16/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers
1. (2) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (2)
2. (2) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (2) 162. (1)
3. (3) 43. (2) 83. (3) 123. (3) 163. (1)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (2) 164. (1)
5. (1) 45. (4) 85. (2) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (4) 46. (3) 86. (1) 126. (4) 166. (3)
7. (2) 47. (1) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (2) 48. (1) 88. (4) 128. (2) 168. (2)
9. (2) 49. (3) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (2) 50. (2) 90. (3) 130. (1) 170. (1)
11. (1) 51. (2) 91. (3) 131. (4) 171. (2)
12. (2) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (3) 172. (4)
13. (2) 53. (4) 93. (2) 133. (2) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (4) 174. (4)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (2) 96. (3) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (1)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (2) 178. (4)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (4)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (2) 180. (2)
21. (1) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (4) 62. (2) 102. (1) 142. (4) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (1) 103. (4) 143. (1) 183. (4)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (3)
25. (2) 65. (2) 105. (1) 145. (4) 185. (3)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (2) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (4) 107. (3) 147. (4) 187. (2)
28. (3) 68. (1) 108. (4) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (1) 69. (3) 109. (2) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (3) 110. (1) 150. (1) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (4) 111. (4) 151. (4) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (2) 112. (3) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (2) 73. (1) 113. (1) 153. (3) 193. (4)
34. (3) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (1) 194. (4)
35. (4) 75. (2) 115. (3) 155. (1) 195. (4)
36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (4) 156. (2) 196. (2)
37. (3) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (4) 197. (1)
38. (1) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (1) 119. (3) 159. (3) 199. (2)
40. (1) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (3)

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

16/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION-A V 18
So, resistance of the voltmeter R = =
1. Answer (2) i  1 18 
 2 − 50 
dv  
a= = 4 − 2v
dt 18
R=
 50 − 36 
At t = 0, v = 0  100 
 
a = 4 – 2(0) = 4 m/s2
1800
R=
2. Answer (2) 14
Work done = TA 900
R= 
7
= T(4r2)
5. Answer (1)
W 4r 2
 1 2   6 3   15 
=
W ' 4 ( 2r )2  +   +   
r r2   1 2   2 
= 1 = =
W  = 4W  1 1  1 1 3
+
 +   1 2 
 r1 r2    2
3. Answer (3)
=5V
6. Answer (4)
Gravitational force provides centripetal
acceleration:
GMm mv 2
4. Answer (3)  =
(R + h ) 2
(R + h )
Using Kirchhoff's loop law
(Symbols have their usual meaning)
30 – 24i – 18 = 0
GM
24i = 12  v=
R+h
1 7. Answer (2)
i= A
2 Range is same for complementary angles
V 18  1 + 2 = 90°
Now current in 50  resistor is = = A
R 50  sin1 = cos2
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

8. Answer (2) 13. Answer (2)

Wave equation travelling along x-axis is • In a charge free region, electric field lines are
function of (t – Kx) continuous curves
• Concept of field was first introduced by
1 1
 has dimensional formula of K and has Faraday.
a b
14. Answer (4)
dimensional formula of 
KQ
 [a] = [L] Electric field at outside point E =
r2
[b] = [T]
Er 2 3  103  100  10−4
9. Answer (2)  Q= =
K 9  109
Comparing given equation with standard
1
format of wave equation, we get =  10−8
3
 = 60 rad/s and K = 2 m–1
= 0.333 × 10–8 C

Wave velocity = = 30 m s−1 = 3.33 × 10–9 C
K
= 3.33 nC
T 15. Answer (2)
Wave velocity =
 Work done = Area under the force-displacement
curve
T
30 = 1 1
1.5  10 −4 =  5  10 + 5  10 + (10 + 20 )  5
2 2
 T = 1.5 × 10–4 × 900 = 0.135 N
= 25 + 50 + 75
10. Answer (2)
= 150 J
 → minimum  E → maximum i.e. from 16. Answer (2)
n =  to n = 1 The maxima of the decreasing intensity are
2 observed in diffraction.
hc Z
 = 13.6 2 17. Answer (3)
 n
An electromagnetic wave is generated only by
 Z 
2 accelerating charges.
1 He+ 9
   =  Li  = 18. Answer (4)
2  Z  4
Z Li++  He 
The latent heat of a body depends upon pressure,
11. Answer (1) nature of phase change as well as properties of
1 substance.
R = R0 A 3 19. Answer (2)

