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Vendor: ISQI

Exam Code: CTFL_SYLL2018

Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level

(Syllabus 2018)

Q&As: 314 (There are 3 parts in the dump, 314

questions in total.)
Exam A

QUESTION 1
Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

A. Memory is leaking
B. Features are only partially implemented
C. Data structures that are used before initialization
D. Division by zero

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is correct?

A. Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect
B. Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers
C. Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system
D. Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?

A. The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard
B. Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development
C. This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different
specification with fewer items
D. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific
situation or organization

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains
roles of a tester in this company?

A. Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B. Review test plans and set up test environments.
C. Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers
D. Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

A. Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B. Bugs found during system testing
C. Bugs found during unit testing
D. Bugs found during integration testing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?
A. Reliability Testing
B. Confirmation Testing
C. Maintainability Testing
D. Regression Testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

A. System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on

the functionality of the system
B. System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer
C. System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems.Acceptance
testing verifies compliance to requirements
D. System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct
interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

A. Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B. Average number of expected defects per requirement
C. Number of test cases run
D. Deviation from test milestone dates

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

A. Budget to do testing
B. A particular tester involved in testing
C. Level of risk of the product or features
D. Time available to do testing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

A. The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound
B. The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs
C. Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios
D. The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

A. Control flow testing

B. Use case testing
C. State transition testing
D. Decision table testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

A. Black-box testing
B. White-box testing
C. Experience-based testing
D. Component testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B. Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.
C. Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model
D. Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following
sentences describes one of these basic principles?

A. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
B. For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output
combinations.
C. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free
D. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product
than with manual testing.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

A. Code inspection
B. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it
C. Functional Testing
D. Coverage analysis

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

A. By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B. By an independent test team at the developing organization's location
C. At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team
D. By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

A. Finding defects
B. Providing information for decision-making
C. Analyzing and removing the cause of failures
D. Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which statement about use case testing is true?

A. The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.
B. The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow
C. The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers
D. The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following
techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest
coverage?

A. multiple condition coverage

B. decision table
C. use case testing
D. statement coverage

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

A. The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects
B. The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than
expected
C. Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the
system
D. Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed
earlier

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
The following program part is given:
IF (condition A)
then DO B
END IF
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. a very high number

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

A. Modeling tool
B. Static analysis tool
C. Coverage measurement tool
D. Defect tracking tool

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers

supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many
combinations of the above are to be tested?

A. 11
B. 5
C. 45
D. 3

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

A. Defect debugging and resolution

B. The outcome of testing of previous test cycle
C. Characteristics of the development process
D. Characteristics of the product

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

A. Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared
B. Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases
C. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly
D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Given the following requirement:
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
B. Thursday is a valid input boundary value
C. A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age
D. $3.01 is a valid output boundary value

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

A. Variables that are never used

B. Coding standard violations
C. Memory leaks
D. Uncalled functions and procedures

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

A. How to fix the defect

B. Severity and priority
C. Test environment details
D. How to reproduce the defect

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance
quality
B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects
C. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system
D. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release
of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the
sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

A. Implementation and execution

B. Requirements specification
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D. Analysis and design

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The
Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of
test of which test type?

A. Regression tests
B. Non-functional tests
C. Structural tests
D. Unit tests

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by
the following statement; "In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user
interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20
visitors"

A. 0,1,8,21,22
B. 0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22
C. 2,3,19,20
D. 1,2,20,21

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the
evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.
Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

A. A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B. A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department
C. A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis
D. A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the
functions and data structures associated with borrowers
1. Add a new borrower to the system
2. Update a borrower's data
3. Remove a borrower from the system
4. Loan a book to a borrower
5. Return a book from a borrower
6. Reserve a book for a borrower
7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower
Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with
test #1)

A. 1-4-2-7-5-6-3
B. 1-6-2-5-7-4-3
C. 1-6-4-7-5-3-2
D. 1-2-6-7-4-5-3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer
- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.
- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15
- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur.
Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

A. 0-1999-2000-5000
B. 1-2000-5001-10000
C. 0-100-2000-6000
D. 99-1- 2000- 4999,99

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application What would you suggest
as the most important report improvement? Defect detected date: 15.8.2010 Defect detected by. Joe Smith
Test level System test Test case Area 5/TC 98
Build version: 2011-16.2
Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen
2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

A. Add an impact analysis

B. Add information about which developer should fix the bug
C. Add the time stamp when the incident happened
D. Add information about which web browser was used

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Incident management tools are used by testers only

B. A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing
C. Test management tools are used by managers only
D. A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software. Sam updated a
set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC. Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC
crashed, and his work was lost. The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard
disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him
yesterday were lost forever Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss
of Sam's updates?

A. Incident Management Tool

B. Configuration Management Tool
C. Test Execution tool
D. Backup tool

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
1. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items
2. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
3. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
4. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

A. I, Ill
B. II, Ill
C. II, IV
D. I, IV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
"Statement Testing" is part of;

A. Experience based testing

B. Decision Testing
C. Specification Based testing
D. Structured based testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

A. Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B. Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.
C. Component, integration, system and acceptance.
D. Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 42
Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

A. Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.
B. Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
C. Adequacy of the test approaches taken.
D. Discussions on disaster recovery.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

A. Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.
B. Scaling to support large numbers of users.
C. Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.
D. Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform
the same test steps with different data.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

A. Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B. Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.
C. Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.
D. Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45
What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed? (i) The exit
criteria.
(ii) The budget.
(iii) How big the test team is.
(iv) The product's risk profile.
(v) How good the testing tools are.
(vi) Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

A. i and ii and iv and vi

B. i and ii and iii and vi
C. ii and iii and iv and v
D. i and ii and v and vi

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

A. An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.
B. The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or
negative result.
C. A testable component derived from business requirements.
D. Applies to software testing only.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Consider the following pseudo code
1. Begin
2. Read Gender
3. __Print "Dear"
4. If Gender = `female'
5. Print ("Ms")
6. Else
7. __Print ( "Mr")
8. Endif
9. End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 48
What is static analysis?

A. The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B. Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.
C. A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing
code.
D. It is a testing technique used during system testing.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
Component testing may include:

A. Sociability testing.
B. User acceptance testing.
C. Beta testing.
D. The use of stubs and drivers.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which type of review has the following main purposes:
discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and
checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

A. Technical Review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Informal review

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
Consider the following pseudo code:
1. Begin
2. Input X, Y
3. If X > Y
4. __Print (X, `is greater than', Y)
5. Else
6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to', X)
7. EndIf
8. End
What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage?

A. Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B. Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2
C. Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2
D. Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

A. It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B. It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.
C. It is based on the internal structure of the system.
D. It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 53
System testing is:
A. Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.
B. The responsibility of the users of a system.
C. Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development
project.
D. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 54
A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak
times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a
response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads. Which of the following set of test types would be
most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

A. Performance, Usability, Regression.

B. System, Load, Fail-over.
C. Performance, Load, Stress.
D. Load, Volume and Component.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 55
When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

A. Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability
and therefore enforce good test process.
B. Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on
investment and therefore should be introduced first.
C. Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the
introduction of tool support.
D. Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the
appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 56
Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. Boundary value analysis
D. Statement coverage

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 57
Which of the following are valid test objectives?
(i) Finding defects.
(ii) Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.
(iii) Preventing defects.
(iv) Debugging the code.

A. i, ii and iii
B. i, ii and iv
C. ii and iii
D. i and iv

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
What can testing demonstrate?

A. Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B. Testing can demonstrate that there are defects
C. Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct
D. Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 59
Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

A. An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.
B. Applying to time-related data classes only.
C. A form of white-box testing.
D. A method to reduce test coverage.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

A. Determine differences between files or databases.

B. Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.
C. Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.
D. Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 61
What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted? Date of
Issue: 23/11/05
Severity: P1
Build: Version15.6
Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

A. Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B. Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.
C. History, related defects and expected fix time.
D. Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 62
Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

A. Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B. Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.
C. The last executable statement within a component.
D. Cost overruns.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 63
What is decision table testing?
A. It's a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.
B. It's a static test design technique.
C. It's a testing design technique to verify decisions.
D. It's a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 64
Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

A. Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and
reporting, test closure.
B. Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.
C. Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs,
communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.
D. Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 65
Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled,
tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

A. Software traceability process

B. Incidence management process
C. Testing design process
D. Configuration management process

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 66
What is the value of static code analysis?

A. Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B. Early defect detection
C. Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations
D. Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 67
Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate? (i) In a use-case diagram an
actor represents a type of user. (ii) Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.
(iii) A use-case describes interactions between actors.
(iv) An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.
(v) Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.
(vi) Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

A. ii, iii, iv, v

B. i, iii, v, vi
C. i, ii, iv, v
D. iii, iv, v, vi

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 68
It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.
A. Yes, it's strongly recommended.
B. No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts
C. Yes, and it's also necessary to include all the exit combinations
D. Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state
transitions.

(i) X-Z-V-W

(ii) W-Y-U-U

A. (i) = S1 ?S2 ?S3 ?S4 ?S2 and (ii) = S4 ?S2 ?S4 ?S4 ?S4
B. (i) = S1 ?S2 ?S3 ?S4 ?S4 and (ii) = S2 4 ?S4 ?S4 ?S2
C. (i) = S2 ?S3 ?S4 ?S2 ?S2 and (ii) = S4 ?S2 ?S4 ?S4 ?S4
D. (i) = S2 ?S3 ?S4 - S4 ?S2 and (ii) = S2 3 ?S4 4 ?S4

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 70
A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:
_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.
_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.
_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.
_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.
To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A. $20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B. $2,000 $2,001 $10,000
C. $2,000 $8,000 $20,000
D. $1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 71
What are metrics NOT used for?

A. To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B. To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.
C. To apply to the RAD development model.
D. To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 72
Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

A. To be based on specifications
B. To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation
C. To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system
D. To include both functional and non-functional testing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 73
In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:
_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.
_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.
_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.
_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

A. $28,000
B. $1,500
C. $33,501
D. $5,000

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 74
What is a test condition?

A. A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B. An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.
C. The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.
D. All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 75
Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

A. Independent testers within the development teams

B. Independent testers from the user community
C. Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test
specialists
D. Code tested by another developer from the development team

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 76
Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

A. Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B. Automate activities that cannot be executed manually
C. Automate repetitive tasks
D. Automating repetitive inspections

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

A. Use case testing

B. Boundary value testing
C. Statement testing and coverage
D. State transition testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 78
What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for
SoftwareTest Documentation? (i) Identification of configuration items of the software or system. (ii)
Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed. (iii) Description of the anomaly to
enable reproduction of the incident.
(iv) Number of occurrences of the incident.
(v) Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.
Number of correct answers: 1

A. i, ii, iii
B. ii, iii
C. i, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iii, v

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 79
"Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

A. Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B. Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.
C. Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and
exploratory testing.
D. Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 80
Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to
improve the communication and relationship between testers and others? a) Communicate factual
information in a constructive way.
b) Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.
c) Always outsource testing activities.
d) Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

A. a and b
B. a, b and c
C. a, b and d
D. a and c

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 81
Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

A. Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B. Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered
C. Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques
D. Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 82
Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

A. Exploratory testing
B. Decision table testing
C. State transition testing
D. Statement testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 83
Why is independent testing important? [K1]

A. Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B. Because independent testers are isolated from the development team
C. Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of
the system
D. Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 84
Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

A. Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test
Plan
B. Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution
C. Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level
D. Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 85
Refer to the exhibit
The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed
before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their
priority order to tests. Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account
of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

A. b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h
B. a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h
C. c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f
D. d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 86
Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

A. The number of staff available to execute tests

B. The level of detail in the test plan
C. The requirements for reliability and security in the product
D. The test estimation method used

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 87
Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and
execution? [K1]

A. The total number of tests planned

B. The total number of requirements to be tested
C. The failure rate in testing already completed
D. The number of testers used for test execution so far

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 88
Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect
correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the
following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]
1. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing
2. Incidents closed in systems testing
3. Planned tests run and passed in system testing
4. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing
5. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

A. a and e
B. b and c
C. d and e
D. a and b

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 89
Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification
(PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal
3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1
using data entered during that test Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

A. Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction
of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.
B. Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails.Screen
shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future
dated transactions ?see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.
C. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future
dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always
happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.
D. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4
fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure
attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated
transactions ?see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 90
Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

1. Test data preparation tools

2. Test harness
3. Review tools
4. Test comparators
5. Configuration management tools

A. a and b
B. c and d
C. c and e
D. b and d

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 91
Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

A. Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B. Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use
C. Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools
D. Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 92
Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

A. Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code
B. Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards
C. Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code,
even if the code meets coding standards
D. Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 93
What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

A. To identify the requirements for using a tool

B. To make a selection between alternative tools
C. To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective
D. To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 94
Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]
A. Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution
B. Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources
C. Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as
test execution
D. Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail
for test procedures used in test execution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 95
The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%

decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4] The following test cases have been run:
Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U
Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V
Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X
Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y
Refer to the exhibit

A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 96
Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement `Print `Hold'' is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

A. X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B. X=2, Y=3, Z=4
C. X=2, Y=4, Z=3
D. X=4, Y=3, Z=2

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 97
Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3] Refer to the exhibit
A. P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25
B. P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35
C. P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42
D. P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 98
The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision
table below.
Refer to the exhibit
Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior
railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for
these two test cases? [K3]

A. Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B. Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade
C. Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade
D. Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 99
How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

A. By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the
quality standards set for the project
B. By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%
C. By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve
processes and thus help to reduce the defect count
D. By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 100
An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website.
The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those
where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem
was located in the `purchase identification' module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was
counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

A. The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a
programmer mistake or an error in the specification.
B. An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a
defect in the application
C. A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a
defect in the overall application
D. A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 101
Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

A. Correcting defects
B. Locating defects in the code
C. Preventing defects
D. Ensuring no defects are present

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 102
Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release
of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

1. To identify as many defects as possible

2. To maximise code coverage
3. To ensure the product works as expected
4. To assess the overall quality of the product
5. To determine the reliability of the product

A. b and c
B. a and d
C. b and e
D. c and d

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 103
Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

A. Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has
cleared the original defect
B. Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has
cleared the original defect
C. Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared
the original defect
D. Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original
defect

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 104
Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task `verify the test environment set
up is correct' relate to? [K1]

A. Planning and control

B. Analysis and design
C. Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 105
Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing? [K1]

A. Independence from the production process

B. A belief that programmers always make mistakes
C. Knowledge of the number of defects typically found in a program
D. Confidence that the next stage will find defects missed at this stage

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 106
Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

A. The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project
B. The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects
C. The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics
D. The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 107
When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

A. At the beginning of the project

B. As soon as requirements have been approved
C. As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted
D. At any time before UAT begins

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 108
Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A. Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate
on the interactions between different parts of a system
B. Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests
concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.
C. Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration
data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system
D. Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high
level model of system behaviour

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 109
A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as
a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging
characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at
component level.
Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

A. Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the
system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the
component level only
B. Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the
integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels
C. Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure
availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure
based testing at the integration level only
D. Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to
ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes
are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 110
Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which
test level? [K1]

