Radiographic Pathology For Technologists 7th Edition

Test Bank
Radiographic Pathology for Technologists

by Nina Kowalczyk
7th Edition
Table of Contents
Chapter 1: Introduction to PathologyTest Bank
Chapter 2: Skeletal SystemTest Bank
Chapter 3: Respiratory SystemTest Bank
Chapter 4: Cardiovascular SystemTest Bank
Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal SystemTest Bank
Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary SystemTest Bank
Chapter 7: Urinary SystemTest Bank
Chapter 8: Central Nervous SystemTest Bank
Chapter 9: Hemopoietic SystemTest Bank
Chapter 10: Reproductive SystemTest Bank
Chapter 11: Endocrine SystemTest Bank
Chapter 12: Traumatic DiseaseTest Bank
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines:
a. manifestations.
b. pathogenesis.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 2
2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury
refers to:
a. disease.
b. etiology.
c. manifestations.
d. pathogenesis.
CORRECT ANSWER: A REFERENCE: p. 2
3. The study of the cause of disease is termed:

a. disease.
b. etiology.
c. pathogenesis.
d. prognosis.
4. Common agents that cause disease include:

1. bacteria.
2. chemicals.
3. heat.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 2
5. A syndrome is best defined as:

a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein.
b. an adverse response to medical treatment.
c. the patient’s perception of the disease.
d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance.
6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed:

a. autoimmune.
b. iatrogenic.
c. idiopathic.
d. nosocomial.
7. Prognosis refers to:

a. diseases usually having a quick onset.
b. the name of the particular disease.
c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease.
d. the structure of cells or tissue.
CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 3
8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered:
a. destructive.
b. lytic.
c. subtractive.
d. all of the above.
9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines:

a. epidemiology.
b. incidence.
c. prevalence.
10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population
are collected and reported by the:
a. American College of Radiology.
b. Centers for Disease Control.
c. Food and Drug Administration.
d. National Center for Health Statistics.
11. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45
years and greater?
1. Heart disease
2. Malignant neoplasm
3. Polycystic kidney disease
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately % of the U.S. gross domestic
product.
a. 12
b. 17
c. 21
d. 33
13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains pairs of autosomal
chromosomes and sex chromosomes.
a. 11; 1
b. 11; 2
c. 22; 1
d. 22; 2
14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include
maps.
1. genetic
2. SNP
3. physical
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic
variations of single DNA bases resulted in:
a. the Genome Project.
b. genetic linkage maps.
c. haplotype mapping.
d. physical mapping.
16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as:
a. congenital.
b. degenerative.
c. genetic.
d. metabolic.
17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is

considered:
a. autosomal.
b. dominant.
c. recessive.
d. sex linked.
18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular
structure best describes which type of microorganism?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Virus
d. All of the above
19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes:
a. etiology.
b. infection.
c. pathogenesis.
d. virulence.
20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as:
a. degenerative.
b. metabolic.
c. neoplastic.
d. traumatic.
21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the
node.
a. primary
b. sentinel
c. metastatic
d. neoplastic
22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best
describes:
a. lymphatic spread.
b. hematogenous spread.
c. invasion.
d. oncogenesis.
23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed:

a. carcinoma.
b. leukemia.
c. lymphoma.
d. sarcoma.
24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the:
a. size of the primary tumor.
b. lymph node involvement.
c. distant metastasis.
d. histologic grading of the primary tumor.
25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors?
1. CT
2. PET
3. MRI
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with:
a. chemotherapy.
b. radiation therapy.
c. hormone therapy.
d. immunotherapy.
MATCHING
Altered Cell Biology

Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description.
a. A generalized decrease in cell size
b. A generalized increase in cell size
c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation
d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type
e. Abnormal changes of mature cells
1. Hypertrophy
2. Atrophy
3. Metaplasia
4. Hyperplasia
5. Dysplasia
1. CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 9

2. CORRECT ANSWER: A REFERENCE: p. 9
3. CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 10
4. CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 9
5. CORRECT ANSWER: E REFERENCE: p. 10
TRUE/FALSE
1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy.
CORRECT ANSWER: F REFERENCE: p. 14
2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well

differentiated.
CORRECT ANSWER: T REFERENCE: p. 16

Chapter 2: Skeletal System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Osteoid osteoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Ewing sarcoma
2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had
no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion
exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the
subacromial space. What is the differential diagnosis?
a. Rotator cuff tear
b. Labral tear
c. Calcific tendinitis
d. Anterior shoulder dislocation
3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a
primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion?
a. Soft tissue mass
b. Periosteal reaction
c. Length of lesion
d. Calcification of blood vessels
4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance?

a. Giant cell tumor
b. Ewing sarcoma
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Osteoblastoma
5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus?

a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Paget disease
8. Which disease is congenital?

a. Pott disease
b. Osteoporosis
c. Paget disease
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:

a. pedicle.
b. lamina.
c. spinous process.
d. pars interarticularis.
10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?

a. Femur
b. Humerus
c. Sternum
d. Skull
11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while
playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion
fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality
would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient?
a. CT
b. Knee arthrography
c. MRI
d. Nuclear medicine
12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Paget disease
d. Pott disease
13. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a cervical rib?
a. Scoliosis
b. Spina bifida
c. Spondylolisthesis
d. Transitional vertebrae
14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis?

a. Pelvis
b. Carpals
c. Skull
d. Bony thorax
15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as:

a. achondroplasia.
b. DDH.
c. osteogenesis imperfecta.
d. osteopetrosis.
16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as:

a. DDH.
b. syndactyly.
c. fibrous dysplasia.
d. talipes.
17. The most common form of arthritis is:

a. osteoarthritis.
b. gouty arthritis.
c. psoriatic arthritis.
d. rheumatoid arthritis.
18. Marie-Strümpell disease or “bamboo spine” is a symptom of the pathology known as:
a. ankylosing spondylitis.
b. spondylolisthesis.
c. spina bifida.
d. scoliosis.
19. The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology:
a. spondylitis.
b. spondylolisthesis.
c. spondylolysis.
d. spina bifida.
20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Gouty arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
21. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues
with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas?
a. CT
b. Nuclear medicine bone scan
c. Sonography
d. PET scan
22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as:

a. Kienbock disease.
b. Reiter syndrome.
c. Apert syndrome.
d. Pott disease.
23. The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is:
a. nuclear medicine.
b. radiography.
c. CT.
d. sonography.
24. One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the:
a. brain.
b. breast.
c. lung.
d. colon.
25. A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays
carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area
and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis?
a. Calcific tendinitis
b. Tenosynovitis
c. Ganglion cyst
d. Prepatellar bursitis
26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as:

a. chondrosarcoma.
b. osteosarcoma.
c. enchondroma.
d. osteoid osteoma.
27. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of long bones in individuals younger
than 20 years of age and consists of numerous blood-filled arteriovenous communications?
a. Unicameral bone cyst
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Ganglion cyst
d. Osteoid osteoma
28. What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone
marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Multiple myeloma
29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly?