 R  1 4r 2  T1 − T2 
ln   = ln( A) For steady state K eq.
R l
 0  3
K1  r  (T1 − T2 )
2
K 2  3r 2 (T1 − T2 )
Above equation represents a straight line = +
X l l
similar to Y =
3 K1 + 3K 2
 Keq =
12. Answer (2) 4
The particle will move along a circle and will come 20. Answer (2)
back to initial point after one time period. hc
Eg 
2m 2  3.14  8  10 −6 
T = =
qB 80  10−6  20  10−3  
hc
= 31.4 s Eg

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

 12400  27. Answer (4)

  Å
 2.4  Pressure of the gas
   5166 Å
 (v rms )
1 2
P=
21. Answer (1) 3
Transistor amplifier utilises negative feedback and 1
 9  10−2  ( 400 ) = 4800 N/m2
2
transistor oscillator utilises positive feedback. P=
3
22. Answer (4)
28. Answer (3)
  i2 
Since force F =  0  L 1 = 60° and 2 = 45°
 2d 
  cot2  = cot2 1 + cot2 2,  is true angle of dip

Fd = MLT  L  = MLT −2 A −2  cot2  = cot2 60° + cot2 45

2
0  =
i2  L   A 2  L     1
    cot 2  =   + 1
3
23. Answer (4)
10.04 + 0.00230 = 10.04230 4
cot  =
Upto correct decimal place the result is reported 3
as 10.04. Hence the number of significant figures  3
3
 tan  =   = tan−1 
is 4.
4  4 
24. Answer (3)  

r = 1.2 m, m = 0.2 kg 29. Answer (1)

mv 2 I = 4 cos t + 2 sin t
T =
r 42 + 22
IRMS = = 10 A
0.2  v 2 2
150 =
1.2 30. Answer (1)
150  1.2 For a uniform sheet, Mass  Area
 v2 = = 900
0.2
16 ( 2, 2 ) − 4 ( 3, 1)
v = 30 m/s  rcom =
16 − 4
25. Answer (2)
5 7
l0 = 2r, l = 2R, l = 2R – 2r = 2(R – r) = , 
3 3
F l
=Y  2 2
a l0 5  7 
Shift =  3 − 2 +  3 − 3
2 ( R − r ) Ya  ( R − r )    
l
 F = Ya  = Ya  =
l0 2r r 2
= m
 2  3
 F = 2  1011  4  10−6   
 60  31. Answer (4)
= 2.67 × 104 N For a rolling body the point of contact is at rest
26. Answer (3) relative with the surface.
Q1 = 15 × 103 cal T1 = 427 + 273 = 700 K 32. Answer (2)
W=? T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K − bt
A = A0e 2m for damped oscillator
W T 300 400
Efficiency = = 1− 2 = 1− =
Q1 T1 700 700 At time T
− bT
400 A0
W = 15  103  = 8.57  103 cal = A0e 2m
700 4

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
− bT 37. Answer (3)
1
 e 2m = Let charge on capacitor B = q
4
q q
At time t + =5
3 4
− bt 7q
A0
= A0e 2m =5
64 12
60
− bt q= C
1 7
 e 2m =
64 38. Answer (1)
6.5
− bt  −bT 
3
I=
 =  e 2m   6  18 
e 2m 2+ 
   6 + 18 
 
6.5 13
t = 3T I= = =1A
6  18 13
33. Answer (2) 2+
24
−d 39. Answer (2)
EMF induced = 
dt B Work function  =
hc
− eV0 =
12400
− 1.87
 3750
At t = 3, slope of B versus t graph is 4.
= 1.44 eV
34. Answer (3) For 600 nm photons
hc 12400
V = −= − 1.44
 6000
V  = 0.627 V
40. Answer (1)
Component parallel to B(v II ) = v cos30
= 3 m/s
Component of velocity perpendicular to
B(v ⊥ ) = v sin30 = 1 m/s
Line joining object to Image is perpendicular to the
 Pitch = vII × Time period
mirror.
2m  2m 
35. Answer (4) = v II   T = 
qB  qB 
A convex lens bends the light ray towards its
3  2  1
principal axis. Hence, given combination will not =
22
bend the rays falling on it.
3
= 
SECTION-B 2
36. Answer (2) 41. Answer (4)
Weight = Buoyancy force
4
3
( )
 R 3 − r 3 (1.5w g ) = R 3  w g
4
3
1.5 (R3 – r3) = R3
1.5R3 – 1.5r3 = R3
0.5R3 = 1.5r3
R3 = 3r3
Respective forces on sphere 1 due to sphere 2
R = (3)1/3 r
and sphere 3 are as shown above