A. At the component test level only

B. At all test levels
C. At integration testing and system testing levels only
D. At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 111
Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

A. Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to
minimise the amount of regression testing needed
B. Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and
uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do
C. Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform
regression testing
D. Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to
ensure the changes function correctly

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 112
Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

A. Migration of software onto a new platform

B. Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system
C. Purchase of a new software tool
D. Updating of a regression suite

Correct Answer: A
Exam B

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

A. Executing the software work product

B. Manually examining the code or project documentation
C. Automated analysis of the code or project documentation
D. Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

A. Adjudicator
B. Moderator
C. Governor
D. Corrector

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

1. Each review has clear defined objectives

2. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process
3. The right people for the review objective are involved
4. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement
5. Management are not involved in the process at all
6. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process
7. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

A. a, f and g
B. b, c and f
C. a, c and d
D. d, e and g

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

A. Spelling mistake on an error message

B. A potential infinite loop
C. Memory leakage
D. A variable set to the wrong value

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account
user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who
can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high- level
structure of the software
1. Create an invoice
2. Amend an invoice
3. Process an invoice (send to customer)
4. Delete an invoice
5. Create an account
6. Create an account user
7. Amend an account user
8. Delete an account user
9. Amend an account
10.Delete an account
Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run? [K3]

A. f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h
B. e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j
C. e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j
D. f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

A. Use case testing

B. State transition testing
C. Decision testing
D. Equivalence partitioning

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

1. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software
2. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers
3. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing
4. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

A. a and b
B. c and d
C. a and d
D. b and c

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state
and the output(s) from the test case? [K3] Refer to the exhibit
A. S2 and O4
B. S4 and O2
C. S4 and O4
D. S2 and O2

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:
?Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am ?Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of
service ?The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day's peak service Note
that all times mentioned are inclusive.
When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows
test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

A. 0600, 1000, 1200

B. 1001, 1300, 2259
C. 0100, 0800, 2200
D. 2400, 1000, 2301

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of
its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test
case design.
Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

A. Statement testing and exploratory testing

B. Decision testing and equivalence partitioning
C. Decision testing and decision table testing
D. Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

A. Decision Coverage
B. Error Guessing
C. Statement Coverage
D. Equivalence Partitioning

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

A. Decision table testing

B. Exploratory testing
C. Statement testing
D. Error guessing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

A. Test Implementation and Execution

B. Test Planning and Control
C. Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting
D. Test Analysis and Design

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.
What is the correct definition of this document?

A. Test design specification

B. Test condition
C. Test procedure specification
D. Test case specification

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

A. Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B. Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test
C. Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose
D. Providing information for stakeholders' decision making

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an
organisation?

A. To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B. To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards
C. To limit communication between developers and testers
D. To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.
Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live
implementation?

A. Dynamic analysis tool

B. Monitoring tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Coverage measurement tool

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B. The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action
C. The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring
D. The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and
execution?

A. Number of Test cases passed and failed

B. Percentage of planned test cases designed
C. Number of test plan review comments
D. Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure. Which of the following Test Cases
based on the decision table are Valid? Test Case 1:
An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result:
Expense claim not allowed.
Test Case 2:
An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result:
Expense claim accepted at band C.
Test Case 3:
An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim
accepted at band A.

A. Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B. Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid
C. Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.
D. Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed.
The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.
What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A. Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B. Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
C. Provide support for the test team using the tool
D. Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software. The system
specification states the following logical dependencies:
?An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user. ?A standard user is necessary to perform all
other actions. The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority
tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the
subsequent tests in the schedule.
The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and
whether the test has previously failed.

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

A. a, d, c, b, e
B. a, c, b, d, e
C. e, a, b, c, d
D. e, a, d, c, b

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational
system?
A. Data migration
B. System retirement
C. System modification
D. Introduction of a test management tool

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses
returned within 5 seconds.
What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

A. Stress testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Load testing
D. Usability testing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work,
which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released
into live.
What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A. The system will fail, causing a defect

B. If the contained in a small, the system may fail
C. Loss of money, time, or business reputation
D. Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following options BEST explain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

A. If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects
B. Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free
C. Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules
D. Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

A. Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited
B. Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing
C. Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis
D. Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

A. System and Component test levels only

B. All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing
C. Component and Component integration test levels only
D. All test levels

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the
amount of effort required?

A. The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B. The ratio of developers to testers in the project team
C. The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks
D. The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users. Which of the following does NOT
reflect structural testing?

A. To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system
B. To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component
C. To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph
D. To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.
Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

A. Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects
B. Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script
C. Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance
D. Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit
The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire. What is
the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?
* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart
* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a
buggy/cart

A. TC1 - ?3 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - ?1 total charge including buggy hire
B. TC1 - ?8 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - ?6 total charge but no buggy allowed
C. TC1 - ?3 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - ?6 total charge but no buggy allowed
D. TC1 - ?7 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - ?1 total charge including buggy hire

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

A. A variable is defined but is then not used

B. A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined
C. A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it
D. A variable is used but not declared

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

A. Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute
B. Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company
C. Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests
D. Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:
1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum
once per day, maximum 5 times
2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60
Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid
and invalid boundary values?

A. Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60
B. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second
C. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
D. Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle
model used?

A. They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete
B. They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available
C. They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level
D. They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

A. Error, fault, failure

B. Fault, bug, mistake
C. Mistake, failure, fault
D. Failure, bug, error

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

1. Identifying, a failure
2. Locating the cause of failure
3. Fixing the defect
4. Checking the fix has resolved the failure

A. a&d
B. a&b
C. b&c
D. c&d

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Why is measurement of code coverage Important?
A. Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements
B. Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors
C. Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests
D. Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

A. Analysing the test basis

B. Assigning resources for the planned activities
C. Designing the test environments
D. Writing a test execution schedule

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.
Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights
Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights
Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted
Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt,
then exit
Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight Which of the following is the correct logical order
for the test cases?

A. 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
B. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

A. Exploratory testing
B. Structure based testing
C. Specification based testing
D. Use Case testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

A. The version(s) of the software under test

B. The test execution schedule
C. Expected results and actual results
D. Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit
In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

A. Event C from S3
B. Event E from S4
C. Event B from S2
D. Event D from S4

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other
testing techniques?

A. Omission of a major requirement

B. Inadequate decision coverage
C. Component memory leakage
D. Variables that are not used improperly declared

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process
C. Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly
D. Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be
performed by a tester?

A. Prepare and acquire the test data

B. Set up and check the test environment
C. Write test summary reports
D. Review tests developed by others

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Which of the following describes a task performed as part of the Test Implementation and Execution'
activity?

A. Logging the outcome of test execution and reporting bugs

B. Evaluating the testability of the test basis and test objects
C. Assessing if the specified exit criteria should be changed
D. Selecting metrics for monitoring test execution and defect resolution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
Which of the following defects-can NOT be found by static analysis tools?

A. Infinite loops
B. Wrong business rules
C. Syntax errors of the code
D. Undefined variables

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
Which of the following tools can be used by developers, testers and quality assurance personnel in looking
for defects prior to dynamic testing?

A. Static Analysis tool

B. Modeling tool
C. Test data preparation tool
D. Configuration management tool

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

A. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.
B. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.
C. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.
D. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 52
Consider the following excerpt from a test report 'We tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure.
To recreate the failure, we used test file PR624_DR78_TCB0022 pkr, available under the PR624_DR78
repository in the CK01 server".
Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

A. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.

