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NEET JEE Chemistry Practice Question Bank Part 1 (5000+ Questions)
NEET JEE Chemistry Practice Question Bank Part 1 (5000+ Questions)
Te
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Practice Bank
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Part - 1
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Compiler
Sudhir Nama
About The Compiler
Interactive Learning Environment, Where Students Are Encouraged To Ask Questions And
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Excel In Their Chemistry Studies. Apart From This, He Is Also A Passionate Storyteller.
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Publication
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Textbook :
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NEET, JEE)
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1. GOC
3. Chemical Bonding
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Note : The Examples And Questions In This Practice Bank Are Taken From Various Books, Institutions,
Internet And Platforms
-
1. Chapter
Te
le
gr
1997, 99]
–OH > – COOH > –CH(OH)COOH > –H
(a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral
le
reaction.
(c) 3 (d) 0
Allyl free radical (CH2 = CH – CH2) is more stable than
m
The stability of free radicals is explained on the basis [CPMT 1973, 83, 89; MP PMT 1993;
try
2°>1°>methyl while SN2 is methyl > 1°> 2°> 3°. (a) (b)
Polar solvents favour SN while non polar solvents
1
(c) (d) None of these
favour SN2 reactions. 6. The hybridisation present in is [EAMCET 1993]
Dipole moment of CHCl3 is less than that of CH2Cl2. (a) (b)
This is because in CH2Cl2 all bond moments reinforce each (c) (d)
other while in CHCl3 the bond moment of one of the Cl
7. What hybrid orbitals will form the following
opposes the net moment of the other two.
compound [AFMC
Low concentration of nucleophiles favour SN1 while 1991]
high concentration favour SN2. (a) and (b) and
In SN1 the attack of the nucleophile may be from (c) and (d) Only
either side and so recimization takes place. However, in
8. The compound in which carbon uses only its
SN2 the attack of the nucleophile takes place from back
hybrid orbitals for bond formation is [IIT-JEE 1989]
side. So it leads to inversion of configuration.
(a) (b) 16. In the reaction
(c) (d)
9. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular
formula . The hybridisation for the carbon The hybridisation states of carbon atoms 1, 2, 3, 4 are
atoms from one end of the chain to the other are [MP PET 1994]
respectively and (a) 1 and 2 3 and 4
. The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be
(b) 1 and 2 3 and 4
[CBSE PMT 1992]
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a)
(b) (d) 1, 2 3, 4
17. In which of the compounds given below is there more
than one kind of hybridisation for
(c)
carbon
(d)
(i)
Te
(d)
which simple functional groups are often attached
11. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom
C
(i) (ii)
hybridised carbon as [IIT-JEE 1987; DCE 2000]
m
is
(v)
[Kurukshetra CEE 1991; KCET 2000]
pa
(c) 4 (d) 5
[CBSE PMT 1995]
13. Number of electrons present in naphthalene is
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (ii) and (iii)
[AFMC 1991]
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv)
(a) 4 (b) 6
19. The structure of di-chloromethane is [MP PMT 1995]
(c) 10 (d) 14
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Trigonal
14. Number of electrons in cyclobutadienyl anion
(c) Linear (d) Hexagonal
is [IIT-JEE 1991]
20. The numbers of sigma ( ) bonds in 1-butene is
(a) 2 (b) 4
[MP PMT 1995]
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 8 (b) 10
15. Homolytic fission of C - C bond in ethane gives an
(c) 11 (d) 12
intermediate in which carbon is [IIT-JEE 1992]
21. Which of the following statements is false for
(a) hybridised (b) hybridised isopentane
(c) hybridised (d) hybridised [MP PET 1996]
(a) It has three groups 31. Maximum bond energy of bonds is found in the
compound [RPMT 1999]
(b) It has one group
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene
(c) It has one CH group
(c) Ethyne (d) Equal in all the three
(d) It has a carbon which is not bonded to hydrogen
32. Ethylene possess [RPET 1999]
22. The number of bonds in o-xylene is [MP PET 1996]
(a) Two sigma and two pi bonds
(a) 6 (b) 9 (b) Two pi bonds
(c) 12 (d) 18 (c) Five sigma and one pi bond
23. In benzene the total number of bonds is [MP PMT (d) Four sigma and one pi bond
1997]
33. The hybridization involved in the six carbon atoms of
(a) 3 (b) 6 benzene is [BHU 1999]
(c) 9 (d) 12 (a) (b)
24. The number of hybridized carbon atoms in (c) All (d) All
cyclohexene are [MP PMT 1997]
34. 1, 3-butadiene has [JIPMER 2000]
(a) 2 (b) 3
Te
(c) 3 (d) 4 35. Which of the following bond has the lowest
bond dissociation energy [CBSE PMT 2000]
26. Example of hybridization is [CPMT 1997]
@
(a) (b) respectively are [RPMT 1999; MP PET 2000; DCE 2000]
try
(c) (d)
28. Carbon atoms in the compound are 37. Which is an acidic hydrocarbon [AMU 2000]
pa
45. In which of the following species is the underlined (a) Graphite is in powder form
C
carbon having hybridisation [AIEEE 2002] (b) Diamond has hybridization but graphite has
he
(c) (d)
tetrahedral form
is
[BHU 2003]
47. The hybridisation of carbons of single bond of
(a) (b)
pa
is [RPMT 2002]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
rk
[J & K 2005]
(a) Methane (b) Acetylene
gr
1. Which has zero dipole moment [NCERT 1990; BHU 2001] (b) It has carbon-carbon single bond
(a) cis-2-butene (b) trans-2-butene (c) Carbon are hybridised
_S
when attached to benzyl or an unsaturated group in 25. Which of the following resonating structures of 1-
increasing order of inductive effect is methoxy-1, 3-butadiene is least stable [IIT Screening
am
(b) (b)
C
he
(c)
(c)
m
(d)
is
(d)
26. Which amongst the following is the most stable
try
carbocation
19. Which of the following is observed in ethylene [CBSE PMT 2005]
_S
molecule
[MH CET 2002]
pa
H3N NH3
(a)
(Y) (Z)
le
gr
COOH
(b) (X)
am
(c)
(c) (X) > (Z) > (Y) (d) (Y) > (X) > (Z)
C
(c) 1.34
(a)
try
(c)
(b) Two carbonium ions
rk
(a) (b)
(c) Para-directing
(c) (d)
le
49. Which is the most stable carbocation [J & K 2005] (b) Addition reaction
C
1. To which of the following four types does this reaction (c) To produce nucleophile (d) To produce
belong [Manipal MEE 1995] electrophile
_S
(a) Unimolecular electrophilic substitution 9. Which of the following can’t be used in Friedal Craft’s
(b) Bimolecular electrophilic substitution reactions [AFMC 2004]
pa
The above reaction proceeds through [AMU 2000] (a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(a) Nucleophilic substitution (b) Elimination reaction
(b) Electrophilic substitution (c) Both nucleophilic substitution and elimination
reaction
(c) Free radical substitution
(d) Rearrangement
(d) More than one of the above processes
12. Addition of HCl to vinyl chloride gives 1, 1-
4. Geometry of reaction intermediate in reaction is
dichloroethane because of [MP PET 2004]
(a) Mesomeric effect of Cl
(b) Inductive effect of Cl is
(c) Restricted rotation around double bond [IIT-JEE Screening 2004]
(d) None of these
O O
13. Formation of ethylene from acetylene is an example of HN HN
(a) Elimination reaction (b) Substitution reaction H3C CH3 H3C CH3
(c) Addition reaction (d) Condensation reaction (a) (b)
14. Conversion of to is an example of
which of the following reaction [Pb. CET 2001] Br Br
(a) Electrophilic substitution O O
(b) Free radical addition HN HN
(c) Nucleophilic substitution H3C CH3 H3C CH3
(d) Free radical substituion (c) (d)
15. Following reaction, Br Br
is an 23. Which one of the following is least reactive in a
Te
substitution
(c) Nucleophilic substitution (d) Electrophilic 24. Among the following the strongest nucleophile is
am
(a) (b)
is
(c) (d) is
try
19. Which represents nucleophilic aromatic substitution (a) Equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
reaction (b) Predominantly 2-butene
rk
(c) Carbenes (d) Free radicals 6. In ethane and cyclohexane which one of the following
31. Which of the following cannot undergo nucleophilic pairs of conformations are more stable
le
substitution under ordinary conditions [J & K 2005] (a) Eclipsed and chair conformations
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) tert-butylchloride
gr
(a)
he
(c)
[IIT-JEE 1986]
try
(a)
(a) – C and
(b)
(c)
(d)
(b) and
9. Number of isomers of molecular formula
are
[CPMT 1987]
(c) and (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 0
10. Lactic acid shows which type of isomerism
[CPMT 1987; MP PMT 1987; BHU 2003]
(d) and
(a) Geometrical isomerism (b) Tautomerism
3. The isomer of diethyl ether is [CPMT 1975] (c) Optical isomerism (d) Metamerism
11. Which one of the following is an optically active
compound (c)
[CBSE PMT 1988; DPMT 1983]
(a) n-propanol (b) 2-chlorobutane
(d)
(c) n-butanol (d) 4-hydroxyheptane
21. Which of the following pairs is an example of position
12. Compounds with same molecular formula but
isomerism
different structural formulae are called [BHU 1979;
AFMC 1989] (a) and
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes
(c) Isobars (d) Isoelectronic
13. Which one of the following compounds shows optical
isomerism [MP PET 1990] (b) and
(a)
(b)
(c) and
(c)
(d)
Te
16. Separating of d and l enantiomorphs from a racemic (a) 2-butene (b) 2-butyne
mixture is called [CBSE PMT 1988; DPMT 1983;
C
(a) Resolution (b) Dehydration 23. An organic compound exhibits optical isomerism
when
(c) Rotation (d) Dehydrohalogenation
m
(c) 3 (d) 4
(c) Two groups linked to carbon atom are different
18. Which one of the following contains asymmetric
_S
carbon atom [IIT-JEE 1989; Roorkee 2000] (d) All the groups linked to carbon atom are same
24. Which one of the following exhibits geometrical
pa
isomerism
(a) (b) [NCERT 1979; DPMT 1984; CBSE PMT 1990]
rk
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
19. n-butane and isobutane are examples of
(a) Chain isomers (b) Geometrical isomers 25. Maximum number of isomers of alkene are
(c) Position isomers (d) Tautomers [IIT-JEE 1982; MP PMT 1985; MADT Bihar 1995;
Kerala (Engg.) 2002]
20. Which of the following has chiral structure
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) (c) 4 (d) 6
26. Rotation of plane polarised light is measured by
[CPMT 1985; DCE 2001]
(b)
(a) Manometer (b) Polarimeter
(c) Viscometer (d) Refractometer 37. Which of the following compounds exhibits optical
27. An alkane forms isomers if the number of least carbon isomerism [BHU 1983; AFMC 1990; CPMT 1993;
atom is [CPMT 1976; BHU 1985, 89] MP PMT 1999, 2000]
31. The number of possible alcoholic isomers for isomers [AFMC 1993]
gr
(a) 3 (b) 4
[MP PMT 1994]
(c) 5 (d) 6
m
[NCERT 1980] 44. The isomerism exhibited by alkyl cyanide and alkyl
isocyanide is [AFMC 1995, 97]
(a) 4 (b) 3
(a) Functional (b) Positional
(c) 2 (d) 5
(c) Tautomerism (d) Metamerism
35. The property by virtue of which a compound can turn
the plane polarised light is known as [BHU 1979] 45. The following compound can exhibits
50. Functional isomerism is exhibited by the following pair (a) Geometrical isomers (b) Conformers
he
(c) 4 (d) 6
62. Which of the following compounds is not chiral
52. Optically active isomers but not mirror images are
[CBSE PMT 1998; DPMT 2002]
called
[MP PET 1999] (a) (b)
(a) Enantiomers (b) Mesomers (c) (d)
(c) Tautomers (d) Diastereoisomers 63. cis and trans 2-butene are [BHU 1998; DPMT 2002]
53. has how many isomeric forms that contain (a) Conformational isomers (b) Optical isomers
a benzene ring [CPMT 1997, 99; JIPMER 2002; DCE 2003] (c) Position isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
(a) 4 (b) 5 64. Which one of the following is the chiral molecule
(c) 6 (d) 7 [BHU 1998; 2005]
optically active compound [UPSEAT 1999] (a) Chain isomers (b) Optical isomers
(a) 1-butanol (b) 2-butanol (c) Cis-trans isomers (d) Position isomers
(c) 3-butanol (d) 4-heptanol 79. Geometrical isomerism is not possible in [CPMT 2000]
68. d-tartaric acid and l-tartaric acid are [MH CET 1999] (a) Propene (b) 3-hexane
(a) Enantiomers (b) Tautomers (c) Butenedioic acid (d) Cyclic compound
(c) Diastereoisomers (d) Structural isomers 80. Only two isomeric monochloro derivatives are
69. Minimum resistance in bond rotation will be observed possible for
in the compound [RPMT 1999] [Pb. PMT 2000]
(a) Hexachloroethane (b) Ethylene (a) 2-methyl propane (b) n-pentane
(c) Acetylene (d) Ethane (c) Benzene (d) 2, 4-dimethyl pentane
70. Which pair show cis-trans isomerism [RPET 1999]
81. Lactic acid in which a methyl group, a hydroxyl group,
Te
(a) Maleic-fumaric acid (b) Lactic-tartaric acid a carboxylic acid group and a hydrogen atom are
(c) Malonic-succinic acid (d) Crotonic-acrylic acid attached to a central carbon atom, shown optical
le
71. 1, 2-Dichloroethene shows [RPET 1999] isomerism due to the molecular geometry at the [Pb.
gr
(c) Secondary butyl amine 82. The number of possible alkynes with molecular
he
(b) 1-propanol and 2-propanol 83. Which of the following will not lose asymmetry on
try
isomerism
(a) An optically active compound
[CPMT 2001; BHU 2005]
le
90. Glucose has optical isomers [DCE 2001] carbon atom [JIPMER 2002]
is
To make it chiral compound the attack should be on (a) Each forms equal number of isomers for a given
which carbon atom [DCE 2001] compound
rk
(a) 1 (b) 3
(b) If in a compound one is present then so is the
(c) 4 (d) 7
other
92. Which of the following statements is not true about
(c) Both are included in stereoisomerism
enantiomers [DCE 2001]
(a) They have same physical properties (d) They have no similarity
(b) They have different biological properties 100. If the light waves pass through a nicol prism then all
(c) They have same chemical properties towards the oscillations occur only in one plane, such beam of
chiral compounds light is called as [Kerala (Med.) 2002]
(d) None of these (a) Non-polarised light (b) Plane polarised light
93. Meso-tartaric acid is [BHU 2001] (c) Polarised light (d) Optical light
(a) Optically inactive 101. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two [AIEEE 2002]
(b) Optically active because of molecular symmetry (a) Isomeric compounds (b) Chiral compounds
(c) Optically inactive due to external compensation
(c) Meso compounds (d) Optical isomers
(d) Optically active because of asymmetric carbon
atom
102. Which of the following does not show geometrical (c) (d) None of these
isomerism [AIEEE 2002]
112. Which of the following is an chiral compound
(a) 1, 2 dichloro-1-pentene [AIIMS 2002]
(b) 1, 3-dichloro-2-pentene (a) Hexane (b) Methane
(c) 1, 1-dichloro-1-pentene (c) n-butane (d) 2,3,4-trimethyl hexane
(d) 1, 4-dichloro-2-pentene 113. What is the possible number of optical isomers for a
compound containing 2-dissimilar asymmetric carbon
atom
103. and
[CPMT 1999; UPSEAT 1999, 2000, 02]
(a) 2 (b) 4
exhibit which isomerism [MP PET 2002]
(c) 6 (d) 8
(a) Position isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
114. Which of the following compounds is optically active
(c) Optical isomerism (d) Functional isomerism [Pb. PMT 2001; AMU 2002; Kerala (Med.) 2003]
104. Which compound is chiral [RPMT 2002]
(a) (b)
(a) butane
Te
105. Methyl acetate and propionic acid are [RPMT 2002] (c) 2-chloropropane (d) None of these
am
(a) Functional isomer (b) Structural isomer 116. If a carbon atom is attached to
(c) Stereoisomer (d) Geometrical isomer and number of chiral C – atoms in
106. Which compound shows cis-trans isomerism [CPMT
@
compound is
2002]
[RPMT 2003]
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-propene
C
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2-butene (d) Benzene
he
107. Isomers of propionic acid are [MP PMT 2002] (c) 3 (d) 4
m
(b) and
(a) Conformation (b) Enantiomerism
try
(c) (d)
109. Disymmetric object is one which is [Kerala (Engg.) 2002] (a) and
(a) Superimposable on its mirror image
(b) Non-superimposible on its mirror image
(c) Optically inactive
(d) Achiral
(b) and
110. Geometrical isomers differ in [CBSE PMT 2002]
(a) Position of atoms
(b) Length of carbon
(c) Spatial arrangement of atoms
(d) Position of functional group (c) and
111. Which of the following hydride is capable of showing
conformations [JIPMER 2002]
(a) (b)
(a) Diethyl ketone and methyl propyl ketone are
position isomers
(d) and (b) 2-chloro pentane and 1-chloro pentane are
position isomers
(c) n-butane and 2-methyl propane are chain isomers
119. (d) Acetone and propinaldehyde are functional
isomers
126. Dimethyl ether and ethyl alcohol are
[MH CET 2004; Pb. CET 2002]
(a) Metamers (b) Homologues
How many structures of F is possible (c) Functional isomers (d) Position isomers
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003] 127. The correct statement about the compounds A and B
is
(a) 2 (b) 5
[DCE 2002; UPSEAT 2004; IIT-JEE 1997; DPMT 2005]
(c) 6 (d) 3
120. An enantiomerically pure acid is treated with racemic
mixture of an alcohol having one chiral carbon. The
Te
(c) Meso compound (d) Racemic mixture (a) A and B are identical
(b) A and B are diastereomers
am
(a) 2, 3-Dichloropentane
is
(b) 2, 3-Dichlorobutane
122. Isomerism shown by
try
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
_S
[RPMT 2003]
(a) Boiling points
(a) Position isomerism (b) Chain isomerism
(b) Vapour pressure at the same temperature
(c) Metamerism (d) Optical isomerism (c) Heat of vaporization
123. A compound whose molecules are superimposable on (d) Gaseous densities at the same temperature and
their mirror images even through they contain an pressure
asymmetric carbon atom is called [Kerala (Med.) 2003]
131. The geometrical isomerism is shown by [AIIMS 2004]
(a) A meso compound (b) An erythro isomer
CH2 CH2
(c) A threo isomer (d) a glycol
(a) (b)
124. Of the following, the compound possessing optical
isomerism [Kerala (Med.) 2003]
(a) (b) CH Cl CH Cl
(c) 4 (d) 5
(e) 6
C
(c) (d)
[BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)
m
(c)
(c) Both (d) None
(d)
rk
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
151. Which of the following fischer projection formula is
same as -Glyceraldehyde [Kerala CET 2005]
(c) (d)
(a)
Te
le
(e) One
5. Among the following compounds which can be
C
(d)
m
(a)
is
(e)
try
(b)
_S
pa
(c)
rk
(d)
1. In the given conformation is rotated about 6. Which of the following statements is not characteristic
of free radical chain reaction [JIPMER 1997]
bond anticlockwise by an angle of 120° then
(a) It gives major product derived from most stable
the conformation obtained is [AIIMS 2004]
C 4 free radical
CH3
(b) It is usually sensitive to change in solvent polarity
H H
C3 (c) It proceeds in three main steps like initiation,
C2 propagation and termination
H H
(d) It may be initiated by U.V. light
CH3
C1 7. Most stable carbanion is [BHU 2003]
(a) (b)
(a) Fully eclipsed conformation
(b) Partially eclipsed conformation
(c) Gauche conformation
(a) Optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
(b) pH in organic solvent
(c) (d) (c) Optical rotation and is derived from D(+)
glyceraldehyde
(d) Optical rotation only when substituted by
8. Among the following the dissociation constant is deuterium
highest for 16. Among the following compounds (I-III) the correct
[AIIMS 2004] order of reaction with electrophilic reagent is [CBSE
(a) (b) PMTOCH
1997]
3 NO2
(c) (d)
9. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic
I I II
[CBSE PMT 2005] I I
OH
(a) (b) (a) II > III > I (b) III < I < II
Te
NO2
(c) I > II > III (d) I = II > III
le
OH OH
17. Carbocation which is most stable [BHU 2003]
gr
(c) (d)
CH3 (a) (b)
am
10. Which one is electrophilic addition [AMU (Engg.) 1999] (c) (d)
@
(a)
18. Tautomerism is exhibited by
(b)
C
(c)
(a) (b)
(d)
m
(c) (d)
11. A compound has 3 chiral carbon atoms. The number
is
of possible optical isomers it can have [DCE 2004] 19. Which of the following will have geometrical isomers
try
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5 Cl CH3
13. Number of isomers of is Cl
COOH
[CBSE PMT 1996; AFMC 1997; RPMT 2002; MP PMT 1997] CH3
(ia) (iia) HOOC
(a) 2 (b) 3 (iiia)
(c) (d)
(a) CH = CH – OH
26. In a reaction of the major product (> 60%)
is m-isomer, so the group Y is [AIIMS 1997; UPSEAT 2003]
(b) O O
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) O
27. Dehydrohalogenation in presence of is correctly
Te
O
represented by [Orissa JEE 2004]
Br Br
le
(d) O
(a) (b)
gr
O H H
OH– OH–
am
H H
C
23. Which one of the following represents eclipsed form (a) 3 (b) 6
of ethane
is
H (c) 7 (d) 10
try
H (c) (d)
rk
H H
(c) (d) None of these 30. Which of the following compounds are not arranged
H H in order of decreasing reactivity towards electrophilic
H substitution [DCE 2003]
(a) Fluoro benzene > chloro benzene > bromo
24. Which are the staggered forms of ethane
H H benzene
HH
H C (b) Phenol > n-propyl benzene > benzoic acid
(c) Chloro toluene > para-nitro toluene > 2-chloro-4-
H H C H
H H nitro toluene
1 H H 2 (d) Benzoic acid > phenol > n-propyl benzene
H 31. Most stable carbonium ion is [Pb. CET 2004]
H
H (a) (b)
H C H H
H
H H (c) (d)
C
3 4
H H H
32. Which one of the following species is most stable (a) (b)
[IIT-JEE 1995]
(c) (d)
(a)
41. Keto-enol tautomerism is found in
(c) (a)
(d)
(b)
33. Which of the following gives most stable carbocation
by dehydration [RPMT 2002]
(a) (c)
(b)
(c) (d)
(d)
42. Which of the following compounds will show
Te
(a) 3° < 2° < 1° (b) 3° > 2° > 1° (a) 2-butene (b) Propene
(c) 1° < 2° > 3° (d) 3° > 2° < 1° (c) 1-phenylpropene (d) 2-methyl-2-butene
gr
(a) (b)
is
(c)
try
(c) (d)
(d)
[IIT-JEE 1987; DPMT 1983; CPMT 1991;
pa
PMT 2001] .
gr
the correct explanation of the assertion. formed more easily than primary
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not carbonium ions.
_S
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false. stabilize tertiary carbonium ions.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true. 12. Assertion : Heterolytic fission involves the breaking
rk
activity.
21. Assertion : Same number of electron pairs are
C
(c) Tautomerism (d) Chain isomerism [DPMT 1982, 88; CPMT 1973, 75, 78, 84; IIT-JEE 1986;
4. Which of the following exhibits optical isomerism BHU 1984, 85; EAMCET 1993; MP PET 1995;
am
[BHU 1980; NCERT 1983; AIIMS 1992; RPET 1999; BHU 2000; AFMC 2002]
MNR 1993; MP PMT 1990, 94] (a) Methanol (b) Dimethyl ether
@
(a) Butanol-1 (b) Butanol-2 (c) Diethyl ether (d) Ethylene glycol
(c) Butene-1 (d) Butene-2 14. Due to the presence of an unpaired electron, free
C
(a) -hybridized state (b) -hybridized state (a) Chemically reactive (b) Chemically inactive
m
7. Heterolytic bond dissociation energy of alkyl halides 16. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the
follows the sequence [AMU 2000] nucleophiles
rk
(a)
(i) (ii)
(b)
(c)
(d) (iii) (iv)
8. The shape of carbonium is [AMU (Engg.) 1999]
(a) Planar (b) Pyramidal
is [AIEEE 2005]
(c) Linear (d) None of these
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
9. Which of the following compounds shows
(c) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
tautomerism
[MP PET 2001] 17. Which of the following is optically active [BHU 2005]
(SET -23)
sp
CH3
Te
H H
gr
CH3
am
and .
m
is
try
Cl
5. (a) The central carbon atom in carbonium ion is (+) and (–) forms
rk
and
17. (c) has a chiral carbon
H OH
CH3 OH
19. (b) , ,
le
gr
am
@
C
he
1. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with the molecular formula
C4H8 is
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
4. Which of the following will have least hindered rotation about carbon-carbon
bond?
Te
(a) (iv) > (iii)>(i) >(ii) (b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (ii) > (iii)> (i) > (iv) (d) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
_S
7. How many structural isomers are there of C4H10O that are ethers?
pa
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13. The isomers which can be converted into another form by rotation of the
molecule around single bond are
m
16. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+) – tartaric acid because it
has a positive
(a) Optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
(b) pH in organic solvent
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are
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
It is true that
(a) Only II and IV are chiral compounds
@
26. The total number of acyclic and cyclic isomers including stereoisomers possible
for the molecular formula, C5H10 is
is
30. Which of the following molecules will not show optical activity?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
31. Consider the following structures and pick up the right statement
Te
le
gr
am
(a) (Z)-4,6-Dimethyloct-4-en-3-one
try
(b) (E)-4,6-Dimethyloct-4-en-3-one
_S
(c) (Z)-3,5-Dimethyloct-4-en-6-one
(d) (E)-3,5-Dimethyloct-4-en-6-one
pa
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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Solution : -
le
1. Four alkenes:
gr
(iii) (trans-2-Butene)
@
C
(iv) (2-Methylpropene).
he
m
2. Addition of HBr to 2-pentyne gives two structural isomers (I) and (II)
is
try
_S
4. Because of the bigger size of Cl than H, the rotation about carbon-carbon single bond
in hexa chloroethane is more hindered than, in ethane or the other hand because of
the presence of double bond in ethylene, and triple bond in acetylene, the rotation
about carbon-carbon bond is highly hindered, Thus ethane has the least hindered
rotation.
6. Cyclohexane (iv) is non-planar and has chair conformation. In this conformation, the
bond angle are the normal tetrahedral angles (109º-28’) and thus has no
angle strain and hence is the most stable. The rest of the molecules are nearly planar
and hence their stability depends upon the angle strain in accordance with Baeyer’s
strain theory. Since cyclopropane has higher angle strain (24º– 44’) than cyclopentane
(0º – 44’), therefore, cyclopentane (iii) is more stable than cyclopropane (ii). Further,
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11. The two compounds are non-superimposable mirror images of each other and hence
are enantiomers.
12. Rotation of B through 180º within the plane of the paper gives D which is an
enantiomer of (A) .
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
13. Conformers.
is
14. The two compounds are identical since they have a plane of symmetry.
try
_S
15. Only DCH2CH2CH2Cl does not contain a chiral carbon and hence it is not chiral
pa
16. The configuration of the penultimate carbon of any optically active compound is
always correlated with D (+)-glyceraldehyde.
rk
17. The two compounds are non-superimposable mirror images of each other and hence
are enantiomers.
23. 1,1-Dichloro-1-pentene
24. Following the procedure outlined under ‘Golden Rule’ the absolute configuration is 2S,
3S.
Te
le
gr
am
28. Enantiomers have same m.p./b.p and refractive indices but rotate plane polarized
m
29. Compounds possessing one chiral carbon atom are always optically active.
_S
pa
30.
rk
31.
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32. The configuration about the double bond is Z and hence the correct name is (Z)-4, 6-
dimethyloct-4-en-3-one.
Te
le
35. In compound (d), the two identical atoms (H,H) or groups (OH,OH) lie on the same side
of the Fischer projection formula and hence it represents the erythro isomer.
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Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
South Delhi Centre : 58/1 Kalu Sarai, Opp. Sarvpriya Vihar, New Delhi - 110016, Ph. 46043741, 41828089
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1. Which of the following contains three pairs of electrons in the valence shell ?
(a) Carbocations (b) Carbanions
(c) Free radicals (d) None.
3. The compound in which C uses only its sp 3- hybrid orbitals for bond formation
is
(a) HCOOH (b) (H2N)2CO (c) (CH3)3COH (d) CH3CHO
is
gr
6. Which is the correct symbol relating the two Kekule structures of benzene?
@
7. When the hybridization state of carbon atom changes from sp 3 to sp2 and
he
(v)
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(a) I and IV (b) II and IV (c) I and III (d) II and III
le
gr
12. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-effect of the substitutents?
am
(a) (b)
is
(b) (d)
try
_S
16. Which of the following alkenes will react fastest with H 2 under catalytic
hydrogenation conditions?
(a) (b)
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(c) (d)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
@
C
(c) (d)
try
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25. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of –I-effect of the
substituent ?
(a) I-< Cl -< Br- < F- (b) RS - < R2N- < RO-
(c) (d)
26. Which of the following anions would be more stable than their corresponding
protonated species?
I. II.
Te
le
gr
III. IV.
am
I. II. III.
(a) I > II > III (b) II > III > I (c) III > I > II (d) II > I > III.
rk
29. In which of the following pairs of carbocations, the first carbocation is more
stable than the second?
(i) and
(ii) and
(iii) and
(iv) and
(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
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Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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Solution : -
le
3.
C
he
m
All bonds are -bonds and hence C uses only its sp 3-hybrid orbitals. In all other
is
compounds there is one C=O double bond, therefore, this carbon is sp2-hybridized
try
5. Homolylic fission of C—C bond gives free radicals in which carbon is sp2-
pa
hybridized.
rk
8. Hyperconjugation.
9. Only sp2- hybridized C-atoms of phenyl ring and CH 2=CH group has essentially planar
geometry. All the rest of the groups have sp 3- hybridized C- atoms and hence have
non- planar geometry.
10.
(a) (b)
Non –aromatic
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(c) (d)
Alicyclic Antiaromatic (conjugated 4 electrons)
11. II and III have delocalized six and hence are aromatic.
12. Greater the electronegativity, higher is the I-effect, i.e, – NR2 < – OR < – F.
13.
C2 –C3 bond has sp2-sp3 hybridization.
Te
le
14.
gr
am
16. During catalytic hydrogenation, the hydrogens are transferred from the catalyst to the
same side of the double bond, Evidently, smaller the number of R substituents, lesser
C
is the steric hindrance and hence faster is the rate of hydrogenation. Thus, option (a)
he
17. Due to – R-effect of the – CHO group, oxygen carries -charge while the terminal
is
18. As electronegativity of the atom decreases (F>O > N > C), its tendency to donate a pair
pa
20. As the electronegativity of the atom decreases, its nucleophilicity increases. Thus,
option (c) is correct.
23.
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24. Aromatic character increases as the resonance energy increases, Now resonance
energies decrease in the order : pyridine (125.5 kJ mol -1) > thiophene (117 kJ mol-1) >
pyrrole (88 kJ mol-1) > furan (71 kJ mol-1). Thus, option (c) is correct.
25. Option (a) is incorrect since the – I-effect of halogens follows the order : I <Br <Cl <F.
27. Carbocation (a) is antiaromatic and hence is least stable. Carbocation (b), (c) and (d)
are all secondary but (b) and (c) are aromatic. Further since (c) is more strained than
(b), therefore, (b) is the most stable carbocation.
II
le
Carbocation (III) is least stable due to electron withdrawing effect of the adjacent
carbonyl group while carbocation (I) is less stable than (II) because it is only stabilized
gr
by the + I-effect of the two CH3 groups. Thus,the overall order of stability is : II > I > III.
am
second.
C
he
m
is
In both the cases, +ve charge is dispersed due to resonance but in the second
try
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EXERCISE # 1
(MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
(3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH
Q.1 The inductive effect -
(1) implies the atom's ability to cause bond Q.7 Which of the following groups has the highest
polarization + I effect -
(2) increases with increase of distance (1) CH3 – (2) CH3CH2 –
(3) implies the transfer of lone pair of electrons (3) (CH3)2 CH – (4) (CH3)3 C –
from more electronegative atom to the
Q.8 Maximum –I effect is exerted by the group
lesser electronegative atom in a molecule
(1) C6H5 – (2) – OCH3
(4) implies the transfer of lone pair of electrons
(3) Cl (4) NO2
from lesser electronegative atom to the
more electronegative atom in a molecule Q.9 Zero inductive effect is exerted by -
(1) C6H5 – (2) H
Q.2 In which of the following compound is
(3) CH3 – (4) Cl
Te
(3) Nitroacetic acid (4) Cyanoacetic acid Q.12 Mesomeric effect takes part in -
try
Q.4 Arrange basic strength of the given compounds in (1) Saturated system
decreasing order - (2) Unsaturated system containing conjugated
_S
double bond.
(a) CH3–CH2–NH2
(3) Unsaturated system containing non conjugated
pa
(c) CHC–NH2
Q.13 Arrange their Acidic strength
(1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b
(3) c > b > a (4) b > c > a
(3) (4)
(1) III > IV > II > I (2) III > I > IV > II
(3) I < II < III < IV (4) IV > II > I > III (3) CH3– –CH3 (4) CH2=CH–
le
carbocations -
(1) (1) (2) CH3–
@
(2)
C
(3) (4)
he
(3)
m
carbocations -
try
(4)
(1) CH2= (2) CH3–
_S
(3) (4) Ph
Q.17 Which of the following pairs represent resonating
pa
structures is -
(I) (II)
(1) 180º location of NO2 and in I
R
108
(2) –NO2 opperate both –I and –M in I.
(3) –I in II is weaker than I
(1) (2)
(4) Due to steric hinderance
(b)
Te
(c)
le
(d) CH3–
gr
I II III IV
The relative stabilities of these carbocations are (1) I > II > III > IV
am
reason for it –
(3) CH2= (4) CH3–
m
hybridized
(3) C6H5O– < CH3COO– < CH3O– < HO–
(4) the anion of obtained by removal of proton
(4) CH3COO– < C6H5O– < HO– < CH3O–
pa
Q.29 Which of the following carbocation is most stable- from the acid molecule
rk
I II III
E
109
Q.34 What is the decreasing order of strength of the I II III
bases, , , , - (1) I < II < III (2) II < I < III
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (3) I < III < II (4) II < III < I
(1) IV > II > III > I (2) III > IV > II > I Q.40 Which of the following substituents will decrease
(3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > III > I > IV the acidity of phenol -
(1) –NO2 (2) –CN (3) –CH3 (4) –CHO
Q.35 Hyperconjugation occur due to overlaping of-
(1) M.O. with 's'
Q.41 Hyperconjugation is possible in which of the
(2) 'p' orbital with following species -
(3) M.O. with M.O.
(1) (2) C6H5–CH3
(4) None
(2) CH2=CH2 < CH3–CH=CH2 < (CH3)2C=CH2 acids has the highest Ka value -
is
try
(2)
pa
(3)
(4)
↳ 110
Q.45 Choose the most stable Carbocation Q.51 Consider the following ions -
(1) CH3–CH=CH–
net charge.
Q.47 Which of the following effect does not stabilises Q.53 Which of the following is not correct statement -
le
(4) All the above Q.54 Which one of the following is strongest
acid -
C
Q.48 Which of the following statement is correct about (1) 2-chloropentanoic acid
he
hybridisation
(2) sp2 hybridised but (–)ve charge is localised.
try
delocalised.
(4) sp3 hybridised and (–)ve charge is delocalised. (a) (b)
pa
(3) (4)
E
111
Q.61 What is the correct increasing order of bond
lengths of the bonds indicated as I, II, III and IV
in following compounds -
Q.57
Increasing order of stability is– (1) I < II < III < IV (2) II < III < IV < I
(1) I < III < II < IV (3) IV < II < III < I (4) IV < I < II < III
(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) III < IV < II < I Q.62 Most stable carbocation is -
(4) II < IV < III < I
(1) (2)
Q.58 Consider the following three halides -
(A) CH3–CH2–Cl (3) (4)
(B) CH2=CH–Cl
(C) C6H5–Cl Q.63 In which compound delocalisation is not possible -
Te
Arrange C–Cl bond length of these compound in (1) 2-Butene (2) 1, 3-Butadiene
decreasing order - (3) 1, 3, 5-Hexatriene (4) Benzene
le
will be -
he
(1) 1.54 Å
(c) Cl–CH2–NH2 (d) –CH2–NH2
(2) 1.3 Å
m
(e) NH3 (3) Less than 1.54 and greater than 1.33 Å
is
(1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (e) < (d)
(2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e)
_S
(4) (c) < (b) < (e) < (d) < (a)
electrons are -
Q.60 Which one of the carbanions is most stable?
rk
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) zero (4) 5
o
112
(c) (d) (1) It is a temporary effect
(2) It is the property of bond
Stability of these carbocations in decreasing order
(3) It takes place in presence of reagent, i.e.,
is -
electrophile or nucleophile
(1) d > c > a > b (2) d > c > b > a
(4) All are correct
(3) c > d > b > a (4) c > d > a > b
Q.73 The number of electrons present in the valence
Q.68 Consider the following compounds - shell of carbon of ion bearing +ve
charge :
(1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 4
Q.74 Which of the following is most stable alkene ?
(1)
Q.69 Which free radical is the most stable - Q.75 Homolytic fission of a hydrocarbon will
(1) (2) liberate -
@
produces -
is
(3) (4)
(1) C—C (2) C—O
(3) C—H (4) O—H
Q.72 Which statement is correct for electromeric effect - Q.79 The hybridisation of saturated carbanion is -
↳
113
(1) sp3 (2) sp2
(3) sp (4) All of these
Q.81 Hybridisation of R – is -
Q.83 Carbene is an -
gr
electrophilic in character -
(3) Triplet carbene (4) All of these
(a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion
C
nucleophile
Q.89 Which among the following compounds behave
(2) Nucleophiles are Lewis bases
try
(c) (d)
Q.86 Which among the following species is an
rk
↳114
EXERCISE # 2
(BRAIN TWISTERS)
Q.1 Which is most acidic compound - Q.6 Which is most stable carbocation -
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
(1)
gr
am
(3) (4)
(2)
@
(1) (2)
(4)
m
is
(3) (4)
Q.8 Which is most basic compound –
try
(1) (2)
pa
(1) (2)
rk
(3) (4)
&
115
(2)
(3) (4)
(3)
(2)
le
acidic strength
am
(3)
@
C
(4)
he
stability –
try
(1)
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) None of these
.
116
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Q.17 CH2=CH–CH=CH2
1 2 3 4
The bond between C2 – C3 is shorter than single
bond because -
(1) +I effect Q.21 Which is most stable carbocation –
(2) –I effect
(3) M effect (1) (2)
(4) Hyper conjugative effect
(3) (4)
gr
am
I II
@
ammonium ion.
he
Q.19 Formic acid is considered as a resonance hybrid Q.23 The correct order of increasing dissociation
_S
I II
III IV
Which of the following order is correct for the
stability of the four contributing structures?
