10th anniversary and enjoy a lot of surprises. We
offer:
• Up to 50% discount on dairy products, bakery and fresh meat.
• Free food samples, free ice cream, and free gifts.
• Trivia Contests to win 10 mobile phones, 10 microwaves, and 10 desktop computer sets.
• Daily live music from 5 to 9 pm.
• Weekend surprises.
Visit our website www.crossroadsupermarket.com to get more information on all special
events in July, or contact us at 7994352.
See you at Crossroad Supermarket at no. 45 Washington Avenue. Bring this flyer and get a free
gift at the Customer Service Counter.

1. What is advertised in the flyer? A. A new supermarket.


B. A series of anniversary events.
C. Summer sale.
D. Weekend Surprises.
E. A crossroad.

2. What will a shopper who brings this flyer get? A. Discount voucher.
B. Free food samples.
C. Free gift.
D. Free ice-cream.
E. Surprises.

Items 3 and 4 are based on the following passage.

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3. What is modified in the text?


A. Laptop’s “power plant”.
B. Laptop’s battery.
C. Laptop’s “Power Saver”.
D. Options setting.
E. Power options.

4. How many options are available to save power?


A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5.

Items 5 and 6 are based on the following passage.

Snakes are reptiles (cold-blooded creatures). They belong to the same group as lizard
(the scaled group, Squamata) but from a sub-group of their own (Serpentes).
Snakes have two legs but a long time ago they had claws to help them slither along.
Snakes are not slimy. They are covered in scales which are just bumps on the skin. Their skin
is hard and glossy to reduce friction as the snake slithers along the ground.
Snakes often sun bathe on rock in the warm weather. This is because snake is cold-
blooded; they need the sun’s warmth to heat their bodies up.

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Most snakes live in the country. Some types of snakes live in trees; some live in water,
but most live on the ground in deserted rabbit burrows, in thick, long grass, and in old logs.
A snake’s diet usually consists of frogs, lizards, mice, and other snakes. The anaconda
can eat small crocodiles and even bears. Many snakes protect themselves with their fangs.
Some snakes are protected by scaring their enemies away like Cobra. The flying snakes glide
away from danger. Their ribs spread apart and the skin stretches out. Its technique is just like
the sugar gliders.

5. We know from the text that snakes....


A. do not have claws
B. do not like sunlight
C. have two legs and claws
D. use their legs to climb the tree
E. use their claws to slither along the ground

6. Since the snakes are cold-blooded they....


A. like sucking the cool blood
B. avoid sun-bathing to their skins
C. never sun bathe in the warm weather
D. live on the ground in deserted burrows
E. require the sun’s warmth to heat their bodies

Items 7 - 9 are based on the following passage.

How to Make a Pencil Case


Steps
1. Choose the size you want. If you want to put longer items, such as a ruler, placed in
your pencil case, you'll need a longer pencil case.
2. Find a bag or box that suitable with your choice of size. It doesn't have be nice
looking, but strong and clean.
3. Cover the box with paper, any color.
4. Decorate the container. Try some or all of the following ideas.
• Put on same cool sticker.
• Decorate with your own art with makers: draw lines, shapes, animals, people,
etc.
• Cut some magazine pictures and stick them on it.
• Totally cover the box with wrapping paper; and
• Glue on shells, buttons, or anything else you want to decorate the pencil case
with. Add glitter if you like.
5. Show all your friends, and be proud of your unique pencil case

7. The length of the pencil case depends on....


A. the items we are going to put there
B. the ruler we have

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C. the size of the pen


D. the box that we find
E. the length of box we have

8. What should we do after the case is wrapped?


A. the case is ready to be used
B. let your friends decorate your case
C. glue necessary parts to make it stronger
D. stick something on the case to make it beautiful
E. leave some spaces without colored paper

9. From the text above it can be concluded that we have to be ... in decorating the box to
have a good result.
A. mindful
B. careful
C. alert
D. risky
E. creative

Items 10 – 11 are based on the following passage.

A tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, sometimes reaching
heights of over 100 feet (30.5 meters), onto land. These walls of water can cause widespread
destruction when they crash ashore.
These awe-inspiring waves are typically caused by large, undersea earthquakes at
tectonic plate boundaries. When the ocean floor at a plate boundary rises or falls suddenly, it
displaces the water above it and launches the rolling waves that will become a tsunami.
Most tsunami, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean's "Ring of Fire," a
geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common.
Tsunamis may also be caused by underwater landslides or volcanic eruptions. They may
even be launched, as they frequently were in Earth's ancient past, by the impact of a large
meteorite plunging into an ocean.
Tsunamis race across the sea at up to 500 miles (805 kilometers) an hour — about as
fast as a jet airplane. At that pace they can cross the entire expanse of the Pacific Ocean in
less than a day. And their long wavelengths mean they lose very little energy along the way.
A tsunami's trough, the low point beneath the wave's crest, often reaches shore first.
When it does, it produces a vacuum effect that sucks coastal water seaward and exposes
harbor and sea floors. This retreating of sea water is an important warning sign of a tsunami,
because the wave's crest and its enormous volume of water typically hit shore five minutes
or so later. Recognizing this phenomenon can save lives.
A tsunami is usually composed of a series waves, called a wave train, so its destructive
force may be compounded as successive waves reach shore. People experiencing a tsunami
should remember that the danger may not have passed with the first wave and should await
official word that it is safe to return to vulnerable locations.

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Some tsunamis do not appear on shore as massive breaking waves but instead resemble
a quickly surging tide that inundates coastal areas.

10. Why did the author write the report?


A. To raise people' awareness about tsunami.
B. To warn people about an upcoming tsunami.
C. To inform people about past tsunamis.
D. To inform people about the different types of tsunami.
E. To warn people about the dangers of tsunami.

11. From the text, we know that Tsunami can be very destructive because ....
A. they come after earthquakes
B. they are caused by volcanic eruptions
C. they are tall, fast, forceful and repetitive
D. they have a vacuum effect
E. they occur suddenly

Items 12 – 13 are based on the following table.

The 30 fastest growing occupations 2010-2020 (in thousands)

D. Health educators.
E. Carpenters

13. What is not true about dental hygienists?


A. In 2020, there will be 68,000 more dental hygienists than in 2010.

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B. In 2010, there were 250,000 dental hygienists.


C. It requires an associate degree.
D. From 2010 to 2020, this job will grow by 37%.
E. It needs no Short-term on-the-job training

Items 14 – 16 are based on the following passage.

Kaka was born in Brazilia. From age 4 to 7, his family lived in Cuiaba, following his father,
a civil engineer. At age 7, the family moved to the city of Sao Paulo, in the neighborhood of
Morumbi, near the stadium of Sao Paulo FC. As FIFA says,” Kaka fails to fit the Brazilia stereo
type of the kid from the Favela who first played the game in the street with a ball made from
rags. Coming from comfortable and cultured family, Kaka kept up his studies as long as they
were compatible with his profession.”
His talent was soon recognized. A professor called the family and suggested enrolling
him in a football school. At age 8, Kaka was playing with Sao Paulo FC, where he succeeded in
all categories. At age 14, Kaka used to wake up two hours early, to keep up with his studies.
Kaka meneged to conclude the intermediary cycle (eleven years) in Brazil, before dedicating
exclusively to football.
In 2006, only 24 years old, Kaka was one of the main Brazilian players in the World Cup.
Despite the abundance of good players, coach Carlos Alberto Parreira already said that Kaka
would stars as a principle. The groups formed by Kaka, Ronaldinho, Ronaldo, and Adriano was
called “the Magic Square” by Brazilian media fans.

14. Having recognized Kaka’s talent, the professor suggested that ... in the football school.
A. he become a supervisor
B. he enroll as a member
C. he accommodate
D. he practice more
E. he spend his free time

15. The main idea of paragraph 3 is.... A. his talent was soon recognized
B. Kaka would stars as a principle
C. “Magic Square” was formed by Kaka, Ronaldinho, Ronaldo, and Adriano
D. a professor suggested Kaka’s family enrolling him in a football school E. Kaka was one
of the main Brazilian players in the World Cup

16. “His talent was soon recognized” (paragraph 2). The underlined word is closest in meaning
to....
A. Predicted
B. Registered
C. Managed
D. Succeeded
E. Identified

Items 17 – 19 are based on the following passage.

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Once there was a very lazy king. He hardly did any physical activity. As a result he started
to be ill. He called the royal doctor and said, “Give medicine to get well. If you don’t cure me,
I will kill you.”
The doctor knew laziness was the main cause of the king’s illness. The next daythe
doctor gave him big dumbbells and said, ‘Your Majesty, you must swingthese magic bells in
your hands every morning and evening for an hour. Do these till your arms starting sweating
and you will start getting cured.”
The king did this everyday not knowing that it was an exercise. Within a few weeks his
body became fit and he felt alert and energetic. He thanked the doctor and asked the cure’s
secret. The royal doctor said, “Your Majesty, the magic of this cure will keep you fit if you keep
on swinging these dumbbells. The day you stop you will became ill again.”

17. The king did the physical exercises because....


A. the doctor obliged him to do it
B. he did not realize it was magic
C. he believed it would make him fit
D. he thought it would cure his illness
E. the warned him to always keep fit

18. The story is about....


A. a doctor who cured the king from his laziness
B. a king who made efforts to cure his illness
C. the secret cure for the king’s ailment
D. the benefit of exercise to keep healthy
E. the way to keep the king healthy

19. We learn from the story that....


A. laziness is the major cause of every bad men
B. keeping fit does not necessarily need serious efforts
C. magic balls can be used as a means of curing illness
D. curing any illness should not be based on superstition
E. we can teach people to be fit without offending them

Items 20 – 22 are based on the following passage.

All human beings eat food and make use of the chemical energy in it, so do all other
animals. Perhaps you wonder where all that chemical energy comes from. Why doesn’t the
food all get used up?
The answer is that new food is being grown as fast as old food is used to. It is the green
plants that form the new food. Animals either eat the plants or eat other animals that have
eaten plants.
The green substance of plants is chlorophyll. Chlorophyll can absorb sunlight. When it
does so, it changes the energy of the sun into chemical energy. The chemical energy present
in sunlit chlorophyll is used to combine dioxide in the air with water from the soil. Starch and

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other complicated compounds are formed. These are high in chemical energy obtained from
the sunlit chlorophyll.
They make up the food on which mankind and all other animals live. In the process of
forming this food, some oxygen atoms are left over. These are given off into the air by the
plants. The whole process is called photosynthesis.
Thus, plants use sunlight to from food and oxygen to from carbon dioxide and water
again. Plants change the sun’s energy into chemical energy. And animals change the animal
energy into kinetic and heat energy.

20. What will happen when the chlorophyll absorbs sunlight? It will....
A. change heat into kinetic energy
B. form complicated compound
C. make use of heat energy
D. change kinetic energy into chemical energy
E. change the sun’s energy into chemical energy

21. From the text we know that .... A. plant need to heat energy to live
B. all human beings need chemical energy
C. plants absorb sunlight to produce kinetic energy
D. chlorophyll is the most important thing in photosynthesis
E. sun’s energy cannot be formed into kinetic energy

22. The green substance of plants is chlorophyll. The underlined word in the above is closest
in meaning to....
A. core
B. body
C. stuff
D. essence
E. material

Items 23 – 25 are based on the following passage.

The use of formalin and other dangerous preservatives in food has been a serious for
two reasons. Firstly, formalin is not for human beings, but it is for biological specimen and
experiments. Formalin in biology is a 10% solution of formaldehyde in water which is usually
used as a disinfectant or to preserve biological specimens. Thus, it is not for food preservative,
it will be very dangerous to human’s body.
The second reason is that there is not tight control from the government. This condition
makes the people’s health is really in a threat. When the control is weak and the use of
formalin is spread wide all over the Indonesia regions, and these days it has really happened,
the citizens’ bodies will be badly contaminated with the poisons. Fish or food traders still sell
their product which contain formalin and dangerous preservatives. Can you imagine that our
digestive system absorbs the substance the should be for the human and animal corpses?

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Considering the reasons, we can makes a conclusion that the use of formalin and other
preservatives is really a serious problem if it is not resolved immediately.

23. Why is formalin dangerous for human’s body? A. It is not food preservatives.
B. It is a disinfectant for human beings.
C. It is used to preserve biological specimens.
D. It is 10% solution of formaldehyde in water.
E. It is controlled flighty from government.

24. The main idea of paragraph 2 is….


A. the human’s bodies will be harmful after consuming the formalin
B. the government has not controlled the use of formalin firmly
C. the weak control of using formalin is not threatening the human
D. the human’s bodies will be harmful after consuming the formalin E. the use of
formalin is know all over the regions

25. Based on the facts above, the writer suggests that…. A. people have to avoid consuming
formalin in their food
B. the use of formaldehyde is necessary to control the food
C. people should add 10% solution of formaldehyde in water
D. the food preservative is required to make the food delicious
E. food seller is supposed to pour formalin for food products

Items 26 – 27 are based on the following passage.

Because theme-based teaching is very demanding the teacher is supposed to plan the lesson
in advance even if she/he is (26)…. Nevertheless there should always be some choice points
in themebased teaching. Those choice points are for the teacher and the students to decide
which activity (27)… or how much time they spend on it.

26. Which option best completes (26)?


A. truly unskillful
B. slightly trained
C. rather qualified
D. newly graduated
E. very experienced
27. Which option best completes (27)?
A. the teachers choose
B. the principal allow
C. they will consider
D. they can do
E. the students like

Items 28 and 29 are based on the following passage.

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While often defined simplistically as “school work at home and home work at school,” Flipped
Learning is an approach that allows teachers to (28) implement a methodology, or various
methodologies, in their classrooms. To counter some of the misconceptions about this term,
the governing board and key leaders of the Flipped Learning Network (FLN), all experienced
Flipped Educators, have(29) composed a formal definition of “Flipped Learning.”

28. The underlined word ‘implement’ is synonymous with….


A. employ
B. to utilize
C. to manage
D. to organize
E. to administer

29. The antonym of the underlined word ‘composed’ is ….


A. assembled
B. collected
C. amassed
D. dispersed
E. clustered

Items 30 and 31 are based on the following passage.

The commonly used acronym BICS describes social, conversational language used for oral
communication. Also described as social language, this type of communication offers many
cues to the listener and is (30) …. BICS describes the development of conversational fluency
in the second language, (31) … for students from different linguistic backgrounds to
comprehend context-embedded social language readily.

30. Which option best completes (30)?


A. language context-embedded
B. context-embedded language
C. embedded-language context
D. language-embedded context
E. context-language embedded

31. Which option best completes (31)? A. which it takes about two years
B. which taking about two years
C. which takes about two years
D. which take about two years
E. which to take about two years

In the realm of human interaction informatics there are few things as important as an
understanding of natural language processing (NLP). After all, data is meaningless without
analysis and context. We need to be able to interpret the information (32) for it to be useful.

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32. The underlined part for it to be useful in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. because it is worthwhile
B. as it provides messages
C. to be considered vital
D. since it is valuable
E. to make it functional

The KWL strategy is first taught to students by introducing and explaining the strategy to each
of the student groups. The teacher starts off by making three columns on the chalkboard and
indicating the three parts by putting a K in the first column, a W in the second column, and an
L in the third column. The teacher then selects a topic and the students will describe (33) what
they already know about that topic and the teacher will place it in the K column. An example
is: given the topic of outer space, the students are to describe orally to the teacher any
background information that they may have.

33. The underlined part what they already know in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. their prior knowledge
B. their mastery
C. their knowledge
D. their understanding
E. their understanding

34. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘The facilitator lent me his book.’
and ‘It was very interesting to me.’ is….

A. The facilitator lent me his book that I found it very interesting


B. The facilitator lent me his book I found it was very interesting
C. The facilitator lent me his book that I found it was very interesting
D. The facilitator lent me his book, which I found it very interesting
E. The facilitator lent me his book, which was I found it very interesting

35. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘I do not know the steps of the
PQRST strategy.’ and ‘I cannot implement the strategy in my reading class.’ is….

A. If I know the steps of the PQRST strategy, I will implement it in my reading class
B. If I knew the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would implement it in my reading class
C. If I knew the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would implement it in my reading class
D. If I would knew the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would implement it in my reading
class
E. If I did not know the steps of the PQRST strategy, I would not implement it in my
reading class

36. … randomly out of the 5 classes as the accessible population, the subjects of the
experiment represented the students of high-level achievers.
A. Were drawn

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B. Drawn
C. Being drawn
D. Having drawn
E. They were drawn

37. Sentences in the active voice have energy and directness, … will keep your reader turning
the pages. A. two of which
B. which they
C. which both
D. both of which
E. of which

38. Near the end of their study time, several students not yet holding a proposal seminar
have … purpose of discussing their thesis obstacles with their thesis advisor.
A. genuine
B. obvious
C. strong
D. open
E. express

39. Our library now provides … to browse academic e-learning sources more freely and
quickly. A. us a facility
B. a facility for us
C. for us a facility
D. us with a facility
E. with a facility for us

40. In many parts of the globe people enjoy luxurious food. Meanwhile, still many others in
the other parts are starving ….
A. absolutely
B. strongly
C. fiercely
D. totally
E. highly

41. College students as young and enthusiastic generation needs … to show their academic
capacities and capabilities in their research.
A. fair deals
B. elbow rooms
C. iron wills
D. fellow feelings
E. Herculean tasks

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42. Thesis advisors commonly have high expectations on their students’ thesis completion
based on the standards set up by the university, hoping that students can … them.
A. keep up with
B. get away with
C. stick up for D. live up to
E. get on with

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43. Her students like her very much not only because of her teaching performance but
also her appearance that is always….
A. spick and span
B. safe and sound
C. fair and square
D. rough and ready
E. bright and early

Items 44 and 45 are based on the following passage.

Wine making has been around for thousands of years. (44)…. It is a natural process requiring
little human intervention. However, each wine maker guides the process through different
techniques. In general, there are five basic components of the wine making process:
harvesting, crushing and pressing, fermentation, clarificationand aging, and bottling. (45)….
However, they also add variations and deviations along the way to make their wine unique.

44. Which option best completes (44)? A. Wine making is not known by many
B. This makes wine popular universally
C. It is not only an art but also a science
D. Wine makers have a secret to do it
E. Sometimes machines are involved

45. Which option best completes (45)?


A. Careful handling is assured in wine making
B. Wine making normally takes a long process
C. Good wine factories use standard processes
D. Wine makers typically follow these five steps
E. However, these depends on the grape quality

Items 46, 47, and 48 are based on the following passage.

Perhaps no one has looked at the question more closely than the linguist Stephen Krashen,
who has introduced some of the most influential concepts to the study of second-language
acquisition. (46) …, he makes the distinction between learning and acquisition in his input
hypothesis. The former is the conscious, traditional grammar-based process in the classroom,
while the latter is essentially how we, as children, pick up our first language. Withour language
abilities, (47) …. He says that our mistake is trying to teach languages in the same way we
teach science, history and mathematics. Teaching a language is not. Instead, he believes that
learners should acquire second languages (48) … in the way children learn their first language.

46. Which option best completes (46)?


A. In abstract words
B. In the first place

A.

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B.
C.
D.
E.