B. Does not belong to an incident report
C. Provides Project Managers with information on the project risks.
D. Provides test managers with information to report test progress.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53
You need to test the login page of a web site The page contains fields for user name and password Which
test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

A. Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.
C. Exploratory testing, statement coverage.
D. Decision coverage, fault attack.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
What of the following statements regarding walkthrough are NOT true?

A. A walkthrough is lead by a moderator and requires pre-meeting preparation and post meeting follow up
B. A walkthrough may take the form of scenarios, dry runs and peer group review
C. The purpose of a walkthrough is to establish common understanding of a document and to find
possible defects in it
D. Pre-meeting preparation, documentation and distribution of results are optional for a walkthrough

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 55
Which statement about use case testing is true?

A. The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers.
B. The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.
C. The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.
D. The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 56
A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyor belts,
add raw materials to the flow, etc.) Not all actions are possible at all times For example, there are certain
manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate
if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests. Which coverage metric
will provide the needed information for this analysis?

A. Branch Coverage
B. Statement coverage
C. Data flow coverage
D. Code coverage

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true?

A. Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the
solution.
B. The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents
C. Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised
during development
D. Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 58
A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one
test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules. Which
testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

A. Defect clustering
B. Early testing
C. Pesticide Paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 59
Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

A. unit test framework tool evelopers who are familiar with the system's structure.
B. configuration management tool
C. test design tool
D. monitoring tool

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Which of the following metrics are useful for monitoring the test progress?

A. The number of features implemented in the code

B. The number of changes done to the product's requirements
C. Percentage of work done on the user's manuals
D. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 61
Which of the following statements correctly describes traceability?

A. The capability of the software product to enable modified software to be tested.

B. An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested
first.
C. The degree to which a requirement is stated in terms that permit establishment of test design.
D. The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs. software design

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 62
At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers write the steps of the test procedures?

A. Test implementation and execution

B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
C. Test closure activities
D. Test planning and control

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 63
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states Open. Assigned. Solved.
Closed.
Consider the following defect report:
Id: T000561
Test Object: "Warehouse Management" application
Tester name : John Bishop
Date: 10th, April 2010
Test Case MRT5561
Status: OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority:
Problem : After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen . the system shows an
unexpected Error message = 47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

A. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
B. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
C. The version of the application is missing
D. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements about test execution effort is true?

A. An increase in number of testers always reduces testing time.

B. A large number of test repetitions mean less test execution effort.
C. The test execution effort is independent of the number of test environments.
D. The test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 65
What is the ideal number of regression test cycles?

A. As many as time and budget allow

B. 2
C. 1
D. Until the quality requirements are met

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 66
To which of the following test levels regression testing be applied?

1. Component Testing
2. Integration Testing
3. System Testing
4. Acceptance Testing

A. II, III, IV
B. I, II
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 67
What is Test Design?

A. The overall process of testing a system to verify that it meets specified requirements.
B. The process of selecting test techniques to exercise the functions implemented by the tested system
C. The process of transforming general testing objectives into tangible test conditions and test cases
D. An approach to testing to reduce the level of product risks by focusing on high-risk areas in the product

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 68
One of the exit criteria for a SW project was defined as "80% statement coverage".
A test manager submitted the following report:
"We did not measure the statement coverage. However, we ensured 80% branch coverage, therefore the
exit criteria was met".
Is the test manager right?

A. No There is not direct relationship 80% branch coverage does not guarantee 80% statement coverage
B. Yes. 50% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. With 80% branch coverage, the exit
criteria is easily met.
C. No. The relation works the other way: 80% statement coverage guarantees 80% branch coverage
D. Yes Coverage of 80% of the branches in the control flow guarantees 80% statement coverage

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 69
Load testing tool checks for:

A. presence of bugs in user interface

B. the number of testers needed in order to achieve "dead line"
C. correct functional behavior of the system under test
D. time response and resource utilization

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 70
Which of the following can be a common objective of testing?

A. Gaining confidence about the level of the system's quality

B. Fixing defects to improve the system's quality characteristics
C. Providing information as part of the debugging activity
D. Making sure the system performs as fast and as efficient as needed

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 71
A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.
The user noticed that the result given is 6.
This is an example of:

A. Failure
B. Mistake
C. Fault
D. Error

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 72
Which of the following is by definition a reactive test approach?

A. Risk-based testing
B. Automation of regression tests
C. Exploratory testing
D. Requirements-based testing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 73
Consider the following pseudo-code
How many minimum test cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?

A. 5 for Statement, 5 for Decision

B. 4 for Statement, 5 for Decision
C. 8 for Statement, 6 for Decision
D. 6 for Statement, 8 for Decision

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 74
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.
B. Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has
been finished.
C. Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing
D. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under
test.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 75
Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques?

A. Exploratory testing. State transition testing, Control flow testing

B. Decision table testing. Use case testing, Control flow testing
C. Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing
D. Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 76
Which of the following is an example of Static testing?

A. Calculating path coverage using tools

B. Performance testing
C. Requirements review
D. Usability testing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 77
Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software:
I) A test case passes
II) A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed III) Some tests are deferred because
test environment is not available IV) A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case

A. I, II and III
B. I and IV
C. I and II
D. I, II and IV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 78
Which of the following approaches is/are used in Integration tests?

A. Both functional and structural

B. Usability
C. Functional only
D. Structural only

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 79
Which of the following are part of ISTQB code of ethics?

1. Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the
public interest
2. Certified software tester shall always sign a NDA (Non Disclosure Agreement) in presence of customer
data
3. Certified software testers shall maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment
4. Certified software testers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer,
consistent with the public interest

A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, V
D. I, III, IV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 80
Which of the following correctly describes the goal of Statement Testing?

A. Reduce the number of tests needed to test the system

B. Assess of the correctness of key statements in each module of the application
C. Increase the percentage of executable statements that are exercised by a test set
D. Assess the number of code statements needed to implement each feature

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 81
Agile development can be classified as which life cycle model?

A. Agile development is not related to any life cycle model

B. RAD
C. V model
D. Iterative Incremental .

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project One of the identified risks is: ''The sub-contractor
may fail to meet his commitment" If this risk materializes, it will lead to delay in completion of testing
required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

A. It is a project risk since successful completion of the project depends on successful and timely
completion of the tests
B. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timelines is a product risk
C. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
D. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now
managing it

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 83
A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display Age groups are
Group I: 0-12
Group II: 13-18
Group III: over 18
Which of the below represent boundary values?

A. (0, 12, 13,18,19)

B. (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)
C. (4,5,15,20)
D. (-1.0,12,13,18,19)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 84
What type of testing is important after Migration, retirement or enhancement of an existing system?

A. Regression testing
B. Operational acceptance testing
C. System Testing
D. Maintenance testing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 85
You are introducing a new test tool into your organization and planning a pilot project.
What is a MAIN objective of this pilot project?

A. To immediately save cost for current projects in your organisation

B. To show competitors that your organisation is improving its test process
C. To motivate the test team and make testers feel valued
D. To learn more detail about the tool and how it fits with existing processes

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 86
Which of the following statements is true?

A. 100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B. 100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.
C. 100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.
D. It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 87
Which activity in the fundamental test process includes test script generation?

A. Test closure activities

B. Test analysis and design
C. Test planning and control
D. Test implementation and execution

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 88
The ISTQB fundamental test process consists of 5 main activities To which of these belongs the task
"Identifying necessary test data"?

A. Evaluating test criteria and reporting

B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test planning and control
D. Test analysis and design

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 89
You are testing an e-commerce system The system accepts four different types of Credit Cards; each card
has its own rules for valid and invalid numbers. The following is a portion of the Decision Table

for Order Management.:

The combination of the conditions Valid Card Number (NO) + Purchase Approved (YES) is not feasible.
You wish to perform a test which completely covers all the combinations of equivalence partitioning tor the
different types of credit card, according to the rules shown in the above Decision Table How many test
cases do you need?

