1. Which of the following is/are the classification of building materials?

a) Inorganic materials and Organic materials

b) Waterproofing compounds
c) Binders
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Building materials may be classified as inorganic and organic building
materials.

2. Why building materials are required?

a) Building material signifies bonding between the construction materials
b) Building material signifies structural existence
c) Both a & b
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The existence of a structure is denoted by the material used to construct it. It
displays the presence of aesthetic sense in a design and, as a result, determines the
structure’s practicability. It aids in the establishment of a link between architectural visual
quality and structural stability.

3. Which of the following line is usually parallel to the plot boundaries and laid down in each
case by the Authority, beyond which nothing can be constructed towards the site
boundaries?
a) Property line
b) Building line
c) Plot line
d) Control line

Answer: b
Explanation: Building line or Set-back is provided to avoid traffic congestion in front of the
building. Buildings like mall, multi-complexes, factories, etc. which attract a large number of
vehicles, should have be set-back a further distance apart from the building line. This line
after this extra margin is called as Control Line.

4. Which of the following building material have high Seismic resistance and flexibility of
nailed joints.
a) Husk
b) Bamboo
c) Timber
d) Ply

Answer: c
Explanation: As long has materials and workmanship are of good quality, timber structures
can perform very well in an earthquake. A wooden frame is usually considered to have
medium to low vulnerability towards earthquake.
5. Construction of cavity walls as external walls to protect the building from the outside heat
or cold as the hollow space between two walls act as an ________
a) Destructive material
b) Burning material
c) Building material
d) Insulating material

Answer: d
Explanation: Properly insulated building cuts down the cost of electric burning in summer as
well as in winter. Cavity walls are one of the types of thermal insulation which consists of
two walls with cavity in between them.

6. Which of the following type of foundation is used for the construction of building on black
cotton soil?
a) Grillage foundation
b) Inverted arch foundation
c) Floating foundation
d) Mat foundation

Answer: d
Explanation: Black cotton soil is clay or loose type of soil and is considerably swells and
shrinks by variation in moisture content. The variation in the volume of the soil is to the
extent of 20 to 30% of the original volume. Hence, Raft Foundation or Mat Foundation plays
important role in uniform distribution of a load of structure over black cotton soil.

7. Which organization specifies the distance between the wall ties placed in a cavity wall?
a) Building Regulations of Russia
b) Building Regulations of China
c) Building Regulations of India
d) Building Regulations of U.K.

Answer: d
Explanation: Building Regulations of U.K. specifies that the wall ties should be placed at
distances apart not exceeding 450 mm vertically and 900 mm horizontally. There should be
at least 5 ties per square meter of the wall.

8. The temporary framework is known as __________ and it is useful in construction

demolition, maintenance or repair works.
a) Grouting
b) Scaffolding
c) Shoring
d) Underpinning

Answer: b
Explanation: When the height above floor level exceeds about 1.5 m a temporary structure,
usually of timber, is erected close to the work to provide a safe working platform for the
workers and to provide limited space for the storage of plant and building materials. This
temporary Framework is known as scaffolding or simply of scaffold.
9. Which of the following is defined at the uppermost part of the building which is
constructed in the form of a framework to give protection to the building against rain, heat,
snow, wind, etc?
a) Lintels
b) Roof
c) Chajja
d) Truss

Answer: b
Explanation: A roof basically consists of structural element provided at the top of building
from the support of roof coverings. The structural element maybe trusses, portals, slabs,
domes, etc. and the roof covering maybe AC sheets, GI sheets, etc.

10. Which of the following hazard is concerned with the damage or destruction of the
building itself?
a) Surrounding hazard
b) Personal hazard
c) Building hazard
d) Internal hazard

Answer: d
Explanation: Internal Hazard concerns damage or destruction of the building itself and it is
directly related to the fire load which, in turn, enables the building to be graded when
considered along with the duration of fire.

11. When the area to be enclosed is large, it becomes essential to provide the _________
construction so as to give stability to the cofferdam.
a) Cellular cofferdam
b) Single wall cofferdam
c) Suspended cofferdam
d) Double wall cofferdam

Answer: d
Explanation: Double wall cofferdam was frequently used on the river Ohio in USA and
hence, it derives its name as Ohio river type cofferdam. It is cheap and can be built up
rapidly l. It is suitable for hard bed where there is no problem of erosion. This type of
cofferdam is unsuitable for deep water.

12. Which of the following term is used to indicate the art of building the structures in
stones?
a) Mortar
b) Brick
c) Bond
d) Masonry

Answer: d
Explanation: The term Masonry is used to indicate the art of building the structures in either
stone or bricks. The formal type is called the stone masonry and the latter type is called the
brick masonry.