a. Pott syndrome
b. Reiter syndrome
c. Kienbock syndrome
d. Alpert syndrome
30. Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the
cranial vault and is not conducive for life?
a. Anencephaly
b. Craniosynostosis
c. Encephalopathy
d. Osteomyelitis
31. What imaging modality/ies would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip?
1. CT
2. MRI
3. Radiography
4. Sonography
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
32. A nuclear medicine bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the right foot. If
this procedure is positive, what would the images demonstrate?
a. Symmetry of both feet
b. Increased uptake on the right foot (hot spot)
c. Decreased uptake on the right foot (cold spot)
33. A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is:
a. narrowed disk spaces.
b. loss of lordosis.
c. subluxation.
d. erosion of vertebral body.
34. The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is:
a. enchondroma.
b. osteogenesis imperfecta.
c. achondroplasia.
d. syndactyly.
35. A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral knee pain and no history of injury. What
radiographic procedure should be obtained initially?
a. Bilateral weight-bearing knee radiographs
b. CT of both knees
c. Arthrography of both knees
d. MRI of both knees
36. A 75-year-old patient with weight-bearing AP and lateral knee radiographs of the left knee
demonstrates a decreased medial joint compartment and osteophyte formation on the medial
femoral condyle. What would be the initial diagnosis?
a. Ewing sarcoma
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Reiter syndrome
d. Osteomyelitis
37. The primary site of ossification is the:

a. epiphysis.
b. metaphysis.
c. diaphysis.
d. epiphyseal plate.
TRUE/FALSE
1. The staging systems used for both benign and malignant skeletal lesions are identical.

Chapter 3: Respiratory System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following terms refers to the gas exchange between the respiratory and
circulatory systems?
a. Aspiration
b. Diffusion
c. Inhalation
d. Ventilation
2. Which of the following body structures enclose the thoracic cavity?

1. Ribs
2. Sternum
3. Thoracic vertebrae
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
3. The American College of Radiology suggests that routine mobile chest radiographs are only
indicated for patients:
1. with acute cardiopulmonary conditions.
2. in the intensive care unit.
3. who are on a mechanical ventilator.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
4. The current standard of care when a pulmonary embolus is suspected is a:

a. PA and lateral chest radiograph.
b. thoracic computed tomographic angiogram.
c. nuclear medicine ventilation and perfusion scan.
d. thoracic MRI.
5. Low oxygen levels within the arterial blood and resulting from a failure of the gas exchange
function best describes:
a. hypercapnia.
b. hypoxemia.
c. CPAP.
d. PPV.
6. Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) disease.

a. genetic.
b. inflammatory.
c. degenerative.
d. neoplastic.
7. The incomplete maturation of the type II alveolar cells within the surfactant-producing system
causes unstable alveoli resulting in:
a. hyaline membrane disease.
b. pneumonia.
c. respiratory distress syndrome.
d. more than one of the above.
8. Bacteria commonly responsible for typical pneumonia include:

1. Staphylococcus aureus.
2. parainfluenza.
3. H. influenza.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
9. The most common lethal nosocomial infection in the United States is:
a. bronchiectasis.
b. COPD.
c. pleurisy.
d. pneumonia.
10. A permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the
elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall best describes:
a. bronchiectasis.
b. COPD.
c. emphysema.
d. pleurisy.
11. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may be caused by:

a. chronic obstructive bronchitis.
b. emphysema.
c. both a and b.
12. Pneumoconioses result from inhalation of foreign substances and may include:
a. anthracosis.
b. asbestosis.
c. silicosis.
13. Patients presenting with a lung abscess often demonstrate which of the following clinical
manifestations?
1. Fever
2. Cough
3. Expectoration of pus
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
14. Pleural effusion is best described as:

a. excess fluid collects in the pleural cavity.
b. inflammation of the pleura.
c. a cavity that is radiographically visible on a chest image.
15. Which of the pathologies listed below is the most common fatal primary malignancy in the
United States, accounting for over 90% of all lung tumors?
a. Bronchial carcinoid tumors
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Hematogenous metastatic lung disease
d. Lymphogenous metastasis lung disease
16. Which of the following pathologies of the respiratory system are classified as additive
pathologies?
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Emphysema
3. Pleural effusion
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
17. Chest radiography is the imaging modality of choice for the evaluation of:
1. bronchial adenoma.
2. hyaline membrane disease.
3. pneumoconiosis.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
18. Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography is the imaging modality of choice
for:
1. COPD.
2. bronchogenic carcinoma.
3. metastatic lung disease.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
19. High-resolution computed tomography is the imaging modality of choice in cases of

suspected:
a. bronchiectasis.
b. cystic fibrosis.
c. fungal pneumonia.
d. respiratory distress syndrome.
20. Sinusitis is considered a(n) pathologic condition.

a. additive
b. subtractive
c. none of the above
21. Pleurisy is considered a(n) pathologic condition.

a. additive
b. subtractive
c. none of the above
22. A disruption in the esophagus or airway may result in:

a. hemothorax.
b. mediastinal emphysema.
c. pectus excavatum.
d. Legionnaires’ disease.
23. Inflammatory diseases of the respiratory system include:
a. hyaline membrane disease.
b. mycoplasma pneumonia.
c. subcutaneous emphysema.
d. bronchial adenoma.
24. The upper respiratory system includes the:

1. larynx.
2. pharynx.
3. trachea.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
TRUE/FALSE
1. On a normal PA chest radiograph, the right hemidiaphragm appears higher than the left
hemidiaphragm.
2. M. tuberculosis is captured by macrophages within the alveoli and creates a cell-mediated

immune response that infiltrates the lymph nodes.
3. Early pulmonary tuberculosis is always symptomatic.
4. Coccidioidomycosis is a systemic, fungal infection of the lungs particularly endemic to the