A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 12

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 90
Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation
of a failure during testing?

A. The expected result for the list friends response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average
 response time obtained was 13 seconds.
B. The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found it quite difficult to follow the test script.
C. The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the
name was written into the address field.
D. SQL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the
application without the appropriate authority

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 91
Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?

1. Static analysis can be used instead of dynamic testing.

2. Static analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.
3. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.
4. Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

A. II. Ill
B. I. IV
C. I. II
D. III. IV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 92
For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for
statement and branch coverage respectively?

A. Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 4

B. Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 3
C. Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 2
D. Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 2

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 93
Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

1. Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

2. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions
3. Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing,
4. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer
5. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

A. II,IV
B. II. III. IV
C. I, III. V
D. II, III. V
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 94
The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:
1. Component (unit) testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model.
Which of the following statements is correct?

A. It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with
B. It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the
SDLC (software development life cycle) model
C. It is allowed as organizations can decide on which test levels to do depending on the context of the
system under test
D. It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite
poor product quality

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

1. Retesting of a fixed defect

2. Testing of an already tested program
3. Testing of new functionality in a program
4. Regression testing applies only to functional testing
5. Tests that do not have to be repeatable. because they are only used once

A. II
B. II. IV, V
C. I.IV
D. I, III, IV

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 96
Which of the following is a factor that could negatively influence the success of the deployment of a tool
within an organization?

A. Introducing the tool to all the test teams of the organization at the same time
B. Collecting usage information of the tool from the early projects.
C. Providing training and coaching for new users of the tool
D. Adapting and improving the processes to the usage of the tool

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 97
Software was found to take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a
file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing
down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example
of

A. Failure
B. Defect
C. Error
D. It is not a defect
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 98
Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code
using a tool?

A. A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures

B. Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can
C. A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects
D. Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 99
Which set of test data (representing ages of human beings in years) given below shows equivalence
partitioning to verify if a customer is in its thirties (A person whose age is between thirty and thirty- nine
years, inclusive) or not?

A. 25. 30. 40
B. 30. 35, 25
C. 20. 35, 39
D. 30. 39. 45

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 100
You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an
internet shop selling baby shoes The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input
parameters:
- There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size
based on the following criteria:

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8.
B. There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter: age <= 0, and age > 25
C. All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases.
D. All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 101
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management
tool Which of the following is the best option?

A. Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

B. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
C. Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
D. Document incidents on a large board in the lab

Correct Answer: B
Exam C

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. A test team with high level of independence, may suffer from lower familiarity with the product
B. Development team may find many defects since they are familiar with the code
C. Tests designed by a person from different group in the organization is the highest independence level
D. Tests designed by a person in the development team other than the person who wrote the code is the
lowest level of independence

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

A. Test planning. Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control, Checking test coverage and
reporting. Test closure activities
B. Test planning and control. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution.Evaluating
test coverage and reporting. Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities
C. Test planning and control. Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating
exit criteria and reporting, Test closure activities
D. Test planning, Test specification and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating exit
criteria and reporting, Retesting and test closure activities

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is basic idea of structure-based testing techniques?

A. To allow developers to have their own testing technique.

B. To do better testing, since the specifications are not needed.
C. The more details of the source code are executed, the more faults can be found.
D. To gain time, since structure-based techniques are easier to implement than specification-based
techniques.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:
To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat which is available in the common shared
folder''.
Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

A. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

B. Provides ideas for test process improvement
C. Does not belong in an incident report.
D. Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A company purchased a new system which deals with all financial transactions in the company Which test
types call for involvement of an expert from the financial department?

A. Component testing
B. Acceptance tests
C. Maintenance testing
D. System tests

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of a tester?

A. Producing interim test reports.

B. Finding the root cause of a defect.
C. Writing the test specification
D. Reporting and tracking bugs.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An online form has a "Title" input field The valid values for this field are: Mr, Ms. Mrs. Which of the following
is a correct list of the equivalence classes of the input values for this field?

A. Any one of: Mr, Mrs., Ms; any other input

B. Mr: Ms; Mrs.: no input; any other input
C. Any one of: Mr, Mrs., Ms; no input, any other input
D. Mr; Mrs.; Ms; any other input

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements are "testing general principles'"?

1. Exhaustive testing is impossible

2. The defects found during the pre-release tests, or the operational failures, are uniformly distributed
across the system's software modules
3. Testing can show the presence of defects, but cannot demonstrate their absence
4. Testing is context-independent

A. I, III
B. I, II
C. I, IV
D. II, III

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing?

A. It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components.

B. It tests "how'' the system works.
C. It may include testing the ease of modification of systems.
D. It may be performed at unit, integration system and acceptance test levels.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When a test case is created based on a Use Case, what type of test is created?

A. Structural Test
B. Functional Test
C. Performance test
D. Regression Test
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described?

A. Test plan
B. Project plan
C. Test design specification
D. Requirements specification

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which type of automation test design is used in the example below? An automation team designs an
automation framework for testing of their web-based applications. Realizing that they need to use different
data for different test cycles, they decide not to hard-code any data in their scripts Instead they read all the
data from text files while test execution is in progress.

A. Dynamic test design

B. Data-driven
C. Keyword-driven
D. Data coverage analysis

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: "An Integer
numeric field shall contain values from 1 to 80 both values inclusive"

A. Less than 0. 1 to 79, 80 and more than 80

B. Less than 0. 1 to 80, more than 80
C. Less than 1. 1 to 80, more than 80
D. Less than 1. 1 to 79, more than 80

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test
process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)?

A. Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities,
evaluating exit criteria.
B. Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating
exit criteria.
C. Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing
D. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test
closure activities

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
How are statement testing and decision testing techniques similar?

A. Both are specification-based testing techniques

B. Both are experience-based testing techniques
C. Both are structure-based testing techniques
D. Both are black box test design techniques
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements about Use Case Testing is FALSE?

A. Use case generally has a mainstream scenario and may have many alternate or exceptional scenarios.
B. A use case can be defined at the abstract level, detached from the implementation, or at the system
level, describing a set of executed functions
C. Use case testing does not find defects caused by interaction of different components
D. Each use case has preconditions which need to be met for the use case to work successfully

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is NOT a typical task for a test leader?

A. Select the test approach

B. Coordinate the test strategy
C. Prepare and acquire test data
D. Estimate the cost of testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Consider a document containing a classification of all the defects found during the system test phase and
after the delivery in the production environment This document can be considered a test basis for which of
the following test design techniques?

A. Structure-based testing
B. Experience-based testing
C. Decision coverage testing
D. Specification-based testing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to
be true?

A. Every output equivalence class has been tested.

B. Every input equivalence class has been tested.
C. The "dead" code has not been covered.
D. Every executable statement is covered

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which test design technique can be used for effectively testing system requirements consisting of logical
conditions?

A. Boundary value analysis

B. Use case testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Decision table testing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a correct statement about informal reviews?

A. The usefulness of an informal review is highly variable and strongly dependent on the reviewers
B. Informal review must be done by the author of the reviewed material, before it is submitted for formal
review
C. The moderator of an informal review should not be the author of the reviewed material
D. An informal review has no impact on the quality of the product, just on the level of knowledge of the
reviewers while Structural tests can be performed at Unit test level

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following sentences is correct?

