MCN 2 Sas Notes

MCN 2 NOTES - PRACTICE QUESTIONS
SAS 24
1. What is the characteristic feature of structural scoliosis?
A. Functional curvature of the spine
B. Lateral curvature with damage to vertebrae
C. Unequal leg lengths
D. Poor posture
2. Which bone is frequently affected by osteogenic sarcoma in

adolescents?
A. Radius
B. Femur
C. Tibia
D. Humerus
3. What is a common cause of amenorrhea in adolescents?

A. Excessive exercise
B. Obesity
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Substance abuse
4. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of anorexia nervosa?

A. BMI above 20
B. Relentless drive for obesity
C. Severe weight restriction without distorted body image
D. Amenorrhea
5. Which drug is associated with violent behavior, rapid speech, and

confusion?
A. Heroin
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
6. What is the third leading cause of death in the 15 to 19-year-old age

group?
A. Accidents
B. Substance abuse
C. Teen pregnancy
D. Suicide
7. Imagine a 14-year-old girl presenting with unequal shoulder heights,
waist angles, and scapula prominences. What type of scoliosis is most
likely present?
A. Functional scoliosis
B. Structural scoliosis
C. Idiopathic scoliosis
D. Postural scoliosis
8. A 16-year-old boy complains of pain and swelling in the distal end of his
femur. What potential diagnosis should the healthcare provider
consider?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Osteogenic sarcoma
D. Osteomyelitis
9. You notice a 17-year-old exhibiting signs of depression, withdrawing

from friends, and expressing feelings of hopelessness. As a healthcare
provider, what immediate action should you take?
A. Recommend self-help books
B. Monitor closely but take no action
C. Encourage open communication and seek professional help
D. Disregard the symptoms as typical teenage behavior
10. What term is used to describe painful menstruation caused by the

release of prostaglandins during the ischemic phase of the menstrual
cycle?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Menorrhagia
C. Dyspareunia
D. Dysmenorrhea
11. How is anorexia nervosa characterized, involving self-induced

starvation, a relentless drive for thinness, and medical signs resulting
from starvation?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Obesity
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Binge eating disorder
12. Which term refers to a deliberate self-injury with the intent to end one's
life, and it is more frequent in males but with more attempts made by
females?
A. Substance dependence
B. Suicidal ideation
C. Teen pregnancy
D. Teen suicide
13. A 16-year-old girl presents with the absence of menstrual flow and a
BMI below 17.5. What is the likely cause of her amenorrhea?
A. Stress-induced hormonal imbalance
B. Anovulation during the menstrual cycle
C. Excessive exercise and low body fat
D. Obesity-related hormonal fluctuations
14. You encounter a 15-year-old with a body mass index (BMI) above the
95th percentile for their age and sex. What primary intervention should
be recommended?
A. Psychological counseling
B. Strict dieting
C. Weight loss surgery
D. Increased physical activity
15. Define primary dysmenorrhea and identify its characteristic features.

A. Painful menstruation due to an underlying medical condition
B. Menstrual pain without an identifiable cause
C. Pain associated with menopause
D. Pain during ovulation
16. Explain the concept of "lanugo" in the context of anorexia nervosa.

A. A form of self-induced vomiting
B. Fine, soft hair growth on the body
C. A symptom of excessive exercise
D. The desire for excessive thinness
17. You are assessing a 17-year-old who exhibits aggressive behavior,

confusion, and shakiness. Additionally, there are pills or capsules of
varying colors in their possession. What substance abuse is most likely?
A. Hallucinogens
B. Stimulants
C. Depressants
D. Opioids
18. A 16-year-old has given away prized possessions, expresses feelings of

hopelessness, and mentions that others will be better off without them.
What is the most concerning sign of potential suicide?
A. Frequent mood swings
B. Withdrawal from peer activities
C. Giving away prized possessions
D. Decrease in verbal communication
19. Define the term "tolerance" in the context of substance abuse.

A. A state of physical dependence on a substance
B. The need for increasing amounts of a substance to achieve the
desired effect
C. A temporary feeling of euphoria after drug use
D. The withdrawal symptoms experienced when discontinuing drug
use
20. What is the definition of "suicidal ideation"?

A. Deliberate self-injury with the intent to end one's life
B. Frequent mood swings in adolescence
C. Thoughts or discussions about ending one's life
D. Giving away prized possessions
SAS 25
1. What is the most common age group affected by croup?
A. Infants
B. Toddlers
C. Preschoolers
D. School-age children
2. Which condition involves the inflammation of the epiglottis and may

present with a cherry-red structure in the back of the throat?
A. Choanal atresia
B. Retropharyngeal abscess
C. Epiglottitis
D. Bronchial obstruction
3. What is the primary therapeutic management for choanal atresia in

infants?
A. Oral analgesics
B. Intravenous (IV) fluid
C. Antibiotic treatment
D. Tonsillectomy
4. A child with suspected choanal atresia is experiencing respiratory

distress after birth. What immediate intervention should the nurse
perform to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Administer intravenous (IV) antibiotics
B. Perform a throat culture
C. Pass a soft catheter through the posterior nares
D. Provide cool moist air with a nebulizer
5. You are caring for a child with suspected streptococcal pharyngitis.

What clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis, and what
diagnostic tests should be performed?
A. Enlarged tonsils, fever, and throat culture
B. Rhinorrhea, cough, and rapid antigen test
C. Barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and chest X-ray
D. Drooling, refusal to eat, and IV antibiotic treatment
6. Define croup and describe the characteristic symptoms associated with

it.
A. Inflammation of the epiglottis with a cherry-red structure
B. Congenital obstruction of the posterior nares
C. Inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and major bronchi
D. Collapse of laryngeal cartilage during inspiration
7. Explain what retropharyngeal abscess is and outline its typical clinical

presentation.
A. Abscess formed in lymph nodes with inspiratory stridor
B. Swelling on one side of the neck with high fever
C. Obstruction in the right bronchus causing atelectasis
D. Inflammation of the tonsils requiring tonsillectomy
8. What is choanal atresia characterized by?

A. Obstruction of the trachea
B. Obstruction of the posterior nares
C. Obstruction of the bronchi
D. Obstruction of the esophagus
9. Which age group is most affected by streptococcal pharyngitis?

A. Infants
B. Toddlers
C. Preschoolers
D. School-age children
10. What is the primary cause of croup in children?

A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Allergy
D. Chronic postnasal discharge
11. Which symptom is characteristic of epiglottitis?

A. Barking cough
B. Inspiratory stridor
C. Sore throat
D. Drooling
12. What is the recommended therapeutic management for

retropharyngeal abscess?
A. Oral antibiotics
B. Home care
C. IV antibiotic treatment and hospitalization
D. Nebulized racemic epinephrine
13. Which procedure involves the removal of palatine tonsils?

A. Tonsillectomy
B. Adenoidectomy
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Epiglottidectomy
14. What is congenital laryngomalacia characterized by?

A. Collapse of laryngeal cartilage during expiration
B. Collapse of laryngeal cartilage during inspiration
C. Chronic inflammation of the larynx
D. Enlarged tonsils
Answer: B
15. What is the primary cause of croup in children between 6 months and 3
years of age?
B. Viral infection
C. Allergy
16. Which condition involves the flap of cartilage covering the opening to
the larynx and may present with a cherry-red structure in the back of
the throat?
A. Choanal atresia
C. Epiglottitis

infants?
A. Oral analgesics
D. Tonsillectomy
18. Which clinical manifestations are associated with streptococcal

pharyngitis?
A. Barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and chest X-ray
B. Enlarged tonsils, fever, and throat culture
C. Rhinorrhea, cough, and rapid antigen test
19. What is the primary cause of croup in children?

B. Viral infection
C. Allergy
20.Which symptom is characteristic of epiglottitis?

A. Barking cough
C. Sore throat
D. Drooling
21. What is the recommended therapeutic management for

retropharyngeal abscess?
A. Oral antibiotics
B. Home care
C. IV antibiotic treatment and hospitalization
D. Nebulized racemic epinephrine
22. Which procedure involves the removal of palatine tonsils?

A. Tonsillectomy
B. Adenoidectomy
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Epiglottidectomy
23. What is congenital laryngomalacia characterized by?

A. Collapse of laryngeal cartilage during expiration
B. Collapse of laryngeal cartilage during inspiration
C. Chronic inflammation of the larynx
D. Enlarged tonsils
24.What is the primary cause of croup in children between 6 months and 3

years of age?
B. Viral infection
C. Allergy
25. Which condition involves the flap of cartilage covering the opening to
the larynx and may present with a cherry-red structure in the back of
the throat?
A. Choanal atresia
C. Epiglottitis

infants?
A. Oral analgesics
D. Tonsillectomy
27. Which clinical manifestations are associated with streptococcal

pharyngitis?
A. Barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and chest X-ray
B. Enlarged tonsils, fever, and throat culture
C. Rhinorrhea, cough, and rapid antigen test
28. What is the characteristic sound associated with congenital

laryngomalacia in infants during inspiration?
A. Barking cough
C. Wheezing
D. Hoarseness
29. How does epiglottitis differ from viral pharyngitis in terms of clinical
presentation?
A. Presence of inspiratory stridor
B. Cherry-red structure in the throat
C. Enlarged tonsils with white exudate
D. Rapid onset of high fever and severe sore throat
30.What is the primary risk associated with bronchial obstruction due to

aspirated foreign objects in children?
A. Atelectasis
B. Hyperinflation
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemoptysis
SAS 26
1. A 5-year-old child presents with sudden difficulty breathing, wheezing,
and increased respiratory rate. The parents report a history of allergies.
What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Administer antibiotics
B. Provide oral corticosteroids
C. Initiate nebulized bronchodilators
D. Recommend complete bed rest
2. A 3-month-old infant is brought to the emergency room with

respiratory distress. On assessment, you observe retractions, nasal
flaring, and grunting. What condition is most likely present?
A. Asthma exacerbation
B. Pneumothorax
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Atelectasis
3. A child with a history of cystic fibrosis presents with steatorrhea and

failure to thrive. What diagnostic test would confirm the presence of
cystic fibrosis?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Sweat chloride test
C. Complete blood count (CBC)
D. Pulmonary function test (PFT)
4. A 6-year-old child is admitted with suspected pneumonia. The chest