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

  0.1   0.2   0.4  

= 2    100 +    100 + 4    100
  10   20   80  
= (0.02 + 0.01 + 0.02) × 100
= 5%
45. Answer (4)
As depletion width of a p-n junction is given as
2
 GM 2   GM 2 
2
 GM 2 
2 20 (Vo + Vb )  1 1 
Fnet =   +   +  cos60 W =  + 
2 
2
 4a2   4a2   e  NA ND 
     4a 
Where Vo is contact potential given by
GM 2
Fnet = 3 KT  NAND 
4a2 Vo = ln  
e  ni2 
42. Answer (3)
and Vb is biased voltage
l  3l  Hence depletion width depends on temperature,
Ui = −mg +  −3m  g   = −5mgl
2  2 biasing voltage, type of semiconductor and doping
concentration.
l  3l 
Uf = −3mg +  −m  g   = −3mgl 46. Answer (3)
2  2
1
W = PV (Cycle)
Now, change in potential energy 2 0 0
Heat supplied = QAB + QBC
U = Uf – Ui = 2mgl
3 5
Q= (P0V0 ) + (2P0V0 )
43. Answer (2) 2 2
 P0V0 
 
=  2  =
Cyclic work 1
Efficiency  =
Heat supplied  13 P0V0  13
 
 2 
100
 Efficiency = %
13
47. Answer (1)
t t
Time taken by ray 1 to cross slab = = 2 F = ma
1v1 1v1
2 a = ax i + ay j

t d2x d 2y
Time taken by ray 2 to cover same distance = a= i+ j
v1 dt 2 dt 2
x = 5t2 – 3
So extra path or path difference
dx
= 10t
t     dt
=  2 − 1  v1 = t  2 − 1
v1  1   1  d2x
= 10 m/s2
44. Answer (3) dt 2
y = 3t3 + 5
a2b
Let Z = dy
c4 = 9t 2
dt
Z   a   b   c   d 2y
Then  100 = 2  +  + 4    100 = 18t
Z   a   b   c  dt 2
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

 a = 10i + 18t j = 10i + 36 j (t = 2 s) 49. Answer (3)

Velocity of COM will remain same if there is no
( )
F = ma = 3  10i + 36 j = 30i + 108 j external force acting on the system. Since initial
speed is given as zero.
F = ( 30 )2 + (108 )2 = 12564 = 112.08 N mm v m + mb v b
 =0
48. Answer (1) mm + mb

On substituting v m = v mb + v b

and v mb = 20i

VRMS = 200 V We get v b = −5i

n = 50 Hz 50. Answer (2)
XL = L = 2n × L = 2 ×  × 50 × 0.01 f
m= (Transverse magnification)
= f −u
R=1 =−
1
2
 Z = R 2 + X L2 = (1)2 + (  )2 Areal magnification = m2
Z = 1 + 9.86 = 10.86 = 3.3  Area of image 1
 =
Area of object 4
VRMS 200
IRMS = = = 60.6 A  Area of image = 0.25
Z 3.3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A •
51. Answer (2) •
Interhalogens compounds are more reactive than
halogens (except fluorine) because X–X’ bond in
•
interhalogens is weaker than X–X bond in
halogens except F–F bond.
52. Answer (4) •
• NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq) ⎯⎯→
N2(g) + 2H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)

•

(NH4)2Cr2O7 ⎯⎯→ N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3 •

• Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯→ Ba + 3N2
54. Answer (3)
• NH2CONH2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯→
(NH4)2CO3 2NH3 + H2O+ CO2
53. Answer (4) •
• CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2