13. Which of the following is a metamorphic rock with compressive strength varies from 1.8
to 3.1 Newton per mm square?
a) Murum
b) Gneiss
c) Laterite
d) Chalk

Answer: c
Explanation: Laterite possess porous and spongy structure which can be easily quarried in
blocks and contains high percentage of oxide of iron and also available in different colours.
It is mostly used as building stone, Road metal, rough stone masonry work, etc.

14. In which of the following type of construction, the square or rectangular blocks of stones
are used?
a) Rubble masonry
b) Rock Masonry
c) Ashlar masonry
d) Brick masonry

Answer: c
Explanation: In Ashlar masonry, the height of stone various from 250 mm to 300 mm. The
length of stone should not exceed 3 times the height and the depth into the wall should be
at least equal to half the height.

15. Which of the following tools is used for cutting soft bricks?
a) Jointer
b) Scutch
c) Spirit level
d) Trowel

Answer: b
Explanation: Scutch is a tool that is used for cutting soft bricks. A trowel is used for laying
the mortar. A jointer is used for pointing the joints while the spirit level is used for levelling.

16. A wall may be defined as that component of a building, whose width is _________ times
its thickness.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

Answer: b
Explanation: A wall is a vital component of the building whose function is to divide the space
of the building. Generally, the width of a wall exceeds four times its thickness. There are
basically two types of walls – load bearing and non-load bearing walls.
17. ___________ has presented the results of structural analysis based on calculated
masonry method in the form of nomograms.
a) British Code CP. 3
b) Concrete Association of India
c) British Code CP. 11
d) National Building Code of India (SP: 7-2005

Answer: d
Explanation: National Building Code of India (SP: 7-2005) has presented the results of
structural analysis based on calculated masonry method in the form of nomograms. The
nomograms that are given in the Code cover buildings up to 6 storeys.

18. A window should be located on which of the following side of a room as seen from the
point of view of fresh air?
a) Western
b) Eastern
c) Southern
d) Northern

Answer: d
Explanation: A window should be located on the northern side of a room as seen from the
point of fresh air. This would let the fresh air inside the building and will provide good
ventilation.

19. Which of the following is necessary to tie back the scaffolding with the building at
suitable levels?
a) Raising
b) Loading
c) Tying-in
d) Spacing

Answer: c
Explanation: Tying-in scaffold can be achieved in different ways: A vertical or horizontal
tube, wedged by means of a rebel pn, may be provided in an opening and one of the ends
of the Putlogs maybe coupled with this tube.

20. Which of the following is a non-combustible building material with low coefficient of
expansion?
a) Glass
b) Asbestos cement
c) Brick
d) Sandstone

Answer: b
Explanation: Asbestos cement possess high fire resistance. Hence, the asbestos cement
products are widely used for the construction of fire resistant partition walls, roofs, etc. This
material is also used as a protective covering against fire.
21. Which of the following type of irrigation method can be used for both flat lands and
relatively steep lands?
a) Free Flooding
b) Basin Flooding
c) Furrow Method
d) Drip Irrigation Method

Answer: a
Explanation: Irrigation by this type of method is done, by dividing the entire land to be
irrigated into a number strips called laterals. These laterals may be perpendicular to the
sides of the field or perpendicular to the contour lines. So, as this method uses contour lines
of field it is suitable for both flat lands and steep lands.

22. Which of the following type of method is adopted for research studies on crops?
a) Lysimeter Method
b) Drip Irrigation Method
c) Phytometer Method
d) Furrow Irrigation Method

Answer: a
Explanation: Actually lysimeter method is used to determine the AET. This method consists
of a tight tanker filled with a block of soil and is installed in a field of growing plants. The
conditions to maintain this tanker on par with conditions of the field and the measurement of
water added to the tanker to maintain moisture content are time-consuming and costlier
field studies.

23. What is the field irrigation requirement (FIR)?

a) Amount of water required to meet the field irrigation requirements plus water lost in
conveyance through the canal system
b) The water required to meet the evaporation needs of a crop
c) Amount of water required to delivered at the field to meet evapotranspiration and
leaching needs
d) Amount of water required to meet the net irrigation requirements plus water lost due to
surface runoff and percolation

Answer: d
Explanation: FIR can be defined as the water required meeting the net irrigation
requirements plus the amount of water lost as surface runoff and through deep percolation.
Mathematically, FIR = NIR / Na where Na = application efficiency and NIR = Net irrigation
requirement.

24. Which of the following is the correct formula for Gross irrigation requirement?
a) Cu – Re
b) CIR + leaching losses
c) NIR/Na
d) FIR/Nc
Answer: d
Explanation: It is defined as the amount of water required to meet the field irrigation
requirements plus the amount of irrigation water lost in conveyance through the canal
system by evaporation and seepage.
Mathematically, GIR = FIR/Nc.