X-ray reveals lobar consolidation. What is the most likely cause of this
presentation?
A. Viral pneumonia
B. Mycoplasmal pneumonia
C. Pneumococcal pneumonia
D. Chlamydial pneumonia
5. A 7-year-old is diagnosed with status asthmaticus. Despite initial

therapy, the child remains in respiratory distress. What is the next step
in management?
A. Administer oral corticosteroids
B. Initiate continuous nebulized β2 agonists
C. Perform chest physiotherapy
D. Prepare for endotracheal intubation
6. What term refers to the collapse of lung alveoli and may be seen in
preterm newborns due to surfactant deficiency or mucus plugs?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Asthma
7. Which chronic respiratory disorder involves inflammation and edema of

the fine bronchioles and small bronchi, often caused by the Respiratory
Syncytial Virus (RSV)?
A. Asthma
B. Bronchitis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pneumonia
8. What inherited disease is characterized by thick mucus secretion,

primarily affecting the lungs and pancreas?
A. Asthma
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
9. Which term describes a severe and prolonged asthma attack that is not
responsive to therapy and may lead to acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Status asthmaticus
B. Atelectasis
C. Pneumothorax
D. Bronchiolitis
10. What is the term for an infection and inflammation of the alveoli,
categorized as hospital- or community-acquired, and may present with
high fever and chest pain?
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchitis
11. A 2-month-old infant presents with signs of respiratory distress,

including grunting, nasal flaring, and intercostal retractions. What is the
most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Choanal atresia
D. Status asthmaticus
12. A school-age child is diagnosed with bronchitis. What is the primary

causative agent for bronchitis in this age group?
A. Influenza viruses
B. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
13. A child presents with persistent coughing, wheezing, and difficulty

breathing, especially during physical activities. What condition is most
likely, and what medication would be a long-term preventive measure?
A. Asthma; inhaled corticosteroids
B. Bronchitis; antibiotics
C. Pneumonia; antipyretics
D. Cystic fibrosis; pancreatic enzymes
14. A 4-year-old child with a productive cough, fever, and rapid breathing is
suspected of having bronchiolitis. What intervention is essential in
managing this child's condition?
A. Administering antibiotics
B. Nebulized bronchodilators
C. Intravenous (IV) fluid therapy
D. Initiate chest physiotherapy
15. A newborn is born with meconium ileus. What disease is strongly

associated with this presentation, and what diagnostic test would
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Bronchiolitis; chest X-ray
B. Cystic fibrosis; sweat chloride test
C. Pneumonia; complete blood count (CBC)
D. Asthma; pulmonary function test (PFT)
16. Which term describes a severe and potentially life-threatening

respiratory condition characterized by the collapse of lung alveoli, often
seen in preterm newborns?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Atelectasis
D. Pneumothorax
17. What chronic inflammatory disorder primarily affects the small airways,
leading to recurrent wheezing, breathlessness, and coughing?
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis
18. What term refers to a chronic lung condition in infants, often resulting
from surfactant deficiency, barotrauma, oxygen toxicity, and
inflammation?
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Atelectasis
C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
D. Pneumonia
19. Which inherited disease is characterized by thick mucus secretion

affecting the lungs and pancreas, leading to respiratory and digestive
issues?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Atelectasis
20. What term describes the presence of atmospheric air in the pleural
space, causing lung collapse, and may occur due to external puncture
wounds?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Atelectasis
SAS 27
1. What is the primary characteristic of acyanotic heart diseases?
A. Cyanosis
B. Increased pulmonary blood flow
C. Obstruction to systemic blood flow
D. Decreased pulmonary blood flow
2. Which defect results in the reversal of the great arteries?

A. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
B. Transposition of Great Vessels (TGV)
C. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
D. Coarctation of Aorta (CoAo)
3. What is the primary symptom of right-sided heart failure?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Rales
D. Tachypnea
4. In which condition does oxygenated blood from the left side mix with
blood in the right side of the heart?
A. Transposition of Great Vessels (TGV)
B. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
C. Coarctation of Aorta (CoAo)
D. Aortic Stenosis
5. Which defect allows blood to flow from the high-pressure left atrium to
the low-pressure right atrium?
A. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
B. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
D. Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (APVR)
6. What is the most common cause of congestive heart failure in children?

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Cardiomyopathies
C. Infectious diseases
D. Myocardial dysfunction after heart surgery
7. Which defect is associated with a holosystolic murmur at the left lower

sternal border?
A. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
B. Transposition of Great Vessels (TGV)
C. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
D. AtrioventriAnswer: C
8. What is the immediate management for a significant Patent Ductus

Arteriosus (PDA)?
A. Surgical closure
B. Furosemide administration
C. Indomethacin administration
D. Diuretics (FUROSEMIDE) for the symptoms
9. Which defect involves a single arterial vessel that originates from the
heart, overriding the ventricular septum?
A. Aortic Stenosis
B. Truncus Arteriosus (TA)
D. Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS)
10. What is the primary characteristic of cyanotic heart diseases?

A. Cyanosis
B. Increased pulmonary blood flow
C. Obstruction to systemic blood flow
D. Decreased pulmonary blood flow
11. What is the preferred management for a small Atrial Septal Defect
(ASD)?
A. Catheterization lab closure
B. Surgical closure
C. Diuretics administration
D. Observation with no intervention
12. What is the common symptom of Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)

in children with Down Syndrome?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Cyanosis
C. Shortness of breath
D. Failure to thrive
13. What is the immediate intervention for Transposition of Great Vessels

(TGV)?
A. Echocardiogram
B. Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) infusion
C. Surgical correction
D. Oxygen therapy
14. What is the primary diagnostic tool for congenital heart defects?
A. X-ray
B. Echocardiography
C. MRI
D. CT scan
15. What is the characteristic feature of Coarctation of Aorta (CoAo) in

infants?
A. Elevated blood pressure in the right arm
B. Elevated blood pressure in the lower extremities
C. Absence of weakness in femoral pulses
D. Absence of left ventricular hypertrophy
16. In Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS), what is done during the
Norwood procedure?
A. Closure of atrial and VSDs
B. Dissection of the main pulmonary artery
C. Shunt placement (BT or Sano shunt)
D. Attachment of the SVC to the branch pulmonary artery
17. When is the Fontan procedure typically performed?

A. Within a few days of birth
B. 4 to 6 months of age
C. At 3 years old
D. When the child weighs approximately 15 kg
18. What is the primary surgical management for Aortic Stenosis?

A. Balloon angioplasty
B. Surgical intervention
C. Beta-blocker administration
D. Routine echocardiograms
19. What is a potential complication of cardiac transplantation in infants?

A. Hypertension
B. Rejection problems
C. Cyanosis
D. Increased pulmonary blood flow
20.Which condition results in a single-ventricle physiology?

A. Aortic Stenosis
B. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
D. Mitral Atresia
SAS 28
1. What is Kawasaki disease?
A. An autoimmune disease affecting the heart valves
B. An acute febrile syndrome associated with generalized vasculitis
C. An inflammatory process involving the myocardium
D. A congenital heart defect
2. What is the primary concern in Kawasaki disease due to vasculitis?

A. Thrombus formation
B. Joint pain
C. Elevated liver enzymes
D. Leukocytosis
3. How is Kawasaki disease diagnosed?

A. Imaging tests
B. Laboratory tests
C. Clinical criteria
D. Both B and C
4. What is the peak incidence of rheumatic fever?

A. 2 years of age
B. 6 years of age
C. 8 years of age
D. 15 years of age
5. How is rheumatic fever diagnosed?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Echocardiogram
C. Jones criteria
D. Electrocardiogram
6. What is the first-line treatment for rheumatic fever?

A. High-dose aspirin
B. Penicillin therapy
C. Immunosuppressants
D. Corticosteroids
7. What is the characteristic sign of rheumatic fever related to the skin?

A. Erythema marginatum
B. Strawberry tongue
C. Maculopapular rash
D. Edema in hands and feet
8. What is the primary diagnostic tool for myocarditis?

A. Blood cultures
B. Echocardiogram
C. Chest X-ray
D. Endomyocardial biopsy
9. What is the hallmark symptom of pericarditis?

A. Fever
B. Sharp chest pain
C. Murmurs
D. Weight loss
10. What is a common cause of infective endocarditis in children?
A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Coxsackievirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Parvovirus
11. What is the primary cause of myocarditis?

B. Fungal infection
C. Toxins, drugs, or infectious agents
D. Hypersensitivity reactions
12. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of pericarditis?

A. Persistent low-grade fever
B. Arthralgias
C. Malaise
D. Diaphoresis
13. How is infective endocarditis diagnosed?

A. Blood cultures and echocardiogram
B. Electrocardiogram
C. Urinalysis
D. Chest X-ray
14. Which of the following is not a symptom of infective endocarditis?

A. High-spiking fevers
B. Joint pain
C. Malaise
D. Murmurs
15. What is the treatment approach for myocarditis?

A. Surgical intervention
B. Mechanical circulatory support devices
C. Symptomatic management
D. Antibiotics
16. What is the primary aim of treatment for pericarditis?

A. Eradicate the underlying infection
B. Provide analgesia for chest pain
C. Reduce inflammation
D. Prevent thrombus formation
17. Which virus is commonly associated with infective pericarditis?
A. Coxsackievirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Rhinovirus
18. What is the definitive diagnostic tool for myocarditis?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Blood cultures
C. Echocardiogram
D. Endomyocardial biopsy
19. Which symptom distinguishes pericarditis from other inflammatory

heart conditions?
A. Edema in hands and feet
B. Strawberry tongue
C. Pericardial friction rub
D. Polymorphous exanthema
20. What is the primary goal of treating infective endocarditis?

A. Symptomatic relief
B. Preventing thrombus formation
C. Eradicating the underlying infection
D. Normalizing blood pressure
SAS 29
1. During a routine physical examination of a male newborn, the
healthcare provider identifies the urethral opening on the ventral
aspect of the penis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Exstrophy of the bladder
B. Hypospadias
C. Patent urachus
D. Vesicoureteral reflux
2. A neonate presents with clear fluid on the umbilical cord. What

diagnostic test is essential for confirming the suspected diagnosis and
assessing the patency of the connection?
A. X-ray
B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Ultrasound
D. Blood culture
3. Parents bring in their child with a waddling gait and a visible exposed
bladder on the anterior abdominal wall. What condition is likely to be
present?
A. Hypospadias
B. Exstrophy of the bladder
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Patent urachus
4. A male newborn is diagnosed with hypospadias. What should be

avoided during the immediate postnatal period to facilitate future
surgical repair?
A. Routine diaper changes
B. Bathing with soap
C. Circumcision
D. Swaddling
5. A child with a history of exstrophy of the bladder undergoes surgical

closure. What is the primary purpose of the suprapubic tube placed
postoperatively?
A. Facilitate bladder drainage
B. Prevent urinary incontinence
C. Maintain bladder moisture
D. Monitor blood pressure
6. What term refers to the enlargement of the kidney pelvis with urine
due to obstruction, often diagnosed by ultrasound?
A. Hypospadias
B. Vesicoureteral reflux
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Exstrophy of the bladder
7. In the context of urinary abnormalities, what surgical procedure

involves the extension of the urethra to a usual position to improve
urinary function?
A. Meatotomy
B. Bladder neck reconstruction
C. Chordee repair
D. Suprapubic catheterization
8. What congenital anomaly results from a narrow tube connecting the
bladder and umbilicus failing to close during embryonic development?
A. Hypospadias
C. Vesicoureteral reflux
D. Patent urachus
9. Which term describes the condition in which the bladder lies exposed
on the anterior abdominal wall due to a midline closure defect during
embryonic development?
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Patent urachus
10. What is the familial or multifactorial genetic defect that results in a

urethral opening on the ventral aspect of the penis?
A. Epispadias
B. Chordee
C. Hypospadias
11. A newborn is found to have a clear fluid on the umbilical cord during a
diaper change. What diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming
a suspected patent urachus?
A. X-ray
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Blood culture
12. A male infant is born with an exposed bladder on the anterior