Ohio, Missouri, and Mississippi River valleys.
5. Small cell carcinoma has a much higher mortality rate than other bronchogenic cancers.
6. Lateral decubitus chest radiographs can better detect smaller amounts of fluid in the pleural
space than an erect lateral chest radiograph.
7. The posterior mediastinum contains the heart and great vessels, esophagus, and trachea.
8. The maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only paranasal sinuses present at birth.
MATCHING
Medical Devices
Directions: Match the following medical devices with the correct descriptions.
a. Chest tube
b. Endotracheal tube
c. CVP lines
d. Pulmonary artery catheter
e. Access catheter
1. A large plastic tube inserted through the patient’s nose or mouth into the trachea to manage the
patient’s airway
2. A large plastic tube inserted through the chest wall between the ribs to allow drainage of fluid
or air
3. A multilumen catheter that serves to evaluate cardiac function
4. A catheter inserted for an alternative injection site or to allow for infusion of massive volumes
of fluids
5. Catheters placed to allow multiple tapping for injection of chemotherapeutic agents

Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The innermost tissue layer of the heart is the:

a. epicardium.
b. myocardium.
c. pericardium.
d. endocardium.
2. Oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the:

a. pulmonary arteries.
b. superior vena cavae.
c. pulmonary veins.
d. aorta.
3. The mitral valve is also known as the valve.

a. bicuspid
b. semilunar
c. aortic
d. tricuspid
4. What is the name of the internal tubular structure of a blood vessel?

a. Intima
b. Lumen
c. Adventitia
d. Endocardium
5. How many posterior ribs should be visible on a chest radiograph?

a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
6. An enlarged heart is known as:

a. ischemia.
b. cor pulmonale.
c. cardiomegaly.
d. tetralogy of Fallot.

7. Doppler sonography is used to image which of the following conditions?
1. Deep vein thrombosis
2. Carotid stenosis
3. Lower extremity arterial stenosis
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
8. The contraction of the heart is known as:

a. diastole.
b. systole.
c. peristole.
d. myostol.
9. The single most frequent cause of death in the United States is:
a. congestive heart failure.
b. coronary artery disease.
c. valvular heart disease.
d. ventricular septal defects.
10. A CT calcium score best demonstrates:

a. chambers of the heart.
b. soft plaque.
c. pulmonary arteries.
d. hard plaque.
11. A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed:

a. atheroma.
b. ischemia.
c. infarction.
d. necrosis.
12. What type of aneurysm results when the intima tears and allows blood to flow within the
vessel wall?
a. Dissecting
b. Fusiform
c. Saccular
13. A blood clot is known as a(n):

a. infarct.
b. aneurysm.
c. thrombus.
d. adventitia.
14. A procedure used to break up blood clots is known as a(n):

a. embolization.
b. thrombolysis.
c. angioplasty.
d. TIPSS.
15. What is the opening between the atria and septum present at birth?
a. Ductus arteriosus
b. Cor pulmonale
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Foramen ovale
16. The most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart is:
a. coronary artery disease.
b. rheumatic fever.
c. congestive heart failure.
d. ventricular septal defect.
17. Which of the following imaging modalities provides the most information in terms of mitral
valve function?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. US
d. TEE
18. Congestive heart failure is most commonly caused by:

a. high cholesterol.
b. aneurysm.
c. congenital heart disease.
d. hypertension.
19. A pulmonary embolus (PE) is best visualized with:

a. a VQ scan.
b. a nuclear perfusion scan.
c. CT.
d. angiography.
20. Venous thrombosis most often affects the veins of the extremities.
a. deep; upper
b. deep; lower
c. superficial; upper
d. superficial; lower
21. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an abdominal aneurysm include:
1. angiography.
2. CT.
3. sonography.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
22. Common risk factors for CAD include:

1. cigarette smoking.
2. hypertension.
3. low-fat diet.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
23. Clinical signs of a myocardial infarction include:

1. shortness of breath.
2. crushing chest pain.
3. neck pain.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
TRUE/FALSE
1. Pulmonary circulation transports blood between the heart and lungs.
2. In chest radiography, a PA view is sufficient to demonstrate all the chambers of the heart.
3. Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
4. MRI is used for imaging of the anatomy, function, and disease of the heart.
5. A Greenfield filter may be placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent blood clots from
traveling to the lungs.

Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia?

a. Salivation
b. Choking
c. Cyanosis
d. All of the above
2. Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia?

a. Duodenal atresia
b. Jejunal atresia
c. Ileal atresia
d. Colonic atresia
3. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) condition of the GI system.

a. congenital
b. degenerative
c. inflammatory
d. neurologic
4. When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n) examination should be

performed and is considered the gold standard.
a. transabdominal ultrasound
b. small bowel follow-through
c. upper GI
d. contrast-enhanced CT
5. If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to:

a. bacterial overgrowth.
b. colonic distention.
c. electrolyte imbalances.
6. In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme:
a. lactase.
b. lipase.
c. amylase.
d. lactose.
7. Currently, is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not
have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis.
a. abdominal radiography
b. computed tomography (CT)
c. magnetic resonance enterography (MRE)
d. colonoscopy
8. A less common type of hiatal hernia is the type.

a. rolling
b. sliding
c. paraesophageal
d. both a and c
9. Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for

suspected complications of:
a. pneumoperitoneum.
b. obstruction.
c. both a and c.
d. none of the above.
10. Colorectal cancers are the most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. none of the above
11. Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial
rectal carcinomas?
a. Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT)
b. Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC)
c. Digital rectal examination
d. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging
modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure.
b. The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer.
c. Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population.
d. All of the above statements are true.
13. Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of
Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer?
a. GI bleed scans
b. Gastric emptying scans
c. Urea breath test
d. SPECT gastric imaging
14. Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the
upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus?
1. Epiphrenic
2. Killian-Jameson
3. Zenker
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
15. The “olive sign” is associated with what pathologic process?

a. Appendicitis
b. Esophageal varices
c. Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis
d. Leiomyoma
16. Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction?
1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen.
2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel.
3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliterating gastrointestinal tumor.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
17. Radiographically, Crohn disease can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis because:
a. the transmural inflammation penetrates all layer of the bowel wall in Crohn
disease.
b. Crohn disease is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel wall.
c. the retrograde involvement in Crohn disease rarely reaches past the terminal ileum.
d. both b and c are correct.
18. Which of the following magnetic resonance imaging techniques are used to visualize
abdominal organs to differentiate pathologic processes from normal tissue?
1. T1-weighted images
2. T2-weighted images
3. Dark lumen imaging using water as a negative contrast agent
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
TRUE/FALSE
1. Sonography has become a standard and highly accurate method for diagnosing hypertrophic
pyloric stenosis (HPS) without the need for radiation exposure.
2. Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending
colon.
3. A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in
the fetus.
4. Diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathy is rarely confirmed by biopsy of the small bowel.
5. A peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus,
stomach, or duodenum.
6. Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in an upright position because the lack of gravity in
a recumbent position causes poor visualization.
7. A gallstone ileus is an obstruction that occurs when a gallstone reaches the ileocecal valve.
8. Benign tumors of the esophagus are almost always leiomyomas.