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III
(3) I < III < II < IV (4) I > IV > III > II
(1) II < IV < I < III (2) IV < III < I < II
(3) IV < II < I < III (4) IV < I < II < III
⑳
117
Q.24 Which of the following shows the correct order of
decreasing acidity-
(4) PhSO3H > PhCO2H > PhOH > PhCH2OH (3) III (4) All are equally basic
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) III > I > IV > II (1) A is more basic than B
gr
resonance
try
Q.27
(2) the molecule is cyclic and planar having
rk
Column A Column B
Bond Dissociation Energy (kJ/mol)
(a) (i) 20
o 118
(b) (ii) 100 (2) NO3 > CN > RCOO > RO > HO
(3) HO > CN > RCOO > NO3 > RO
(c) (iii) 30
(4) NO3 > CN > RCOO RO HO
(d) (iv) 50
Q.38 In electrophilic
(1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i)
(1) (2)
Q.39 Which of the following is not a pair of tautomers
-
Te
(1) and
gr
value -
oxalic acid, succinic acid,
I II
@
III IV
(1) III < II < I < IV (2) II < III > I > IV
he
(3) I > III > II > IV (4) II > I > III < IV
m
(4) and
pa
I II III IV
rk
↳ 119
Q.41 Consider the following compounds (1) and
(III)
I II III
(1) I > II > III (2) II < III < I
Te
(IV)
(3) III < II > I (4) II > I > III
le
Q.43 Which of the following acid-base reaction is not The correct order of decreasing basicity of the
above compound is -
gr
feasible -
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > IV > III
am
(1) (3) III > IV > II > I (4) II > I > III > IV
@
(III) (IV)
is
(1) II < I < IV < III (2) IV < II < I < III
try
(3) (3) I < II < IV < III (4) IV < I < II < III
_S
following carbocations is -
rk
>
Q.44 Which is an aromatic compound –
>
(3) (4)
Q.45 Which of the following pairs of structures is not a (3) > >
pair of resonating structures –
Nog
120
the order of decreasing stability is -
>
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > IV > I > II
(3) IV > I > II > III (4) IV > III > II > I
> Product is -
(3)
(3) < <
le
gr
(1) (2)
he
(2) >
try
> >
pa
>
(3) (4)
(4) > >
Q.55 In the reaction
>
cis-2-butene Isobutene
(3) (4)
(II) (IV)
Ma
121
Q. 56 Which is correct among the following -
(3) (4)
(A) is more stable than
(1) A, C (2) B, C, D Q.61 Select the most stable carboncation among the
gr
following -
(3) A,B, C (4) A, B, D
am
(1)
(2)
@
C
(1) (2)
(4)
is
try
(3) (4)
_S
(3) and
(1) (2)
(4) and
no
122
(3) is less stable than
(1) (2)
(a) (b)
gr
(c) (d)
(1)
try
(3) II > III > I > IV (4) II > III > IV > I
pa
(4)
(2)
(4) All the above
(3)
Q.73 Which compound has most active hydrogen atom ?
(4)
(1) (2)
Q.70
Te
(3) (4)
@
(1)
m
is
(2)
try
are respectively
_S
(1) sp2, sp3 and sp2 (2) sp2, sp3 and sp3
pa
(3)
(3) sp3, sp3 and sp3 (4) sp2, sp2 and sp2
rk
(1)
t
124
Q.76 Which of the following represent the decreasing
order of Ka values ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1 )
(3) (4)
am
(2)
@
C
he
(3)
m
(4)
(1)
_S
pa
'
(2)
Q.78 The most stable carbocation is -
rk
(3)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(4)
.125
EXERCISE # 3A
(AIPMT & AIIMS QUESTIONS)
Q.11 Among the following the dissociation constant is
Q.1 Polarization in acrolein as –[AIPMT-2000] highest for – [AIIMS-2004]
(1) C6H5OH (2) C6H5CH2OH
(1) = –CHO (2) = –CHO
(3) CH3CCH (4) CH3NH3+Cl–
(3) =CH– (4) =CH– Q.12 Among the following the aromatic compound
Q.2 Correct order of stability is – [AIPMT-2000] is – [AIIMS-2004]
(1) 1-butene > trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene
(2) trans-2-butene > 1-butene > cis-2-butene (1) (2)
(3) trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene > 1-butene
(4) cis-2-butene > trans-2-butene > 1-butene
(3) (4)
Q.3 and are –
Te
(1) (2)
Q.4 The correct order of reactivity towards the
gr
(4) RCOOH > HCCH > HOH > ROH (3) (4) ClCH2CH2OH
is
[AIIMS-2003]
(1) C6H5CH2NH2 (2) C6H5CH2NHCH3
(3) O2NCH2NH2 (4) CH3NHCHO Q.15 Pyridine is less basic than triethylamine
_S
because – [AIIMS-2005]
Q.7 The o-/p- directing group among the following is (1) Pyridine has aromatic character
pa
Q.8 Among the following strongest acid is – (4) In pyridine, lone pair of nitrogen is
[AIIMS-2003] delocalized
(1) CH3COOH (2) C6H5COOH
(3) m-CH3OC6H4COOH(4) p-CH3OC6H4COOH Q.16 Which of the following is more basic than aniline –
Q.9 Which of the following is least reactive in a [AIPMT-2006]
nucleophilic substitution reaction –[AIPMT-2004] (1) Diphenyl amine (2) Triphenyl amine
(1) CH2=CHCl (2) CH3CH2Cl (3) p-nitro aniline (4) Benzyl amine
(3) CH2=CHCH2Cl (4) (CH3)2C–Cl
Q.17 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most
Q.10 The strongest base among the following is – favoured in – [AIPMT-2006]
[AIIMS-2004]
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4)
Ne
127
Q.18 Which of the following presents the correct order
of the acidic strength in the given compounds –
[AIPMT-2007]
(1) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH>BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (1) (2)
(2) BrCH2COOH> ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH >
CH3COOH
(3) FCH2COOH >ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH >
CH3COOH (3) (4)
(4) CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
Q.26 Which one of the following is most reactive
Q.19 For the following : [AIPMT-2007] towards electrophilic reagent ? [AIPMT-2015]
(a) I– (b) Cl– (c) Br–
the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be –
(1) Cl– < Br– < I– (2) I– < Cl– < Br– (1) (2)
– – –
(3) Br < Cl < I (4) I– < Br– Cl–
Q.21 Which one of the following is most reactive Correct order of their reactivity in electrophilic
am
(1) (2)
Q.28 In the free-radical halogenation of alkanes, chain
C
propagating step is -
(a) Cl2 2Cl
he
(3) (4 )
Q.22 The stability of carbanions in the following – (b) CH4 + Cl CH3Cl + H
(c) CH4 + Cl CH3 + HCl
m
(c) (d)
is in the order of – [AIPMT-2008] following phenols is -
(1) (d) > (b) > (c) > (a) (2) (a) > (c) > (b) > (d)
_S
(3) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d) (4) (b) > (c) > (d) > (a) (a) C2H5OH < < <
pa
(3) (4)
B
128
r
129
rk
pa
_S
try
is
m
he
C
@
am
< C2H5OH
gr
le
Te
<
<
(d)
EXERCISE # 3B
(OTHER EXAM QUESTIONS)
[RPMT-2005]
(1) Methyl chloride (2) Allyl chloride
Q.1 The number of electrons in benzene are –
[RPMT-2000] (3) Ethyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride
(1) 8e– (2) 3e–
(3) 6e– (4) 2e–
Q.7 Which of the following has maximum pKa –
Q.2 Which of the following structure is wrong –
[RPMT-2006]
(1) (1) CH2FCOOH (2) CH2ClCOOH
[RPMT-2001] (3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH
(2) Q.8 In the following benzyl/alkyl system
R – CH = CH2 or
Te
3
[AIEEE-2002]
gr
2
he
(4) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2 (1) (d) > (c) > (b) > (a)
Q.11 Rate of the reaction [AIEEE-2005] (2) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
(3) (c) > (b) > (a) > (d)
R– + Nu R– +Z (4) (b) > (c) > (a) > (d)
is fastest when Z is - Q.15 Amongst the following the most basic compound
(1) Cl (2) NH2 is– [AIEEE-2005]
(3) OC2H5 (4) OCOCH3 (1) aniline (2) benzylamine
(3) p–nitroaniline (4) acetanilide
Te
< (CH3)2
(c) p – NO2C6H4COOH
(2) (C6H5)2 < (C6H5)3 < (CH3)3
@
(d) m – NO2C6H4COOH
< (CH3)2
C
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > d > c > a (3) (CH3)2 < (CH3)3 < (C6H5)3
m
(3) b > d > a > c (4) b > c > d > a < (C6H5)2
is
Q.13 Which of the following is the strongest base - (4) (CH3)2 < (CH3)3 < (C6H5)2
try
< (C6H5)3
(1) [AIEEE-2004]
_S
(2)
The decreasing order of the rate of the above
rk
[AIEEE-2006]
(4)
(1) D > C > B > A (2) A > B > C > D
Q.14 The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among
(3) B > D > C > A (4) D > C > A > B
the nucleophiles [AIEEE-2005]
Q.18 The correct order of increasing acid strength of
(a) (b) CH3O– (c) CN– the compounds- [AIEEE-2006]
(a) CH3CO2H (b) MeOCH2CO2H
B
131
(1) d < a < c < b (2) d < a < b < c (2) p-NO2 – C6H4NH2
(3) a < d < c < b (4) b < d < a < c
(3) m-NO2 – C6H4NH2
Q.19 Which one of the following is the strongest base (4) C6H5CH2NH2
in aqueous solution ? [AIEEE-2007]
(1) Trimethylamine (2) Aniline Q.24 Which of the following has the highest
(1) (2)
substitution
gr
[AIEEE-2007]
(3) C > A > B > D (4) A > B > C > D
is
(1) (CH3)2 > > C6H5 > (CH3)3 Q.27 Identify the correct order of reactivity in
try
1 2 3 4
Q.22 An aromatic molecule will - [IIT - 1999] (1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (4) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
(1) have 4n electrons
(2) have (4n + 2) electrons
Q.28 Which of the following acids has the smallest
(3) be planar
dissociation constant - [IIT - 2002]
(4) be cyclic
(1) CH3CHFCOOH
Q.23 Amongst the following, the most basic compound
(2) FCH2CH2COOH
is - [IIT - 2000]
(1) C6H5NH2 (3) BrCH2CH2COOH
e
132
(4) CH3CHBrCOOH
Q.29 Identify the correct order of boiling points of the (3) (4)
following compounds - [IIT - 2002]
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2CHO,
(I) (II)
CH3CH2CH2COOH
Q.33 Order of rate of reaction of following compound
(III)
with phenyl magnesium bromide is - [IIT - 2004]
(1) I > II > III (2) III > I > II
(3) I > III > II (4) III > II > I
Ph – – Ph Me – – H Me – – Me
Q.30 Which of the following hydrocarbons has the (I) (II) (III)
lowest dipole moment - [IIT - 2002] (1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I
Te
(1) H2C=CH–CN (2) H2C=C=CH–CH3 (1) x > y > z (2) z > y > x
(3) y > z > x (4) x > z > y
C
[IIT - 2005]
m
(1)
is
(2)
try
(4)
Q.36 Among the following, the least stable resonance
pa
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
B
133
Q.37 The correct acidity order of the following is-
[IIT - 2009]
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2)
(1) RCOO < HCC < NH2 < R
(2) RCOO < HCC < R < NH2
(3) R < HCC < RCOO < NH2
(4) RCOO < NH2 < HCC < R
·134
Q.46 The correct order of acid strength of the
following compounds is : [AIEEE-2011]
A. Phenol
B. p-Cresol
C. m-Nitrophenol
(3)
D. p-Nitrophenol
(1) D > C > A >B
(2) B > D > A >C
(3) A > B > D >C
(4) C > B > A >D
(4)
Te
compounds is [AIEEE-2011]
gr
(2) HCOOH
(3) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CO2H Q.47 The non aromatic compound among the
following is - [AIEEE-2011]
@
(1) (2)
he
m
(3) (4)
Q.45 Consider thiol anion (RS ) and alkoxy anion
is
correct ? [AIEEE-2011]
(1) RS is less basic but more nucleophilic
_S
than RO
pa
mag
135
EXERCISE # 4
(ASSERTION – REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)
These questions consist of two statements Q.5 Assertion : Cyclopentadienyl anion is much
each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While more stable than allyl anion.
(AIIMS-2005)
answering these Questions you are required
Reason : Cyclopentadienyl anion aromatic in
to choose any one of the following four
nature
responses. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are true &
the Reason is a correct explanation of the Q.6 Assertion : In the compound,
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true the most electronegative
but Reason is not a correct explanation carbon is II.
Te
of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is Reason : Carbon atom II has more s-character.
false.
le
Q.2 Assertion : Tropylium cation is aromatic in Q.8 Assertion : CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH have
m
delocalized in pyrole.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.13 Assertion : Allyl free radical is more stable
le
gr
Reason : Heterolytic fission occurs readily in Q.21 Assertion : Methylene has sextet of electrons
polar covalent bonds. around carbon.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Reason : Methylene behaves as nucleophile.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.16 Assertion : tert-Butoxide is a stronger base than
OH or C2H5 ion but is a much poor Q.22 Assertion : Acidity of the C–H bond decreases
nucleophile. in the order
Reason : A negatively charged ions is always HC CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3
more powerful nucleophile than its conjugate Reason : Acidity of the C–H bond increases as
the electronegativity of the carbon to which it is
acid.
attached increases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
ne
137
Q.23 Assertion : Benzyl chloride is more reactive
Q.26 Assertion : Aniline is more reactive than
than p-chloro toluene towards aqueous NaOH.
acetanilide (PhNHCOMe) for electrophilic
Reason : The C–Cl bond in benzyl chloride is
substitution.
more polar than C–Cl bond in p-chloro toluene.
Reason : Intermediate anion of aniline is more
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
stable.
Q.24 Assertion : CH3CH2OCH2Cl reacts faster when (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
treated with water than
CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH2Cl. Q. 27 Assertion : CHF3 is less acidic than CHCl3.
Reason : Carbonium ion formed by the Reaction : CCl3 is more stable than CF 3 due
ionisation of CH3CH2OCH2Cl is stabilized by to d-orbital resonance.
resonance. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
passe
138
Q.23 Assertion : Benzyl chloride is more reactive
Q.26 Assertion : Aniline is more reactive than
than p-chloro toluene towards aqueous NaOH.
acetanilide (PhNHCOMe) for electrophilic
Reason : The C–Cl bond in benzyl chloride is
substitution.
more polar than C–Cl bond in p-chloro toluene.
Reason : Intermediate anion of aniline is more
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
stable.
Q.24 Assertion : CH3CH2OCH2Cl reacts faster when (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
treated with water than
CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH2Cl. Q. 27 Assertion : CHF3 is less acidic than CHCl3.
Reason : Carbonium ion formed by the Reaction : CCl3 is more stable than CF 3 due
ionisation of CH3CH2OCH2Cl is stabilized by to d-orbital resonance.
resonance. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
-
Q.25 Assertion : p-Chloro aniline and anilinium
hydrochloride can be distinguished by AgNO3.
Reason : p-Chloro aniline is less basic than
aniline.
2. Chapter
Te
Sterochemistry
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
138
STUDY PACKAGE FOR IIT - JEE
Level – 1
1. CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE
OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Multiple Choice Question
(a) 2, 2, 3, 3- Tetramethylpentane
(b) 2, 2-Dimethylpentane
@
(c) 2, 2, 3-Trimethylpentane
(d) 2-Methylpentane.
C
he
substituent, X is
(a) Homocyclic but not aromatic (b) Aromatic but not homocyclic
(c) Homocyclic and aromatic (d) Heterocyclic and aromatic
(c) (d)
(a) 4-Hydroxy-1-methylpentanal
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(b) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylpent -2-en-1–al
(c) 2-Hydroxy-4-methylpent-3-en-5-al
(d) 2-Hydroxy-3-methylpent-2-en-5-al
(a) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-5-en-1-yne
gr
(b) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-1-yn-5-ene
am
(c) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-3-methylhept-2-en-6-yne
(d) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-3-methylhept-6-yn-2-ene
@
19. The IUPAC name of the compound having the molecular formula
C
Cl3C-CH2CHO is
he
25. Vinylcarbinol is
(a) HO—CH2—CH = CH2 (b) CH3CH(OH) = CH2
(c) CH3—CH = CH—OH (d) CH3—C(CH2OH) = CH2
Te
le
ethylbutanoate
_S
(b)
pa
rk
(c)
(d)
2-methyl-3-pentanone
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compound?
am
7. Two elements X (atomic weight = 75) and Y (atomic weight = 16) combine
to give a compound having 75.8% X. The formula of the compound is
(a) XY (b) X2Y (c) X2Y2 (d) X2Y3.
11. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dil HNO 3 before testing for halogens
because
(a) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3
(b) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3
(c) Ag2S is Soluble in HNO3
(d) AgCN is soluble is HNO3
14. A compound with empirical formula CH 2O has a vapour density of 30. Its
C
molecular formula is
he
17. Which of the following compounds does not show Lassaigne’s test for
rk
nitrogen ?
(a) Urea (b) Hydrazine
(c) Phenylhydrazine (d) Azobenzene
26. Two organic compounds A and B, both containing only C and H yield, On
rk
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3. ISOMERISM AND STEREOCHEMISTRY OF ORGANIC
COMPOUNDS
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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1. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with the molecular
formula C4H8 is
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
2. How many chain isomers could be obtained from the alkane C 6H14 ?
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Seven
6. Which of the following will have least hindered rotation about carbon-
C
carbon bond?
he
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(a) (iv) > (iii)>(i) >(ii) (b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (ii) > (iii)> (i) > (iv) (d) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
12. One recently discovered allotrope of carbon (e.g.C 60) is commonly known
Te
as
le
14. How many structural isomers are there of C 4H10O that are ethers?
C
15. Which organic structure among the following is not an isomer of the
m
compound ?
is
16. In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformation of
pa
ethane ?
rk
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18. The process of separation of racemic modification into-d-and
l-enantiomers is called
(a) Resolution (b) Dehydration
(c) Revolution (d) Dehydrohalogenation
25. The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be produced during
monochlorination of 2-methylbutane is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
28. The isomers which can be converted into another form by rotation of the
molecule around single bond are
(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Conformers
(c) Enantiomers (d) Diastereomers
shell ?
m
2. The bonds between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound
try
(a) sp2 and sp2 (b) sp3 and sp (c) sp and sp2 (d) sp and sp
pa
is
gr
(a) sp -sp
3 3
(b) sp2-sp3 (c) sp-sp2 (d) sp3-sp.
am
12. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C 8H10. The
he
hybridization of the carbon atoms from one end of the chain to the other
m
are respectively sp3, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp and sp.
is
14. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation (carbonium ion ) ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. Which one of the following has the smallest heat of hydrogenation per
mole?
(a) 1-Butene (b) trans-2-Butene
(c) cis-2-Butene (d) 1, 3-Butadiene.
16. Which is the correct symbol relating the two Kekule structures of
benzene?
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
17. When the hybridization state of carbon atom changes from sp 3 to sp2 and
finally to sp, the angle between the hybridized orbitals
(a) decreases gradually (b) decreases considerably
(c) is not affected (d) increases progressively
18. The maximum number of carbon atoms arranged linearly in the molecule,
CH3-C C-CH=CH2 is
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
structures ?
am
(d) Contributing structures are less stable than the resonance hybrid
he
21. In which of the compounds given below is there more than one kind of
m
(a) (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
pa
(v)
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24. The bond length between sp3-hybridized carbon and other carbon atom is
minimum in
(a) Propane (b) Propyne (c) Propene (d) Butane
(a) I and IV (b) II and IV (c) I and III (d) II and III
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Answer Keys
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1. CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE
OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Answer Key
Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans. Q.No. Ans.
1. c 11. b 21. b
2. a 12. a 22. b
3. d 13. c 23. d
4. c 14. c 24. d
5. b 15. c 25. a
6. b 16. a 26. d
7. b 17. c 27. b
8. a 18. a 28. c
Te
9. a 19. a 29. c
10. b 20. c 30. a
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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2. PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERIZATION
OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Answers Key
10. C 20. A
-
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
Answer Key
rk
-
9. D 19. C
Te
10. C 20. A
le
3. Chapter
gr
am
Chemical Bonding
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
Answer Key
rk
Electrovalent bonding
.
[CPMT 1972; NCERT 1976; DPMT 1996]
gr
Ionic solids have negative vapour pressure. (a) Energy is released and ionic bond is formed
(b) Energy is released and a covalent bond is formed
C
(a) (b)
polarising power of is more than that of .
try
(c) (d)
Similarly is more covalent than .
4. The electronic configuration of four elements L, P, Q
_S
Boron forms the maximum number of electron and R are given in brackets
pa
Roughly each lone pair decreases the bond angle by The formulae of ionic compounds that can be formed
2.5°. between these elements are [NCERT 1983]
(a) and (b)
Greater the number of the lone pairs at the two
and
bonding atoms, greater is the repulsion between
(c) and (d)
them and weaker is the bond.
and
The actual number of s- and p-electrons present in
5. Electrovalent compound's [MP PMT 1984]
the outermost shell of the element is called
(a) Melting points are low
maximum covalency of that atom.
(b) Boiling points are low
The hydrogen bonds are tetrahedral in their (c) Conduct current in fused state
directions and not planar. (d) Insoluble in polar solvent
6. A electrovalent compound is made up of
The hydrogen bond is stronger in HF and persists [CPMT 1978, 81; MNR 1979]
(a) Electrically charged molecules compounds formed from their combination will be [IIT
(b) Neutral molecules 1980]
(c) Neutral atoms (a) (b)
(d) Electrically charged atoms or group of atoms (c) (d)
7. Electrovalent bond formation depends on
16. In the formation of from and [CPMT
(a) Ionization energy (b) Electron affinity 1985]
(c) Lattice energy (d) All the three above (a) Sodium and chlorine both give electrons
8. In the following which substance will have highest
(b) Sodium and chlorine both accept electrons
boiling point [NCERT 1973; MP PMT 1990]
(c) Sodium loses electron and chlorine accepts
(a) (b)
electron
(c) (d)
(d) Sodium accepts electron and chlorine loses
9. An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine electron
atom accepts one electron. This result the formation 17. Which of the following is an electrovalent linkage
of sodium chloride molecule. This type of molecule will [CPMT 1974; DPMT 1984, 91; AFMC 1988]
be
(a) (b)
Te
(c) Electrovalent (d) Matallic bond 18. Electrovalent compounds do not have [CPMT 1991]
gr
10. Formula of a metallic oxide is The formula of its (a) High M.P. and Low B.P.(b) High dielectric
constant
am
forms cation
(a) (b) (c) The process is accompanied by a positive heat of
m
solution
(c) (d)
(d) Water decreases the interionic attraction in the
is
melting and boiling points The tendency to form electrovalent bond is largest in
13. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon [MNR 1987, 95]
[AIEEE 2005] (a) A (b) B
(a) Charge on the ion only (c) C (d) D
(b) Size of the ion only 21. Chloride of metal is . The formula of its
(c) Packing of ions only phosphate will be [CPMT 1979]
(d) Charge on the ion and size of the ion
(a) (b)
14. In the given bonds which one is most ionic
[EAMCET 1980] (c) (d)
(a) (b) 22. The phosphate of a metal has the formula .
(c) (d) The formula of its nitrate will be
15. Element is strongly electropositive and is strongly [CPMT 1971; MP PMT 1996]
electronegative. Both element are univalent, the (a) (b)
(c) (d) [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1972; MP PMT 1995]
(a) (b)
23. In the transition of atoms to ions there is a
decrease in the [CPMT 1972] (c) (d)
(a) Number of valency electrons 31. Ionic bonds are usually formed by combination of
(b) Atomic weight elements with [CBSE PMT 1993; MP PMT 1994]
(c) Atomic number (a) High ionisation potential and low electron affinity
(d) Equivalent weight (b) Low ionisation potential and high electron affinity
24. Phosphate of a metal M has the formula (c) High ionisation potential and high electron affinity
(d) Low ionisation potential and low electron affinity
The formula for its sulphate would be
32. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the
[CPMT 1973; MP PMT 1996]
presence of [IIT 1981]
(a) (b)
(a) Free electrons
(c) (d) (b) Free ions
1987]
The formula of its chloride would be
gr
(a) (b)
[NCERT 1974; CPMT 1977]
am
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
26. Sodium chloride easily dissolves in water. This is
(c) (d)
@
because
[NCERT 1972; BHU 1973] 34. A number of ionic compounds e.g.
C
and
(c) Hydrolysed (d) Hydrated
[MP PMT 1987; CPMT 1976]
rk
41. Among the bonds formed by a chlorine atom with (a) (b)
Te
(c) (d)
(c) Decreases slowly (d) Remains the same
42. Which of the following is least soluble [CPMT 1989]
52. An element X with the electronic configuration
@
43. Which of the following halides has maximum melting (a) (b)
point
m
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
53. Two element have electronegativity of 1.2 and 3.0.
is
(c) (d) Bond formed between them would be [CPMT 1982; DCE
try
solvents of sulphanilic acid are due to its ...... (a) Ionic (b) Polar covalent
structure. [IIT 1994] (c) Co-ordinate (d) Metallic
pa
(a) Simple ionic (b) Bipolar ionic 54. Which of the following is least ionic [MP PET 2002]
(c) Cubic (d) Hexagonal
rk
(a) (b)
45. Out of the following, which compound will have
(c) (d)
electrovalent bonding
(a) Ammonia (b) Water 55. Which type of bonding exists in and
(c) Calcium chloride (d) Chloromethane respectively [RPET 2000]
46. The force which holds atoms together in an (a) Ionic, ionic (b) Ionic, covalent
electrovalent bond is (c) Covalent, ionic (d) Coordinate, ionic
(a) Vander Waal's force 56. An atom with atomic number 20 is most likely to
(b) Dipole attraction force combine chemically with the atom whose atomic
(c) Electrostatic force of attraction number is
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) (b)
gr
(c) 6 (d) 10
(c) Diamond (d)
am
(c) and (d) and The element that would most readily form a diatomic
he
64. Which of the following has highest melting point 4. In covalency [CPMT 1974, 76, 78, 81; AFMC 1982]
_S
65. Which of the following statements is not true for ionic (d) None of the above
compounds [RPET 2003] 5. Which compound is highest covalent
(a) High melting point (a) (b)
(b) Least lattice energy (c) (d) LiI
(c) Least solubility in organic compounds 6. The nature of bonding in graphite is
[DPMT 1986; CPMT 1986]
(d) Soluble in water
(a) Covalent (b) Ionic
66. Electrolytes are compound containing [MADT Bihar
(c) Metallic (d) Coordinate
1981]
7. Which of the following substances has giant covalent
(a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond
structure [DPMT 1985, 86; NCERT 1975]
(c) Coordinate bond (d) Hydrogen bond
(a) Iodine crystal (b) Solid
67. Which of the following hydrides are ionic [Roorkee
1999] (c) Silica (d) White phosphorus
8. With which of the given pairs CO2 resembles [BHU 2005]
(a) (b)
(a) HgCl2, C2H2 (b) HgCl2, SnCl4
(c) C2H2, NO2 (d) N2O and NO2 (c) Water (d) Brass
9. The electron pair which forms a bond between two 19. Indicate the nature of bonding in diamond
similar non-metallic atoms will be [IIT 1986] [EAMCET 1980; BHU 1996; KCET 2000]
(a) Dissimilar shared between the two
(a) Covalent (b) Ionic
(b) By complete transfer from one atom to other
(c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogen
(c) In a similar spin condition
(d) Equally shared in between the two 20. Octet rule is not valid for the molecule
10. For the formation of covalent bond, the difference in [IIT 1979; MP PMT 1995]
the value of electronegativities should be [EAMCET (a) (b)
1982]
(a) Equal to or less than 1.7 (b) More than 1.7 (c) (d)
(c) 1.7 or more (d) None of these 21. Which of the following compounds are covalent
11. Which type of bond is formed between similar atoms [IIT 1980; MLNR 1982]
(a) Ionic (b) Covalent
(a) (b)
(c) Coordinate (d) Metallic
12. Covalent compounds are generally ...... in water (c) (d)
Te
[CPMT 1987]
22. Indicate the nature of bonding in and
(a) Soluble (b) Insoluble
le
13. Which one is the electron deficient compound [AIIMS (a) Covalent in and electrovalent in
am
1982]
(b) Electrovalent in both and
(a) (b)
(c) Covalent in both and
@
(c) (d)
14. Which among the following elements has the (d) Electrovalent in and covalent in
C
(a) (b) electron dot symbol for the element is [NCERT 1973;
(c) (d)
m
CPMT 2003]
15. Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In (a) (b)
is
(b) Kinetic energy is lowered 25. The covalent compound has the ionic character
(c) Electronic motion ceases as
(d) Energy is absorbed [EAMCET 1980]
17. A bond with maximum covalent character between (a) The electronegativity of hydrogen is greater than
non-metallic elements is formed [NCERT 1982] that of chlorine
(a) Between identical atoms (b) The electronegativity of hydrogen is equal to that
(b) Between chemically similar atoms of chlorine
(c) Between atoms of widely different (c) The electronegativity of chlorine is greater than
electronegativities that of hydrogen
(d) Between atoms of the same size (d) Hydrogen and chlorine are gases
18. Amongst the following covalent bonding is found in 26. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character
[CPMT 1973]
is represented by [CBSE PMT 2005]
27. Bond energy of covalent bond in water is (d) High melting points and high boiling points
(c) Pseudo solid (d) Does not exist and of oxygen. The atomic mass of iodine is
127 and that of oxygen is 16. Which of the following is
29. A covalent bond is likely to be formed between two
the formula of the compound
elements which [MP PMT 1987]
[CPMT 1981]
(a) Have similar electronegativities
Te
(a) (b)
(b) Have low ionization energies
(c) (d)
le
(b) Transferred fully from one atom to another 39. Highest covalent character is found in [EAMCET 1992]
C
31. The valency of phosphorus in is [DPMT 1984] 40. Among the following which property is commonly
is
32. Which of the following substances has covalent (b) High electrical conductance
_S
[AMU 1985]
(a) Germanium (b) Sodium chloride 41. Atoms in the water molecule are linked by [MP PAT
rk
1996]
(c) Solid neon (d) Copper
(a) Electrovalent bond
33. The covalency of nitrogen in is [CPMT 1987]
(b) Covalent bond
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) Coordinate covalent bond
(c) 4 (d) 5 (d) Odd electron bond
34. Hydrogen chloride molecule contains a [CPMT 1984] 42. Which is the correct electron dot structure of
(a) Covalent bond (b) Double bond molecule
be (a) 2 (b) 3
[MP PET/PMT 1998] (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) (b) 52. Which of the following substances when dissolved in
water will give a solution that does not conduct
(c) (d) electricity
45. Which of the following statements regarding covalent [JIPMER 1999]
bond is not true [MP PET/PMT 1998] (a) Hydrogen chloride (b) Potassium hydroxide
Te
(a) The electrons are shared between atoms (c) Sodium acetate (d) Urea
(b) The bond is non-directional 53. Which of the following atoms has minimum covalent
le
(a) B (b) C
46. If the electronic configuration of and (c) N (d) Si
that of the formula of the compound is 54. Boron form covalent compound due to [Pb. PMT 2000]
@
energy
he
(c) (d) (c) Lower ionization energy (d) Both (a) and (b)
configurations
47. The table shown below gives the bond dissociation
is
(a) (b)
240
rk
(c) (d)
328
56. Covalent compounds have low melting point because
276
[KCET 2002]
485
(a) Covalent bond is less exothermic
(a) A (b) B
(b) Covalent molecules have definite shape
(c) C (d) D
(c) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond
48. If a molecule has a triple bond, then will have
(d) Covalent molecules are held by weak Vander
the electronic configuration [CET Pune 1998]
Waal’s force of attraction
(a) (b)
57. p and n-type of semiconductors are formed due to
(c) (d) [UPSEAT 2002]
49. Which of the following compounds does not follow the (a) Covalent bonds (b) Metallic bonds
octet rule for electron distribution [CET Pune 1998]
(c) Ionic bonds (d) Co-ordinate bond
(a) (b)
58. Which of the following is Lewis acid [RPET 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) (b) (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(c) (d)
69. Number of electrons in the valence orbit of nitrogen in
59. Among the species : an ammonia molecule are [MH CET 2004]
(a) 8 (b) 5
HCHO which has the weakest carbon-
(c) 6 (d) 7
oxygen bond 70. Hydrogen atoms are held together to form hydrogen
[Kerala PMT 2004] molecules by [AMU 1982]
61. The acid having bond is (a) Electrostatic force (b) Electrical attraction
[IIT JEE Screening 2004] (c) Co-valent bond force (d) Non-covalent bond
le
force
(a) (b)
gr
1973]
62. The following salt shows maximum covalent character (a) (b)
[UPSEAT 2004] (c) (d)
@
(a) (b) 74. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule
C
(a) (b)
63. Which type of bond is present in molecule
m
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond 75. Which of the following statements is correct for
try
(c) bond is weaker than bond (d) Valency electrons are attracted
rk
66. The following element forms a molecule with eight its Co-ordinate or Dative bonding
own weight atoms [MHCET 2004]
(a) (b) 1. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair
(c) (d) of electrons on the central atom? [IIT 2005]
(a) [ClO3] (b) XeF4
67. In , the two oxygen atoms have
(c) SF4 (d) [I3]
(a) Electrovalent bond (b) Covalent bond
(c) Coordinate bond (d) No bond 2. A simple example of a coordinate covalent bond is
exhibited by
68. Carbon has a valency of 2 in and 4 in and
[NCERT 1984]
. Its valency in acetylene is [NCERT 1971]
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) 4
12. Which of the following compounds has coordinate
(c) (d)
(dative) bond [RPET 2003]
3. The bond that exists between and is called
(a) (b)
[AFMC 1982; MP PMT 1985; MNR 1994;
KCET 2000; MP PET 2001; UPSEAT 2001] (c) (d)
(a) Electrovalent (b) Covalent 13. The structure of orthophosphoric acid is [KCET 2003]
(c) Coordinate (d) Hydrogen
4. Which of the following does not have a coordinate
bond
[MADT Bihar 1984]
(c) (d)
5. Coordinate covalent compounds are formed by
[CPMT 1990, 94]
Te
(c) (d)
(a) Transfer of electrons (b) Sharing of electrons
le
[CPMT 1989]
(a) Electrons are equally shared by the atoms
am
(a) (b)
(b) Non-covalent compound
is
(c) (d)
(c) Covalent and co-ordinate bond
try
(a) Water (b) Boron trifluoride (a) Butene-1 (b) cis butene-2
le
[AIIMS
[RPMT 1997; EAMCET 1988; MNR 1991]
1980]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
@
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
19. Which of the following molecules does not possess a
C
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
is
(a) Its planar structure 21. Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or
(b) Its regular tetrahedral structure phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn from the
rk
(c) Similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms fact that has no dipole moment but does
(d) Similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine [Pb. PMT 1998]
11. The molecule which has the largest dipole moment (a) is not spherically symmetrical but is
amongst the following [MNR 1983]
(b) molecule must be linear
(a) (b)
(c) The atomic radius of is larger than the atomic
(c) (d) radius of
12. Positive dipole moment is present in (d) The molecule must be planar triangular
[MNR 1986; MP PET 2000]
22. Which molecule does not show zero dipole moment
(a) (b) [RPET 1997, 99]
(c) (d) (a) (b)
13. The polarity of a covalent bond between two atoms (c) (d)
depends upon [AMU 1982]
(a) Atomic size (b) Electronegativity
23. The dipole moment of HBr is cm and 33. Identify the non-polar molecule in the set of
interatomic spacing is 1Å. The % ionic character of HBr compounds given : [UPSEAT
is 2004]
[MP PMT 2000] (a) (b)
(a) 7 (b) 10
(c) (d)
(c) 15 (d) 27
34. Dipole moment is shown by [IIT 1986]
24. Non-polar solvent is [RPET 2000]
(a) Dimethyl sulphoxide (b) Carbon tetrachloride (a) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
(c) Ammonia (d) Ethyl alcohol (b) 1, 2-dichloroethene
25. Which shows the least dipole moment (c) 1, 2-dichloroethene
[UPSEAT 2001; DPMT 1982]
(d) 1, 2-dichloro-2-pentene
(a) (b)
35. If HCl molecule is completely polarized, so expected
(c) (d) value of dipole moment is 6.12D (deby), but
26. Which molecule has zero dipole moment [UPSEAT 2001] experimental value of dipole moment is 1.03D.
Calculate the percentage ionic character [Kerala CET
(a) (b) AgI
Te
2005]
(c) (d) HBr
(a) 17 (b) 83
le
27. The dipole moment is zero for the molecule (c) 50 (d) Zero
gr
(a) Presence of more electrons in orbitals 1. and both molecules are covalent, but
C
e.s.u. If the inter ionic distance is one Å unit, then the (b) bond has no dipole moment whereas
try
(a) 41.8 debye (b) 4.18 debye (c) The size of boron atom is smaller than nitrogen
(c) 4.8 debye (d) 0.48 debye
(d) is planar whereas is pyramidal
pa
(a) (b)
7. The bonds between atoms and atoms in
(c) (d)
le
(b) Covalent with some ionic character (a) Large cation and small anion
(c) Covalent with no ionic character (b) Large cation and large anion
(d) Ionic with some metallic character (c) Small cation and large anion
@
8. Two electrons of one atom A and two electrons of (d) Small cation and small anion
C
another atom B are utilized to form a compound AB. 18. Which of the following statements is correct [AMU 1999]
This is an example of
he
[MNR 1981]
(a) is polar and non-reactive
(a) Polar covalent bond (b) Non-polar covalent
m
(c) Polar bond (d) Dative bond (c) is a strong fluorinating agent
try
9. In which of the following molecule is the covalent (d) is prepared by fluorinating with
bond most polar [AMU 1985; MP PET 2001]
19. Choose the correct statement [RPMT 2000]
_S
10. Amongst and molecules the one (b) Small cation has minimum capacity to polarise an
rk
anion.
with non-planar geometry is [MP PMT 1999]
(c) Small anion has maximum polarizability
(a) (b)
(d) None of these
(c) (d) None of these 20. The molecule is [DPMT 2001]
11. Which of the following possesses highest melting (a) Purely electrovalent
point (b) Purely covalent
[CPMT 1999] (c) Polar with negative end on iodine
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) o-dichlorobenzene (d) Polar with negative end on chlorine
(c) m-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene 21. Which of the following is a polar compound [AIIMS
2001]
12. The polar molecule among the following is
(a) HF (b) HCl
[Orissa JEE 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
22. Which of the following has zero dipole moment
(c) (d) [MP PMT 2002]
(a) ClF (b) (c) Axial overlapping of orbitals
compounds with the greatest and the least ionic 7. bond is formed [JIPMER 2002]
character, respectively, are
le
(a) Difference in electron affinities of the two atoms 8. The double bond between the two carbon atoms in
ethylene consists of
C
(b) Difference in electronegativities of the two atoms [NCERT 1981; EAMCET 1979]
(a) Two sigma bonds at right angles to each other
he
CPMT 1988; MADT Bihar 1982; MH CET 2000] (a) The same in all the three compounds
(b) Greatest in ethane
pa
(a) A sigma bond is weaker than bond 3. The central atom in a molecule is in hybrid state.