25. What is the Annual Intensity of irrigation (AII)?

a) Cultivable Command Area/Gross Irrigated Area
b) Net Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area
c) Cultivable Command Area/Net Irrigated Area
d) Gross Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area

Answer: d
Explanation: The AII is the sum total of intensities of irrigation of all the seasons of the year.
IT can also be defined as the percentage of CCA which may be irrigated annually. It is thus
obtained by dividing the gross irrigated area by the CCA.

26. Which of the following is a remedial measure for water-logging?

a) By lowering the F.S.L of the canals
b) Quick disposal of rainwater
c) Installation of lift irrigation systems
d) Controlling seepage from the canals

Answer: c
Explanation: Installation of lift irrigation system is one of the remedial measures adopted to
reclaim the water-logged area and others are preventive measures which keep the land free
from water-logging. It is found to be a very effective method of reclaiming water-logged
land.

27. What is the main agenda of the National Water Policy?

a) Recommendations to States
b) Recover Charges
c) Quality Check of Irrigation Water
d) Maintenance of the Irrigation Structures

Answer: b
Explanation: The main aim or agenda of the National Water Policy is that to recover the
revenue rates to adequate the annual operation and maintenance charges and a part of the
fixed capital. In this way, we can also convey the scarcity value of natural resources to the
consumers.

28. According to the Central Board of Irrigation and Power, the PA ratio for graded aquifer
should be _______________
a) > 15.5
b) 9 – 12.5
c) < 9
d) 12 – 15.5
Answer: d
Explanation: The Central Board of Irrigation and Power suggested the following criteria for
PA ratio.
i. For uniform aquifers (having Cu < or = 2.0), the PA ratio should be in between 9 – 15.5
ii. For graded aquifers (having Cu > 2.0), the PA ratio should be in between 12 – 15.5.

29. Which of the following is the other name of perennial irrigation system?
a) Flood Irrigation
b) Controlled Irrigation
c) Direct Irrigation
d) Storage Irrigation

Answer: b
Explanation: As the perennial irrigation system works on perennial water sources, the flow
of water in those sources can be controlled by the construction of canals, weirs, check
dams, dams etc. So in this way there is no sudden rush of water during irrigation unlike in
uncontrolled irrigation.

30. Which of the following characteristics is wrong about extensive irrigation?

a) Agricultural production and protection against famine will be at optimum levels
b) The crop production will be minimal per unit of available water
c) It creates a perpetual scarcity of water
d) The irrigation extends to a large area with the lowest available supply

Answer: b
Explanation: In spite of the fact that this method requires good control and monitoring on the
release of water, it is usually adopted in India. The production would be the maximum per
unit of available water, though it may not be optimum of the land covered.

31. Which of the following type of treatment methods are used for municipal and industrial
waste waters?
a) Main stream
b) Slow rate
c) Overflow
d) Rapid infiltration

Answer: b
Explanation: Slow Rate (SR) systems are the predominant form of land treatment for
municipal and industrial waste-water. Such a technology incorporates waste-water
treatment, water reuse, crop utilization of nutrients and waste-water disposal.

32. What is the minimum diameter of pipes used for drainage of waste water?
a) 105 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 75 mm
Answer: d
Explanation: Waste water is from showers, basins, kitchen sinks, washing machines and
the like. This is also called grey water. Normally a minimum of 75 mm diameter pipes is
used for drainage of waste water.

33. What percentage of solids does waste water contain?

a) 0.1%
b) 1%
c) 0.5%
d) 5%

Answer: a
Explanation: Waste water contains 99.9% water and 0.1% solids. The goal is to remove this
0.1% of solids. Waste water is the water generated by industries and communities.

34. How many forms of nitrogen are present in waste water?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Answer: b
Explanation: There are different types of nitrogen present in waste water. Basically, our
types of nitrogen are present. They are organic nitrogen, ammonia nitrogen, nitrate nitrogen
and nitrite nitrogen.

35. Which of the following water carriage system is used in urban cities like Bangalore?
a) Partially separate system
b) Partially combined system
c) Combined system
d) Separate system

Answer: d
Explanation: Urban cities have a large area and high population, therefore water usage is
more and sewage generated will also be more. Hence, a separate system to carry sewage
and storm water is necessary. Whereas in rural areas, precipitation will be absorbed by the
ground and unfiltered. Therefore, only a little amount of precipitation forms storm. Hence the
combined system is preferred.

36. Which of the following represents the heavier inert matter in waste water?
a) Screens
b) Grit
c) Debris
d) Waste

Answer: b
Explanation: Grit represents the heavier inert matter in waste water which will not
decompose in treatment processes. It is identified with matter having a specific gravity of
about 2.65 and design of grit chambers is based on the removal of all particles of about
0.011 inches or larger (65 mesh).