9. Small bowel barium studies are the most common means of identifying small-bowel
neoplasms.
10. A strangulated hernia occurs when a loop of bowel passes through a constricted area that is
tight enough to cut off blood supply to the bowel.
11. Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases,
particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present.
12. A category 2 risk of colon cancer is defined as a high risk; it includes hereditary syndromes
such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial polyposis, or
patients with a personal history of ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease.

Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following diagnostic imaging studies provides physiologic function of the liver?
a. CT without contrast
b. Sonogram
c. Radiograph
d. Nuclear medicine with contrast
2. Which diagnostic examination does the ACR recommend for a patient who presents with right
upper quadrant pain that may be attributed to the biliary system?
a. CT without contrast
b. Sonogram
c. Radiograph
d. Nuclear medicine with contrast
3. A MRCP is used to visual which anatomic structures?

1. Gallbladder
2. Biliary system
3. Kidney
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
4. A radiograph of the abdomen on a patient with known cirrhosis may be compromised due to
what additional pathologic condition?
a. Shrunken liver tissue
b. Gallstones
c. Ascites
d. Pancreatitis
5. Which form of hepatitis is transmitted from the GI tract in fecal material?

a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
6. Which liver lesion is primarily composed of blood vessels?

a. Hepatocellular adenoma
b. Hemangioma
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. Hepatoma
7. The TIPSS procedure is designed to reduce portal hypertension by uniting which vessels?
1. Hepatic artery
2. Hepatic vein
3. Portal vein
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
8. What is the incidence of gallstones in the United States for persons over 65 years of age?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
9. The inflammation of the gallbladder is referred to as:

a. colitis.
b. cholecystitis.
c. cholelithiasis.
d. cholecystectomy.
10. A fluid collection that develops from the pancreas is termed:

a. ascites.
b. pancreatitis.
c. polycystic disease.
d. a pseudocyst.
11. Which of the following imaging studies are highly recommended for the diagnosis of acute
pancreatitis?
1. CT
2. SPECT
3. Sonography
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
12. The impaction of a gallstone in the small bowel is referred to as:

a. cholelithiasis.
b. gallstone ileus.
c. obstructive jaundice.
d. medical jaundice.
13. Chronic liver disease has the highest incidence in which age group?
a. 25-34 years
b. 35-44 years
c. 45-65 years
d. Greater than 65 years
14. Which imaging procedure is preferred in the evaluation of proximal obstructions involving the
hepatic duct bifurcation?
a. ERCP
b. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram
c. T-tube cholangiogram
d. Operative cholangiogram
15. Which imaging procedure can differentiate between vessels and biliary ducts based on flow
characteristics?
a. CT of the abdomen with contrast
b. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
c. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy
d. Doppler sonography
16. Fatty infiltration of the liver is termed:

a. hyperlipidemia.
b. cirrhosis.
c. metabolic syndrome.
d. steatosis.
17. Cirrhosis of the liver is considered an end-stage condition resulting from liver damage caused
by chronic:
1. alcohol abuse.
2. hepatitis.
3. biliary tract obstruction.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
18. How many types of viral hepatitis have been identified?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
19. Which of the following additional imaging procedures are highly recommended in patients
who have gallstones demonstrated with sonography but do not have fever or an elevated white
blood cell count?
1. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy
2. CT of the abdomen (with or without contrast)
3. MRI of the abdomen (with or without contrast)
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
20. Which type of jaundice occurs because of hemolytic disease in which too many red blood
cells are destroyed or because of liver damage from cirrhosis or hepatitis?
a. Medical jaundice
b. Obstructive jaundice
21. The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the of the pancreas.
a. head
b. body
c. tail
22. Ascites is best demonstrated by which of the following imaging procedures?

1. CT of the abdomen
2. Sonogram of the abdomen
3. ERCP
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
TRUE/FALSE
1. The right and left hepatic ducts unite to form the common bile duct.
2. The liver has a double supply of blood, coming from the hepatic artery and the portal vein.
3. Hepatitis B (HBV) is transmitted parenterally in infected serum or blood products.
4. Although most commonly found in the gallbladder, gallstones can be located anywhere in the
biliary tree.
5. Chronic pancreatitis resolves without impairing the histologic makeup of the pancreas.
6. The liver is a common site for metastasis from other primary sites such as the colon, pancreas,
stomach, lung, and breast.
7. Hepatitis B accounts for 80% of the cases of hepatitis that develop after blood transfusions.
8. Approximately 80% of all gallstones are composed of a mixture of cholesterol, bilirubin, and
calcium salts.

Chapter 7: Urinary System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The kidneys are located:

1. in the retroperitoneal cavity.
2. between T-12 and L-3.
3. anterior to the spleen.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
2. Which anatomic structures are located in the hilum of the kidney?