abdominal wall. What assessment finding is indicative of this condition?
A. Clear fluid on the umbilical cord
B. Wide pubic diastasis
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Palpable abdominal mass
13. A male newborn is diagnosed with hypospadias during a routine

physical examination. What is a potential complication associated with
severe hypospadias?
A. Skin excoriation
B. Chordee
C. Umbilical hernia
D. Epispadias
14. An infant is diagnosed with hydronephrosis during a routine
ultrasound. What is a common symptom associated with severe back
pressure in hydronephrosis?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Skin excoriation
C. Palpable abdominal mass
D. Elevated blood pressure
15. A child with exstrophy of the bladder has undergone surgical closure.
What is the primary purpose of maintaining the legs in traction at 90
degrees postoperatively?
A. Prevent failure of the closure
B. Improve mobility
C. Enhance blood circulation
D. Minimize pain
16. What term describes a urethral defect in which the urethral opening is
not at the end of the penis but on the ventral (lower) aspect of the
penis?
A. Epispadias
B. Chordee
C. Hypospadias
17. Which procedure involves the surgical reconstruction of the bladder

neck and urethra to achieve continence in children with structural
abnormalities?
A. Meatotomy
B. Bladder neck reconstruction
C. Chordee repair
D. Suprapubic catheterization
18. What is the term for the condition characterized by the exposure of the
bladder on the anterior abdominal wall due to a midline closure defect
during embryonic development?
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Patent urachus
19. In the context of urinary abnormalities, what term refers to the fibrous
band causing the penis to curve downward, often accompanying
hypospadias?
A. Epispadias
B. Chordee
D. Hydronephrosis
20.What congenital anomaly results from the failure of a narrow tube

connecting the bladder and umbilicus to close during embryonic
development?
A. Hypospadias
D. Patent urachus
SAS 30
1. A child with involuntary passage of urine past the expected age for
bladder control is assessed. What is the term for this condition?
A. Cystitis
B. Enuresis
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Pyelonephritis
2. A neonate presents with fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys, detected

through sonogram. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what
treatment option might be considered?
A. Enuresis; Antidiuretic hormone therapy
B. Polycystic kidney; Surgical removal of cystic kidney
C. Prune Belly Syndrome; Muscle transplant procedures
D. Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis; Antibiotic therapy
3. Parents bring in their child with Prune Belly Syndrome. What advice
should the nurse provide to prevent complications related to
abdominal trauma?
A. Encourage the use of baby walkers
B. Apply lap belts tightly to provide abdominal support
C. Teach parents to protect the child's abdomen from trauma
D. Recommend vigorous abdominal exercises for muscle development
4. A child presents with hematuria and a history of recent streptococcal

infection. What condition is suspected, and what diagnostic test may
be useful?
A. Polycystic kidney; Sonogram
B. Nephrotic syndrome; MRI
C. Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis; Blood analysis
D. Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome; Urinalysis
5. A child is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. What intervention is

contraindicated in the therapeutic management of this condition?
A. Administration of corticosteroids
B. Diuretic therapy to reduce edema
C. IV albumin to temporarily correct hypoalbuminemia
D. Kidney transplantation for severe cases
6. What term refers to the involuntary passage of urine past the age when
a child should have attained bladder control?
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Nephrotic Syndrome
C. Enuresis
D. Pyelonephritis
7. In the context of urinary disorders, what congenital anomaly is marked

by large, fluid-filled cysts in place of normal kidney tissue?
A. Prune Belly Syndrome
B. Polycystic Kidney
C. Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome
D. Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
8. What term describes a syndrome characterized by altered glomerular

permeability, resulting in proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and
hyperlipidemia?
A. Enuresis
B. Prune Belly Syndrome
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
D. Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome
9. Which congenital syndrome involves a broad spectrum of severity,

marked by undescended testes, dilated faulty development of the
bladder, and renal dysplasia?
A. Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
B. Prune Belly Syndrome
C. Polycystic Kidney
10. In the context of urinary disorders, what condition involves the lining of
glomerular arterioles becoming inflamed, swollen, and occluded?
A. Enuresis
B. Nephrotic Syndrome
C. Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
11. A child is found to have a palpable mass in the anterior vaginal wall, and
she complains of dysuria and recurrent urinary tract infections. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Urethral stricture
C. Urethral diverticulum
D. Neurogenic bladder dysfunction
12. A middle-aged male presents with difficulty initiating and maintaining

a urine stream, along with a history of urethral trauma. What diagnostic
test is most appropriate for confirming a suspected urethral stricture?
A. Blood culture
B. Uroflowmetry
C. Renal ultrasound
D. Retrograde urethrography
13. A patient with spinal cord injury experiences urinary retention and
incontinence. What therapeutic intervention is commonly used to
manage neurogenic bladder dysfunction?
A. Urethral dilation
B. Nephrectomy
C. Clean intermittent catheterization (CIC)
D. Targeted therapy
14. A middle-aged adult presents with hematuria, flank pain, and a

palpable abdominal mass. What is the primary treatment for suspected
renal cell carcinoma?
A. Clean intermittent catheterization (CIC)
B. Targeted therapy
C. Nephrectomy
D. Uroflowmetry
15. A patient reports chronic pelvic pain, urgency, and frequency.

Cystoscopy reveals chronic inflammatory changes in the bladder wall.
What condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Interstitial cystitis
C. Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
16. What term describes the chronic inflammatory condition of the bladder
wall, leading to pelvic pain and urinary symptoms?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
D. Interstitial cystitis
17. What is the term for the narrowing or blockage at the junction where
the ureter meets the renal pelvis?
A. Neurogenic bladder
B. Urethral diverticulum
D. Urethral stricture
18. Which condition involves the alteration of glomerular permeability,

leading to proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Neurogenic bladder
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Urethral diverticulum
19. What is the term for the outpouching of the urethral wall into the
surrounding tissues, often associated with urinary incontinence and
recurrent UTIs?
A. Urethral stricture
C. Urethral diverticulum
D. Polycystic kidney
20.In the context of urinary elimination, what term refers to the

dysfunction of the bladder due to neurological impairment, such as
spinal cord injury or multiple sclerosis?
A. Urethral diverticulum
C. Urethral stricture
D. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
SAS 31
1. A child presents with symptoms such as anemia, petechiae, and bone
pain. Laboratory studies reveal an elevated leukocyte count with blast
cells, and a bone marrow aspiration is performed. What type of
leukemia is most likely present?
A. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)
B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
D. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with Hodgkin disease. What

characteristic cell type is associated with Hodgkin disease?
A. Lymphoblasts
B. Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Granulocytes
D. Blast cells
3. A 6-year-old child presents with painless, generalized swelling of lymph

nodes and night sweats. What lymphoma is commonly seen in children
of this age group?
A. Hodgkin disease
B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)
D. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
4. A teenager is diagnosed with Hodgkin disease, and the healthcare

team decides to perform a PET-CT scan for staging and monitoring
response to treatment. What is the primary purpose of using PET-CT in
this context?
A. Assessing bone marrow involvement
B. Identifying the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Staging and monitoring response to treatment
D. Detecting blast cells in cerebrospinal fluid
5. A child is diagnosed with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL), and the

healthcare provider initiates a drug regimen including vincristine,
prednisone, L-asparaginase, and doxorubicin. What is the primary
purpose of this drug combination?
A. Inducing remission
B. Preventing metastasis
C. Eradicating blast cells in cerebrospinal fluid
D. Managing bone marrow transplantation
6. What term refers to a new abnormal growth that does not respond to
normal growth-control mechanisms?
A. Neoplasm
B. Metastasis
C. Sarcoma
D. Carcinoma
7. In leukemia, what is the term for a time during which the child is put
into remission or no tumor can be detected by clinical examination?
A. Maintenance phase
B. Induction phase
C. Remission phase
D. Proliferation phase
8. What type of cells are large, multinucleated cells associated with

Hodgkin disease, representing nonfunctioning monocyte-macrophage
cells?
A. Lymphoblasts
B. Granulocytes
C. Blast cells
D. Reed-Sternberg cells
9. What is the term for the stage of therapy aiming to eliminate

completely any remaining leukemic cells?
A. Induction phase
B. Maintenance phase
C. Remission phase
D. Proliferation phase
10. In lymphoma, what is the term for the spread of cancerous cells
through lymphatic channels?
A. Metastasis
B. Invasion
C. Proliferation
D. Hematopoiesis
11. A child presents with painless, generalized swelling of lymph nodes,

night sweats, and anorexia. Which disease process is most likely
indicated by these symptoms?
A. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
B. Polycystic Kidney Disease
C. Hodgkin Disease
D. Enuresis
12. A 5-year-old child is experiencing involuntary passage of urine during

the night. What term is used to describe this condition?
A. Acute Glomerulonephritis
B. Enuresis
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
13. A child is diagnosed with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) and
presents with symptoms such as pallor, low-grade fever, and lethargy.
What laboratory finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Elevated leukocyte count
B. Increased thrombocyte count
C. Low platelet count
D. Normocytic and normochromic RBCs
14. A teenager is diagnosed with Hodgkin disease, and the healthcare

provider orders a biopsy of the affected lymph nodes. What type of cells
will the biopsy most likely reveal?
A. Lymphoblasts
B. Blast cells
C. Reed-Sternberg cells
D. Granulocytes
15. A child is diagnosed with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, and the healthcare

team decides to initiate systemic chemotherapy. Which drugs are
commonly used in the chemotherapy regimen for Non-Hodgkin
Lymphoma?
A. Vincristine, prednisone, L-asparaginase, and doxorubicin
B. Cytarabine, etoposide, and daunorubicin
C. Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, procarbazine, and prednisone
D. Methotrexate and cytarabine
16. What term refers to the large, fluid-filled cysts formed in place of
normal kidney tissue, which is most frequently inherited as an
autosomal recessive trait?
B. Polycystic Kidney Disease
C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
D. Prune Belly Syndrome
17. What is the term for the surgical removal of a diseased kidney, which is
the treatment for polycystic formation if only one kidney is cystic?
A. Renal transplantation
B. Bladder-stretching exercises
C. Ultrasound
D. Nephrectomy
18. What term refers to the inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney,
usually occurring in children as an immune complex disease after
infection with nephritogenic streptococci?
B. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
C. Polycystic Kidney Disease
D. Prune Belly Syndrome
19. In leukemia, what is the term for the elevated leukocyte count with cells
almost stopped at the blast cell stage?
A. Blast crisis
B. Blast cells
C. Hematopoiesis
D. Leukocytosis
20.What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells through lymphatic

channels?
A. Metastasis
B. Invasion
C. Proliferation
D. Hematopoiesis
SAS 32
1. A 7-year-old child presents with an enlarging head circumference,
lethargy, and vomiting. The healthcare provider suspects a brain tumor.
What symptom indicates late signs of increased intracranial pressure?
A. Headache
B. Vision changes
C. Projectile vomiting
D. Papilledema
2. A child with a brain tumor exhibits nystagmus and visual field defects.
What type of tumor is most likely causing these symptoms?
A. Astrocytoma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Brainstem glioma
D. Osteogenic sarcoma
3. A teenager is diagnosed with osteosarcoma, and the healthcare team