C. In this context
D. In entirety
E. In a theoretical level

47. Which option best completes (47)?


either happens
it happens, too
it also happens
neither happens
both neither
happen

48. Which option best completes (48)?


A. orderly
B. similarly
C. logically
D. individually
E. accordingly

Physical dimension is the first one to mention concerning the weight management as
the primary aim of the weight management is the prevention of gaining weight and
maintaining the body at its lower weight. It is obvious that the abuse of alcohol, drugs,
smoking make a negative influence on the physical development of a person. In fact, physical
fitness in its turn may help to keep the body in a rather good condition. It offers several
advantages, two of which are good health and improved appearance.
(49) … There are ways to be healthy in this broad context. But, the best way to
maintain health is to preserve it through a healthful lifestyle, rather than waiting until we are
sick to put things right.Healthy habits help prevent certain health conditions, such as heart
disease, stroke, and high blood pressure. If you take care of yourself, you can keep your
cholesterol and blood pressure within a safe range. …

49. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (49) is ….
A. Health is a state of physical, mental and social well-being, not just the absence of
sickness.
B. Being healthy is important because a man of health can enjoy great happiness
during his life time.
C. Fitness is the normal and sound state of the body which is a great source of peace
and happiness.
D. Health is essential for all our activities of life whatever we may be – a doctor, a
leader, an artist.

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E. The first and essential condition for maintaining good health is regular exercise
at stated times.

50. The best arrangement of these sentences to make a logical paragraph is ....
1. Higher education is very necessary for all to get good jobs in our lives.
2. Home is the first place of education and parents are first teachers in everyone’s life.
3. Slowly we go ahead by passing our one by one class until we pass successfully till
12th standard.
4. Our parents let us know the importance of good education in the life.
5. Then we prepare for getting admissions to as higher study.
6. When we become three or four years old, we go to the school for the proper study.
7. In our childhood, we get the first impression of education from our mother.

A. 1–7–4–3–6–5–2
B. 2–6–7–4–3–5–1
C. 2–7–4–6–3–5–1
D. 1–6–4–7–2–3–5
E. 3 – 5 – 7 – 4 – 6 – 2 – 1 TEST 5

Pedagogy

Directions: To answer questions 1 – 20, Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and
E – to each question.

1. Among several sociocultural variables, which are most crucial in terms of achieving
language proficiency, is social contextual factors which includes the following EXCEPT ….
A. the participants’ age
B. the participants’ status
C. the participants’ gender
D. the participants’ social distance
E. the participants’ genres and registers.

2. Different from young learners, adult learners are notable for a number of special
characteristics like the following EXCEPT ….
A. they have expectations about the learning process
B. they have a whole range of life experiences to draw on
C. they come into classrooms with a rich range of experiences
D. they often have a clear understanding of why they are learning
E. they have a need for individual attention and approval from the teacher

3. Communicative approach which is based on the theory that children acquire language
rules by using language involves ….
A. creating situations where the students have a need to say something

A.

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B.
C.
D.
E.

B. setting a task for students to do that involves the use of language


C. involveving the students’ attention or interest to drills and practices
D. noting down errors but not correcting them during the activity
E. showing pictures of people in various situations to the learners

4. Curriculum refers to activities in which children engage under the auspices of the school
including the following EXCEPT ….
A. what pupils learn
B. how they learn it
C. how teachers help them learn
D. what supporting materials to learn
E. which system is in the study program

5. One important difference between first-language acquisition and second-language


acquisition is that the process of second-language acquisition is influenced by ….
A. languages that the learner already knows
B. learning styles that the learners’ apply
C. motivation coming from different environments
D. the learner’s attitude towards the target language
E. different levels of anxiety within the learners’ mind

6. When asked to determine the practicality level of a written test, the teacher usually asks
the following questions EXCEPT ….
whether the test can be administered smoothly

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whether the scoring system is feasible in the teacher’s time frame


whether the administrative details are clearly established prior to
the test whether the learners can complete the test within the set
time frame whether the test fulfills the teacher’s and the
students’ interest

7. When employing the peer assessment scheme to assess the students’ writing ability the
teacher hopes that the students will be capable of ….
A. assessing themselves at about the same level as their tutors
B. interpreting the criteria of success or failure in the same way
C. eliminating the tendency to become demotivated to write
D. measuring their colleagues’ achievement in writing
E. detecting their strengths and weaknesses in writing

8. The following are four main activities in the PPP format of an EFL learning lesson plan
EXCEPT ….
A. teacher produces a situation and presents L2 in context
B. students practice L2 items using accurate techniques
C. students use L2 and make sentences of their own
D. students discuss what they have learned during the lesson
E. teacher and students a game using the target language

9. When determining your methods of Direct Instruction in your lesson plan, consider the
following questions EXCEPT ….
A. How can I best tap into the various learning modalities?
B. What materials are available to me for this lesson?
C. What relevant vocabulary do I need to present to my students?
D. How can my students engage in discussion and participation beyond classes?
E. What will my students need to learn to complete the lesson plans objectives?

10. The Controlled practice activities allow for close observation that the learning objectives
are understood. In these activities the learners may do the following activities EXCEPT ….
A. Language function practice such as apologizing, negotiating, and thanking
B. Completing the sentence exercises to encourage specific written formulas
C. finding chances to learn a concept through various means
D. Reading and listening comprehension activities
E. Gap filling exercises on tense conjugation

11. Which learning resource is most suitable to teach a group of students who are visual in
nature in their learning style the learning objective of which focus is describing stages of
a volcano eruption?
A.

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B.
C.
D.
E.

A. Outdoor activities in which the group has the chance to observe a volcano
B. A audio recording telling the group stages of a volcano to be about to erupt
C. Inclass activities with a picture series of an erupting volcano for the group to
observe
D. Discussions requiring the group members to share ideas of volcano eruptions
E. Worksheets with questions guiding the group to the stages in a volcano eruption

12. To write an explanation on what a kangaroo lives on by assigning the students to explore
not just written, spoken, but also pictographic information, a teacher can most
appropriately make use of…. A. the Internet sources
B. historical books
C. video recordings
D. audio recordings
E. historical films

13. To introduce functional words like sentence connectors and conjunctions in written
narrative texts in controlled yet contextual use exercises may be best achieved
through….
A. cloze procedures
B. substitution drills
C. transformation tasks
D. sentence completion
E. simulated conversations

14. Ms. Hyunt finds several students of his English class introverted. To actualize their
potentials in learning English, the learning activities she chooses that suit her students
most would be the ones that allow them to do a lot of…. A. listening and reading
B. speaking and listening
C. reading and writing
D. writing and speaking
E. speaking and reading

15. Rohanda does not pay attention to Ms. Janet. He is talking to her classmate next to him
when Ms. Janet is modeling the report text on cats. To make Rohanda focus on her, she
can….
A. remind him mildly
B. ask him a question directly
C. question him utterly for talking

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D. punish him harshly to sing a song


E. tell him to leave the class immediately

16. The class was chaotic in laughter when a student made a pronunciation mistake. To put
the class back in its learning course, Ms. Dewanti should have warned the class
empathetically by saying….
A. “Hi class, I want all of you to be quiet please.”
B. “Class, can we be back to our topic, please?”
C. “Please do not laugh at your classmate!”
D. “Please appreciate your classmate.”
E. “Shut up, please! Listen to me.”

17. By being systematic in assessment, it means that….


A. a teacher should follow stages to develop a set of assessment tools
B. students’ learning achievement is assessed based on a system
C. assessing students’ learning is a scientific conduct
D. teachers must be professional to assess students’ learning
E. students’ learning is assessed on formal and specific regulations

18. With reference to the condition element in indicator, the test that is appropriate to
measure the indicator that follows:
Given a descriptive passage with every 7th word mutilated, students
select the word from the alternatives that best fills in the blank
spaces in the passage correctly.
has the basic format that is the so-called….
fill-in type
cloze test type short
answer type
multiple-choice type
selected response
type

19. Based on Mr. Jatmiko’s observation, his class was below the mastery learning criterion
in 7 out of nine micro skills of reading stipulated in graduate competence standards. To
solve the problem, he designs an innovative strategy through classroom action research
the steps of which have the elements of….
A. TPS
B. SQ3R
C. jigsaw
D. mind mapping
E. genre-based approach
A.

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B.
C.
D.
E.

20. An example of formulating problems in classroom action research dealing with issues
pertaining to writing descriptive texts using ‘topic-based synthesis-analysis strategy’
would be….
A. How can ‘topic-based synthesis-analysis strategy’ improve students’ writing
descriptive texts?
B. Can ‘topic-based synthesis-analysis strategy’ improve students’ writing descriptive
texts?
C. Is ‘topic-based synthesis-analysis strategy’ effective to improve students’ writing
descriptive texts?
D. How effective is ‘topic-based synthesis-analysis strategy’ in improving students’
writing descriptive texts?
E. Is there any difference in students’ writing descriptive texts before and after
teaching using ‘topic-based synthesis-analysis strategy’?

Professional

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 21 – 23 refer to the text below.

Thaliastraße
16th district, Thaliastraße, partially absolutely restful location (patio) and some apartments
with terrace/balcony, close to subway station U6-Thaliastraße.
Accommodation: all shopping facilities in Thaliastraße, inexpensive fruit-, vegetable- and
fresh goods stores around the corner.
Specials: very good infrastructure; interesting bar scene in the neighborhood.
Parking: short term parking zone from 9 a.m. till 7 p.m.; parking places in the inner
courtyard of the house on request, public garage two minutes away.
Public transport: subway: U6, station Thaliastraße; tram: line 46; city center reachable with
public transport in 10 minutes.

21. The text informs us about ….


A. Fully furnished residences in an urban area
B. Inexpensive accommodations near public transport

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C. Comfortable apartments close to the grocery stores

A.

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D. Newly renovated housing in a suburban location


E. Cheap apartments in a quiet environment

22. The text writer is proud of the stuff being ….


A. Absolutely comfortable for children
B. Relatively close to the city center
C. Easy to reach from any places
D. Completed with a parking lot
E. In a very quiet neighborhood

23. The following are the conditions of the stuff EXCEPT ….


A. Near grocery stores
B. Quite good facilities
C. Completed with a balcony
D. Easy to get public transport
E. Close to public garage

Questions 24– 26 refer to the text below.


HAIR MYTHS DEBUNKED
Separating truth from follicular fiction.
Myth: Shiny hair is healthy hair.
Truth: Haircare manufacturers keep this widely held belief alive. But, except in rare cases,
the hair that grows out of your head is healthy even if it’s not as shiny as you’d like.
There’s no shine test to determine the overall health of the hair. Straight hair is
shinier than curly hair.
Myth: Daily washing damages hair.
Truth: If you use a mild shampoo, it’s OK to wash hair daily. Opt for opaque, creamy
shampoos over clear formulations.
Myth: Brush your hair up to 100 times a day to make it shine.
Truth: According to the old wives’ tale, you need to brush to disperse the natural oils in your
hair. We now know that this happens whether you brush or not.
Myth: Daily blow-drying thins hair.
Truth: Trichologists say that daily blow-drying can dehydrate hair and make it frizzy if you
don’t use a heat protection styling product.
Myth: Vitamin supplements will make hair grow faster.
Truth: Vitamins B6 and B12 are necessary for healthy hair. Most people get enough of these
by eating a balanced diet or taking a daily multivitamin.

24. The following are among myths about hair care EXCEPT ….
A. It is necessary to keep the hair shiny

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B. It is not recommended to wash your hair too often


C. It is claimed that the more you comb your hair the better
D. It is relatively harmful to dry hair using an electrical appliance
E. Ample vitamins do not do any good to the growth of your hair

25. How does brushing really do to your hair? A. Too much brushing may damage hair roots
B. Much brushing is beneficial to the hair growth
C. Brushing is unnecessary to remove oils in the hair
D. Brushing is not very effective to shining hair
E. Brushing is necessary to keep the hair tidy
26. The word DEBUNKED most nearly means ….
A. shown to be less true than reality
B. described that it is related to reality
C. clearly assumed to be similar to reality
D. obviously believed to be true to reality
E. separating truth from follicular fiction

Questions 27 – 29 refer to the text below.


!
Minos, in Greek mythology, the legendary ruler of Crete. Some ancient writers identified
several kings by his name, especially Minos the Elder and his grandson Minos the Younger,
but this distinction never appears in the accounts themselves. Minos was the son of Zeus,
father of the gods, and of the princess Europa. From the city of Knossos (Knosós) he
colonized many of the Aegean islands, and he was widely considered a just ruler. In the
most famous story about Minos, he refused to sacrifice a certain bull. The god Poseidon
punished him by making his wife Pasiphaë fall in love with the animal, and she subsequently
gave birth to the Minotaur. According to Attic legend, Minos was a tyrant who took harsh
measures to avenge the death of his son Androgeos at the hands of the Athenians. At stated
intervals he exacted a tribute from Athens of seven youths and seven maidens to be
sacrificed to the Minotaur. Minos eventually met his death in Sicily.

27. The text tells us about …. A. a legendary ruler of Crete


B. a story told by ancient writers
C. an ancient princess of Europe
D. a forefather of the gods
E. Minos and his grandson

28. Minos was well known for the following EXCEPT ….


A. Minos the Elder
B. the princess Europe
C. the son of Zeus
D. a just ruler

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E. the god Poseidon

29. The word “harsh” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. too strong
B. unnecessarily severe
C. undoubtedly high
D. extremely heavy
E. very large

Questions 30– 32 refer to the text below.

Sir Edmund Hillary (1919-2008), mountain climber and Antarctic explorer. He was the first
to reach the summit of Mount Everest (8,850 m), the world's highest peak, with Nepalese
Sherpa Tenzing Norgay. Born in Auckland, New Zealand, Edmund Percival Hillary served in
the Royal New Zealand Air Force during World War II (1939-1945). He obtained his early
mountaineering experience in the Southern Alps of New Zealand. In 1951 Hillary joined the
British Mount Everest Expedition. Over the next two years he joined the British Mount
Everest Expedition reconnaissance and practice climbs. By the time the British Mount
Everest Expedition was ready to attack Everest in the spring of 1953, Hillary had become
one of its strongest climbers. In April and May the climbing party ascended the mountain
by way of the South Col, the pass between Everest and neighboring peak Lhotse. After the
first team of climbers was forced to turn back, Hillary and veteran Sherpa climber Tenzing
Norgay were called on to make an attempt.

30. Edmund Percival Hillary spent most of his life …. A. as a mountain climber and Antarctic
explorer
B. in the Royal New Zealand Air Force
C. a British Mount Everest Expedition member
D. the pioneer of expeditions to the Himalayas
E. as a pioneer in the Southern Alps of New Zealand

31. Two years after joining the British Mount Everest Expedition, Hillary ….
A. obtained his early mountaineering experience
B. led reconnaissance and practice climbs
C. was quite ready to attack Mount Everest
D. joined the British Mount Everest Expedition
E. became one of its strongest climbers

32. It is implied from the text that Hillary ….


A. was successful in reaching Everest from the South
B. failed in climbing Everest in his first attempt
C. made an effort to expedite the Antarctic alone

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D. considered Everest as the ultimate destination


E. succeeded in defeating Everest and the neighboring peak

Questions 33– 35 refer to the text below.


Dark chocolate
Chocolate is rich in flavonoids, and research shows that these nutrients reduce insulin
resistance, improve insulin sensitivity, drop insulin levels and fasting blood glucose, and
blunt cravings. But not all chocolate is created equal. In a 2008 study from the University of
Copenhagen, people who ate dark chocolate reported that they felt less like eating sweet,
salty or fatty foods compared to volunteers given milk chocolate, with its lower levels of
beneficial flavonoids (and, often, more sugar and fat, too). Dark chocolate also cut the
amount of pizza that volunteers consumed later in the same day, by 15 per cent. The
flavonoids in chocolate have also been shown to lower stroke risk, calm blood pressure and
reduce your risk for a heart attack by 2 per cent over five years.

33. It is implied in the study that in general ….


A. milk chocolate is better than dark chocolate for health
B. dark chocolate is as beneficial as milk chocolate for health
C. dark chocolate and milk chocolate are suggestible for health
D. dark chocolate is better than milk chocolate for health
E. milk chocolate contains more beneficial flavonoids

34. The word “cravings” in the text means ….


A. strong or uncontrollable wants
B. abilities to solve hard problems
C. strong feelings to hurt others
D. things expected to happen soon
E. bad things that might happen
35. The text suggests that in order to be healthy, we need to ….
A. consume much dark chocolate
B. avoid consuming milk chocolate
C. be considerate in consuming chocolate
D. consider the amount of sugar in foods
E. lower stroke risks by consuming chocolate

Items 36 and 37 are based on the following passage.

While content-based instruction can be both challenging and demanding for the
teacher and the students, it can also be (36) …. The degree to which you adopt this
approach may well depend on the willingness of your students, the institution in which you
work and the availability of resources within your environment. It could be something that
(37) … to consider introducing across the curriculum.

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36. Which option best completes (36)?


A. very rewarding
B. fatiguing enough
C. somewhat boring
D. really entertaining
E. actually relieving

37. Which option best completes (37)?


A. the teachers can't stand
B. the stakeholders like
C. the students desire
D. your school wants
E. everyone hopes

Flipped Learning is a pedagogical approach in which direct instruction moves from the group
learning space to the individual learning space, and the resulting group space is transformed
into a dynamic, (38) … learning environment.

38. The word that best completes the blank spaces in (38) is….
A. interacting
B. interaction
C. interact
D. interacted
E. interactive

Natural language processing is important for different reasons to different people. For
some, it offers the utility of automatically harvesting arbitrary bits of knowledge from vast
information resources that have only recently emerged. To others, it is a laboratory for the
investigation of the human use of language--a primary cognitive ability--and its relation to
thought.

39. The underlined part bits of knowledge in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. portions of material
B. bits of evidence
C. reports of facts
D. pieces of data
E. facts of news

In order to engage in problem-solving or analyzing issues that will assist students in


accomplishing their goals, they need to gather new information and link it to what they
already know. This process is referred to as "constructing meaning." Finding out what

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previous information students have about a topic/subject helps them bring meaning to any
new information acquired. One strategy they can use to help them construct meaning is a
strategy called the KWLH technique.

40. The underlined part what previous information students have in the passage may be
best rephrased as….
A. students’ prior knowledge
B. past processing data of students
C. students’ initial data processing
D. preceding understanding of data
E. students’ earlier understanding

Assessment is a critical piece of differentiated instruction as it helps to identify the most


effective strategies and activities that will encourage student learning. While traditionally
thought of as occurring at the end of learning (summative assessment OR assessment of
learning), (60) assessment can take place throughout the course of learning, embedded in
the instruction. Once we determine what we want our students to learn, we know need to
determine how we will evaluate their learning at the end as well as assess their progress as
make their way through the content.