1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Nerve plexus
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
3. In an adult, the ureters are normally approximately inches long.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
4. Which of the following is a waste product derived from a breakdown of a compound normally
found in muscle tissue?
a. BUN
b. Serum creatinine
c. GFR
d. Urine
5. Which laboratory test is used to determine the urinary system’s ability to break down
nitrogenous compounds from proteins to produce urea nitrogen?
a. BUN
b. Serum creatinine
c. GFR
d. All of the above
6. Normally, the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys should be mL/min/1.73m2 or

greater.
a. 30
b. 50
c. 75
d. 90
7. Serious adverse effects typically accompany the injection of urographic contrast agents are
most common in elderly:
a. black females.
b. white females.
c. black males.
d. white males.
8. Which of the following predisposing conditions may increase the risk of an adverse reaction
to an iodinated contrast agent?
1. Dehydration
2. Heart disease
3. Asthma
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
9. What is the modality of choice for evaluating individuals after kidney transplantation?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Sonography
d. FDG-PET
10. The American College of Radiology’s imaging modality of choice for a patient presenting
with an acute onset of flank pain or other symptoms that suggest the presence of renal calculi
is:
a. CT stone study.
b. abdominal CT with and without contrast.
c. abdominal MR with and without contrast.
d. renal sonogram.
11. Which of the following is highly recommended by the American College of Radiology in the
diagnosis of renovascular hypertension?
a. CTA of the kidneys
b. Abdominal CT with and without contrast
c. Abdominal MR with and without contrast
d. MRA of the kidneys
12. What type of catheter connects the renal pelvis to the outside of the body?
a. Nephrostomy tube
b. Ureteral stent
c. Foley catheter
d. Suprapubic catheter
13. The congenital absence of a kidney is termed:

a. renal agenesis.
b. renal aplasia.
c. compensatory hypertrophy.
14. A kidney located out of its normal position is termed:

a. malrotation.
b. ectopic.
c. prolapsed.
d. cross fused.
15. A congenital, familial kidney disorder that may be classified as either autosomal recessive or
autosomal dominant is:
a. renal agenesis.
b. polycystic kidney disease.
c. crossed ectopy.
d. medullary sponge kidney.
16. A congenital dilatation of the renal tubules leading to urinary stasis and increased levels of
calcium phosphate is:
a. renal agenesis.
b. polycystic kidney disease.
c. crossed ectopy.
d. medullary sponge kidney.
17. Which of the following microorganisms are generally involved in pyelonephritis?

a. E. coli
b. Proteus
c. Staphylococcus
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
18. Inflammation of the bladder is termed:

a. cystitis.
b. nephritis.
c. glomerulitis.
d. diverticulitis.
19. Intermittent pain associated with the movement of renal calculi is termed:
a. neurogenic bladder.
b. trabeculae.
c. renal colic.
d. pneumatic lithotripsy.
20. An obstructive disorder of the urinary system that causes dilatation of the renal pelvis and
calyces with urine is:
a. glomerulonephritis.
b. hydronephrosis.
c. hematuria.
d. nephrosclerosis.
21. Renal cell carcinoma is a type of:

a. adenocarcinoma.
b. sarcoma.
c. epithelioma.
d. glioma.
22. Which of the following examinations are recommended for staging and follow-up of renal cell
carcinoma by the American College of Radiology?
1. Abdominal CT with and without contrast
2. Abdominal MRI with and without contrast
3. Renal ultrasound
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
23. Bladder cancer may be treated with which of the following procedures?
1. Cryoablation
2. Radiofrequency ablation
3. Total cystectomy
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
24. Congenital anomalies of the urinary system are often evaluated in the fetus using which of the
following modalities?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Radiography
d. Sonography
TRUE/FALSE
1. Kidney function is generally unimpaired with a horseshoe kidney.
2. Vesicoureteral reflux is the backward flow of urine out of the bladder and into the urethra.
3. The retention of urea in the blood is termed pyurea.
4. It is estimated that more than half of people at age 50 have renal cysts.
5. The cure rate for Stage I-III Wilms’ tumor (nephroblastoma) is 95%.
6. Renal cell carcinoma often metastasizes to the chest, so often a chest radiograph is
recommended.

Chapter 8: Central Nervous System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following structures is NOT considered part of the brainstem?

a. Pons
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Diencephalon
d. Midbrain
2. Which of the following is the modality of choice for detecting cerebrovascular hemorrhage
following acute head trauma?
a. Computed tomography
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Sonography
3. A ventricular shunt is placed between the ventricles and the to drain excess CSF in
patients diagnosed with hydrocephalus.
a. internal jugular vein
b. heart
c. peritoneum
d. all of the above
4. Since the introduction of CT, the overall mortality rate due to brain abscesses has decreased
from more than 40% to less than:
a. 30%.
b. 15%.
c. 5%.
d. 0.5%.
5. Which of the following advanced MR imaging techniques is not useful in supporting a

diagnosis of MS?
a. Diffusion imaging
b. Functional imaging (fMRI)
c. Perfusion imaging
d. Magnetization transfer
6. Noncontrast brain CT scans are most commonly used to diagnose patients with strokelike
symptoms because of their:
a. high sensitivity to ischemic strokes.
b. high sensitivity to hemorrhagic strokes.
c. wide availability.
d. both b and c.
7. In children, brain tumors often tend to occur in the:

a. brainstem.
b. frontal lobe.
c. temporal lobes.
d. posterior fossa.
8. Distinguishing clinical features of astrocytomas include:

a. fast growing.
b. infiltrative tumors.
c. high grade of malignancy.
9. Meningiomas are fed by the meningeal arteries, often enabling demonstration of an enlarged
foramen spinosum and increased meningeal vascular markings on:
a. skull radiography.
b. contrast-enhanced CT.
c. contrast-enhanced MRI.
10. Which of the following is NOT one of three tumors of the peripheral nerve sheath?
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Acoustic neurilemma
c. Schwannoma
d. Pituitary adenoma
11. What are the three meningeal layers of the spinal cord, in order, from outermost to innermost?
a. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
b. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
c. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
d. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
12. The primary role of conventional radiography in imaging of the central nervous system
includes the demonstration of:
1. fractures related to cranial trauma.
2. calcifications related to chronic disease.
3. cerebral aneurysms.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
13. Which of the following pathologic conditions would demonstrate as a decrease in tissue
density on CT images of the CNS?
1. Cerebral infarctions
2. Cerebral calcifications
3. CNS cysts
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
14. What imaging modality is most commonly used to image the brain of neonates?
a. CT
b. Conventional radiography
c. MRI
d. Ultrasound
15. Which of the following neurologic deficits are associated with a meningomyelocele?
1. Diminished control of the urinary bladder
2. Diminished control of the bowel
3. Diminished control of the lower extremities
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
16. What is the most common cause of chronic meningitis?