(b) A sigma bond is stronger than bond The shape of molecule will be [MP PMT 1987; CBSE PMT
1989]
(c) A double bond is stronger than a single bond
(d) A double bond is shorter than a single bond (a) Pyramidal (b) Tetrahedral
14. Strongest bond formed, when atomic orbitals (c) Octahedral (d) Trigonal planar
16. In molecule, the atoms are bonded by geometry [CBSE PMT 2005]
[MP PET 1996; UPSEAT 2001] (a) (b)
le
2002]
8. The bond angle in ethylene is [CPMT 1987]
(a) (b)
pa
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
rk
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
le
[MNR 1992]
(c) Octahedral (d) Square planer
(a) (b) 24. Which one amongst the following possesses an
@
(b)
(a) (b)
(c)
m
[CPMT 1971]
(c) (d)
pa
(a) (b)
16. Octahedral molecular shape exists in ..........
rk
hybridisation
[DPMT 1990] (c) (d)
(a) (b)
26. In hybridization is
(c) (d) None of these
(a) (b)
17. The electronic structure of molecule is a hybrid
of (c) (d)
18. Percentage of s-character in hybrid orbital is (c) (d) All the above
29. The hybridization of in the linear complex 37. When two pairs of electrons are shared, bond is
[MNR 1979]
is [CPMT 1985; BHU 1981]
(a) Single covalent bond (b) Double covalent bond
(a) (b) (c) Dative bond (d) Triple bond
(c) (d) 38. The nature of hybridization in the molecule is
30. Experiment shows that has a dipole moment [EAMCET 1982]
while has not. Point out the structures which (a) (b)
best illustrate these facts [DPMT 1984; NCERT 1983; (c) (d)
CPMT 1984] 39. Which one of the following compounds has bond
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
C ;H–H–O
Te
[DPMT 1985]
(c) (d) Different
am
have (a)
C
(c) Both and hybridized carbon atoms all the four atoms are in the same plane
(d)
34. The number of unpaired electrons in molecule is
rk
(a) (b)
[AMU 1992]
(c) (d)
le
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) (b)
(c) 6 (d) 10
(c) (d)
@
(a) (b)
m
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
is
49. The species in which the central atom uses hybrid 58. The two types of bonds present in are covalent
try
equal because
76. has the hybridisation [DPMT 1996]
m
(c) (d) 90. Which of the following molecule does not show
tetrahedral shape [RPET 1999]
81. The correct order towards bond angle is [RPMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(a)
(c) (d)
(b)
91. Pyramidal shape would be of [RPET 1999]
(c)
(a) (b)
(d) Bond angle does not depend on hybridisation
82. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present (c) (d)
about the central atom in is [IIT 1998; BHU 2001] 92. What is the correct mode of hybridization of the
central atom in the following compounds :
(a) Linear, (b) Trigonal planar,
(a) (b)
(a) Localised on every third atom
(b) Present in antibonding orbital (c) (d)
le
(c) (d)
gr
(c) (d) 113. In benzene, all the six bonds have the same
length because of [MP PET 2002]
am
(a) and (b) and 114. The bond energies of and are 430 kJ
C
105. Which of the following is not linear [DCE 2001] 115. Which of the following has hybridization
(a) (b) [MP PET 2003]
_S
106. Which of the following is not tetrahedral [MP PMT 2001] (c) (d)
rk
(a) (b)
116. Which one of the following is a planar molecule
(c) (d) [EAMCET 2003]
(Atomic no. : )
(c) (d)
131. The states of hybridazation of boron and oxygen
@
124. The molecule which is pyramid shape is , identify the ones in which the central atom
[MP PMT 2004; EAMCET 1985; IIT 1989] has the same type of hybridisation
rk
(a) (b)
,
(c) (d)
(a) , ,
145. The trigonal bipyramidal geometry results from the
(b) , , hybridisation [UPSEAT 2004]
(d)
[MADT Bihar 1983]
gr
(c) (d)
139. Which of the following molecules has pyramidal 148. If a molecule has zero dipole moment, the
C
[DCE 2004; J&K CET 2005] [IIT 1981; MP PMT 1994; Kerala PMT 2004]
m
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
pa
(c) (d)
150. Hybridisation of central atom in is [Orissa JEE
141. In which compound, the hydrogen bonding is the 2005]
rk
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. Resonance is due to [NCERT 1981; Kurukshetra CEE 1998]
(a) Delocalization of sigma electrons
(b) Delocalization of pi electrons
(c) Migration of H atoms
(c) (d)
(d) Migration of protons
Te
VSEPR Theory
(a) Benzene (b) Aniline
try
(b) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs 2. The bond angle in would be expected to be close
(c) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair to
(d) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair (a) (b)
8. Point out incorrect statement about resonance (c) (d)
[MP PET 1997] 3. In which molecule are all atoms coplanar [MP PMT 1994]
(a) Resonance structures should have equal energy (a) (b)
(b) In resonance structures, the constituent atoms
(c) (d)
should be in the same position
4. Which has the least bond angle [NCERT 1973;
(c) In resonance structures, there should not be the
DPMT 1990; CBSE PMT 1990; UPSEAT 2003]
same number of electron pairs
(a) (b)
(d) Resonance structures should differ only in the
location of electrons around the constituent (c) (d)
atoms
5. In compound , all the bond angles are exactly (c) Pyramidal (d) Square planar
is [CBSE PMT 1991] 15. Of the following sets which one does NOT contain
(a) Chloromethane (b) Iodoform isoelectronic species [AIEEE 2005]
structure is [NCERT 1981; CPMT 1991; DPMT 1982; (d) None of these
MP PMT 1985; AIIMS 1996]
18. Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is s-
le
(a) (b)
orbital character of hybrid orbital is [MP PMT 1986]
gr
(c) (d)
(a) Between (b) Between
am
(a) (b)
[CPMT 1993]
he
(c) (d)
(a)
20. Which of the following molecules does not have a
m
(b)
linear arrangement of atoms
is
(c) (d)
planar structure is [NCERT 1981; MP PMT 1994]
21. is a planar molecule while is pyramidal,
pa
12. In which of the following is the angle between the two lone pair of electrons
covalent bonds greatest (b) bond is more polar than bond
[NCERT 1975; AMU 1982; MNR 1987; (c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
IIT 1981; CPMT 1988; MP PMT 1994] (d) bond is more covalent than bond
(a) (b) 22. The isoelectronic pair is [AIIMS 2005]
(d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on (a) and (b) and
the central atom, respectively
(c) only (d) only
25. Which of the following species is planar [JIPMER 1997]
34. True order of bond angle is [RPET 2003]
(a) (b)
(a)
(c) (d) None of these
(b)
26. The shape of species is [RPET 1999]
(c)
Te
27. Which of the following is the correct reducing order of 35. Which of the following has not a lone pair over the
gr
28. Which compound has bond angle nearly to (a) Lone pair- lone pair repuilsion and lone pair-bond
he
29. A lone pair of electrons in an atom implies [KCET 2002] (d) Bond pair- bond pair repulsion only
try
(a) Repulsion between lone pair and bond pair (c) The electornegativity of F is greater than that of O
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d)
41. The bond angle in ammonia molecule is [EAMCET 1980] 5. The bond order is maximum in
(a) (b) [AIIMS 1983, 85; CBSE PMT 1994; MP PET 2002]
44. Among the following the pair in which the two species 8. The bond order of a molecule is given by [NCERT 1984]
are not isostructural is [CBSE PMT 2004] (a) The difference between the number of electrons
le
antibonding orbitals
45. The maximum number of 90° angles between bond
(c) Twice the difference between the number of
pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in [AIEEE 2004]
electrons in bonding and antibonding electrons
@
(a) hybridization (b) hybridization (d) Half the difference between the number of
C
theory. It depends on the number of electrons in the (b) Contains unpaired electrons
bonding and antibonding orbitals. Which of the (c) Bonding electrons are less than antibonding
_S
(c) Can assume any positive or integral or fractional [IIT 1989; CBSE PMT 1995]
value including zero (a) (b)
(d) Is a non zero quantity
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d)
2. The bond order of molecule is [MP PET 1996]
11. The bond order in ion is [Pb. CET 2004]
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2.5 (d) 3
(c) 2.5 (d) 3
3. When two atomic orbitals combine they form
12. Out of the following which has smallest bond length
(a) One molecular orbital (b) Two molecular orbital
[RPMT 1997]
(c) Three molecular orbital (d) Four molecular
(a) (b)
orbital
4. Which of the following species is the least stable (c) (d)
(c) (d)
(b) Containing only paired electrons
gr
[AMU 1983]
(c) (d)
is
[CBSE 1995; Pb. PMT 1999; MP PET 1997] (b) More than that of orbital
_S
33. According to the molecular orbital theory, the bond (a) (b)
le
order in molecule is
gr
(c) (d)
(a) 0 (b) 1
am
molecule is
(c) Two (d) Three
C
shows
[CPMT 1996]
m
(c) 2 (d) 1
43. What is correct sequence of bond order [BHU 1997]
_S
called
(c) (d)
(a) Bond energy (b) Activation energy
rk
respectively, which of the following statements is 56. Which of the following molecule has highest bond
energy
wrong
[AIIMS 2002]
[CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) (b)
(a) In the bond weakens
(c) (d)
(b) In the bond order increases 57. Which of the following species would be expected
(c) In bond length increases paramagnetic [UPSEAT 2002]
(a) Copper crystals (b)
(d) becomes diamagnetic
(c) (d)
48. With increasing bond order, stability of a bond
[CET Pune 1998] 58. Which of the following is correct for triple bond
(a) Remains unaltered (b) Decreases [CPMT 2002]
(a) 3s (b) 1p, 2s
(c) Increases (d) None of these
(c) 2p, 1s (d) 3p
49. Which is not paramagnetic [DCE 1999, 2000]
Te
molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory 60. Which of the following is paramagnetic [MP PET 2003]
is
(a) (b)
@
(c) 2 (d) 5 61. How many bonding electron pairs are there in white
he
51. The bond order of molecule ion is phosphorous [MP PET 2003]
(a) 6 (b) 12
m
(c) (d)
the electronic configuration of the singly positive
53. In which of the following pairs the two molecules have
nitrogen molecular ion as
identical bond order [MP PMT 2000]
[UPSEAT 2003]
(a) (b) ,
(a)
(c) , (d) ,
54. The bond order is not three for [MP PMT 2001] (b)
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
(d)
55. In molecule, the angle between the two O – H
planes is
64. The paramagnetic property of the oxygen molecule
[CBSE PMT 2002]
due to the presence of unpaired electorns present in
(a) (b)
[Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) and (b) Bond length in is greater than in
(c) Bond length in is greater than in
(b) and
(d) Bond length is unpredictable
(c) and
73. Which of the following is diamagnetic [BVP 2004]
(d) and (a) Oxygen molecule (b) Boron molecule
(e) and (c) (d) None
65. In ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom 74. Bond energies in and are such as
and bond order respectively are [DPMT 2004] [Pb. CET 2004]
68. Bond order of is [DPMT 2004] 77. Which has the highest bond energy [DCE 2002]
69. The total number of electron that takes part in 78. In and molecular species, the total
he
forming bonds in is [MP PET 2004] number of antibonding electrons respectively are [DCE
(a) 2 (b) 4 2003]
m
(c) 6, 6, 6 (d) 8, 6, 8
70. The bond length the species and are in
try
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
pa
(c) (d)
80. Which of the following species have maximum
71. According to molecular orbital theory which of the number of unpaired electrons
rk
72. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in is 3. 82. Correct order of bond length is [Orissa JEE 2005]
1. In the following which bond will be responsible for (a) Resonance (b) Hyperconjugation
maximun value of hydrogen bond (c) Hydrogen bonding (d) Steric hindrence
(a) (b) 10. Which contains strongest bond
(c) (d) [IIT 1986; MP PET 1997, 2003; UPSEAT 2001, 03]
2. In which of the following hydrogen bond is present (a) (b)
(a) (b) Ice
(c) (d)
Te
bonds
[MP PMT 1989; RPMT 1997]
gr
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
4. Which contains hydrogen bond (c) (d)
@
[MP PMT 1989] 12. Of the following hydrides which has the lowest boiling
(a) (b) point
C
(c) (d)
5. Contrary to other hydrogen halides, hydrogen fluoride (a) (b)
m
1980]
13. The pairs of bases in are held together by
try
19. The bond that determines the secondary structure of (d) Resonance
a protein is [NCERT 1984; MP PET 1996] 27. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to
(a) Coordinate bond (b) Covalent bond [CPMT 1989]
(a) Covalent character
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Ionic bond
(b) Hydrogen bonding character
Te
[DPMT 1991]
21. The relatively high boiling point of is due to
he
(c) Unshared electron pair on 30. In which of the following compounds intramolecular
(d) Being a halogen acid hydrogen bond is present [MP PET 1994]
_S
22. Water is liquid due to [MADT Bihar 1983] (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Water
(c) Salicylaldehyde (d) Hydrogen sulphide
pa
37. Which of the following shows hydrogen bonding (a) Covalent bonding
he
38. The boiling point of a compound is raised by [DPMT 46. H – bonding is maximum in
try
[BHU 2003]
2001]
(a) (b)
_S
(c) Covalent bonding 47. Select the compound from the following which
(d) Ionic covalent dissolves in water [IIT 1980]
rk
40. has a much higher boiling point than (c) Covalent attraction
because (d) Dipole–dipole attraction
[UPSEAT 2002; MNR 1994] 49. Which is the weakest among the following types of
(a) has a larger molecular weight bond
[NCERT 1979; MADT Bihar 1984]
(a) Ionic bond (b) Metallic bond [CPMT 1994]
Types of bonding and Forces in solid (c) Both attractive and repulsive forces operate
(d) None of these
1. In a crystal cations and anions are held together by 11. Which has weakest bond [RPMT 1997]
[EAMCET 1982] (a) Diamond (b) Neon (Solid)
(a) Electrons (b) Electrostatic forces (c) (d) Ice
(c) Nuclear forces (d) Covalent bonds 12. Which of the following exhibits the weakest
intermolecular forces [AIIMS 1999; BHU 2000]
2. In the following metals which one has lowest probable
(a) (b)
interatomic forces [MP PMT 1990]
Te
(c) (d)
(a) Copper (b) Silver
le
(c) Vander Waals forces (d) Hydrophobic forces 14. Among the following the weakest one is
4. Which one is the highest melting halide [Pb. PMT 2004; CPMT 2002]
C
[AIIMS 1980]
(a) Metallic bond (b) Ionic bond
he
(a) (b)
(c) Van der Waal's force (d) Covalent bond
(c) (d)
m
order
[NCERT 1972]
try
[DPMT 2004]
(a) The covalent linkages between atoms
(a)
_S
(c)
(d) The exchange energy of mobile electrons
(d)
6. Which one of the following substances consists of
rk
small discrete molecules [CPMT 1987] 16. In the following which molecule or ion possesses
electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate bond at the
(a) (b) Graphite
same time
(c) Copper (d) Dry ice
[CPMT 1987]
7. Which of the following does not apply to metallic bond
[CBSE PMT 1989]
(a) (b)
(b) Absolutely pure water does not contain any ions (a) 7 (b) 8
Te
(c) Chemical bond formation take place when forces (c) 14 (d) 16
of attraction overcome the forces of repulsion 4. When goes to the bond distance .....
le
[CPMT 1988]
[IIT 1996]
(a) It has coordinate and covalent bonds (a) Decrease, increase (b) Increase, decrease
@
(b) It has only coordinate bonds (c) Increase, increase (d) None of these
C
(c) It has only electrovalent bonds 5. Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent
he
23. The number of ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds in 6. Which combination is best explained by the co-
are respectively [MP PMT 1999] ordinate covalent bond [JIPMER 2001; CBSE PMT 1990]
pa
(a)
(b)
(c) (c) All bonds are equivalent
9. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment 16. Bond length of ethane (I), ethene (II), acetylene (III)
[AIIMS 2002] and benzene (IV) follows the order [CPMT 1999]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
18. Molecular shapes of and are
[IIT Screening 2000]
(c) (d)
(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons
respectively
Te
10. Which of the following arrangement of molecules is (b) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons
correct on the basis of their dipole moments [AIIMS
respectively
le
respectively
(a) (b)
(d) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons
am
(c) (d)
respectively
11. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom
19. Structure of and hybridization of iodine in this
@
in is [IIT 1992]
structure are [UPSEAT 2001]
(a) (b) (a) , Linear
C
(b) , T-shaped
12. Among the following species, identify the isostructural
(c) , Irregular tetrahedral
m
(a) and 20. In which of the following the central atom does not
try
(b) and use sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding [UPSEAT 2001, 02]
_S
(d) and
even Vander Wall's forces between
gr
. Therefore, a possible formula of the compound 2. Assertion : The atoms in a covalent molecule are
is [CPMT 1988] said to share electrons, yet some
@
(c) (d)
shared electrons spend more time on
the average near one of the atoms.
m
(a) Hybrid ion (b) Hydronium ion Reason : This stability is due to delocalization of
electrons [AIIMS 1999]
(c) Proton (d) Hydroxyl ion
5. Assertion : All angle in greater
29. Which can be described as a molecule with residual
bonding capacity [JIPMER 2000]
than 90° but less than 180°
Reason : The lone pair-bond pair repulsion is
(a) (b)
weaker than bond pair-bond pair
(c) (d) repulsion
[AIIMS 2004]
Reason : Ortho nitrophenol is more volatile than electrons towards itself in a shared
the para nitrophenol [AIIMS 1999] pair of electrons.
le
carbon tetrachloride.
Reason : Fluorine is more electronegative than
try
Dipole moment
1 b 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 c
6 c 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 d 13 b 14 c 15 d
Electrovalent bonding 16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 b
1 b 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 c 21 d 22 b 23 b 24 b 25 a
6 d 7 d 8 b 9 c 10 d 26 b 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 a
11 b 12 a 13 d 14 a 15 a 31 a 32 c 33 a 34 bd 35 a
16 c 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 c
Polarisation and Fajan’s rule
Te
21 b 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 b
26 d 27 d 28 c 29 a 30 d
1 d 2 c 3 b 4 d 5 c
le
31 b 32 b 33 b 34 d 35 b
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 c 10 b
gr
36 a 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 c
11 d 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 d
am
41 c 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 c
16 d 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 d
46 c 47 a 48 b 49 c 50 b
21 a 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 b
51 b 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 a
@
26 b
56 c 57 a 58 c 59 a 60 c
C
61 a 62 b 63 d 64 d 65 b
Overlaping - and - bonds
he
66 a 67 abc 68 bd
m
1 c 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c
Covalent bonding 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 c
is
11 b 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d
try
1 c 2 c 3 B 4 b 5 d
6 a 7 c 8 a 9 d 10 a 16 a 17 d 18 c 19 d 20 d
_S
11 b 12 b 13 c 14 b 15 c
Hybridisation
16 a 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 b
pa
21 a 22 a 23 c 24 c 25 c
1 d 2 d 3 d 4 c 5 d
rk
26 c 27 a 28 a 29 a 30 d
6 a 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 d
31 b 32 a 33 d 34 a 35 d
11 d 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 a
36 b 37 d 38 c 39 d 40 c
16 b 17 c 18 a 19 d 20 b
41 b 42 b 43 b 44 b 45 b
21 c 22 c 23 a 24 c 25 a
46 d 47 d 48 b 49 a 50 a
26 a 27 b 28 c 29 b 30 a
51 b 52 d 53 c 54 d 55 d
31 d 32 a 33 d 34 c 35 c
56 d 57 a 58 a 59 d 60 a
36 b 37 b 38 c 39 b 40 b
61 c 62 a 63 b 64 b 65 b
41 d 42 b 43 c 44 a 45 c
66 b 67 b 68 d 69 b 70 c
46 c 47 d 48 b 49 c 50 a
71 c 72 c 73 cd 74 ad 75 ab
51 b 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 c
76 a
56 d 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 c 63 b 64 b 65 b
Co-ordinate or Dative bonding
66 a 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 a
31 c 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 c
71 a 72 a 73 b 74 b 75 d 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 c
76 d 77 c 78 a 79 d 80 b 41 c 42 a 43 b 44 a 45 a
81 c 82 b 83 d 84 a 85 d 46 c 47 b 48 c 49 c 50 a
86 b 87 d 88 c 89 a 90 c 51 c 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 a
91 c 92 c 93 a 94 b 95 c 56 c 57 c 58 c 59 a 60 a
96 a 97 b 98 b 99 b 100 b 61 a 62 b 63 a 64 c 65 a
101 a 102 b 103 d 104 a 105 b 66 c 67 a 68 a 69 c 70 a
106 a 107 a 108 b 109 b 110 a 71 b 72 b 73 d 74 c 75 a
111 a 112 b 113 b 114 d 115 d 76 b 77 b 78 a 79 c 80 a
116 c 117 c 118 b 119 c 120 a 81 c 82 a 83 c 84 d
121 a 122 c 123 a 124 a 125 b
126 c 127 d 128 c 129 c 130 a Hydrogen bonding
131 b 132 b 133 e 134 c 135 d
Te
1 d 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 c
136 b 137 b 138 d 139 a 140 a
6 d 7 b 8 d 9 c 10 c
le
16 d 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 c
151 ac 152 a
am
21 a 22 a 23 d 24 a 25 c
26 a 27 b 28 c 29 a 30 c
Resonance
@
31 a 32 b 33 d 34 a 35 a
1 d 2 b 3 b 4 b 5 b 36 a 37 a 38 b 39 d 40 c
C
6 c 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 c 41 a 42 c 43 b 44 c 45 c
he
11 abcd 46 b 47 d 48 b 49 d 50 d
m
1 b 2 d 3 c 4 c 5 d
1 a 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 c
6 d 7 d 8 b 9 b 10 c
_S
6 b 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 a
11 d 12 a 13 d 14 c 15 a
11 c 12 a 13 a 14 a 15 c
pa
16 b 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 d 20 a
21 d 22 d 23 a 24 d
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 d 25 a
rk
26 c 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 a
Critical Thinking Question
31 a 32 c 33 c 34 a 35 c
36 b 37 b 38 d 39 d 40 b
1 d 2 c 3 c 4 b 5 a
41 c 42 a 43 b 44 c 45 d
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 d
11 a 12 c 13 d 14 d 15 b
Molecular orbital theory
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 a
21 a 22 d 23 a 24 d 25 c
1 a 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c
26 c 27 c 28 c 29 a
6 d 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b
11 c 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 c
Assertion & Reason
16 c 17 d 18 b 19 c 20 c
21 d 22 c 23 b 24 c 25 a 1 a 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 c
26 d 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 c 6 b 7 b 8 e 9 c 10 a
11 b 12 d 13 a 14 e 15 c
16 c 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 c
21 b 22 e 23 d 24 d 25 a
26 a
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
STUDY PACKAGE FOR IIT - JEE
Level - 1
BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
Multiple Choice Question
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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1. If molecule MX3 has zero dipole moment ,the sigma bonding orbitals used by M
(atomic number < 21) are
(a) pure p (b) sp hybrid (c) sp2 hybrid (d) sp3 hybrid.
4. H2O has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole moment because
Te
(a) (b)
he
(c) (d)
m
is
7. The percentage of s–character in the hybrid orbitals sp, sp 2 and sp3 follows the
try
pattern.
(a) sp3 > sp2 > sp (b) sp > sp2 > sp3
_S
8. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2, the compounds with the greatest and the
least ionic character respectively are
rk
9. Which of the following has a bond formed by the overlap of sp–sp 3 hybrid orbitals
?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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12. The distance between the two adjacent carbon atoms is largest in
(a) Benzene (b) Ethene (c) Butane (d) Ethyne
13. Which concept best explains the fact that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-
nitrophenol ?
(a) resonance (b) hyperconjugation
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) steric hindrance
14. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species
Te
(a) K+ , F- and H+ (b) K+,F- and HF (c) K+ and [HF2]- (d)[KHF]+ and F2
le
gr
17. An element (X) forms compounds of the formula XCl 3,X2O5 and Ca3X2 but does
try
21. The correct order of increasing C-O bond length of CO, , CO2 is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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23. The number of antibonding electron pairs in molecular ion on the basis of
molecular orbital theory is (at. no. O =8)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5.
25. Among H2O, H2S , H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is
(a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding
Te
26. The common features among the species ,CO and NO+ are
(a) bond order three and isoelectronic
@
27. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron (s) ?
m
(a) the molecular plane (b) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(c) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon –
pa
carbon -bond.
30. If Z-axis is taken as the molecular axis, then orbitals are formed by
(a) 2px and 2pz (b) 2px and 2px (c) 2s and 2py (d) 2s and 2pz
31. The cyanide ion, CN- and N2 are isoelectronic. But in contrast to CN - , N2 is
chemically inert, because of
(a) low bond energy (b)absence of bond polarity
(c) unsymmetrical electron distribution
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32. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1 Å,
what percentage of electronic charge exists on each atom?
(a) 12% of e (b) 19% of e (c) 25% of e (d) 29% of e
33. AICl3 is covalent while AIF3 is ionic. This fact can be justified on the basis of
(a) Valence bond theory (b) Crystal structure
(c) Lattice energy (d) Fajan Rule
34. Consider the given figure showing that possible levels of the energy of ion
depending on internuclear distance versus potential energy of the system .
Te
le
gr
am
@
It may be easily assumed that the ground state of the molecular hydrogen ion,
corresponds to the lowest level which means that
C
he
(a) Curve 1 represents the most stable state of the system for ion
(b) Curve 2 represent the most stable state of the system for ion
m
35. Match List I (species) with List II (Hybrid orbitals used by the central atom in their
formation) and select the correct answer:
pa
List I A. B. C. D.
rk
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Level – 2
More than one option is correct.
6. The species which contain an odd number of valence electrons and are
paramagnetic are
m
7. Among the following, the elements which show inert-pair effect are
(a) Bi (b) Sn (c) Pb (d) C
_S
11. Which of the following factors are responsible for van der Waals forces?
(a) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole interaction
(b) Dipole-induced dipole interaction and ion-induced dipole interaction
(c) Dipole-dipole interaction and ion-induced dipole interaction
(d) Small size of molecule
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(d) The density of water increases from 0ºC to a maximum at 4ºC because the
le
20. Among the following, the species with one unpaired electron are
(a) O (b) NO (c) O (d) B
21. Which of the following pairs have identical values of bond order?
(a) N and O (b) F and Ne (c) O and B (d) C and N
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THE GUIDANCE 58/1 Kalu Sarai, Opp. Sarvpriya Vihar, New Delhi–16, Ph. 41828089, 46043741[172]
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Level – 3
Previous Year Question IIT
Fill In The Blanks
of ammonium ion.
am
hybridized.
he
m
8. The two types of bonds present in B2H6 are covalent and ……………
_S
10. Among N2O, SO2, I and I , the linear species are…………and ……………
TRUE /FALSE
14. In benzene, carbon uses all the three p-orbitals for hybridization.
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20. Which one among the following does not have the hydrogen bond?
(a) Phenol (b) Liquid NH3 (c) Water (d) HCl
@
22. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons:
_S
24. Of the following compounds, which will have a zero dipole moment?
(a) 1, 1 dichloroethylene (b) cis-1, 2 dichloroethylene
(c) trans 1, 2 dichloroethylene (d) None of these
25. The species in which the central atom uses sp2-hybrid orbitals in its
bonding is:
(a) PH3 (b) NH3 (c) CH (d) SbH3
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32. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO is:
he
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are :
_S
MnO C2O H+
pa
(a) 2 5 16 (b) 16 5 2
rk
(c) 5 16 2 (d) 2 16 5
34. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can
form is:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
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(c) [NF3, H3O+] and [NO , BF3] (d) [NF3, H3O+] and [N3H, BF3]
37. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC 2 are:
(a) one sigma () and one pi () bonds
(b) one sigma () and two pi() bonds
(c) one sigma () and one half pi() bonds
(c) one sigma () bond
38. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment
toluene (I), m-dichlorobenzene (II), o-dichlorobenze (III), p-
dichlorobenzene (IV):
Te
(a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III
(b) IV < I < III < II (c) IV < II < I < III.
le
39. The cyanide ion, CN- and N2 are isoelectronic, but in constrast to CN -, N2
gr
41. Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central
try
43. The correct order of increasing C—O bond length of CO, CO , CO2 is:
(a) CO < CO2 < CO (b) CO2 < CO < CO
(c) CO < CO < CO2 (d) CO < CO2 < CO
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48. The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following
species NH3, [PtCl4]2-, PCl5 and BCl3 is:
Te
(a) dsp2, dsp3, sp2 and sp3 (b) sp3, dsp2, sp3d and sp2
(c) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (d) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3
le
gr
55. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O 2 because the
H2O molecule has:
(a) fewer electrons than O2 (b) two covalent bonds
(c) V - shape (d) dipole moment
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56. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present about the central
atom in BF3 is:
(a) linear, sp (b) trigonal planar, sp2
(c) tetrahedral, sp3 (d) pyramidal, sp3
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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Level -1
Answer key & Solution
Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans. Q. Ans.
1. C 11. B 21. D 31. B
2. C 12. C 22. B 32. C
3. A 13. C 23. C 33. D
4. B 14. C 24. D 34. B
5. B 15. D 25. A 35. D
6. C 16. A 26. A
7. B 17. C 27. C
8. B 18. B 28. A
9. A 19. D 29. B
Te
Solution
pa
1. Since; e molecule (MX3) has zero dipole moment therefore, it must have
triangular planar geometry and accordingly the hybridization of central metal
rk
2.
The bond between Cu2+ and ion is ionic ; between S and O in ions
and between H and O atoms in H 2O are covalent : those between Cu and H2O
2+
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4. BeF2 is linear and hence has zero dipole moment while H 2O being a bent
molecule, has a finite or non-zero dipole moment.
9.
gr
am
10. SiF4 is a symmetrical tetrahedral molecule and hence its dipole moment is zero.
@
12. The C-C bond distance decreases as the multiplicity of the bond increases.
he
Thus, bond distance decreases in the order :butane (1.54Å) > benzene (1.39 Å)
> ethene ( 1.34 Å) >ethyne ( 1.20 Å).
m
is
than p- nitrophenol.
pa
14. F- forms H- Bond with HF, therefore, the species [ H…F-H] - or exists and
rk
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17. Since the element X froms XCl 3, X2O5 and Ca3X2, therefore, it must be N or P.
Since it does form MCl5 therefore, it must be N since it has no d- orbitals to
expand its covalency from 3 to 5. Therefore, X must be N.
ion is 1.33. Since the bond length increases as the bond order decreases,
am
Now
he
26. All the species are isoelectronic since each one of them has 14 electrons
distributed in the MO’s as under:
and
Thus B.O = .
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28. The molecular plane does not have any -electron density.
30.
Te
le
31. Both and N2 molecules have the same MO diagrams but differ only in bond
gr
33. Smaller the size of the anion (F -) lesser is its polarization and hence more is the
ionic character. Thus AICl3 is covalent while AIF6 is ionic – Fajan rule.
pa
rk
34. Curve 2 represents the most stable state because in this curve energy
decreases as the atoms come close together and there is minimum in the curve
where energy is minimum and hence stability h maximum.
35. In Mn is in +2 oxidation state.
In is in +2 oxidation state
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In is in +3 oxidation state
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Level -2
Answers key & Solution
Q. No Ans Q. No Ans Q. No Ans
1. A, B, C, D 10. B, C 19. A, B, C
2. A, B 11. A, B, C 20. A, B, C
3. A, B 12. A, B, C 21. A, C
4. A, B, C 13. A, B, C, D 22. A, B, D
5. A, B, C 14. B, D 23. A, B, C
6. A, B, C 15. A, B, C, D 24. B, C
7. A, B, C 16. A, B, C 25. A, B, C, D
Te
8. A, C 17. A, B, C
le
9. B, C 18. A, B
gr
am
6. NO (5 + 6 = 11 valence electrons)
he
m
NO (5 + 12 = 17 valence electrons)
is
try
9.
rk
10.
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16.
17. From the molecular orbital theory, we know that these species have a bond order
gr
equal to zero. The number of unpaired electrons they possess is also zero. Hence
am
18. From the molecular orbital theory, we know that B 2 and O2 have two unpaired
@
23. The species in options (a), (b) and (c) are sp-hybridized and are, therefore, linear .
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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Level – 3
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. CO2; sp hybridisation of C-atom with hybrid orbitals being farthest.
3. 2; As there is a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms, so there are
1 and 2-bonds.
4. sp3;
5. Planar;
Te
6. sp
le
Ag—C≡C—H
gr
sp-hybridized
am
8. Three centred two electron bonds or banana bond; The formation of three
he
centred two electron bond is due to one empty sp3 orbital of one of the
B atom, 1s orbital of the bridge hydrogen atom and one of the sp3 (filled)
m
orbital of the other B-atom. This forms a decolourized orbital covering the
is
three nuclei giving the shape of a banana. Thus also known as banana
try
bonds.
_S
follows
rk
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TRUE /FALSE
11. Head on (or linear) overlap of two atomic orbitals leads to a sigma bond.
12. The vector addition of all the bond moments may or may not be zero.
13. SnCl2 has both bond pair (2) as well as lone pair (1) of electrons. It is sp 2
hybridised and trigonal planar in shape.
15. sp2 hybrid orbitals do not have equal s(33.3%) and p(66.66%) character.
le
gr
20. Hydrogen bond may form by oxygen, nitrogen and fluorine only.
pa
23.
sp2-hybridisation
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24.
Te
29. CN-, CO and NO+ are isoelectronic with 14 electrons each and there is no
try
electron.
pa
31. Ba (H2PO2)2
Let the oxidation number of P is x
(+2) + (+1 4) + (x 2) + (-2 4) = 0
or 2 + 4 + 2x – 8 = 0 or 2x – 2 = 0
or 2x = + 2 x= = +1
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32.
Sp2 hybridized
rk
These three sp2-hybrid orbitals are attached to each other trigonally with
an angle of 1200 and they are overlapped with three p-orbitals of three F-
atoms on their axes. Hence the geometry of BF 3 molecule is trigonal
planar.
H3O+ :
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37.
- bond = 1
- bonds = 2
orbitals which
is
form -bonds
try
Bond order:
Bond order in CO = 3 (with the help of molecular orbital theory)
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Bond order in
So order of bond length of C—O
44. Oxidation No of S in S8 = 0
Te
45.
am
@
C
he
46.
m
is
try
_S
pa
47.
rk
In [PtCl4]2- N is dsp2-hybridized
In PCl5, P is sp3 d-hybridized
In BCl3, B is sp2-hybridized
49.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
50. CO2, HgCl2 and C2H2 are linear molecules having sp-hybridization.
53. (a) and (d) are symmetric alkanes, hence these are non polar, while (b)
and (c) are symmetric alkenes hence they possess dipole moment.
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54. Isoelectronic structure are H3O+, NH3 and CH . All the molecules have
ten electrons.
55. Critical temperature of water is higher than O 2 because H2O molecule
has dipole moment. Which is due to its V-shape.
These three sp2-hybrid orbitals are attached to each other trigonally with
an angle of 1200 and they are overlapped with three p-orbitals of three F-
atoms on their axes. Hence the geometry of BF 3 molecule is trigonal
@
planar.
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
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Different Type Chemical Bonding Questions
Correctly match the following proper6es in the same order (greater vs greater or less vs less) given
in Column-I and Column-II for BeO and MgO (taken in order)
Column I Column II
(t) Solubility
le
(B t)
(C t)
@
(D p,q, r, s)
C
he
m
Hint: Conceptual
is
try
_S
Column I Column II
rk
(t) Diamagnetic
KEY: (A – r, s, t), (B – r, s, t), (C – p, t), (D – q, t)
3.
Column – I Column II
(A) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (p) Dipole moment
(B) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (q) Reducing property
(C) SnH4 > GeH4 > SiH4 > CH4 (r) Enthalpy of vaporization
(D) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S (s) Boiling point
C) R) (g) [gerade]
molecular orbital
D) S) (u) [Ungerade]
molecular orbital
Te
KEY: AQ,R
le
gr
BP,R
am
C R
@
DQ,R
HINT:
C
he
Column-I Column-II
is
KEY: AP,S
BR,S
CR,S
D Q
HINT:
20. Column - I Column - II
A) Linear shape p) XeF2
B) sp hybridisation q) ICl2–
C) sp3d hybridisation r) CO2
D) Isoelectronic species s) NCO–
t) CH CH
KEY:A-P,Q,R,S,T;B-R,S,T;C-P,Q;D-R,S
All have linear shape, sp hybridisation is for CO 2, NCO– and HCCH. sp3d
am
A) I p) linear
m
B) NH
is
4 q) T-shape
try
C) ClF3 r) sea-saw
_S
D) SF4 s) Tetrahedral
t) hybridisation
pa
HINT: Conceptual.
1. Column - I Column - II
A) Fractional bond order p) O2
B) Pararuagxetic q) O2
C) Bond order - 3 r) NO
D) Bond order 2-5 s) CN
t) CO
KEY: Ap,t; B s; C q,t; Dr,t
HINT:
Passage – 1:
In the molecular orbital theory, the valence are considered to be associated with the
nucleii, in the molecule; these atomic orbital from different atom must be combined to
produce molecular orbitals;
These molecular orbitals then filled with the available according to the same rule for
atomic orbitals and the total energy of the in the molecular orbitals is compared with
1. When two molecular orbitals of same symmetry have similar energy then they interact
Te
B) To lower the energy of lower orbital and to raise the energy of higher orbital
am
D) To raise the energy of lower orbital and to lower the energy of higher orbital
C
KEY:B
he
Hint: Conceptual
m
is
try
_S
ii) In O2 , the energy of orbital is lower than the doubly degenerate. orbitals .
iii) Different molecular species with the same configuration have the same energy.
KEY:A
Hint: The orbital in is than in and more than in from MOT.
A) B) C) D)
KEY:C
Te
HINT:
le
;
gr
am
Passage - 2
@
The degree of polarity of a covalent bond is measured by the dipole moment (bond)
C
he
vector additon of all the bond dipole moments present in it. In triatomic molecule.
is
4. Which bond angle would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic
rk
molecule xy2 is
(A) = 90º (B) = 120º (C) = 150º (D) = 180º
KEY: A
HINT:
(C) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (D) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
KEY: A
HINT: Conceptual
Toluene (I), m–dichloro benzene (II), O–dicholoro benzene (III), p–dichloro benzene
(IV)
(A) I < IV < II < III (B) IV < I < II < III (C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < II < I < III
Te
KEY: C
le
gr
HINT: Conceptual
am
Passage - 3
@
According to molecular orbital theory all atomic orbitals combine to form molecular
orbial by LCAO (Linear Combination of Atomic Oribitals) method. When two atomic orbitals
C
have additive (constructive) overlapping the form bonding molecular orbitals (BMO) which have
he
lower energy than atomic orbitals where as when atomic orbitals overlap subtractively, higher
m
energy antibonding molecular orbitals (ABMO) are formed. Each M.O occupies two electrons
is
with opposite spin. Distribution of electrons in M.O follows aufbau principal a well as hund’s
try
9. will have
(a) Bond order equal to that of and diamagnetic
(b) Bond order equal to that of and paramagnetic
(c) Bond order equal to that of and diamagnetic
(d) Bond order higher than that of
KEY: A
Passage - 4
The rule governing the transition from ionic to covalent bonding is called Fajan’s rule.
By this rule the degree of covalency of molecules are known. When an anion and cation
approach each other then the electron cloud of anion is not only attracted by the nucleus,
Te
but also by the charge on cation. At the same time the cation also tends to repel, the
positively charged nucleus of anions. The combined effect of these two forces is that
le
electron cloud of anion is elongated towards the cation. This ability of cation to polarize
gr
anion is known polarization power of cation. The higher is the polarization power of
am
cation higher is the covalent character of the molecule. Effective nuclear charge of
pseudo noble gas configuration is higher than that of noble gas configuration.
@
C
he
(A) (B)
is
try
(C) (D)
_S
Key: A
pa
rk
11. Which of the following is the increasing order of covalent character of the compound
Key: C
Key: A
le
Hint: LiF is most ionic, because F - is small in size therefore it has least polarisability and has
gr
Passage - 5
Polar covalent molecules exhibit deipole moment. Dipole moment is equal to the product of
@
charge separation, and the bond length for the bond. Unit of dipole moment is debye. One
C
Dipole moments is a vector quantity. It has both magnitude and direction. Hence, dipole
moment of a molecule depends upon the relative orientation of the bond dipoles, but not on the
is
try
polarity of bonds alone. A symmetrical structure shows zero dipole moment. Thus, dipole
moment helps to predict the geometry of a molecules. Dipole moment values can be used to
_S
distinguish between cis – and trans – isomers; ortho - , meta – and para – forms of a substance,
etc.
pa
rk
13. A diatomic molecules has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If the bond length is cm,
what fraction of charge does exist each atom ?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2
(C) 0.25 (D) 0.3
Key: C
14. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of dipole moments, toluene (I),
o-dichlorobenzene (II), m – dichlorobenzene (III) and p – dichlorobenzene (IV)
(A) IV < I < II < III (B) I < IV < II < III
(C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < II < I < III
Key: C
in particular of xenon.
le
Xenon reacts directly with fluorine when heated at 4000C in a sealed nickel tube. The
gr
products depend on the ratio of Xe and F2. A 1:20 mixture of Xe and F2 on heating gives
am
XeF6, which is a white solid. It undergoes slow hydrolysis in small quantity of water
forming a xenon oxyfluoride (A) with Xe, O and F weight ratio 2.62 : 0.32 : 1.52. It
@
undergoes complete hydrolysis in excess of water forming an oxide (B) in the same
oxidation state. When the oxide (B) reacts with (A) it forms another compound (C) with
C
formula XeO2F2. XeF6 can act as a fluoride donar and forms a complex (D) with AsF5. The
he
complex in the crystalline form is found to contain monovalent ions in which ‘Xe’ is
m
KEY: D
KEY: B
18. The correct order of bond angles in the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ is,
A=XeO
Hybridisation of Xe in is .