•
•
•

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

55. Answer (3) 63. Answer (1)

Correct order of boiling point is • Heavy water is used as moderator to slow
n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentanal < penlan-1-ol down the fast moving neutrons in nuclear
reactor
van der Weak dipole- Dipole- Hydrogen
dipole bonding • H2O2 is a valuable antiseptic which is sold
Waals Dipole forces
interaction under the name of perhydrol.
forces
64. Answer (4)
56. Answer (2)
• van-Arkel method is very useful for removing
Natural occurring polymer, rubber is cis-1, 4- all the oxygen and nitrogen present in the
polyisoprene form of impurity in certain metals like Zr and
Ti
• Distillation method is very useful purification
for low boiling metals like Zn and Hg
• Zone refining method is very useful for
57. Answer (3) producing semiconductor and other metals of
Sucralose is a trichloro derivative of sucrose very high purity, eg. Ge, Si, etc.
58. Answer (3) • Cu is refined by electrolytic method.
E = h 65. Answer (2)
Energy of an electron
= (6.626 × 10–34) × (2 × 1014)
= 1.325 × 10–19 J
Energy of one mole of electrons
In this reaction S8 is oxidised as well as reduced
= 1.325 × 10–19 × 6.02 × 1023 J mol–1 so it is a disproportionation reaction.
= 79.8 kJ mol–1 66. Answer (2)
59. Answer (3) For 3D, AAA ---- type of lattice, co-ordination
Name according to IUPAC number is 6.
IUPAC nomenclature Official Name 67. Answer (4)
a. Unnilunium Mendelevium  l  1  l 
Specific conductance () = C ×   =   
b. Unniloctium Hassium A R A
 l 
c. Unnilpentium Dubniun  Cell constant   =  × R
A
d. Unnilseptium Bohrium
= 0.15 × 10–3 × 1500
60. Answer (2)
= 0.225 cm–1
All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer
68. Answer (1)
require magnesium as the cofactor.
In NaCl crystal there in one Schottky defect per
61. Answer (1)
1016 ions.
69. Answer (3)

 2-centre-2-electron bonds = 4
 3-centre-2-electron bonds = 2
 Ratio  2 : 1
62. Answer (2)
Sodium chlorate is a herbicide.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

70. Answer (3) • 2.24 L O2 at STP = 0.1 mol O2 = 0.2 NA atoms

In negative resonance effect the transfer of 16 1 4NA
• 16 g SO3 = mol = mol SO3 = atoms
electrons is towards the atom or substituted group 80 5 5
attached to the conjugated system. –NO2 attached
10 N
to benzene ring shows –R effect. • 10 g Ca = mol = A atoms
40 4
71. Answer (4)
80. Answer (1)
Solution of CH3OH and H2O, forms positive
deviation solution.
81. Answer (3)
Boiling point  i × m
72. Answer (2) Hence order of B.P.;
• Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious 0.1 m Glucose < 0.2 m Urea < 0.15 m KCl < 0.1 m
anaemia AlCl3
• Vitamin B6 deficiency causes convulsions 82. Answer (4)
73. Answer (1)
W = – Pext (Vf – Vi )
= – 1 atm (20 – 10) L = – 10 L-atm
83. Answer (3)
 U = Q + W
Attacking reagent for Reimer-Tiemann reaction is
For isothermal process U = 0 dichlorocarbene : CCl2
So Q = – W = 10 L-atm 84. Answer (2)
74. Answer (3)
pH = H  PT
2 2
Secondary valency is equal to the co-ordination
number of metal. Here, it is six. 2 4
=  1 = = 0.8 atm
75. Answer (2) 2 + 0.5 5
Equilibrium constant for an endothermic reaction 85. Answer (2)
increases with increase in temperature while it
decreases with increase in temperature for
exothermic equilibrium.
76. Answer (1) SECTION-B

• is 2pz 86. Answer (1)

Amides on reduction with lithium aluminium
• *2pz hydride yield amines

77. Answer (3)

The process of settling of colloidal particles is
called coagulation or precipitation of the sol. 87. Answer (2)
78. Answer (3) For Lyman series of hydrogen atom, n1 = 1 and n2
0.693 = 2, 3 …. and the electronic transition occurs in
For first order reaction, t1/2 =
k ultraviolet region of electromagnetic spectrum.
79. Answer (1) 88. Answer (4)
1 The thermal stability of carbonates of group 2
• 1 g H2 = mol H2 = NA atoms
2 metals increases with increase of cationic size.