a. Bacterial infections
b. Fungal infections
c. Viral infections
d. None of the above
17. What are the determining factors of a patient’s prognosis when diagnosed with metastatic
brain disease?
1. Age of the individual
2. Number of metastatic lesions present
3. Primary type of malignant disease
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
TRUE/FALSE
1. Vertebral disks are covered by a tough outer covering called the nucleus pulposus.
2. Spheres, coils, or beads are used to embolize or occlude cerebral vasculature, as in the case of
an aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
3. Antibiotics are often successful against many forms of meningitis, though antibiotic therapy is
never given before a definite diagnosis has been established.
4. The most common locations for disk herniation are in the lower cervical and lower lumbar
regions.
5. About 80% of all strokes are caused by small vessel disease.
6. Optimal detail of posterior fossa structures can be obscured by beam-hardening artifact

associated with CT, making MRI the initial modality of choice for evaluating patients of all
ages.
7. In patients previously treated for brain neoplasms, who subsequently present with new
neurologic complaints, distinguishing between radiation necrosis and tumor recurrence is
relatively simple.
8. Recurrence is common with medulloblastomas, and chemotherapy regimens have not been
found to be consistently effective in controlling the recurrence.
9. The appearance of craniopharyngioma tumors on both CT and MR depends on the solid and
cystic components of the mass.
10. In spinal tumor diagnosis and evaluation, conventional spine radiographs are primarily
reserved for demonstrating bony destruction and widening of the vertebral pedicles related to
tumor growth.
11. The blood–brain barrier consists of a network of capillaries that connects the arteries and
veins of the brain that prevent the passage of unwanted macromolecules and fluids from
leaking into the brain parenchyma.
12. A contrast-enhanced CT of the spine is the best imaging choice for postoperative patients in
the evaluation of scarring when the tissue extends beyond the vertebral interspace.
13. A hemorrhagic stroke results from a rupture of a blood vessel of the brain due to a weakening
in the diseased vessel wall.

Chapter 9: Hemopoietic System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The hemopoietic system consists of:

1. lymphatic tissue.
2. blood cells.
3. the liver.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
2. What substance helps to regulate the passage of water and solutes through the capillaries?
a. Albumins
b. Immune globulins
c. Glucose
d. Lipids
3. The three basic types of blood cells include:

1. erythrocytes.
2. leukocytes.
3. lymphocytes.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
4. Anemia is defined as a hemoglobin level less than grams per 100 mL of blood.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 12
d. 20
5. Which type of blood cells contains various antigens that determine blood type?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes

6. Which blood type is considered to be a universal donor?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
7. Which blood type is considered to be a universal recipient?

a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
8. Which of the following are classified as granular leukocytes?

1. Basophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Neutrophils
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
9. Platelet activity is by an inflammatory response.

a. decreased
b. increased
c. not affected
10. Major areas of lymph node chains include the:

1. neck.
2. pelvis.
3. retroperitoneum.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
11. Which of the following cells are the most important in the development of immunity?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes
12. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive blood cell type?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes
13. What is the largest lymphoid organ in the body?

a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Thoracic duct
d. Thymus
14. Radiographic skeletal survey images are appropriate in the diagnosis of:
a. HIV.
b. leukemia.
c. multiple myeloma.
d. non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
15. Which imaging modality has the highest specificity in demonstrating lymphatic disease?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. PET
d. Radiography
16. Which of the following is the principal agent of AIDS in the United States?
a. HIV-1
b. HIV-2
c. HIV-3
d. Both a and b
17. What enzyme can covert viral RNA into a DNA copy?
a. Retrovirus
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Monoclonal paraprotein
d. CD4
18. Which of the following results from neoplastic changes in the B cells of the blood plasma?
a. AIDS
b. ALL
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Multiple myeloma
19. Which of the following is a common complication associated with multiple myeloma?
a. Opportunist infections
b. Renal failure
c. Splenomegaly
d. Hepatomegaly
20. Leukemias frequently infiltrate the:

1. liver.
2. spleen.
3. lymphatic tissue.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
21. Which type(s) of leukemia develop(s) from primitive or stem cells?

a. Monocytic
b. Myelocytic
c. Lymphocytic
d. All of the above
22. Which type of leukemia often infiltrates the skin and soft tissues of the body?
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CLL
d. CML
23. Bruising frequently occurs with a variety of hemopoietic disorders due to a decreased
count.
a. erythrocyte
b. leukocyte
c. lymphocyte
d. platelet
24. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with which type of lymphatic cells?

1. Reed-Sternberg cells
2. B cells
3. T cells
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
25. The presence of which of the following cell types differentiate Hodgkin lymphoma from other
types of lymphomas?
a. CD4 receptors
b. B cells
c. T cells
d. Reed-Sternberg cells
Chapter 10: Reproductive System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The ACR recommends which of the following as the best imaging examination for uterine
fibroids?
a. MRI
b. Sonography
c. CT
d. Abdominal radiograph
2. Carcinoma of the breast has an increased incidence in females between the ages of
years.
a. 18-25
b. 20-30
c. 30-50
d. None of the above, the incidence remains the same throughout life.
3. The ACR recommends which of the following as the best imaging examination for staging
men with prostate cancer?
a. MRI
b. Sonography
c. CT
d. Abdominal radiograph
4. Acute scrotal pain that may be caused by a lack of blood flow to the testicle requires an
emergent imaging examination. What is modality most highly recommended?
a. CT
b. Pelvic radiograph
c. MRI
d. Sonography
5. A patient with diagnosed carcinoma of the cervix needs to have a highly reliable diagnostic
workup. Which imaging examinations are highly recommended by the ACR for detecting
recurrent disease?
1. Hysterosalpingogram
2. MRI of the pelvis
3. FDG-PET/CT
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
6. Which of the following is the rarest testicular cancer; it makes up only 1% of the tumor
detected with imaging?
a. Testicular carcinoma
b. Testicular choriocarcinoma
c. Testicular seminoma
d. Testicular teratoma
7. What pathology can cause older male patients to be unable to completely empty their urinary
bladder?
a. Prostatic hyperplasia
b. Testicular torsion
c. Spermatoceles
d. Hydroceles
8. Which of the following is a malignant pathology that can develop within the placenta?
a. Hydatidiform mole
b. Leiomyoma
c. Cystadenocarcinoma
d. None of the above
9. What is the pathologic term for infection of the breast?

a. Mastalgia
b. Mastitis
c. Mastectomy
10. What is the best imaging examination to determine whether blood flow exists in the testicle?
a. FDG-PET
b. CT of pelvis
c. MRI of pelvis
d. Doppler ultrasound
11. What is the medical term used to describe the undescended testicle?
a. Cryptorchidism
b. Epididymo-orchitis
c. Hydrocele
d. Spermatocele
12. The lab test for CA-125 is associated with which type of malignant disease?
a. Endometrial carcinoma
b. Cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
c. Carcinoma of the cervix
d. Fibroadenoma
13. Sonohysterography is conducted by instilling into the uterus.