A. Functional and Structural tests can be performed at all test levels

B. Functional tests can be performed at Unit and Integration test levels, while Structural tests can be
performed at System test level
C. Functional and Structural test levels can be performed for all test types
D. Functional tests can be performed at Integration and System test levels, while Structural tests can be
performed at Unit test level

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A "functional test" is...

A. ... a test focused on the efficiency of the system

B. ... a dynamic test for which the tests are based on the specification of the test object.
C. ... a static comparison of test and requirements specification of a test object
D. ... a test for which the test cases and test data are based on the structure of the test object

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two of the following statements are true?

A. Software testing can be necessary to fulfill legal or contractual obligations.

B. Software testing is done to essentially increase the quality of developers.
C. Intensive testing can help reduce risks and problems during operation
D. Intensive testing is used to prove correctness.
E. C and D are true. A and B are wrong.
F. A and C are true. B and D are wrong
G. B and D are true. A and C are wrong
H. B and C are true, A and D are wrong

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Consider the following code
int premium=2500;
if <age<30)
{
premium = premium +1500:
}
Which options suits for a correct combination of Boundary value and expected result. Assume first number
as boundary followed by expected result.
A. 30. 1500
31, 2500
B. 29,1500
30. 2500
C. 29. 2500
30, 1500
D. 29.4000
30. 2500

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Why is it important to select a test technique?

A. Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule
B. Selecting the right test technique in a given situation increases the effectiveness of the test process by
creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.
C. The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.
D. There are usually too many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the
number of tests.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
What is a peer review?

A. An informal review without moderator

B. A review done by developers and testers together
C. A review done by developers only
D. A review done by colleagues at the same organizational level

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
The following condition is given:
Integer x, y; IFx>0ANDx< 100
y = y + x; END-IF
Using boundary analysis for x. which test cases are required?

A. -1,0.1,99.100, 101
B. -1,0. 100,101
C. -500,-10,0.1,99.100.101,500
D. 0, 1.99, 100

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

A. If new defects are to be found, we should run the same test set more often
B. How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.
C. Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project
D. Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements is true?
I) Test planning activities include selecting the test object II) Test strategy implementation is NOT a part of
test planning III) Choosing appropriate test techniques is part of test design IV) Test schedule and exit
criteria modification are part of test planning

A. I, II
B. II, III
C. I.IV
D. III. IV

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?

A. Component test
B. Feature test
C. Functional test
D. Subsystem test

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis fcr a test exit criteria?

A. Cost of testing performed so far

B. Number of unfixed defects
C. Confidence of testers in tested code
D. Test schedules

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following metrics is from the test design phase?

A. Number of test cases run / not run

B. Number of defects found and fix
C. Percentage of test conditions covered by test cases
D. Subjective confidence of testes in the system under test

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

1. Stubs and drivers are often used

2. The test environment should correspond to the production environment
3. Finding defects is not the main focus
4. Testing can be based on use cases
5. Testing is normally performed by testers
6. Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

A. Component-V Integration - II System - IV Acceptance-VI

B. Component -1 Integration - V System - II Acceptance - IV
C. Component - IV Integration -1 System-VI Acceptance-V
D. Component-VI Integration - IV System -1 Acceptance-III

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
A system sets new users' password to a temporary password The temporary password is a random
number based on the first sft: characters of the username. If the username is shorter than 6 characters, the
system displays an error message. Which of the following is a possible representation of equivalence
classes for the username string?

A. {Random number}
{Error message}
B. {Error message displayed}
{Error message not displayed}
C. {Username shorter than 6 characters}
{Username equal to or longer than 6 characters}
D. {Username with a permanent password}
{Username with a temporary password}

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is a "test harness"?

A. One of the topics that needs to be covered in the final Test Report.
B. A general name for test data that is used by the test cases.
C. A detailed description of a test case to enable its execution by non-expert tester.
D. A test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test
automation tool?

A. Test coverage is increased.

B. The number of found bugs is reduced.
C. The total cost of the test project always decreases
D. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

A. Metrics analysis
B. Kick-off meeting
C. Individual preparation
D. Low cost

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which of the following statements correctly describe Black-Box Testing''

A. Test on an individual software component in isolation from other components, to avoid external
influence
B. Tests that investigate the input vs. trfe output behavior of a software system.
C. Test derived from the ability of the testers and their intuition and experience with similar applications
and technologies (sometimes used to strengthen systematic techniques)
D. Test of the interfaces between components and of the interactions with different parts of a system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which of the following are correct tasks during "Test analysis and design"?

1. Designing and prioritizing test cases

2. Identifying any required infrastructure and tools
3. Reviewing the test basis
4. Creating test data and preparing test harnesses
5. Writing automated test scripts

A. II, III, IV, V

B. l, III IV
C. I, II. Ill
D. I, ll

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the
defect?

A. Urgency
B. Priority
C. Difficulty
D. Severity

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which of the following should be considered when purchasing a test execution tool?

A. The ability of the tool to trace tests to requirements and report coverage level
B. The amount of effort required to achieve positive Return on Investment (ROI)
C. The ability of the tool to track the output and productivity of each individual tester
D. The ability of the tool to run the unit-level tests for the developers

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be used as a basis for estimating testing effort?

A. Requirements for documentation

B. Quality of the test basis Work
C. Breakdown Structure
D. Skills of the test team

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria'?

A. No The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit
criteria
B. Yes. Spending too much money on testing will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an
exit criteria helps avoid this
C. Yes Going by cost as an exit criteria constrains the testing project which will help achieve the desired
quality level defined for the project
D. No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criteria

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

A. When a new test automation tool is launched

B. When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks
C. When it is easy to automate
D. When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which of the following processes is related to ensuring the integrity of the testware?

A. Configuration management
B. Test automation
C. Build release
D. Project management

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47
Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve
100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage.

A. Statement coverage: 4, Decision coverage: 5

B. Statement coverage. 3. Decision coverage 4
C. Statement coverage 4. Decision coverage 4
D. Statement coverage: 4. Decision coverage: 3

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
Consider the following Pseudo code:
How many minimum lea cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?

A. 1 for Statement. 5 for Decision

B. 1 for Statement. 2 for Decision
C. 5 for Statement. 1 for Decision
D. 2 for Statement, 5 for Decision

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 49
What is a typical benefit of use case testing?

A. Finding failures in the possible states transitions

B. Clearer identification of system equivalence partitioning
C. Finding of failures in the business process flows, which highlight system use in the real world
D. Identification of bugs in the system components.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements is the best explanation why software failures can be caused by
environmental conditions?

A. Factors like magnetism, radiation and even pollution can affect electronic devices and the performance
of their embedded real time software
B. Environmental conditions only affect the hardware - not the software
C. If the hardware on which the software application is running under ambient temperature and humidity,
no failures can be linked to environmental conditions
D. Extreme heat and vibrations exerted on storage media can cause errors in algorithms and program
flows

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 51
Which of the following test types are non-functional tests? I) Acceptance test II) Regression test
III) Stress test
IV) Component test
V) Reliability test

A. I, III and V
B. I. II and IV
C. II. Ill and V
D. III and V

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Which of the following is NOT a test control activity?

A. Re-prioritize tests because of time pressure

B. Change the test schedule due to viability of a test environment
C. Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan
D. Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them into a build

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 53
Which of the following statements about use cases and use case testing is NOT TRUE?

A. Use cases can be used as test basis for acceptance testing

B. Use case testing can find defects in the process flow.
C. Use cases can be described at the abstract level or at the system level
D. Use cases are normally derived from decision tables

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 54
What is a defect density?