Hybridisation of Xe is
Te
le
gr
am
@
passage - 7
C
he
According to MOT, two atomic orbitals overlap resulting in the formation of molecular orbitals.
m
Number of atomic orbitals overlapping together is equal to the molecular orbital formed. The
is
two atomic orbital thus formed by LCAO (linear combination of atomic orbital) in the same
try
phase or in the different phase are known as bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals
respectively. The energy of bonding molecular orbital is lower than that of the pure atomic
_S
orbital by an amount . This known as the stabilization energy. The energy of antibonding
molecular orbital is increased by (destabilisation energy).
pa
rk
KEY: C
20. Which among the following pairs contain both paramagnetic species.
KEY: A
Te
Passage - 8
le
gr
According to molecular orbital theory in a molecule electrons are added in molecular orbitals in
am
order of their increasing energy. The number of electrons in the molecular orbitals is equal to the
sum of all the electrons on the bonding atoms. Like an atomic orbital each molecular orbital can
accommodate upto two electrons with opposite spins (in accordance with the Pauli exclusion
@
principle). When electrons are added to molecular orbitals of the same energy, the most stable
C
arrangement is predicted by Hund’s Rule; i.e., electrons enter these molecular orbitals singly
he
Constructive and destructive interaction between the wave functions of two hydrogen 1s orbitals
is
lead to the formation of a bonding (ss) and an antibonding molecular orbitals ( ). In the
try
bonding molecular orbital, there is concentration of electron cloud between the nuclei of atoms
which acts as a negatively charged glue to hold the positively charged nuclei together. In the
_S
antibonding molecular orbital there is a node between the nuclei that signifies zero electron
density. However, the energies of molecular orbitals actually increase as follow.
pa
rk
This order is valid upto z £ + 7 ´ 2. The energy of is lower in energy than the
orbitals for O2 and F2. To evaluate the stabilities of species we determine their bond order,
defined as
(A) Some atomic orbitals keep their existence in a molecule while some convert into
MOs.
(B) Molecular orbitals also follow Panling’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule besides
anf-bau principle
(C) In the ABMO, the nuclei are repelled by each others positive charges rather than held
together.
(D) In a stable molecule, the number of electrons in B.M.Os is always greater than that in
ABMOs.
KEY: A
Te
(A) (B)
am
(C) O2 (D)
@
KEY: B
C
(D) same bond order of two species do not mean they have same bond energy
rk
KEY: A
Passage - 9
The shape of a molecule is determined by electron-pair repulsions in the valence shell. A lone
pair occupies larger space than a bond pair because it is not shared by two nuclei. Thus the lone
pair-lone pair repulsion is greater than the lone pair-bond pair repulsion, which in turn is greater
than the bond pair-bond pair repulsion. The presence of lone pairs causes distortion of bond
angles and hence a deviation from an ideal shape. The extent of distortion depends upon the
orientation of the lone pairs around the central atom. In a trigonal bipyramid, the lone pairs
occupy equatorial positions than the apical ones.
In ABn type molecules, as the electronegativity of A increases, the bond pairs come closer and
the repulsion between them increases. On the other hand, as electronegativity of B increases, the
bond pairs get farther and repulsion decreases.
KEY: B
am
HINT:
26. The shape of which of the following molecules will not be distorted?
@
KEY: C
is
HINT:
try
27. Which of the following species will have the lone pair effects cancelled?
_S
KEY: A
HINT:
Passage - 10
Atomic orbitals add together to give a superposition called a molecular orbital or MO. Molecular
orbitals are bonding when the orbital phase considerations are favourable. The bonding MO
wave function, Ψ (psi), can be squared, |Ψ|2, to represent electron density. A bonding MO shows
a build up of electron density between the two positively charged nuclei.
The two positive nuclei are both attracted to the region of electron density and are
shielded from each other.
This, in essence, is the covalent bond.
If the atomic orbitals are "out of phase", the AO/AO interaction will exhibit a phase node – a
region in space with zero electron density – between the positive nuclei. There will be nothing to
attract the nuclei together and the MO is (said to be) antibonding.
Molecular orbitals like the atomic orbitals are filled in accordance with the Aufbau Principle
obeying the Pauli’s Principle and the Hund’s rule.
s1s, s*1s, s2s, s*2s, s2px, [2py = 2pz], [*2py = *2pz], s*2px
Te
s1s, s*1s, s2s, s*2s, [2py = 2pz], s2px, [*2py = *2pz], s*2px
gr
am
Bond order is given by half the difference in the number of electrons of the bonding (s and )
and anti-bonding (s* and *) molecular orbitals. For a bond to have been formed, the bond order
@
should be greater than zero. The greater the bond order, the shorter is the bond distance and the
greater is the bond dissociation energy. But if the bond order is the same in two cases, the bond
C
distance will be greater and the bond dissociation energy smaller in the case which has more
he
populated anti-bonding orbitals. The presence of unpaired electron(s) in a molecular orbital will
make the system paramagnetic.
m
is
(A) (B)
_S
HINT:
rk
29. Which among the following will have a triple bond order?
(A) CO (B) CN–
(C) NO+ (D) All of these
KEY: D
HINT:
30. Which of the following orders is correct in respect of bond dissociation energy?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) All of these
KEY: B
HINT:
Passage - 11
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of molecules depends on the number of valence
electrons in the central atom. The repulsion between
c) d)
KEY: C
Te
HINT:
le
gr
am
bipyramidal
he
KEY: B
m
is
HINT:
try
_S
KEY: D
HINT:
Passage - 12
When two oppositely charged ions of unequal size approach cach other closely, the
smaller sized cation attract the outermost electrons of the other ion and repel the nuclear
charge. The ability of a cation to polarise the nearby anion is called its polarizing power
34. Pair of ions with more polarization is
a) b) c) d)
KEY: D
KEY: D
am
HINT:
@
a) b) c) d)
m
KEY: D
is
HINT:
try
_S
pa
rk
1. According to MO theory which of the list ranks the oxygen species in terms of increasing Bond
order
A) B) C) D)
KEY: D
HINT:
Te
le
A) B) C) D)
@
C
KEY:B
he
m
HINT: Conceptual
is
3. Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory can not explain the structure of following compounds
try
_S
KEY: D
HINT: VSEPR theory can not explain the shapes of molecules which have very polar bonds (the structure
of Li2O is linear)
KEY: C
KEY: D
HINT: In graphite each carbon is left with one spare electron in its p orbital. This electron then
overlaps with each other to form a p bond. Hence C—C distance in graphite is shorter (1.42 Å)
than that of diamond (1.54 Å).
Te
6. What type of hybridization is /are present in boron element in borax (Na2B4O7. 10H2O).
le
gr
KEY: B
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
HINT:
1. , 2. , 3.
KEY: B
KEY: A
C
HINT: Conceptual
he
m
9 In which of the following does the overlap of two orbitals give a non bonding
interacVon ?
is
try
_S
A) B)
pa
rk
C) D)
KEY: D
HINT: Conceptual
10. The correct increasing order of extent of p-bonding in above molecules are
(A) I < II < III (B) III < II < I
KEY: C
(A) CsF > CsCl > CsBr > CsI (B) LiF > >LiCl > LiBr > LiI
(C) RbClO4 > KClO4 > NaClO4 > LiClO4 (D) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF
Te
KEY: A
le
HINT: If the difference in size of cation and anion is large then hydration energy will be dominant.
gr
KEY: C
is
13. In solid, each NH3 molecule has 6 other NH 3 molecules as nearest neighbours. H of sublimation
try
of NH3 at the melting point is 30.8 kJ/mole and the estimated H of sublimation in the absence of
hydrogen bonding is 14.4 kJ per mole. The strength of hydrogen bond in solid NH 3 is
_S
Key: C
Hint: There are six hydrogen bond with one molecule of solid NH 3.
The energy of Hbond = 30.8 – 14.4 = 16.4 kJ
(A) (B) N2
(C) (D)
Te
Key: C
le
gr
am
Hint:
@
C
Since in , nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen, hence bond length in is greater
he
(D) C—O bond length in and C—O bond length in are equal.
Key: A
Hint:
C—O bond length in and are not equal since bond order in is equal to 1.33
and in is equal to 1.5.
16. and are converted to mono caVons and respecVvely .The wrong statement with
respect to given changes in the following is
KEY: D
Te
Bond order
he
m
is
try
_S
Bond order
pa
rk
KEY: D
gr
Be+ Be+2 + e–
m
18. In which of the following sets central atom of each molecule is sp 3d hybridized?
is
try
KEY: C
rk
HINT: The central atoms in all I3−, ClF3 & SF4 have five pairs (lp + bp) of electrons and hence are
sp3d hybridized.
a) b) c) d)
KEY: C
HINT: MgO, ion is smallest in size and double the charge in comparison to and ions
20. For which of the two compounds . One has a resultant dipole moment of
and the other . Which dipole moment do you predict?
KEY: B
Te
le
gr
am
HINT:
@
a) b)
m
is
c) d)
try
KEY: A
_S
22. The solubiliVes of sulphates of alkaline earth metals decrease down the group mainly due to
pa
decrease in
rk
(A) La`ce energy of metal sulphate (B) Entropy of soluVon of metal sulphates
KEY: D
r+ = radius of caVon
SO42– ion being common so la`ce energy remains almost the same.
HydraVon energy
KEY: B
KEY: B
gr
am
25. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural? NO3–, CO32–, SO3
(A) NO3–, CO32– (B) SO3, NO3–
@
KEY: A
m
HINT:
is
try
26. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the
_S
HINT:
27. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are:
(A) one sigma () and one pi (p) bonds
(B) one sigma () and two pi (p) bonds
(C) one sigma () and one and a half pi (p) bonds
(D) one sigma () bond
KEY: B
HINT:
28. Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2 and NO2+, unpaired electron is present in
(A) NO2+ and BaO2 (B) KO2 and AlO2–
(C) KO2 only (D) BaO2 only
KEY: C
HINT:
KEY: D
HINT:
gr
KEY: D
C
he
HINT:
Small ions are more hydrated. Greater the posiVve charge smaller the size
m
is
try
KEY: B
rk
HINT:
N > N −2 < N 2
a) b) 2− 2
− −
c) d) CN > NO > O 3
KEY: A
HINT:
32. The number of covalent bonds formed by the overlapping of pure arbitals in one
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
KEY: C
HINT:
KEY:B
le
gr
3
Al 3 and Cl Al H 2O 6 and Cl
a) ions b) ions
AlCl2 H 2O 4 and AlCl4 H 2O 2
@
KEY:C
he
HINT:
m
a) it is a covalent compound
try
KEY:B
HINT:
8. Borax in its crystal possess
a) 3 tetrahedral unit
b) 2 tetrahedral and 2 planar triangular units
c) 3 tetrahedral and 2 planar triangular units
d) all tetrahedral units
KEY:B
HINT:
9. In which C-H bond length is more
KEY: C
Cl Cl
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) BeCl2 d)
KEY: B
Te
KEY: D
C
HINT: N2 there is one unpaired electron present in bonding molecular orbital.
he
m
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
try
KEY: C
_S
HINT: Each water molecule surrounded by 4 other water molecules which are bonded by Hydrogen
pa
bonds.
rk
and . The expected 10. Which one of the following molecules has a coordinate
bond [CPMT 1988, 94]
compound formed by combination of and is [BHU
Te
be
he
5. Which one in the following contains ionic as well as (c) 1.73 D (d) 1.00 D
is
covalent bond [IIT 1979; CPMT 1983; DPMT 1983] 13. Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as
try
[IIT 1988]
(a) (b)
_S
(c) (d)
(b) Free molecules
(c) Free ions
(d) Free atoms and free molecules
7. In which of the following reactions, there is no change 14. The order of dipole moments of the following
in the valency [NCERT 1974; CPMT 1971, 78] molecules is
[Roorkee 2000]
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
8. The octet rule is not followed in [BHU 1981] (d)
(a) 3 (b) 2
gr
20. The hybridization in sulphur dioxide is[IIT 1986; DPMT 29. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by
1990] a water molecule in ice is
m
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) (d)
try
(c) 2 (d) 1
21. The number and type of bonds between two carbon
30. Hydrogen bonding is not present in
_S
(a) Glycerine
(b) One sigma and two pi bonds (b) Water
rk
(c) One sigma and one and a half pi bonds (c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) One sigma bond (d) Hydrogen fluoride
22. Which of the following resonating structures of 31. The bonds in are
is the most contributing [Roorkee Qualifying 1998] [EAMCET 1991]
[IIT Screening 2000] 32. In which of the following ionic, covalent and
coordinate bonds are present
(a) and respectively
[UPSEAT 2002]
(b) and respectively (a) Water
(c) and respectively (b) Ammonia
(c) Sodium cyanide (d) Potassium bromide
Te
le
gr
am
(SET -3)
@
electronegativities leads to an ionic bond. 12. (b) Due to symmetry dipole moment of p-dichloro
2. (a) From electronic configuration valencies of X and Y benzene is zero.
m
3. (b) Ionic compounds can’t pass electricity in solid symmetric tetrahedral structure. has
state because they don’t have mobile ion in solid slightly higher dipole moment which is equal to
_S
state.
1.86D. Now has less electronegativity
4. (d) sublimes readily on heating.
then . But has greater dipole
pa
6. (b) Sugar is an organic compound which is covalently 15. (a) More the difference in electronegativity of atoms.
bonded so in water it remains as free molecules. Bond between them will be more polar.
7. (c) In the reaction 16. (d) bond has the most polar character due to
difference of their electronegativity.
valency is not
17. (a) has angular geometry and have some value
changing. of dipole moment.
8. (d) does not have octet, it has only six electrons
so it is electron deficient compound. 18. (a)
9. (b) NaCl is a ionic compound because it consists of
more elelctronegativity difference compare to HCl.
9 and 9 bonds.
10. (a) has a coordinate bond besides covalent
19. (d) has hybridization and its shape is
triangular pyramidal due to lone pair on oxygen.
and ionic bonds 20. (c) molecule has hybridisation.
21. (b) In two carbons are joined with 1 and 2
bonds.
22. (a) In molecule structure is most
contributed.
23. (b) The shape of and are linear
trigonal planar and tetrahedral respectively. Thus
the hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
these species are and respectively.
24. (a) NO has one unpaired electron with Nitrogen.
25. (b)
Te
B.O. .
@
O
is
H H H
try
O O
H H H H
_S
O O
pa
H H H H
O O
rk
H H H H
O O
H H
***
21. (b) In two carbons are joined with 1 and 2
bonds.
22. (a) In molecule structure is most
contributed.
23. (b) The shape of and are linear
trigonal planar and tetrahedral respectively. Thus
the hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
these species are and respectively.
24. (a) NO has one unpaired electron with Nitrogen.
-
25. (b)
Te
4. Chapter
gr
O
is
H H H
try
O O
H H H H
_S
O O
pa
H H H H
O O
rk
H H H H
O O
H H
***
11. Which of the following is a primary halide [DCE 2004]
(a) Isopropyl iodide (b) Secondary butyl iodide
(c) Tertiary butyl bromide (d) Neo hexyl chloride
12. Full name of DDT is [KCET 1993]
(a) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2, 2-bis(p-chlorophenyl) ethane
(b) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trimethylethane
Introduction of Halogen containing compounds (c) 1, 1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trichloroethane
(d) None of these
1. How many structural isomers are possible for a 13. The compound which contains all the four
compound with molecular formula [MH CET
and carbon atoms is [J & K 2005]
2001]
(a) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(a) 2 (b) 5
(b) 3-chloro-2, 3-dimethylpentane
(c) 7 (d) 9
(c) 2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane
2. In of Br is [DPMT 1996]
(d) 3, 3-dimethylpentane
(a) 80 (b) 75
Te
(c) (d)
2. What is the main product of the reaction between 2-
5. Benzylidene chloride is methyl propene with HBr [RPMT 2002]
m
process
(c) Propane (d) Benzene
8. Benzene hexachloride is
4.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6-hexachlorocyclohexane
(b) 1, 1, 1, 6, 6, 6-hexachlorocyclohexane
(c) 1, 6-phenyl-1, 6-chlorohexane
(d) 1, 1-phenyl-6, 6-chlorohexane
In the above process product A is [Kerala (Engg.) 2002]
9. Number of present in B.H.C. (Benzene
hexachloride) are [RPMT 1999] (a) Fluorobenzene (b) Benzene
(a) 6 (b) Zero (c) 1, 4-difluorobenzene (d) 1, 3-difluorobenzene
(c) 3 (d) 12 5. Silver acetate . The main product of this
10. The general formula for alkyl halides is reaction is [Kurukshetra CET 2002]
chlorination [CPMT 2001] 16. Which of the following would be produced when
acetylene reacts with HCl [MH CET 1999]
C
(a)
he
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
m
(b) 17.
is
(c) alcohols is
[CPMT 1997]
(d)
_S
[CPMT 1975]
boiled with NaOH [CBSE PMT 1991; RPMT 1999]
(a) (b)
le
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
gr
[MP PMT 1989; CPMT 1997; KCET 1998; JIPMER 1999] 36. Which of the following is responsible for iodoform
reaction
C
27. On heating diethyl ether with conc. HI, 2 moles of (a) Formalin (b) Methanol
m
(d) Concentrated 39. Ethyl benzoate reacts with to give [KCET 2003]
29. Which compound does not form iodoform with alkali (a)
and iodine [IIT-JEE 1985]
(b)
(a) Acetone (b) Ethanol
(c)
(c) Diethyl ketone (d) Isopropyl alcohol
30. Which compound gives yellow ppt. with iodine and (d)
alkali 40. On treatment with chlorine in presence of sunlight,
[IIT-JEE 1984] toluene giv.es the product
(a) 2-hydroxy propane (b) Acetophenone [Orissa JEE 2003; MH CET 1999, 2002]
(c) Methyl acetone (d) Acetamide (a) o-chloro toluene (b) 2, 5-dichloro toluene
31. Acetone reacts with in presence of to form (c) p-chloro toluene (d) Benzyl chloride
[MP PMT 1992]
41. When chlorine is passed through warm benzene in (c) (d) Ethane
presence of the sunlight, the product obtained is [KCET
52. Which compound needs chloral in its synthesis
2003]
[Pb. PET 2003]
(a) Benzotrichloride (b) Chlorobenzene
(a) D. D. T. (b) Gammexane
(c) Gammexane (d) DDT
(c) Chloroform (d) Michler’s Ketone
42. Which of the following acids adds to propene in the 53. To get DDT, chlorobenzene has to react with which of
presence of peroxide to give anti-Markownikoff’s the following compounds in the presence of
product concentrated sulphuric acid [KCET (Engg/Med.) 2001]
[MP PET 2003]
(a) Trichloroethane (b) Dichloroacetone
(a) (b) (c) Dichloroacetaldehyde (d) Trichloroacetaldehyde
(c) (d) 54. What will be the product in the following reaction
43. Propene on treatment with HBr gives [CPMT 1986] CH2
(a) Isopropyl bromide (b) Propyl bromide NBS
[BHU 2005]
(c) 1, 2-dibromoethane (d) None of the above
Br
44. The catalyst used in Raschig's process is CH3 CH3
(a) (b) Copper chloride (a) (b)
Te
(c) (d)
acid, is
am
[AIEEE 2004] Br
(a) Freon (b) DDT
(c) Gammexene (d) Hexachloroethane Properties of Halogen containing compounds
@
Br
[KCET 2004; EAMCET 1986]
(a) (b)
try
1991]
(c) (d)
(a) (b) Br Br
rk
Br
(c) (d)
49. Ethylene reacts with bromine to form [Pb. CET 2000] 2. Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl alcohol by
(a) Chloroethane (b) Ethylene dibromide [KCET 1989]
(c) Cyclohexane (d) 1-bromo propane (a) Heating with dilute hydrochloric acid and zinc
50. Best method of preparing alkyl chloride is [MH CET (b) Boiling with an alcoholic solution of KOH
2004]
(c) The action of moist silver oxide
(a)
(d) Refluxing methanol
(b) 3. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to
(c) [NCERT 1984]
(d) (a) Ethane (b) Propane
51. DDT is prepared by reacting chlorobenzene with (c) n-butane (d) n-pentane
[BHU 1998, 2005]
4. Treatment of ammonia with excess of ethyl chloride
(a) (b) will yield [AIIMS 1992]
(a) Diethyl amine 12. The reactivity of halogen atom is minimum in [KCET
1985]
(b) Ethane
(a) Propyl chloride (b) Propyl iodide
(c) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride
(c) Isopropyl chloride (d) Isopropyl bromide
(d) Methyl amine
13. Chlorobenzene is
5.
(a) Less reactive than benzyl chloride
In the above reaction, X stands for
(b) More reactive than ethyl bromide
[CPMT 1985]
(c) Nearly as reactive as methyl chloride
(a) An oxidant (b) A reductant
(d) More reactive than isopropyl chloride
(c) Light and air (d) None of these
14. The reactivities of methyl chloride, propyl chloride and
6. Phosgene is the common name for chlorobenzene are in the order [KCET 1988]
[DPMT 1983; CPMT 1993; MP PMT 1994; (a) Methyl chloride > propyl chloride > chlorobenzene
Kurukshetra CEE 1998; RPMT 2000, 02]
(b) Propyl chloride > methyl chloride > chlorobenzene
(a) and (b) Phosphoryl chloride (c) Methyl chloride > chlorobenzene > propyl chloride
(c) Carbonyl chloride (d) Carbon tetrachloride (d) Chlorobenzene > propyl chloride > methyl chloride
Te
7. When chloroform is treated with amine and KOH, we 15. Which of the following compound will make
get precipitate most readily with [CPMT 1992]
le
[CPMT 1979]
(a) (b)
gr
chlorine compounds are [KCET 1988] reaction by treating phenol with [KCET 1989]
(a) Methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
m
hydroxide solution
(d) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride (c) Carbon tetrachloride and concentrated sodium
_S
24. The bad smelling substance formed by the action of (c) Chloride ion is not formed
alcoholic caustic potash on chloroform and aniline is (d) does not give silver ion
le
[MP PMT 1971, 92, 2001; CPMT 1971, 86; AFMC 2002;
RPMT 1999] 33. On heating with aq. NaOH, the product is
gr
(a) Phenyl isocyanide (b) Nitrobenzene [CPMT 1971, 78; BHU 1997; EAMCET 1998;
am
(b)
(a) (b)
C
obtained. This compound is [CPMT 1983, 84; RPMT 2002] [CBSE PMT 1994; MP PET 1997; KCET 2005]
(a) A secondary amine (b) An isocyanide (a) Chloral (b)
_S
(a) (b)
(c) HCOOH (d)
(c) (d)
58. Which of the following reacts with phenol to give
68. Haloalkane in the presence of alcoholic KOH
@
(c) A triple bond (d) Fragmentation 69. The set of compounds in which the reactivity of
is
60. When chloroform is treated with conc. it gives halogen atom in the ascending order is [KCET (Engg.)
2002]
try
(c) It gives on boiling with alcoholic (b) p,p-dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane
potash (c) Chloropicrin
am
77. Aryl halide is less reactive than alkyl halide towards (a) Chloroform is heavier than water
nucleophilic substitution because [RPMT 2002] (b) is non-inflammable
C
(a) Less stable carbonium ion (c) Vinyl chloride is more reactive than allyl chloride
he
78. Methyl chloride reacts with silver acetate to yield (c) Trichloroacetic acid (d) Formic acid
[BVP 2003] 88. Alcoholic potash is used to bring about
_S
79. Chloroform for anesthetic purposes is tested for its (c) Dehydrohalogenation (d) Dehalogenation
purity with the reagent [DPMT 2001] 89. Vinyl chloride reacts with to form [JIPMER 2000]
rk
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
m
[AFMC 2000] Na
try
(a) (b)
(b) 1-bromobutane
(c) (d)
(c) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
100. and HF lead to the formation of a compound
(d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
of fluorine of molecular weight 70. The compound is
(e) 2-bromopentane
[RPET 2000]
110. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with sodium
(a) Fluoroform (b) Fluorine monoxide
metal in dry ether, 2-methyl propane was obtained.
(c) Fluorine dioxide (d) Fluromethanol
The alkyl halides are [KCET 2004]
101. Chloroform with zinc dust in water gives [UPSEAT 2000]
(a) 2-chloropropane and chloromethane
(a) (b) Chloropicrin
(b) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
(c) (d) (c) Chloromethane and chloroethane
102. Which of the following is used as a catalyst for (d) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane
preparing Grignard reagent [KCET 1998]
111. In which case formation of butane nitrile is possible
(a) Iron powder (b) Iodine powder [Orissa JEE 2004]
(c) Activated charcoal (d) Manganese dioxide
(a) (b) 122. Reaction of alkyl halides with aromatic compounds in
presence of anhydrous is known as [UPSEAT
(c) (d)
2004]
112. The reaction of an aeromatic halogen compound with (a) Friedal-Craft reaction
an alkyl halides in presence of sodium and ether is (b) Hofmann degradation
called
(c) Kolbe’s synthesis
[MP PMT 2004]
(d) Beckmann rearrangement
(a) Wurtz reaction
123. Two percent of ethanol is added during the oxidation
(b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
of chloroform to stop the formation of carbonyl
(c) Wurtz-fittig reaction
chloride. In this reaction ethanol acts as [Pb. CET 2001]
(d) Kolbe reaction (a) Auto catalyst (b) Negative catalyst
113. The compound added to prevent chloroform to form
(c) Positive catalyst (d) None of these
phosgene gas is [MP PET 2004]
124. When benzene is heated with chlorine in the presence
(a) (b) of sunlight, it forms [Pb. CET 2000]
(c) (d) (a) B.H.C. (b) Cyclopropane
114. Among the following, the one which reacts most (c) p-dichlorobenzene (d) None of these
Te
readily with ethanol is [AIIMS 2004] 125. Ethylene di bromide on heating with metallic sodium
(a) p-nitrobenzyl bromide in ether solution yields [Pb. CET 2004]
le
(b) Nitric acid on chloroform (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Aldol condensation
(c) Steam on carbon tetrachloride 127. At normal temperature iodoform is [MP PET 2004]
C
(d) Nitric acid on chlorobenzene (a) Thick viscous liquid (b) Gas
he
116. In Wurtz reaction alkyl halide react with [MH CET 2004] (c) Volatile liquid (d) Solid
(a) Sodium in ether (b) Sodium in dry ether 128. Which of the following statements about benzyl
m
(c) Sodium only (d) Alkyl halide in ether chloride is incorrect [KCET 2004]
is
117. Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidised to [CPMT (a) It is less reactive than alkyl halides
try
2004]
(b) It can be oxidised to benzaldehyde by boiling with
(a) (b) copper nitrate solution
_S
(c) (d) None of these (c) It is a lachrymatory liquid and answers Beilstein’s
118. Chloroform reacts with concentrated to give test
pa
[Pb. CET 2000] (d) It gives a white precipitate with alcoholic silver
(a) Water gas (b) Tear gas nitrate
rk
(c) Laughing gas (d) Producer gas 129. Ethylene dichloride and ethylidine chloride are
119. When ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH are heated, the isomeric compounds. The false statement about
compound obtained is [MH CET 2003] these isomers is that they [DCE 2003]
(a) React with alcoholic potash and give the same
(a) (b)
product
(c) (d)
(b) Are position isomers
120. Chloroform, on warming with Ag powder, gives (c) Contain the same percentage of chlorine
[MH CET 2003]
(d) Are both hydrolysed to the same product
(a) (b) 130. An alkyl bromide (X) reacts with Na to form 4, 5-
(c) (d) diethyloctane. Compound X is [Roorkee 1999]
(a)
135. DDT is
(b)
(a) A solid (b) A liquid
@
their original labels. They were labelled A and B for 141. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with
he
testing. A and B were separately taken in test tubes tbutanol, the product would be [IIT 2005]
and boiled with solution. The end solution in (a) Benzene (b) Phenol
m
each tube was made acidic with dilute and (c) tbutyl benzene (d) tbutyl phenyl ether
is
[AIEEE 2005]
give a yellow precipitate. Which one of the following
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkyl copper halides
statements is true for this experiment
_S
[AFMC 2005]
(b) A was
(a) (b)
rk
(c) B was
(c) (d)
(d) Addition of was unnecessary
144. Which of the following haloalkanes is most reactive
137. Which of the following statements is incorrect
[KCET 2005]
regarding benzyl chloride [KCET 2003]
(a) 1-chloropropane (b) 1-bromopropane
(a) It gives white precipitate with alcoholic
(c) 2-chloropropane (d) 2-bromopropane
(b) It is an aromatic compound with substitution in
145. Grignard reagent adds to [KCET 2005]
the side chain
(c) It undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction (a) (b)
(d) It is less reactive than vinyl chloride (c) (d) All of the above
138. Alkyl halide can be converted into alkene by 146. Analyse the following reaction and identify the nature
[BCECE 2005] of and [Kerala CET 2005]
(a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) Elimination reaction
(c) Both nucleophilic substitution and elimination
reaction Br
(a) Both A and B are 3. The compound is
Br (a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these
(d) A is 6. Statement “Ozone in atmosphere is decreased by
Br & B is
chloro-fluoro-carbon ” [RPET 1999]
(a) Is true
(b) Is false
(e) A is Br & B is Br
(c) Only in presence of
Te
1. Which of these can be used as moth repellant (a) These are fluoro carbons
(b) These are difficult to synthesise
am
[CPMT 1987]
(c) They deplete ozone layer
(a) Benzene hexachloride (b) Benzal chloride
(d) None of the these
(c) Hexachloroethane (d) Tetrachloroethane 8. The molecular formula of DDT has [MP PMT 1997]
@
2. Which one of the following is the correct formula of (a) 5 chlorine atoms (b) 4 chlorine atoms
C
dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane [AIIMS 1982] (c) 3 chlorine atoms (d) 2 chlorine atoms
H Cl 9. What is the reagent used for testing fluoride ion in
he
| |
(a) Cl water
C ––– C ––– Cl
[EAMCET 2003]
m
|
(a) Alizarin - S (b) Quinalizarin
Cl
is
(a) (b)
|
(c) (d)
rk
Cl
12. Freon (dichlorodifluoro methane) is used
[CPMT 1986; DPMT 1983; CBSE PMT 2001]
H Cl (a) As local anaesthetic
| |
Cl (b) For dissolving impurities in metallurgical process
(c) C ––– C ––– Cl
(c) In refrigerator
|
(d) In printing industry
Cl
13. Which of the following is known as freon which is used
as a refrigerant [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1979, 81, 89; AFMC
Cl Cl 1995;
| | Manipal MEE 1995; MP PET 1995, 2004]
(d) Cl
C ––– C ––– Cl (a) (b)
|
Cl (c) (d)
14. Benzene hexachloride (BHC) is used as
Cl [MP PMT 1994; KCET 1999]
(a) Dye (b) Antimalerial drug
(c) Antibiotic (d) Insecticide [KCET 2005]
15. Which plastic is obtained from as follows (a) They are harmful to the eyes of people that use it
(b) They damage the refrigerators and air
conditioners
(c) They eat away the ozone in the atmosphere
(a) Bakelite (b) Teflon
(d) They destroy the oxygen layer
(c) Polythene (d) Perspex
Cl
fungicide
[Orissa JEE 2003]
(b) Both are insecticides
gr
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
he
[KCET 1998]
(a) Anaesthetic (b) Antiseptic (a) Vinyl chloride (b) Ethyl bromide
is
(c) Analgesic (d) Antifebrin (c) Benzyl chloride (d) Isopropyl chloride
try
20. Which of the following is an anaesthetic [AFMC 1989] 5. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol
(a) (b) requires drastic conditions but chlorine of 2, 4-
_S
21. An important insecticide is obtained by the action of (a) make ring electron rich at ortho and para
chloral on chlorobenzene. It is [KCET 1989]
rk
(a) (b) 6. Among the following one with the highest percentage
of chlorine is [MNR 1989; BHU 1998; MH CET 1999]
(c) (d)
(a) Chloral (b) Pyrene
23. B.H.C. is used as [Pb. CET 2002] (c) PVC (d) Gammexene
(a) Insecticide (b) Pesticide 7. In which alkyl halide, mechanism is favoured
(c) Herbicide (d) Weedicide maximum [RPMT 1997]
24. The use of the product obtained as a result of reaction
(a) (b)
between acetone and chloroform is [RPMT 1999]
(a) Hypnotic (b) Antiseptic (c) (d)
(c) Germicidal (d) Anaesthetic 8. Which conformation of is most powerful
25. Use of chlorofluoro carbons is not encouraged insecticide
because (a) aaeeee (b) aaaeee
(c) aaaaee (d) aaaaaa 16. In which one of the following conversions phosphorus
9. The odd decomposition of carbon chlorine bond form pentachloride is used as a reagent [EAMCET 1997]
[UPSEAT 1999] (a)
(a) Two free ions (b) Two-carbanium ion
(b)
(c) Two carbanion (d) A cation and an anion
10. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in (c)
[IIT-JEE 1998] (d)
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Friedel-Craft's
17. When but –3-en -2- ol reacts with aq. HBr, the product
alkylation
formed is [DCE 2001]
(c) Clemmensen reduction (d) Reimer-Tiemann
(a) 3 - bromobut - 1- ene
reaction
(b) 1 - bromobut - 2- ene
11. An isomer of on boiling with aqueous KOH
(c) A mixture of both a and b
gives acetone. Hence, the isomer is [UPSEAT 2000]
(d) 2 - bromobut - 2 - ene
(a) 2, 2-dichloropropane (b) 1, 2-dichloropropane
18. Which of these do not form Grignard reagent
(c) 1, 1-dichloropropane (d) 1, 3-dichloropropane
(a) (b)
12. Which of the following is the example of reaction
Te
(a) (b)
m
(c) (d)
compound X. Which one of the following reactions
try
(b)
22. Which chlorine atom is more electronegative in the
(c) following [UPSEAT 2004]
rk
solvents.
Reason : p-dichlorobenzene possesses low
C
melting point.
he
5. Assertion : Aqueous hydrohalogen acids are used to Introduction of Halogen containing compounds
prepare alkyl halides from alkenes.
try
above 300°C.
Reason : react slowly with strong Preparation of Halogen containing compounds
rk
76 b,d 77 d 78 c 79 a 80 d
le
81 b 82 b 83 c 84 a 85 b
86 cd 87 b 88 c 89 a 90 a
gr
91 d 92 b 93 b 94 c 95 d
am
96 d 97 a 98 b 99 c 100 a
101 a 102 b 103 d 104 a 105 b
@
146 c
pa
6 a 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 d
11 a 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 b
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 b
21 c 22 b 23 a 24 a 25 c
EXERCISE # 1
(MCQ OF HALOALKANE)
Q.1 Select the alkane which forms four isomeric Q.9 In SN1 reaction, the first step involves the
dihalo derivatives - formation of : -
(1) Isobutane (2) Propane
(1) Free radical (2) Carbanion
(3) Neopentane (4) Ethane
(3) Carbocation (4) Final product
Q.2 Which of the following hydrocarbon with formula
C8H18 gives one monochloro derivatives – Q.10 The rate law for the reaction, RCl + NaOHaq.)
(1) n-Octane ROH + NaCl is given by, rate = K 1 [RCl]. The
(2) 3-Methyl heptane rate of the reaction will be : -
(3) 2, 2, 4 - Trimethyl butane (1) Doubled on doubling the concentration of
(4) 2, 2, 3, 3 - Tetramethyl butane sodium hydroxide
Q.3 Which of the following statement is correct - (2) Halved on reducing the concentration of alkyl
halide to half
(1) Decreasing order of density of alkyl halides is
(3) Decreased on increasing the temperature of
Te
boiling point 1º > 2º > 3º Q.11 Which of the following statements is invalid-
am
(4) All are correct (1) The more stable the carbocation the faster it is
formed
Q.4 Which statement is not correct -
(2) Propyl cation changes to more stable
@
hydrogen
compared to those of corresponding alkanes
(3) Isopropyl chloride reacts with sodium
he
(1) Alkyl halide is non polar & H2O is polar Q.12 Which of the following reaction is the most
try
(3) Alkyl halide does not form hydrogen bond (2) Nucleophilic substitution
with water
(3) Electrophilic addition
pa
No
(4) R - Cl > R - Br > R - F > R - I
10
(4) 1,3-Dibromo propene
Q.15 (A) (B) (C) CH3CHO, Q.24 In reaction
Identify A, B & C - C2H5OH + HX C2H5X + H2O
(1) Ethylalcohol, Ethyl chloride & Ethane the order of reactivity of HX is -
(2) Ethane, Ethylchloride & CH3–CH2–OH (1) HBr > HI > HCl (2) HI > HCl > HBr
(3) Propane, Propylchloride & CH3–CH2–CH2–OH (3) HCl > HBr > HI (4) HI > HBr > HCl
(4) All the above Q.25 Which of the following leads to the formation of
an alkyl halide -
Q.16 An alkyl halide reacted with a metal cyanide to
give an alkanenitrile. The metal cyanide is - (1) C2H5OH
(1) AgCN (2) KCN
(3) Cu2(CN)2 (4) Ba(CN)2 (2) C2H5OH
Q.18 Which one of the following reaction is known as (1) R–Cl (2) R–Br
strecker's reaction - (3) R–I (4) (2) & (3) both
gr
(2) R - X + Na2SO3 R - SO3Na + NaX (1) ROH + HCl (2) ROH + PCl5
(3) RCOOAg + Br2 R - Br + AgBr + CO2 (3) ROH + SOCl2 (4) ROH + PCl3
@
Q.19 The given reaction is called as - (1) Number of carbon atoms decrease
he
(3) Williamson’s synthesis Q.29 Silver benzoate reacts with bromine in acetone to
try
Mus
11
(3) Strecker (4) Wurtz (4) The only aldehyde giving iodoform reaction
is acetaldehyde.
Q.32 The general molecular formula of dihaloalkanes
is - Q.41 The oxidation of CHCl3 by air & light is
(1) CnH2n+1X (2) CnH2n+2X2 prevented by adding -
(1) CH3COOH (2) C2H5OH
(3) CnH2nX2 (4) CnH2n–2X2
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOCH3
Q.33 A vicinal dihalide is not formed in the reaction-
Q.42 Tear gas is -
(1) HOCH2–CH2OH
(1) C(NO2)Cl3 (2) COCl2
(2) CH3–CH = CH2
(3) CH3Cl (4) CH3COCl
(3) CHCH
Q.43 Hoffmann's isocyanide reaction involves the
(4) CH3–CH=CHBr intermediate formation of -
(1) :CCl2 (2) CH3
Q.34 A gem dichloride is formed in the reaction
except - (3) (4) CCl3
(1) CH3CHO and PCl5
Te
(3) CH2=CH2 and Cl2 (1) Phenyl cyanide (2) Phenyl isocyanide
gr
(4) CH2=CHCl and HCl (3) Phenyl cyanate (4) Phenyl isocyanate
am
(3) CH3CH2COCH3
Q.36 Propylidene chloride when heated with zinc
C
Q.38 CHCl3 is kept in brown bottles well stoppered and shows zero dipole moment -
also with 1% alcohol so that it may not form - (1) CH3OH, PCl5
pa
(3) 1º halide = 2º halides > 3º halides (1) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride
(4) 2º halide > 1º halides > 3º halides (2) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
(3) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride
@
(1) (2)
(1) (CH3)3CBr + H2O –––––
try
(3) (CH3)3CBr + CN– ––––– Q.64 The iodoform test is used to show one particular
structural unit in -
pa
Q.57 CH3Br (A) CH3CH2NH2 Q.66 A + PCl5 –––––– POCl3 + Alkyl halide.
Compound A would be -
IUPAC name of (A) is -
(1) Alkanone (2) Alkane
(1) Methyl cyanide (2) Mehyl isonitrile
(3) Alkanol (4) Alkanal
(3) Acetonitrile (4) Ethane nitrile
Q.58 Impure chloroform can tested by - Q.67 Chloroform is used as a laboratory reagent for
testing the presence of -
(1) Concentrated sulphuric acid
(1) Nitro compound
(2) Blue litmus
(2) Primary amines
(3) Silver nitrate solution
Mar
13
(3) Secondary amines (2) Ethylidene chloride
(4) Tertiary amines (3) 1, 2-Di chloro ethane
Q.68 The reaction of chloroform with acetone gives- (4) Methylene chloride
(1) Mesitylene (2) Ethylidene chloride Q.76 Arrange the following in decreasing order of
(3) Chloretone (4) Chloral C-halogen bond length -
Q.69 CCl4 is used as a fire extinguisher because- (1) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
(1) Of its covalent bond (2) CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3Cl
(2) Of its low b.p. (3) CH3CI > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3F
(3) Of its high m.p. (4) CH3I > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F
(4) It gives incombustible vapours
Q.77 Freon - 112 is -
Q.70 (CH3)3CBr + OH– ––––– (CH3)3COH + Br– (1) C2Cl4F2 (2) CCl2F2
Which of the following statements is true for the (3) CCl3F (4) C2Br4F2
above reaction –
(1) If we double [RBr] the rate become four
Q.78 CH3CCl3 A B C
times
(2) If we reduce [OH]– to half, there is no
Te
(3) If we double [RBr] the rate does not change. (2) Acetic acid, ethyl chloride
(4) If we double [OH]– the rate double
gr
2-chloro-2-methylpropane(III)
he
Q.72 The reactivities of CH 3Cl, CH3CH2CH2Cl and (1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III
chlorobenzene are in the order - (3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II
m
(3) C6H5Cl > CH3CH2CH2Cl > CH3Cl The reagent Z in the above reaction is -
_S
Q.73 For CH3Br + OH– –––– CH3OH + Br– (3) NaNO2. + dil. HCl
the rate of reaction is given by the expression- (4) AgNO2
rk
(3) CH3CH2CONH2 + P2O5 (1) It absorbs water formed in the reaction and
he
Q.85 Which of the following processes does not occur and drives the reaction to the right
(3) It assists in forming the nucleophile
is
bleaching powder -
(4) It coordinates with oxygen of ethyl alcohol
(1) Oxidation (2) Chlorination and increases the leaving group ability of the
_S
to give a satisfactory yield of alkyl iodide - the greatest yield of n-propyl bromide ?
rk
Mus15
(4) CH3CHClCH2Cl and CH3CHOHCH2OH Q.97 Which of the following reactions is expected to
take place by SN2 mechanism ?