plans to administer chemotherapy to shrink the tumor before surgery.
What is the purpose of this approach?
A. To relieve pain
B. To prevent metastasis
C. To facilitate limb salvage
D. To induce remission
4. A child with osteosarcoma is prescribed methotrexate, cisplatin,
doxorubicin, and ifosfamide as part of the chemotherapy regimen.
What is the primary goal of using these drugs?
A. Inducing remission
B. Preventing metastasis
C. Shrinkage of the tumor
D. Relieving pain
5. A child is suspected of having a brain tumor, and a lumbar puncture is

recommended. Why should the healthcare team approach the lumbar
puncture cautiously?
A. To avoid pain
B. To prevent herniation
C. To ensure proper CSF drainage
D. To reduce intracranial pressure
6. What term refers to a fast-growing tumor commonly found in the

cerebellum, causing fourth-ventricle compression and disturbances in
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow?
A. Astrocytoma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Glioblastoma
D. Ependymoma
7. What is the term for the surgical removal of a tumor while preserving
the affected limb, often performed in osteosarcoma treatment?
A. Amputation
B. Resection
C. Limb salvage
D. Chemotherapy
8. In brain tumors, what is the term for constant horizontal movement of

the eyes, often observed in advanced stages?
A. Papilledema
B. Nystagmus
C. Ptosis
D. Diplopia
9. What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to distant organs or

tissues from the primary site?
A. Metastasis
B. Invasion
C. Proliferation
D. Hematopoiesis
10. In osteosarcoma, what is the term for the replacement of the removed
bone by cadaver or man-made prosthesis?
A. Nephrectomy
B. Ommaya reservoir
C. Limb salvage
D. Amputation
11. A child presents with symptoms of increased intracranial pressure,

including headache, vomiting, and vision changes. The healthcare
provider suspects a brain tumor. Which type of brain tumor, often
slow-growing and cystic, is commonly found in children and arises from
the glial tissue?
A. Medulloblastoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Osteogenic Sarcoma
D. Ewing Sarcoma
12. A 12-year-old boy complains of persistent pain and swelling in the distal
femur, which has worsened over time. The healthcare team suspects a
bone tumor. What is the most common type of malignant bone tumor
involving rapidly growing bone tissue?
A. Ewing Sarcoma
B. Osteogenic Sarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Osteoma
13. A child is diagnosed with a medulloblastoma, and the healthcare

provider notes fourth-ventricle compression. What is the characteristic
feature of medulloblastomas, often found in the cerebellum?
A. Rapid metastasis to the lungs
B. Slow growth and cystic formation
C. Compression of the fourth ventricle
D. Localized pain and swelling
14. A teenager is suspected of having a brainstem glioma, presenting with

paralysis of multiple cranial nerves. Which cranial nerves are commonly
affected by brainstem gliomas?
A. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th
B. 5th, 6th, 7th, 9th, 10th
C. 8th, 11th, 12th
D. 1st, 2nd, 8th, 10th
15. A child diagnosed with osteogenic sarcoma experiences localized pain
and swelling in the distal femur. What is a common characteristic of the
tumor that contributes to these symptoms?
A. Slow growth and cystic formation
B. Locoregional pain and swelling
C. Compression of the fourth ventricle
D. Metastasis to the lungs
16. What term refers to the inflammation of the glial or support tissue
surrounding neural cells, leading to slow-growing and cystic brain
tumors?
A. Osteogenic Sarcoma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Astrocytoma
D. Ewing Sarcoma
17. What is the term for the procedure where chemotherapy drugs are
administered directly into the ventricular system via a reservoir,
enhancing drug effectiveness in the treatment of brain tumors?
A. Myelography
B. Cerebral Angiography
C. Lumbar Puncture
D. Ommaya Reservoir
18. In bone tumors, what is the term for the removal of a portion of the
bone, often replaced by a cadaver or man-made prosthesis, in an
attempt to save the limb?
A. Amputation
B. Resection
C. Limb Salvage
D. Fusion
19. What term refers to the malignant tumor of long bone involving rapidly
growing bone tissue, often associated with locoregional pain and
swelling?
A. Osteoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Osteogenic Sarcoma
D. Ewing Sarcoma
20.In brain tumors, what is the term for the procedure done cautiously due
to the risk of brainstem herniation into the spinal cord, potentially
interfering with respiratory and cardiac function?
A. Myelography
B. Lumbar Puncture
C. Ultrasound
D. Cerebral Angiography
SAS 33
1. What is the emergency treatment for VOLVULUS WITH MALROTATION?
A. Immediate antibiotics
B. Non-urgent surgical intervention
C. Observation and reassurance
D. Administering oral medications
2. How is SHORT BOWEL/SHORT-GUT SYNDROME primarily managed?

A. Strict bed rest
B. Total parenteral nutrition
C. Aggressive antibiotic therapy
D. High-fiber diet
3. What is the hallmark symptom of APPENDICITIS?

A. Left lower quadrant pain
B. Nausea unrelated to meals
C. Burning sensation during urination
D. Pain or tenderness in the right lower quadrant
4. In the case of a RUPTURED APPENDIX, what is the immediate nursing

priority?
A. Administering pain medication
B. Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position
C. Initiating enteral feedings
D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
5. How is CELIAC DISEASE diagnosed?

A. Blood glucose level testing
B. Genetic testing
C. Serum analysis of antibodies against gluten
D. Urinalysis
6. What is the primary THERAPEUTIC MANAGEMENT for CELIAC

DISEASE?
A. Long-term antibiotic therapy
B. Gluten-free diet for life
C. Corticosteroid administration
D. Surgical resection of affected tissue
7. What VITAMIN DEFICIENCY is associated with night blindness?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D
8. Which disorder results from a deficiency of Vitamin B1?

A. Pellagra
B. Beriberi
C. Rickets
D. Scurvy
9. In SHORT BOWEL/SHORT-GUT SYNDROME, what is the initial

treatment modality?
A. High-fiber diet
B. Total parenteral nutrition
C. Bed rest
D. Surgical resection
10. What is the primary cause of Xerophthalmia?

A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Vitamin B1 deficiency
D. Vitamin A deficiency
11. Which procedure confirms the diagnosis of VOLVULUS WITH

MALROTATION?
A. Blood culture
B. Lumbar puncture
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Electrocardiogram
12. What is the immediate action in the THERAPEUTIC MANAGEMENT of

RUPTURED APPENDIX?
A. Administering pain medication
B. Initiating enteral feedings
C. Positioning the child in a semi-Fowler's position
D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
13. What is the primary cause of PELLAGRA?

A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Vitamin B1 deficiency
D. Niacin deficiency
14. What is the key symptom of RICKETS?
A. Muscle tenderness
B. Tetany
C. Bowing of legs
D. Poor muscle tone
15. What is the common age group affected by APPENDICITIS?

A. Infants
B. Toddlers
C. School-age children and adolescents
D. Young adults
16. How is the diagnosis of CELIAC DISEASE confirmed?

A. Genetic testing
B. Blood glucose level testing
C. Serum analysis of antibodies against gluten
D. Urinalysis
17. What is the primary symptom of VITAMIN C deficiency?

A. Muscle tenderness
B. Night blindness
C. Scurvy
D. Poor bone formation
18. What is the characteristic feature of VITAMIN D deficiency in children?

A. Xerophthalmia
B. Craniotabes (softening of the skull)
C. Beriberi
D. Aphonia
19. What does an elevated white blood cell count suggest in

APPENDICITIS?
A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Allergic reaction
D. Autoimmune disorder
20.What is the primary ASSESSMENT finding in VOLVULUS WITH

MALROTATION?
A. Joint swelling
B. Night blindness
C. Intense crying and pain
D. Dry and lusterless conjunctivae
SAS 34
1. What are the substances most frequently ingested in children 5 years and
younger, leading to poisoning?
A. Insecticides
B. Prescription medications
C. Household cleaning products
D. None of the above
2. How should parents induce vomiting in a child as advised by the poison

control center?
A. Administer mustard or salty water
B. Place a finger at the back of the child's throat
C. Use a spoon to trigger the gag reflex
D. Administer ipecac syrup
3. What is the recommended emergency management for poisoning in the

health care facility?
A. Administer ipecac syrup
B. Activated charcoal orally or via NG tube
C. Induce vomiting using mustard
D. Provide antivenom
4. Which medication is commonly ingested by children and may lead to

poisoning?
A. Antibiotics
B. Acetaminophen
C. Antihistamines
D. Antipsychotics
5. What is the purpose of intraventricular catheters in monitoring intracranial

pressure?
A. Drain excess cerebrospinal fluid
B. Administer medication directly to the brain
C. Monitor blood pressure
D. Measure and monitor intracranial pressure
6. What action should parents take if a child ingests an unknown substance,

and the name of a medicine is not known?
A. Wait for symptoms to appear

B. Immediately induce vomiting
C. Provide a detailed description to the poison control center
D. Administer ipecac syrup
7. Why is activated charcoal administered in cases of poisoning?
A. To induce vomiting
B. To neutralize the poison
C. To accelerate absorption of the poison
D. To prevent the absorption of the poison
8. What symptom may indicate Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) in a

child?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Diplopia (double vision)
D. Hyperactivity
9. When does ICP monitoring become necessary in children?

A. Only in cases of head trauma
B. When ICP exceeds 15 mmHg
C. During routine health check-ups
D. Only if neurological symptoms are present
10. How does an osmotic diuretic, such as mannitol, contribute to reducing

Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
A. By increasing cerebral edema
B. By causing vasoconstriction in the brain
C. By shifting fluid from brain tissue into blood vessels
D. By promoting fluid retention in the brain
11. What is the recommended action if a child has ingested a poisonous

substance and the poison control center advises inducing vomiting?
A. Administer ipecac syrup
B. Wait for symptoms to appear
C. Seek immediate medical attention
D. Provide the child with water to drink
12. In the Emergency Management of Poisoning at home, why is it important

for parents to check for pills under furniture if the poison was in pill form?
A. To determine the child's adherence to medication
B. To avoid accidental ingestion by other family members
C. To assess the effectiveness of the poison control center's advice
D. To calculate the exact amount of poison ingested
13. What is the purpose of administering activated charcoal in cases of

poisoning at the health care facility?
A. To induce vomiting
B. To neutralize the poison
C. To hasten absorption of the poison
D. To prevent further absorption of the poison
14. What neurological symptom may be indicative of Increased Intracranial

Pressure (ICP)?
A. Hyperactivity
B. Seizures
C. Diplopia (double vision)
D. Increased appetite
15. What can parents expect to observe in the child's stool after the
administration of activated charcoal?
A. Bright red blood
B. Black color
C. Greenish tint
D. Watery consistency
16. When is a ventricular tap considered as a therapeutic option for reducing

Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
A. In cases of neurological infections
B. When ICP exceeds 20 mmHg
C. If cerebral edema is present
D. As a routine preventive measure
17. What is the primary goal when administering an osmotic diuretic, such as
mannitol, in the management of Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
A. Promoting fluid retention in the brain
B. Inducing vasoconstriction in cerebral vessels
C. Shifting fluid from brain tissue into blood vessels
D. Enhancing cerebral edema
18. In assessing for Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP), what vital sign
changes may be observed?
A. Elevated temperature and blood pressure; decreased pulse and respiration
rates
B. Decreased temperature and blood pressure; increased pulse and
respiration rates
C. Elevated temperature, pulse, and respiration rates
D. Decreased temperature, pulse, and respiration rates
19. Why is intracranial pressure monitoring important in children with

suspected increased ICP?
A. To assess the child's overall neurological function
B. To detect changes in blood pressure
C. To prevent the occurrence of diplopia
D. To identify problems early and reduce the risk of complications
20. What is the significance of a child exhibiting decorticate or decerebrate

posturing in the context of Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
A. Indicative of a normal neurological response
B. Sign of optimal cerebral functioning
C. Suggestive of potential brainstem dysfunction
D. Common in children with elevated appetite
SAS 35
1. A child presents with a congenital port-wine birthmark on the upper part of
the face following the distribution of the first division of the fifth cranial nerve.
What neurocutaneous syndrome is most likely associated with this
presentation?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Cerebral Palsy
C. Reye Syndrome
D. Sturge-Weber Syndrome
2. What is a characteristic finding in a CT scan or MRI of the skull in a child

with Sturge-Weber Syndrome?
A. Calcification of the cerebral cortex with a "railroad track" pattern
B. Fatty infiltration of the liver, heart, and lungs
C. Abnormal involuntary movements indicative of athetoid type
D. Elevated leukocyte count in the cerebrospinal fluid
3. In neurofibromatosis, what is a common manifestation involving the skin?

