Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MT Boards Mock
MT Boards Mock
CLINICAL
CHEMISTRY
1. Specimen collection and processing is under which part of the quality assurance program?
a. Pre-analytical
b. Analytical
c. Post-analytical
d. None of the above
2. Mechanical hazards are caused by:
a. Centrifuges
b. Refrigerators
c. Both
d. Neither
1. What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term accuracy of the analytical
methods?
a. Internal quality control
b. External quality control
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
2. In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference
between the standard deviations of two groups of data.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. F-test
d. T-test
3. It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present.
a. Calibrator
b. Reagent
c. Standard
d. Control
4. This is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical laboratory.
a. Gaussian Curve
b. Cumulative Sum Graph
c. Youden/Twin Plot
d. Levey-Jennings Chart
5. This type of error which can be observed on a Levey-Jennings chart is formed control values that
distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive days.
a. Trend
b. Shift
c. Outliers
d. None of the above
6. The independent variable is plotted along the:
a. Horizontal axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Y-axis
d. Ordinate
7. A value of 11.2 mg/dL thyroxine is equivalent to ___ in SI units.
a. 135 nmol/L
b. 135 mmol/L
c. 145 nmol/L
d. 145 mmol/L
8. Convert 4.5 g/dL albumin to SI units:
a. 45 g/L
b. 90 g/L
c. 0.45 g/L
d. 0.45 g/L
11. What is the conversion for bilirubin from conventional (mg/dL) to SI (mmol/L) unit?
a. 17.1
b. 0.357
c. 88.4
d. 0.0113
12. What anticoagulant is used for cardiopulmonary bypass?
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Citrate
d. Oxalate
13. Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of ___ mg/dl/hour and at 4oC, the loss is
approximately ___ mg/dl/hour.
a. 2, 7
b. 3, 8
c. 8, 3
d. 7, 2
14. Whole blood fasting glucose level is ___ than in serum or plasma.
a. 10-15% lower
b. 5-10% lower
c. 10-15% higher
d. 5-10% higher
15. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the blood glucose value during the preceding:
a. VLDL
b. LDL
c. IDL
d. HDL
17. Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) and Lipoprotein a (are) considered as:
a. Major lipoproteins
b. Minor lipoproteins
c. Abnormal lipoproteins
d. Fatty acids
18. What age group has a moderate risk cut off value of >240 mg/dl and high risk cut off value of >260
mg/dl for total cholesterol?
a. < 2%
b. < 3%
c. < 4%
d. < 5%
20. This is considered as a one-step method for cholesterol determination:
a. Liebermann-Burchardt
b. Abell-Kendall
c. Schoenheimer Sperry
d. Bloors
21. Cholesterol esterase is used in which method/s for chelesterol determination?
a. Chemical methods
b. Enzymatic methods
22. LDL can be calculated from measurements of the following except: ___ by the Friedewald formula:
a. Total cholesterol
b. VLDL
c. HDL
d. Triglyceride
23. Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific?
a. Colorimetric: kinetic
b. Colorimetric: end point
c. Enzymatic: UV
d. Enzymatic: H2O2
24. This approach to the assay for urea nitrogen has a greater specificity and more expensive.
a. Colorimetric: diacetyl
b. Caraway
c. Kinetic
d. Enzymatic: NH3 formation
25. The most simple method for creatinine determination but is nonspecific is:
a. Transferring
b. Haptoglobin
c. AMG
d. Ceruloplasmin
27. This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effects as the serum protein electrophoretic pattern:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Hepatic cirrhosis
d. Pulmonary emphysema
28. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is elevated in plasma?
a. Conjugated bilirubin
b. Unconjugated bilirubin
c. Delta bilirubin
d. B and C
29. Creatine kinase is under what enzyme category?
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Hydrolases
c. Lyases
d. Transferases
30. It is the only enzyme whose clinical significance is not increased, but decreased levels.
a. Pseudocholinesterase
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. 5’ Nucleotidase
d. Glucose-6-Phospate Dehydrogenase
31. For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall ___ & pCO2 will rise ___%.
a. 7,3
b. 3,7
c. 2,5
d. 5,2
32. Confirmatory test for acromegaly:
a. Estriol
b. Estrone
c. Estradiol
d. Testradiol
34. An individual with hyperthyroidism will manifest ___ triglyceride levels.
a. Increased
b. Decreased
35. An individual with hypothyroidism will manifest ___ T3 uptake levels.
a. Increased
b. Decreased
36. This tumor marker is helpful in the diagnosis of urinary bladder cancer:
a. CA 19-9
b. Calcitonin
c. HER-2/neu
d. NMP
37. The primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine is:
a. Morphine
b. NAPA
c. Benzoylecgonine
d. Primidone
38. Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate?
a. Cyclosporine
b. Methotrexate
c. Phenobarbital
d. Acetaminophen
39. The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in %w/v are mental confusion, dizziness and
strongly impaired motor skills (staggering, slurred speech).