41. The underlined part assessment can take place throughout the course of learning in the
passage may be best rephrased as….
A. assessment can be linked to teaching
B. assessment can be run along learning
C. assessment is teaching itself by system
D. assessment and learning are inseparable
E. assessment happens when students learn

42. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘The facilitator taught me a
teaching technique.’ ‘It was practical to me.’ is….
A. The facilitator taught me a teaching technique that I found it practical
B. The facilitator taught me a teaching technique I found it was practical
C. The facilitator taught me a teaching technique, which I found it practical*
D. The facilitator taught me a teaching technique that I found it was practical
E. The facilitator taught me a teaching technique, which was I found it practical

43. …. all the examiners are questioning your thesis fiercely, you need to remain calm during
the thesis defense. A. Even if
B. Supposing
C. Now that
D. Whenever
E. While

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44. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘She probably needs to know the
PQRST strategy.’ and ‘John is ready to help her with the strategy.’ is….
A. In case she needs to know the PQRST strategy, John will be ready to help her with
the strategy
B. If she will need to know the PQRST strategy, John will be ready to help her with the
strategy
C. In case she needs to know the PQRST strategy, John is ready to help her with the
strategy
D. If she will need to know the PQRST strategy, John is ready to help her with the
strategy
E. If she needed to know the PQRST strategy, John was ready to help her with the
strategy

45. … representative of the students of high-level achievers, the subjects of the experiment
will be students drawn randomly out of the 5 classes as the accessible population
A. Be considered
B. To be considered
C. Being considered
D. Having considered
E. They were considered

46. People now tend to prefer … mail services provided by private agencies than the post
office.
A. express
B. speedy
C. rapid
D. quick
E. early

47. Everyone knows that he is a good public speaker. So, whenever he is there on the stage,
he is always ready to….
A. deliver his speech vibrantly
B. burst into his vibrant speech
C. say his speech vibrantly
D. utter his vibrant speech
E. state his speech vibrantly

48. The temperature in some parts of North Kalimantan can be …. boiling during the day.
A. absolutely
B. strongly
C. fiercely

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D. totally
E. highly

49. A student like her who is … motivated to learn something new in her field will be
successful in her future career. A. powerfully
B. forcefully
C. violently
D. strongly
E. highly

50. Friends in need are friends indeed. Many are, but some are just … one taking the
advantage of us when we are winning. A. a closefisted
B. a fair-weather
C. an absent minded
D. an argus-eyed
E. a bad sheep

51. To some students, writing a thesis is a challenging job. As a result, some of them ….
although their capability in completing their thesis is undeniable and their research topic
is interesting.
A. are afraid of their own shadow
B. make their blood run cold
C. are a bundle of nerves
D. are out of the left side
E. are like a silly goose

52. Considering the positive impact, we do hope that the government program on the
school literacy movement will be blooming, … in the near future
A. fair and square
B. hale and hearty
C. alive and kicking
D. on cloud nine
E. in hot water

Items 53 and 54 are based on the following passage.

Most kinds of tea go through a long process . Before tea can be processed, (53) …. Only the
bud and two small leaves are plucked from the best tea plants to ensure the best tasting
tea. After the leaves are picked, (54) … in large in-door areas where heated air is forced over
them if the climate is too cool to heat the leaves naturally. This withering and steaming
process reduces water content and makes the leaves pliable enough to move to the next
step in the process, rolling.

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53. The sentence that best completes blank spaces in (53) is….
A. tea leaves must be picked
B. only good leaves are identified
C. there is a process of tea growing
D. picking time should be considered
E. selecting tea leaves is an key process

54. The sentence that best completes blank spaces in (54) is….
A. there is a process of leave drying
B. natural drying is an essential step
C. they are laid out to dry naturally
D. the leaves are ready for the next step
E. tea makers need to prepare the leaves

Items 55 and 56 are based on the following passage.


One of the biggest questions over human behavior is whether our actions are determined
by our natures, or by our nurtures. (55) …, do we act the way we do because of genetic
programming – innate qualities that we have no power over – or is it the way we are
brought up, treated, educated, and so forth, or, (56) …. This will be discussed in more detail
in human sciences, but the debate interests us in language in the question over how we
learn to speak. Is it an innate human capacity, or is it purely a result of our environment, as
we first imitate our parents and family members, and then apply the rules of grammar to
perfect our powers of communication?

55. The option that best fills in blank spaces in (55) is…. A. In other words
B. In conclusion
C. In contrast
D. In brief
E. In all

56. The option that best fills in blank spaces in (56) is….
A. Both
B. neither one
C. either one
D. one neither
E. one either

Items 57 and 58 are based on the following passage.


The main causes of obesity are: the decreased level of nutrients intake, and
sedentary lifestyle. For example, the intake of fast food meals tripled between 1977 and
1995, and calorie level magnified four times during the same period. Nevertheless, it is

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insufficient explanation of phenomenal rise in the obesity levels in the well-developed


countries. (57) …
(58) … A survey indicates that more than 2 in 3 adults are considered to be
overweight. There are health risks caused by overweight or obesity. These are
osteoarthritis, high blood pressure, heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and nonalcoholic fatty
liver diseases. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis, affecting millions of
people worldwide. It occurs when the protective cartilage on the ends of your bones wears
down over time. …

57. The sentence that best completes blank spaces in (57) is….
A. Overall, obesity is a major health and social problem, which has reached pandemic
levels.*
B. However, overweight has become problems not only for adults but also for young
people
C. Although obesity should be differentiated from overweight, their health effect is
serious
D. Therefore, in everyone’s diet food consumption needs to be carefully accounted for
E. Basically obesity is explainable medically from several causes two of which is critical

58. The sentence that best completes blank spaces in (58) is….
A. The causes of obesity are interrelated factors, such as genetics, lifestyle and body
energy use B. People who are obese are at increased risk for many serious diseases
and health conditions
C. A number of health hazards have been associated with overweight several
studies reveal.
D. Overweight and obese persons are often blamed for their condition and
considered lazy E. Recently obesity or overweight has been the subject of
intensive research medically

59. The best arrangement of these sentences to make a logical paragraph is…
1. So, proper education makes the bright future of both the individual and the country.
2. Education is a must for both men and women equally to a healthy and educated
society.
3. Educated citizens are responsible for the future and development of the country.
4. It is only educated leaders who build the nation and lead it to the success and
progress.
5. Clearly, education also makes people as perfect and noble as possible.
6. So, highly educated people become the foundation of a developed country.
7. It is a vital tool for getting bright future and the development and progress of the
country.

A. 5–7–4–1–6–3–2

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B. 2–6–7–4–3–5–1
C. 2–7–4–6–3–5–1
D. 4–6–1–7–2–3–5
E. 3–5–7–4–6–2–1
TEST 6
Pedagogy

Directions: To answer questions 1 – 20, Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and
E – to each question.

1. There are four important sub-areas of discourse competence with regard to the current
model of communication. They include the following EXCEPT ….
A. cohesion
B. deixis
C. coherence
D. generic structure
E. formulaic competence

2. When entering any English classroom, students have already been equipped with
attitudes to language learning which include the following questions EXCEPT ….
A. Is the language learning part of the curriculum of high or low status?
B. Are the cultural images associated with English positive or negative?
C. How important is the learning of English considered to be in the society?
D. Faced with the choice of two language sto learn, which one would they choose?
E. Which classroom do they have to enter in order for learning to be effective?

3. In a task-based lesson, the teacher sets a task for students to do that involves ….
A. the use of language not yet studied in class or studied previously
B. activities from the course book intended to assess their achievement
C. activities from supplementary sources to be done beyond classes
D. the involvement of the whole person in the learning experience A. the provision of a
stimulus to which students respond optimally

4. A curriculum provides information on the following aspects EXCEPT ….


A. the goals of education
B. the subjects to be taught
C. the extracurricular activities
D. the methods and materials
E. the assessment of students

5. Language transfer is a complex phenomenon resulting from the following EXCEPT ….


A. the learners’ cognitive processes

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B. interaction between learners’ prior linguistic knowledge


C. the target-language input encountered by the learners
D. the learner’s mastery of their native language
E. the particular domain of the students’ language

6. In order to achieve test reliability the teacher should make sure that the following items
are available EXCEPT ….
A. video input is equally visible to all of the students
B. every student has a cleanly photocopied test sheet
C. location of the test administration is easily accessible
D. sound amplification is clearly audible to everyone in the room
E. lighting, temperature, and other classroom conditions are equal for all
7. Applying Portfolio assessments, innovative English teachers expect that they may
strengthen student learning in the following ways EXCEPT that they …. A. rate portfolios
on a regular basis throughout the school year
B. capitalize on work that would normally be done in the classroom
C. motivate students because they present meaningful activities
D. focus learners’ attention on learning processes
E. facilitate practice and revision processes

8. In the Presentation Stage of the PPP format of an lesson plan the teacher should do the
following EXCEPT ….
A. note the target language to be taught
B. mention the ways they will teach the target language
C. note they way they will stimulate the students' interest in the language
D. point out how they might elicit the language they are planning to teach
E. require a repeated response (choral response) from the students

9. In writing the Independence Practice section of the Lesson Plan, consider the following
questions EXCEPT ….
A. What activities will my students be able to complete on their own?
B. How can I provide a new context in which the students can practice new skills?
C. How can I offer practices on a repeating schedule so that the learning is not
forgotten?
D. How can I integrate the learning objectives into future projects?
E. How can I use the information to plan the future teaching?

10. Free practice in an effective lesson plan allows students to "take control" of their own
language learning. The following are activities which encourage the learners to explore
language EXCEPT ….
A. class debates
B. role-plays for others

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C. games on communication skills


D. essay writing
E. drills and exercises

11. When reflecting on the day’s topic, the class gave no response to the teacher’s reflective
question. Ms. Dianika – the teacher – could have remarked the situation by saying….
A. “Class, are listening to me?”
B. “Everyone, don’t you understand me?”
C. “Hi class, what’s gone wrong with you?”
D. “Class, is there anything bothering you?”
E. “Is my question not clear to you all class?”

12. Assessing students’ learning is comprehensive which means that….


A. assessment covers all essential areas intended to be assessed
B. assessment results provide stakeholders with true information
C. scores gained from assessment are indicative of competences
D. procedures in assessment are to reveal main intended abilities
E. professionalism is the basis for everyone to perform assessment

13. Based on the indicator that follows: “Students present a monolog based on a series of
photographs depicting a metamorphosis of an animal using appropriate language and
idea organization”, the appropriate assessment procedure for the purpose is….
A. project
B. product
C. observation
D. performance
E. extended response

14. Ms. Iwuk observes that her students’ achievement in listening comprehension on dialog
sections is low based on the result of the tryout on the National Examination. An
innovative strategy she may take through classroom action research to solve the
problem would be….
A. dictation-based
B. dicto-gloss-based
C. dicto-comp-based
D. communicative dictation
E. running dictation

15. In planning the innovative instructional strategy to solve practical problems in classroom
action research, the teacher researcher needs to be more specific in….
A. basic competences to be addressed
B. instructional materials to teach

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C. instructional delivery stages


D. setting up criteria of success
E. data collection instruments

Professional

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 16 – 18 refer to the text below.


Simmeringer Hauptstraße
11th district, Simmeringer Hautpstraße, partially absolutely restful location (patio) and some
apartments with terrace/balcony, close to subway station U3-Enkplatz.
Accommodation: all shopping facilities in direct surrounding.
Specials: very good infrastructure, various bars in the neighborhood.
Parking: no short term parking zone, 3 hours free parking in the shopping center across the
street, enough parking possibilities just 3 minutes away; public garage in 2 minutes distance.
Public transport: subway: U3, station Enkplatz; tram: line 6 and 71; bus: lines 15A & 76A; city
center reachable within 10 minutes.

16. The text is about ….


A. cheap accommodation in a quiet urban location
B. fully furnished residences in a suburban location
C. partly comfortable apartments close to the shopping center
D. absolutely cozy housing with very good facilities
E. inexpensive suits near the public garage
17. The apartments are ….
A. In a partly comfortable location
B. Close to the grocery stores
C. Completed with a balcony
D. Provided with parking lots
E. Fully furnished

18. The following are the advantages of the apartments EXCEPT ….


A. The public garage
B. The public transport
C. The subway station
D. The very good facilities
E. The peaceful neighborhood

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Questions 19 – 21 refer to the text below.

Trojan War, in Greek legend, a famous war waged by the Greeks against the city of Troy. The
tradition is believed to reflect a real war between the Greeks of the late Mycenaean period
and the inhabitants of the Troad, or Troas, in Anatolia, part of present-day Turkey. Modern
archaeological excavations have shown that Troy was destroyed by fire sometime between
1230 BC and 1180 BC, and that the war may have resulted from the desire either to plunder
the wealthy city or to put an end to Troy's commercial control of the Dardanelles. Legendary
accounts of the war traced its origin to a golden apple, inscribed “for the fairest” and
thrown by Eris, goddess of discord, among the heavenly guests at the wedding of Peleus,
the ruler of Myrmidons, and Thetis, one of the Nereids. The award of the apple to
Aphrodite, goddess of love, by Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, secured for Paris the favor of
the goddess.

19. The text tells us about ….


A. a legendary war of the Greeks against Troy
B. a traditional belief about heroism
C. a reflection of love against the war
D. the historical destruction of Troy
E. Troy's control of the Dardanelles

20. The Trojan War was triggered by the desire to ….


A. destroy the wealthy city of Troy
B. stop Troy's commercial control of the Dardanelles
C. reflect a war between the Greeks and Troy
D. control the goods violently from the city
E. punish the son of King Priam of Troy

21. The word “discord” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. condition of agreeing to do something
B. state of not agreeing or sharing opinions
C. situation symbolizing a state of hatred
D. circumstance implying agreement
E. position of challenging an opinion

Questions 22 – 24 refer to the text below.

Here's a delicious way to use up leftover roast beef or pot roast.

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Ingredients
3 tablespoons butter, plus melted butter for brushing; 2 large onions, halved, then sliced; 1
tablespoon plain flour; 1 cup (250 ml) beef stock; 5 cooked potatoes, thickly sliced; 10–12
slices leftover cooked beef; 1 cup (80 g) fresh breadcrumbs; 1 tablespoon chopped fresh
parsley; 1⁄2 cup (60 g) grated cheddar cheese. Preparation
1. Preheat the oven to 180°C. Melt half the butter in a small frying pan or saucepan over
medium heat.
2. Add the onions and sauté for 4 minutes, or until soft. Add the flour and stir for 1 minute,
then gradually add the stock, stirring constantly until the mixture thickens to a gravy.
Reduce the heat to low and simmer for 1 minute.
3. Lightly brush a shallow baking dish with melted butter. Arrange the potato slices in the
dish, then lay the beef slices over the potato. Pour the onion gravy over the top.
4. In a bowl, mix together the breadcrumbs, remaining butter and parsley. Sprinkle the
mixture over the gravy and sprinkle with the cheese, if using.
5. Bake, uncovered, for 20–25 minutes.

22. The word “gravy” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. a sauce made from meat juices, liquid and flour
B. a savory biscuit that is eaten with cheese
C. a small piece of dried bread used in cooking
D. a supply of something for use or sale
E. a firm or soft food made from milk

23. It is implied from the text that the use of cheese in the menu is ….
A. Necessary
B. Important
C. Optional
D. Suggestible
E. uncommon

24. The best title of the text is ….


A. Beef Miroton
B. Beef in Melted Butter
C. Fresh Breadcrumbs
D. Leftover Cooked Beef
E. Chopped Parsley Topping

Questions 25 – 27 refer to the text below.

Maritime Coordinating Minister Luhut Pandjaitan has contacted high-ranking Australian


officials to speed up the legal process for the class action lawsuit against Thailand-based oil
producer PTT

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Exploration and Production (PTTEP) Australasia. The lawsuit was filed by Care for West
Timor Foundation (YPTB)’s advocacy team, which represents 13,000 East Nusa Tenggara
seaweed farmers affected by the Montara oil spill, which occurred following the blowout of
an oil rig operated by PTTEP Australasia. “I have tried to reach George Brandis [Australian
Attorney General] to ask for his support in order to speed up this process,” Luhut said on
Tuesday in Jakarta. While the Australian government has received compensation for the
environmental damage caused by the oil spill, the Indonesian government is still pursuing
similar compensation. However, Luhut said he was yet to receive any response from the
Australian government. “At the same time, we are also filing a case to the central court in
Jakarta and we’ll see what happens,” he said.

25. The text above intends to ….


A. report Indonesia calls on Australia to expedite legal process of oil-spill
B. describe the Australian compensation for the environmental damage
C. explain Pandjaitan contacting Australian officials on a class action
D. discuss a lawsuit against a Thailand-based oil producer
E. argue about the filing of a case to the central court in Jakarta

26. The party responsible for the oil spill would be ….


A. the Australian Government
B. The Care for West Timor Foundation
C. The PTT Exploration and Production
D. a Thailand-based oil producer
E. the Australian Attorney General

27. It is implied in the text that the Maritime Coordinating Minister has filed ….
A. a number of cases
B. two cases
C. some legal process
D. environmental damages
E. the oil spill

Questions 28– 30 refer to the text below.

Herman Melville was born in New York City. Both his parents were descended from
prominent colonial families. One grandfather had participated in the Boston Tea Party, and
the other had been a general in the colonial army during the American Revolution (1775-
1783). However, the family’s fortunes had declined by Melville’s time. His father’s importing
business failed in 1830, and the family moved to Albany, New York. After his father’s death
in 1832, when Melville was 12, he worked for a time as a bank clerk, a helper on his uncle’s
farm, and an assistant in his older brother’s fur factory. That business collapsed during the
depression of 1837. Melville, having studied briefly at the Albany Classical School, then tried

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school teaching for a few weeks near Pittsfield, Massachusetts. He returned to his family’s
home after some difficulties about salary and studied surveying in anticipation of gaining a
position on the Erie Canal project.

28. Herman Melville was born….


A. in 1820
B. in 1832
C. in 1837
D. after the US Revolution
E. during the depression

29. Melville’s returning to his hometown was due to….


A. business bankruptcy
B. economic hardship
C. inadequate salary
D. promising position
E. gaining a new position

30. We learn from the text that….


A. revolutions can drastically change one’s fortune
B. we can never rely on our ancestor’s fortune
C. Melville inherited a fortune from his parents
D. anyone can make a fortune out of scratch
E. man’s life entirely depends on his fortune

Questions 31– 33 refer to the text below.

Clever Farmer
One night a clever farmer was returning home from a cattle fair. He bought a buffalo
from there. As he passed through a dense forest, a dacoit came in front of him. He had a
thick stick in his hand. He said, "Hand over all that you have."
The farmer got scared and gave his money to the dacoit. As he turned to go, the dacoit
said, "Give me the buffalo too. Why are you taking it away?"
The farmer handed over the buffalo's rope to the dacoit. Then the farmer said, ''You
have taken everything of mine. Can you give me your stick?"
"Why do you need it?" the dacoit enquired "My wife will be pleased that at least I got a
stick from the fair."
The dacoit gave the stick to the farmer happily. Immediately the clever farmer started
beating the dacoit with the stick. The dacoit ran off to save his life leaving the buffalo and
the farmer's money behind. So the clever farmer saved himself and his belongings, too.

31. The story is about….

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A. an argument between a clever farmer and a dacoit


B. an interaction between a doctor an a dacoit
C. a clever farmer who saved himself from a robbery
D. a robber who was bullied by a clever farmer
E. a farmer who bullied a dacoit

32. It is implied in the story that the farmer is scared because….


A. he was alone in the area
B. the robber looks so powerful
C. he had no idea to defeat the dacoit
D. he loved his life more than his belongings
E. the robber is smarter than the doctor

33. We learn from the text that…. A. intelligence may defeat power
B. brainpower is superior to stupidity
C. physical strength is necessary for farmers
D. farmer’s strength is inferior to that of dacoit
E. being clever is not always necessary

Questions 34– 36 refer to the text below.