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

89. Answer (3) 94. Answer (4)

• Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e– Elements present in their standard states have
• MnO −4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O zero enthalpy of formation: Standard state of Br2
is liquid so enthalpy of formation of Br2(g) is non-
meq. of KMnO4 = meq. of FeSO4 zero.
Mole × 5 = 1 × 1 95. Answer (2)
1 K[Co(en)Cl2Br2]
 nKMnO =
4 5
90. Answer (3)
Go3 = G1o + Go2

–2  Eo  F = −1 Eo  F − 1 Eo F
Cu2 + /Cu Cu2 + /Cu+ Cu+ /Cu

0.15 + 0.52 0.67 96. Answer (3)

EoCu2+ /Cu = = 0.33 V
2 2 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
91. Answer (3)
1  −[N2O5 ]  [O2 ]
Rate =  =
2 t  t
1-Bromo-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
[O2 ] x
Therefore =
t 2
• Lowest locant rule is applied 97. Answer (2)
92. Answer (2) Accumulation of molecular species at surface
Reaction follows Anti-Markovnikov’s addition rather than bulk is known as adsorption.
98. Answer (3)
In SO24− , two  bonds are equally delocalised on
93. Answer (2) four sigma bonds, therefore bond order of S–O
4+2 6 3
bond is = =
4 4 2
99. Answer (3)
H2PO 2− cannot donate H+ but can accept H+,
therefore, act as bronsted base only.
Electron withdrawing group present at para 100. Answer (2)
position increases electrophilicity of carbonyl
8a
carbon and accordingly increases rate of TC =
27Rb
hydrolysis.

BOTANY
SECTION-A 103. Answer (4)
101. Answer (4) During anaphase, chromatids begin their
Mineral ions are remobilised from older, migration towards the two opposite poles.
senescing parts to young part.
104. Answer (4)
102. Answer (1)
Chromosomes start pairing together and form a
Nitrogenase enzyme is capable of nitrogen
reduction and it is present exclusively in complex structure called synaptonemal complex
prokaryotes. during zygotene stage of prophase I.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

105. Answer (1) 117. Answer (2)

Chlorella is unicellular alga and is rich in protein. Water donates electron to PS-II in non-cyclic
It is used as source of food supplements. photophosphorylation through oxygen evolving
106. Answer (2) complex.

The gymnosperms are heterosporous as they 118. Answer (3)

produce microspores and megaspores. A nucleotide has three components - a
nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (ribose in case
107. Answer (3)
of RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a
Oxygen helps in release of metabolic energy phosphate.
essential for growth activities. Water, oxygen and
119. Answer (3)
nutrients are very essential for growth.
Variations at the genetic level is called
108. Answer (4) polymorphism. It arises due to mutations.
During asexual reproduction, individuals produced 120. Answer (2)
are exact copies of each other as well as their
Amino acids are activated in first phase of
parent..
translation.
109. Answer (2)
121. Answer (4)
The nucleus of functional megaspores divide
Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
mitotically to form 2 nucleate embryo sac. Two
causes algal bloom which increases BOD and
more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions will form reduces DO of water body.
8-nucleate stage.
122. Answer (2)
Therefore, three mitotic nuclear division are
Species-area relationship on log-log scale is
required.
expressed as:
110. Answer (1)
Log S = Log C + Z log A
Wine and beer are beverages produced without
S = species richness, A = Area
distillation of fermented broth.
Z = Regression coefficient, C = Y-intercept.
111. Answer (4)
123. Answer (3)
Both mango and wheat share the same division
Rhizopus species can be saprophyte or parasite.
that is Angiospermae.
124. Answer (2)
112. Answer (3)
Neurospora asexually reproduce by conidia (non
Museum contains preserved animal and plant
motile spores).
specimens. So it is helpful in identifying both
125. Answer (1)
animals and plants.
Agaricus has edible basidiocarp.
113. Answer (1)
126. Answer (4)
Acetyl CoA is 2C compound. It is common
intermediate. Fatty acid and carbohydrates form Recombination frequency is directly proportional
Acetyl CoA and proteins first form pyruvic acid to the distance between genes.
then Acetyl CoA. Genes A and B have high recombination
frequency so they will be distantly situated.
114. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2)
Pusa Gaurav is a variety of mustard.
Person suffering with Klinefelter’s syndrome have
Pusa Sem 2 and Sem 3 are of flat bean varities.
chromosome complement 44 + XXY.
Pusa Sawani is variety of Okra.
128. Answer (2)
115. Answer (3)
To have colourblind daughter, the father should be
Stenothermal are organisms which are restricted colourblind and mother should be either carrier or
to a narrow range of temperature. colourblind.
116. Answer (4) 129. Answer (2)
Expression for GPP is GPP – R = NPP. Stilt roots are supporting roots in plants such as
NPP is net primary productivity. maize. They arise from the lower nodes of stem.