a. 0.09-0.25
b. 0.18-0.30
c. 0.27-0.40
d. 0.35-0.50
40. This pipette, commonly used in laboratories, is the considered the most basic pipette.
a. Automatic pipette
b. Air displacement pipette
c. Glass pipette
d. Positive displacement pipette
41. The BMI of an obese individual in kg/m2 is:
a. 18.5
b. 25
c. 29.9
d. 30
42. Which of the following is true about Fahey and McKelvey method?
a. Kinetic method
b. Measured after 18 hours
c. Diameter = log of concentration
d. All of the above
43. Which correctly describes when there is damaged in the epithelium?
a. Increased AST
b. Increased ALT
c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2
d. Increased CK
44. Which correctly describes when there is decreased in the potency of the biliary epithelium?
a. Increased AST
b. Increased ALT
c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2
d. Increased CK
45. Which test are routinely used to asses the kidney function (Dean Rodriguez’s Lectures)
a. K and crea
b. Na and crea
c. Cl and urea
d. K and urea
46. Which enzyme has a moderate specificity for heart, liver and skeletal muscle?
a. AST
b. LDH
c. ALT
d. CK
47. Who can perform POCT for glucose?
a. HDL
b. Triglycerides
c. Cholesterol
d. Phospholipids
49. Physician asks in asymptomatic DM patients
CLINICAL
MICROSCOPY
1. Nomarski and Hoffman are example of what microscopy?
a. Phase contrast microscopy
b. Darkfield microscopy
c. Brightfield microscopy
d. Fluorescent microscopy
2. Degree of Hazard: 3
a. Slight Hazard
b. Moderate Hazard
c. Extreme Hazard
d. Serious Hazard
3. The best aid for chemical spills is flushing the area with large amounts of water for at least
___ minutes then seek medical attention.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
4. Arsenal fire:
a. Type A fire
b. Type C fire
c. Type E fire
d. Type F fire
5. Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding because:
a. RBC, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hours at room temperature
b. Urobilinogen and bilirubin increased after prolonged exposure to light
c. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of urine
d. Ketones will increased due to bacterial and cellular metaboliam
6. The urine volume of a patient with oliguria is usually:
a. 1,200-1,500 mL
b. > 2,500 mL
c. < 400 mL
d. < 700 mL
7. The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
c. After addition of salicylic acid
d. After the specimen cools to room temperature
8. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen through urine”
a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Cloudy
d. Turbid
9. Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity is based on refractive index?
a. Total solids meter
b. Hydrometer
c. Reagent strip
d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
10.Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an:
a. Incubator
b. Cool dry place
c. Refrigerator
d. Freezer
11.Reading time: 30 seconds
a. Bilirubin
b. Ketones
c. Specific gravity
d. pH
12.The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
a. Albumin
b. Bence Jones protein
c. Mucoprotein
d. Globulin
13.Bence Jones Protein is characterized by its unique ability to coagulate at ___ and dissolve at
___.
a. 30-50oC : 80-100oC
b. 40-50oC : 80-90oC
c. 50-60oC : 90-100oC
d. 40-50oC : 80-100oC
14.SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation, no flocculation”
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
15.The parameter in the reagent strip which utilizes Ehrlich units is:
a. Bilirubin
b. Urobilinogen
c. Glucose
d. Leukocytes
16.Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.
a. 0.4
b. 4
c. 40
d. 400
17.Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip?
a. Blood
b. Bilirubin
c. Leukocytes
d. All of the choices
18.Soluble in ether, except:
a. Red blood cells
b. Lipids
c. Chyle
d. Lymphatic fluid
19.Soluble in dilute acetic acid, except:
a. Red blood cells
b. Amorphous phosphates
c. Calcium carbonates
d. White blood cells
20.Ascending sequence of casts:
a. Waxy-hyaline-coarsely granular-finely granular-cellular
b. Coarsely granular-finely granular-hyaline-waxy-cellular
c. Hyaline-cellular-coarsely granular-finely granular-waxy
d. Cellular-hyaline-finely granular-coarsely granular-waxy
21.Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat plates or thin prisms often in rosette
form:
a. Amorphous phosphates
b. Struvite
c. Apatite
d. Calcium carbonate
22.If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this other type of abnormal crystal may be
precipitated:
a. Bilirubin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Leucine
d. Cystine
23.Manner of reporting for RTE cells:
a. Average number per LPF
b. Average number per HPF
c. Average number per OIO
d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
24.Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine specimens may be reported using
rare/few/moderate/many by using the:
a. Scanner field
b. Low power field
c. High power field
d. Oil immersion field
25.In a urine specimen, ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen per high power field (HPF). How do
you report the findings?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
26.In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per high power field (HPF). How do you report the
finding?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
27.Most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Giardia lamblia
28.A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface:
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Uric acid
c. Cystine
d. Phosphate
29.Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to
glomerular and alveolar basement membranes:
a. Berger’s disease
b. Wagener’s granulomatosis
c. Goodpasture syndrome
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
30.The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approximately ___ of the head and covers approximately