A. Café-au-lait spots following cutaneous nerve paths
B. Hemiparesis and intractable seizures
C. Scissors gait due to tight adductor thigh muscles
D. Increased head circumference and bulging fontanelle
4. What neurological symptom may be indicative of neurofibromatosis,

specifically involving the optic nerve?
A. Decreased voltage in the affected areas on EEG
B. Limp and flaccid appearance with slow, writhing motions
C. Hearing impairment due to involvement of the acoustic nerve
D. Vision loss due to optic nerve involvement
5. What type of neurological involvement is characterized by hypertonic

muscles, abnormal clonus, and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, as seen in
cerebral palsy?
A. Spastic Type
B. Dyskinetic or Athetoid Type
C. Ataxic Type
D. Mixed Type
6. In cerebral palsy, what is a common gait difficulty associated with severe

tightening of the heel cord?
A. Limp and flaccid appearance with slow, writhing motions
B. Scissors gait due to tight adductor thigh muscles
C. Wide-based gait with poor coordination
D. Inability to perform fine coordinated motions
7. What is a characteristic feature of dyskinetic or athetoid type cerebral

palsy?
A. Difficulty in performing fine coordinated motions
B. Inability to stretch the heel to touch the ground
C. Irregular and jerking involuntary movements
D. Severe muscle spasticity with hypertonic muscles
8. Which situation may contribute to the development of encephalitis in a

child?
A. Mechanical ventilation
B. Lumbar puncture
C. Treatment with acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
D. Surgical removal of skin lesions
9. What syndrome can arise after a viral infection, such as varicella or

influenza, and is often associated with the use of aspirin during treatment?
A. Sturge-Weber Syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Cerebral Palsy
D. Reye Syndrome
10. What supportive treatment is recommended for Reye Syndrome?

A. Antiviral agents
B. Mechanical ventilation
C. Surgical removal of skin lesions
D. Antipyretics to control fever
11. What is the characteristic birthmark seen in Sturge-Weber Syndrome, and

where does it typically appear?
A. Café-au-lait spots on the trunk
B. Mongolian spots on the buttocks
C. Port-wine birthmark on the upper part of the face
D. Strawberry hemangioma on the limbs
12. Which type of neurofibromatosis is associated with the development of

subcutaneous tumors along nerve pathways?
A. Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)
B. Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NF2)
C. Mixed Neurofibromatosis
D. Dyskinetic Neurofibromatosis
13. What is a characteristic feature of the spastic type of cerebral palsy?

A. Limp and flaccid appearance
B. Athetoid movements
C. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
D. Ataxic gait
14. How do children with the dyskinetic or athetoid type of cerebral palsy
typically present under emotional stress?
A. Excessive drooling
B. Irregular and jerking movements
C. Toe-walking
D. Hypertonic muscles
15. What is a common sensory alteration observed in children with cerebral

palsy?
A. Normal visual perception
B. Absence of strabismus
C. Hearing impairment
D. Taste disturbances
16. What is a key factor in the diagnosis of encephalitis?

A. History and physical assessment
B. Blood glucose level
C. Lumbar puncture findings
D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
17. Which virus is commonly associated with Reye Syndrome when aspirin is
used during viral infections?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Influenza virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus
18. What is the primary purpose of antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, in

the treatment of encephalitis?
A. Control fever
B. Decrease brain edema
C. Inhibit viral replication
D. Induce vomiting
19. What symptom may indicate involvement of the meninges in

encephalitis?
A. Lethargy
B. Ataxia
C. Nuchal rigidity
D. Muscle weakness
20. What is the primary cause of Reye Syndrome, and how can it be
prevented?
B. Genetic mutation
C. Aspirin use during viral infections
D. Exposure to environmental toxins
SAS 36
1. What is the primary therapeutic approach for febrile seizures in children?
A. Immediate administration of antibiotics
B. Antipyretic drug therapy
C. Intravenous benzodiazepines
D. Mechanical ventilation
2. Which drug may be used to treat absence seizures in children?

A. Diazepam (Valium)
B. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
D. Phenobarbital
3. What is a characteristic feature of the tonic-clonic seizure stage?

A. Loss of consciousness
B. Jerky and rapid muscle contractions
C. Clonic contractions of chest muscles
D. Postictal sleepiness
4. What is the duration of the typical tonic-clonic seizure stage in children?

A. 5 to 10 seconds
B. 15 to 20 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 30 to 40 seconds
5. Which emergency situation requires immediate treatment to prevent
respiratory failure or brain injury in children with epilepsy?
A. Febrile seizures
B. Complex partial seizures
C. Absence seizures
D. Status epilepticus
6. What is the primary treatment approach for status epilepticus in children?

A. Intravenous benzodiazepines
B. Oral antipyretic drugs
C. Long-acting benzodiazepines
D. Mechanical ventilation
7. Which antiseizure medication is commonly used in the therapy for

tonic-clonic seizures in children?
A. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
B. Diazepam (Valium)
C. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
D. Prednisone
8. What characterizes the postictal stage of a tonic-clonic seizure in children?

A. Immediate regaining of consciousness
B. Sleepiness for 1 to 4 hours
C. Rapid and rhythmic muscle contractions
D. Awareness of the surroundings
9. What is the primary consideration for parents managing febrile seizures at

home?
A. Immediate hospitalization
B. Administration of cold water baths
C. Prompt oral administration of acetaminophen
D. Avoiding hazardous situations during the seizure
10. Which type of seizure is often associated with an aura or prodromal period
immediately before the seizure?
A. Tonic-clonic seizure
B. Absence seizure
C. Complex partial seizure
D. Febrile seizure
11. What is the primary characteristic of absence seizures in children?

A. Generalized tonic-clonic movements
B. Jerky and rapid muscle contractions
C. Staring spell with rhythmic blinking and twitching
D. Loss of consciousness and postictal sleepiness
12. What age group is most commonly affected by infantile spasms or salaam
seizures?
A. Neonates
B. Toddlers
C. Preschool children
D. Adolescents
13. Which hormone is used in the therapy for infantile spasms?

A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D. Insulin
14. What is the significance of a positive Babinski reflex in a child with spastic
cerebral palsy?
A. Indicates normal neurologic function
B. Suggests absence of upper motor neuron impairment
C. Points to normal lower extremity muscle tone
D. Reflects upper motor neuron dysfunction
15. What type of cerebral palsy involves excessive muscle tone, abnormal
clonus, and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes?
A. Spastic type
B. Dyskinetic or athetoid type
C. Ataxic type
D. Mixed type
16. What is a common feature of dyskinetic or athetoid type cerebral palsy?

A. Hypertonic muscles
B. Abnormal clonus
C. Slow, writhing movements
D. Tendency to walk on toes
17. What imaging technique is typically used to demonstrate calcification of

the involved cerebral cortex in Sturge-Weber syndrome?
A. X-ray
B. Ultrasound
C. Computed tomography (CT) scan
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
18. Which neurocutaneous syndrome is characterized by the presence of
café-au-lait spots and subcutaneous tumors along nerve pathways?
A. Sturge-Weber syndrome
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Reye syndrome
D. Encephalitis
19. What is the primary therapeutic approach for neurofibromatosis when

acoustic or optic degeneration is present?
A. Surgical removal of skin lesions
B. Antiviral therapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Surgical removal of tumors
20. What is the primary therapeutic approach for Reye syndrome?

A. Antiviral therapy
B. Supportive treatment
C. Surgical intervention
D. Antibiotic therapy
SAS 37
1. What is the characteristic feature of hyperopia (farsightedness)?
a. Blurry vision at a close range
b. Blurry vision at a far range
c. Clear vision at a close range
d. Clear vision at any range
2. At what age does normal hyperopia of preschoolers typically begin to

diminish?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
3. What is the recommended management for a school-age child with

hyperopia?
a. Patching therapy
b. Referral for glasses with a convex lens
c. LASIK surgery
d. Artificial tear instillation
4. Myopia is a condition where:

a. Light rays focus behind the retina
b. Light rays focus on the retina
c. Light rays focus anterior to the retina
d. Light rays scatter in the eye
5. What is a common symptom of astigmatism?

a. Headaches and dizziness
b. Blurry vision at a far range
c. Difficulty reading signs up close
d. Rapid, irregular eye movement
6. What is the primary cause of nystagmus?

a. Refractive errors
b. Congenital cataracts
c. Lesions in the cerebellum or brain stem
d. Color vision deficit
7. Amblyopia is commonly referred to as:

a. Farsightedness
b. Nearsightedness
c. Lazy eye
d. Double vision
8. What is the suggested age range for LASIK therapy, excluding cases of
amblyopia or strabismus?
a. Before 5 years old
b. 10 to 15 years old
c. After 21 years old
d. 16 to 20 years old
9. Color blindness is characterized by:

a. Inability to perceive color correctly
b. Inability to see any colors
c. Inability to distinguish red from green
d. All of the above
10. Ptosis is the inability to:

a. Raise the upper eyelid
b. Move the eye laterally
c. Blink the eyes
d. Focus on close objects
11. What is the potential consequence of not correcting ptosis in a timely

manner?
a. Amblyopia
b. Double vision
c. Color blindness
d. Nystagmus
12. Strabismus is characterized by:

a. Equally aligned eyes
b. Unequally aligned eyes (cross-eyes)
c. Excessive tearing
d. Dry eyes
13. What is the primary cause of paralytic strabismus?