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

130. Answer (1) 140. Answer (2)

The labelled structure is petiole of a leaf. In
Australia Acacia, petioles expands, becomes
green and synthesises food.
131. Answer (4)
The end-walls in sieve tube elements are
perforated in a sieve-like manner to form the sieve
plates. These elements are responsible for
translocation of food material in plants.
132. Answer (3)
At some places, cambium in dicot stem forms a
narrow band of parenchyma passes through the
secondary xylem and phloem in radial direction.
These are secondary medullary rays.
133. Answer (2)
Plasmids are circular double stranded DNA
outside the genomic DNA.
134. Answer (4)
The endomembrane system includes
endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosome
and vacuole.
Functions of these organelles are coordinated.
Peroxisome is not included in endomembrane
system.
135. Answer (3)
The effluent from the secondary treatment, that is
called secondary effluent is generally released
into natural water body like river and streams.
141. Answer (3)
Pyramid of biomass is inverted in aquatic
ecosystem as biomass of primary producer is less
than that of primary consumer.
142. Answer (4)
In general, plants and herbivores are more
adversely affected than carnivores in competition.
143. Answer (1)
In sickle cell anemia, a point mutation in which a
change of single base pair in the gene for beta -
globin chain will results in the substitution of
glutamic acid by valine.
144. Answer (1)
The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992,
called upon all nations to take appropriate
measures for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilisation of its benefits.
145. Answer (4)
Silt and clay are suspended solids present as
impurities in waste water.

Kinetochores are disc shapes structures present 146. Answer (3)

on the sides of the centromere. Sporozoans lack locomotary structures.
SECTION-B 147. Answer (4)
136. Answer (3) Sickle cell anaemia and phenylketonuria are
Ectocarpus and kelp show haplo-diplontic pattern autosomal recessive disorders. Myotonic
of life cycle. dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder.
137. Answer (2) 148. Answer (2)
Facilitated transports are highly selective and very In brinjal, China rose and mustard flowers are
specific. hypogynous, whereas in guava, flowers are
138. Answer (2) epigynous.
Kinetin (cytokinin), is an adenine derivative plant 149. Answer (3)
growth regulator. In dicot plants, cork cambium and interfascicular
139. Answer (4) cambium arise during secondary growth.
The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region Therefore, these are secondary in origin.
called hilum. 150. Answer (1)
Female gametophyte is also called embryo sac. Phospholipids are the major lipids in cell
Filiform apparatus plays an important role in membrane. These phospholipids are arranged in
guiding the pollen tube into synergids. a bilayer.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 158. Answer (3)
151. Answer (4) Eosinophils → 2-3%
Formation of sperms by male germ cells is called Monocytes → 6-8%
spermatogenesis. Only certain spermatogonia Basophils → 0.5-1%
called primary spermatocytes periodically
Neutrophils → 60-65%
undergo meiosis to form secondary
spermatocytes which are haploid. 159. Answer (3)
In fishes (Scoliodon), the heart pumps out
152. Answer (3)
deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by the
Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and gills and supplied to the body parts from where
aquatic insects are ammonotelic in nature. deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart.
Ammonia, as it is readily soluble, is generally
Frog (amphibian), – Incomplete double
excreted by diffusion across body surfaces or circulation
Calotes (reptile)
through gill surfaces (in fish) as ammonium ions.
Kidneys do not play any significant role in its Aptenodytes (bird) – Complete double
removal. circulation