Q.93 In the following reaction
?
(1)
Product will be
(1) CCH (2) =CH2
(3) (4) CC–CH3 (2) (CH3)3C–Br+ KOH
Q.94 Isobutylmagnesium bromide in dry ether on (3) CH3CH2CHBrCH3+CH3CO2Na
reaction with absolute alcohol gives (4) (CH3)2CHBr + AgCN
(1) (CH3)2 CHCH2OH and CH3CH2MgBr
(2) (CH3)2 CHCH2CH2CH3 and Mg(OH) Br Q.98 Finkelstein reaction is -
(3) (CH3)2CHCH3 and CH3CH2 OMgBr (1) 2CH3CH2Cl+ Ag2O (dry)
(4) (CH3)3 CH, CH2 = CH2 and Mg(OH)Br CH3CH2OCH2CH3+ 2AgCl
Q.95 Which of the following will give a yellow (2) CH3CH2Br + NaI
precipitate of iodoform on heating with I 2 and CH3CH2I+ NaBr
Te
NaOH ?
(3) CH3CH2Br + Ag2O (moist)
le
CH3CH2OH + AgBr
(1)
gr
Q.96 In which of the following cases will the product (3) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH(Br) CH2 CH3
try
(4) CH3–CC–CH3
Meg16
EXERCISE # 2
(BRAIN TWISTERS OF HALOALKANE)
[A] [B]
Q.1
(1) &
(3) &
Q.2 Which will give white ppt. with AgNO3 ?
le
gr
(1) (2)
(4) None of these
am
(A) (B)
Alcohol (B) reacts slowly with sodium metal.
C
Q.3 The compound which gives negative iodoform Hence (A) and (B) are -
test is -
he
(1) ,
m
(1)
is
(2) ,
try
(2)
_S
(3) ,
(3)
pa
(4) ,
rk
(4)
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) None of these
(3) (4)
+ H2O ?
(1) (2)
(1)
le
gr
(1) (2)
@
(4) + NaOH
C
he
(3) (4)
Q.10 Benzyne intermediate is not observed in -
m
is
(1) (2)
(1) CH3–CH2–Cl + Mg
_S
(2)
pa
(3) (4)
rk
(3)
(A) In the above reactions, compound (A) can not Q.15 Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis
be - most easily –
Q.17 The correct reactivity order of alcohols towards (3) (4) All of above
H–X will be
Q.22 1-phenyl-2-cholropropane on treating with alc.
(I) CH2=CH–OH (II) CH2=CH–CH2OH
KOH given mainly -
(III) CH3–CH2–OH (IV) (1) 1-phenylpropene
(2) 2-phenylpropene
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (3) 1-pheylpropane-2-ol
Te
(3) II > IV > I > III (4) II > IV > III > I (4) 1-phenylpropan-1-ol
le
Product ether is -
(1) (2)
@
(1) (2)
C
he
(2)
H2SO4 containing Hg2+ ion gave (D) of formula
C3H6O, which with bromine and alkali gave the
sodium salt of C2H4O2. Then (A) is – (3)
(1) CH3CH2CHCl2 (2) CH3CCl2CH3
(3) CH2ClCH2CH2Cl (4) CH3CHClCH2Cl
(4)
Q.20 Following reaction is –
(A) (C)
The compound (A) is -
The major end product formed is
(1) CH3CH2CHCl2 (2) CH3CCl2CH3
(3) CH3CHClCH2Cl (4) ClCH2CH2CH2Cl
(1) (2)
Q.27 A compound (X), C4H8Cl2, on hydrolysis with
aqueous KOH gives a product (Y) which on
heating with I2 and dilute NaOH gives a yellow
(3) (4)
precipitate of iodoform. The compound (X) is -
(1) CH3CH2CH2CHCl2 (2) CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl
Te
(1) (2)
rk
Bo
20
Q.34 Consider the following alcohols.
Q.37 A,
product A is -
(1)
(2)
The order of decreasing reactivities of these
alcohols towards nucleophilic substitution with
HBr is - (3)
(1) III > I > IV > II (2) III > I > II > IV
(3) I > III > IV > II (4) I > III > II > IV
(4)
Te
Bromo-3-methylcyclohexane
gr
product
@
C
B and C are –
C is -
(1) + CH3–COOH
(1) (2)
(2) + CHI3
(3) (4)
(3) +
②
21
(4) + CHI3
EXERCISE # 3A
(AIPMT & AIIMS QUESTIONS)
Q.1 Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for (3) R–I>R–Cl>R–Br>R–F
following compounds - [AIPMT] (4) R–F>R–I>R–Br>R–Cl
(I) (II)
Q.6 P, In the above reaction
(III) (IV)
(1) (2)
le
gr
am
(1) IV < I < II < III (2) III < II < I < IV
(3) I < IV < III < II (4) II < III < I < IV (3) (4)
@
n-butane, will be - [AIPMT] aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(1) Meso form (2) Racemic mixture [AIPMT]
pa
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3
Q.15 Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic
le
[AIPMT]
am
6 5 2
C H CH Br X,
try
(1) C H CH OH
(2) C6H5CH3
rk
Q.18 Which of the following reactions is an example of (2) CH3–CH = CH2 + H2O
nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
(3) RCHO + RMgX
[AIPMT-2009]
P 23
[AIPMT MAINS-2016]
CH3 – CH2 – – CH2NH2
(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + HBr
(ii) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + Br–
Q.22 Which of the following compounds undergoes
The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?
respectively :
[AIPMT MAINS-2013]
(1) and (2) and
(1) (2)
(3) and (4) and
(3) (4)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
B
24
EXERCISE # 3B
(OTHER EXAM QUESTIONS)
Q.1 Etheral solution of methyl iodide and ethyl iodide Q.8 Elimination of HBr from 2–bromobutane results
in presence of metallic sodium gives - in the formation of – [AIEEE-2005]
[RPMT-2003] (1) predominantly 2–butene
(1) Methane (2) Propane (2) equimolar mixture of 1 and 2–butene
(3) Methanol (4) Propene (3) predominantly 2–butyne
Q.2 Which gives maximum yield of C2H5Cl (4) predominantly 1–butene
[RPMT-2004] Q.9 Among the following the one that gives positive
(1) C2H6 + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl iodoform upon reaction with I2 and NaOH is –
(excess) [AIEEE-2006]
(2) C2H6 + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl (1) C6H5CH2CH2OH
(excess) (2)
Te
(4) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3
Q.3 The least reactive chlorine is present in -
gr
(1) Methyl chloride (2) Allyl chloride decreasing SN2 reactivity ? [AIEEE-2007]
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Vinyl chloride (1) RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX
(2) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
@
Q.5 The correct order of the thermal stability of (1) (CH3)3CCl (2) (CH3)2CHCl
hydrogen halides (H – X) is - [AIEEE-2005] (3) CH3Cl (4) (C2H5)2CHCl
_S
(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI Q.12 The order of reactivity of the following alkyl
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
pa
(4)HCl < HBr > HBr < HI (2) R–F > R–Br > R–Cl > R–I
(3) R–Cl > R–Br > RF > RI
Q.6 Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to (4) R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F
substitution by SN2 mechanism because of -
Q.13 Identify the set of reagents/reaction conditions 'X'
[AIEEE-2005] and 'Y' in the following set of transformations
(1) instability (2) insolubility
(3) steric hindrance (4) inductive effect CH3CH2–CH2Br Product
(1) (2)
?
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
Q.15
[IIT-2005]
Te
(A)
am
(B)
he
dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3
(C) cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic KOH is.
_S
[IIT-2011]
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
pa
(1) A & B (2) only B Q.20 By heating which mixture, propane nitrile will be
rk
obtained ? [RPMT-2011]
(3) C only (4) A & C (1) Ethyl alcohol + KCN
(2) Propyl alcohol + KCN
(3) Ethyl chloride + KCN
Q.16 The reagent in for the following conversion is/are (4) Propyl chloride + KCN
Q.21 Major product of the reaction [RPMT-2011]
(CH3)3C – Cl + C2H5ONa
[IIT – 2007]
would be -
(1) alcoholic KOH (1) (CH3)2C–OC2H5 (2) (CH3)3C–C2H5
(2) Alcholic KOH followed by NaNH2 (3) (CH3)2C = CH2 (4) CH3–CH=CH–C2H5
(3) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 Q.22 C2H5Cl 'A' 'B' 'C'
(4) Zn/CH3OH A, B and C respectively are - [RPMT-2011]
(1) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
(2) C2H5NH2, C2H5NH–Cl, C2H5–NCl2
(3) C2H5NH2, CH2=CH2, Cl–CH2–CH2–C2H5
(4) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)3N, (C2H5)2NH
A26
=>
EXERCISE # 4
(ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)
These questions consist of two statements each, Q.6 Assertion : Benzyl bromide when kept in acetone
printed as Assertion and Reason. While water it produces benzyl alcohol.
answering these Questions you are required to Reason : The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
choose any one of the following four responses. [AIIMS-2003]
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion Q.7 Assertion : Isobutanal does not give iodoform test.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason : It does not have -hydrogen.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the [AIIMS-2004]
Assertion
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
Te
(D) If both Assertion & Reason are False Q.8 Assertion : Styrene on reaction with HBr gives 1-
bromo-1-phenyl-ethane.
le
Q.1 Assertion : Aryl halides are more reactive than Reason : Benzyl radical is more stable than alkyl
gr
bottles upto top level of the bottle. Reason : 1-Butene is more stable than 2-butene.
m
Reason : CHCl3 gives phosgene when contacts (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
with air.
is
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.10 Assertion : Rate of hydrolysis of methyl cholride
try
Q.3 Assertion : CHI3 gives yellow ppt. with AgNO3 Reason : Hydrolysis of methyl cholride follows
while CHCl3 goes not gives any ppt. second order kinetics. [AIIMS-2005]
pa
Reason : CHCl3 is colourless liquid while CHI3 is (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
yellowish solid.
rk
m27
Q.13 Assertion : Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic Q.17 Assertion : In SN1 reaction inversion and
substitution with ease. retention both are take place .
Reason : Carbon-halogen bond in aryl halides has
Reason : In SN1 reaction intermediate is
partial double bond character.
carbocation
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.14 Assertion : Optically active 2-iodobutane on Q.18 Assertion : SN2 reaction takes place in single step.
treatment with Na in acetone undergoes Reason : SN2 reaction involves the reactivity order
racemization. of alkyl halides as 1° > 2° > 3° halides.
Reason : Repeated Walden inversions on the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
reactant and its product eventually gives a
racemic mixture.
Q.19 Assertion : Ethyl chloride is more reactive than
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
vinyl chloride towards nucleophile substitution
reactions.
Q.15 Assertion : SN2 reaction of an optically active
Reason : In vinyl chloride, the chlorine is bonded
Te
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.20 Assertion: The presence of nitro group facilitates
nucleophilic substitution reactions is aryl halides.
Q.16 Assertion : The dipole moment of CH3F is Reason: The intermediate carbanion is stabilized
@
C–Cl bond.
he
ma
28
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # 1
EXERCISE # 2
Te
le
gr
am
EXERCISE # 3A
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
@
Ans. 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 1
C
Q.No. 21 22 23
he
Ans. 4 2 4
m
EXERCISE # 3B
is
try
_S
pa
EXERCISE # 4
rk
EXERCISE-5
Ma
225
ALKYL,ARYL HALIDES
Integer answers type questions:
1. When isopentane is subjected to monochlorination, what will be the number of
monochlorinated products contain chiral carbon ?
2. How many of the following statements are true ?
i All halogens are soluble in CCl4
ii. Lower halogens displace upper halogens from the respective halates of the later
iii. Upper halogens displace lower haloges from the respective halides of the later
iv. All halogens form oxyacids
v. All halogens are coloured
vi. Among oxides of halogens, monoxides are the strongest oxidants
vii. All halogens form intra-halogen compounds
Te
viii. Inter halogen compounds are generally more reactive than halogens
le
(ignoring chirality)
7 How many organic compounds are formed in the reaction ?
8. How many moles of AgNO3 will react with the given compound?
-
Page No 1
9.
=
Page No 2
ALKYL,ARYL HALIDES – KEY SHEET
Integer Answers
1 4 2 7 3 3 4 2 5 4 6 6
7 4 8 3 9 8
1.
Te
le
gr
am
3.
m
x is
is
try
_S
pa
rk
e
Page No 3
4. (One chiral carbon)
5. Fact
6.
7.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
8. 3
9. 8
-
Page No 4
ALKYL, ARYL HALIDES
Matching answer type questions:
1. Match column-I and column-II with respect to rate determining step
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
(b) (q)
(c) (r)
Te
le
gr
am
@
(d) (s)
C
he
m
is
try
Column I Column II
(a) on treatment with (p) E1 reaction
pa
alc.KOH gives
rk
as a major product
(b) reacts faster (q) E2 reaction
than
(c) on treatment (r) E1cb reaction
with gives
as the major
product
(d) & (s) First order reaction
react with same rate
3. List – I List – II
>
Page No 1
a) p)
b) q)
c) r)
d) s)
CH 3
Te
OH CH 3 Cl
C HCl C
le
C 6H 5 H C 6H 5
gr
H
am
4.
@
Column I Column II
(a) is weaker nucleophile (p) Bulky group present
C
on nucleophilic
he
than SH
centre decreases
m
nucleophilicity
is
decreases on going
from left to right in
than NH 2
_S
the period of
periodic table.
pa
negative
charge is a stronger
than
nucleophile than a
similar
species without a
negative
charge
(d) (s) Nucleophilicity
decreases on going
down in the
group of the periodic
is weaker nucleophile than table
Page No 2
-
5. Column-1 contains some organic reactions and column-2 contains the nature
of the intermediate through which the reaction goes. Match column–1 with
column–2.
Column – I Column – II
(A) (p) Carbanion
Page No 3
--
d) Solvolysis of tertiary butyl chloride s) SNAr
Column-I Column-II
a) p) EAS
b) q) ArSN
Radical
c) r) substitutio
n
Te
d) s) Aliphatic SN
le
gr
·
Page No 4
(A) Dehalogenation of meso-2, 3- (p) SN2
dibromobutane
(B) Dehalogenation of (S, S) – 2, 3- (q) Cis-2-butene
dibromobutane
(C) Hydrolysis of 2-bromo-3- (r) SN1
methylbutane
(D) CH3CH = CHCH2Cl + CN (s) Trans-2-butene
(t) Anti-elimination
11. Match the column I with Column II
Column I Column II
(A) (p)
Te
le
(B) (q)
gr
am
@
(C) (r)
C
he
m
(D) (s)
is
try
_S
(t)
pa
rk
A) P) Addition - Elimination
CH 3ONa
O 2N Cl O 2N O CH 3
0
CH 3OH, 65
B) Q) Elimination - Addition
-
Page No 5
N aN H 2
H 3C Cl P roduct
liq. N H 3
C) R)
N aN H 2
Cl P roduct
liq . N H 3
D) Te S) Benzyne
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 6
ALKYL, ARYL HALIDES – KEY SHEET
Matching Answers
1 A – PS 2 A–Q 3 A –S 4 A–R 5 A – PRS 6 A-R
B–R B–Q B- Q B–Q B–S B-P
C–Q C – RS C–R C–S C–P C-S
D-R D – PS D–P D-P D-Q D-Q
7 A-PS 8 A-P 9 A-PS 10 A-ST 11 A-R 12 A-PR
B-P B-R B-QR B-QT B-P B-PR
C-PR C-Q C-PS C-R C-S C-QS
D-PQ D-R D-PR D-P D-R D-QS
Matching solutions
1. Conceptual
le
2. Conceptual
gr
am
3. A)
4. Conceptual
@
H H H
Na in liq. NH3 H H
he
NH3
H
m
H H H H NH2
H
is
H
H
try
H H
Radical anion
_S
5. Radical
pa
CH3 CH3
H H
rk
H H
Na in liq. NH3 NH3 H
H H
NH2 H
H H
H
H H
Carbanion
Soln
-a
Page No 7
O O
O O
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Conceptual
10. Conceptual
11. (A– R), (B – P), (C – S), (D – R)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
-
--
Page No 8
1. Preparation of alkyl halides in laboratory is least
preferred by (a) (b)
(a) Halide exchange
(b) Direct halogenation of alkanes
(c) (d)
(c) Treatment of alcohols
(d) Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes 8. The total number of stereoisomeric forms of
(b)
it is shaked with chlorine water. Chloroform layer
is
(c)
becomes violet. Solution contains [CPMT 1982]
try
(d)
(a) (b)
11. Which of the following reactions doesn’t give benzene
_S
(a)
[AIEEE 2002]
rk
(b)
(a) Elimination reaction (b) Substitution reaction
(c) Free radical reaction (d) Displacement reaction (c)
(c) (d)
[AIIMS 1983; AFMC 1998; MP PET 1997] 14. Which of these do not undergo Wurtz reaction
(a) (b) (c) 1-butyne (d) 2-butene
15. When ethyl bromide reacts with sodium acetylide the (a) (b)
main product is [Pb. CET 2002] (c) (d)
(a) 1-butane (b) 1-butene
(SET -25)
e.g.
le
gr
2. (b) Addition
Not shown by alkyl halide
reaction
am
(saturated compound)
Dehydrohalogenatio R CH CH 2 HX 8. (c) has 8 stereoisomer.
R CH 2 CH 2 X n Alkene
Alc.KOH
Alkyhalide 9. (c) The bond polarity order are as under
@
Elimination R CH CH 2 HX
Alkene
Alc.KOH
C
Substitutio Alcohol
reaction is
n
m
4. (d) (Dissolves in
to give violet colour)
_S
Cl
Chlorine displaces iodine from salt. The iodine get Cl Cl
pa
Cl
5. (b) BHC
14. (a)
***
>
=>
Thus, is produced.
O
Te
5. Chapter
le
gr
(c) (d)
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
le
[DPMT 1984, 2000; MP PET 2001; J & K 2005] (a) Phthalic acid (b) Phosphoric acid
am
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Monohydric alcohol (c) Picric acid (d) Phenylacetic acid
(c) Secondary alcohol (d) Trihydric alcohol 14. 1, 2, 3-trihydroxybenzene is also known as
@
5. Cresols are
(a) Pyrogallol (b) Phloroglucinol
(a) Hydroxy toluenes (b) Dihydric phenols
C
6. Carbon percentage is maximum in [BHU 1998] 15. Butanal is an example of [MP PET 1991]
(a) Pyrene (b) Gammexane (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
m
(c) Ethylene glycol (d) PVC (c) Aliphatic aldehyde (d) Aliphatic ketone
is
27. Oxygen atom in ether is [MP PMT/PET 1988] Preparation of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
rk
7. Which enzyme converts glucose and fructose both into (c) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride and NaOH
gr
[MP PMT 1989, 90, 96; CPMT 1983, 84, 86, 94;
KCET 1989; MNR 1978; MP PET 1994, 99] then we get [CPMT 1989, 90; KCET 2000]
(a) Diastase (b) Invertase (a) Acetylene (b) Methane
(c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate
@
heat followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH gives evolved hydrogen on treatment with sodium. It is
he
20. . The
enzymes stepwise complete the fermentation reaction
_S
[BIT 1992]
(a) Diastase, maltase and zymase reactant A is [MH CET 2002, 03; AFMC 2004; MP PMT/PET
pa
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzene (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Phenol (d) Benzoic acid (c) A ketone (d) An ester
24. Maltose on hydrolysis gives [BHU 1996; CPMT 2001] 34. Reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide on (i) ethyl
(a) Mannose + glucose (b) Galactose + glucose bromide and (ii) chlorobenzene gives
(c) Glucose (d) Mannose + fructose (a) (i) Ethene and (ii) o-chlorophenol
25. Absolute alcohol can be obtained from rectified spirit (b) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) o-chlorophenol
[KCET 1985] (c) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) phenol
(a) By removing the water in it using concentrated (d) (i) Ethyl alcohol an d(ii) no reaction
sulphuric acid 35. RMgBr on reaction with an excess of oxygen followed
(b) By removing the water using phosphorus by hydrolysis gives [Roorkee Qualifying 1998]
pentoxide (a) RH (b) ROOR
(c) By distilling with the appropriate amount of (c) ROOH (d) ROH
benzene 36. The reaction between an ester and excess of Grignard
(d) By distilling over plenty of quick lime reagent shall finally result in a [UPSEAT 2000]
26. Grignard reagent reacts with compounds containing (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
Te
which of the following groups [MNR 1987] (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Ketone
(a) (b) 37. The compound that will react most readily with NaOH
le
further hydrolysis gives [UPSEAT 2000] (a) Ethanol (b) Hydrogen peroxide
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Primary alcohol (c) Anthracene (d) None of these
he
(c) Acetic acid (d) 2-methyl 2-propanol 39. Which gas is eliminated in fermentation [RPMT 1997]
m
(c) (d)
try
[MP PET 1994; CBSE PMT 1998] (a) Ethane (b) Ammonia
(a) (b) (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Nitroethane
pa
(a) Only symmetrical ethers (b) Only symmetrical 55. When ethanal reacts with and
ethers /dry HCl the product formed are [DCE 2003]
(c) Both types (d) None of these
@
46. Williamson's synthesis is used to prepare 56. Which of the following is industrially prepared by
[DPMT 1976, 81, 82, 83, 84; CPMT 1976, 82]
is
alkoxide the product most likely is 57. In which case methyl-t-butyl ether is formed
[MP PMT 1996; EAMCET 1998]
pa
61. Acetic acid and are obtained on large scale 5. A compound X with molecular formula can
(a) Wood (b) Coal formula X is most likely to be [MP PMT 1991]
Te
(c) Turpentine (d) Crude oil (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Aldehyde (d) Ketone
le
acid
[KCET (Med.) 2001] and The structure of the alcohol
am
[J & K 2005]
alkaline One mole of this gas also takes one
(a) Phenolate ions and methyl iodide
pa
(a) (b)
(d) Bromo benzene and methyl bromide
(c) (d)
Properties of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers 8. An aromatic amine (A) was treated with alcoholic
potash and another compound (Y) when foul smelling
gas was formed with formula Y was
1. Which compound is formed when reacts
formed by reacting a compound (Z) with in the
with [CPMT 1977, 89]
presence of slaked lime. The compound (Z) is [CBSE PMT
(a) Acetone (b) Alcohol 1990]
(c) Methane (d) Ethane (a) (b)
2. A compound X of formula yields a compound (c) (d)
, on oxidation. To which of the following 9. Rectified spirit obtained by fermentation contains
classes of compounds could X being [Pb. PMT 2000] 4.5% of water. So in order to remove it, rectified spirit
nitrophenol is not. This is due to [CBSE PMT 1989] 23. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation forms
[CPMT 1971, 81, 94; RPMT 2002]
(a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present in
le
12. Reaction of phenol with dil. gives 25. The alcohol that produces turbidity immediately with
[KCET 1993; RPMT 1997]
conc. HCl at room temperature
C
(c) Picric acid (d) o- and m-nitrophenols CBSE PMT 1989; CPMT 1989;
13. Phenol is less acidic than MP PET 1997; JIPMER 1999]
m
14. The strongest acid among the following aromatic (d) 1-hydroxy-2-methylpropane
compounds is 26. The reagent which easily reacts with ethanol and
_S
[NCERT 1978]
(a) ortho-nitrophenol (b) para-chlorophenol propanol is
(c) para-nitrophenol (d) meta-nitrophenol [MP PET 1989]
pa
15. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some (a) Fehling solution (b) Grignard reagent
(c) Schiff's reagent (d) Tollen's reagent
rk
(c) (d)
am
and . The unknown compound ‘D’ is [BHU 2000] 42. Cresol has [CPMT 2003]
is
(c) – (d) –
(c) (d)
43. In
_S
36. The compound ‘A’ when treated with ceric ammonium 44. Sodium phenoxide reacts with at and 4-7
nitrate solution gives yellow ppt. The compound ‘A’ is atm pressure to give [MP PET 1996]
[MP PET 2002] (a) Sodium salicylate (b) Salicylaldehyde
(a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde (c) Catechol (d) Benzoic acid
(c) Acid (d) Alkane 45. The reaction of with does not
37. Which of the following product is formed, when ether give
is exposed to air [AIIMS 2000; RPMT 2002] [MP PET 1996]
(a) Oxide (b) Alkanes (a) Ethylene (b) Diethyl ether
(c) Alkenes (d) Peroxide of diethyl (c) Acetylene (d) Ethyl hydrogen
ether sulphate
38. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating 46. The order of stability of carbonium ions is [MP PET 1996]
49. In the Liebermann's nitroso reaction, sequential (c) Pri < Sec > Ter (d) Pri < Sec < Ter
changes in the colour of phenol occurs as
gr
50. Which one of the following reactions does not yield an bromobutane [EAMCET 1989]
he
(c) (d)
(b) Diethyl ether
is
(a) (b)
Te
Br
OH
Br Br
le
(c) (d)
(c) (d) Mixture of (a) and (b)
gr
Br
am
OH
(a)
O2 N NO 2
_S
(c)
pa
NO 2
(d)
73. Primary alcohols on dehydration give [NCERT 1986]
rk
67. In the following series of chemical reactions, identify Z (a) Alkenes (b) Alkanes
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
74. Primary and secondary alcohols on action of reduced
[Manipal MEE 1995] copper give [CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1985;
EAMCET 1987, 93; MP PET 1995]
(a) (b) (a) Aldehydes and ketones respectively
(b) Ketones and aldehydes respectively
(c) Only aldehydes
(c) (d) (d) Only ketones
75. Methyl alcohol on oxidation with acidified
68. Alcohols of low molecular weight are gives
[CPMT 1976, 89; Pb. PMT 2000] [MNR 1987]
(a) Soluble in water
(a) (b)
(b) Soluble in all solvents
(c) (d) (d) It does not show acidic property
86. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with [MP PMT 2000]
76. Ethyl alcohol on oxidation with gives
[MNR 1987; Bihar CEE 1995; UPSEAT 2000] (a) (b)
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) (d)
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Formic acid
87. Which of the following reagents convert the propene
77. Lucas test is used for
to 1-propanol [CBSE PMT 2000]
[CBSE PMT 1990; AIIMS 2002; AFMC 2005]
(a) Alcohols (b) Amines (a)
(c) Diethyl ether (d) Glacial acetic acid (b) Aqueous
78. When phenol reacts with ammonia in presence of (c)
at 300°C, it gives [AFMC 2001]
(d)
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine (d) Both (b) and (c) 88. Compound ‘A’ reacts with to give ‘B’ which on
79. Azo-dyes are prepared from [CPMT 2001] treatment with followed by hydrolysis gave
(a) Aniline (b) Benzaldehye propanoic acid as the product. What is ‘A’ [CBSE PMT
Te
2002]
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Phenol
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
le
(a) Phenol (b) Toluene 89. Which reagent can convert acetic acid into ethanol
am
[BVP 2003]
(c) Benzene (d) Benzoic acid
81. Which of the following has lowest boiling point (a) alcohol (b) ether
@
(a) (b)
83. The role of conc. in the esterification process
_S
is (c) (d)
[RPMT 1999] 92. Electrophilic substitution reaction in phenol take place
pa
(a) Catalyst at
(b) Dehydrating agent
rk
[RPMT 2002]
(c) Hydrolysing agent (a) p- position (b) m- position
(d) Dehydrating agent and catalyst (c) o- position (d) o- and p- position
84. Methanol and ethanol are distinguished by the
93. Liebermann's test is answered by [KCET 1998]
[MP PET 1999]
(a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
(a) Action of HCl (b) Iodoform test
(c) Ethyl benzoate (d) Phenol
(c) Solubility in water (d) Sodium
94. In the sequence of the following reactions [MP PMT
85. For phenol, which of the following statements is
2002]
correct
[MP PMT 1995]
(a) It is insoluble in water X is
(b) It has lower melting point compared to aromatic
(a) (b)
hydrocarbons of comparable molecular weight
(c) It has higher boiling point than toluene (c) (d)
95. The boiling point of glycerol is more than propanol [MP PET 1991; CPMT 1981; MP PMT 1990;
because of [CPMT 1997, 2002] IIT 1982; RPMT 2000]
(a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Hybridisation (a) m-bromophenol (b) o-and p-bromophenol
(c) Resonance (d) All the above (c) p-bromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
96. Which of the following produces violet colour with 105. Oxidation of ethanol by chromic acid forms [MP PET
1992]
solution
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(a) Enols (b) Ethanol (c) 2-propanone (d) Ethanoic acid
(c) Ethanal (d) Alkyl halides 106. Which of the following not gives effervescence with
97. When heated with under pressure alone or in [MP PET 1992]
presence of zinc chloride phenols are converted into (a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
[RPMT 1997] (c) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol
(a) Aminophenols (b) Aniline 107. Conc. reacts with at to
(c) Nitrobenzene (d) Phenyl hydroxylamine form
98. Because of resonance the oxygen atom of [MP PMT 1991; MP PET 1991; IIT-JEE 1981;
Te
charge
(c) (d)
gr
99. When glycerol is heated with it gives [MP PMT 1992; MP PET 1991]
[CPMT 1974, 85; MP PMT 1988, 90, 91, 92, 94; (a) Toluene (b) Phenol
@
(c) (d)
yield ethylene
rk
compounds are
(a) (i) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol and
114. Dehydrogenation of gives
le
(ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol
X and Y are respectively [MP PMT 2002]
he
Lucas reagent (Conc. What results do (b) Passing dry HCl through it
you expect at room temperature (c) Distilling it
(a) (ii) and (iii) react immediately and (i) in about 5 (d) Reacting with Mg
minutes
123. With oxalic acid, glycerol at gives [BHU 1996]
(b) (iii) reacts immediately, (ii) reacts in about 5
minutes and (i) not at all (a) Allyl alcohol (b) Glyceryl mono-oxalate
(c) (i) reacts immediately, (ii) reacts in about 5 (c) Formic acid (d) Glyceraldehyde
minutes and (iii) not at all 124. Absolute alcohol cannot be prepared by fractional
(d) (i) reacts in about 5 minutes, (ii) reacts in about 15 distillation of rectified spirit since
minutes and (iii) not at all (a) It forms azeotropic mixture
117. Ethylene may be obtained by dehydration of which of (b) It is used as power alcohol
the following with concentrated at 160 – (c) It is used in wines
170°C (d) None of the above
[DPMT 2000; MP PET 2001] 125. The reagent used for the dehydration of an alcohol is
[MP PET/PMT 1998] (c) Lower members are insoluble in water and
(a) Phosphorus pentachloride organic solvents but solubility regularly increases
(b) Calcium chloride with molecular weight
(c) Aluminium oxide (d) Lower members have pleasant smell and burning
(d) Sodium chloride taste, while higher members are odourless and
126. Which one of the following compounds gives a tasteless
positive iodoform test [MP PMT 1997] 134. At room temperature the alcohol that do not reacts
(a) Pentanal (b) 1-phenyl ethanol with Lucas reagent is
(c) 2-phenyl ethanol (d) 3-pentanol (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
127. What amount of bromine will be required to convert 2 (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) All these three
g of phenol into 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol [MP PET/PMT 135. By means of calcium chloride which of following can
1998] be dried
(a) 4.00 (b) 6.00 (a) Methanol (b) Ethanol
(c) 10.22 (d) 20.44 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
128. Ethyl alcohol exhibits acidic character on reacting with 136. Lucas test is used to distinguish between [MP PET 1994]
Te
amines
(b) Sodium metal
gr
138.
(b) Alcohol molecules are solvated
he
(c) Their boiling points are very near In the above reaction A, B and C are the following
m
130. The reaction between an alcohol and an acid with the (a) and aniline
try
(c) (d) HO HO HO
O2 N NO2 NO2
Te
NO2
(a) is replaced by group
C
147. A compound A on oxidation gave acetaldehyde, then 154. In presence of NaOH, phenol react with to
try
was reacted with ammoniacal then silver [BIT 1992; MP PMT 1990, 2002;
mirror was produced. A is likely to be [DPMT 1996] AIIMS 1992; MP PET 1994; JIPMER 1999]
pa
(c) (d) 168. The compound which gives the most stable
O2 N NO2 carbonium ion on dehydration is [DCE 2000]
le
NO2
(a)
gr
is
[UPSEAT 2000]
(a) Equal to water (b) Equal to methanal (b)
@
160. Glycerol heated with oxalic acid at to form 169. In which bond dissociates
try
(a) A ternary azeotrope (b) Absolute alcohol 186. Which of the following is most acidic [CPMT 1999]
(c) A binary azeotrope (d) Denatured spirit (a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
176. Alcohols react with Grignard reagent to form [DPMT (c) m-chlorophenol (d) Cyclohexanol
Te
179. In esterification of an acid, the other reagent is 190. In the following reaction
try
[CPMT 1988] X is
(a) Aldehyde (b) Alcohol [MP PMT 2002]
_S
[MP PMT/ PET 1988; MP PMT 1989] 191. Diethyl ether absorbs oxygen to form [DPMT 1984]
rk
(a) Covalent bond (b) Ionic bond (a) Red coloured sweet smelling compound
(c) H-bond with (d) None of the above (b) Acetic acid
(c) Ether suboxide
181. Alcohols can be distinguished from alkenes by
(d) Ether peroxide
(a) Dissolving in cold concentrated
192. Diethyl ether can be decomposed by heating with
(b) Decolourizing with bromine in [CPMT 1980, 81, 89]
(c) Oxidizing with neutral permanganate solution (a) HI (b) NaOH
(d) None of the above (c) Water (d)
182. At Ethylene glycol is a 193. On boiling with concentrated hydrobromic acid,
(a) Solid compound (b) Liquid phenyl ethyl ether will yield [AIIMS 1992]
(c) Gas (d) Brown solid (a) Phenol and ethyl bromide
183. When primary alcohol is oxidised with chlorine, it (b) Phenol and ethane
produces (c) Bromobenzene and ethanol
[AFMC 1999] (d) Bromobenzene and ethane
194. Ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with 202. Etherates are
conc. The conditions are [KCET 1984] (a) Ethers
(b) Solution in ether
(a) Excess of and
(c) Complexes of ethers with Lewis acid
(b) Excess of and
(d) Complexes of ethers with Lewis base
(c) Excess of and 203. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the
(d) Excess of conc. and same molecular formula. This is due to [AIEEE 2003]
(a) Dipolar character of ethers
195. The ether O CH2
(b) Alcohols having resonance structures
(c) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
when treated with HI produces [IIT-JEE 1999]
(d) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
204. When ether is reacted with it undergoes
(a) (b)
explosion due to [CPMT 1996]
(c) (d) (a) Peroxide (b) Acid
I OH (c) Ketone (d) TNT
Te
(a) (b)
(c)
he
(d)
(c) (d) None of the above
m
NO 2
(a) (b) 214. Which of the following reagents will produce
salicyldehyde on reaction with phenol [DPMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
215. At 530 K, glycerol reacts with oxalic acid to produce
210. The boiling point of methanol is greater than that of
[Pb. CET 2002]
methyl thiol because [Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) Allyl alcohol (b) Formic acid
(a) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in
(c) Glyceraldehyde (d) Glycerol monooxalate
methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding
in methyl thiol 216. With anhydrous zinc chloride, ethylene glycol gives
(b) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in [MP PMT 2004]
(e) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and 218. Amongst the following, HBr reacts fastest with
intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol [IIT-JEE 1986; JIPMER 2000; DCE 2003]
am
will be [Pb . CET 2001] (a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Cinnamic acid
he
(b) Allyl alcohol 220. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with t-
(c) Formaldehyde butanol, the product would be
is
212. Which of the following will not form a yellow (c) t-butyl benzene (d) t-butyl ether
_S
precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of 221. Which of the following is used as catalyst for
iodine preparing Grignard reagent [Pb. CET 2002]
pa
(d)
(a) (b)
213. In Friedal-Crafts acylation, besides , the other
reactants are [DPMT 2004] (c) (d)
OH OH
223. Dehydration of 2-butanol yield [Pb. CET 2004]
(a) (b) (a) 1-butene (b) 2-butene
(c) 2-butyne (d) Both (a) and (b)
OH
224. Fats, on alkaline hydrolysis, gives [MH CET 2003]
(a) Oils (b) Soaps
(c) (d)
(c) Detergents (d) Glycol + acid
225. When vapours of an alcohol are passed over hot
233. A and B respectively are
reduced copper, alcohol is converted into alkene
quickly, the alcohol is [CPMT 1985] [RPMT/PET 2000]
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (a) Alkene, alkanal (b) Alkyne, alkanal
(c) Tertiary (d) None of these (c) Alkanal, alkene (d) Alkene, alkyne
226. The adduct of the compound 'A' obtained by the 234. Which one of the following reactions would produce
secondary alcohol [MP PET 1994]
reaction with excess of isopropyl magnesium iodide,
upon hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol. The
compound 'A' is (a)
[MP PET 1985]
(a) An ester (b) A secondary alcohol
(c) A primary alcohol (d) An aldehyde (b)
227. If there be a compound of the formula
which one of the following
(c)
compounds would be obtained from it without
Te
(a) (b)
gr
229. What is formed when glycerol reacts with HI [DCE 2002] 236. The best method to prepare cyclohexene from
he
[BCECE 2005]
(a) (b)
_S
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
pa
230. The dehydration of 2-methyl butanol with conc. (a) Reaction with HCl (b) Reaction with
gives [UPSEAT 2004] (c) By iodoform test (d) By solubility in water
(a) 2-methyl butene as major product 239. A compound does not react with 2.4 di-nitrophenyl
hydrazine and Na , compound is [UPSEAT 2003]
(b) Pentene
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) 2-methyl but-2-ene as major product
(c) (d)
(d) 2-methyl pent-2-ene
240. Which of the following reaction is correctly
231. Which alcohol reacts with fatty acids to form fats represented
[MP PMT/PET 1988; MP PET 1991] [Orissa JEE 2005]
(a) Ethanol (b) Glycerol CH3 OCH3 CH3 OH
(c) Methanol (d) Isopropanol (a)
232. Which will dehydrate easily [Roorkee 1995]
CH3 OCH3 CH3 Br
(a) 3-methyl-2-butanol (b) Ethyl alcohol (b)
(c) 2-methyl propane-2-ol (d) 2-methyl butanol-2
CH3 OCH3 Br OCH3
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
bond formation takes place [DPMT 2005] (c) Reduce the viscosity
he
[KCET 1990]
244. Reaction of phenol with chloroform/sodium hydroxide (a) An alcohol of 95% purity
is
to give -hydroxy benzaldehyde involves the (b) A mixture of petrol hydrocarbons and ethanol
try
(a) Dichloro carbene (b) Trichloro carbene 11. 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethyl phenol is called [KCET 2003]
(c) Chlorine atoms (d) Chlorine molecules (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Paracetamol
pa
245. Which is not correct [J & K 2005] (c) Barbital (d) Dettol
(a) Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid 12. Alcoholic fermentation is brought about by the action
rk
18. In order to make alcohol undrinkable pyridine and 1. Which will undergo a Friedel-Craft's alkylation reaction
methanol are added to it. The resulting alcohol is [Pb. PMT 1998]
le
(b) Drug
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
he
1979]
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Nitroglycerine
try
(c) Ethyl glycolate (d) Glycolic ester (a) I > II > III > IV
10. Propan-1-ol can be prepared from propene by alcohol (b) IV > III > I > II
le
alcohol.