A. The percentage of defects identified over the total number of test cases
B. The deviation rate of the system from its expected behavior
C. The ratio of the defects identified in these system over the expected number of total defects
D. The number of defects identified in the system under test divided by the size of the system

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 55
What is the order in which the specifications for test cases, test conditions and test procedures are
developed as a part of the test development process?

A. Test Procedure --> Test Condition -> Test Case

B. Test Condition --> Test Case --> Test Procedure
C. Test Procedure -> Test Case -> Test Condition
D. Test Condition --> Test Procedure --> Test Case

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 56
When should component integration tests be carried out?

A. Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B. Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests
C. Integration tests can be done before or after system tests
D. Integration tests should always be done before system tests

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 57
Which of the following activities do NOT belong to test implementation and execution?

A. Checking if the preconditions of test execution have been met

B. Logging of test results
C. Test data generation
D. Prioritizing test conditions
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 58
Choose below the best characterization of the difference between black-box testing and white-box testing

A. For black-box testing, the testers do not need to know the test object in advance
B. For white-box testing, the testers have to consult specifications and developers before running any
tests
C. Black box testing uses static analysis. White box testing uses dynamic analysis
D. Black-box testing is based on the test basis documentation. White-box testing is based on an analysis
of the code itself.
E. Black-box testing is based on an analysis of the code itself White-box testing is based on the test basis.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 59
For a mandatory input field 'ZIP code" the following rules are given:
1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits
2 - The code has to exist in the pest office's official ZIP code list Using equivalence classes partitioning,
how many test cases are required to test this field?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 8
D. 3

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

A. Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing

B. A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects
C. Independent testing is best suited for the system test level
D. Independent test teams may find other types of defects than developers who are familiar with the
system's structure.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 61
Integration testing has following characteristics.

1. It can be done in incremental manner

2. It is always done after system testing
3. It includes functional tests
4. It includes non-functional tests

A. I. l and IV are correct

B. I Ill and IV are correct
C. TI is correct
D. II and III are correct

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 62
Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?

A. Providing information on the status of the system

B. Preventing defects
C. Finding defects in the software
D. Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 63
Which of the following DOES NOT describe "component testing'?

A. Component testing tests interfaces between modules and interactions of different parts of a system.
B. Component testing occurs with access to the code being tested and with the support of a development
environment, such as a unit test framework or debugging tool
C. Component testing verifies the functioning of. software modules, programs, objects, classes, etc..
that are separately testable.
D. In component testing stubs, drivers and simulators may be usefully utilized to facilitate tester activity

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 64
Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

A. Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications,
design specifications and code
B. Static testing is done only on the requirements. You need to execute the software in order to find
defects in the code
C. Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are
reviewed, but not by static testing Static tests
D. should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the
end user

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 65
You need to test a vending machine for light drinks The machine has a button for each of the drinks it
contains
Pressing a button before inserting coins, will display the cost of the drink Pressing the same button after
inserting enough coins will dispense the drink and provide change if needed) If the machine is out of the
specific drink, and the button for this drink is pressed, the machine displays "Sold Out" (regardless if coins
were inserted or not). Which test technique is most suitable for this situation?

A. State transition testing

B. Equivalence class testing
C. Boundary value testing
D. Use-case testing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 66
A tester thinks of a likely cause for a specific bug Should the tester make a comment about this in the bug
report?

A. No. A bug r^&ort must only include factual information, and not unsupported hypothesis
B. No. Such addition may bias the developers' attitude when they attempt to fix the bug
C. Yes It will reduce the risk that the bug fix will cause a regression
D. Yes Observations that may help correct a bug should be included in the bug report

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
Which of the following sentences about testing and debugging is correct?

A. Re-testing checks that debugging has found and analyzed the failure
B. Dynamic testing finds defects, while debugging removes failures
C. Dynamic testing reveals failures, while debugging removes defects
D. Like most development activities, debugging is usually done before testing starts

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 68
What is integration testing?

A. Looking for faults in larger components or subsystems

B. Another term for testing system integrity
C. Specifying which components to integrate in which order
D. Testing that the interfaces work correctly

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 69
Which of the following BEST describes a Test Case?

A. A statement about "what to test" in terms of measurable coverage criteria from analysis of the test
basis.
B. A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and postconditions developed based on test
conditions.
C. A description of the test objectives to be achieved and the means and the schedule for achieving them.
D. A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result of the system under test.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 70
Testing and Debugging are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are DEBUGGING activities?

1. Designing tests to find failures.

2. Locating the cause of failures.
3. Analysing and fixing the defects.
4. Executing tests to show failures.

A. a and d
B. a and b
C. b and c
D. c and d

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 71
During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

A. Test Execution.
B. Test Planning.
C. Test Design.
D. Test Analysis.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which ONE of the following is the BEST way to take advantage of the different mindsets of testers and
developers?

A. Insist on independent testing at all stages in the lifecycle.

B. Have all developers undergo ISTQB training.
C. Keep developers and testers in separate teams.
D. Bring the two mindsets together.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 73
In which development life cycle model is regression testing an increasingly important activity as the project
progresses?

A. V-model.
B. Waterfall.
C. Scrum.
D. Progressive.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 74
Which of the following apply to System Testing?
1. May satisfy legal requirements.
2. Can use system specifications as a test basis.
3. Often the responsibility of business users.
4. Main goal is to establish confidence.
5. Should focus on the communication between systems.

A. a and c
B. b and d
C. a and b
D. c and e

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 75
After a record of poor quality software releases (incorrect menu selection options, new features that do not
work, users allowed to change security levels without administrator rights), you have been asked to review
the test capability in your company.
You have limited time to do the review before the next project, which type of testing would be MOST
appropriate to review first?

A. Functional testing.
B. Non-functional testing.
C. Performance testing.
D. Structural testing.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 76
Which of the following are triggers for Maintenance testing? a) System migration from one platform to
another.
b) Retirement of a system.
c) Preparation for an audit of a system.
d) Modifications to a system.
e) Development of a whole new system.
A. a, c and d
B. b, c and e
C. a, d and e
D. a, b and d

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 77
Which statement about Static Testing is TRUE?

A. Static testing can be applied to any work product that participants know how to read and understand.
B. Static testing must only be applied to final work products that have been signed off.
C. Static testing must be conducted by users of the product being tested.
D. Static testing executes the code to verify the functionality is as expected.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 78
When comparing Static and Dynamic test techniques, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Static Testing finds failures, whilst Dynamic Testing only finds the cause of failures.
B. Static Testing techniques, such as reviews, can be undertaken before Dynamic Testing, making
defects cheaper to remove.
C. Static Testing is based on the execution of code, whist Dynamic Testing relies on examination and
analysis.
D. Only Static Testing has the objective of identifying defects.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 79
Which defect below is MOST likely to be found by a review during static testing?

A. Incorrect interface specifications.

B. Old versions of software in use.
C. Performance bottlenecks.
D. Broken links to web addresses.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 80
Which of the following is a typical characteristic of the WALKTHROUGH review type?

A. The meeting is led by the author.

B. Metrics are gathered throughout.
C. Attendees must prepare before the meeting.
D. Entry and exit criteria are defined.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 81
You are performing a review of your colleague's test cases based on the following test basis document:
The Test Cases are as follows:
TC1. Success ?valid `User Name' and `Password'; Customer Menu displayed TC2. Failure ?`User Name'
field has blank entry; Error Number 12 displayed TC3. Failure ?`User Id' entered does not exist on
database (i.e. unregistered user); Error Number 23 displayed TC4. Failure ?`Password' entered does not
match user's password on database; Error Number 24 displayed You are guided by the following checklist
in your review:
C1. There must be one test case to cover success

C2. There must be one test case for each error path (e.g. validation failure) C3. Each test case must use
terminology consistent with the test basis document (field names, error numbering, etc.) Record a separate
defect for each missing test case (checklist items C1 and C2) and for each test case that does not meet
checklist item C3.
How many defects should you record?