a. Refractive errors
b. Birth injury or invading lesion
c. Color vision deficit
d. Astigmatism
14. What is the primary goal of patching therapy in the management of

amblyopia?
a. Strengthening eye muscles
b. Preventing color blindness
c. Developing vision in the weaker eye
d. Enhancing depth perception
15. Which refractive error may require concave lenses for correction?
a. Hyperopia
b. Myopia
c. Astigmatism
d. Nystagmus
16. LASIK and PRK are surgical procedures used for the correction of:
a. Amblyopia
b. Ptosis
c. Refractive vision errors
d. Nystagmus
17. What is the recommended age range for LASIK surgery to be appropriate?
a. Before 10 years old
b. After 21 years old
c. Between 15 to 20 years old
d. Between 5 to 10 years old
18. Contact lenses may be more helpful than glasses in correcting:

a. Hyperopia
b. Astigmatism
c. Nystagmus
d. Myopia
19. What is the primary cause of color vision deficit?

a. Genetic mutation
b. Traumatic injury
c. Congenital cataracts
d. LASIK surgery
20.How can structural problems of the eye be classified?

a. Acquired or congenital
b. Refractive or non-refractive
c. External or internal
d. Hyperopic or myopic
SAS 38
1. How should foreign bodies such as sand or dirt on the conjunctiva be
managed?
a. Surgical removal
b. Application of antibiotic ointment
c. Irrigation with sterile saline or gentle wiping
d. Laser surgery correction
2. What is the primary goal of applying an ice pack to the eye in contusion
injuries?
a. Preventing color blindness
b. Minimizing swelling
c. Enhancing depth perception
d. Strengthening eye muscles
3. Which condition may result if sympathetic ophthalmia occurs after a

penetrating eye injury?
a. Amblyopia
b. Color blindness
c. Double vision
d. Vision loss in the opposite eye
4. What complication can result from a deep laceration of the eyelid?

a. Amblyopia
b. Ptosis
c. Color blindness
d. Nystagmus
5. What is the primary assessment finding in a child with cataracts?

a. Excessive tearing
b. Tense and hazy cornea
c. Blurred vision
d. Lack of response to a smile
6. How is eye pressure measured in a child with congenital glaucoma?

a. Direct observation of eye movements
b. Tonometer
c. Ophthalmoscope
d. Fluorescein stain
7. What is the primary treatment for childhood cataract?

a. Eye drops for inflammation
b. Optical glasses
c. Surgical removal of the cloudy lens
d. Antibiotic ointment
8. Which drug may be temporarily used to reduce eye pressure in congenital

glaucoma before surgery?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Atropine sulfate
c. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
d. Ibuprofen
9. What should be avoided before surgery in a child with congenital

glaucoma?
a. Eye patching
b. Dilating the pupil
c. Antibiotic ointment
d. Warm compresses
10. Why should parents be cautious about allowing an infant to cry after eye
surgery?
a. It may increase intraocular pressure (IOP).
b. It promotes better healing.
c. It prevents corneal abrasions.
d. It minimizes swelling.
11. What is the purpose of surgical procedures such as trabeculotomy and

goniotomy in congenital glaucoma?
a. To correct color vision deficit
b. To suppress the formation of aqueous humor
c. To create shunts for fluid drainage from the eye
d. To improve depth perception
SAS 39
1. What is another name for external otitis?
a. Otitis media
b. Swimmer's ear
c. Impacted cerumen
d. Otomycosis
2. Which organisms are frequently involved in external otitis?

a. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus
b. Pseudomonas and Candida
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Moraxella catarrhalis
3. What is the primary function of cerumen (earwax) in the external ear canal?
a. Enhancing hearing acuity
b. Providing moisture to the ear canal
c. Cleansing the external ear canal
d. Preventing fungal infections
4. Why should the routine removal of cerumen be avoided?

a. It promotes fungal infections.
b. It may lead to impacted cerumen.
c. It causes hearing loss.
d. It increases the risk of otitis media.
5. What is the primary goal of therapeutic management in external otitis?

a. Reducing inflammation
b. Preventing fungal infections
c. Restoring hearing acuity
d. Eliminating cerumen
6. What is the common name for impacted cerumen?

a. Swimmer's ear
b. Earwax blockage
c. Otitis media
d. Otomycosis
7. What is the primary cause of acute otitis media?

a. Bacterial infection
b. Allergic reaction
c. Viral infection
d. Fungal infection
8. What is the characteristic symptom of acute otitis media?

a. Hearing loss
b. Severe itching
c. Ear pain
d. Ringing in the ears
9. How can the presence of otitis media be suggested during a Weber test?
a. Vibrations are louder in the affected ear.
b. Vibrations are softer in the affected ear.
c. The child experiences vertigo.
d. There is no change in vibrations.
10. What is a potential complication of otitis media with effusion?

a. Tympanic membrane perforation
b. Sensorineural hearing loss
c. Otitis externa
d. Enlarged adenoids
11. Which term is used to describe the thick and tenacious fluid in otitis media
with effusion?
a. Mucus
b. Pus
c. Serum
d. Glue-like fluid
12. What is a common symptom experienced by a child with otitis media with
effusion?
a. Fever
b. Otalgia (ear pain)
c. Itching in the ear canal
d. Tinnitus
13. In otitis media with effusion, what change may be observed in the
appearance of the tympanic membrane?
a. Retraction of the eardrum
b. Eardrum becomes red and swollen
c. Thickening of the eardrum
d. Displacement of the malleus
14. What is the age group most commonly affected by otitis media with
effusion?
a. Infants
b. Preschoolers
c. School-age children
d. Adolescents
15. How does tympanocentesis differ from tubal myringotomy?
a. Tympanocentesis involves the removal of adenoids.
b. Tubal myringotomy is a surgical procedure involving the eardrum.
c. Tympanocentesis is performed to insert tubes through the tympanic
membrane.
d. Tubal myringotomy is a needle insertion through the tympanic membrane.
16. What is the purpose of tympanostomy tubes?

a. To remove fluid from the middle ear
b. To promote bacterial colonization in the ear
c. To deliver medications directly to the ear canal
d. To provide a source of air to the middle ear
17. Why should children with tympanostomy tubes avoid allowing water to
enter their ears?
a. To prevent earwax blockage
b. To avoid fungal infections
c. To prevent middle ear infections
d. To protect the tubes from dislodgment
18. What is the recommended precaution for children with tympanostomy

tubes during bathing or swimming?
a. Use ear plugs or wear a shower cap.
b. Avoid water exposure entirely.
c. Clean the ears with cotton-tipped applicators.
d. Apply antibiotic ointment to the ear canal.
19. What is the primary goal of antihistamine or decongestant therapy for

otitis media with effusion?
a. Eliminate the glue-like fluid
b. Relieve ear pain
c. Shrink the mucous membrane of the eustachian tube
d. Prevent bacterial infections
20. What is the significance of providing a smoke-free home environment for

children with otitis media?
a. It prevents the occurrence of otitis media.
b. It reduces the risk of sensorineural hearing loss.
c. It minimizes the incidence of allergic reactions.
d. It helps prevent further episodes of otitis media.
SAS 40
1. What are the two criteria commonly used to define intellectual disability?
a. Social functioning and academic skills
b. Intellectual functioning and adaptive functioning
c. Motor skills and conceptual skills
d. Emotional regulation and practical skills
2.Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome are examples of intellectual

disability caused by:
a. Head trauma
b. Chromosomal abnormalities
c. Infection in utero
d. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
3. In the classification of intellectual disability, what IQ range characterizes

children with mild intellectual disability?
a. 20-34
b. 35-49
c. 50-70
d. Below 20
4. What percentage of children with intellectual disability falls into the

category of severe intellectual disability?
a. Less than 1%
b. About 4%
c. About 10%
d. About 85%
5. What is a common characteristic of children with mild intellectual disability

in the social domain?
a. Advanced social maturity
b. Limited understanding of risk
c. Excellent affect regulation
d. Independence in complex daily living tasks
6. Which intellectual disability classification represents children with an IQ

range between 35 and 49?
a. Mild intellectual disability
b. Moderate intellectual disability
c. Severe intellectual disability
d. Profound intellectual disability
7. Children with severe intellectual disability typically have an IQ range:

a. 50-70
b. 35-49
c. 20-34
d. Below 20
8. Why is early assessment for children with suspected intellectual disability

crucial?
a. To predict academic success
b. To initiate early intervention and support
c. To determine the cause of the disability
d. To identify genetic factors
9. What is the primary goal of encouraging parents to seek early intervention

for a child with intellectual disability?
a. To overrate the child's potential
b. To establish a genetic diagnosis
c. To support realistic expectations and identify resources
d. To delay the initiation of therapeutic measures
10. Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is characterized by difficulties in which

three main areas?
a. Cognitive skills, motor skills, and language development
b. Social deficits, communication issues, and restricted behaviors
c. Emotional regulation, adaptive functioning, and academic skills
d. Sensory perception, motor coordination, and executive functioning
SAS 41
1. Situation: A 7-year-old child is consistently fidgety, has difficulty focusing on
tasks, and frequently interrupts others during classroom activities. The
teacher notices a pattern of impulsive behavior. What condition is most likely
present?
a) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
b) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
c) Conduct Disorder (CD)
d) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
2. Situation: A teenager presents with restlessness, impulsivity, and a history of

difficulty completing homework assignments due to an inability to sustain
attention. Which medication is commonly prescribed as a first-line treatment
for this condition?
a) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
b) Atomoxetine (Strattera)
c) Methylphenidate
d) Propranolol (Inderal)
3. Situation: A child is observed demonstrating aggression toward both
people and animals, destroying property, and engaging in deceitful behavior.
What disorder is characterized by persistent antisocial acts involving
violations of personal rights or societal rules?
a) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
b) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
4. Situation: A 10-year-old child is consistently irritable, defiant, and displays

vindictive behavior towards authority figures. The disturbances in behavior
result in academic and social dysfunction. What disorder is most likely
present?
b) Conduct Disorder (CD)
c) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
5. Situation: A child with ADHD is prescribed a medication that stimulates

dopamine receptors, resulting in increased attention span. Which class of
medication is most likely prescribed for this purpose?
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Antidepressants
c) Stimulants
d) Antipsychotics
6. A persistent pattern of inattentive or impulsive symptoms, or both, present

before the age of 12 years, causing impairment in at least two settings. What
is this condition?
b) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
c) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
d) Conduct Disorder (CD)
7. A pattern of irritability, defiant behaviors, and vindictiveness resulting in

disturbed functioning in academic and social domains. What is this
condition?
Answer: c) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
8. A disorder characterized by a lack of empathy and guilt, involving violations
of age-appropriate social norms and rights. What is this condition?
Answer: d) Conduct Disorder (CD)
9. An evidence-based treatment program focusing on modifying the home

environment, educating the child and parent in social skills, anger
management, and problem-solving. What is this program?
a) Parental punishment
b) Collaborative Problem Solving
c) Medication management
d) Isolation therapy
Answer: b) Collaborative Problem Solving
10. Medication often prescribed for individuals with ADHD, stimulating

dopamine receptors to enhance regular nerve transmission and increase
attention span. What class of medication is this?
a) Antipsychotics
b) Antidepressants
c) Stimulants
d) Anxiolytics
11. A 5-year-old child exhibits a persistent pattern of inattentiveness,

hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is causing impairment in various settings.
Which developmental milestone is crucial to consider when assessing for
ADHD?
a) First steps
b) First words
c) Potty training
d) Beginning school
12. A teenager with ODD displays anger directed primarily at authority figures.
What evidence-based treatment program may be beneficial for this
individual?
a) Medication only
c) Family isolation
d) Cognitive-behavioral therapy only
13. A child diagnosed with Conduct Disorder (CD) exhibits aggression toward
people and animals, deceitfulness, and serious violations of family and
community rules. What is an appropriate long-term therapeutic approach for
this child?
a) Parental isolation
b) Medication only
c) Social skills training and anger management
d) Residential care
14. A child with ADHD is prescribed a stimulant medication that acts on

dopamine receptors. What is the primary mechanism of action for these
medications?
a) Inhibiting serotonin reuptake
b) Enhancing dopamine transmission
c) Blocking norepinephrine receptors
d) Reducing acetylcholine release
15. A 14-year-old with ODD consistently argues with parents, refuses to follow
rules, and demonstrates vindictiveness. What psychosocial intervention may
be effective in managing this behavior?
a) Collaborative Problem Solving
b) Medication only
c) Isolation
d) Parental punishment
16. A nonstimulant medication commonly used as a first-line treatment for

children with ADHD who cannot tolerate stimulants. It comes with a "black
box" warning about an increased risk of suicidal ideation. What is this
medication?
a) Methylphenidate
b) Amphetamine
c) Atomoxetine
d) Guanfacine
17. An evidence-based treatment program for teens with Oppositional Defiant