1. Assertion : A triester of glycerol and palmitic acid on Reason : Alcohols form H-bonding with water to
le
cake having soapy touch 14. Assertion : Absolute ethanol can be obtained by
Reason : Free glycerol is liberated which is a simple fractional distillation of a mixture
am
reaction
16. Assertion : Tertiary alcohols give turbidity
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate
m
ethoxide ion. [AIIMS 1994] Reason : Phenol is a weaker acid than carbonic
5. Assertion : Lucas reagent is a mixture of anhydrous acid.
pa
and concentrate HCl 18. Assertion : Phenols cannot be converted into esters
by direct reaction with carboxylic acids.
rk
22. Assertion : Alcohols are easily protonated than 33. Assertion : t-Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by
phenols. the reaction of t-butyl bromide with
Reason : Alcohols undergo intermolecular sodium methoxide.
hydrogen bonding due to the presence Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong
of highly electronegative oxygen. nucleophile.
23. Assertion : Phenol is less acidic than p-nitrophenol. [AIIMS 2005]
Reason : Phenolate ion is more stable then p-
nitrophenolate ion.
24. Assertion : Treatment of phenol with nitrous acid
yields p-benzoquinone monoxime.
Reason : p-nitrosophenol and p-benzoquinone
monoxime are tautomers.
25. Assertion : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with
in NaOH at 340 K gives salicylic acis
General introduction of alcohol, Phenol & Ethers
as the major product.
Te
dichlorocarbene. 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b
gr
16 b 17 b 18 b 19 b 20 b
Reason : Primary alcohols form nitrolic acid which
dissolve in NaOH to form blood red 21 a 22 c 23 a 24 a 25 b
colouration but secindary alcohols form 26 a 27 c 28 a 29 c 30 d
@
36 d 37 b 38 a 39 a
27. Assertion : cleaves 1, 2-glycols but not 1, 3-
he
or higher glycols.
Preparation of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
m
1 c 2 c 3 b 4 c 5 d
carbonyl compounds.
try
6 c 7 c 8 d 9 a 10 b
28. Assertion : Dehydration of glycerol with
gives acrolein. 11 c 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 d
_S
21 c 22 b 23 c 24 c 25 c
ethers can be prepared by Williamson’s
26 d 27 a 28 d 29 b 30 a
synthesis.
rk
.
Properties of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
Reason : Good yields of ethers are obtained when
tert-alkyl halides are treated with
1 c 2 a 3 a 4 c 5 a
alkoxides.
32. Assertion : A rate of hydrolysis of methyl chloride to 6 d 7 d 8 b 9 d 10 c
methanol is higher in DMF than in water. 11 a 12 b 13 c 14 c 15 c
16 b 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 a
216 c 217 d 218 d 219 a 220 a
46 b 47 c 48 a 49 a 50 a
Uses of alcohol, Phenol and Ethers
51 d 52 c 53 b 54 c 55 a
1 a 2 c 3 d 4 b 5 b
56 c 57 d 58 a 59 d 60 c
6 a 7 a 8 a 9 a 10 b
61 d 62 a 63 c 64 b 65 c
11 d 12 d 13 d 14 b 15 d
66 b 67 d 68 b 69 c 70 b
71 c 72 c 73 a 74 a 75 c 16 d 17 b 18 c 19 c 20 b
76 a 77 a 78 a 79 d 80 a 21 c 22 c 23 c 24 d 25 c
Te
81 c 82 a 83 d 84 b 85 c 26 d 27 a 28 a
le
86 a 87 b 88 d 89 b 90 c
Critical Thinking Questions
gr
91 b 92 d 93 d 94 b 95 a
am
96 a 97 b 98 a 99 c 100 d 1 c 2 c 3 c 4 a 5 a
21 c 22 a
he
1 c 2 d 3 a 4 c 5 c
131 b 132 b 133 c 134 a 135 d
try
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 a
136 a 137 b 138 d 139 a 140 b
_S
2.
am
Na.
pa
rk
-
Page No 1
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
(b) (q)
(c) (r)
Te
(d) (s)
le
gr
am
5. Column- I Column – II
Reaction No.of moles of CH3MgCl
Reacted
(A) (p) 4
Page No 2
=
(B) (q) 3
Te
le
gr
am
(C) (r) 2
@
C
(D) (s) 5
he
m
is
(t) 1
try
6. Column - I Column – II
_S
t) electrophilic aromatic
substitution
7. For the following transformations select the suitable reagent (s)
Column – I Column – II
(A) (p)
Page No 3
-
(B) (q)
(C) (r)
(D) (s)
COLUMN-1 COLUMN-2
a) P) Racemic mixture
le
gr
am
number of Hydrogen
C
he
Page No 4
-
More than 4-moles of HI will
(A) (p) be consumed.
halide
C
he
m
is
(D) (s)
try
_S
Page No 5
-
(C) (r) NaBH4
11. Study the following oxidation reactions and match the oxidizing agents A, B, C
and D, given in column-I and their names in column-II.
O OH O
CHO A B
OH OH
Te
le
C
gr
am
O
@
COOH
C
he
m
is
CHO
try
D COOH
_S
pa
rk
Column – I Column – II
(A) (p) Collins reagent
(B) (q) PCC
(C) (r) Mno2
(D) (s) Chromic acid
(t) Alkaline KMnO4
12. Match the following :
Column - I Column – II
A) Pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement p) six membered cyclic TS
B) Claisen – rearrangement q) carbene
C) Fries rearrangement r) carbocation
Page No 6
--
D) Reimer – Tiemann reaction s) acylium ion
t) electrophilic aromatic substitution
13. Column- I Column – II
Reaction No.of moles of CH3MgCl
Reacted
(A) (p) 4
Te
le
gr
(B) (q) 3
am
@
C
he
m
(C) (r) 2
is
try
_S
(D) (s) 5
pa
rk
(t) 1
14. Column - I Column – II
A) Phenol + Neutral FeCl3 p) No reaction
B) Phenol+Br2(aq) q) Violet colour
C) Phenol+NaHCO3 r) White PPt
D) Picricacid + NaHCO3 s) CO2 gas is evolved
t) electrophilic aromatic substitution
15. For the following transformations select the suitable reagent (s)
Column – I Column – II
Page No 7
-
(A) (p)
(B) (q)
(C) (r)
(D) (s)
Te
le
gr
d) s) in
17. Match the column of I and (II)
m
is
(p) Ag(NH3)2+
_S
pa
rk
(q) MnO2
(s) SeO2
18. Match the compounds in column-I with their identification reagent(s)/product(s) that they can form
Column– I Column– II
a) 4-(hydroxyl methyl)Phenol p) Bakelite formation
Page No 8
-
b) Acetyl acetone q) Ceric ammonium
nitrate
c) 1-phenylethanol r) Haloform test
d) phenol s) FeCl3
C) R)
D)
Te
CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 2 CH CH 0
le
OH OH OH
S)
gr
am
A) P)
C
he
B) Q)
m
is
try
C) R)
_S
pa
D) S)
rk
C) R)
D) S) P C C
22 Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
z
Page No 9
(b) (q)
(c) (r)
(d) (s)
Column I Column II
(a) (p) More than 4 moles of HI
le
will be consumed.
gr
am
@
C
Na.
m
is
try
halide.
pa
rk
=
Page No 10
Matching Answers
1 A–Q 2 A - PQS 3 A –S 4 A–R 5 A–Q 6 A–Q
B–R B–PQRS B –R B–P B–R B – RT
C – PS C – PQR C–Q C – ST C–P C–P
D-R D - PQR D–P D – QT D-Q D–S
7 A – QT 8 A – PQ 9 A-QRS 10 A–Q 11 A – Q 12 A-R
B–P B – PQ B-PQRS B–P B – PR B-P
C – RS C–Q C-QR C–S C – ST C-ST
D-R D -R D-PQR D–R D-S D-QT
13 A-Q 14 A-Q 15 A-QT 16 A-S 17 A-R 18 A-PQS
B-R B-RT B-P B-PS B-S B-RS
C-P C-P C-RS C-Q C-Q C-QR
D-Q D-S D-R D-R D-P D-PS
19 A-Q 20 A-QS 21 A-PRS 22 A-S 23 A-PQS
B-R B-R B-PQRS B-R B-PQRS
Te
AEP – SOLUTIONS
Matching solutions
1. Conceptual
2. Conceptual
Page No 11
-
3. Ether formation & Nucleophyllic substitution
4. Conceptual
5. Conceptual
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Conceptual
10. Conceptual
11. Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC), made by mixing equimolar amounts of
CrO3, HCl and pyridine is used for oxidation of primary alcohols to aldehydes.
It is soluble in CH2Cl2 and other organic solvents. In non-aqueous solvents
the aldehyde is stable to further oxidation.
MnO2: MnO2 is a milder oxidizing agent. MnO2 selectively oxidize the OH
group of allylic and benzylic 1 o or 2o alcohols to aldehydes or ketones,
Te
respectively.
Collin’s reagent, a variation of PCC made up of 1 mol of CrO3 to two mol of
le
alcohols to acids.
Chromic acid (H2CrO4): Oxidation of secondary alcohols to ketones and
@
12. Conceptual
he
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
m
15. Conceptual
is
16. Conceptual
try
17. Conceptual
_S
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
pa
22. Conceptual
23. Conceptual
Page No 12
-
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS
Integer answers type questions:
1. How many of the following epoxide cleavages are involved SN 2 type of ring
opening
Te
le
gr
3. (A)
(B)
-
Page No 1
How many of the following statements is/are correct about the above reaction?
I) The compounds (B) and (C), respectively, are :
4.
try
5. During the preparation of a yellow precipitate from one mole of ethyl alcohol
pa
-
Page No 2
11. What are the number of optical isomers possible for the compound
12. During the reaction of Benzene diazonium chloride with para-cresol the
substitution occurs at _______ position.
13. A polyhydric alcohol of mol.wt 92, on benzoylation gives a benzoyl derivative
of mol.wt 404. The number of hydroxyl groups in the alcohol are …..
14. How many of the following alcohols undergo rearrangement on acid ctalysed
elimination to give alkenes.
Te
le
gr
1) 2)
am
@
C
he
3) 4)
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
5) 6)
7)
Page No 3
-
8)
Te
17. During the preparation of a yellow precipitate from one mole of ethyl alcohol
he
including X.
try
19. During the fermentation of molasses the number of moles of ethyl alcohol
_S
24. During the reaction of Benzene diazonium chloride with para-cresol the
substitution occurs at _______ position.
25. How many among compounds are not oxidized by HIO 4,
Page No 4
-
26. How many moles of HCOOH is formed, due to the oxidation with
HIO4 of,
28.
C
he
formed ?
is
29. The number of reagents among the following which effect the given
try
conversion is
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 5
33.
The value of (m + n) is
34.
Integer Answers
@
1 7 2 5 3 2 4 2 5 4 6 8
7 4 8 3 9 4 10 6 11 8 12 2
C
13 3 14 6 15 5 16 4 17 4 18 8
he
19 4 20 3 21 4 22 6 23 8 24 2
m
25 2 26 2 27 3 28 3 29 3 30 7
is
31 2 32 6 33 4 34 2 35 2
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
>
Page No 6
Integer solutions
1. All the cleavages of propene oxide are the S N2 type, irrespective of the
medium. Even in acidic medium cleavage is S N2 type. This is due to the fact
that transition state of ring opening in acidic medium cleavage is not
possessing sufficient carbocationic character. If there were sufficient
carbocationic character in the T.S of ring opening in acidic medium, then the
mechanistic path would have been mixed i.e. S N2 + SN1 [SN1 product
would have been possible]. In fact ring opening phenomena of propene oxide in
acidic medium is in reversal of what we have expected. So in the given list all
reactions are showing SN2 mode of ring opening, which means least sterically
hindered carbon must be selected.
2.
Te
A)
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
B)
_S
pa
rk
C)
Page No
- - 7
rk
pa
_S
try
---
is
m
Page No 8
he
C
@
am
gr
le
Te
D)
E)
F)
3.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
4. X is catechol
5. Conceptual
Page No 9
--
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Conceptual
10. Conceptual
11. Conceptual
12. Conceptual
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
Te
15. Conceptual
le
16.
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
17. Conceptual
18. X is propenol
pa
19. Conceptual
rk
20. Conceptual
21. During HBO 4 members TS is formed
22. Conceptual
23. It has 3 chiral centers without any symmetry 23=8
24. Conceptual
26. Conceptual
27. Conceptual
28. Because the compound have 3 acidic H. hence 3 CH 4 will be formed.
29. 3
--
Page No 10
(i) PCC (ii) PDC (vi) Cu, 573 K
30. 7
The electrophile is :CCl2 which has 1 lp on carbon and 3 lp on each Cl.
31.
No of group
32.
Hence no of
33. 4
Te
34. 2
gr
35. X is catechol
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
--
Page No 11
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS
One or more than one answer type questions:
A) B) C) D)
2.
Which of the following are possible product(s) (in the significant amounts)?
Te
A) B)
le
gr
am
C) D)
@
Page No 1
=
5.
Te
le
gr
am
@
product ?
he
m
is
try
a) b)
_S
pa
rk
c) d)
7.
-
Page No 2
b) can bring SNi displacement of very good leaving
group
c) overall 100% retention takes place during the reaction
d) overall 50% retention and 50% Inversion takes place during the reaction.
8. Te
Products are
le
gr
am
a) b)
@
C
c) d)
he
m
is
try
_S
synthesis
rk
a) b)
c) d)
Page No 3
-
10.
H2SO4
b) Hydroboration oxidation of 3,3-dimethyl -1 Butene produces 3,3-
C
dimethyl-2-Butanol
he
c)
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 4
-
gives effervescence with NaHCO3
14.
Te
b) ‘B’ form turbidity with lucas reagent after 5-10 minutes and gives yellow ppt
with aqueous bleaching powder
am
c) ‘A’ is tertiary alchohol and gives Red ppt during victor mayer reaction
@
15.
is
CH 3 CH3 CH 3 H
try
C C C C
H H H CH3
_S
A C
pa
+ +
H /H2O H /H2O
rk
B D
Which of the following statements is/are true:
a) B is a single compound and optically inactive
b) D is a single compound and optically inactive
c) B is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomeric compounds
d) D is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomeric compounds
16. FeCl3 gives positive test with
Page No 5
-
17. Compound (X) decolorizes Baeyer’s reagent. It undergoes hydrolysis in
dil to give (Y) and (Z) where both Y and Z give positive iodoform test
while only ‘Y’ responds to Tollens test but (Z) doesn’t. Choose the correct
statements of the following :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18.
Te
le
gr
am
b)
m
d) overall 50% retention and 50% Inversion takes place during the reaction.
pa
19.
rk
Products are
>
-
Page No 6
a)
b)
c)
d)
Te
synthesis
gr
am
a) b)
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
c) d)
pa
21.
rk
Page No
- - 7
22. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare phenolic compound
b) Dakin’s reaction b) Hydrolysis of phenolic ethers in acidic
medium
e) Reduction of aromatic aldehydes
f) Reaction of phenyl acetate with AlCl3 at 1650c
23. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
a) Dehydration of alcohols will take place rapidly with POCl 3 than with H2SO4
b) Hydroboration oxidation of 3,3-dimethyl -1 Butene produces 3,3-dimethyl-
2-Butanol
c)
Te
le
gr
acetophenone
m
d)
try
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 8
c) ‘A’ is tertiary alchohol and gives Red ppt during victor mayer reaction
A C
+ +
H /H2O H /H2O
B D
a) b) c) d)
am
28. Predict which two reactions give the same alcohol among the following
reactions:
@
C
he
a) b)
m
is
try
_S
c) d)
pa
-
Page No-
9
major products are
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A) (B)
am
(C) (D)
@
C
he
32.
m
is
try
_S
(C) ‘B’ has Benzenoid form in Basic medium (D) ‘B’ exists in Ionic form in
rk
Basic medium
33. Which of the following statements are correct
(A) Phenol on treating with produces quinol
-
Page No 10
product. Assume that dehydration of alcohol A proceeds without
rearrangement. Alkene B on ozonolysis forms cyclopentanone. Identify the
correct option.
(A) (B)
A is B is
(C) (D)
C is C is
35. A (C5H12O) ether, on reaction with PCl5 form alkyl chloride B and C. B and
C both on reaction with aqueous KOH form alcohol D and E. Both D and
E give iodoform test. Identify correct answers.
(A) A is (B) C is
Te
36.
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Page No 11
-
37.
Te
le
gr
am
38. Compare the properties of two isomeric products x and y formed in the
@
OH
1. CCl4 + KOH/ x + y
C
2. H
he
Following reaction.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
HO *
CH2NH2
NaNO2 + HCl
(0-5° C)
39. The product P (major) of the following reaction is
*CH = O
O O
O
* *
*
(a) (b) (c) (d)
-
Page No 12
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
a) b)
le
gr
am
c) d)
42.
@
C
A)
m
B)
is
C)
try
D)
_S
43.
pa
rk
Which of the following are possible product(s) (in the significant amounts)?
A) B)
C) D)
44.
Page No 13
-
A) B) C) D)
46. Which of the following represent the correct sequence of completing the
le
A)
am
B)
@
C
C)
he
m
D)
is
try
47.
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 14
Te
le
gr
am
reagent
B) Consider
C
he
m
a) b) c)
is
D)
hydrolysis
pa
-
Page No 15
AEP – KEY SHEET
One or more than one Answers
1 ABCD 2 BCD 3 ABC 4 BCD 5 BCD 6 ABCD
7 A 8 AD 9 ABC 10 ABD 11 ABD 12 AC
13 ACD 14 ABCD 15 BC 16 ABC 17 ABC 18 A
19 AD 20 ABC 21 ABD 22 ABD 23 AC 24 ACD
25 ABCD 26 BC 27 ABC 28 AB 29 AD 30 AD
31 ABC 32 ABD 33 ACD 34 ABD 35 ABD 36 AC
37 BCD 38 D 39 B 40 AB 41 ABCD 42 AB
43 BCD 44 ABCD 45 ABD 46 ABCD 47 AB 48 CD
49 ABC
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
-
Page No 16
One or more than one solutions
1.
Te
2. Nucleophilic substitution.
le
3. ABC
gr
4.
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
5.
-
Page No 17
Te
7. SN reaction
2
gr
9. Conceptual
10. product is phenopthalein
11. reduction of aromatic aldehydes produces aromatic alcohols
@
15. Conceptual
try
16.
_S
pa
rk
17.
Page No-
- 18
25. hydration leads to rearrangement
HBO gives anti markonikov’s product
26. Conceptual
27. a)
b)
28. Conceptual
29. For being functional isomers, functional group should not match.
(Phenol and aliphatic alcohol are considered as different functional groups)
30. due to more stable carbocation
31. (ABC )
Te
33.
gr
am
@
C
he
34. Conceptual
m
35. Conceptual
36.
is
try
_S
37. BCD
pa
(i) ortho salicylic acid is more acidic more volatile due intra molecular
hydrogen bonding
(ii) para salicylic acid has more solubility and have high melting point due
inter molecular hydrogen bonding
39. SOL: as in pinacal pincolone rearrangement group is diazotised and is
lilerated and alkyl shift takes place and ketone is formed
40. (A)
-
Page No 19
(B)
45. Conceptual
he
46.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
47.
Page No 20
=
Te
48. Conceptual
le
49. ABC
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Page No 21
-
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS
Comprehensions type questions:
Passage - 1
Te
1. The compound
le
gr
am
a) b)
@
C
he
m
is
try
c) d) both a) and c)
_S
2. The compound D is
pa
rk
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Page No 1
-
3. The compound E is
a) (b)
(c) (d)
Passage - 2
Ethers are widely used as solvents due to its relatively unreactive nature. In
the acidic medium reactivity is significant. The most common reaction of
ether is cleavage of the C-O bond by strong acids. This may occur by SN-1 or
E-1 mechanisms for alkyl groups or by an SN-2 mechanism for alkyl
groups.
Te
4.
le
gr
am
@
C
a)
_S
pa
rk
b)
c)
d)
-
Page No 2
5. The following compound on treating with conc. HI produces alcohol and alkyl
halide . Which compounds form alcohol that gives positive halo form
reaction
Te
6.
am
@
C
Product A is :
he
m
is
a) b)
try
_S
pa
c) d)
rk
Paragraph : 3
An organic compound exhibits following characteristics.
a) It reacts with metallic sodium to give a colourless odorless gas
b) It is oxidised by to benzoic acid.
c) It can be resolved.
d) It does not give precipitate with iodine in presence of NaOH.
e) It change the colour of from orange to blue, and gives a chiral
compound.
Page No
- - 3
On the basis of the above reaction & the following 5 structures,
Paragraph : 4
Compound A (C8H10O) on reaction with MnO2 gives B(C8H8O). Treatment of (B)
am
with 2-equivalent of Br2 yields (C) C8H6OBr2 which on basic hydrolysis gives
(D) (C8H8O3).
@
C
A) B)
pa
rk
C) D)
11.
Incorrect statement is
(A) H is formed through carbene intermediate
(B) G on treatment with NaOH/CaO gives benzene
(C) Formation of ‘F’ involves nucleophilic substitution on ‘C’
(D) (C) is a carboxylic acid
Page No 4
-
12. Compound E is
A) B)
C) D)
Paragraph : 5
A drug dofetinilide (1) is used for the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia, which
Te
phenol (6)
he
1 is
=
Page No 5
13. Identify the correct statements regarding compound 5
I) 5 is more acidic than 6 II) 5 is less acidic than 6
III) 5 has lesser boiling point than 6 IV) 5 has higher boiling
point than 6
(A) I, IV (B) II, III
(C) I, III (D) IV, II
compared
am
Passage –6
@
C
he
16. A is:
m
is
try
CH3O
_S
HO
O O
pa
rk
A) B)
C) D)
17. C is:
O
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
H3CO H3CO O
H3CO H3CO
O
Page No 6
x
18. D is:
OCH3
OCH3
O OCH3
Passage – 7
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
a) b)
_S
pa
rk
c) d) both a) and c)
(c) (d)
Page No 7
-
21. The compound E is
a) (b)
(c) (d)
Passage - 8
Ethers are widely used as solvents due to its relatively unreactive nature. In
the acidic medium reactivity is significant. The most common reaction of
ether is cleavage of the C-O bond by strong acids. This may occur by SN-1 or
E-1 mechanisms for alkyl groups or by an SN-2 mechanism for alkyl
groups.
Te
22.
le
gr
am
a)
C
he
m
b)
is
try
_S
pa
c)
rk
d)
Page No 8
=
23. The following compound on treating with conc. HI produces alcohol and alkyl
halide . Which compounds form alcohol that gives positive halo form
reaction
24.
am
@
Product A is :
C
he
m
a) b)
is
try
_S
pa
c) d)
rk
Passage - 9
-
Page No 9
a) Nucleophilic substitution b) Nucleophilic addition
c) Electrophilic addition d) Electrophilic substitution
26. The product z is
a) b) c) d)
27. Which of the following gives +ve Lucas test ?
a) b) c) d)
Passage- 10
A volatile organic compound (X) on reaction with HI gives two products (Y)
Te
and (Z). Z gives red colour in Victor Meyer test but when (Z) is heated with
conc.H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis gives (P), which immediately reacts with
le
gives Q. (Q) can give haloform test. (Q) when heated with NaOH gives (R) . (R)
am
a) b) c d)
)
C
he
a) b) c d)
is
)
try
a) b) c d)
pa
)
rk
Passage- 11
Read the following reaction
-
Page No 10
Note : From ‘P’ to ‘Q’
OH OH OH
OH
A) OH
B) C) H O D)
32. Total no. of isomers in mixture ‘Q’ on the basis of above mentioned assumption
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
Te
OH
OH OH
OH
am
@
A) B) C) D) Br
C
he
m
Passage- 12
is
try
_S
pa
In the above reaction sequence (A) and (C) are isomers. Molecular formula of B
is , which can also be obtained from the product of the reaction with
rk
=>
Page No 11
CH3
CH 3 C C CH 2
CH3
A) B)
CH 2 CH CH CH 3
CH3
C) D)
36. Identify the structure of C
CH3
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH CH 3 CH 3 CH 2 C CH 3
OH OH
A) B)
Te
le
CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 3
gr
OH
am
C) D)
Paragraph – 13
@
OH H+
_S
37.
A) 2-Methyl cyclobutanone B) 3-Methyl cyclobutanone
pa
38.
O
=
O =
O O O O
A) B) C) D)
39. The major product of the reaction is
-
Page No 12
HO
H+
A) B) C) D)
Paragraph – 14
Epoxides are three membered cyclic ethers and differ from other cyclic and
acyclic ethers in that they are reactive to various reagents. The reason for this
reactivity is the strained three membered ring. Reactions with nucleophiles
can result in ring opening and relief of strain.
Te
40.
am
@
A & B are
C
he
(A) (B)
m
is
try
_S
(C) (D)
pa
41. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert ketone into ester in single
step mechanism?
(A) HCOOOH (B) NaOBr (C) NaCN / H+ (D) i)Mg/ether ii)H3O+
42. The product B in the following sequence of reaction is
(B
(A)
)
(D
(C)
)
Page No 13
-
Paragraph – 15
Although chlorobenzene is inert to nucleophilic substitutions, it gives
quantitative yield of phenol when heated with aq. NaOH at high temperature
and under high pressure. Phenol, so formed, is a weaker acid than the
carboxylic acid, hence it dissolves only in strong base like NaOH, but not weak
like . It reacts with acid chlorides and acid anhydrides in the absence of
to form esters. As far as nucleophilic substitution in phenol is concerned,
the is an activating group, hence its presence enhances the electrophilic
substitution in the ortho and para position.
Condensation with formaldehyde is one of the important properties of phenol.
The condensation may take place in presence of acids or alkali and leads to the
formation of Bakelite, an important industrial polymer.
43 Conversion of chlorobenzene into phenol involves:
Te
which
he
as basic medium.
is
basic medium
_S
-
Page No 14
Te
le
gr
46.
am
@
C
he
m
48.
-
Page No 15
The mechanism of arene oxide rearrangement is as follows:
A) B) C) D)
Te
le
50.
gr
am
@
A) B) C) D) All
C
he
m
51.
is
try
_S
pa
A) B) C) D) All
rk
-
Page No 16
AEP – KEY SHEET
Comprehensions Answers
1 D 2 A 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 C
7 D 8 D 9 C 10 A 11 C 12 D
13 B 14 A 15 A 16 17 18
19 D 20 A 21 B 22 B 23 A 24 C
25 B 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B
31 C 32 C 33 B 34 B 35 C 36 B
37 A 38 B 39 A 40 A 41 A 42 B
43 D 44 C 45 C 46 B 47 A 48 C
49 B 50 C 51 A
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
AEP – SOLUTIONS
Page No 17
>
-
Comprehensions solutions
1. D
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. H2SO4 causes dehydration
7. D
8. D
9. C
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
--
Page No 18
10, 11, 12
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
13. Conceptual
14. Conceptual
15. Conceptual
16. Conceptual
17. Conceptual
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
=
Page No 19
20. Conceptual
21. Conceptual
22. Conceptual
23. Conceptual
24. Conceptual
25,26,27
Te
28,29,30 Passage
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
31, 32 & 33
_S
pa
rk
=
Page No 20
corresponding mixture of alcohols
34, 35 & 36
Te
le
gr
am
occurs.
C
occurs.
39. Protonation of –OH followed by removal of water and 1,2-shift and
m
40.
-
Page No 21
41. Conceptual
42. Conceptual
43.
Te
45.
In presence of Acids, is protonated to form in which carbon is
@
46.
is
try
_S
pa
rk
47.
48.
-
Page No 22
49.
=>
Page No 23
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS, ETHERS
Statement answers type questions:
(A) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is True; STATEMENT–2 is a Correct
explanation for STATEMENT–1
(B) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is True; STATEMENT–2 is NOT a
Correct explanation for STATEMENT–1
(C) STATEMENT–1 is True, STATEMENT–2 is False
(D) STATEMENT–1 is False, STATEMENT–2 is True
1. Statement - I: of phenol is highly activating group for reactions but
phenol is very poor substrate for Friedel – Crafts reaction.
Statement - II: Phenol is nucleophile and is electrophile. Acid – base
reaction between these two leads to the formation of complex
C 6 H 5 O AlCl 3
Te
H
le
reaction.
am
ether synthesis.
he
of – O – H bond.
pa
Page No 1
-
40% 20%
40%
Statement – 2: It follows carbocation rearrangement and saytzeff elimination
8. Statement – 1:
Statement – 2:
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
+
Statement 2 : ROH H R OH 2
pa
rk
+ slow +
R -O : R -O H 2 R O R H 2O ROR H 3O
H
H
+ slow
Or R OH H
R OH 2
R H 2O
H 2O
R O R R O R R OR H 3O
fast
H H
-
Page No 2
Statement 2 : OH group of phenol is electron donating group due to resonance
effect.
11. Statement 1 : more acidic than
Statement 2 : Enolate ion is stabilised by resonance
12. Statement 1 : Phenol is soluble in solution
Statement 2 : Acidic substances which are more acidic than are soluble
in Solution
13. Statement 1: In this reaction the product given is correct.
Te
overall
addition is anti type .
gr
am
@
C
he
Statement Answers
is
try
1 A 2 A 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 B
7 D 8 A 9 A 10 A 11 A 12 D
_S
13 A
pa
rk
-
Page No 3
AEP– SOLUTIONS
Statement solutions
1.
C 6 H 5 O AlCl 3
4. Conceptual
le
5. Conceptual
gr
6. Conceptual
am
7. Conceptual
8. Conceptual
9. Ethers are prepared by substitution reaction of Alcohol.
@
12. The pka value of Phenol is 9.89 where as the pka value of is 6.36
m
overall
addition is anti type .
-
Page No 4
1. (c) group (d) – NO group
6. Cumene process is the most important commercial
method for the manufacture of phenol. Cumene is
[KCET 2004]
Here, D is [BVP 2004] (a) 1-methyl ethyl benzene (b) Ethyl benzene
(c) Vinyl benzene (d) Propyl benzene
(a) 7. The compound X in the reaction [Roorkee 1999]
ONa OH
Te
+ CO2X
(b)
COOH
le
is
gr
(a) (b)
COONa
(d)
@
ONa OCOONa
(c) (d)
2. Phenol is more acidic than [Pb. CET 2003]
C
COOH
he
OH OH 8. Reaction
OCH3
m
(a) (b)
is
NO2
try
_S
3. In the reaction,
pa
product
rk
)
gr
(c) CH(OH)COOH
try
(a) (b)
CH(OH)COOH
_S
OH OH
(d)
pa
CH3 CH3
CH2COOH
rk
13. The correct order of the solubility of the different (c) (d)
alcohols in water is [Pune CET 1998] CH2COOH
OH OH
(a) n-propyl alcohol > ethyl alcohol > n-butyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol > n-butyl alcohol > n-propyl alcohol
(c) n-butyl alcohol > n-propyl alcohol > ethyl alcohol
Te
le
(SET -26)
gr
am
.
he
CH3 CH3 O – OH
m
|
CH C – (CH3)2 CH
is
O2 CH3
6. (a)
H 2O / H
+ CO
try
catalyst
CH3
Cumene or Pheno Acetone
_S
1, methyl l
ethyl
2. (d) Methoxy group due to +I effect increase electron
pa
benzene
density on OH – group, thus making it less acidic. ONa ONa OH
Thus o-methoxy phenol and acetylene are less
rk
***
OH O OH
4. (b) The correct order of stability of carbocation is as CHCl2 CHO
follows +CHCl3+NaOH –HCl –H2O
9. (b)
OH OH OH
Intermediat Salicyldehyd
II II I e e
I
10. (b) Propanol > Butanol> Pentanol
The solubility of alcohols in water decreases as the
molecular mass increases. As the size of alkyl
group increases, hydrophobic character increases,
Hence solubility decreases.
11. (d) IV > III > I > II.
group is electron withdrawing group
while group is electron releasing group.
12. (d)
Te
H +
–H , –H2O
+
C
-Hydroxy H H
ketone
he
16. (c)
try
OH
17. (b)
CHCl 3
OH
CHCl2 CHO
pa
OH O O
A
rk
CH3 CH3
CH(OH)CN CH(OH)COOH
OH OH
#
Aldehyde & Ketone
9. is
(c) sp hybridised (d) Unhybridised (b) Three sigma and one pi bonds
3. The IUPAC name of the following structure is (c) One sigma and two pi bonds
le
(b) 2-methyl 5-hydroxy 3-pentanone 13. IUPAC name of is [MP PMT/PET 1988]
(c) 4-methyl 3-oxo 1-pentanol
C
(c) (d)
5. Aldehydes are isomeric with
pa
6. Which of the following compounds does not contain (b) Aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids
an group [CPMT 1982] (c) Aldehydes and ketones
(a) Phenol (b) Carboxylic acid (d) Carboxylic acids
(c) Aldehydes (d) Alcohols 17. Acetone and acetaldehyde are [KCET 1998]
7. IUPAC name of is [MP PET 1991] (a) Position isomers (b) Functional isomers
(a) Acetone (b) 2-propanone (c) Not isomers (d) Chain isomers
(c) Dimethyl ketone (d) Propanal 18. Which of the aldehyde is most reactive ? [DCE 2004]
8. What is the compound called if remaining two (a) (b)
valencies of a carbonyl group are satisfied by two alkyl
(c) (d) All the equally reactive
groups
[CPMT 1990]
Preparation
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
(c) Acid (d) Acid chloride 1. The end product in the following sequence of reaction
is
(c) (d)
(c) Wurtz reaction 11. From which of the following tertiary butyl alcohol is
le
(d) Friedel craft reaction obtained by the action of methyl magnesium iodide
4. Compound which gives acetone on ozonolysis [MP CET 2000]
gr
1997]
(c) (d)
(a) Pd / (b) Zn-Hg couple
C
5.
he
(c) (d)
product ‘A’ in the reaction is [RPMT 2003] 13. Butanone, R is [BHU 2003]
m
(a) (b)
is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
try
(c) (d)
6. Which one of the following compounds is prepared in
14. Dry heating of calcium acetate gives
_S
[EAMCET 2003]
(a) Glyoxal (b) Cyclohexane MP PET 1993, 95; JIPMER 2002; AIIMS 1996;
rk
[JIPMER 1997]
(a) Promotor (b) Catalytic poison
gr
23. Methyl ethyl ketone is prepared by the oxidation of (a) Clemmensen's reduction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
try
(c) 2-butanol (d) t-butyl alcohol 33. reacts with to form ozonide. On
24. Benzaldehyde can be prepared by oxidation of hydrolysis it forms [MP PET 1986, 90]
pa
[BHU 1986]
(a) Acidic (b) 34. Ethyne on reaction with water in the presence of
and gives [UPSEAT 1999; BVP 2003]
(c) (d) All of these
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde
25.
(c) Acetic acid (d) Ethyl alcohol
Compound X is [DPMT 1979, 83]
35. A, the compound A is
(a) (b)
[Orissa JEE 2004]
(c) (d)
26. Which of the following gases when passed through
(a)
warm dilute solution of in presence of
gives acetaldehyde
(b)
[EAMCET 1986]
(c)
(a) (b)
(d) None of these
(c) (d)
36. When a mixture of methane and oxygen is passed
through heated molybdenum oxide, the main product
formed is [Kerala PMT 2003]
[KCET 2004]
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanal (a)
(c) Methanol (d) Methanal (b)
37. Benzoin is [KCET 2004] (c)
(a) Compound containing an aldehyde and a ketonic
(d)
group
(b) , -unsaturated acid 2. When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH
(c) -hydroxy aldehyde solution, the product (s) obtained is (are)
(d) -hydroxy ketone OH OH [CBSE PMT 2003]
38. The oxidation of benzyl chloride with lead nitrate gives CH – CH
[MP PMT 2004] (a)
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) p-chlorobenzaldehyde OH OH
39.
Te
COO CH 2 OH
[DPMT 2004]
+
le
(b)
The above reaction is
gr
OH OH
synthesis is
[CPMT 2004] CH – CH
m
(d)
(c) acidic (d)
try
Cl Cl
CH3
_S
(a) 6-oxoheptanal (b) 6-oxoheptanoic acid 3. A and B in the following reactions are
(c) 6-hydroxyheptanal (d) 3-hydroxypentanal
rk
8. Which of the following is incorrect [CBSE PMT 2001] carbonyl group will give coloured crystalline
(a) is used in the detection of phenols compound with NHNH 2
le
glucose O2 N NO 2
am
be prepared by
(e)
(1) Oxidation of 1-phenylethanol
m
(2) Reaction of benzalthanol with methyl magnesium 15. Which of the following organic compounds exhibits
positive Fehling test as well as iodoform test
is
bromide
[MP PET 1994; KCET 2001]
try
(4) Distillation of calcium benzoate [SCRA 2001] (c) Propanone (d) Ethanal
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 16. Which of the following compound will undergo self
pa
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali
10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly [CBSE PMT 1994]
rk
(a) (b)
(d)
18. and can be distinguished [AIIMS 1992; MP PMT 1990, 96; CET Pune 1998
DPMT 1981; CPMT 1976]
by testing with
[EAMCET 1998; CPMT 1994, 97; MP PET 1995; (a) (b)
MP PMT 1996; RPMT 1997, 99] (c) (d)
(a) Phenyl hydrazine (b) Hydroxylamine 27. Which of the following will not give iodoform test
(c) Fehling solution (d) Sodium bisulphite [Kurukshetra CEE 1991; Bihar CEE 1995;
19. Which of the following will undergo aldol CBSE PMT 1998; MP PMT 2004]
condensation (a) Ethanal (b) Ethanol
[IIT 1998] (c) 2-propanone (d) 3-pentanone
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Propanaldehyde 28. Which of the following will not give the iodoform test
[MNR 1994]
(c) Benzaldehyde (d)
(a) Acetophenone (b) Ethanal
Trideuteroacetaldehyde
(c) Benzophenone (d) Ethanol
20. Which of the following oxidation reactions can be
29. Haloform test is given by the following substance
carried out with chromic acid in aqueous acetone at
[EAMCET 1988]
(a) HCHO (b)
Te
(a)
30. Dimethyl ketones are usually characterised through
gr
[MNR 1992]
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Iodoform test
am
(b)
(c) Schiff's test (d) Benedict's reagent
31. The light yellow compound produced when acetone
@
(a) (b)
he
(d)
(c) (d) None of these
21. Acetaldehyde cannot show [AIIMS 1997]
m
(c) Benedict's test (d) Tollen's test (a) Acetylene (b) Methane
try
1999]
(c) Hydrobenzamide (d) Cinnamic acid
(a) HCN (b)
23. The following reagent converts to
rk
(c) (d)
[Roorkee Qualifying 1998]
34. Acetaldehyde reacts with the final
(a) Aq. NaOH (b) Acidic
product is
(c) (d) [Pb. CET 1985]
24. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate is obtained by (a) An aldehyde (b) A ketone
the action of sodium hydroxide on benzaldehyde. This (c) A primary alcohol (d) A secondary alcohol
reaction is known as [KCET 2005] 35. Treatment of propionaldehyde with dilute NaOH
(a) Perkin’s reaction (b) Cannizzaro’s reaction solution gives [MNR 1992]
(c) Sandmeyer’s reaction (d) Claisen condensation (a)
25. To distinguish between formaldehyde and (b)
acetaldehyde, we require [Orissa PMT 1987]
(a) Tollen's reagent (b) Fehling's solution (c)
(c) Schiff's reagent (d) Caustic soda solution (d)
26. Which of the following does not give iodoform test
36. Aldol condensation of acetaldehyde involves the (c) Benedict solution (d) All of these
formation of which of the following intermediate [Pb. 45. Silver mirror is a test for [DPMT 1983; CBSE PMT 1988]
CET 1986]
(a) Aldehydes (b) Thio alcohols
(a) Acetate ion (b) A carbanion
(c) Amines (d) Ethers
(c) A carbonium ion (d) A free radical
37. 46. is oxidised to
using
This polymer (B) is obtained when acetone is saturated [NCERT 1978]
with hydrogen chloride gas, B can be (a) Alkaline (b) Selenium dioxide
[CBSE PMT 1989]
(c) Ammoniacal (d) All of these
(a) Phorone (b) Formose
(c) Diacetone alcohol (d) Mesityl oxide 47. Which of the following does not turn Schiff's reagent
38. Aromatic aldehydes undergo disproportionation in to pink
presence of sodium or potassium hydroxide to give [DPMT 1981; CPMT 1989]
corresponding alcohol and acid. The reaction is known (a) Formaldehyde (b) Benzaldehyde
as [MNR 1987] (c) Acetone (d) Acetaldehyde
(a) Wurtz's reaction (b) Cannizzaro reaction
Te
benzaldehyde
(b) m-hydroxy benzaldehyde and m-chlorobenzyl (a) Sodium bisulphite
alcohol (b) Ammonia
@
(d) Potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-chlorobenzyl 50. The final product formed when acetaldehyde is
he
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde 51. The compound obtained by the reduction of
try
tartrate does not react with [MP PMT 1997] (a) Propanol (b) Propane
(c) (d)
gr
60. Which of the following compound is resistant to 67. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give
he
MP PET 1990, 91, 2000; CPMT 1978, 82, 86, 97; KCET 2003]
(a) Methyl acetate (b) Acetonitrile
(a) (b)
is
(c) (d)
of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of X is
68. Aldol condensation will not take place in
_S
is treated with acid anhydride in presence of 69. Contents of three bottles were found to react
corresponding salt of the acid to give unsaturated (i) Neither with Fehling's solution nor with Tollen's
aromatic acid reagent
[BHU 1998, KCET (Med.) 2001]
(ii) Only with Tollen's reagent but not with Fehling's
(a) Friedel-Craft's reaction (b) Perkin reaction
solution
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) None of these
(iii) With both Tollen's reagent and Fehling's solution.