153. Answer (3) 160. Answer (3)

Muscle is a specialised tissue of mesodermal
origin. The mesoderm gives rise to blood vessels,
bone, cartilage, joints, connective tissue,
endocrine glands, heart muscle, uterus, fallopian
tubes etc.
154. Answer (1)
About 40-50 percent of body weight of a human
adult is contributed by muscles.
155. Answer (1)
Poultry typically includes chicken and ducks and
sometimes, turkey and geese. The word ‘poultry'
is often used to refer to the meat of only these
birds, but in a more general sense it may refer to
the meat of other birds too.
156. Answer (2)
The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together
into the duodenum as the common hepato-
pancreatic duct (A). It is guarded by a sphincter
called the sphincter of Oddi.
157. Answer (4)
Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is
known as diarrhoea. It reduces the absorption of
food.
In jaundice, liver is affected. Vomiting is the
ejection of stomach contents through the mouth.
Indigestion is a condition in which food is not
properly digested, leading to a feeling of fullness.
To obtain a standard ECG, 3 electrodes are
attached one to each wrist and to the left ankle to
continuously monitor the heart activity.
161. Answer (2)
Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate
with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells.
162. Answer (1)
In female cockroaches, the 7th sternum is boat
shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna
form a brood or genital pouch.
163. Answer (1)
Seed ferns are common ancestors of cycads and
angiosperms. Zosterophyllum is a genus of
vascular land plants. Lycopods are the
tracheophytes which originated from
Zosterophyllum genus. Psilophyton is a genus of
extinct vascular land plants of Devonian period
and is thought to be a part of the group from which
modern ferns and seed plants evolved.
164. Answer (1)
Similarity in banding pattern of chromosome
numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee
indicates their common origin.
165. Answer (2)
Mendel had talked of inheritable ‘factors’
influencing phenotype. Saltation is single step
large mutation. Hugo de Vries believed mutation
caused speciation and not the minor variations
that Darwin talked about.

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

166. Answer (3) 174. Answer (4)

Biosynthetic stage is part of upstream processing.
Downstream processing includes separation and
purification of the desired product.
167. Answer (4)
Salmonella – Used in creating first rDNA
typhimurium
Bacillus – Gene used in creating
thuringiensis biopesticide
Agrobacterium – Used in developing
tumefaciens transgenic tobacco
Escherichia – Source of EcoRI
coli
168. Answer (2)
DNA ligase acts on cut DNA molecules and joins
their ends. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA.
Alkaline phosphatase removes phosphate from 5’
end of vector DNA to prevent its self ligation. DNA
polymerase adds nucleotides to 3’ OH end of
growing DNA strand.
169. Answer (2)
Gill slits are absent in non-chordates. Dog fish,
sting ray and angel fish are chordates and devil
fish (Octopus) is a non-chordate.
170. Answer (1)
Balanoglossus – Stomochord
Cucumaria – Water vascular system
Chaetopleura – Calcareous exoskeleton
Octopus – Ventral, solid and double nerve cord
171. Answer (2)
Annelids – Metamerism
Platyhelminths – Triploblastic acoelomate
Aschelminths – Pseudocoelomates
Ctenophores – Ciliated comb plates
172. Answer (4)
When two parents participate in the reproductive
process and also involve fusion of male and
female gametes, it is called sexual reproduction.
173. Answer (2)
During pregnancy, several hormones increase in
maternal blood for proper foetal growth, metabolic
changes in mother and maintenance of
pregnancy.
Statement (2) is incorrect because immediately
after implantation, inner cell mass differentiates
into an outer ectoderm and inner endoderm.
Mesoderm is formed later in between ectoderm
and endoderm.
175. Answer (2)
Each lung is enclosed by two membranes known
as pleura or pleural membranes. In between these
two membranes, a narrow space is present known
as pleural cavity. This pleural cavity is filled with a
fluid secreted by pleural membranes known as
pleural fluid. It lubricates the pleural membranes
so that they may slide over each other without
friction during breathing.
B – Bronchiole
C – Pleural membranes
D – Alveoli
176. Answer (2)
Better awareness about sex related matters,
increased number of medically assisted deliveries
and better post-natal care leading to decreased
maternal and infant mortality rates, increased
number of couples with small families, better
detection and cure of STIs and overall increased
medical facilities for all sex-related problems, etc.
all indicate improved reproductive health of the
society.
177. Answer (1)
Ignoring STIs and not getting the proper treatment
can lead to complications like PID, abortions, still
births, ectopic pregnancies, infertility or even
cancer of the reproductive tract.
178. Answer (4)
30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved
for human-use the world over.
In India, 12 of these are presently being marketed.
179. Answer (4)
The optic nerves leave the eye at a point medial
to and slightly above the posterior pole of the eye
ball.
Photoreceptor cells are not present in this region.