Disorder (ODD) that helps them learn new tools and skills to positively
influence their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. What is this program?
a) Parent Management Training
b) Creating Opportunities for Personal Empowerment (COPE)
c) Collaborative Problem Solving
d) Triple P
18. A pattern of persistent antisocial acts involving violations of personal rights

or societal rules, such as disobedience, stealing, and early sexual behavior.
What is this condition?
d) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
19. An environmental modification crucial for children with ADHD, aiming to

construct a stable learning environment free from distractions. What is this
therapeutic management approach?
a) Medication management
b) Family support
c) Collaborative Problem Solving
d) Environmental modification
20. A duty of healthcare providers, including nurses, to warn an identified

target if a patient with Conduct Disorder (CD) expresses a desire to harm
another person. What is this duty called?
a) Duty of confidentiality
b) Duty of protection
c) Duty of empathy
d) Duty of restraint
SAS 42
1. A child consistently exhibits worry, restlessness, and muscle tension across
various aspects of daily life, impacting functioning. This condition is persistent
for at least six months. What anxiety disorder is most likely present?
a) Specific phobia
b) Panic disorder
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
d) Separation anxiety disorder
2. A child has recurrent, unexpected panic attacks, including feelings of

intense fear and discomfort. The child starts avoiding places where panic
attacks have occurred. What anxiety disorder is characterized by these
symptoms?
a) Social anxiety disorder
b) Agoraphobia
c) Panic disorder
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
3. A class of medications commonly used in the management of anxiety

disorders, such as SSRIs and antianxiety medications like buspirone (BuSpar).
What is this class of medications primarily targeting in the nervous system?
a) Dopamine receptors
b) Serotonin receptors
c) Norepinephrine receptors
d) GABA receptors
4. A child experiences recurring recollections and dreams of a traumatic event

that occurred one month ago. The symptoms persist, and the child may feel
guilt about surviving while others did not. What condition is most likely
present?
a) Acute Stress Disorder
b) Separation Anxiety Disorder
c) Panic disorder
d) Social anxiety disorder
5. A therapeutic approach involving family therapy, trauma-focused CBT, and

integrated play therapy for children and adolescents who have experienced or
witnessed traumatic events. What is this approach called?
a) Pharmacotherapy
b) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
c) Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)
d) Psychological debriefing
6. A child exhibits excessive fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation,

leading to avoidance or intense distress. This fear is persistent for at least six
months. What anxiety disorder is characterized by this specific phobia?
a) Social anxiety disorder
b) Specific phobia
d) Panic disorder
7. A teenager avoids social situations due to a fear of embarrassment or

negative evaluation. This fear significantly impacts the teenager's daily life
and relationships. What anxiety disorder is likely present?
a) Agoraphobia
b) Panic disorder
d) Social anxiety disorder
8. An evidence-based treatment program for teens with Oppositional Defiant

Disorder (ODD) that helps them learn new tools and skills to positively
influence their thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. What is this program
called?
a) Parent Management Training
c) Creating Opportunities for Personal Empowerment (COPE)
d) Triple P
9. A class of medications, such as venlafaxine (Effexor), commonly prescribed
to reduce aggressive behavior in children with Conduct Disorder (CD). What is
this class of medications?
a) Antipsychotics
b) Benzodiazepines
c) SSRIs
d) SNRIs
10. A child consistently exhibits difficulty separating from primary caregivers,

experiencing excessive distress. This condition persists for at least four weeks.
What anxiety disorder is most likely present?
a) Panic disorder
b) Agoraphobia
c) Separation anxiety disorder
d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
SAS 43
1. A child persistently consumes non-food substances such as dirt, clay, or
paint chips, leading to potential complications like lead poisoning. Which
eating disorder is characterized by this behavior?
a) Rumination Disorder of Infancy
b) Pica
c) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
d) Anorexia Nervosa
2. A rare disorder observed in infants, involving repeated regurgitation and

re-swallowing of previously ingested food, often associated with intellectual
disability. What is this disorder called?
a) Anorexia Nervosa
b) Rumination Disorder of Infancy
c) Bulimia Nervosa
d) Pica
3. A child persistently avoids certain foods or restricts food intake due to lack
of interest, sensory characteristics, or aversive consequences. This results in
significant weight loss. What is the term for this condition?
a) Pica
b) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
c) Bulimia Nervosa
d) Rumination Disorder of Infancy
4. A disturbance in body image perception leading to self-induced starvation,
a relentless drive for thinness, and medical signs/symptoms from starvation.
What eating disorder is characterized by these features?
a) Bulimia Nervosa
b) Pica
c) Anorexia Nervosa
d) Rumination Disorder of Infancy
5. A teenager engages in recurrent binge eating followed by inappropriate

compensatory measures like vomiting, excessive exercise, or laxative use.
What eating disorder is most likely present?
a) Rumination Disorder of Infancy
b) Anorexia Nervosa
c) Bulimia Nervosa
d) Pica
6. A 7-year-old child with ADHD is struggling in school due to inattention and

impulsivity. The teacher reports that the child often disrupts the class. What is
the most appropriate therapeutic intervention?
a) Prescribing methylphenidate (Ritalin)
b) Family counseling to address behavioral challenges
c) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for the child
d) Social skills training for the child
7. Parents of a child with ADHD are overwhelmed and seek guidance on

managing their child's hyperactivity. What nursing intervention is most
appropriate?
a) Suggesting punitive measures for behavior control
b) Educating parents on the complex nature of ADHD
c) Recommending isolation as a consequence for hyperactivity
d) Ignoring the child's behavior to avoid reinforcement
8. A teenager with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) is displaying frequent

defiant behaviors at home and school. What therapeutic approach is
recommended?
a) Individual cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
b) Medication management with antipsychotics
c) Psychiatric hospitalization for intensive intervention
d) Collaborative Problem Solving and Creating Opportunities for Personal
Empowerment (COPE) program
9. A child diagnosed with Conduct Disorder (CD) has a history of aggressive

behaviors and violations of societal rules. What medication might be
considered to reduce aggressive behavior?
a) Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
b) Buspirone (BuSpar)
c) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
d) Atomoxetine (Strattera)
10. A 16-year-old diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is

experiencing excessive worry and physical symptoms. What is a suitable
therapeutic intervention?
a) Administering an SSRI like fluoxetine
b) Conducting family therapy to address anxiety triggers
c) Implementing exposure therapy to reduce fears
d) Recommending benzodiazepines for immediate relief
SAS 44
1. A 10-year-old child is presenting with sudden, rapid, recurrent motor
movements and vocalizations. The symptoms have been occurring for the
past 6 months, happening almost every day. The child's parents report that
the tics seem to worsen during periods of stress. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a) Provisional Tic Disorder
b) Persistent Motor Tic Disorder
c) Tourette Syndrome
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
2. A 14-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents. They report that the
boy frequently clears his throat, snorts, and makes sudden barking sounds.
The symptoms have been ongoing for over a year. What is the most
appropriate initial intervention?
a) Administering haloperidol (Haldol)
b) Referring the boy for comprehensive behavioral intervention for tics (CBIT)
c) Suggesting stress reduction techniques
d) Initiating cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
3. A 7-year-old child is diagnosed with Tourette Syndrome. The parents are

concerned about the child's low self-esteem. What management approach is
most appropriate for addressing this concern?
a) Administering risperidone (Risperdal)
b) Conducting psychoeducation about the inherited nature of Tourette
Syndrome
c) Implementing individual cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
d) Encouraging the child to suppress tics for extended periods
4. A child diagnosed with persistent/chronic tic disorder is displaying vocal
tics such as coprolalia and palilalia. How can the nurse describe these
complex vocal tics?
a) Repeating one's own words
b) Repeating others' words
c) Use of socially unacceptable words, usually obscenities
d) Coughing, throat clearing, snorting, and barking
5. Parents are concerned about their 6-year-old child, who frequently displays
sudden, rapid, nonrhythmic motor movements. The child's teacher reports
that these tics have been present for several months. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a) Transient Tic Disorder
b) Tourette Syndrome
c) Provisional Tic Disorder
d) Chronic Motor Tic Disorder
6. A 5-year-old child has been engaging in repeated episodes of binge-eating,

followed by self-induced vomiting and the misuse of laxatives. The child's
parents are concerned about the physical complications associated with
these behaviors. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
a) Initiating comprehensive behavioral intervention for tics (CBIT)
b) Recommending antidepressant medication
c) Encouraging the child to continue self-induced vomiting
d) Focusing on restoring nutritional balance and implementing structured
nutritional intake
7. A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, characterized

by self-induced starvation, a relentless drive for thinness, and medical signs
resulting from starvation. The girl's parents are seeking guidance on the
management of the disorder. What should the nurse emphasize regarding
the goal of therapy?
a) Rapid weight loss is essential for effective treatment.
b) Weight gain should occur gradually to prevent dieting behavior.
c) The use of laxatives is a recommended strategy for maintaining weight.
d) Weighing the individual every day is crucial to monitor progress.
8. A 13-year-old child with rumination disorder has been experiencing

repeated regurgitation and re-swallowing of food, leading to concerns about
nutritional adequacy. What is an appropriate nursing intervention?
a) Administering laxatives to prevent constipation
b) Encouraging the child to continue the behavior
c) Initiating trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
d) Distracting the child with activities after meals to reduce rumination
9.A 16-year-old boy with bulimia nervosa has been engaging in binge-eating
episodes followed by self-induced vomiting. The parents are seeking advice
on managing the disorder. What is a potential nursing intervention?
a) Encouraging the use of laxatives to aid digestion
b) Recommending family counseling to address concerns about the impact
on development
c) Suggesting distraction techniques during binge-eating episodes
d) Initiating cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focusing on recognizing urges
to binge
10. A 10-year-old child has been diagnosed with avoidant/restrictive food