Blueberries
Blueberries really stand out. They contain both insoluble fiber which “flushes” fat out of
your system and soluble fiber which slows down the emptying of your stomach, and
improves blood sugar control. In a study by the United States Department of Agriculture,
people who consumed 2.5 cups of wild blueberry juice per day for 12 weeks lowered their
blood glucose levels, lifted depression and improved their memories. Researchers credit
these results to anthocyanins in the berries, a natural chemical that shrinks fat cells and also
stimulates the release of adiponectin, a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels, among
other things. Increasing adiponectin levels can help keep blood sugar low and increase our
sensitivity to insulin.

34. It is implied in the text that blueberries …. A. are much better than other similar fruits
B. contain all necessary intakes for the body
C. adjust the blood glucose to the normal level
D. are the cheap means of keeping us healthy
E. stimulate the production of the adiponectin

35. The word “credit” in the text means ….

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A. say that someone is responsible for good things


B. consider that something is worth trust or respect
C. believe something which seems unlikely to be true
D. think that something is true, correct, and real
E. hope and expect that something is correct

36. In order to maintain the normal level of our blood sugar, we need to ….
A. add the amount of fiber up
B. improve blood sugar intake
C. lower the blood glucose level
D. increase the adiponectin level
E. increase our sensitivity to insulin

Most people hear “flipped learning” and picture kids watching videos at home, but
proponents of it suggest that it does not have to be (37) … about videos. Teachers are
encouraged to give students options.

37. The word that best completes the missing space is….
A. exclusive
B. exclusively
C. exclusion
D. excluding
E. excluded

Items 38 and 39 are based on the following passage.

BICS-Basic Interpersonal Communication Skills refer to "social" language. BICS is what


students need to know in order to (38) … and to communicate on a very basic level. When a
person has BICS, we say that s/he is "conversationally" fluent. BICS is said to occur (39) …
and props for language delivery.

38. Which option best completes (38)…?


A. in function everyday life
B. everyday life in function
C. function in everyday life
D. function everyday in life E. function in life everyday

39. Which option best completes (39)?


A. when are there contextual supports
B. when contextual there are supports
C. when supports are there contextual
D. when there are contextual supports

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E. when supports there are contextual

The story of natural language processing (NLP) begins in the early 1970s with one man,
Richard Bandler. He was a graduate computer programmer from the University of California,
who was fascinated by the many schools of psychotherapy prevalent then. With his
practical background in computer programming, he looked closely at psychotherapy and
drew the conclusion that for making predictable change in people, most psychotherapy at
the time simply didn't work.

40. The underlined part prevalent then in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. dominant formerly
B. plentiful at that point
C. common at the time
D. evident at the moment
E. ample in that period

KWL charts assist teachers in activating students' prior knowledge of a subject or topic and
encourage inquisition, active reading, and research. KWL charts are especially helpful as a
prereading strategy when reading expository text and may also serve as an assessment of
(41) what students have learned during a unit of reading. The K stands for what students
know, the W stands for what students want to learn, and the L stands for what the students
learn as they read or research.

41. The underlined part what students have learned during a unit of reading in the passage
may be best rephrased as….
A. students’ comprehension of materials read
B. understanding by students in learning
C. understanding in reading by students
D. students’ data processing in reading
E. students’ mastery level in reading

In assessment for learning, students are encouraged to be more active in their learning and
associated assessment. The ultimate purpose of assessment for learning is to create self-
regulated learners. (42) Teachers need to know at the outset of a unit of study where their
students are in terms of their learning. They then continually check on how students
progress through strengthening the feedback they get from their learners. Students are
guided on what they are expected to learn and what quality work looks like. The teacher will
work with the student to understand and identify any gaps or misconceptions.

42. The underlined part Teachers need to know at the outset of a unit of study where their
students are in terms of their learning. in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. The first essential thing teacher do is to recognize students’ basic capabilities

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B. Early identification of students’ entry level of ability is teachers’ crucial task


C. It is vital for teachers to identify the students’ entry abilities from the start
D. Teachers’ knowledge about students’ early ability should be considered E. Teachers
should not first ignore students’ necessary abilities

43. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘We joined a workshop by a
facilitator’ and ‘His workshop topic was inspiring.’ is….
A. We joined a workshop by a facilitator the workshop topic of whom was inspiring
B. We joined a workshop by a facilitator, the workshop topic of which was inspiring
C. We joined a workshop by a facilitator of whose workshop topic was inspiring
D. We joined a workshop by a facilitator whose workshop topic was inspiring
E. We joined a workshop by a facilitator that workshop topic was inspiring

44. Abu decided to go back to campus taking a magister’s program … it took him a long way
to get to campus. A. as though
B. even if
C. while
D. wherever
E. now that

45. The meaning that best expresses this: ‘The computer program is not at hand now. As a
result, we analyze the data manually’ is….
A. If the computer program is at hand now, we will not analyze the data manually
B. Were the computer program at hand now, we would not analyze the data
manually*
C. If the computer program was at hand now, we would not analyze the data manually
D. Should the computer program be at hand now, we will not analyze the data
manually
E. If the computer program would be at hand now, we would not analyze the data
manually

46. Adult learners of English commonly dislike … like a child in performing class activities.
A. considered
B. be considered
C. being considered
D. they are considered
E. them to be considered

47. The research result is best discussed within the framework of the conversation model of
Cooperative Principles by Paul Grice, … we now shall turn.
A. to which
B. from which

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C. at which
D. by which E. of which
48. Near the end of their study time, several students not yet holding a proposal seminar
have … purpose of discussing their thesis obstacles with their thesis advisor.
A. genuine
B. obvious
C. express
D. strong
E. open

49. Our library now provides … to browse academic e-learning sources more freely and
quickly. A. us a facility
B. a facility for us
C. for us a facility
D. us with a facility
E. with a facility for us

50. In many parts of the globe people enjoy luxurious food. Meanwhile, still many others in
the other parts are starving ….
A. absolutely
B. strongly
C. fiercely
D. totally
E. highly

51. The semester was over; students broke ... from campus routines by spending their
vacation camping in the camping ground near the lake.
A. freely
B. free
C. in freedom
D. freedom
E. freeing

52. During the interview session we must be confident. Do not even show in your words …
A. brass farthing
B. besetting sins
C. broken accents
D. natural spirits
E. brute force

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53. Thesis draft consultation can also be a challenge for some students. Not only do they
have to present their ideas but also to answer their advisor’s questions during the
consultation session.
Many really feel they.… before even they meet their thesis advisor.
A. have butterflies in their stomach
B. sit on the edge of their seat
C. make their blood run cold
D. can’t stand the pace
E. are like a silly goose

54. The explanation on the new teaching method can take a long time. But, the lecturer did
not have much time as he had to go out of town on duty. So, he tried to keep the
explanation….
A. high and dry
B. free and easy
C. meek and mild
D. short and sweet
E. first and foremost
Items 55 and 56 are based on the following passage.
The wet method is another method of making quality coffee. (55) …. First, the freshly
harvested cherries are passed through a pulping machine to separate the skin and pulp from
the bean. Then, the beans are separated by weight as they pass through water channels.
The lighter beans float to the top while (56) …. Next, they are passed through a series of
rotating drums, which separates them by size. After separation, the beans are transported
to large, water-filled fermentation tanks.

55. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (55) is….
A. This process consists of several stages
B. Quality coffee is assured in this step
C. This differs from the previous one
D. Pulping characterizes this method
E. This method differs from others

56. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (56) is….
A. the water channel rinses the lighter beans
B. the heavier ripe beans sink to the bottom
C. the rest of the beans are processed further
D. the skin of the pulped beans is removed
E. this process makes up the crucial process

Items 57 – 59 are based on the following passage.

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It is perhaps useful to distinguish human from animal language. (57) …, what is innate to all
of us – something we share with most animal life-forms – is the instinct for communication.
As soon as we are born, we know how to communicate, and (58) … as soon as we exit the
womb by giving a startling cry that announces our arrival in the world. We are at this point
communicating our needs to our mother, the result of a combination of feelings, including
fear, hunger and pain. Most animals share this most deep-rooted of instincts to ‘talk’ to our
mother. (59) …, many animals are able to communicate surprisingly sophisticatedly.

57. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (57) is….
A. Clearly
B. Magically
C. Surprisingly
D. Theoretically
E. Conversely

58. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (58) is….
A. generally do so
B. naturally it is so
C. practically like that
D. unconsciously so
E. basically as it is

59. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (59) is….
A. By comparison
B. Nevertheless
C. Furthermore
D. Above all
E. In brief
TEST 7

Pedagogy

Directions: To answer questions 1 – 20, Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and
E – to each question.

1. The ability to use language is supported by linguistic competence which includes four
types of the following knowledge EXCEPT …. A. phonological knowledge
B. morphological knowledge
C. syntactic knowledge
D. collocation knowledge
E. lexical knowledge

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2. Apart from the culture of the world, the students’ attitude to language learning will be
greatly affected by the influence of the following EXCEPT ….
A. parents and older siblings
B. people who are close to them
C. their responsibility beyond the subject
D. the way they think about the subject
E. peer’s attitude towards the subject

3. In a task-based activity, the teacher pays attention to the students’ performance with
the target language and ….
A. set up an plan which involves students participation
B. note down errors but not correct them during the activity
C. note the learners’ use of certain grammatical features
D. decide whether to conduct practice or revise it briefly
E. compare performance particularly on the final task

4. An effective lesson plan should fulfill the following requirements EXCEPT that….
A. it should provide an accessible framework of the knowledge and skills
B. it should offer a sense of continuity and direction in the learners’ work
C. it should represent a retrospective account of what has been achieved
D. it should provide a basis on which learner progress may be evaluated E. it should be
described in terms of statements of the whole subjects

5. Error analysis studies the types and causes of language errors which are classified,
among other things according to the following EXCEPT ….
A. modality (i.e. proficiency in speaking, writing, reading, listening)
B. linguistic levels (i.e. pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary, style)
C. aims (e.g. instrumental, external, internal)
D. form (e.g. omission, insertion, substitution)
E. cause (e.g. interference, interlanguage)

6. In order make sure that a test fulfills its face validity, the teacher should give an
assessment procedure that is “biased for best” which includes the following EXCEPT ….
A. structure the test so that the best students will be modestly challenged
B. encourage the weaker students so that they will not be overwhelmed
C. offer students appropriate review and preparation for the test
D. suggest strategies that will be beneficial to the students
E. forget how challenging the test is for the whole students

7. Applying Portfolio assessments, an innovative English teacher expects that he/she may
strengthen student learning in the following ways EXCEPT that they …. A. increase
students’ involvement in the learning processes

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B. foster student-teacher and student-student collaboration


C. interpret the portfolios in a way that is fair to all students
D. encourage students to learn the metalanguage to talk about language growth E.
provide means for establishing minimum standards for classroom progress

8. A well-developed lesson plan reflects the interests and needs of students. It


incorporates best practices for the educational field. The writing of a good lesson plan
should consider the following criteria EXCEPT ….
A. provide a new learning experience
B. needs, capabilities, and interest of the learner
C. obtain the attention of the learner and stakeholders D. related to social and physical
environment of the learner.
E. development of learner's personality.

9. To write an effective lesson plan, you must define the Anticipatory Set. The following are
its purposes EXCEPT ….
A. to involve the learners in formulating lesson's objectives
B. to provide continuity from previous lessons, if applicable
C. to allude to familiar concepts and vocabulary as a refresher
D. to tell the students briefly what the lesson will be about
E. to activate the students' existing knowledge base

10. During the free practice section, the teacher can use feedback to help everyone. The
following are lesson plan formats that is popular EXCEPT that ….
A. the students have a number of chances to learn a concept
B. the facilities are well prepared for effective learning
C. the standard lesson plan format provides structure
D. the students have plenty of time to practice E. the teacher can give detailed
instruction,

11. Which learning resource is most suitable to teach a group of auditory learners the
learning objective of which focus is describing the physical appearance of a bedroom?
A. Classroom activities involving a still picture of a bedroom for the group to describe
B. Outdoor activities in which the group has the chance to observe a real bedroom
C. Worksheets with questions guiding the group to describe parts of a bedroom
D. A audio recording describing the parts of a bedroom to the group to listen E.
Discussions requiring the group members to share ideas of a bedroom

12. For the students to get the data from not just written, spoken, but also pictographic
materials for them as a basis to explain in a written text on why cats purr when sleeping,
a teacher can most appropriately make use of ….
A. video recordings

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B. audio recordings
C. journal articles
D. online sources
E. text books

13. Mr. Andi plans to teach his students lexical items in written report texts. He wishes to
have them practice the items in controlled yet contextual exercises. For the purpose, he
can utilize…. A. gap-fill exercises
B. simulated dialogs
C. substitution drills
D. transformation tasks
E. dicto-gloss exercises

14. Andika is an extrovert. To set up an environment most preferable to him, Ms. Takeko
would set up a room that suits him for studying English that….
A. is colorful
B. is totally quiet
C. holds a lot of books
D. has background music
E. allows much light to get in

15. To motivate students before dealing with the day’s reading class on healthy life styles,
the empathetic communication strategy Ms. Erwina can have is to….
A. show a video on unhealthy life styles
B. tell the students to pay more attention
C. raise several background knowledge questions
D. ask the students to consider danger of the styles
E. tell the students the meaning of healthy life styles

Professional

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 16 – 18 refer to the text below.

Reumannplatz
10th district, close to Reumannplatz, newly renovated old Viennese house in a quiet
neighborhood with lift, public transport connection to U1.

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Accommodation: all shopping facilities in immediate proximity to the pedestrian zone


Favoritenstraße. Specials: Next to the recreational area Böhmischer Prater with excellent
jogging-lanes, connection to the motorway in 2 minute driving distance.
Parking: no short term parking zone, public garage at Reumannplatz.
Public transport: Subway: U1, station Reumannplatz; tram: line 67; bus: lines 7A, 14A, 65A,
66A, 67A and 68A; city center reachable within 8 minutes.

16. The text informs us about ….


A. an apartment with shopping facilities
B. an accommodation close to the garage
C. an advertiser offering an old residence
D. a flat completed with a parking zone
E. a house close to the subway station

17. The house is furnished with ….


A. shopping facilities
B. public transport C. a parking area
D. a public garage
E. an elevator

18. The following are the facilities around the house EXCEPT ….
A. public transport
B. shopping mall
C. recreational zone
D. reachable city hub
E. common parking area

Questions 19– 21 refer to the text below.

Use of other than genuine Panasonic supplies can damage the machine. This may void the
warranty of the machine and supplies. Be sure to use only genuine Panasonic Toner
designed for the machine.
The machine should not be installed in areas with the following conditions:
• Extremely high or low temperature and humidity.
The machine should be installed under the following ambient conditions:
• Temperature: 50-86 °F (10 - 30 °C)
• Relative humidity: 30-80 %
• In areas with chemical fume concentration.
• With unstable or uneven conditions (floors, etc.).
• Direct exposure to sunlight or fluorescent light.
• In areas of high dust concentration.
• Directly in the air conditioning flow.

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• In areas of poor ventilation.


• In areas with extreme vibration.

19. The text implies that the machine …. A. Is suitable only with genuine parts
B. May tolerate fake supplies
C. Was genuinely designed with toner
D. And its supplies are inseparable
E. Is installed in areas with moderate temperature

20. The word void most nearly means …. A. take something away from somewhere
B. force someone to leave an important position
C. remove the legal force from a legal agreement
D. make something smaller in degree or importance
E. remove the controls on someone or something

21. The machine along with its genuine toner should be installed under the conditions
below EXCEPT

A. In an area with high humidity
B. In a relatively low polluted area
C. In areas with good ventilation
D. In places with relatively low vibration
E. Indoors or places with little light

Questions 22 – 24 refer to the text below.


!
About 2200-1800 BC a wave of newcomers arrived in the Cyclades and on the mainland.
They caused considerable destruction, and for about two centuries civilization was
disrupted, especially on the mainland. New pottery and the introduction of horses at this
time indicate that the invaders were of the Indo-European language family, to which both
Ancient and Modern Greek belong.
On Crete, impressive buildings, frescoes, vases, and early writing are evidence of a
flourishing culture of the 2nd millennium BC, which came to be known as Minoan. Great
royal palaces built around large courtyards were the focal points of these communities. The
most magnificent of the palaces was at Knossos. Destroyed presumably by an earthquake or
a foreign invasion about 1700 BC, it was rebuilt on a grand scale. It seems likely that the
Minoans maintained a marine empire, trading not only with the Cyclades and the mainland
but also with Sicily, Egypt, and cities on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean.

22. The text tells us about …. A. arrival of Middle Bronze


Age
B. introduction of Horses

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C. destruction of Cyclades
D. two Centuries Civilization
E. Indo-European Language Family

23. The most magnificent palaces was at Knossos were ….


A. rebuilt in 1700s BC
B. maintained as a marine empire
C. broken down by foreign invasions
D. probably destroyed by an earthquake
E. on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean

24. The word “frescoes” in the passage most nearly means


…. A. pictures made by painting on wet plaster
B. paintings of the 2nd millennium BC
C. potteries created by ancient sculptors
D. statues figuring gods and goddess
E. ornaments symbolizing kings and queens

Questions 25 – 27 refer to the text below.


Making a herb and vegetable paste is a quick and simple way of producing vibrantly colored,
flavorsome rice.

Ingredients
1 large green capsicum, quartered and seeded; 1 onion, quartered; 1 clove garlic, crushed;
1⁄2 cup (15 g) fresh coriander leaves; 1⁄2 cup (10 g) fresh flat-leaf parsley; 2 teaspoons (10
g) butter; 2 teaspoons extra virgin olive oil; 1 cup (200 g) long-grain white rice; 600 ml
boiling chicken stock; salt and pepper; sprigs of fresh coriander, to serve.

Preparation
1. Put the capsicum, onion, garlic, coriander and parsley in a food processor and blend to a
very finely chopped paste. Alternatively, very finely chop them all together with a knife.
2. Heat the butter and oil in a large saucepan, add the rice and fry gently for 2–3 minutes,
or until the grains are translucent. Remove from the heat and stir in the herb paste.
3. Return to the heat and cook for 2 minutes, stirring all the time.
4. Pour in the boiling stock, and season with salt and pepper to taste.
5. Bring to the boil, then reduce the heat, cover and cook very gently for 10–15 minutes, or
until the rice is tender and the stock has been absorbed.

25. The word “translucent” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. allowing light through something attractively
B. needing only a very small amount of effort
C. not covered or blocked by anything

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D. lit by the natural light of the day


E. small and easy to digest

26. The last step to be done in the procedures is ….


A. bringing the wok to the boil
B. reducing the heat
C. covering the wok
D. cooking the rice gently
E. absorbing the stuff

27. The best title of the text is ….


A. Green Coriander Rice
B. Vibrantly Colored Rice
C. Quick Vegetable Paste
D. Herbal Flavorsome Rice
E. Capsicum-Flavored Rice

Questions 28 – 30 refer to the text below.