A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 82
Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

A. An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their
knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.
B. An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a high-level list of items to
 be noted, checked or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product has to be
verified.
C. A procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the specification, either
functional or non-functional, of a component or system without reference to its internal structure.
D. A test design technique which ensures that test cases are checked for consistency and completeness
against an organisation's list of formatting rules and best practices.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 83
Which of the following is a key difference between black box and white box test design techniques?

A. Black box techniques use software code to derive test cases, white box techniques do not.
B. White box techniques use functional design specifications to derive test cases, black box techniques do
not.
C. White box techniques can measure the extent of code coverage, black box techniques can not.
D. White box techniques derive test cases from models of the software, black box techniques do not.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 84
A car insurance policy has 3 rates of insurance depending on the age of the driver. For drivers aged
between 17 and 25 inclusive they are charged at rate A, drivers aged between 26 and 50 inclusive are
charged at rate B and those drivers aged over 50 are charged at rate C. You are designing test cases,
which of the following three ages would test all valid equivalence partitions and therefore test rate A, B and
C?

A. 26, 45, 50.

B. 10, 21, 55.
C. 20, 35, 65.
D. 17, 25, 50.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 85
A student needs to score at least 50 points to pass. If they score at least 100 points they will achieve a
merit and if they score at least 150 points they will achieve a distinction.
Which two values are in the same partition?

A. 45 and 55.
B. 55 and 120.
C. 50 and 60.
D. 45 and 170.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 86
A holiday club restricts those booking the holiday, to people between the ages of 18 and 30 inclusive.
Using three-point boundary values, what ages would be required to test the lower and upper boundary?

A. 17, 18, 19, 29, 30, 31.

B. 17, 18, 19, 30, 31, 32.
C. 18, 19, 20, 28, 29, 30.
D. 16, 17, 18, 30, 31, 32.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 87
Given the following decision tables, what is the expected result for the test case listed below?

Test Case: Purchase a Toaster weighing 9kg for ?0.

A. No need to pay in cash, no free delivery.

B. Must pay in cash, no free delivery.
C. No need to pay in cash, free delivery.
D. Must pay in cash, free delivery.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 88
Given the following state transition diagram where SS is the start state:

Which of the following answers describes a test case that only uses valid transitions to exercise all states,
using the minimum number of transitions?

A. SS-S3-SS-S1-S3-S2.
B. SS-S3-S2-S1.
C. SS-S1-S2-S3.
D. SS-S1-S3-S2.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 89
Which statement about deriving test cases from a use case is TRUE?

A. Test cases are designed to exercise the defined behaviours.

B. There should only be one test case for each use case.
C. Test cases can only be derived if there is an activity diagram.
D. It is not possible to measure use case test coverage.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 90
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

A. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program.

B. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process.
C. Checking that all decisions are based on a numeric value.
D. Checking that at least 100% decision coverage has been achieved, as this guarantees 100% statement
coverage.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 91
Which of the following is an approach that can be used for exploratory testing?

A. Time-boxed test sessions are created, during which a tester uses a test charter containing test
objectives to guide the testing.
B. A tester methodically executes tests from a list of possible failures, based on experience, defect and
failure data.
C. A tester analyses, designs and implements tests based on external rules and standards.
D. Tests are designed based on the guidance of stakeholders and experts outside the test team.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 92
Which of the following BEST describes a methodical approach to the Error Guessing test technique?

A. A tester dynamically designs and executes tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item
and the results of previous tests.
B. An experienced tester makes a list of potential defects and failures, and designs and runs tests to
generate these failures should the defects be present in the code.
C. A tester designs, implements and executes tests to cover test conditions found in checklists that are
based on what is important for the user.
D. An inexperienced tester is asked to attempt to guess errors that may have been missed by experienced
testers during formal test design.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 93
Which of the following are benefits of an independent test team, and which are drawbacks?

A. Independent testers can find different defects.

B. Developers may put less emphasis on quality.
C. Independent testers can be seen as the reason for delayed projects.
D. Independent testers can verify assumptions made during the specification of a system.
E. a and b are benefits, c and d are drawbacks.
F. b and c are benefits, a and d are drawbacks.
G. a and d are benefits, b and c are drawbacks.
H. c and d are benefits, a and b are drawbacks.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 94
Tests have been specified for the latest software release and users have prioritised these. However, there
are some dependencies between tests as shown in the table below (e.g. Test ID. `123' cannot be run until
Test ID. `456' has been successfully completed).
Which test execution schedule best meets the prioritisation and dependency conditions?

A. 3, 5, 7, 10, 2, 4, 6, 8, 9, 1.
B. 5, 7, 4, 3, 9, 10, 1, 6, 8, 2.
C. 6, 1, 2, 9, 4, 3, 5, 7, 8, 10.
D. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2, 7, 9, 10, 6, 8.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 95
Which one of the following statements about techniques for estimating test effort is correct?

A. The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the
current project.
B. The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject
matter experts.
C. The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective
feel for effort required.
D. In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the
estimate.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 96
Which of the following would NOT typically be covered in a test summary report?

A. The risks associated with unresolved defects found during testing.

B. Any features of the system that were not tested along with reasons.
C. Whether there is any economic benefit in continuing testing beyond the planned date.
D. An analysis of lessons learned to determine changes for future projects.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 97
Which of the following BEST describes how configuration management supports the test process?

A. It enables the tester to reproduce the tested item through unique identification and version control.
B. It enables the tester to systematically design test conditions, cases and data.
C. It enables incidents to be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the
solution.
D. It helps the test manager to decide how best to integrate and coordinate the testing activities into the
 software life cycle.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 98
Which of the following are product risks?

1. Failure prone software delivered.

2. Software does not perform its intended functions.
3. Insufficient staff available for testing.
4. Test environment not ready on time.
5. Poor data integrity and quality.

A. b, c and e
B. b, d and e
C. a, b and e
D. b, c and d

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 99
Your agile project has scheduled a final sprint before release to fix and re-test all open defects with a
priority level of 3 or above.
The following defect report shows the defect fields that are currently being captured on the system.
Title: Unable to add excursions to pre-paid cruises
Date raised: 21/05/18
Author: Emma Rigby
Status: Fixed
What occurred: I went to book an excursion for a pre-paid cruise but received an error message saying,
`Facility not available'. I can book excursions on cruises that have not yet been fully paid. What should
have occurred: Requirement 3.12 says clearly that customers can add excursions after cruises have been
fully paid so the facility should have been available (when an additional amount may now need to be paid).
Priority: 2
Software build: 2.1
Test level: System test
Environment details: System test 3
Which of ONE of the following additional defect report fields would be MOST beneficial for the sprint team
to add?

A. Severity.
B. Test Script Id.
C. Actual results.
D. Expected results.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 100
An issue has been found in a production system, where a code component fails to release memory after it
has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this
defect during Performance testing?

A. Dynamic analysis tool.

B. Test Execution tool.
C. Configuration management tool.
D. Coverage measurement tool.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 101
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good testing, independent of the development life cycle
model?

A. Each test level has objectives specific for the test level
B. Testers are involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available
C. Every development activity is matched by a corresponding testing activity.
D. Testers are involved in reviewing documents as soon the documents are approved.

Correct Answer: D
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