a. barium sulfate
b. an oily iodinated contrast agent
c. an aqueous iodinated contrast agent
d. saline
14. The term denoting a complete duplication of the uterus, cervix, and vagina is:
a. unicornuate uterus.
b. bicornuate uterus.
c. retroverted uterus.
d. uterus didelphys.
15. Signs and symptoms associated with PID include:

1. pelvic tenderness.
2. elevated white blood count.
3. nausea.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
16. Stein-Leventhal syndrome is associated with:

a. endometriosis.
b. cystadenocarcinoma of the ovaries.
c. cystic teratomas.
d. polycystic ovaries.
17. The human papillomavirus is associated with what type of malignancy?

a. Cervical cancer
b. Endometrial carcinoma
c. Hereditary ovarian cancers
d. Interductal breast cancers
18. Approximately 60% of all palpable breast lesions occur in the quadrant of the breast.
a. upper, inner
b. upper, outer
c. lower, inner
d. lower, outer
19. What is the primary problem with using MRI as the primary imaging modality for detecting
breast cancer?
a. MRI utilizes ionizing radiation.
b. MRI cannot visualize cystic structures.
c. MRI cannot visualize soft tissue.
d. MRI may cause an increase in the request for additional images.
20. What gene mutations are associated with hereditary breast ovarian cancer syndrome?
1. BRCA1
2. BRCA2
3. BRCA3
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
21. What medical term denotes the development of an embryo outside the uterine cavity?
a. Bicornuate uterus
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Hydatidiform mole
d. Placenta previa
TRUE/FALSE
1. A fibroadenoma is a benign palpable lump that could develop in the breast.
2. An MRI pelvis (with and without contrast) is recommended for staging a patient who has
adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
3. The term “nongravid” is used in designating a pregnant female.
4. The Ecklund maneuver is used in imaging patients with breast implants to isolate the native
breast tissue for imaging.
5. Corpus luteum ovarian cysts are always malignant neoplasms.
6. Uterine fibroids tend to increase in size during menopause.
7. Sonography is extremely useful as a follow-up to mammography in differentiating solid

masses from cystic masses in women with fibrocystic breasts.
8. Hyperplasia of the prostate gland is often treated with a transurethral resection of the prostate.
9. Follicular ovarian cysts are small cyst formations that result from resorption of blood leaked
into the cavity after ovulation.

Chapter 11: Endocrine System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The endocrine system includes which of the following glands/organs?

1. Thyroid
2. Thymus
3. Pancreas
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
2. The pituitary gland is located inferior to the:

a. hypothalamus.
b. thyroid.
c. sella turcica.
d. pons.
3. The anterior lobe of the pituitary secretes which of the following hormones?
1. ADH
2. FSH
3. GH
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
4. The hypothalamus controls the gland.

1. pineal
2. pituitary
3. thyroid
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
5. Epinephrine is produced in the:

a. pituitary gland.
b. pancreas.
c. adrenal cortex.
d. adrenal medulla.
6. The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting:

1. TSH.
2. TH.
3. calcitonin.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
7. Overactivity of the thyroid gland results in:

a. hypothyroidism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypoparathyroidism.
d. hyperparathyroidism.
8. The alpha cells of the are responsible for glucagon synthesis.

a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. liver
d. pancreas
9. The primary imaging modality used in the evaluation of osteoporosis is:

a. DXA.
b. MRI.
c. sestamibi nuclear medicine scans.
d. CT.
10. Which imaging modality is the most reliable in imaging the hypothalamus?
a. DXA
b. MRI
c. Sestamibi nuclear medicine scans
d. CT
11. Osteopenia is identified as a bone mass of mg/cm2.

a. <648
b. 648-833
c. >833
12. Osteitis deformans is also referred to as:
a. Addison disease.
b. Cushing syndrome.
c. Graves disease.
d. Paget disease.
13. Acromegaly is a disorder caused by a disturbance in the pituitary gland resulting in an

excessive secretion of:
a. FSH.
b. TH.
c. GH.
d. PTH.
14. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder that results when the secretes an insufficient level of
ADH.
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. anterior pituitary gland
d. posterior pituitary gland
15. Sheehan syndrome is associated with:

a. hypothyroidism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypopituitarism.
d. hyperpituitarism.
16. Which pathology results from a dysfunction within the adrenal cortex leading to
hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the anterior pituitary?
a. Addison disease
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Graves disease
d. Paget disease
17. What syndrome is associated with chronic hyperglycemia in combination with glucose
intolerance and alterations in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?
a. Cushing
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Metabolic
18. Grave disease is associated with:
a. hypothyroidism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypopituitarism.
d. hyperpituitarism.
CORRECT ANSWER: B
REF
REFERENCE: p. 352
TRUE/FALSE
1. Females are two to three times more likely to develop malignant neoplasm of the thyroid
gland than males.
2. Hyperthyroidism is a fairly common disease of the endocrine system that affects the skeletal
system.
3. The outer portion of the adrenal glands, the adrenal cortex, is responsible for corticosteroid
production.
4. The thymus gland is vital to maintaining normal blood pressure and in regulating tissue
growth and development.
5. Calcitonin is an antagonist of PTH and serves to lower blood calcium.
6. Glucagon promotes the breakdown within the liver of glycogen to glucose.
7. Based on criteria established by the World Health Organization, a DXA T-score greater than 1
is normal.