Indonesia will deport 153 Chinese nationals arrested for alleged involvement in a
multimillion-dollar cyber fraud ring targeting wealthy businessmen and politicians in China,
police said Tuesday. The syndicate, who ran their operation from abroad to avoid detection
by Chinese officials but did not target any victims in their host country, made around six
trillion rupiah since beginning operations at the end of 2016, Indonesia police said. They
were arrested following a tip-off from Chinese authorities. "We are conducting an intensive
investigation and currently coordinating with the Chinese police to deport them," said
national police spokesman Rikwanto, who goes by one name. The group, based in several
locations across Indonesia, contacted victims pretending to be Chinese police or law
officials, promising to help resolve their legal cases in return for immediate cash transfers,
Jakarta police said. The criminal network included IT specialists who would retrieve
information on victims and develop communications systems for contacting them, he said.

28. The text above intends to ….


A. report Indonesia’s plan to deport a number Chinese for a scam
B. describe Chinese residents’ involvement in a cyber fraud

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C.
D.
E.

C. argue about a syndicate who ran an operation from abroad


D. discuss a fraud ring targeting wealthy figures in China
E. expose a criminal network retrieving information on victims

29. The Chinese syndicate ran their operation from Indonesia in order to ….
A. follow a tip-off from the Chinese authorities
B. pretend to be Chinese police or law officials
C. to be free in targeting wealthy businessmen
D. direct their target in their host country
E. avoid detection by Chinese officials

30. Below are among the procedures used by the syndicate EXCEPT ….
A. contact victims
B. promise to help
C. retrieve information
D. develop IT systems
E. settle down in this country

Questions 31 – 33 refer to the graph below.

Parent Cell

31. The new cells produced by cell division are genetically ….


A. Exactly the same as the parent cell

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B. Relatively similar to the parent cell


C. divide themselves into other cells
D. produce new chromosomes
E. smaller than the parent cell

32. The chart shows that the parent cell and daughter cells are identical because the
daughter cells …. are just the direct division of the parent cell inherit the characteristic
features of the parent cell
intend to resemble the characteristics of the parent cell
receive a copy of all the chromosomes of the parent cell
are a copy of all the chromosomes the nucleus of the
parent cell

33. The figure implies that new celled are produced by means of
A. congruent multiplication
B. geometric progression
C. arithmetic progression
D. direct multiplication
E. consistent division

Questions 34– 36 refer to the text below.

Amerigo Vespucci (Latin Americus Vespucius) (1454-1512), Italian navigator, for whom the
continents of North and South America are named. He was born in Florence. In 1495 he
took over the business of a merchant in Seville, Spain, who had furnished supplies to ships
voyaging to the West Indies. Vespucci later set out for the New World himself and left
accounts and maps of four voyages. Most scholars agree that Vespucci explored a large
section of the northern coast of South America during an expedition led by Spanish soldier
Alonso de Ojeda in 1499 and 1500. Most also believe that he might have explored part of
that continent's eastern coast on a subsequent voyage. German geographer and
cartographer Martin Waldseemüller, who translated Vespucci's narrative in 1507, was the
first to use America, an adaptation of the explorer's given name of Amerigo, as a name for
the southern continent. The name gradually came into use to refer to the two western
continents after it appeared on a world map published in 1538.

34. Born in Italy, Amerigo Vespucci began to make his debut in ….


A. Spain
B. West Indies
C. North America
D. South America
E. Germany

A.
B.

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C.
D.
E.

35. That Vespucci explored a large section of the northern coast of South America is ….
A. questionable
B. absolutely true
C. agreeable
D. beyond doubt
E. unbelievable

36. The text implies that Vespucci explored the eastern coast of America ….
A. after doing other voyages
B. as the main exploration target
C. before exploring the west coast
D. together with a photographer
E. long after voyaging the West Indies

Questions 37– 39 refer to the text below.


Malnutrition is one of the most common effects of poverty. In developing countries, the
poorest people cannot obtain adequate calories to develop or maintain their appropriate
body weight. In Ethiopia, for example, it is estimated that almost half of all children under
the age of 5 suffer from malnutrition. Poor children in developing countries often suffer the
most, commonly from a deficiency known as proteinenergy malnutrition. In these cases,
children lack protein in their diets, especially from an insufficient amount of mother’s milk.
Protein-energy malnutrition leads to a variety of problems, including gastrointestinal
disorders, stunted growth, poor mental development, and high rates of infection. Prolonged
malnutrition can lead to starvation, a condition in which the body’s tissues and organs
deteriorate. Long-term starvation almost always results in death.

37. The best title of the text is…. A. Protein, Energy, and Malnutrition
B. Adverse Effects of Malnutrition
C. Malnutrition and Starvation
D. Malnutrition among Youngsters
E. Effects of Long-term Starvation

38. Insufficient amount of mother’s milk may lead to the following problems, EXCEPT….
A. undersized growth
B. high infection rates
C. inadequate calorie intake
D. organ deterioration
E. mental development

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39. It can be inferred from the text that….


A. more than 50 percent of children in the world suffer from starvation
B. in developing countries starvation leads to mental breakdown
C. malnutrition is closely related to a country’s development level
D. there is a causal relation between malnutrition and poverty
E. most children in developing countries suffer from starvation

Natural language processing, or NLP is a branch of artificial intelligence that has many
important implications on the ways that computers and humans interact. Human language,
developed over thousands and thousands of years, has become a nuanced form of
communication that carries (40) a wealth of information that often transcends the words
alone.

40. The underlined part a wealth of information in the passage may be best rephrased as….
A. portions of material
B. bits of evidence
C. reports of facts
D. pieces of data
E. facts of news

KWL is a part of constructivist method of teaching and a form of instructional reading


strategy that is used to guide students taking them through the idea and the text. The table
comes in various forms as some have modified it to include or exclude information. KWL
chart is a useful tool, (41) which makes it possible for students to focus on essential things
and expand their ideas beyond the materials used in classroom.

41. The underlined part which makes it possible for students to focus on essential things in
the passage may be best rephrased as…. allowing students to highlight key parts
emphasizing students on vital points
providing students with an emphasis
permitting students to stress spots
students’ prioritizing vital targets

Assessment should be embedded in all aspects of a course rather than being something that
just happens at the end. More than any other aspect of the curriculum, well-designed
assessment is the key to engaging students in active and productive learning. When you
design assessment for a course of study, (42) teachers essentially design what and how
students will learn. What you decide to assess should be closely aligned with the stated
learning outcomes for the course.

42. The underlined part teachers essentially design what and how students will learn in the
passage may be best rephrased as….
A.
B.

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C.
D.
E.

A. teachers plan the best achievement for their students in learning


B. teachers’ responsibility is principally planning students’ learning
C. basically teachers develop what and how to learn for their students
D. broadly teachers create positive learning setting for the students
E. mainly teachers’ job is creating their students’ learning strategies

43. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘I was in a seminar session by an
expert’ and ‘Her presentation was amazing.’ is….
A. I was in a seminar session by an expert the presentation of whom was amazing
B. I was in a seminar session by an expert, the presentation of whose was inspiring
C. I was in a seminar session by an expert which presentation was inspiring
D. I was in a seminar session by an expert whose presentation was inspiring E. I was in a
seminar session by an expert that presentation was inspiring

44. … we have learned the new teaching technique; we need to start practicing it in the
classroom. A. Even if
B. While
C. Now that
D. Wherever
E. As though

45. The meaning that best expresses this: ‘Technical testing of writing skills is not yet with
us. As a result, scoring students’ writing is physical’ is….
A. If technical testing of writing skills is with us, scoring students’ writing will not be
physical
B. Were technical testing of writing skills with us, scoring students’ writing would not
be physical
C. If technical testing of writing skills was with us, scoring students’ writing would not
be physical
D. Should technical testing of writing skills be with us, scoring students’ writing will not
be physical
E. If technical testing writing skills would be with us, scoring students’ writing would
not be physical

46. In the English teaching learning process under meaning orientation, the structure of
passive voice constructions in grammar lessons in particular seems to….
A. be less emphasized
B. have less emphasized
C. having less emphasized

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D. they are less emphasized


E. have been less emphasized

47. We once discussed concepts of ‘critical period’, one sub-topic … dealt with its impact on
language learning among adults.
A. with which
B. which
C. which it
D. from which E. of which

48. Although they are constructive, her advisor’s comments on her thesis draft may be a
kind of … pain she can experience. A. an excruciating
B. a sickening
C. an extreme
D. an awful
E. a sharp

49. Finally all the students in the class gave their feedback on the arguments … by their
teacher. A. stated B. lifted
C. raised
D. expressed
E. conveyed

50. Some students do cheating during exams, which is a … stupid thing to do.
A. entirely
B. utterly
C. fully
D. totally
E. wholly

51. In order not to make any noise, the exam proctor stepped her shoes … on the room
floor and then sat down. A. quietly
B. gently
C. carefully
D. silently
E. mutely

52. College students as young and enthusiastic generation needs … to show their academic
capacities and capabilities in their research.
A. fair deals
B. iron wills
C. elbow rooms
A.
B.

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C.
D.
E.

D. fellow feelings
E. Herculean tasks

53. Thesis advisors commonly have high expectations on their students’ thesis completion
based on the standards set up by the university, hoping that students can … them.
live up to
keep up
with get
away with
stick up for
get on with

54. Her students like her very much not only because of her teaching performance but also
her appearance that is always….
A. spick and span
B. safe and sound
C. fair and square
D. rough and ready
E. bright and early

Items 55 and 56 are based on the following passage.

(55) …. First off, the Coke is taken to the cleaning unit. Here, the bottles get cleaned,
steamed and sanitized to rid them of any dirt and debris. This is done by jet streams and
water. Then, the bottles are picked up by something that can only be described as an
overhead conveyer belt. (56) …. In this stage individual clamps pick up a bottle. The clams
then transport the bottles from station to station above the room. It is time for the Coke to
be put into the bottles.

55. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (55) is….
A. To ensure good quality, the Coke is processed tightly
B. There are secrets behind the popular drink called Coke
C. The bottling process of the Coke is a complex process
D. The Coke is a popular soft drink throughout the globe
E. The careful processing of the Coke is the key process

56. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (56) is….
A. The belt is surely not a old-style conveyer
B. This is the process of picking up the bottles
C. Each bottle is cleaned up carefully by a clamp

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D. One supervisor observes carefully the process


E. The next process is conveying the bottles

Items 57 and 58 are based on the following passage.

Alternative energy is the application of alternative energy sources to save the actual
capacity of energy. This is done in a reasonable economic and environmentally friendly
manner to face many global challenges related to the rising consumption of global
resources. Alternative energy sources are not based on the splitting of atoms or burning of
fossil fuels. (57) …. This writing discusses marine energy, hydroelectric, wind, geothermal
and solar power as alternative sources of energy.
(58) … These include ocean waves, tides, salinity, and ocean temperature
differences. The movement of water in the world’s oceans creates a vast store of kinetic
energy, or energy in motion. This energy can be harnessed to generate electricity to power
homes, transport and industries. The term marine energy encompasses both wave power
i.e. power from surface waves, and tidal power i.e. obtained from the kinetic energy of large
bodies of moving water.

57. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces is.…
A. In addition, alternative energy is more eco-friendly
B. However, there is a range of sources in this context

A.
B.

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C. Furthermore, it is cheaper in several terms


D. Yet, not many are aware of its benefits
E. There are options of alternative energy

58. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces is.…
A. Renewable ocean energy harnesses the ocean power for electricity
B. Marine energy refers to the energy carried by ocean properties
C. Marine energy technologies are renewable energy from the sea
D. Ocean energy can play a vital role in nations’ renewable energy
E. Oceans are rich with unexplored potential for energy sources

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TEST 8

Pedagogy

Directions: To answer questions 1 – 20, Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and
E – to each question.

1. As the counterbalance to linguistic competence, formulaic competence refers to chunks


of language that speakers use heavily in everyday interactions. It includes the following
EXCEPT …. A. idioms
B. routines
C. turn-taking
D. collocations
E. lexical frames

2. Among the areas where our behavior can directly influence our students’ motivation to
continue participation in EFL classes is determining short-term goals which include the
following EXCEPT ….
A. the successful writing of an essay
B. the ability to partake in a discussion
C. the possibility of a better job in the future
D. the learning of a small amount of new language
E. the passing of the progress test at the end of the week

3. Applying the humanistic approach, the teacher should encourage supportive


atmosphere in the classroom by means of the following acts EXCEPT ….
A. listening to the students
B. encouraging them to share their feelings
C. accepting their comments without judgment
D. fixing the aims for the course or for one lesson
E. oblige students to do what they plan to do that day

4. In designing a curriculum, a designer is concerned not just with lists of what will be
taught and in what order, but also with the following EXCEPT ….
A. the planning
B. the implementation
C. the management
D. the supervision
E. the evaluation

5. Communication strategies are strategies that learners use to overcome communication


problems in order to convey their intended meaning. They include the following EXCEPT
….
A. paraphrasing

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B. substitution
C. coining new words
D. asking for clarification
E. switching to other languages

6. An effective test should point the way to beneficial washback; when test items
represent the various objectives of a unit and/or focus on major topics of the unit, then
the classroom tests ….
A. can raise the washback potential
B. can serve in a diagnostic capacity
C. may be the determinant of success
D. may contribute to the students’ failure
E. can be used as a guide to setting goals

7. Applying Portfolio assessments, innovative English teachers expect that they may
improve testing processes in the following ways EXCEPT that they …. A. enhance student
and teacher involvement in assessment
B. provide opportunities for teachers to observe students in various contexts
C. permit the assessment of the multiple dimensions of language learning
D. provide opportunities for both students and teachers to work together E. reflect on
what to do to assess students’ language mastery

8. A well-developed lesson plan should be completed with assignments to guide the


instructor’s choice of assessment measures by providing information about student and
class comprehension of the material. The following are among the questions to consider
EXCEPT …. A. What level of learning do the students need to attain?
B. How does the lesson plan fit particular instructional principles?
C. What is the amount of time the instructor wants the students to use?
D. How does the assignment fit with the rest of the lesson plan?
E. What is the purpose of the assignment?

9. The closure step of a lesson plan is a chance to determine whether the students need
additional practice or to go over the lesson again. The following are examples of closure
in an effective lesson plan EXCEPT ….
A. summarizing the characteristics of the lesson
B. discussing new things that the students learned about the lesson
C. giving them a couple of minutes to read or present the lesson to the class
D. asking what information from the lesson the students will find important
E. asking the students to summarize the lesson for students missing the class.

10. The presentation phase of a lesson plan can take a variety of forms. The following are
suggestions on how to present new materials to class EXCEPT ….
A. teacher centered explanation

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B. student presentation
C. reading selection
D. listening selection
E. guided exercises

11. Ms. Francesca is going to facilitate a class, one group of which consists of kinesthetic
learners, to design a smart classroom with particular room features provided in the form
of pictures. For the purpose, the most suitable learning resource for her to facilitate the
group to learn would be….
A. outdoor activities in which the group has the chance to observe a real smart room
B. an audio recording describing the parts of a smart classroom to the group to listen
C. worksheets with questions guiding the group to describe parts of a smart classroom
D. discussions requiring the group members to share ideas to design a smart classroom
E. inclass activities involving a still picture of a smart classroom for the group to
describe

12. A teacher who wants to have distance learning involving not only spoken but also
pictographic images which enable them to have face-to-face idea exchanges can most
appropriately utilize….
A. skype
B. instagram
C. laboratory
D. teleconference
E. google messenger

13. To facilitate students to have sufficient practice in guessing the content of a reading
passage, a teacher can make the best use of activities in which the students….
A. relate the accompanying pictures with the content
B. use a flowchart mapping the content of the passage
C. answer several comprehension questions provided
D. complete a table containing the passage outline
E. rearrange jumbled paragraphs of the passage

14. Handoyo is a type of a field-dependent learner who tends to be good at interpersonal


relationships. To optimize his learning of English, Ms. Yuli can set up learning
environments for him which provides him with an ample opportunity to…..
A. work on individually
B. finalize tasks in details
C. compete in doing tasks
D. perform under pressure
E. accomplish tasks in teams

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15. None of the students is willing to act out a brief monolog on the danger of mobile phone
use in the classroom when Ms. Ramiga asks anyone to come forward. The empathetic
communication strategy she may use to make students secure is to…. A. tell the class it
is OK to make pronunciation mistakes
B. remind the class to practice again before acting out
C. warrant the class mispronunciation is unavoidable
D. ask the class not to be afraid to be laughed at
E. advise the class not to be shy to practice

16. Consider the following between a teacher and a student in a writing class:
T: “Next week, please do task 5 in groups of 3, OK?”
S: ”Mam, do you will have no class again?”
In response to the student’s answer, the teacher should have responded by saying….
A. “Class, is Don’s English correct?”
B. “What did you say, Don? Say it again.”
C. “Your answer is grammatically wrong.”
D. “No. Say please – will you have no class.”
E. “No for sure. But, did you say – do you will?”

17. Integratedness in assessment means that….


A. assessment is aligned to not just teaching but also planning, and objectives
B. eliciting is essentially a holistic process as competences differ in nature
C. assessment is directed not only to language components but also skills
D. instruments used to reveal competences should be varied in formats
E. any assessment should include not just tests but also non-tests
18. Based on the indicator that follows: “Students act out a dialog to express meanings on a
series of photographs depicting a metamorphosis of an animal using appropriate
language and idea development”, the most appropriate scoring criteria relevant to the
assessment procedure include….
A. content, organization, language, and interactiveness*
B. language, intelligibility, naturalness, and expression
C. information, organization, naturalness, and content
D. grammar, pronunciation, accuracy, and diction
E. clarity, information, accuracy, and vocabulary

19. The problem in Ms. Kewuk’s class is that her students tend to compete excessively in
reading classes. They do not have much experience working in task groups, and she
believes that they need to have more opportunities to do so as their attitude in
competing leads to an unhealthy class atmosphere. To solve the problem, she designs an
innovative instructional strategy through classroom action research the steps of which
will need to have the elements of….
A. KWLH
B. SQ3R

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C. jigsaw
D. mind mapping
E. click and clunk

20. A pretest may be needed in classroom action research, the function of which is….
A. to confirm that the problem observed initially is real*
B. to know students’ initial ability to be compared later
C. to trace possible causes of the practical problems
D. to determine the appropriate teaching strategy E. to identify the presence of
practical problems

Professional

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 21 – 23 refer to the text below.


Lerchenfelder Straße
7th district, Lerchenfelder Straße, old Viennese House, central, close to subway U6, station
Thaliastraße.
Accommodation: all shopping facilities in the Lerchenfelder Straße, inexpensive fruit-,
vegetable- and fresh goods stores in 5 minute walking distance.
Specials: central, apartments partially with view to the near park, various cozy restaurants
and bars of any kind in the neighborhood, very good infrastructure.
Parking: short term parking zone from 9am till 10pm; public garage on Schottenfeldgasse
which is approx. 5 walking minutes away.
Public transport: subway: U6 station Thaliastraße; tram: lines 46, 5; city center is reachable
by public transport in 8 minutes.

21. The text informs us about ….


A. a description of Viennese House near the station
B. an inexpensive Town House in the hub of Vienna
C. a house close to apartments with view to the park
D. an offer of a classic residence in the city center
E. an offer of houses with all shopping facilities

22. The text writer is boasting about the property being ….


A. close to a number wonderful infrastructures
B. furnished with a bar and a large garage
C. located in a quiet neighborhood
D. completed with cheap restaurants

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E. provided with all types of bars

23. Bellow are among the advantages of the advertised stuff EXCEPT ….
A. relatively vintage
B. good facilities
C. close to park
D. parking area
E. near garage

Questions 24– 26 refer to the text below.