intake disorder. The parents express concerns about the child's lack of interest
in food and resulting weight loss. What is a key aspect of therapy for this
disorder?
a) Rapid weight loss to address the nutritional deficiency
b) Counseling for the child to emphasize the importance of food
c) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) to recognize hunger as a stimulus for
eating
d) Allowing the child to maintain aversive consequences for food avoidance
SAS 45
1. A 14-year-old child has been consistently experiencing symptoms of loss of
interest or pleasure, significant weight loss, depressed mood, insomnia, and
feelings of worthlessness for the past 3 weeks. The child's parents mention a
family history of depression. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Major Depressive Disorder
b) Persistent Depressive Disorder
c) Childhood Schizophrenia
d) Bipolar I Disorder
Answer: a) Major Depressive Disorder
2. A 12-year-old boy presents with symptoms of elevated mood, little need for
sleep, and increased goal-directed activity. The nurse notes that the child's
symptoms do not meet the criteria for a manic episode. What is the most
appropriate diagnosis?
a) Bipolar I Disorder
b) Bipolar II Disorder
c) Cyclothymic Disorder
d) Provisional Tic Disorder
Answer: c) Cyclothymic Disorder
3. A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with persistent depression disorder based on
symptoms that have been present for over a year. What distinguishes
persistent depression disorder from major depressive disorder?
a) Presence of manic episodes
b) Duration of symptoms
c) Severity of symptoms
d) Genetic predisposition
Answer: b) Duration of symptoms
4. A 9-year-old child has been experiencing hallucinations, displaying flat

affect, and withdrawing from social interactions. The nurse observes that the
child's symptoms may have been present for some time. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
a) Bipolar I Disorder
b) Persistent Depressive Disorder
c) Childhood Schizophrenia
d) Provisional Tic Disorder
Answer: c) Childhood Schizophrenia
5. A child diagnosed with persistent depression disorder is undergoing

counseling. The parents express concerns about the use of antidepressant
therapy. What should the nurse emphasize about the administration of
antidepressants in children?
a) Antidepressants are always the first-line treatment for childhood
depression.
b) Antidepressants have no association with suicidal ideation in children.
c) Close monitoring for deepening depression and emerging suicidal
behavior is essential.
d) Antidepressants are effective in all cases of childhood depression.
Answer: c) Close monitoring for deepening depression and emerging suicidal
behavior is essential.
6. A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with bipolar II disorder is undergoing

treatment. The parents express concerns about the use of medications. What
information should the nurse provide regarding the use of medications in
bipolar II disorder?
a) Medications are not effective in treating bipolar II disorder.
b) Medications should only be used in adults with bipolar II disorder.
c) Medications can help manage symptoms and improve overall functioning.
d) Medications are solely for controlling manic episodes in bipolar II disorder.
7. A 13-year-old child is exhibiting symptoms of echolalia and coprolalia. The

nurse is discussing these symptoms with the parents. How can the nurse
describe these symptoms?
a) Repeating others' words
b) Repeating one's own words
c) Use of socially unacceptable words, usually obscenities
d) Coughing, throat clearing, snorting, and barking
8. A 16-year-old girl diagnosed with childhood schizophrenia is prescribed

clozapine. What information should the nurse provide to the parents
regarding the use of clozapine?
a) Clozapine is ineffective in reducing hallucinations in children.
b) Clozapine is the first-line treatment for childhood schizophrenia.
c) Clozapine can help reduce hallucinations and bizarre thought processes.
d) Clozapine is only prescribed for adult patients with schizophrenia.
9. A 10-year-old child is experiencing recurrent and episodic binge eating

followed by inappropriate compensatory measures to prevent weight gain.
The child expresses guilt and embarrassment after bingeing episodes. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Anorexia Nervosa
b) Bulimia Nervosa
c) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
d) Pica
10. A 7-year-old child is diagnosed with persistent motor tic disorder. The
parents report that the child's tics seem to worsen during periods of stress.
What intervention is most appropriate for managing the child's tics?
a) Administering anxiolytic medications
b) Implementing comprehensive behavioral intervention for tics (CBIT)
c) Initiating cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
d) Encouraging the child to suppress tics for extended periods
SAS 46
1. A 6-year-old child presents with repeated passage of feces at least once a
month for the past 4 months, occurring in inappropriate places. The child was
fully toilet trained, and there is no evidence of medical causes. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Enuresis
b) Encopresis
c) Incontinence Disorder
d) Toilet Phobia
2. A 7-year-old child is experiencing repeated involuntary urination, both

during the day and at night. The parents express concern about the child's
self-esteem. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to address the
child's self-esteem?
a) Implementing a habit relearning program
b) Administering enemas to empty the bowels
c) Encouraging the child to suppress urination for extended periods
d) Using positive reinforcement and avoiding punishment
3. A 9-year-old child diagnosed with encopresis is prescribed a stool softener.

The parents ask about potential side effects. What information should the
nurse provide?
a) Stool softeners have no side effects in children.
b) Children may experience decreased appetite with stool softeners.
c) Stool softeners may cause excessive weight loss in children.
d) Long-term use of stool softeners may lead to vitamin deficiencies.
4. An 8-year-old child is diagnosed with enuresis, and the parents are

interested in using an enuresis alarm. What information should the nurse
provide about the use of enuresis alarms?
a) Enuresis alarms are not effective in the long term.
b) The use of enuresis alarms is associated with significant side effects.
c) Strong family support is crucial for the success of enuresis alarms.
d) Enuresis alarms are only suitable for children over the age of 12.
5. A 5-year-old child is brought to the clinic due to repeated involuntary

urination during the day. What is the most important initial assessment for
the nurse?
a) Family history of enuresis
b) Developmental level of the child
c) Physical examination including rectal examination
d) Presence of stress factors in the child's environment
6. A 13-year-old adolescent presents with symptoms of depression, including

persistent feelings of worthlessness, changes in sleep patterns, and loss of
interest in previously enjoyed activities. What is the most appropriate initial
nursing intervention?
a) Administering an antidepressant medication
b) Referring the adolescent for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
c) Educating the parents on the importance of strict discipline
d) Recommending physical exercise as the primary intervention
7. A 15-year-old adolescent is diagnosed with bipolar I disorder after

experiencing an elevated, expansive mood, decreased need for sleep, and
increased goal-directed activity. The parents are concerned about the
long-term management of the disorder. What information should the nurse
provide?
a) Antipsychotic medications are not effective in treating bipolar I disorder.
b) Long-term use of lithium is the preferred treatment for bipolar I disorder in
adolescents.
c) Adolescents with bipolar I disorder often outgrow the condition by
adulthood.
d) Regular therapy sessions and mood stabilizers are commonly used for
long-term management.
8. A 9-year-old child is diagnosed with childhood schizophrenia. The parents

are shocked and concerned about the long-term effects of the disorder. What
information should the nurse provide?
a) Childhood schizophrenia has a low risk of recurrence in adulthood.
b) Modern antipsychotic drugs are not effective in reducing symptoms.
c) Continued support and long-term follow-up are essential for children with
schizophrenia.
d) The symptoms of childhood schizophrenia often disappear without
intervention.
9. A 14-year-old boy is displaying symptoms of Tourette syndrome, including

vocal tics such as repeated use of words out of context. What is the most
appropriate therapeutic approach?
a) Administering haloperidol (Haldol) to suppress tics
b) Comprehensive behavioral intervention for tics (CBIT)
c) Encouraging the child to suppress tics for extended periods
d) Individual cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focusing on self-esteem
10. A 12-year-old child is diagnosed with persistent motor tic disorder. The
parents are concerned about potential treatments. What information should
the nurse provide?
a) Tics usually resolve on their own without any intervention.
b) Behavior modification is not effective in treating persistent motor tic
disorder.
c) Treatment may focus on reducing stress and using comprehensive
behavioral intervention.
d) Medications are the primary treatment for persistent motor tic disorder in
children.

MCN 2 Sas Notes

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MCN 2 NOTES - PRACTICE QUESTIONS

2. Which bone is frequently affected by osteogenic sarcoma in

3. What is a common cause of amenorrhea in adolescents?

4. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of anorexia nervosa?

5. Which drug is associated with violent behavior, rapid speech, and

6. What is the third leading cause of death in the 15 to 19-year-old age

9. You notice a 17-year-old exhibiting signs of depression, withdrawing

10. What term is used to describe painful menstruation caused by the

11. How is anorexia nervosa characterized, involving self-induced

15. Define primary dysmenorrhea and identify its characteristic features.

16. Explain the concept of "lanugo" in the context of anorexia nervosa.

17. You are assessing a 17-year-old who exhibits aggressive behavior,

18. A 16-year-old has given away prized possessions, expresses feelings of

19. Define the term "tolerance" in the context of substance abuse.

20. What is the definition of "suicidal ideation"?

2. Which condition involves the inflammation of the epiglottis and may

3. What is the primary therapeutic management for choanal atresia in

4. A child with suspected choanal atresia is experiencing respiratory

5. You are caring for a child with suspected streptococcal pharyngitis.

6. Define croup and describe the characteristic symptoms associated with

7. Explain what retropharyngeal abscess is and outline its typical clinical

8. What is choanal atresia characterized by?

9. Which age group is most affected by streptococcal pharyngitis?

10. What is the primary cause of croup in children?

11. Which symptom is characteristic of epiglottitis?

12. What is the recommended therapeutic management for

13. Which procedure involves the removal of palatine tonsils?

14. What is congenital laryngomalacia characterized by?

17. What is the primary therapeutic management for choanal atresia in

18. Which clinical manifestations are associated with streptococcal

19. What is the primary cause of croup in children?

20.Which symptom is characteristic of epiglottitis?

21. What is the recommended therapeutic management for

22. Which procedure involves the removal of palatine tonsils?

23. What is congenital laryngomalacia characterized by?

24.What is the primary cause of croup in children between 6 months and 3

26. What is the primary therapeutic management for choanal atresia in

27. Which clinical manifestations are associated with streptococcal

28. What is the characteristic sound associated with congenital

30.What is the primary risk associated with bronchial obstruction due to

2. A 3-month-old infant is brought to the emergency room with

3. A child with a history of cystic fibrosis presents with steatorrhea and

4. A 6-year-old child is admitted with suspected pneumonia. The chest

5. A 7-year-old is diagnosed with status asthmaticus. Despite initial

7. Which chronic respiratory disorder involves inflammation and edema of

8. What inherited disease is characterized by thick mucus secretion,

11. A 2-month-old infant presents with signs of respiratory distress,

12. A school-age child is diagnosed with bronchitis. What is the primary

13. A child presents with persistent coughing, wheezing, and difficulty

15. A newborn is born with meconium ileus. What disease is strongly

16. Which term describes a severe and potentially life-threatening

19. Which inherited disease is characterized by thick mucus secretion

2. Which defect results in the reversal of the great arteries?

6. What is the most common cause of congestive heart failure in children?

7. Which defect is associated with a holosystolic murmur at the left lower

8. What is the immediate management for a significant Patent Ductus

10. What is the primary characteristic of cyanotic heart diseases?

12. What is the common symptom of Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)

13. What is the immediate intervention for Transposition of Great Vessels

15. What is the characteristic feature of Coarctation of Aorta (CoAo) in

17. When is the Fontan procedure typically performed?

18. What is the primary surgical management for Aortic Stenosis?