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180. Answer (2) 187. Answer (2)

GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH and FSH are the a. Condom for male
hormones which are produced by pars distalis.
181. Answer (3)

Phosphate and hydroxyl – Ester bond b. Implants

group of sugar

Polymer of amino acids – Peptide bond

Polysaccharides – Glycosidic bond

Adenine and thymine – Hydrogen c. Copper T

bonds

182. Answer (3)

Enzyme-substrate complex dissociates into its
product(s) and the unchanged enzyme with an
intermediate formation of enzyme-product
complex.
183. Answer (4)
A general rule of thumb is that rate of chemical
reaction doubles or decreases by half for every
10°C change in either direction. So, for 40°C rise
in temperature, the rate of reaction increases by
(2)4 = 16 times.
184. Answer (3)
Active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon
erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon.
185. Answer (3)
The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of
a toxic substance i.e., haemozoin which is
responsible for the chills and high fever recurring
every 3-4 days.
SECTION-B
186. Answer (2)
• Kidneys are reddish-brown, bean-shaped
structures situated between the levels of last
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra.
• Each kidney of an adult human measures
5–7 cm in width, 2–3 cm in thickness with an
average weight of 120–170 g.
• Towards the centre of the inner concave
surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum
through which the ureter, blood vessels and
nerves pass.
d. Female condom
188. Answer (3)
The conducting part consists of external nostrils,
nasal chamber, internal nares, nasopharynx,
larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles. The
conducting part transports the atmospheric air to
the alveoli, clears it from foreign particles,
humidifies and also brings the air to body
temperature. Exchange part is the actual site of
diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
atmospheric air.
189. Answer (2)
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments
separate on the basis of size. Equal sized
fragments will stack at the same distance from
cathode.
190. Answer (2)
Number of dsDNA copies obtained after n cycles
of PCR = 2n.
 After 5 cycles, 25 copies i.e. 32 copies will be
obtained from one dsDNA fragment.
So, from two dsDNA fragments → 2 × 25 = 2 × 32
= 64 copies will be obtained.
191. Answer (3)
Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals is an
example of analogous organs and they are the
result of convergent evolution.
192. Answer (3)
The body of frog (Rana) is divided into head and
trunk only. Neck is absent in amphibians.

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CST-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

193. Answer (4) Route through which action potential travels in

heart : SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje
Mammals have two pairs of limbs, adapted for
fibres → Heart muscle.
walking, running, climbing, burrowing, swimming
196. Answer (2)
or flying.
Increased yields have partly been due to the use
194. Answer (4) of improved crop varieties, but mainly due to the
Breast – Glandular tissue divided into use of better management practices and use of
agrochemicals.
15-20 mammary lobes
GMOs reduced reliance on chemical pesticides by
Colostrum – Contains several antibodies producing pest-resistant crops.
Mons pubis – Cushion of fatty tissue covered by 197. Answer (1)
skin and hair The CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord.
198. Answer (3)
Hymen – Is not a reliable indicator of
Addison’s disease is due to the underproduction
virginity
of hormones of the adrenal cortex.
195. Answer (4) 199. Answer (2)
The inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its
molecular structure
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
is an example of competitive inhibition.
200. Answer (3)
Autoimmune disease is a condition in which
body’s immune system mistakes its own healthy
tissues as foreign and attacks them.
Rheumatoid arthritis, vitiligo, psoriasis and
myasthenia gravis are autoimmune disorders.

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