Ways to Avoid Sore Muscles


Sore muscles are often the result of pushing your body too hard or too fast. If you’re hoping
to head back to the gym, you’ll want to check out our tips.
1) Load up on antioxidants: Several studies find that taking antioxidants for 2 weeks before
beginning a new exercise program can minimize muscle soreness and help maintain
muscle function. Take a combined product containing vitamin C, vitamin E and at beta-
carotene.
2) Start slowly: Get your body accustomed to physical activity before taking on a big
project or workout regimen. When you’re ready to get back on your bicycle, do it for a
bit at a time. The same goes for turning over the garden or reorganizing the garage.
3) Mix up your workouts: If you’re doing weight or resistance training, don’t work the same
muscle groups every day. Write down what your daily workout consists of, ideally in
advance, but afterwards is good, too.

24. In order to avoid sore muscles, we need to do the followings, EXCEPT….


A. plan physical activities in advance
B. take antioxidants before exercises
C. avoid abrupt start of physical activities
D. prevent the body from extra-hard work
E. get your body ready to the physical activities

25. “The importance of taking antioxidants before beginning a new exercise” is ….


A. an a priori statement
B. a hypothetical statement
C. a prescriptive suggestion
D. a research-based argument
E. an important health solution

26. Among the purpose of the text is telling the readers about ….
A. the preparation of doing physical activities
B. the ways to help maintain muscle function
C. how to maximize the effects of antioxidants

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D. how to take antioxidants before doing exercises


E. the importance of exercises to make the body fit

Questions 27 – 29 refer to the text below.

Achaeans, people of an ancient region in the northern Peloponnesus, Greece. The term was
broadly used by Homer to designate all the inhabitants of ancient Greece. According to
Greek mythology, the Achaeans were descendants of Achaeus, grandson of Hellen, the
legendary ancestor of the Hellenes, or Greeks. The region where they lived was known as
Achaea. References to the western kingdom of Ahhiawa in Hittite documents of the 13th
and 14th centuries BC have been thought by some scholars to refer to the ancient city of
Mycenae under Achaean domination. These documents characterize the Achaeans as a
maritime people inhabiting western Asia Minor and the island of Lésvos in the Aegean
Sea. In the Homeric period (circa 7th century BC) the Achaeans controlled southern Thessaly
(Thessalia) and most of the Pelopónnisos, but from the 6th to the 2nd century BC they were
restricted to a narrow strip on the north coast of the Pelopónnisos. In the 4th century BC
they formed a confederation of states known as the Achaean League.

27. The text tells us about ….


A. people of an ancient region in Peloponnesus
B. documents of the 13th and 14th centuries BC
C. all the inhabitants of ancient Greece
D. the ancient city of Mycenae, Greece
E. legendary ancestor of the Hellenes

28. The existence of the ancient city of Mycenae under Achaean domination was ….
A. an experts’ assumption
B. a strong hypothesis
C. an ancient legend
D. a historical fact
E. an empirical knowledge

29. The word “characterize” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. explain the characteristics of something
B. describe something by stating its main qualities
C. find the solution to a problem after a lot of thought
D. understand something or someone clearly
E. calculate something by stating its quantities

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Questions 30 – 32 refer to the graph below.

What does the body do when it is too hot?

30. The chart shows that ….


A. the sweat glands convert the body water to tears
B. the skin protects the sweat glands from radiation
C. the hypothalamus sends messages to sweat glands
D. the body water passes through the sweat glands
E. the heat in the environment causes radiation

31. Blood vessels near the surface of the skin are called ….
A. arterioles
B. hypothalamus
C. marrows
D. shunt vessel
E. skin

32. It can be inferred from the chart that when the artiocles are dilating ….
A. more blood passes through the shunt vessel
B. less blood passes through the ventriocles
C. more blood flows to the skin surface
D. more heat can be created by radiation
E. less body water sand back to circulation

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Questions 33– 35 refer to the text below.

Ernest Shackleton (1874-1922) led three expeditions to the Antarctic, on one of them
coming within 179 km (111 ml) of reaching the South Pole—the closest anyone had come at
that time. Shackleton is most remembered for leading the fabled Endurance expedition, in
which his men survived for ten months on ice floes and on a barren uninhabited island after
their ship was crushed by pack ice in the Weddell Sea. Sir Ernest Henry Shackleton was born
in County Kildare, Ireland, the eldest son and second of ten children of a Quaker doctor and
his wife. The Shackleton family motto was the Latin phrase Fortitudine Vincimus (by
endurance we conquer). Shackleton attended Dulwich College in London, England, for three
years before going to sea at age 16. He spent the next 11 years in the merchant marine. In
1901 Shackleton joined the British National Antarctic Expedition led by British naval officer
Robert Falcon Scott, sailing on the ship Discovery. The goal of the expedition was to reach
the South Pole.

33. Ernest Shackleton was more famous for his role ….


A. as a survivor in a barren uninhabited island
B. in leading an expedition to the south pole
C. to survive for months on ice floes
D. as the main character of a story
E. in discovering the Antarctic

34. Endurance is actually ….


A. the name of an expedition to the South Pole
B. the other term for Fortitudine Vincimus
C. the title of an exaggerated biography
D. the name of a legendary hero
E. the name of Shackleton’s ship

35. The text implies that Shackleton’s expedition ….


A. never reached the south pole
B. failed after the shipwreck
C. was a temporary success
D. had become a legend
E. took place in 1901

Questions 36– 38 refer to the text below.


I was nine when I spoke to Dad for the last time. I’d forgotten to thank him for a birthday
present. I believe it was a Radio Shack radio.
“You forgot, huh?” he said, on the phone.
Long pause. I was a sensitive kid. I think I knew that my nine years as his son were about to
get gutted.
“Dad?”

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“Screw off,” he told me, a thousand miles, and a two-month old divorce, away.
I remember Mom grabbing the phone and screaming, “What did you say? What did you say
to him?” until she was crying as hard as I was.
Ten years later, he’d finally succeeded in drinking himself dead. As I stood over his coffin, I
was out of tears. And regrets. I was out of everything, even breath. But I shoved a
goodbye through the scar tissue. I found some words. “Thanks for the radio, Dad.”

36. The story is about ….


A. a boy recalling his old days with his parents
B. a mournful boy beside his dad’s coffin
C. a boy thinking for his father’s gift
D. a regretful broken family
E. a family serious feud

37. It is implied in the story that ….


A. finally the boy’s mother asked for a divorce
B. the boy’s father had committed suicide
C. the boy regretted asking for the old gift
D. the family ended due to a trivial conflict
E. the gift was in fact a radio shack radio

38. We learn from the story that …. A. family feud may end up in a divorce
B. It is not easy to understand others
C. It is always late to regret about old days
D. It is unbearable to live in a broken family
E. Forgetting things may result in arguments

Questions 39– 41 refer to the text below.

Managed Intensive Rotational Grazing (MIRG), also known as cell grazing, mob grazing and
holistic managed planned grazing, is a variety of forage use in which herds/flocks are
regularly and systematically moved to fresh, rested grazing areas to maximize the quality
and quantity of forage growth. MIRG can be used with cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, chickens,
turkeys, ducks and other animals. The herds graze one portion of pasture, or a paddock,
while allowing the others to recover. Resting grazed lands allows the vegetation to renew
energy reserves, rebuild shoot systems, and deepen root systems, resulting in long-term
maximum biomass production. MIRG is especially effective because grazers thrive on the
more tender younger plant stems. MIRG also leave parasites behind to die off minimizing or
eliminating the need for de-wormers. Pasture systems alone can allow grazers to meet their
energy requirements.

39. The best title of the text is….


A. different Types of Grazing Processes

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B. holistic managed planned grazing


C. Managed Intensive Rotational Grazing
D. Natural Ways of De-warming Pastures E. effectiveness of MIRC in Supplying Energy
40. The main purpose of MIRG is….
A. to deepen root systems for maximum biomass production
B. to maximize the quality and quantity of forage growth
C. to allow the vegetation to renew energy reserves
D. to systematically move to fresh grazing areas
E. to allow grazers to meet their energy requirements

41. It can be inferred from the text that….


A. pasture systems allow grazers to meet their energy
B. MIRC enables grazing system to be more effective
C. MIRC allows pastures to recover much faster
D. animals minimize the need for de-wormers
E. MIRG can be used with any animal species

Questions 42– 44 refer to the text below.

Turmeric
Turmeric may have been protecting the health of an entire Indian subcontinent for about
5,000 years. A traditional Indian diet features white rice and flour breads, which as rapidly
digested carbs would ordinarily raise blood sugar dramatically. But the presence of turmeric
– the yellow spice that lends its color to many curry dishes – helps to manage the potent
impact on blood sugar. Curcumin, the active ingredient in turmeric, is the compound
believed to regulate fat metabolism in the body. Curcumin acts directly on fat cells,
pancreatic cells, kidney cells and muscle cells, dampening inflammation and blocking the
nefarious activities of cancer-causing tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-6. Experts
believe the combined action of all of these factors together gives curcumin the power to
reverse insulin resistance, high blood sugar and high cholesterol, and other symptoms
linked to obesity.

42. It is implied in the text that ….


A. turmeric regulates fat metabolism in the body
B. curcumin is as effective as turmeric for health
C. turmeric prevents the rapid blood sugar raise
D. curcumin and turmeric reverse insulin resistance
E. curcumin helps to minimize the impact obesity

43. The word “dampening” in the text means …


A. making feelings less strong
B. making something slightly wet
C. make something smaller in size

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D. increasing the amount as a whole


E. stopping an occasion from being comfortless

44. The text suggests that ….


A. we consider consuming turmeric in our diet
B. curcumin is powerful in protecting our body
C. turmeric contains a number of useful nutrients
D. curcumin prevents us from extreme obesity
E. turmeric contents regulate fat metabolism in the body

Items 45 and 46 are based on the following passage.

Content-based instruction (CBI) is an effective method of combining language and content


learning.
Theme based CBI works well in EFL contexts. Its use will increase as teachers continue to
design (45) … in response to student needs and interests. Learner motivation increases
when students are learning about something, rather than just studying language. Theme
based CBI is particularly appealing in this respect because (46) … that they feel their
students will enjoy.

45. Which option best completes (45)?


A. an innovative idea
B. a thematic syllabus
C. an inspiring concept
D. a challenging model
E. an effective standard

46. Which option best completes (46)? A. teachers can use any content materials
B. students are interested in various topics
C. teachers will ensure exciting materials
D. interesting themes teachers use warrant
E. several studies on teachers lead to the idea
Carl Wieman and colleagues have published evidence that flipping the classroom can
produce significant learning gains. They compared two sections of a large- (47)… physics
class. The classes were both taught via interactive lecture methods for the majority of the
semester.

47. The word that best completes the missing space is….
A. enroll
B. enroller
C. enrolled
D. enrolling
E. enrollment

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KWL charts help students to be active thinkers while they read, giving them specific things
to look for and having them reflect on what they learned (48) when they are finished
reading. KWL's use the metacognitive strategy of self-questioning to ensure that students
comprehend the content presented in the lesson. When students set their own purposes for
reading, they are more motivated and active as readers.

48. The underlined part when they are finished reading in the passage may be best
rephrased as….
A. upon reading
B. when reading
C. their reading end
D. their reading done
E. reading completion

49. The garden scene around the campus is very nice so during the break time students feel
they … a good time sitting there.
A. use
B. have
C. enjoy
D. spend
E. experience

50. The language used in the student’s poetry was … decorated with beautiful expressions
of peace. A. richly
B. fully
C. nicely
D. lovely
E. prettily

51. Having no idea to answer the examiner’s question, Supaham murmured as though to the
examiner he whispered….
A. softly
B. quietly
C. gently
D. silently
E. mutely

52. Dominik reached the class at …. As a result, he missed a lot of important information.
A. the long odd
B. the eleventh hour
C. the main chance
D. the unhappy hour

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E. the bad time

53. Thesis completion needs not only consistent struggles but also academic independence.
Students cannot just … their thesis advisor for ideas.
A. bank on
B. look up to
C. stick up for
D. take on
E. run into

54. Everyone is given a chance to revise their writing assignment no later than 13.00 p.m.,
Friday 27. Late submissions will not be considered, and the grade will be announced
as….
A. cut and dried
B. safe and sound
C. fair and square
D. bright and early
E. first and foremost

Items 55 – 57 are based on the following passage.

The Monitor hypothesis explains the relationship between acquisition and learning and
defines the influence of the latter on the former. The monitoring function is the practical
result of the learned grammar. (55) …, according to Krashen, the acquisition system is the
utterance initiator, while the learning system performs the role of the 'monitor' or the
'editor'. (56) …, the 'monitor' acts in a planning, editing and correcting function when three
specific conditions are met: (57) …, the second language learner has sufficient time at
his/her disposal, he/she focuses on form or thinks about correctness, and he/she knows the
rule.

55. Which option best completes (55)?


A. Clearly
B. Theoretically
C. Amazingly
D. Practically
E. Conversely

56. Which option best completes (56)? A. The learner does so


B. By doing like it
C. On doing that
D. In so doing
E. With that

57. Which option best completes (57)? A. for instance

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B. given that
C. that is
D. in that
E. as

58. The best arrangement of these sentences to make a logical paragraph is…
1. A good education system must have common goals in every areas of country to
provide a suitable and proper learning to its citizens.
2. In such a competitively challenging world, it is a must for all to have good education.
3. A country cannot grow and develop without the individual growth and development
of its citizens.
4. Also, some people have not enough skill to earn money for their daily routine just
because of the lack of proper education system.
5. Thus, the development of any country depends hugely on the education standard
available to its citizens.
6. Therefore, we should try to have equal opportunities of good education system for
everyone.
7. But, because of the lack of knowledge and skills, some people are uneducated and
living painful life.

A. 1–7–4–3–6–5–2
B. 2–6–7–4–3–5–1
C. 2–7–4–6–3–5–1
D. 1–6–4–7–2–3–5
E. 3–5–7–4–6–2–1

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TEST 9

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 1 –3 refer to the text below.

Obkirchergasse
19th district, Obkirchergasse, completely renovated art nouveau house (jugendstil) with lift,
calm, close to S-Bahn.
Accomodation: all shopping facilities on the street, inexpensive fruit-, vegetable- and fresh
goods stores 1 minute away.
Specials: apartments with view on the garden, some apartments with roof terrace and view
on Vienna. Parking: no short termin parking zone, parking lots are always available in front
of the house entry; garage place in 2 minute walking distance can be provided on request
Public transport: S-Bahn: line S45, station Oberdöbling; Tram: line 38; bus: line 39A, City
center reachable in 25 minutes with public transport.

1. The text informs us about ….


A. awesome apartments with shopping facilities and goods stores
B. an offer of apartments locating in a comfortable urban area
C. some accommodations with roof terrace and view on Vienna
D. renovated residences in an urban area in Obkirchergasse
E. suites with parking zone in front of the house entry

2. The advertiser is boasting about a residence that is ….


A. Newly renovated with art nouveau and lift
B. Fully furnished with modern appliances
C. Reachable with any public transport
D. Pretty close to the supermarket

3. The following are the conditions of the stuff exposed by the advertiser EXCEPT ….
A. easy parking
B. completely furnished
C. close to public transport
D. inexpensive shopping
E. near grocery stores

Questions 4–6 refer to the text below.

TOP TIPS FOR HAIR REMOVAL

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Shaving
The cheapest and quickest procedures of hair removal:
1) Exfoliate your skin pre-shave to prevent ingrown hairs.
2) Always use a sharp blade, as worn blades cause skin irritation and more nicks. Plus, they
don’t remove all hairs.
3) Try using specialty shaving gels on your legs for a slicker shave. Or, failing that, improvise
with a thin layer of cheap conditioner.
4) Wait a few minutes post-shave before applying deodorants or perfumes straight to skin.
If it stings, give your skin a chance to recover properly before applying.

Depilatory Creams
These work by employing a high-pH substance that reacts with the protein structure of hair
to break down follicles. It usually takes from three to 15 minutes, depending on the specific
product and coarseness of the hair.
Tip: Look out for the great new types of in-shower hair-removal cream. You still apply the
cream a minute before you get in the shower – and leave it on for a few minutes while
showering – but it’s still a quicker and much less messy option that works.

Waxing
Waxing lasts longer (three weeks or more, depending on personal hair growth). In-salon
waxing varies in price. At-home waxing is cheaper – but beware of using hot wax at home as
you can easily burn yourself.

4. The following are among materials for shaving EXCEPT ….


A. conditioner
B. deodorants
C. slicker shave
D. shaving gels
E. perfumes

5. How does the shaving cream work in breaking down follicles? A. It reacts with the hair
protein structure.
B. It takes approximately ten minutes.
C. It depends on the hair coarseness.
D. It is quicker and much less messy.
E. It gives your skin a chance to recover.

6. What does the word depilatory most nearly mean? A. A type of cream stimulating hair
growth.
B. A substance causing the hair to be less messy.
C. A substance used for removing unwanted hair.
D. A type of cream used for showering before shaving.
E. A high-pH substance that reacts with the protein structure.

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Questions 7 –9 refer to the text below.
Minotaur, in Greek mythology, monster with the head of a bull and the body of a man. It
was the offspring of Pasiphaë, queen of Crete, and a snow-white bull the god Poseidon had
sent to Pasiphaë's husband, King Minos. When Minos refused to sacrifice the beast,
Poseidon made Pasiphaë fall in love with it. After she gave birth to the Minotaur, Minos
ordered the architect and inventor Daedalus to build a labyrinth so intricate that escape
from it without assistance would be impossible. Here the Minotaur was confined and fed
with young human victims Minos forced Athens to send him as tribute. The Greek hero
Theseus was determined to end the useless sacrifice and offered himself as one of the
victims. When Theseus reached Crete, Minos's daughter Ariadne fell in love with him. She
helped him escape by giving him a ball of thread, which he fastened to the door of the maze
and unwound as he made his way through it.
7. The text tells us about …. A. a beast in Greek mythology
B. the queen of Crete
C. the god Poseidon
D. King Minos and his son
E. Pasiphaë's husband

8. Theseus was determined to end the useless sacrifice by ….


A. offering himself as a victim
B. getting married with Ariadne
C. escaping from Crete without assistance
D. forcing Athens to send him as tribute
E. building a complicated labyrinth

9. The word “intricate” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. complicated in details that it is difficult to solve
B. difficult to understand that it is confusing
C. extremely complex that makes people give up
D. confusing that it causes people to surrender
E. challenging that makes people attracted

10. I never knew how wonderful life could be … I became an English teacher.
A. until
B. supposing
C. as much as
D. in so far as
E. in as much as

Questions 11 – 13 refer to the text below.

Land use practices vary considerably across the world. The United Nations’ Food and
Agriculture Organization Water Development Division explains that "Land use concerns the

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products and/or benefits obtained from use of the land as well as the land management
activities carried out by humans to produce those products and benefits."As of the early
1990s, about 13% of the Earth was considered arable land, with 26% pasture, 32% forests
and woodland, and 1.5% urban areas. As Albert Guttenberg (1959) wrote many years ago,
"'Land use' is a key term in the language of city planning." Commonly, political jurisdictions
will undertake land use planning and regulate the use of land in an attempt to avoid land
use conflicts. Land use plans are implemented through land division and use ordinances and
regulations, such as zoning regulations.