63. Product, product in the If they contained either ethanal (acetaldehyde) or
propanone (acetone) or benzal (benzaldehyde),
reaction is [RPMT 2003] which bottle contained which
(a) In (i) benzal, in (ii) ethanal and in (iii) propanone
(a) (b) (b) In (i) benzal, in (ii) propanone and in (iii) ethanal
(c) In (i) propanone, in (ii) benzal and in (iii) ethanal
(d) In (i) propanone, in (ii) ethanal and in (iii) benzal
70. Action of hydrazine on aldehydes and ketones gives
compound of the general structure
(a) is known as [BHU 1996]
(c) Phenol
[Kurukshetra CEE 1998; IIT 1990]
am
(c) Zn dust (d) Zn / alcohol 84. Benzaldehyde on reaction with acetophenone in the
he
75. Aldol condensation involving presence of sodium hydroxide solution gives [BVP
gives the product [DPMT 2003]
m
1996] (a)
is
(a) (b)
[Kerala (Med.) 2001]
(c) (d)
le
(a) (b)
93. react with aqueous NaOH solution to form
gr
(c) (d)
[MP PMT 1992]
am
Product
(c) Iodine (d) 2, 4-DNP
is
(a) (b)
[MP PET 1992]
(c) (d) (a) Red lead (litharge)
_S
(c) Silver mirror (d) Formaldehyde (a) Ethyl chloride (b) Ethylene chloride
gr
111. Boiling point of acetone is [CPMT 1975, 89] (c) Ethylidene chloride (d) Trichloro acetaldehyde
121. Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde can be differentiated
am
(a) (b)
by
(c) (d) (a) HCN (b)
@
[BHU 1980; IIT 1983; KCET 1993; Bihar MEE 1995; (a) Benzaldehyde
RPMT 1997, 2000, 02] (b) 2, 2-dimethyl propionaldehyde
sulphurous acid
(a) Aldehydes (b) Ethers
try
(c) Glyoxal (d) Mesityl oxide (c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) None of these
146. Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to 155. The order of susceptibility of nucleophilic attack on
corresponding hydrocarbons by aldehydes follows the order
[Kerala PMT 2004] [DCE 2002]
(a) Refluxing with water (a) 1° > 3° > 2° (b) 1° > 2° > 3°
(b) Refluxing with strong acids (c) 3° > 2° > 1° (d) 2° > 3° > 1°
(c) Refluxing with soda amalgam and water 156. In Wolf-Kishner reduction, the carbonyl group of
(d) Refluxing with zinc amalgam and concentrated aldehydes and ketones is converted into
[Pb. CET 2000]
HCl
Te
(e) Passing the vapour under heated (a) group (b) group
(c) group (d) group
le
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (c) (d) All of these
@
148. Cyanohydrin of which of the following forms lactic 158. Fehling solution is [Pb. CET 2003]
acid
C
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these
m
(c) (d)
159. Wolf kishner reduction, reduces
is
[MHCET 2004]
(a) group (b) – group
(a) Million's test
_S
[DPMT 2004]
with Fehling solution ? [MHCET 2004]
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Salicylaldehyde (a) (b)
(a)
(d) Iodine in presence of base
165. Silver mirror test can be used to distinguish between
le
176. ; Compound on
(a) Medicine (b) Poison
try
(c) (d)
saturated with dil. is gives ‘B’ of molecular
am
formula . A and B respectively are [Tamil 9. The appropriate reagent for the transformation
Nadu CET 2002] O
CH 2CH 3
@
HO HO
(c) Propanone and 2,6–dimethyl –2, 5-heptadien–4–
he
one
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000]
(d) Propanone and mesitylene oxide
m
(a) (b)
5. Which alkene is formed from the following reaction
is
(c) (d)
try
[Manipal 2001] 10. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen
(a) 3- Methyl-3-heptene
_S
(c) 5-Methyl-3-heptene
(c) 2, 5-hexanedione (d) 2, 3-hexanedione
(d) 1-Methyl-5- methane
rk
(a)
CHO OHC
12.
(i) NaOH / 100o C
(b) (ii) H / H 2O
CHO
COOH HOOC
(a)
(a)
HO HOOC (b)
(b)
COOH HO (c)
O
O
(c)
(d)
O
Te
CH2OH HOH 2C
(a)
gr
am
(d) (b)
CH2OH HOH
2C (c)
@
(d)
C
nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is [IIT 1997] 18. Aldehyde and ketones can decolourize by [CPMT 2003]
(a) MeCOCl (b) MeCHO (a) Bromine water (b) Quick lime
m
14. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with 19. Which of the following statements regarding chemical
try
[IIT 1997]
properties of acetophenone are wrong
(1) It is reduced to methyl phenyl carbinol by sodium
_S
(c)
(3) It does not undergo iodoform electrophilic
(d) substitution like nitration at meta position
(4) It does not undergo iodoform reaction with iodine
15. The product of acid hydrolysis of P and Q can be
and alkali [Tamil Nadu CET 2001]
distinguished by [IIT-JEE (Screening) 2003]
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
OCOCH 3 H 3C (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
P H 2C Q=
CH 3 OCOCH 3
20. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration
of 1-butyne would be [IIT-JEE
(a)
(c) Fehling’s Solution (d)
(d)
21. The most reactive compound towards formation of
cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed by
(c) (d)
acidification is [GATE 2001]
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde 29. Products of the following reaction
(c) Phenyl acetaldehyde (d) p-
[CBSE PMT
Hydroxybenzaldehyde
22. The key step in cannizzaro’s reaction is the 2005]
2005]
(a)
le
26. Which of the following will not give iodoform test ? option out of the options given below :
is
[UPSEAT 2004] (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
try
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Ethanol the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
_S
28. The major organic product formed from the following 2. Assertion : Benzonitrile is prepared by the reaction
of chlorobenzene with potassium
reaction [CBSE PMT 2005]
O cyanide.
... is Reason : Cyanide (CN–) is a strong nucleophile.
[IIT 1998]
3. Assertion : Lower aldehyde and ketones are soluble
H
NCH 3 in water but the solubility decreases as
molecular mass increases.
(a) (b)
OH NCH 3
H
O.NHCH 3 H
NCH 3
OH
Reason : Aldehydes and ketones can be 15. Assertion : reacts with to form
distinguished by Tollen's reagent. [AIIMS
urotropine.
1994]
Reason : Urotropine is used as medicine in case of
4. Assertion : Acetaldehyde on treatment with alkaline
gives aldol. urinary troubles.
Reason : Acetaldehyde molecules contains 16. Assertion : -Hydrogen atoms in aldehydes and
hydrogen atom. [AIIMS 1997] ketones are acidic.
5. Assertion : Acetylene on treatment with alkaline Reason : The anion left after the removal of -
produce acetaldehyde. hydrogen is stabilized by inductive effect.
17. Assertion : 2, 2–Dimethyl propanal undergoes
Reason : Alkaline is a reducing agent.
Cannizzaro reaction with concentrated
[AIIMS 2000]
NaOH.
6. Assertion : Acetophenone and benzophenone can
Reason : Cannizzaro is a disproportionation
be distinguished by iodoform test.
reaction.
Reason : Acetophenone and benzophenone both
are carbonyl compounds. [AIIMS 2002]
18. Assertion : Benzaldehyde undergoes aldol
condensation.
7. Assertion : Isobutanal does not give iodoform test
Te
Introduction
undergo acid catalysed dehydration.
10. Assertion : Ketones are less reactive than aldehydes.
m
1 a 2 b 3 a 4 c 5 a
Reason : Ketones do not give schiff's test.
is
6 c 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 b
11. Assertion : Oximes are less acidic than hydroxyl
try
11 b 12 d 13 d 14 b 15 a
amine.
16 c 17 c 18 c
_S
(a) (b)
(b) Aqueous solution of
am
(c) (d)
is
H
try
PMT 1995]
9. Which of the following aldehydes is most reactive
(a)
towards nucleophilic addition reactions
pa
(c) (d)
(c)
10. Which one of the following gives iodoform test
[AIIMS 1996]
(d)
(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Ethyl alcohol
5. Which of the following gives an alcohol and salt of
(c) Benzyl alcohol
carboxylic acid when reacted with conc. NaOH
(d) Benzaldehyde
[MP PMT 1999]
11. The active ion in Tollen's reagent is
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
(c) (d)
(c)
12. Among the following compounds, which will react 16. Which of the following compounds will give positive
with acetone to give a product containing test with Tollen's reagent
[IIT 1998] [CBSE PMT 1994; Kurukshetra CEE 1998; AFMC 2002]
(d) Acetone
(d)
example of
(a) (b)
(a) Friedel-Craft's alkylation
(c) (d) HCHO
(b) Friedel-Craft's acylation
14. In this reaction
Te
test.
would be
[CBSE PMT 1989]
[CBSE PMT 2003]
@
(b) Pentanone–2
C
(b) D-isomer
he
1982]
from acetophenone is [AIIMS 2004]
try
(d)
Te
le
(SET -27)
gr
1. (a)
am
2. (d) Acetophenone gives iodoform reaction while alcohols also give positive iodoform test because
he
benzophenone does give this. by the action of halogens in alkaline medium, they
3. (c) are oxidesed to acetaldehyde and methyl ketones
m
respectively.
is
try
***
rk
.
5. (b) Benzaldehyde does not have the -hydrogen so it
will undergoes cannizzaro’s reaction.
17. (b)
have group.
gr
am
(a) (b)
1. Identify the wrong statement from the following 10. Which compound is known as oil of winter green
[Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
[MP PET/PMT 1998; CPMT 2002]
(a) Salicylic acid’s a monobasic acid
(a) Phenyl benzoate (b) Phenyl salicylate
(b) Methyl salicylate is an ester
(c) Phenyl acetate (d) Methyl salicylate
(c) Salicylic acid gives violet colour with neutral ferric
11. Which of the following structure of carboxylic acid
chloride as well as brisk effervescence with sodium
accounts for the acidic nature
bicarbonate
Te
[JIPMER 1997]
(d) Methyl salicylate does not occur in natural oils
2. Which of the following is optically active [BHU 1997]
(a) (b)
le
(a) (b)
(a) An ester (b) A ketone
is
(c) 2-chloroethanoic acid (d) Chlorosuccinic acid (c) Nitrogen based fertilizers e.g. urea
(d) Pain relieving medicines such as aspirin
6. Fats and oils are mixture of [CPMT 1993]
16. Wax are long chain compounds belonging to the class
(a) Glycerides and saturated fatty acids [CPMT 1982, 93]
(b) Glycerides and unsaturated fatty acids (a) Acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Glycerides of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids (c) Esters (d) Ethers
(d) Only saturated and unsaturated fatty acids 17. Glycine may be classed as all of the following except
[JIPMER 1997]
7. Which one is not a glyceride [CPMT 1994]
(a) A base (b) An acid
(a) Fat (b) Oil
(c) A zwitter ion (d) Optically active acid
(c) Phospholipid (d) Soaps
18. Which of the following is not a fatty acid [CPMT 1988]
8. is (a) Stearic acid (b) Palmitic acid
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine (c) Oleic acid (d) Phenyl acetic acid
(c) Secondary amide (d) Tertiary amide 19. Vinegar obtained from canesugar contains
9. Which of the following is the formula of tartaremetic [CPMT 1980; DPMT 1982; KCET 1992;
MP PMT 1994; AIIMS 1999] (c) Fatty acids (d) None of these
(a) Citric acid (b) Lactic acid 32. Which one is called ethanoic acid [CPMT 1997]
(c) Acetic acid (d) Palmitic acid (a) HCOOH (b)
20. The general formula for monocarboxylic acids is
(c) (d)
[CPMT 2003]
(a) (b)
33. Vinegar is [CPMT 1997]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
21. Number of oxygen atoms in a acetamide molecule is
(c) (d)
(a) 1 (b) 2
34. Which of these do not contain group
(c) 3 (d) 4
[CPMT 1997]
22. Urea is [CPMT 1984]
(a) Aspirin (b) Benzoic acid
(a) Monoacidic base (b) Diacidic base (c) Picric acid (d) Salicylic acid
(c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric 35. Vinegar obtained from sugarcane has [AFMC 2005]
23. Fats and oils are [CPMT 1990]
(a) (b) HCOOH
(a) Acids (b) Alcohols
(c) Esters (d) Hydrocarbons (c) (d)
Te
24. The general formulas could be for open 36. Carbolic acid is [AFMC 2005]
le
[AIEEE 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) Diketones (b) Carboxylic acids
am
(c) (d)
38. Which is most reactive of the following [J & K 2005]
C
acid gives
(a) Succinic acid [KCET 1996]
pa
(c) (d)
(d) Methyl benzoic
28. The ester among the following is [Kerala PMT 2003]
2. When formic acid reacts with it forms [MNR 1982]
(a) Calcium lactate (b) Ammonium acetate (a) Formyl chloride (b) Acetyl chloride
(c) Sodium acetate (d) None of these (c) Methyl chloride (d) Propionyl chloride
29. Sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids are 3. Laboratory method for the preparation of acetyl
called chloride is
[RPMT 2003]
[MP PET 2003]
(a) Soaps (b) Terpenes (a)
(c) Sugars (d) Alkaloids (b)
30. Formamide is (c)
(a) (b) (d) All of these
(c) (d) 4. Tischenko reaction yields ester in the presence of
31. Oleic, stearic and palmitic acids are [CPMT 1997]
catalyst which is
(a) Nucleic acids (b) Amino acids (a) (b) N-bromosuccinamide
(c) (d) 15. In the above sequence of
5. Acetic acid is obtained when [NCERT 1975; CPMT
1977] reactions A and B are [CPMT 2000]
(c) Ester (d) Amide (c) Glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at
am
(a) An acid (b) An aldehyde 18. Acetyl chloride cannot be obtained by treating acetic
(c) A ketone (d) Ethanol
C
acid with
10. Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves a
he
[CPMT 1985]
[MP PET 1997]
(a) (b)
(a) Carbonium ion intermediate
m
(c) (d)
12. Which of the following on hydrolysis forms acetic acid
is known as [MP PMT 2002]
[BHU 1997]
(a) Wurtz reactions
(a) (b)
(b) Koch reaction
(c) (d) (c) Clemenson’s reduction
13. When benzyl alcohol is oxidised with the (d) Kolbe’s reaction
product obtained is [SCRA 1991] 21. By aerial oxidation, which one of the following gives
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) Benzoic acid phthalic acid [Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
(a) Naphthalene (b) Banzene
(c) and (d) None of these
(c) Mesitylene (d) Toluene
14. Which of the following gives benzoic acid on oxidation
MgBr
[CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) Chlorophenol (b) Chlorotoluene
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzyl chloride
(a) (b)
22. In the reaction, product P is
(c) (d)
[CBSE PMT 2002]
32. Hydrolysis of acetamide produces
CHO COOH [DPMT 1984; MP PMT 1994; MP PET 2001]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetaldehyde
(a) (b) (c) Methylamine (d) Formic acid
33. Ethyl acetate is obtained when methyl magnesium
OH iodide reacts with [Tamil Nadu CET 2002]
[CPMT 1996]
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol 36. Tischancko reaction is used for preparation of
gr
25. Heating a mixture of ethyl alcohol and acetic acid in (c) Amide (d) Acid anhydride
presence of conc. produces a fruity smelling 37. The silver salt of a fatty acid on refluxing with an alkyl
compound. This reaction is called halide gives an [KCET 2004]
@
(c) (d)
OH COOH
45. Primary aldehyde on oxidation gives [DPMT 20004]
(a) Esters (b) Carboxylic acid (c) (d)
(c) Ketones (d) Alcohols
Te
46. Toluene is oxidised to benzoic acid by 4. The vapour of a carboxylic acid HA when passed over
[BHU 2004; CPMT 1985]
at 573 K yields propanone. The acid HA is
le
(a) (b)
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanoic acid
gr
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Propanoic acid (d) Butanoic acid
am
(a) (b)
The compound (X) is [IIT 2005]
C
49. Acetic acid will be obtained on oxidation of [J & K 2005] (b) It is more soluble
(a) Ethanol (b) Propanal (c) It is weakly basic
pa
(c) Methanal (d) Glyoxal (d) It does not produce acidity in soil
8. The reaction of acetamide with water is an example of
rk
2. What is obtained, when propene is treated with N- The above shown polymer is obtained when a carbon
bromo succinimide [MP PMT 2003] compound is allowed to stand. It is a white solid. The
polymer is [CBSE PMT 1989]
(a) (b) (a) Trioxane (b) Formose
(c) Paraformaldehyde (d) Metaldehyde
11. What will happen if is added to an ester
[CBSE PMT 2000] (c) Litmus paper
(a) Two units of alcohol are obtained (d) Phenolphthalein
(b) One unit of alcohol and one unit of acid is 22. The reaction of HCOOH with conc. gives
obtained [DPMT 1982, CPMT 1989; MP PET 1995; AIIMS 2000;
(c) Two units of acids are obtained Manipal 2001; Pb. CET 2002 ]
(d) None of these (a) (b) CO
12. When anisole is heated with HI, the product is
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Acetic acid
[CET Pune 1998]
23. Sulphonation of benzoic acid produces mainly [CPMT
(a) Phenyl iodide and methyl iodide
1982]
(b) Phenol and methanol
(a) o-sulphobenzoic acid
(c) Phenyl iodide and methanol (b) m-sulphobenzoic acid
(d) Methyl iodide and phenol (c) p-sulphobenzoic acid
13. When reacts with [BVP (d) o- and p-sulphobenzoic acid
2003] 24. Which one is strongest acid [MP PMT 1992]
(a) is formed (b) Hydrocarbon is formed (a) (b)
(c) Acetone is formed (d) Alcohol is formed
Te
(c) (d)
14. Which class of compounds shows H-bonding even 25. Which does not give silver mirror with ammoniacal
le
[RPMT 2003]
(c) Propyl amine (d) Ethylamine
(a) (b)
he
we get [DPMT 1982; CPMT 1979; MP PMT 1996] (a) It decompose on increasing temperature
(a) (b) (b) It has less degree of ionisation
pa
(c) Ethanol and (d) Ether and (a) Less acidic (b) Equally acidic
(c) More acidic (d) None
19. Which of the following is the strongest acid [NCERT
1984]
29. Acetic anhydride reacts with excess of ammonia to
form
(a) (b)
[MP PET 1992]
(c) (d)
(a)
20. Which of the following reduces Tollen's reagent
(b)
[MP PMT 1991]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid (c)
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Formic acid (d)
21. Oxalic acid may be distinguished from tartaric acid by 30. In the following sequence of reactions, what is D
(a) Sodium bicarbonate solution CH3
(b) Ammonical silver nitrate solution
(a) Phenol (b) n-hexanol
[UPSEAT 2002] (c) Acetic acid (d) Both (a) and (b)
39. Acetic acid dissolved in benzene shows a molecular
(a) Primary amine
mass of
(b) An amide [MP PET 1993]
(c) Phenyl isocyanate (a) 30 (b) 60
(d) A chain lengthened hydrocarbon (c) 120 (d) 240
31. Hydrolytic reaction of fats with caustic soda is known 40. The reaction
as
[MP PMT/PET 1988; AMU 1988;
KCET 2000; MP PET 2001]
(a) Esterification (b) Saponification
(c) Acetylation (d) Carboxylation
32. In the reaction is called [MP PMT 2003; KCET 1996]
(a) Etard reaction (b) Perkin’s reaction
(c) Claisen condensation (d) Claisen Schmidt
reaction
Te
the final product (C) is 41. Which is the strongest acid ? (pKa value is given in the
(a) (b) bracket)
le
(a) (b)
33. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of
am
34. Of the following four reactions, formic and acetic acids 42. In the presence of iodine catalyst, chlorine reacts with
differ in which respect
C
is [CPMT 1985]
(c) High reactivity of hydrogen
(a) An alkane
le
(c) Sodium salt of carboxylic acid hydrogen on treatment with metal [CPMT 1974]
am
(d) A ketone
(a) (b)
50. (c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
@
(a) (b)
[AFMC 1980]
he
51. In the precipitation of soap, which can be used instead (c) Green colour (d) Black colour
of NaCl [CPMT 1979] 59. Which of the following would be expected to be most
is
modification
[CBSE PMT 1997]
rk
(a) Ethylamine (b) Aniline (a) Formic acid (b) Chloroacetic acid
(c) Acetamide (d) Acetoxime (c) Propionic acid (d) Acetic acid
72. Urea on slow heating gives
65.
(a) (b)
where Z is [CPMT 1996]
(c) HCNO (d)
(a)
73. The principal organic product formed in the following
Te
reaction is
(b)
le
(c)
gr
(c)
(b) It is member of aldehyde
(d)
C
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
_S
CHO OH
(c)
COOH
(d)
pa
(c) (d)
68. The order of decreasing rate of reaction with
rk
ammonia is NH2
[Pb. PMT 1998]
(a) Anhydrides, esters, ethers 75. An acyl halide is formed when reacts with an
(b) Anhydrides, ethers, esters [CBSE PMT 1994; AIIMS 1998; CBSE PMT 2002]
87.
le
79. When acetamide is treated with the product This mode of reduction of an acid to alcohol can be
affected only by
gr
(b) Na-alcohol
(c) (d) None of the above
(c) Aluminium isopropoxide and isopropyl alcohol
80. The fatty acid which shows reducing property is
(d)
@
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Formic acid coloured solution on treatment with neutral
he
(c) (d)
(b) Neutral ferric Chloride solution
try
(d) Phenolphthalein
(c) Ninhydrin (d) Biuret test
82. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B. 90. What are the organic products formed in the following
pa
(c) Dissociation into ions (d) Easy hydrolysis (c) Acrylic acid (d) Formic acid
he
98. Acetamide reacts with (phosphorus 108. Acetamide is [MP PET 1990; RPMT 1999]
pentaoxide) to give (a) Acidic (b) Basic
m
(a) Methyl cyanide (b) Methyl cyanate 109. Silver benzoate reacts with bromine to form [KCET 1996]
try
(c) (d)
(c) Rosenmund reaction
(d) Hunsdiecker reaction
Br
100. An aqueous solution of urea [CPMT 1983]
(a) Is neutral 110. Acetic anhydride reacts with diethyl ether in presence
(b) Is acidic of anhydrous to form [MP PMT 1992]
(c) Is basic (a) Ethyl acetate (b) Methyl propionate
(d) Can act as an acid and a base (c) Methyl acetate (d) Propionic acid
101. Nitration of benzoic acid gives [MP PMT 1997]
111. Treatment of benzoic acid with will give
(a) 3-nitrobenzoic acid (b) 2-nitrobenzoic acid
[KCET 1998; CET Pune 1998]
(c) 2, 3-dinitrobenzoic acid (d) 2, 4-dinitrobenzoic
(a) p-chlorobenzoic acid (b) o-chlorobenzoic acid
acid
(c) 2, 4-dichlorobenzoic acid (d) m-chlorobenzoic
102. The reagent used for converting ethanoic acid to
aicd
ethanol is
112. Hinsberg’s reagent is [MP PMT 2003]
[KCET 1996; EAMCET 1998]
(a) (b)
COCl COCl
(a) (b) 118. The reaction of an ester with an alcohol
in the presence of an acid gives [Kerala PMT
(c) (d) 2004]
(a) (b)
113. Which of the following is the correct order of
(c) (d)
increasing strengths of carboxylic acids
(e)
(a)
119. on treatment with and is
subjected to hydrolysis followed by Clemmensen’s
(b)
reduction, the product obtained is [Kerala PMT 2004]
(a) (b)
(c)
(c) (d)
(e)
(d) 120. The reagent which does not give acid chloride on
treating with a carboxylic acid is [KCET 2004]
[AIEEE 2004] 123. Which of the following is most acidic [MP PET 2004]
(a) Picric acid (b) p-nitrophenol
_S
(a)
(c) m-nitrophenol (d) o-p dinitrophenol
(b)
124. Benedict’s solution is not reduced by [CPMT 2004]
pa
(c)
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(d)
rk
CH2Br CH3
CO2H CO2H (a) (b)
(a) (b)
Br
CH2Br CH3
CO2H CO2H (c) (d)
(c) (d)
None of these
Br
Br 126. Acetic acid reacts with to form [Pb. CET 2001]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
127. with excess of and
hydrolysis gives [MH CET 2004]
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
128. Urea upon hydrolysis yields [Pb. CET 2001] The product would be [Pb. PMT 1998]
(a) Acetamide (b) Carbonic acid (a) A racemate
Te
[Pb. CET 2003] 136. What happens when 2-hydroxy benzoic acid is distilled
(a) Malonic acid (b) Glycolic acid with zinc dust, it gives [MP PET/PMT 1998]
am
(c) Lactic acid (d) Malic acid (a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
130. What is the % of acetic acid present in vinegar? (c) Benzaldehyde (d) A polymeric compound
@
[AFMC – 2004; MH CET 2003; CPMT 1974, 75] 137. on reaction with sodium ethoxide in
(a) (b) ethanol gives A, which on heating in the presence of
C
value
CH3 COONa
[AIEEE 2005]
CN OH
(c) o-phthalic acid (d) Acetophenone 6. The reagent used for protection of amino group
143. Order of hydrolysis for the following during the nitration of aniline is [JIPMER 1997]
(I) (II) (a) (b)
(III) (IV) [DPMT
(c) Acetic acid (d) Acetic anhydride
2005]
(a) I>IV>II>III (b) I>II>III>IV
(c) I>III>II>IV (d) IV>III>II>I
144. If the enolate ion combines with carbonyl group of
ester, we get [DPMT 2005]
(a) Aldol (b) -unsaturated
ester
(c) -keto aldehyde (d) Acid
145. Which of the following compounds will react with 1. Ethyl ester . The product P will be
solution to give sodium salt and carbon
[IIT-JEE 2003]
dioxide [DPMT 2005]
(a) Acetic acid (b) -hexanol CH3 C 2H 5
(a) H 3C (b)
H 3C
Te
[J & K 2005]
(a) Thionyl chloride (b) Sulphur chloride H 3C
gr
OH OH
@
||
O C CH 3
he
[KCET 1996]
2. Hydrogenation of over
OH catalyst in methanol gives
m
(c) Hypnotic
_S
. (c) (d)
15. Iodoform test is not given by [BHU 1995]
Product C would be [CBSE PMT 2003] (a) Acetone (b) Ethyl alcohol
Te
(c) (d)
17. Which of the acids cannot be prepared by Grignard
reagent
@
8. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and [MH CET 2004]
alcohol because of [Tamil Nadu CET 2001] (a) Acetic acid (b) Succinic acid
C
(a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding (c) Formic acid (d) All of these
he
[AIIMS 1997]
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct
(a) (b)
pa
10. When propionic acid is treated with aqueous sodium the correct explanation of the assertion.
bicarbonate is liberated. The ‘C’ of comes (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
from the correct explanation of the assertion.
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 1999] (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Methyl group (b) Carboxylic acid group (d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(c) Methylene group (d) Bicarbonate (e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
11. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2000] 1. Assertion : Carboxylic acid exist as dimer.
(a) (b) Reason : Carboxylic acid shows hydrogen
(c) (d) bonding.
12. Identify the correct order of boiling points of the 2. Assertion : Trichloroacetic acid is stronger than
following compounds acetic acid.
Reason : Electron withdrawing substituents
decrease the activity.
3. Assertion : First four aliphatic monocarboxylic Reason : Both are easily oxidised to and
acids are colourless.
Reason : Carboxylic acids with more than five
carbon atoms are insoluble in water. 14. Assertion : Esters which contatin hydrogens
4. Assertion : Carboxylic acids do not give undergo Claisen condensation.
characteristic reactions of carbonyl Reason : reduction of esters gives
group. acids.
Reason : Carboxylic acids exist as cyclic dimers
in solid, liquid and even in vapour
state.
5. Assertion : Pure acetic acid is converted into ice
like solid called glacial acetic acid.
Reason : Acetic acid is stronger than
General Introduction of Carboxylic Acids and
6. Assertion : The second dissociation constant of Their Derivatives
maleic acid is greater than fumaric
acid.
Te
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 a
Reason : Higher the dissociation constant of
6 c 7 d 8 c 9 c 10 d
acid more is acidic character.
le
11 a 12 c 13 d 14 d 15 b
7. Assertion : Lower acids on reacting with strong
gr
effervescences of 21 a 22 a 23 c 24 b 25 b
than 31 c 32 b 33 d 34 c 35 a
a regular pattern.
he
Reason : Carboxylic acids are reduced to Preparation of Carboxylic Acids and Their
alkanes on reduction with in Derivatives
m
11 d 12 a 13 b 14 d 15 a
conjugate base and acidity of
carboxylic acids. 16 c 17 c 18 a 19 c 20 b
pa
26 d 27 c 28 b 29 a 30 b
Reason : Acidity depends upon the electron
31 c 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 a
withdrawing effects of the fluorine and
chlorine. 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 b 40 a
21 b 22 b 23 b 24 d 25 c
26 c 27 b 28 c 29 c 30 c
31 b 32 c 33 d 34 c 35 d
36 c 37 d 38 c 39 c 40 c
41 a 42 b 43 d 44 c 45 b
46 b 47 c 48 d 49 c 50 c
General Introduction of Carboxylic Acids and
51 c 52 b 53 b 54 b 55 d Their Derivatives
56 b 57 c 58 a 59 c 60 a
81 a 82 a 83 b 84 b 85 b
86 b 87 d 88 d 89 d 90 d
Te
91 d 92 d 93 c 94 b 95 d
96 d 97 b 98 a 99 a 100 a
le
146 d
try
1 b 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 c
pa
6 d
rk
1 a 2 b 3 d 4 c 5 a
6 b 7 a 8 d 9 a 10 d
11 c 12 b 13 c 14 d 15 c
16 c 17 c
1 a 2 c 3 c 4 b 5 c
6 e 7 c 8 e 9 e 10 a
11 c 12 b 13 a 14 c
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
Integer answers type questions:
1.
2.
Find the total number of products. (Including stereoisomers)
Te
3.
le
gr
The value of (m + n) is
am
4. How many of the following will give faster rate of cyanohydrins formation
than benzaldehyde?
@
5.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
>
Page No 1
8. How many number of possible condensation products are obtained when
propanal and propanone are together treated with moderately concentrated
alkali?
9. A compound (A) of molecular formula C14H10O12 is formed formed from
C14H14O2 by oxidation Cr2O7–2. (A) upon treatment with OH–gives (B) on
treatment with conc. H2SO4 and heat gives compound (C) of molecular
formula C28H20O4(B) reaponds to NaHCO3 test and effervescence comes
out. What should be the moleculat wt. of B ?
10. C8H6O2 on reation with conc. NaOH undergoes a redox reaction to yield (A)
which on treatment with KMnO4/H followed by HaOH/CaO gives an aromatic
compound (X). Calculate the mol. mass of aromatic compound (X).
13. Acetone on treatment with dry HCl gives W. The number of sp 2 carbons in W
am
are _____
@
14. In the following compound which numbered carbon atom enters into
intramolecular aldol condensation to give major product
C
he
m
is
try
x is_____
_S
15. product.
pa
16.
The number of moles of - unsaturated ketone react with cyclohexanone
are………
17. When acetone is treated with conc.HCl, the number of acetone molecules
required to form phorone is………
21. How many of the following compounds would give a positive Tollen’s test?
pa
rk
(I) (II)
(III)
*
Page No 3
Find the value of n for the organic compound A.
23. The no. of compounds undergoe self Aldol condensation is
I) Methanal II) Ethanal III) Benzene carbaldehyde IV) Propanone
V) 2, 2-dimethyl propanal VI) Propenal VII) Phenyl ethanal VIII)
Cyclohexanone
24. The number of compounds give positive Fehling test
1) CH3-CHO 2) CH3-CH2-CHO 3) Ph-CHO 4) CH3COCH3
CHO
O O
5) Ph-C-CHOH-Ph 6) CH 3 7) Ph-CH2-CHO 8)
25. The no. of compounds give the Idoform Test
1) CH3-CHO 2) CH3COCH3 3) CH3-CH2-CO-CH2-CH3
Te
O
gr
am
26. 1 mole SBH reduces ‘y’ moles acetaldehyde to ethyl alcohol. The value of ‘y’
@
is
27. The number of organic compounds out of the following which can show
C
28.
try
_S
pa
rk
29.
value of X + Y would be
=>
Page No 4
30. Among the following how many of them reduce Tollen’s reagent and give Ag
mirror test?
31. Find the minimum no.of carbon atoms in aldehyde required to produce stereo
isomeric aldol product.
32.
Te
le
33. How many of the following will give faster rate of cyanohydrins formation
than
@
benzaldehyde?
C
he
35.
rk
36 How many vacant hybrid orbitals are involved in formation of banana bonds
in diborane structure.
=
Page No 5
ALDEHYDES & KETONES – KEY SHEET
Integer Answers
1 4 2 2 3 4 4 2 5 5 6 0
7 1 8 4 9 144 10 72 11 12 12 4
13 5 14 2 15 2 16 4 17 3 18 4
19 4 20 4 21 7 22 2 23 4 24 4
25 6 26 4 27 4 28 5 29 5 30 6
31 2 32 2 33 2 34 6 35 4 36 3
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
2. 2
3. Pair of diastereomers is formed (m), therefore, two fractions are obtained
4. 2
5. Double Michael Addition
6. Because of acidic hydrogen of group 8 moles of will be obtained.
Te
7. (1)
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
8. Fact.
9. [84 + 48 + 12 = 144]
pa
rk
Internal Cannizaro
Page No 7
11. 12
+
Te
le
gr
12. Conceptual
am
19. A is
_S
20. 4
21. 7
pa
22. 2
rk
23. Conceptual
24. Conceptual
25. Conceptual
26. Conceptual
&
Page No 8
29.
30. Conceptual
31. Conceptual
32. Conceptual
33. Conceptual
34. Conceptual
35.
Te
le
gr
am
36. (3)
Total 12 isomers
@
(2) + (4)
C
he
m
+ (2) + (4)
is
try
_S
pa
rk
=>
Page No 9
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
Matching answer type questions:
1. Match the Following:
Column I (Mixture) Column II (pH)
(under adiabatic free
expansion)
(a) (p)
(i)
(ii) Ph3 P = CH Et
(b) (q) NaBH4
Te
(c) (r)
le
i)
C
he
ii) NaBH4,
m
iii) H3O +
is
try
precipitate with
(A) (P)
CuSO4/sodium potassium
rk
tartrate solution
-
Page No 1
3. Match the Following:
Column I (Compound) Column II (Reaction / test
shown by the compound)
(a) (p) Tollen’s Test
(a) (p)
C
(b) (q)
he
m
is
(c) (r)
try
_S
(d) (s)
(t)
pa
rk
5. Column – I Column – II
A. P. Haloform
C. R. Cannizaro’s reaction
D. S. Aldol condensation
=
Page No 2
6. Column – I Column – II ( X may be )
A) P)
B) Q)
C) R)
Te
D) S)
le
Column I Column II
am
place
C
he
Ketone
is
try
_S
positive Tollen’s
test
(D) (s) Final product
formed will react
with 2,4-DNP. (2,4-
Di-nitrophenyl
hydrazine)
-
Page No 3
-
8. Match the following
Column I Column II
(A) (p) Aldol condensation
condensation
le
gr
am
9. List – I List – II
a) p)
@
b) q)
C
O
he
HO C CH 3 HO CH 2 CH 3
m
is
c) r)
try
O
_S
Br C CH 3 Br CH 2 CH 3
pa
d) s) NH 2 NH 2 / OH
rk
10.
-
Page No 4
(D) D can give / gives (S) Aldol condensation
(either inter or intramolecular)
C H 3– C – C H 2– C – H
(D) (S) 2,4 DNP test
le
O O
gr
am
(B) Product
is
O
try
(R)
positive tollen's test
O O
rk
Ph
(D)
H
Product Final product will react with
CH 3 (S)
2, 4 DNP
OH OH
·
Page No 5
13. Match the Following:
COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
(A ) P h – C – H a lk a lin e K C N P ro d u c t Final product formed give
(P)
O positive tollen test
O (1) OH Final product give test with 2,
(B) Product (Q)
4 DNP
O
(1) C 2 H 5 ON a Final product react with
(C) CH 3 –C–OEt Product
(R) NaOCO3 and
O liberated CO2 gas
(1) KO H Final product react with Na
(D) Ph–CH =O Product (S)
(2) H and liberated H2 gas
Te
Column – I Column – II
gr
(Type of reaction)
pa
a) p) Beckmann rearrangement
rk
b) q) Double eliminations
c) r) Radical substitution
d) s) Addition
16. Match the column I and II
*
Page No 6
(A) (p) Formation of six
member ring takes
place
(B) (q) Final product is
ketone
Column – I Column– II
(p) Three membered cyclic
pa
intermediate
rk
Page No 7
-
(q) 1,1-elimnation
carbene
(r) ECB1
(s) benzyne
20. Match the chemical compounds in column I with the reagents used to test
them in column II. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate
bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) Ethanal (p) [Ag(NH3)2]OH
(B) Glucose (q) CuO
Te
(C) Glyoxal
le
gr
21. Match each of the compounds given in column-I with the reaction that they
can undergo given in column –II
@
C
he
A P
m
is
try
B
_S
Q
pa
rk
C
R
D
S
Page No 8
-
(a) (p) Racemic mixture
COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
C
(A) (P)
m
is
try
Cannizaro Reaction
(B) (Q)
_S
pa
Aldol condensation
(D) (S)
Involves a carbocation
(A) (p)
intermediate
-
Page No 9
The electrophile
(B) (q) involved is not electron
deficient.
Gives a pair of
(C) (r)
enantiomers.
25. Match the compounds in Column – I with their characteristics in Column – II.
gr
Column I Column II
am
NaOI.
is
try
isomeric oximes.
pa
rk
(q)
Isomer of
(B)
Te
(D)
C
he
m
Column –I Column –I
try
_S
p
A) Haloform
pa
rk
q
B) CericAmmonium nitrate
C) r) Cannizaro’s reaction
s
D) Aldol condensation
=
Page No 11
Zn/ether
Ph-CHO
B. BrCH2COOEt Q. Aldol reaction
-
OH
2CH3-CHO
C. R. Perkins reaction
O
I 2 / OH
C-CH3
D. S. Haloform reaction
Column – I Column – II
(A) (p) Aldol Condensation
Iodoform reaction
le
(D) (s)
gr
Column I Column II
C
(A) (p)
m
(B) (q)
is
try
_S
(D) (s)
(t)
32. Match the Following:
Column I Column II
(a) (p)
(b) (q)
Page No 12
- -
(c) (r)
(d) (s)
(t)
Column-I Column-II
try
(Reactions) (Involved
_S
phenomenon)
a) p) Oxidation
pa
c) (under adiabatic
r) free
Nucleophilic
expansion) addition
(a)d) (p) s) Electrophilic
(i) substitution
t) Nucleophilic
(ii) Ph3 P = CH Et substitution
(b) (q) NaBH4
-
Page No 13
(c) (r)
(i) KMnO4, (ii)
ii) NaBH4,
iii) H3O +
36.