___ of the nucleus.
a. One half, two-thirds
b. One third, one half
c. Two-thirds, one fourth
d. One fourth, one third
31.Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement”
a. 4.0
b. 3.0
c. 2.0
d. 1.0
32.Reagent/s used for the assessment of sperm viability:
a. Papanicolau
b. Wright’s
c. Giemsa
d. Eosin-Nigrosin
33.Computer-Assisted Semen Analysis (CASA) is used to determine sperm cell:
a. Vertical movement
b. Lateral movement
c. Circular movement
d. Velocity and trajectory
34.Florence test, which choline, uses which reagent?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Picric acid
c. Trichloroacetic acid
d. Silver nitroprusside
35.Pellicle clot formation after 12-24 hours refrigeration of cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Fungal meningitis
36.Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not in serum, except:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Encephalitis
c. Neurosyphilis
d. Guillain-Barre disease
37.Normal synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ___ mg/dL lower than the blood value.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
38.Cell which could be seen in synovial fluid resembles polished rice macroscopically:
a. Ragocytes
b. Cartilage cells
c. Rice bodies
d. Reiter cell
39.The normal color of gastric fluid is
a. Colorless
b. Green
c. White
d. Gray
40.What reagent is used for the APT test?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Sulfuric acid
d. Potassium hydroxide
HEMATOLOGY
a. Type O
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type AB
4. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-H
d. All of the choices
5. What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion when there is no time to type the
recipient’s sample?
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood
b. O Rh-positive, whole blood
c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
6. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian ancestry:
a. Diego
b. Cartwright
c. Colton
d. Gerbich
7. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic environment.
a. Anti-S
b. Anti-U
c. Anti-N
d. Anti-M
8. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. None of the choices
9. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:
a. Anticoagulant
b. ATP source
c. RBC membrane stabilizer
d. Caramelization inhibitor
12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
a. Whole blood
b. Packed red blood cells
c. Leukocyte concentrates
d. Platelets concentrates
13. Major advantage of gel technology:
a. 4+
b. 3+
c. 2+
d. 1+
15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected from the patient before the start
of surgery. The patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood may
be returned to the patient after the surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative
b. Normovolemic hemodilution
c. Intraoperative salvage
d. Postoperative salvage
16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing is:
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Citrate
d. Oxalate
17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of bluish purple areas under the skin of
the donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
18. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of ___ occurring in
association with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.
a. 1oC or more
b. 1oF or more
c. 3oC or more
d. 3oF or more
19. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-D
20. This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of the baby’s blood is removed from the
umbilical cord for testing:
a. Cordocentesis
b. PUBS
c. Both
d. None of the above
a. 1964
b. 1974
c. 1984
d. 1994
22. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 75-85%
23. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin
c. Chemotaxin
d. Cytokine
24. What is the most common complement component deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4
25. Which of the following is the most common congenital immonudeficiency?
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
28. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus infected patients as early as
1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1
b. C
c. E
d. prM
29. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that
associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes
b. Sarcoma
c. Oncofetal antigens
d. Tumor specific antigen
30. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
31. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
33. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:
a. Isotopes
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes
d. Immune complexes
34. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate
35. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%.
Interpret.
a. Non-reactive
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. 1+
36. Other name for “HCV RNA”:
a. Viral clade
b. Surface antigen
c. Viral load
d. Core antigen
37. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
d. Anti-HBcAg
38. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of HLA?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
39. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?
a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Concanavalin A
d. Phytohemagglutinin
40. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD12
31.A medical technologist cultured a specimen from a suspected cystic fibrosis patient. After 24 hours
of incubation, the MT noticed colonies which were spreading and flat, with serrated edges and a
metallic sheen. There was a characteristic corn taco-like odor. Identify the bacteria.
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
32.Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella on the basis of their:
a. Failure to produce gas from inositol
b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment lactose
c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction
d. All of the above
33.Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of:
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Bone marrow
d. Blood
34.Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for cultures of Haemophilus?
a. III factor
b. I factor
c. X factor
d. V factor
35.String test is used for the diagnosis of which bacteria?
a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Campylobacter jejuni
36.Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as Corynebacterium diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?
a. C. ulcerans
b. C. minutissimum
c. C. jeikeium
d. C. urealyticum
37.Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by:
a. Growth rate
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
d. Catalase test at 68oC
38.Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the ___ form of anthrax.
a. Gastrointestinal
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Urinary
39.Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal “lollipop” spores?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Eubacterium lentum
c. Clostridium butyricum
d. Bacteroides ureolyticus
40.In water bacteriology, the following are used as confirmatory test media except:
a. Lactose broth
b. Endo agar
c. Eosin methylene blue agar
d. Brilliant green lactose broth
Share
‹ Home ›
View web version
Powered by Blogger.