37. Which of the following is the most commonly used coagulant?

a) Ferric sulphate
b) Coal
c) Alum
d) Limestone

Answer: c
Explanation: Sedimentation using chemical coagulation has been implied mainly to pre-
treatment of industrial or process waste waters and removal of phosphorus from domestic
waste waters. Alum is mostly used as it is cheap and easily available.

38. What is the amount of phosphorus present in municipal waste water?

a) 5-20 mg/L
b) 4-12 mg/L
c) 2-8 mg/L
d) 1-2 mg/L

Answer: a
Explanation: Municipal waste waters may contain from 5 to 20 mg/l of total phosphorous, of
which 1-5 mg/l is organic and the rest in inorganic. The individual contribution tends to
increase because phosphorous is one of the main constituents of synthetic detergents.

39. What is the waste water from kitchen sinks called?

a) Brown water
b) Yellow water
c) Black water
d) Grey water

Answer: d
Explanation: Normally a minimum of 75 mm diameter pipes are used for drainage of waste
water. Waste water is from showers, basins, kitchen sinks, washing machines and the like.
This is also called grey water.

40. Which of the following is required to transport storm water runoff from roofs, parking
lots, streets, and highways to a point of discharge?
a) Waste water sewers
b) Water sewers
c) Storm sewers
d) Sanitary sewers

Answer: c
Explanation: There are different types of sewers used based on a type of flow it is designed
to carry. Storm sewers are required to transport storm water runoff from roofs, parking lots,
streets, and highways to a point of discharge. Storm drainage system helps to minimize
flooding and soil erosion.
41. Which of the following is correct about direct current?
a) Magnitude is constant
b) Frequency is zero
c) Can be transported to larger distances with less loss in power
d) Flows in one direction

Answer: c
Explanation: A direct current has a fixed value and does not change with time. The
frequency of the direct current is equal to zero as it does not change with time.

42. What is responsible for the current to flow?

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Nucleus
d) Protons and Electrons

Answer: b
Explanation: For the current to flow in a circuit electrons are required. Electrons are
negatively charged and when the potential difference is applied these electrons flow to
constitute a current. The current direction is opposite to the electron flow.

43. Which of the following will happen in a transformer when the number of secondary turns
is greater than the number of primary turns?
a) The voltage gets stepped up
b) The voltage gets stepped down
c) The power gets stepped up
d) The power gets stepped down

Answer: a
Explanation: The voltage transformation ratio is the ratio of the number of secondary turns
to that of the number of primary turns. When the transformation ratio is greater than 1, the
step-up operation occurs.

44. Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analysed using
Ohm’s law?
a) Capacitors
b) Inductors
c) Transistors
d) Resistance

Answer: c
Explanation: Ohm’s law cannot be used for unilateral networks as such networks only allow
current flow in one direction. Transistor forms a unilateral network. Thus, Ohm’s law cannot
be used on Transistors.

45. How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100 Hz?
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 200

Answer: d
Explanation: In electrical engineering, the frequency represents the ratio of the number of
cycles to the total time. Since frequency is given as 100 Hz and the time is 2 secs thus a
total of 200 cycles will be made.

46. Which of the following according to fundaments of electrical energy is correct about
alternating current?
a) Frequency is zero
b) Magnitude changes with time
c) Can be transported to larger distances with less loss in power
d) Flows in both directions

Answer: a
Explanation: An alternating current changes its value with time and flows in both directions.
The loss in power is less due to alternating current properties and thus, can be transported
to larger distances.

47. How many directions can the electric field at a point have?
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
d) Many

Answer: b
Explanation: Electric field is a vector quantity and has a direction. The direction of the
electric field is said to be along the line tangent to the electric field. Thus, the electric field at
a point has one direction.

48. Which among the following is a unit for electrical energy?

a) V(volt)
b) kWh(kilowatt-hour)
c) Ohm
d) C(coulomb)

Answer: b
Explanation: Kilowatt is a unit of power and hour is a unit of time. Energy is the product of
power and time, hence the unit for Energy is kWh.

49. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Power is proportional to voltage only
b) Power is proportional to current only
c) Power is neither proportional to voltage nor to the current
d) Power is proportional to both the voltage and current
Answer: d
Explanation: Power is proportional to both voltage and current.

50. Out of the following, which one is not a source of electrical energy?
a) Solar cell
b) Battery
c) Potentiometer
d) Generator

Answer: c
Explanation: Solar cell converts light energy to electrical energy. Battery converts chemical
energy to electrical energy. Generator generates electrical energy using electromagnetic
induction. A potentiometer is an instrument used for measuring voltage and consumes
electrical energy instead of generating it.