Te
le
gr
am
@
precipitate with
m
CuSO4/sodium
potassium tartrate
is
solution
try
Matching Answers
1 A–R 2 A – QRS 3 A – PQST 4 A – PS 5 A–R 6 A–R
B–S B – PQR B – PR B – QS B–R B–P
Page No 14
=
C–P C – QS C–P C–R C – PS C–S
D-Q D - QR D – PQ D-R D - PS D-Q
7 A – PQS 8 A–R 9 A–R 10 A-PRS 11 A-PQS 12 A-PQS
B – PRS B–P B–S B-S B-PQRS B-P
C – PQS C–Q C–P C-PRS C-P C-PQS
D – PQS D-S D-Q D-PQS D-QRS D-PQS
13 A-PQS 14 A – PQS 15 A-R 16 A-PQS 17 A-Q 18 A-S
B-RS B – RS B-S B-P B-P B-Q
C-Q C–P C-Q C-PQS C-Q C-P
D-RS D – QRS D-P D-PQS D-R D-Q
19 A-P 20 A-PQRS 21 A-PQT 22 A-PQ 23 A–P 24 A-QST
B-S B-PQ B-PQST B-R B – PQ B-PQST
C-R C-P C-P C-PRS C – PRS C-PT
D-Q D-PR D-RS D-PQ D - PRS D-RST
25 A-QRST 26 A-QR 27 A-QR 28 A-R 29 A–R 30 A-S
Te
37 A-QRS
he
B-PQR
C-QS
m
D-QR
is
try
Matching solutions
pa
1. Conceptual
2. Conceptual
rk
3. Conceptual
4.
=
Page No 15
5. Conceptual
6. Conceptual
7. Conceptual
8. Based on Name reactions
9. Conceptual
12.
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
13.
-
Page No 16
Te
14. Conceptual
le
15. Conceptual
16. Conceptual
gr
17. Conceptual
am
18. Conceptual
19. Conceptual
@
20. Conceptual
21. Conceptual
C
22. Conceptual
he
23. Conceptual
m
24. Conceptual
is
25. Conceptual
try
26.
27. Aq, r, Bq, s, Cp, q, s, Dp, r, s
_S
(B) Give positive test with 2,4-DNP, due to presence of CHO group.
(C) Give yellow precipitate with I2/NaOH and yellow orange precipitate with
rk
(D) Stronger acid than benzoic acid, due to –I, –R or COCH 2I and give yellow
precipitate with I2/NaOH and yellow orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP, due to
presence of COCH2I group
28. a) r b)r c) p,s d) p,s
29. Conceptual
30. Conceptual
31. (A)
Page No 17
=
(B)
(C)
Te
(D)
le
gr
am
@
32.
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
33. Conceptual
34.
35. Conceptual
36. Explanation :(A) (R) ; (B) (S) ; (C) (P) ; (D) (P) and (Q) ;
37. Conceptual
-
Page No 18
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
One or more than one answer type questions:
1. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with ?
A) B)
C) D)
2.
.
In this conversion reagent (X) could be
A) ,glycol/ B) Red P/HI
C) Raney D)
3. Which of the following are converted to aldehydes or ketones by MnO 2 ?
A) B) C) D)
Te
le
a) b) c) d)
he
(A)
(B)
-
Page No 1
(C)
(D)
7. Identify the possible products formed during the following reaction
Te
le
gr
(A) (B)
am
@
(C) (D)
C
8.
he
CO OH
m
is
1.PCI 5 NH 2 OH.HCI H 2 SO 4
H Ar X Y Z
try
2.CH 3 MgBr
_S
Et
pa
X, Y, Z are –
rk
=
Page No 2
CH 3 OH
CO CH 3 C=N
(A) H Ar (B) H Ar
Et Et
NHCO CH 3 NHC O C H 3
(C) H Ar (D) H Et
Et Ar
Te
10. The correct statement/s about the following reaction sequence is / are
CI2 / FeCI 3 HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 HNO 3 + H 2 SO 4 NH 2N H 2 ,
@
(P)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
C
he
O 2N
(R)
m
CH = N – N H NO 2 (Q)
(5)
is
(A) 'R' gives an aldol condensation reaction kon heating with NaOH solution
try
(B) The rate of deukteration in presence of heavy water the rate of acid cataly
_S
-
Page No 3
13. Which of these carbony compounds on reduction winth Zn – Hg / HCI will
give th3e same compound as product
O O
|| ||
H–C CH 2 C H(C H 3 ) 2 H 3C C – C H(C H 3 ) 2
(A) (B)
H–C=O O
||
(C) H 3 C CH 2 – C – CH 3 (D) H 3 C C – C (C H 3 ) 2
H
14. whic one of the followning compound will not show enolisation ?
O OH
O
Me O O
(A) (B) (C) (D) O OH
Ph O O O
OH
Me Ph
15.
Te
le
gr
am
@
a) b)
_S
pa
rk
c) d)
(i)
(ii)
-
Page No 4
(iii)
(iv)
Test/s that can make distinction between each and every pair is / are
(A) Victor-Meyer’s test (B) Tollen’s test
(C) Iodoform test (D) Mulliken’s test.
17.
(B) The second step is r.d.s when the PH of the reaction mixture is
le
approximately 7
gr
(C) The reaction proceeds with optimum speed and yield is also good when
the PH of the reaction mixture is 4.5 approximately.
am
18.
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Page No 5
=
Which of following statements are correct for above reaction sequence?
(a) Step I is acid-base reaction
(b) Step II is nucleophilic addition reaction
(c) Step III is acid base reaction
Te
20.
gr
am
@
C
he
21.
try
Which of the following keto esters is/are not likely to have been prepared by a Claisen condensation?
_S
A) B)
pa
rk
C) D)
Page No 6
-
23. In which of the following, the reaction is associated with hydride shift
O O
C H 3– C – C H = O
CH 3 OH
(B) + CH 3 –CHO
H OH
C =N H
(C) P h
CHO
Te
OH
(D) CHO
le
HO CH2 O
am
NH2
(A)
@
O
C
he
O C H 3– C – C – C H 3
m
(B) C H 3 – C H 2 – C – C H 3 N –O H
is
try
N H –C H 3
_S
N H –C H 3
pa
rk
(C) NO
COOH
(D) NH2
-
-
Page No 7
O OH O
O
c)
enol % is more than keto form at equilibrium
O
O
d) Dipolmenomet of
Te
OH/H2O A
II
26. 2CH3 - CHO II (Aldol) crotanaldehyde. The correct statement is/are
le
gr
CH = N - OH CN SnCl2+HCl
m
dil. H+
a) b) H3O+
is
c) d) H3 O+
_S
O
rk
O
C - NR2 O CHO
a) COOH b) c) d)
NaOH ..........products are
2Ph-CDO
29. D+
a) OH b) OH c) OH d)
31. An alkene having M.F . The alkene
shows geometrical isomerism. Which of the following statements are correct for
-
Page No 8
the above reaction?
A) B is a salt of carboxylic acid
B) B on decarboxylation gives an aromatic compound
C) A is a carbonyl compound
D) A on reduction gives alcohol
involves,
am
35.
C
he
.
In this conversion reagent (X) could be
m
C) Raney D)
try
a) b) c) d)
37. Which of the following keto esters is/are not likely to have been prepared by a Claisen condensation?
A) B)
C) D)
-
Page No 9
rk
pa
_S
try
is
-
m
Page No 10
he
C
@
am
gr
le
Te
38.
39.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
40.
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
(C) (D)
-
Page No 11
ALDEHYDES & KETONES – KEY SHEET
One or more than one Answers
1 AD 2 ABCD 3 ACD 4 ABC 5 AC 6 AB
7 ACD 8 ABC 9 ABCD 10 BC 11 ABCD 12 ABD
13 ABC 14 ABCD 15 ACD 16 B 17 ABCD 18 ABC
19 ABCD 20 ABCD 21 BD 22 ACD 23 ABD 24 ABD
25 ABD 26 AD 27 ABC 28 AB 29 AC 30 ABC
31 ABCD 32 AD 33 ACD 34 AC 35 ABCD 36 ABC
37 BD 38 B 39 ABC 40 AC 41 ABCD
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
E
Page No 12
ALDEHYDES & KETONES – SOLUTIONS
One or more than one solutions
1. Conceptual
2. Fact
3. ACD
4. ABC
5. (AC)
O O O
C H
51. C H C H
OD
OD + OD
CH2OD O O
C O CH 2 O
C O D
+ deuterium
+
Te
exchange
6. AB
le
7. (ACD)
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
Cannizaro reaction
Page No 13
10. (B, C)
11. (A, B, C, D)
12. (A, B, D)
Te
le
It is a Cannizzaro reaction.
gr
am
13. (A, B, C)
@
14. (A, B, C, D)
is
16. Conceptual
17. Conceptual
18. Conceptual
19. ABCD
=
Page No 14
20.
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
21.
Ans: B,D
pa
z
Page No 15
O
CH3 O
C H 3 C = O + (C H 3 – C H – C H 3 ) A l M e2C A l(O C H M e ) 2
H
H y d rid e (C H 3 ) 2 C = O
sh ift
M e 2 C = O + (C H 3 ) 2 C H O – A l(O C H M e 2 ) 2
(B)
CH3
C H 3 – C – C H O + C H 3– C H O OH
Te
CH3
le
H H
gr
OH
C H 3–C = O C H 3–C –O H
am
H y d rid e sh ift
O
@
CH3 O CH3 O O
C
C H 3– C — — C – H + C H 3– C – O H
he
C H 3–C – –— C – H
CH3
m
CH3 H
is
(C)
try
H OH H
H H 2O
_S
C =N C =N H C =N Ph
Ph Ph OH2
pa
O HO
rk
C–N H Ph N –Ph
H H
(D)
CHO
OH
CHO
It is intra molecular cannizaro reaction in which no a-hydrogen is
present on dialdehyde and it is done by hydride shift
e
Page No 16
24. (A)
O
OH CH 2 OH CH2
N H 2 N aN O OH OH
2
HCl
(B)
Te
le
gr
am
N =O
@
N H –C H 3 N H –C H 3
C
he
(C)
m
COOH
is
try
2
_S
NH2
pa
COOH
rk
(D) NH2
25. Conceptual
26. Conceptual
dil. H3O+ CHO
CH= NOH
CN SnCl2+HCl
Stephens reaction
H3O+
28. Conceptual
Page No 17
-
29. Conceptual
30.
O O O-
O
OH-
OH OH OH
-
NO2 +O
N NO2
NO2 O
OH
OH OH
CHO CHO
CHO
OH OH
Te
31.
le
gr
am
32. Conceptual
@
33. Fact
C
34. Fact
he
35. Fact
m
36. Fact
is
-
Page No 18
Te
40. Conceptual
le
41. ABCD
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
-
Page No 19
O
Te
40. Conceptual
le
41. ABCD
6. Chapter
gr
am
@
Page No 19
(c) Strongly acidic (d) Non-reactive and
neutral
2. Compounds containing both amino and COOH groups
are known as
(a) Diamines (b) Unknown
(c) Amino acids (d) Enzymes
3. Which of the following is amine
Alkyl nitrites are the esters of nitrous acid. (a) Ethylene diamine (b) Dimethyl amine
Nitroparaffins are used as solvents for oils, fats, resins, (c) Trimethyl amine (d) N-methyl aniline
esters, rubbers and cellulose etc. nitromethane is used as 4. represents [AMU 1988]
high power fuel in racing automobiles.
(a) Primary amine (b) Secondary amine
Nitrobenzene is good solvent in friedel crafts reaction (c) Tertiary amine (d) All of these
because it dissolves AlCl3
All amines have basic properties. The basic property, 5. is [MP PET/PMT 1988]
that is, the tendency of primary, secondary and tertiary
amines to bind a proton, is due to the unshared pair of (a) Diacetone (b) Acetoneamine
Te
electrons on the nitrogen. When a proton is bound, (c) Diacetoneamine (d) Aminoacetone
positive ion is formed and originally electrically neutral 6. A secondary amine is [KCET 1992]
le
amine takes on the charge of the proton. When ions are (a) An organic compound with two groups
gr
formed in this way, they are called onium ions. The ion (b) A compound with two carbon atoms and an
formed in case of amines are substituted ammonium
am
group
ions. The hydronium ion, H3O+ is also the onium ion, which
(c) A compound with an group on the carbon
belongs to the class of oxonium ions.
atom in number 2 position
@
(a) (b)
Tertiary < Secondary amine, with reference to hydronium
is
(c) (d)
ion, H3O+. In this case solvation factor and steric effect
try
alter, to some extent, the order of basicity because of 8. Allyl isocyanide has [IIT 1995]
electrons
follows the order Tertiary < Secondary < Primary amines.
(d) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 2 non-bonding
rk
The solvation factor is absent but steric effect upsets the electrons
inductive effect of alkyl groups. 9. Triaminobenzene is a [BHU 1996]
Carylamine test is specific for primary amines. (a) amine (b) amine
(c) amine (d) Quarternary salt
10. is a [RPET 2000]
(a) Secondary amine (b) Primary amine
(c) Tertiary amine (d) None of these
11. Leakage of which gas was responsible for the Bhopal
tragedy in 1984 [MP PET 2001]
(a) (b)
Introduction of Nitrogen Containing Compounds
(c) (d)
12. Which of the following is not a nitro-derivative
1. Cyanide ion is
[DCE 2004]
(a) Nucleophilic (b) Electrophilic
(a) (b)
7. Ethylamine can be obtained by the [CPMT 1985]
(a) Action of on ethyl iodide
(c) (d)
(b) Action of on ethyl alcohol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
13. Acetonitrile is: [MP PMT 2004]
(d) None of the above
(a) (b) 8. Aniline is usually purified by
(c) (d) [CPMT 1983, 93; JIPMER 1997]
(a) Steam distillation (b) Simple distillation
14. In alkyl cyanide alkyl group attached with [BCECE 2005]
(c) Vacuum distillation (d) Extraction with a
(a) C of CN group
solvent
(b) N of CN group
9. Reduction of nitroalkanes yields
(c) Either C or N of CN group
(a) Acid (b) Alcohol
(d) Both C and N of CN group
(c) Amine (d) Diazo compounds
15. Number of isomeric primary amines obtained from
10. Acetamide changes into methylamine by
are (a) Hofmann bromamide reaction
[DPMT 2005] (b) Hofmann reaction
Te
(a) Methylamine
1. Amides may be converted into amines by reaction (b) Dimethylamine
named after [CPMT 1974; MP PET 1992; CBSE PMT 1999]
@
(c) Trimethylamine
(a) Perkin (b) Claisen
(d) A mixture of the above three amines
C
(c)
le
21. Identify 'B' in the reaction (a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid
am
[CPMT 1999]
(c) (d)
(a)
C
reduction (b)
[MP PMT 1995]
(c)
m
(a) (d)
is
23. Which of the following is converted into an alcohol on 31. The reaction
treatment with [MP PET 1996; MP PMT 1999]
rk
3
(d) None of these
gr
The product is [RPET 2000] 45. The diazonium salts are the reaction products in
presence of excess of mineral acid with nitrous acid
NH 2
am
CN
and [MP PET 2002]
(a) Primary aliphatic amine
(a) (b) (b) Secondary aromatic amine
@
CN
shown in the reaction
m
(c) (d)
The reducing agent used in this reaction is …….
is
39. Which of the following reacts with to (c) Hydrazo compound (d) No reaction takes
give phenol [MP PMT 2000] place
(a) (b) 48. the ‘X’ contain
[CPMT 2003]
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
40. Which of the following reactions give
(c) (d)
[Roorkee 2000]
49. In the series of reaction
(a)
X and
(b)
(c) Y are respectively [EAMCET 2003]
(d) (a)
(b) followed by
(c) A diazo compound (d) None of these
he
(c) followed by
8. Nitrosobenzene can be isolated from nitrobenzene
(d) followed by under
m
55. reacts readily to give a cyanide with [J & K 2005] [DPMT 1982]
is
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Ethyl bromide (a) Metal and acid
try
1. Which of the following amine will not react with product on hydrolysis found, is [MP PMT 1980]
nitrous acid to give nitrogen
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone
rk
[NCERT 1984]
(c) Alcohol (d) Acid
(a) (b)
10. The product formed when benzene is nitrated by
fuming nitric acid is [MP PMT 1979]
(c) (d) (a) m-dinitrobenzene (b) Nitrobenzene
(c) sym-trinitrobenzene (d) None of these
2. Which of the following compound is expected to be
11. Ethyl amine undergoes oxidation in the presence of
most basic [NCERT 1982]
to form [CPMT 1985]
(a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
(c) Hydroxylamine (d) Ethylamine (a) An acid (b) An alcohol
3. Which of the following compounds is an amino acid (c) An aldehyde (d) A nitrogen oxide
[Manipal MEE 1995] 12. Which of the following amines would undergo
diazotisation
(a) (a) Primary aliphatic amines (b) Primary aromatic
amines
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
13. Reaction of primary amines with aldehyde yields
[NCERT 1984; Manipal MEE 1995] (b) Methyl amine is less basic than
(a) Amides (b) Aldimines
(c) Methyl amine is stronger base than
(c) Nitriles (d) Nitro compounds
(d) Methyl amine forms salts with alkalies
14. When acetamide is treated with the gas is
25. The product of mustard oil reaction is
evolved
(a) Alkyl isothiocyanate (b) Dithio carbonamide
[CPMT 1993]
(c) Dithio ethylacetate (d) Thioether
(a) (b)
26. Which of the following is azo- group
(c) (d) (a) (b)
15. Nitrobenzene on nitration gives (c) (d)
[NCERT 1978; CPMT 1989] 27. 'Oil of mirbane' is
(a) o-dinitrobenzene (b) p-dinitrobenzene (a) Aniline (b) Nitrobenzene
(c) m-dinitrobenzene (d) o- and p-nitrobenzene (c) p-nitroaniline (d) p-aminoazobenzene
16. Reduction of alkyl nitrites yields
28. The maximum number of groups that can be
(a) Alcohol (b) Base
introduced by nitration in benzene is usually
(c) Amine (d) Acid
(a) 4 (b) 2
Te
nitroalkanes
(c) Tertiary nitroalkanes (d) All of these 32. By the presence of a halogen atom in the ring, basic
_S
properties of aniline is
21. Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary
and tertiary amines by reacting with [CPMT 1983] (a) Increased (b) Decreased
pa
nitrous acid on at low temperature produces 50. Among the following compounds nitrobenzene,
he
an oily nitrosoamine is [IIT 1981; CPMT 1989; MP PET/PMT benzene, aniline and phenol, the strongest basic
1998; behaviour in acid medium is exhibited by [KCET 1993]
m
(c) Aniline (d) Methylamine 51. Aniline on treatment with excess of bromine water
try
(a) o- and p-nitroanilines (b) m-nitroanilines 67. The following compound can be classified as N-N
dimethyl propanamine, N-methyl aniline and aniline
(c) A black tarry matter (d) No reaction
[Bihar MEE 1996]
56. Which statement is not correct [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Primary, secondary, tertiary
(a) Amines form hydrogen bond
(b) Primary, tertiary, secondary
(b) Ethyl amine has higher boiling point than propane
(c) Secondary, tertiary, primary
(c) Methyl amine is more basic than ammonia
(d) Dimethyl amine is less basic than methyl amine (d) Tertiary, primary, secondary
57. Which of the following is not used as an explosive (e) None of these
[MP PET 1996] 68. Which of the following compounds does not react with
(a) Trinitrotoluene (b) Trinitrobenzene and HCl [KCET 1996]
O NO2
(a) Acetic acid (b) Methylamine
_S
NO2 HS NH2
HS (a) (b)
le
(1) (2)
(3) Ph–
(c) (d) All of these
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 (b) 2 > 1 > 3
@
77. In the diazotisation of aniline with sodium nitrite and (c) 3 > 2 > 1 (d) None of these
C
hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is 85. Among the following, the strongest base is
used primarily to
he
(c) Insure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid 86. Aniline and methyl amine can be differentiated by
try
78. A primary amine can be converted to an alcohol by the (a) Reaction with chloroform and aqueous solution of
_S
(d) A 1o-amine and formic acid be the most effective in bringing about the following
gr
[AMU 2002]
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
94. Pure aniline is a [UPSEAT 2001]
@
(a) (b)
(a) Colourless solid
(b) Brown coloured solid (c) (d) Na-alcohol
C
95. Reduction of methyl isocyanide gives [RPMT 2002] (a) Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom
(a) Ethylamine (b) Methylamine (b) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon
is
or nitrogen atom
the compound 104. Hydrolysis of acetonitrile in acidic medium produces
rk
109. would be
Te
NO2 NO2
gr
SO3H
NHCOCH3 NH2
(a) (b)
am
SO3H Br COCH3
NO2 (a) (b)
@
CH3 CH3
C
Br Br
m
(a)
The product ‘B’ is [RPMT 2003]
rk
(b)
(a) (b)
122. Which one doesn't liberate when undergoes
le
123. A nitrogen containing organic compound gave an oily medium gives [CBSE PMT 2005]
liquid on heating with bromine and potassium (a) Aniline (b) Nitrosobenzene
hydroxide solution. On shaking the product with
@
[KCET 2004]
(a) Aniline (b) Benzamide least basic compound is
m
(e)
(c) Benzyl amine (d) Benzonitrile
133. The reduction of which of the following compound
_S
(b) Carbylamine
(c) (d)
(c) Primary amine
126. Aniline reacts with which of these to form Schiff base (d) Secondary nitro compound
[AFMC 2004] 134. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and :
(a) Acetic acid (b) Benzaldehyde [Pb. CET 2000]
(c) Acetone (d) (a) Diazonium chloride
127. Which of the following does not reduce Tollen’s (b) o-nitro aniline
reagent (c) Benzoic acid
[Kerala PMT 2004] (d) Chlorobenzene
(a) (b) 135.
(c) (d) Z is identified as : [Pb. PMT 2004]
(e) None of these (a)
128. Which one of the following compound is most basic ?
(b)
[UPSEAT 2004]
H H (c)
|
|
N
N
O
(d) 143. The correct order of basicity in amines
136. When acetamide reacts with and caustic soda, (i) (ii)
then we get : (iii) (iv)
[CPMT 2004] [Kerala CET 2005]
(a) Acetic acid (b) Bromoacetic acid (a) (i) < (iv) < (ii) < (iii) (b) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(c) Methyl amine (d) Ethyl amine (c) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (d) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i)
137. In the reaction (e) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
test as
139. product
(a) (b) NaCN
am
In the given reaction what will be the product [BHU (c) (d)
2005]
3. Liebermann's nitroso reaction is used for testing
@
(a) R – N = C = O (b)
(a) Primary amines (b) Secondary amines
C
(c) (d) None of these. (c) Tertiary amines (d) All the above
he
140. Which of the following is secondary pollulant. 4. A nauseating smell in the carbylamine test for primary
[BHU 2005] amines is due to the formation of [MP PET 1993]
m
141. Nitration of aniline also gives m-nitro aniline, in strong 5. A positive carbylamine test is given by [IIT-JEE 1999]
acidic medium because [Kerala CET 2005] (a) N, N-dimethylaniline
_S
[BHU 1997]
(c) In strong acidic medium, nitration of aniline is a
nucleophic substitution reaction (a) Orange (b) Congo red
(d) In strong acidic medium aniline present as (c) Bismark brown (d) Indigo
anilinium ion 7. When primary amine is heated with in presence
(e) Strong acid, gives nitrate anion, which attacks at of excess mercuric chloride, it gives isothiocyanate.
m-position This reaction is called [KCET 1998; CPMT 1997]
142. Identify the product in following order
(a) Hofmann bromide reaction
3,4,5-Tribromoaniline [Kerala CET (b) Hofmann mustard oil reaction
2005] (c) Carbylamine reaction
(a) 3, 4,5 –Tribromobenzene (d) Perkin reaction
(b) 1, 2, 3 – Tribromobenzene 8. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some [CPMT 1999]
(c) 2, 4, 6 – Tribromobenzene (a) Dyes (b) Proteins
(d) 3, 4, 5 – Tribromo nitro benzene
(c) Pesticides (d) Vitamins
(e) 3, 4, 5 – Tribromo phenol
9. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of [DCE 1999]
(a) Aliphatic 2o amine
(b) Aromatic 1o amine (c)
(c) Aliphatic 1 amine
o
(a) (b)
Te
(c) (d)
(c) (d)
le
gr
5.
am
[BHU 1995]
NH2 NH2
(a) (b)
@
NH2
C
(c) (d)
m
NH2
NH2
is
(a)
(b)
pa
(c)
rk
(d)
[IIT-JEE (Screening) 2001]
2. The action of nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives
[DPMT 1982; CPMT 1971, 89, 94;
(a) (b)
MP PET 1993, 2001; RPMT 1997; Pb. PMT 1999]
(a) Ethane (b) Ammonia (c) (d)
(c) Ethyl acohol (d) Nitroethane 7. Which of the following would be most reactive
towards nitration [AMU 2000; UPSEAT 2002]
3. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then treated with
dimethyl aniline gives a coloured product. Its (a) Benzene (b) Nitro benzene
structure would be [CBSE PMT 2004] (c) Toluene (d) Chloro benzene
8. Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form
(a)
[MHCET 2004; AFMC 2004]
10. Sn+HCl
(a)
(b) NaSCN
[BHU 2000; Pb. PMT 2000; Kerala 2003]
le
amines in benzene solution is [AIIMS 1991; RPMT 2002] [AIIMS 2004; BHU 2004]
N
(b) N
H
C
(c) NH 2
he
(c) (d)
(d)
m
N
13. The refluxing of with acid gives
is
H
[KCET 1996]
try
O
(a) Mixture of (K) and (L) (b) Mixture of (K) and (M)
OH
(c) Only (M) (d) Only (K)
NO 2
(b)
NO 2
O H
|| |
C N
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct
(c) C C
option out of the options given below :
N C
| || (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
H the correct explanation of the assertion.
O
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
Te
2004]
am
NH 2 CH 2 NH 2 [AIIMS 1999]
he
23. The following compound on hydrolysis in aqueous nitrogen atom. [AIIMS 1999]
is
Bhopal tragedy.
H Cl CH 3 4. Assertion : Alkyl cyanide can be prepared by
pa
carbylamine reaction
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
Reason : Ethyl amine when heated with
rk
H CH 3 OH
Reason : In presence of acts Reason : group in anisidine exerts –R
nitrobenzene.
Reason : Nitroalkanes are sparingly soluble in
water while nitroarenes are insoluble. Reason : Nitrobenzene easily undergoes
le
[AIIMS 2005]
amine formed has one carbon atom
21. Assertion : Alkyl isocyanides in acidified water give
am
oxygen.
try
1 a 2 c 3 a 4 d 5 c
Reason : Condensation of diazonium salt with
phenol is carried out in weakly acidic 6 d 7 c 8 d 9 c 10 a
rk
medium. 11 a 12 b 13 b 14 a 15 b
15. Assertion : Carbylamine reaction involves the
reaction between 1° amine and Preparation of Nitrogen Containing Compounds
chloroform in basic medium.
Reason : In carbylamine reaction, 1 c 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 b
group is converted into –NC group. 6 b 7 c 8 a 9 c 10 a
16. Assertion : reacts with whereas 11 d 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 d
does not. 16 c 17 a 18 b 19 a 20 c
51 d 52 d 53 c 54 c 55 c
56 d 57 d 58 c 59 c 60 c
le
61 b 62 a 63 c 64 a 65 b
gr
66 c 67 e 68 c 69 a 70 c
71 d 72 c 73 a 74 b 75 b
am
76 a 77 a 78 b 79 c 80 b
81 b 82 d 83 a 84 b 85 d
@
86 b 87 b 88 b 89 b 90 b
C
91 c 92 d 93 d 94 c 95 c
96 b 97 c 98 c 99 b 100 c
he
1 c 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 b
6 a 7 b 8 a 9 d 10 d
11 a
1 c 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 b
6 b 7 b 8 a 9 bc 10 a
11 a 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 a
16 c 17 b 18 c 19 d 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 a
EXERCISE-13
(MCQ OF NITROGEN COMPOUNDS)
Q.1 Compound is a Q.9 Hydrolysis of alkyl isocyanide yields -
(1) Primary amine (2) Tert. amine
(3) Alcohol (4) Aldehyde
Q.10 How many isomeric amines can have the formula
C4H11N -
(1) Five (2) Six
(1) 1º and 3º amine
(3) Seven (4) Eight
(2) Only primary amine
(2) 2º and 3º amine Q.11 C2H5NH2 cannot be prepared by the
(4) Only secondary amine reduction of -
Q.2 The third member of homologous series of (1) C2H5NO2 (2) CH3CH = NOH
dimethyl amine - (3) C2H5NC (4) CH3CN
(1) CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
Q.12 A mixture of 1º, 2º and 3º amine is formed in the
Te
(2) CH3–NH–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–NH–CH(CH3)2 reaction -
(1) 1º Amide + caustic potash + bromine
le
Q.4 Aliphatic amines are ........... basic than NH3, but (1) Reaction with HNO2
C
aromatic amines are ...... basic than NH3 - (2) Reaction with CHCl3 and alc. KOH
he
(1) More, less (2) Less, more (3) Reaction with Grignard reagent
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (4) Reaction with acetyl chloride
m
Q.5 Suitable explanation for the order of basic Q.14 Ethylamine can be prepared by the all
is
nu
127
127
Q.18 A primary nitroalkane is treated with nitrous acid, (1) RCONH2 + Br2 + KOH
which of the following will be the main product :
(2) RCH2Cl + KCN
(1) pseudonitrol (2) nitrolic acid
(3) a primary amine (4) a primary alcohol (3) RNH2 + CHCl3 + KOH
Q.19 Acetonitrile has the structure :
(4) None of the above
(1) C2H5NC (2) C2H5CN
(3) CH3NC (4) CH3CN Q.27 A B C + D,
Q.20 Which of the following method is generally not C and D in the sequence are -
employed for the separation of primary, (1) Benzoic acid + aniline
secondary and tertiary amines ? (2) Phthalic acid + ethylamine
(1) fractional distillation (3) Phthalic acid + aniline
(2) Hinsberg's method (4) Benzoic acid + ethylamine
(3) Hofmann's method
(4) Filteration Q.28 CH3CONH2
Te
formula C4H11N ?
are-
gr
Q.36 Which of the following would undergo Hoffmann (3) CH3CH2NH2 (4) CH3CH2NHCOH
gr
bromide reaction to form primary amine- Q.44 The major product formed in the reaction is -
(1) RCONHCH3 (2) RCOONH4
am
on hydrolysis -
he
(4)
Q.38 The alkanenitriles are isomeric with-
_S
(1) Primary alkanamines Q.45 The end product (B) formed in the reaction
(2) Secondary alkanamines
pa
CH2=CH2 A B
(3) Alkyl isocyanides
(1) CH2=CHCH2NH2
rk
(4) Nitroalkanes
(2) H2N(CH2)4NH2
Q.39 Which of the following is obtained by reducing (3) CH3NH(CH2)2NHCH3
methyl cyanide with Na + C2H5OH - (4) NC(CH2)2CN
(1) Methyl alcohol (2) Acetic acid
Q.46 Among the following compounds which one will
(3) Ethyl amine (4) Methane
produce a Schiff base on reaction with
Q.40 Ethylamine can be prepared by the all except - cyclohexanone ?
(1) Curtius reaction
(2) Hoffmann reaction
(3) Mendius reaction (1) (2)
(4) Reduction of formaldoxime
Q.41 Which of the following compounds possesses a (3) (4)
chiral nitrogen atom ?
Q.47 The possible product formed in the reaction
(1)
Ma
129
129
(3) (4)
(3) CH3CH=CHCH3
le
(4)
Q.56 One mole of an amine (A) consumes two moles
am
Q.49 A compound (X) having the molecular formula of methyl bromide to give a quaternary
C3H9N reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride to ammonium salt. The amine (A) is -
(A) (CH3)3CCH2NH2 (B) (CH3)2NCH2CH3
@
(B) 2° Amine :
try
(3) (CH3)2CHNH2 (4) (CH3)3N (3) RCN, RNC (4) RNC, RCN
Q.51 The product (A) and (B) of the reaction Q.58 CH3CH2NH2 contains a basic NH 2 group, but
pa
are -
(1) CH3CH2CH3 and NH2MgBr (2) In CH3CH2NH2 the electron pair on
(2) CH3CH2NHCH3 and MgBr2 N-atom is delocalised by resonance
(3) CH3CH2N(CH3)2 and MgBr2 (3) In CH3CH2NH2 there is no resonance, while
(4) CH3CH2NHMgBr and CH4 in acetamide the lone pair of electrons on
N-atom is delocalised and therefore less
Q.52 Which nitrogen is protonated readily in guanidine available for protonation
(4) None of these
Q.59 The reaction
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) All of these
Q.53 Which of the following is most basic ? is called -
(1) Cope reaction (2) Ritter reaction
(1) (2)
(3) Schmidt reaction (4) Gabriel's reaction
130
& M 130
Q.60 The major organic product in the reaction is
H2NCOCH2CH2CONH2
(1) H2NCO(CH2)3NH2
(2) BrNH–CO–(CH2)3–CO–NH2
(3) BrNH–CO–(CH2)3–CO–NHBr
(4) H2N(CH2)2NH2
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
na
131
131
EXERCISE-14
(BRAIN TWISTERS OF NITROGEN COMPOUNDS)
Q.1 Identify X in the reaction
(3) (4)
Intermediate X
Q.4 Of the following statements -
(P) C6H5N=CH–C6H5 is a Schiff's base
(Q) A dye is obtained by the reaction of aniline
and C6H5N=NCl
(1) (2) (R) C6H5CH2NH2 on treatment with
[NaNO2 + HCl] gives diazonium salt
(S) p–Toluidine on treatment with [HNO2 + HCl]
gives diazonium salt
(1) Only (P) and (Q) are correct
Te
– NHCOCH3 is activating
(2) –NO2 is strongly deactivating while –CHO is
@
deactivating
Q.2 Z, Z is -
C
groups
(1) (2)
m
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
pa
rk
(3) (4)
Q.3 Identify 'Z' in the reaction given below -
(1) (2)
132
&
n
132
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
Q.9 A. Here A is -
gr
(1) (2)
Q.14 CH3–CH2– product will be -
pa
rk
(1) (2)
n 133
133
(1) (2) (4) and NH2CH2CH2Br
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
Te
(3) (4)
le
(1)
gr
am
Q. 17 (2)
(3)
C
(1) (2)
he
(4)
m
(3) (4)
is
try
134
&
Ma
134
Q.22 A
B C D
(1) (2)
Te
(3) (4)
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk
A
135
135
EXERCISE-15 A
(AIPMT & AIIMS QUESTIONS)
Q.1 A B (4) Nitroso benzene
C N-methyl aniline than A is - Q.5 Aniline in a set of reactions yields a end product
[AIPMT-2000] A B C D
(1) (2)
The product D would be - [AIPMT-2005]
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2
(3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
(3) CH3NH2 (4) Q.6 Nitrobenzene gives N-phenyl hydroxyl amine
by - [AIIMS-2003]
(1) Sn/HCl (2) H2/Pd–C
Q.2 + CH3MgBr product is - (3) Zn/NaOH (4) Zn/NH4Cl
Te
reaction - [AIIMS-2004]
gr
(1) (2)
(3) ArCONH2 + P2O5 (4) ArCONH2 + SOCl2
Q.8 Melting points are normally the highest for -
@
[AIIMS-2004]
(1) Tertiary amides (2) Secondary amides
C
(3) (4)
(3) Primary amides (4) Amines
he
m
[AIIMS-2005]
A B C (1) RNCO (2)
_S
(1)
(1)
Te
(2)
(2)
le
gr
(3)
am
(3) (4)
@
C
(1) (2)
(4) +
is
try
(3) (4)
_S
Q.14 Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded Q.18 An organic compound 'A' on treatment with NH 3
a coloured product 'Y'. [AIPMT-04,08,10]
gives 'B', which on heating gives 'C'. 'C' when
pa
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
na
137
137
EXERCISE-15B
(OTHER EXAM QUESTIONS)
Q.1 After nitration of benzene, reaction with (Sn + HCl) (3) (4) Biuret
the end product will be - [RPMT-2000]
(1) C6H5NH2 (2) C6H5NO2 Q.9 CH3CH2–NH2 X CH3CHO. What is
'X' [RPMT-2003]
(3) C6H5OH (4) C6H5–N= –O (1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3–CH=NH (4) CH3–CH2–NO2
Q.10 Ethyl amine react with CHCl3 in presence of
Q.2 When aniline heated with benzaldehyde, then
NaOH to gives offensive smell. The compound
product is - [RPMT-2000] obtained is - [RPMT-2003]
(1) Benzene (2) Azoxy benzene (1) C2H5Cl (2) C2H5CN
(3) Schiff base (4) Unsaturated acid (3) C2H5NC (4) CH3–CH=NH
Te
[RPMT-2004]
(2) CH3CH2NH2 and CH3COOH
is
(1) CH3CONH2
(3) CH3CH2OH and CH3CHO
try
(2) CH3–CN
(4) CH3OCH3 and CH3CHO
(3)
_S
(1) Ethyl amine (2) Methyl amine Q.14 Gabrial pthalimide reaction is used to prepare -
[RPMT-2005]
(3) Dimethylamine (4) Trimethyl amine
rk
[AIEEE-2007]
(1) C2H5CN and 3KCl
(2) CH3CH2CONH2 and 3KCl
(3) C2H5NC and K2CO3
Te
[IIT-2006]
am
(1) (2)
(3) CH3 –NH–CH3 (4) CH3–CN
(2)
@
X
m
(3)
is
(4)
(1)
_S
pa
(2)
rk
(1)
(4)
(2)
Q.22 In the chemical reaction [IIT-2010]
nar
139
139
(3)
140
=>
A140
EXERCISE # 16
(ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS)
These questions of two statements each, Q.5 Assertion : Aniline is a weaker base than benzyl
printed as Assertion and Reason. While amine.
answering these Questions you are required to Reason : In aniline, mesomeric interaction occurs
choose any one of the following four responses. between benzene ring and amino group.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are true & the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Reason is a correct explanation of the Q.6 Assertion : The following compound are given
Assertion. below -
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Te
(C) If Assertion is true and Reason is false. Reason : All above compound have lower boiling
(D) If Assertion & Reason both are false. point then CH3NO2.
am
Reason : In pyrrole, nitrogen is sp3– hybridized. Q.7 Assertion : Nitroalkanes and alkylnitrites are
C
Ma
141
141
Q.11 Assertion : exists as a zwitter ion
Q.13 Assertion : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a Q.17 Assertion : Aniline on reaction with NaNO 2/HCl
gr
suitable method for the preparation of pure at 0ºC followed by coupling with -naphthol
am
nitroethane.
Reason : Silver nitrite is predominantly covalent
compound.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142
=>
na
142
EXERCISE-11A
Answer Key
EXERCISE-11B
Te
EXERCISE-12
le
gr
am
@
EXERCISE-13
C
he
m
is
try
EXERCISE-14
_S
pa
rk
EXERCISE-15A
EXERCISE-15B
EXERCISE-16
Hard
227
1. Melting points are normally the highest for [AIIMS (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2004]
7. Nitrolim is [BVP 2004]
(a) Tertiary amides (b) Secondary amides
(a) (b)
(c) Primary amides (d) Amines
(c) (d)
2. Amines behave as [Karnataka (Med.) 1999]
8. Phenyl isocyanides are prepared from which of the
(a) Lewis acids
following reactions [CBSE PMT 1999]
(b) Lewis bases
Te
(a) Dil. HCl (b) Acetyl chloride 10. Aniline is separated from a mixture by [UPSEAT 2000,
try
(SET -29)
B.P
2. (b) In amines nitrogen has a love pair of . It can
_S
.
7. (b) Nitrolim is a mixturee of calcium cyanamide and
carbon.
13. (c) On heating with ethanolic KOH and
NH2 NC
primary amine, isocyanide is formed and is readily
detected by its offensive odour. This is called as
carbyl amine test.
+ 3 KOH +
RNC + 3 KCl +
Alkyl Potassiu Water
Isocyanide m
chloride
(Foul
smell)
14. (c)
Te
le
gr
am
@
C
he
m
is
try
_S
pa
rk