11. The text above intends to….


A. argue about regulation of land uses
B. discuss the importance of land use in the world
C. describe terms related to land exploration
D. report land use practices in 1990s
E. explain land use practices years ago

12. According to FAO, Land use involves….


A. management actions
B. products and benefits
C. forests and woodland
D. arable and wood land
E. planning and regulation

13. In 1990s, the Earth consisted mainly of….


A. urban areas
B. arable land
C. green pasture
D. bushes and pastures
E. woodland and forest

Questions 14 – 16 refer to the graph below.

Cell division
The basic structure of most animal and plants cells is shown below.

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14. Compared to the animal cell, the plant cell …
A. is more complicated
B. is less comprehensive
C. similar to that of the animal
D. has different membrane
E. is different in shape

15. It can be inferred from the figure that the basic structure of most animal cells is … plants cells.
A. similar to
B. different from
C. the same as
D. equivalent to
E. resembling

16. The figure shows that the cell membrane …. A. resembles the cell wall surrounding it
B. separates the cell wall from the cytoplasm
C. is protected by the cell wall from outside
D. protects the cytoplasm, the nucleus, and the vacuole
E. covers the inside of the plant cell

17. The experiment results indicate that the short period … the PQRST strategy
implemented to college students allows them to yield significant effects on reading
comprehension of academic reports.
A. within which
B. from which
C. at which
D. by which
E. of which

Items 18 and 19 are based on the following passage.

Because theme-based teaching is very demanding the teacher is supposed to plan the
lesson in advance even if she/he is (18) …. Nevertheless there should always be some choice
points in themebased teaching. Those choice points are for the teacher and the students to
decide which activity (19) … or how much time they spend on it.

18. Which option best completes (18)?


A. truly unskillful
B. slightly trained
C. rather qualified
D. very experienced
E. newly graduated

19. Which option best completes (19)?

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A. the teachers choose
B. the principal allow
C. they will consider
D. the students like
E. they can do

Questions 20– 22 refer to the text below.

The Cowardly Skydiver


At the age of 43 he made the decision to jump out of a plane.
The idea scared the shit out of him but the reward of finally feeling like a real man was
worth it. So all geared up away he flew — the plane’s door open during the whole flight.
Trying hard not to gag in front of anyone he approached the door once they were above the
clouds. Don’t think you coward! Just jump! What’s the worst that could happen? Living like
this is far worse than the shoot not opening, he thought.
So he jumped and fell towards the Earth at 120 mph.
He felt at peace as he fell. Frantic thoughts did not cross his mind as one might think. Just
peace. When he hit the ground and stood up tears filled his eyes.
He would never be a real man.
That ship sailed long ago.

20. The story is about…. A. An easy way of skydiving


B. a man intending to defeat his own cowardice
C. Obtaining the experience of parachuting
D. A man trying to skydive for the first time
E. The way to get the feeling of a real man

21. It is implied in the story that the man …. A. eventually regretted that he did the diving
B. was very happy after the successful diving
C. skydiving had made him scared
D. skydiving had changed the man’s attitude
E. the man voluntarily jumped out of the plane

22. We learn from the story that ….


A. Skydiving does not need much bravery
B. The man would no longer skydive
C. It is hard to defeat cowardice at old ages
D. Being a coward is not comfortable
E. It is not easy to change one’s attitude

Questions 23– 25 refer to the text below.

Spinach

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Spinach is one of many leafy greens that have been shown to drop the risk of developing
diabetes; collards are another great choice. People who consume more than one serving a
day of spinach and other leafy greens slashed their risk by 14 per cent, compared to people
who ate less than half a serving daily, found one British study. This green is particularly rich
in vitamin K, along with several minerals including magnesium, folate, phosphorus,
potassium and zinc. It’s also a good source of the plant chemicals lutein and zeaxanthin, and
various flavonoids. Although spinach is technically a rich source of calcium, another nutrient
in spinach called oxalic acid prevents much of that calcium from being absorbed, but you
can blanch spinach to reduce this chemical.

23. It is implied in the text that ….


A. The more leafy greens we eat the better for our health
B. The more spinach we consume the worse for diabetes
C. Leafy green is particularly rich in vitamins and minerals
D. Spinach is as important as leafy greens to give vitamins
E. Spinach provides much calcium as an intake for our body

24. The word “slashed” in the text means ….


A. cut with a sharp blade using a quick strong action
B. made something smaller in size, amount, or degree C. reduced something to the
least level or amount
D. made something shorter, lower, smaller, etc.
E. removed something from something else

25. The text suggests that ….


A. we be considerate in consuming leafy greens
B. leafy greens are the only healthy food for our health
C. leafy greens lower all risks of developing diabetes
D. we have to consume as much spinach as possible
E. consuming spinach is the same as consuming leafy greens

Barbara Walvoord and Virginia Johnson Anderson who promoted the use of the flipped
classroom approach propose a model in which students gain first-exposure learning prior to
class and focus on the (26) … part of learning (synthesizing, analyzing, problem-solving, etc.)
in class.
26. The word that best completes the missing space is….
A. processes
B. processed
C. processing
D. process
E. procession

Items 27 – 29 are based on the following passage.

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The Input hypothesis is Krashen's attempt to explain how the learner acquires a second
language. (27) …, this hypothesis is only concerned with 'acquisition', not 'learning'. That is,
how second language acquisition takes place. According to this hypothesis, (28) …. when
he/she receives second language 'input' that is one step beyond his/her current stage of
linguistic competence. (29) …., if a learner is at a stage 'i', then acquisition takes place when
he/she is exposed to 'Comprehensible Input' that belongs to level 'i + 1'. We can then define
'Comprehensible Input' as the target language that the learner would not be able to
produce but can still understand.

27. Which option best completes (27)?


A. Clearly
B. Essentially
C. Surprisingly
D. Practically
E. Conversely

28. Which option best completes (28)?


A. the learner does so
B. so does the learner
C. does so the learner
D. the learner is so E. so is the learner

29. Which option best completes (29)?


A. For example
B. Nevertheless
C. Furthermore
D. Above all
E. In brief

Questions 30 – 32 refer to the text below.

Cooking fish in foil parcels on the barbecue is a great way to ensure that the fish remains
soft and moist without being overcooked.
Ingredients
1 tablespoon olive oil; 250 g cherry tomatoes; 2 cloves garlic; 1⁄2 cup (75 g) pitted
kalamata olives, halved; 2 tablespoons capers; 2 teaspoons finely grated lemon zest; 2
teaspoons fresh thyme leaves; black pepper; 4 blue-eye fillets or other thick firm white
fillets; 1 tablespoon chopped fresh flat-leaf parsley Preparation
1. Preheat a kettle or covered barbecue to 200°C. Combine the oil, tomatoes, garlic, olives,
capers, lemon zest and thyme in a bowl.
2. Season with pepper. Tear eight squares of baking paper, and divide into 4 lots of double-
thick baking paper.

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3. Brush lightly with oil, and place a fish fillet onto each sheet. Top with the tomato
mixture.
4. Fold the foil or baking paper up around the filling, and seal the edges to enclose. If you
used baking paper, place the parcels on a tray before putting into the barbecue; this will
prevent the paper from burning. Place the parcels on the hotplate or grill rack over
indirect heat and close the hood.
5. Cook for 20 minutes, or until the fish flakes when tested with a fork. Open the parcels,
watching for steam.

30. The word “barbecue” in the passage most nearly means …. A. a metal frame on which
something is cooked outside over a fire
B. a spicy sauce which is used to flavor food
C. a meal prepared and eaten outside, often during a party
D. a piece of equipment to heat a place
E. a hard black substance which can be used as fuel

31. Wrapped in baking paper, the parcels are placed on a tray before cooking in order to ….
A. heat it quickly
B. produce good smell
C. be easy to remove
D. prevent the it from burning
E. keep them fresh prior to cooking

32. The best title of the text is ….


A. Barbecued Fish Parcels
B. Fish in Crushed Tomatoes
C. Blue-Eye Fillets in Parcels
D. Fish in Pitted Kalamata Olives
E. Fish in Parcels on Hotplate

Questions 33 – 35 refer to the text below.

Natural Resources and Environment Minister Wan Junaidi said Malaysia is ready to send fire
fighters and officers to help Indonesia put out forest fire. After launching the smart tunnel
run 2017 today, he told media that the government is viewing forest fire in Indonesia
seriously as it may spark off haze and the government is ready to offer assistance. Junaidi
said he has discussed with Sahidan Kassim who is in charge of the Fire Department and the
Special Malaysia Disaster Assistance and Rescue Team (Smart) and the latter assured him
that assistance can be extended to Indonesia. Junaidi would be meeting with Riau and Jambi
governors and plan to discuss with Aceh governor on assistance extended to Indonesia.
Based on the air pollution index (API) released by Department of Environment (DOE), air
quality remains at healthy level at the moment. No sign of haze caused by forest fire in
Indonesia at the moment. Malaysian Meteorological Department director-general Alui

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Bahari said wind in ASEAN would be blowing from south east or south west in the next few
days.

33. The text above intends to ….


A. Report Malaysia’s desire to aid Indonesia to battle forest fire
B. Describe Junaidi’s launching of a smart tunnel run 2017
C. Explain the government’s view the forest fire in Indonesia
D. Discuss Kassim’s assurance that assistance can be extended
E. Discuss Malaysia’s plan to provide assistance to Indonesia
34. The most responsible party that has to put out the forest fire is ….
A. the Natural Resources Minister
B. the Special Malaysia Disaster Team
C. the Riau, Jambi, and Aceh governments
D. the Indonesia and Malaysia Governments
E. the Indonesia Department of Environment

35. The text implies that in the near future the air quality in the southern parts of Riau and
Jambi will be ….
A. better
B. worse
C. stable
D. normal
E. cooler

Items 36 and 37 are based on the following passage.


Flipped Learning allows for a variety of learning modes; educators often physically rearrange
their learning spaces to accommodate a lesson or unit, to support either group work or
independent study. They create flexible spaces in which students choose when and where
they learn. Furthermore, educators who flip their classes are flexible in their expectations of
student timelines for learning and in their assessments of student learning.

36. The underlined word ‘accommodate’ is synonymous with….


A. hold
B. spare
C. afford
D. stay
E. settle

37. The antonym of the underlined word ‘flexible’ is ….


A. lenient
B. stringent
C. suitable
D. deficient

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E. convenient

There is often confusion over the difference between grades and learning assessment. Some
believe they are totally unrelated and others think they are one and the same. The truth is,
it depends. (38) Grades are often based on more than just learning outcomes. Grading
criteria often include behaviors or activities that are not measures of learning outcomes,
such as attendance, participation, improvement, or effort. Although these may be
correlated with learning outcomes, and can be valued aspects of the course, typically they
are not measures of learning outcomes themselves.

38. The underlined part Grades are often based on more than just learning outcomes in the
passage may be best rephrased as….
A. Grades include many more activities than learning outcomes
B. Grades come from a wider scope than outcomes of learning
C. Grading covers learning outcomes and other components
D. Grading systems are complex beyond learning outcomes
E. Grades constitute not just learning outcomes but others
39. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘Last year we went to Jogjakarta’
and ‘It is perhaps the best education city.’ is….
A. Last year we went to Jogjakarta that is perhaps still the best education city
B. Last year we went to Jogjakarta that it is perhaps still the best education city
C. Last year we went to Jogjakarta which is perhaps still the best education city
D. Last year we went to Jogjakarta where it is perhaps still the best education city E. Last
year we went to Jogjakarta which it is perhaps still the best education city

40. … your students could not finish all the items of the test, what would your decision be?
A. Even though
B. While
C. Supposing
D. Whenever
E. As though

41. The meaning that best expresses this: ‘The students would not finish their work even if
the teacher was there’ is….
A. The students would not have finished their work even if the teacher would have
been there
B. The students would not have finished their work even if the teacher had been there
C. The students would not have finished their work even if the teacher were there
D. The students had not finished their work even if the teacher would not be there E.
The students had not finished their work even if the teacher were there

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42. In the English teaching learning process under meaning orientation, meaning
negotiation is focused in that communication is considered running in so far as you can
understand and….
A. understood
B. be understood
C. are understood
D. to be understood
E. being understood

43. We planned to attend the conference overland; but it was not easy to find the
transports … we traveled as most were fully booked.
A. in which
B. which
C. where
D. that
E. by which

44. Based on her progress, there is a … possibility that Nina will have finished her magister’s
study by the end of the semester.
A. clear
B. vivid
C. bright
D. distinct
E. obvious

Questions 45– 47 refer to the text below.

John Cabot (1450-1499), Italian navigator and explorer, who attempted to find a direct
route to Asia. Although Cabot was probably born in Genoa, as a youth he moved to Venice,
where his seafaring career probably began. He became a naturalized Venetian in 1476, but
about eight years later settled in Bristol, England. Cabot had developed a theory that Asia
might be reached by sailing westward. This theory appealed to several wealthy merchants
of Bristol, who agreed to give him financial support. In 1493, when reports reached England
that Christopher Columbus had made the westward passage to Asia, Cabot and his
supporters began to make plans for a more direct crossing to the Orient. The proposed
expedition was authorized on March 5, 1496, by King Henry VII of England. With a crew of
18 men, Cabot sailed from Bristol on May 2, 1497, on the Matthew. He steered a generally
northwestward course, and on June 24, after a rough voyage, he landed, perhaps on
present-day Cape Breton Island.

45 John Cabot began his career as a ….

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A. navigator
B. explorer
C. sailor
D. discoverer
E. merchant

46 Developing a theory that Asia might be reached by sailing westward, Cabot ….


A. had several wealthy merchants support his voyage
B. began to make plans for a direct voyage to Asia
C. sailed from Bristol to his destination on the Matthew
D. gained financial support from the authority in England
E. did not know Columbus had made the westward passage to Asia

47 The text implies that Cape Breton Island was in ….


A. north-eastern part of Asia
B. northern part of America
C. northern part of Australia
D. south-western coast of Africa
E. western coast of Latin America

Questions 48-50 refer to the text below.

The concentration of glucose in the blood must be kept at a set point. The concentration of
glucose in a person’s blood can increase after they have eaten a meal containing lots of
carbohydrates. The concentration of glucose in a person’s blood can decrease after a period
of exercise or if they have not eaten for a long while. Glucose diffuses out of the blood into
muscle cells and is broken down to release energy for muscle contractions. If the blood
glucose concentration rises too high then cells can lose water. This may interfere with cell
activities. If the blood glucose concentration falls too much then body cells will not receive
as much glucose and so will not be able to release so much energy in respiration. The
concentration of glucose in the blood is regulated by the action of the hormones, insulin,
and glucagon. These hormones are made in the pancreas and act on cells in the liver.

48 The best title of the text is …. A. Blood Glucose Regulation


B. Concentration of Glucose
C. Uses of Glucose in the Blood
D. Influence of Excises to Glucose
E. Existence of Glucose in the Blood

49 The concentration of glucose in a person’s blood is dependent on ….


A. the condition of the human body
B. the way the body absorb it
C. the amount of carbohydrates as the intake
D. the amount of water which the person drinks

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E. the amount of energy the body reuires

50 It can be inferred from the text that the glucose concentration level ….
A. can increase or decrease with the person’s intense exercises
B. depends of the action of the hormones, insulin, and glucagon
C. is regulated by the person’s ways of healthy living
D. is dependent of the condition of the pancreas
E. is determined by the act of the cells in the liver

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TEST 10

Pedagogy

Directions: To answer questions 1 – 20, Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and
E – to each question.

1. As part of interactional competence, conversational competence which is inherent to


the turn-taking system in conversation includes the following dialogic genres EXCEPT ….
A. how to get, hold, and relinquish the floor
B. how to apply aspects of metacognition
C. how to open and close conversations
D. how to establish and change topics
E. how to collaborate and backchannel

2. As individuals attempt to use learning approaches, they may tend to develop strengths
in one experience-grasping approach and one experience-transforming approach which
lead them to prefer one of the following four learning styles EXCEPT …. A. assimilator =
abstract conceptualization + reflective observation
B. accommodator = concrete experience + active experiment
C. converger = abstract conceptualization + active experiment
D. diverger = concrete experience + reflective observation
E. inductor = inductive reasoning + creation of theories

3. Audio-lingual method involves providing a stimulus to which students respond; if the


response is correct, they are praised in order to ….
A. know the words exposed by the teacherto their studnts
B. reinforce the correct use of language and learning
C. repeat exercises and ask the students to say it again
D. continues with the next exercises with or without stimulus
E. continue doing exercies until all forms have been practised

4. When putting syllabuses together, an EFL curriculum designer has to consider each item
for inclusion in the syllabuses on the basis of the following criteria EXCEPT ….
A. learnability
B. usefullness
C. frequency
D. coverage

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E. grading

5. A theory about a cluster of four abilities was developed and factored into language
learning aptitude which was used as the basis for a language aptitude assessment for
adults. The four abilities include the following EXCEPT ….
A. phonetic coding ability
B. grammatical sensitivity
C. rote learning ability
D. hypothetical ability
E. inductive learning ability

6. A rubric is a tool used in writing assessment that can be used in several writing contexts.
It is compiled from a series of raters whose comments are categorized and condensed
into a five-factor rubric, four of which are the following EXCEPT ….
A. Form: organization and analysis
B. Ideas: relevance, clarity, quantity, development
C. Genre: descriptive, narrative, recount, procedure, etc.
D. Mechanics: specific errors in punctuation, grammar, etc.
E. Wording: choice and arrangement of words

7. The teachers’ objection about applying Portfolio assessment is due to the disadvantages
of such assessment which includes the following questions EXCEPT ….
A. who will determine grading criteria
B. how grading criteria will be established
C. who will determine what the portfolios will contain
D. how to increase time and resources needed to support the teacher
E. how much of daily authentic classroom activities are included in them

8. The presentation/development step of a lesson plan should involve activities on the part
of the students. It should be carried out by keeping in mind the following principles
EXCEPT ….
A. principle of selection
B. principle of division
C. principle of absorption
D. principle of categorization
E. principle of successive sequence

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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9. When assigning the learners in the closure section of the lesson plan, remember that
students need to be able to preform their skills on their own. So, keep the following
things in mind EXCEPT ….
A. make a clear connection between the lesson and the homework
B. make sure to assign the homework directly after the lesson
C. clearly explain the assignment to be given to the learners
D. ask the model students to share their tasks to their classmates
E. make sure to check for students understating before sending them off

10. Free practice designed for an effective lesson plan integrates the focus structure /
vocabulary / functional language into students' overall language use. It often encourages
students to use the target language structures in the following EXCEPT ….
A. games and puzzles
B. small group discussions
C. quizzes and formative tests
D. written work (paragraphs and essays)
E. longer listening comprehension practice

11. Rina is a solitary type of a student. The most suitable learning resource for the teacher
to facilitate Rina in reading comprehension would be….
pictured workbooks
e-learning modules
reading passages
audio recordings
worksheets
12. Which of the following can satisfy the need of a teacher who wants to have real class
communication with students in which they can not only talk directly but also see each
other physically? A. facebook
B. instagram
C. laboratory
D. teleconference
E. google messenger

13. Mr. Nastiti is about to activate students’ formal schemata of lexical items used in a
report text. For the purpose, she can involve her students…. A. to identify words in
jumbled letters
B. to label pictures with appropriate words
C. to guess word meanings from the context
D. to find the meaning of words in a dictionary
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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E. to find the synonym or the antonym of words

14. To cater for the learning style of his students who are field independent, when teaching
reading, Mr. Hanafi will require his students to….
A. plot in-depth ideas in each paragraph
B. identify the main points of passages
C. imply the meaning in the passages
D. retell details of all paragraphs
E. seek for specific information

15. Learning a new topic can be challenging for students. To motivate them to learn with
enthusiasm, a teacher may use empathetic communication strategy by….
A. telling the class that all beginning is difficult
B. informing the class to always be motivated
C. reminding the importance of learning English
D. explaining the disadvantage of not learning the topic
E. stating that the topic is interesting and they will like it

16. A student was texting Ms. Cruella as follows: “Excuse me, Mam. When can you meet me
to discuss my report? I have a question to ask. Thank you.”
How should Ms. Cruella have responded to her student by texting back not to make her
embarrassed?
A. “What about tomorrow? But, should I see you or should you see me?”
B. “Who do you think you are? I am your teacher. You must see me.”
C. “Is your language polite enough, Sandra? Check your English.”
D. “Sandra, be polite please, can’t you? Should I meet you?”
E. “You are really not polite, Sandra. Keep your manner.”