Chapter 12: Traumatic Disease
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following types of trauma centers require prompt access to orthopedic and
neurologic services?
1. Level I
2. Level II
3. Level III
4. Level IV
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 4 only
d. All of the above
2. Which of the following is not a secondary assessment or vital sign of the patient who has
sustained a traumatic injury?
a. Pulse
b. Blood pressure
c. Respiration
d. Range of motion of the head and neck
3. What type of distribution pattern do most deaths from trauma assume?

a. Monocloidal
b. Bimodal
c. Trimodal
d. Bell curve
4. Trauma is the leading cause of death for which of the following age groups?
a. 1-44 years
b. 45-50 years
c. 40-65 years
d. 60-75 years
5. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale number recommended by the New Orleans helical
computed tomography rule (HCT) to order a CT head examination for a traumatic head injury
in conjunction with a headache or intoxication?
a. 1-5
b. 6-10
c. 10-13
d. 15
6. Which imaging modality has superseded the use of cervical spine radiography for trauma
patients?
a. Computed tomography
b. Nuclear medicine
c. Sonography
d. Angiography
7. Which medical organization(s) has/have determined that CT of the cervical spine has greater
than 99% sensitivity for the detection of a fracture?
1. American College of Radiology
2. American College of Surgeons
3. National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study (NEXUS)
4. Canadian C-Spine Review (CCR)
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. All of the above
8. What is the preferred modality for imaging trauma to the abdomen and pelvis?
a. Radiography
b. Magnetic resonance
c. Computed tomography
d. Sonography
9. What is the most common type of fracture associated with the vertebrae?
a. Burst fracture
b. Compression fracture
c. Spondylolisthesis
d. Pars defect
10. When analyzing cervical spine radiographs of the trauma patient, what is not a significant
consideration?
a. Prevertebral fat stripe
b. Size and shape of vertebral structures
c. Nucleus pulposus
d. Alignment of spinolaminal lines
11. With a basilar skull fracture, what anatomic structure is important radiographically?
a. Sphenoid sinus
b. Ethmoid sinuses
c. Maxillary sinuses
d. Frontal sinuses
12. What pathologic condition following trauma to the head is characterized by headache, vertigo,
and vomiting?
a. Contusion
b. Coup lesion
c. Contrecoup lesion
d. Concussion
13. Which type of cerebral hematoma has the highest mortality rate?
a. Intracerebral hematoma
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subarachnoid hematoma
14. Which type of cerebral hematoma often demonstrates a midline shift on CT or MR images?
a. Intracerebral hematoma
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subarachnoid hematoma
15. What imaging modality is best utilized for skeletal trauma?

a. Radiography
b. CT
c. MR
d. Nuclear medicine
16. What classification is given to a fracture that fails to heal?

a. Delayed union
b. Poor union
c. Malunion
d. Nonunion
17. Which fracture classification generally requires surgical intervention such as an irrigation and
debridement?
a. Closed
b. Buckle
c. Open
d. Impacted
18. What type of fracture classification often occurs as a twisting or rotary movement to a long
bone?
a. Transverse fracture
b. Spiral fracture
c. Impacted fracture
d. Comminuted fracture
19. What is the term commonly used to describe fractures involving the epiphysis of children?
a. Glasgow scale
b. Trauma scale
c. Salter-Harris
d. Fracture scale
20. Which of the following is an example of a growth plate injury?

a. Avascular necrosis
b. Buckle fracture
c. Colles fracture
d. SCFE
21. What anatomic structures are common areas for fatigue fractures?
a. Metatarsals
b. Metacarpals
c. Distal radius
d. Distal tibia
22. Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?

a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Malar
d. Nasal
23. Which bone has the slowest healing time following traumatic injury?
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Malar
d. Nasal
24. Which of the following structures form the bony nasal septum?
1. Vomer
2. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
3. Cribriform plate
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
25. A high school football player sustained a stress injury to his right knee and was diagnosed
with a medial meniscal tear. What additional pathology may be demonstrated on the MRI
exam?
a. Impacted fracture of the hip
b. Bone bruise of the medial femoral condyle
c. Salter-Harris fracture of the distal fibula
d. Avascular necrosis of the proximal femur
26. Which of the following is not a radiographic sign of battered child syndrome?
a. Impacted radial fracture
b. Multiple rib fractures
c. Spiral fracture of a long bone
d. Skull fracture
27. Which imaging modality best demonstrates avascular necrosis?

a. CT
b. MRI
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Radiography
28. Which radiographic chest projections are generally obtained for the diagnosis of a
pneumothorax?
1. PA with inspiration
2. PA with expiration
3. Lateral with inspiration
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
29. What pathology can cause a mediastinal shift on a chest radiograph?

a. Lobar bibasilar atelectasis
b. Pleurisy
c. Pneumonia
d. Rib fracture
30. According to the ACR, which of the following imaging modalities is most appropriate in
assessing abdominal trauma?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Radiography
d. Sonography
31. The radiographic “football sign” is usually indicative of what pathologic condition?
a. Ileus
b. Perforated ulcer
c. Pneumoperitoneum
d. Pneumothorax
MATCHING
Fracture Pseudonyms
Directions: Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.
a. Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
b. Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
c. Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
d. Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
e. Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
f. Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
g. Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint
1. Smith fracture
2. Boxer fracture
3. Monteggia fracture
4. Colles fracture
5. Pott fracture
6. Maisonneuve fracture
7. Bennett fracture

3. CORRECT ANSWER: F REFERENCE: p. 391
7. CORRECT ANSWER: G REFERENCE: p. 391
TRUE/FALSE
1. Bilateral shoulder radiographs are generally obtained to diagnose shoulder dislocations.

Radiographic Pathology For Technologists 7th Edition

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Radiographic Pathology For Technologists 7th Edition

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Radiographic Pathology For Technologists 7th Edition

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Bank

Radiographic Pathology for Technologists

3. The study of the cause of disease is termed:

4. Common agents that cause disease include:

5. A syndrome is best defined as:

6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed:

CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 3

7. Prognosis refers to:

CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 3

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 3

9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines:

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 2

CORRECT ANSWER: A REFERENCE: p. 4

CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 8

17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is

CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 16

23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed:

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 16

Altered Cell Biology

1. CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 9

CORRECT ANSWER: F REFERENCE: p. 14

2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well

CORRECT ANSWER: T REFERENCE: p. 16

CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 39

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 54

4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance?

5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?

6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?

7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus?

CORRECT ANSWER: A REFERENCE: p. 48

8. Which disease is congenital?

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 24

9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:

10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 20

CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 23

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 30

14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis?

15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as:

16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as:

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 28

17. The most common form of arthritis is:

20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it?

CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 39

CORRECT ANSWER: D REFERENCE: p. 51

22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as:

CORRECT ANSWER: C REFERENCE: p. 51

26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as:

CORRECT ANSWER: A REFERENCE: p. 53

CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 24

29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly?

CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 32

CORRECT ANSWER: A REFERENCE: p. 25

CORRECT ANSWER: B REFERENCE: p. 46

37. The primary site of ossification is the:

CORRECT ANSWER: T REFERENCE: p. 21

2. Which of the following body structures enclose the thoracic cavity?