17. What follows are NOT among the principles of assessment:


valid, objective, accountable, meaningful, and
comprehensive accountable, meaningful, systematic, fair,
and criterion-based objective, accountable, systematic,
fair, and meaningful ongoing, integrated, systematic, fair,
and accountable judgmental, valid, objective, fair, and
accountable
18. Based on the indicator that follows: “Given three brief paragraphs of different themes
on which every second half of every 2nd word is mutilated, students fill in the blank
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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spaces in the mutilated words of the paragraphs correctly”, the most appropriate
scoring scheme relevant to the assessment procedure is…. A. scoring with a penalty
B. dichotomous scoring
C. primary-trait scoring
D. polytomous scoring
E. weighted scoring

19. A teacher is using a dictogloss technique combined with brainstorming activities to solve
a problem in her class. The problem the students face in the teacher’s class is most
probably associated with….
A. listening and writing
B. speaking and reading
C. reading and writing
D. writing and speaking
E. reading and speaking

20. Observations by a collaborator during the conduct of classroom action research are
mainly focused on....
A. both the teacher’s teaching and more importantly students’ learning behavior
B. detailed descriptions of class progress from minute to minute
C. class atmosphere during the implementation of the strategy
D. student-student and teacher-student class interactions
E. collection of data to provide evidence of change

Professional

Directions:
To answer the following test items, you will have to read the related short texts. Each is
followed by one or more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, D, and E –
to each question.

Questions 21 – 23 refer to the text below.


NÖ, Ebreichsdorf
Accommodation: all shopping facilities in immediate vicinity.
Specials: near by the park of the castle of Ebreichsdorf, the golf course and Magna Racino;
calm and bright apartment with own parking space; round about 25 km to the city limit of
Vienna with excellent connection over motorway A3 and A2.
Parking: in the flat fee already included parking space in the inner courtyard of the house.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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Public transport: railway S6 Ebreichsdorf and bus line ÖBB 566 station Hauptplatz – direct
connection to the 10th district of Vienna at Quellenplatz near by the underground line U1
endstation Reumannplatz.

21. The text informs us about ….


apartments in a quiet neighborhood modern
houses in the 10th district of Vienna
inexpensive residences close to the city center
suburban flats with a connection to the
highway accommodations close to the railway
and bus stations

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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22. The text writer is boasting about the property being …. A. completed with shopping
facilities in the neighborhood
B. quiet and cozy with a free private parking space
C. connected to excellent facilities around the city
D. relatively close to the railway and bus stations
E. directly connected to the district of Vienna

23. Bellow are the advantages of the advertised stuff EXCEPT ….


A. excellent connection to two motorways
B. Close to the park of the Ebreichsdorf castle
C. free parking space in the inner courtyard
D. pretty close to the underground line
E. calm, bright, and easy to reach

Questions 24– 26 refer to the text below.

To use the printer by connecting it to a computer, software including the drivers needs to be
copied (installed) to the computer's hard disk. The installation process takes about 20
minutes. (The installation time varies depending on the computer environment or the
number of application software to be installed.)
• Screens are based on Windows Vista Ultimate and Mac OS X v.10.5.x.
• Do not connect the USB cable yet.
• Quit all running applications before installation.
• Log on as the administrator (or a member of the Administrators group).
• Do not switch users during the installation process.
• Internet connection may be required during the installation.
• Connection fees may apply.
• Consult the internet service provider.
It may be necessary to restart your computer during the installation process. Follow the on-
screen instructions and do not remove the Setup CD-ROM during restarting. The installation
resumes once your computer has restarted.

24. The purpose of installing the software to the computer's hard disk is to ….
A. make the printer work on the computer
B. make the computer work faster
C. cause the computer compatible with it
D. cause the computer to restart easily
E. connect the computer to the printer

25. In order to install the software to the computer, it is necessary to ….


A. become a administrator member
B. connect the computer to the internet
C. switch the users during the installation

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D. contact the internet service provider


E. plug and unplug the USB cable

26. It is recommended not to remove the Setup CD-ROM during restarting because ….
A. It may disturb the installation process
B. The installation resumes automatically
C. It is not mentioned in the manual
D. The computer screen might be off
E. The data from the hardware are required

Questions 27 – 29 refer to the text below.


!
Sir Arthur John Evans (1851-1941) was born in Nash Mills, England, and educated at Harrow
School, Brasenose College, the University of Oxford, and the University of Göttingen. From
1884 to 1908 he was curator of the Ashmolean Museum at Oxford. His interest in early
writing led him to Crete in 1894, where he studied inscriptions on ancient sealstones. A year
later he published the results in Cretan Pictographs and Prae-Phoenician Script. During the
period 1900-1906 he unearthed in Crete the palace at Knossos (Knosós), a huge edifice that
covers more than 2 hectares (5 acres), and he continued excavations there until 1935. The
labyrinthine ground plan of the palace suggested to him the legend of Minos, hence his
designation of the Cretan civilization as Minoan. Excavations at Knossos also revealed some
3000 clay tablets inscribed in two scripts later known as Linear A and Linear B. In Scripta
Minoa (1952) Evans dealt with the problem of decipherment of these scripts and the
pictorial.

27. The text tells us about ….


A. the life story of a person named Arthur John Evans
B. a curator of the Ashmolean Museum at Oxford
C. Sir Arthur John Evans interest in early writing
D. Evans’ publication of Cretan Pictographs and Prae-Phoenician Script
E. Evans’ study on inscriptions on ancient sealstones

28. Sir Arthur John Evans went to Crete in 1894 in order to ….


A. complete information about his museum
B. find ancient writing for the museum
C. cater his thirst of historical writing
D. record the cretan sivilization
E. invent two scripts known as linear a and b

29. The word “unearthed” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. found something out of the ground
B. discovered proof after careful searching

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C. described a time that is not convenient


D. used something in the past for future uses
E. dug the ground for continued excavations

Questions 30 – 32 refer to the text below.

This stuff is a clever variation on the traditional, meat-based Greek dish that is usually quite
high in fat.

Ingredients
2 zucchinis, sliced; 1 eggplant, sliced; 300 g new potatoes, scrubbed and sliced; 2 red
capsicums, deseeded and cut into thick strips; 400 g can borlotti beans, drained and rinsed;
4 ripe tomatoes chopped; 1⁄4 cup (5 g) roughly chopped fresh basil; 2 tablespoons olive oil;
1⁄2 cup low-fat natural yogurt; 1 egg, lightly beaten; 1⁄3 cup grated parmesan

Preparation
1. Preheat the oven to 180°C. Bring a large saucepan of salted water to the boil. Add the
zucchini and cook for 2 minutes. Drain well on paper towel.
2. Add the eggplant slices to the water and cook for 2 minutes, then remove and drain.
Meanwhile, heat a cast-iron, ridged grill pan over a high heat. Cook the capsicum slices
for about 5 minutes.
3. Combine all the cooked vegetables with the beans, chopped tomatoes and basil in a
large baking dish. Drizzle the olive oil over the top, season to taste and stir together
thoroughly.
4. In a bowl, stir together the yogurt, egg and parmesan until blended. Spread this mixture
over the top of the vegetables.
5. Bake the moussaka for 40 minutes or until the vegetables are tender and the topping is
golden brown.

30. The word “drizzle” in the passage most nearly means ….


A. allow something to fall
B. move liquid to a lower level
C. pour liquid slowly over something
D. put something in small light drops
E. change liquid to a particular condition

31. The ingredients to be sliced for the menu are ….


A. capsicums, borlotti beans, tomatoes
B. zucchinis, eggplant, potatoes
C. zucchinis, basil, parmesan,
D. eggplant, potatoes, capsicums
E. potatoes, borlotti beans, tomatoes

32. The best title of the text is ….

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A. Meat-Based Greek Dish


B. Zucchini Dish Capu
C. Vegetable Moussaka
D. Sliced Eggplant Moussaka
E. Parmesan Flevoured Vegetable

Questions 33 – 35 refer to the text below.


Jakarta begins ridding sidewalks of vendors, motorists
The Jakarta administration introduced on Tuesday Bulan Patuh Trotoar (Orderly Sidewalk
Month) to discipline vendors and motorists who encroach on sidewalks, to ensure comfort
for pedestrians. The program is in response to complaints by pedestrians that it was
uncomfortable and unsafe to walk on the city’s 400 kilometers of sidewalks as much of
them were occupied by vendors and motorists, said the assistant to the Jakarta secretary for
administrative affairs, Bambang Sugiono. “The Orderly Sidewalk Month program is the
beginning of orderly sidewalks in Jakarta. It doesn’t mean that sidewalks can be occupied
again by vendors or motorists [after the program ends],” Bambang said. Some 500 joint
team members from the Indonesian Military, the National Police, the Transportation Agency
and the Public Order Agency will ensure the success of the program, which runs until Aug.
31.
Bambang also said the program, which was being carried out using Gubernatorial
Instruction No. 99/2017 as a legal basis, was being held to mark Independence Day in
August.

33. The text above intends to ….


A. argue about the occupation of sidewalks by vendors and motorists
B. report an introduction a plan to discipline vendors and motorists
C. respond the pedestrians’ complaints about their being unsafe
D. describe vendors and motorists who encroach on sidewalks
E. explain the ways pedestrians walk on the city’s sidewalks
34. The Orderly Sidewalk Month was held by the Jakarta Administration ….
A. to ensure comfort for the citizens
B. in July and august every year
C. to mark the independence day
D. as a top-down management
E. for the first time this year

35. The text implies that in the near future the sidewalks in Jakarta ….
A. will be permanently free from vendors and motorists B. should become more
comfortable for pedestrians
C. might ensure vendors and motorists to occupy them
D. certainly mark celebration of the Independence Day

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E. may be occupied by vendors and motorists again

Chart 1 British Emigration to selected destinations 2004 – 2007

36. The chart shows that the favorite destination of British emigration was….
A. Australia
B. America
C. France
D. Spain
E. USA

37. During the period of 2004-2007, British emigration to New Zealand….


A. changed very slowly
B. turned down steeply
C. went down steadily
D. declined gradually
E. slow down readily

38. It can be inferred from the chart that the British emigration to any destination was….
A. relatively stable
B. sloping up steeply
C. tumbling down continuously
D. sloping down slowly
E. sloping up and down

Questions 39– 41 refer to the text below.


!
Stepping Out, With Pencil

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He used a pencil to say goodbye. Maybe that would make it less permanent. Words are only
as strong as their intent and he didn’t want to leave.
His parents had once hinted that they knew the truth. But by the end of the day their heads
were back in The Good Book — their eyes on everything but him.
So with a whisper he crafted his goodbye on paper.
He made the sentences sharp. His points were daggers. An eraser could make them go
away. But he knew his parents wouldn’t see that.
“That’s why I have to go in the first place,” he thought.
And when he took his first step into the world as an honest man he felt fixed.
He’d left the note next to the TV. Burnable, tearable. Erasable.
Maybe after they did all that, they’d remember he was just their son.

39. The story is about ….


A. the way a boy appreciating his parents
B. the way parents saying goodbye
C. the powerful use of a pencil to write
D. the utilization of a pencil to say goodbye
E. the relations between a pencil and an eraser

40. It is implied in the story that the story writer ….


A. has a hobby in reading and writing
B. bears no relation to his parents
C. believes in the power of pencil
D. bears close relation to his father
E. loves his parents till the end of their lives

41. We learn from the story that …. A. words are as strong as their intent
B. words may be used to conceal the truth
C. eraser could make pencil writing go away
D. a pencil is a means of expressing wise words
E. pencil writing may keep memories long lasting

Items 42 and 43 are based on the following passage.


The interest in Content-Based Instruction has spread to EFL classroom situations because
teachers believe that (42) … in EFL contexts should be similar to that of ESL to some extent.
Even though (43) … in the same way, an alternative form called “the theme based model”
has been introduced in some countries.

42. Which option best completes (42)?


A. the thematic syllabus
B. the inspiring concept
C. the innovation model

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D. the accurate standard


E. the language education

43. Which option best completes (43)? A. teachers can use any materials
B. the approach cannot be applied
C. teachers will ensure materials
D. teachers use interesting themes
E. many teachers may not agree

Items 44 and 45 are based on the following passage.

Flipping the classroom, or ‘inverted teaching’ is a response to the idea that class time can be
used to (44) engage students in learning through active learning techniques, rather than
through delivering lectures alone. It is the process of replacing traditional lectures with
more student-centered learning strategies, such as active learning, discussions, problem-
based learning, and other forms of group work and peer instruction. Content delivery is (45)
moved outside of the classroom, for example, through videos, or pre-class readings.

44. The underlined word ‘engage’ is synonymous with….


A. keep
B. repel
C. unite
D. enter
E. insert

45. The antonym of the underlined word ‘moved’ is ….


A. relocated
B. stayed
C. remained
D. displaced
E. adjusted

The flipped classroom may not be for everyone. But enough of the teachers that have tried
it are having (46) … that you may find it worthwhile to experiment with flipping a lesson or
two to see what happens. You might just become a convert.

46. The word that best completes the blank spaces in (46) is….
A. success
B. succeed
C. successful
D. succeeded
E. succession

Items 47 and 48 are based on the following passage.

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CALP is the context-reduced language of the academic classroom. It takes five to seven
years for (47) … to become proficient in the language of the classroom (48) …; there is less
face-to-face interaction; academic language is often abstract; literacy demands are high;
and cultural/linguistic knowledge is often needed to comprehend fully.

47. Which option best completes (47)?


A. language English learners
B. language learners of English
C. learners of language English
D. English language learners
E. learners of English language

48. Which option best completes (48)? A. because of non-verbal clues are absent
B. because of non-verbal clues absent
C. because non-verbal clues are absent
D. because non-verbal clues of absence are
E. because absence are non-verbal clues

Assessments as learning activities is a good idea. It can motivate students' learning, the
increase some interactions between students and teacher, and make learning interesting.
But, the purpose of doing so isn't for assessment only, but for the cultivation of literacy. All
in all, we just need to keep one thing in mind – (49) assessment as activities should not keep
students away from learning - they felt hard then stopped, or classify a group of students
with different identities, then higher ranked students will look down upon some lower
ranked.

49. The underlined part assessment as activities should not keep students away from
learning in the passage may be best rephrased as ….
A. the importance of assessment is to integrate students with their learning
B. it is vital for assessment practices not to detach students from learning
C. in assessment activities, students should remain involved in their learning
D. incorporating students in learning activities is indeed vital in assessment
E. students should be kept engaged in learning during assessment processes

50. The meaning that best expresses these two sentences: ‘Last year I was in Bali’ and ‘It is
perhaps still the best tourist destination island.’ is….
A. Last year I was in Bali that is perhaps still the best tourist destination island
B. Last year I was in Bali that it is perhaps still the best tourist destination island
C. Last year I was in Bali which is perhaps still the best tourist destination island
D. Last year I was in Bali where it is perhaps still the best tourist destination island E.
Last year I was in Bali which it is perhaps still the best tourist destination island

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51. The principal will not allow you to go back to campus for further studies, … it will benefit
your school. A. even though
B. while
C. supposing
D. whenever
E. inas much as

52. The educational product that a magister’s student developed not only has been
patented but also has ... a publisher’s attention for further mass publication.
A. paid
B. obtained
C. caught
D. gained
E. reached

53. By considering a number of variables deliberately in his study, it seems that he is ...
aware of the consequence on his experiment.
A. totally
B. fully
C. wholly
D. entirely
E. utterly

54. The incident happened a long time ago so Henry only … remembered that it was growing
dark when he entered the building.
A. unclearly
B. indistinctly
C. slightly
D. vaguely
E. faintly

Items 55 and 56 are based on the following passage.


Soon after green tea leaves are picked in the field, they undergo their first crude tea
manufacturing process. From the time raw tea leaves are picked up, (55) …. Crude tea refers
to tea leaves that have undergone the action of oxidizing enzymes halted, fermentation
prevented, having their moisture content reduced somewhat and processed into a state
that is able to withstand storage. Subsequently, crude tea undergoes secondary processing
whereby it is made into a finished product for packing. (56) …, or become the ingredients for
beverage products.

55. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (55) is….
A. a trained worker is involved for the purpose
B. the leaves are not to oxidize and to ferment
C. the first process is handled very carefully

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D. the next natural process takes place soon


E. chemical natural processes take place

56. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (56) is….
A. The tea may then be sold as tea leaves
B. The firm is ready to sell the products
C. The tea leaves become a commodity
D. A tea business for marketing begins
E. The crude tea leaves become the tea

Items 57 and 58 are based on the following passage.

The term climate change usually refers to the process of global warming. The phrase
has been once used by the National Academy of Sciences. Actually, the phrase refers to the
process of changing in climate all over the globe, which is a normal occurrence. The whole
process is referred to as the process of 'global warming'. Because of excessive human
activities recently, this has become more hazardous to the life in the globe. This process has
serious impacts globally. (57) ….
(58) …. So far, the results have been positively chilling. When President Taft created Glacier
National Park in 1910, it was home to an estimated 150 glaciers. Since then the number has
decreased to fewer than 30, and most of those remaining have shrunk in area by two-thirds.
Fagre predicts that within 30 years most if not all of the park's namesake glaciers will
disappear.

57. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (57) is….
A. Two vivid changes are happening on glaciers and animal moves.*
B. The burning of fossil fuels to make electricity has been the largest source.
C. Earth's surface has undergone extraordinary warming over the last century.
D. Most observed warming is very likely due to the burning of coal, oil, and gas.
E. Global warming is primarily a problem of too much CO2 in the atmosphere.

58. The sentence that best completes the blank spaces in (58) is….
A. Rising average temperatures do not simply mean milder winters.
B. Our generation has ever seen the biggest environmental challenge. C. The first
observable phenomena is melting glaciers and sea ice
D. One most serious impact of climate change affects water resources
E. In mountains, melting glaciers are impacting on freshwater ecosystems.

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