14/06/2023 Code-A

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MM : 720 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle & Cell Division
Zoology: Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues, Biomolecules

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. Force(s) which obey inverse square law 2. Match the technology in coloum–A to its
is/are related scientific principle in coloum–B
(1) Gravitational forces B–
A–Technology
(2) Electrostatic forces Scientificprinciple
(3) Strong nuclear forces (a) Steam engine (1) Faraday’s laws
(4) Both (1) and (2) Laws of
(b) Nuclear reactor (2)
thermodynamics
(c) Computer (3) Nuclear fission
Electric power
(d) (4) Digital logic
generation
(1) a–2, b–4, c–3, d–1
(2) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
(3) a–1, b–3, c–4, d–2
(4) a–4, b–1, c–3, d–2

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3. Gravitational force is 11. A : The parsec consists of dimension of time.

(1) Conservative, weakest and long range
(2) Conservative, weakest and short range
(3) Conservative, strongest and long range
(4) Non-conservative, weakest and long
range
4. Sir C.V. Raman, an Indian born physicist
won nobel prize in the field of
(1) Quantum statistics
(2) Scattering of light by molecules
(3) Structure and evolution of stars
(4) Ultrashort radio waves
5. The ratio of strength of strong nuclear force
to that of electromagnetic force is about
(1) 104 :1
(2) 1013 :1
(3) 102 :1
(4) 1039 :1
6. Which of the following statements is
incorrect for nuclear forces?
(1) They are charge independent
(2) They are non-conservative in nature
(3) They are effective only for short ranges
(4) They are central force
R : The parsec is unit of time.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
12. A : Kilo-watt hour is a commercial unit of
energy.
R : 1 kilo-watt hour = 36 × 106 J.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
13. If the unit of force is 10 kN, length is 10 km
and time is 1000 s, then the unit of mass will
be
(1) 103 kg

7. The quantum model of atom was given by (2) 104 kg

(1) Bohr (3) 105 kg
(2) Rutherford (4) 106 kg
(3) Einstein
(4) Hertz
14. The dimensionless physical quantity among
the following is
8. Rocket propulsion works on (1) Pressure
(1) Law of thermodynamics (2) Solid angle
(2) Newton’s law of motion (3) Speed
(3) Photoelectric effect (4) Modulus of elasticity
(4) Superconductivity
15. The radius of a circle is 0.020 m. The
9. Choose the incorrect pair. number of significant figures is
(1) J.C. Maxwell - Electromagnetic theory (1) 1
(2) Niels Bohr - Natural radioactivity (2) 2
(3) C.V. Raman - Scattering of light by (3) 3
molecules (4) 4
(4) S.N. Bose - Quantum statistics
16. The radius of sphere is measured as
10. Which of the following scientist discovered (5.2 ± 0.2)cmthen the % error in volume
the mercury thermometer? of sphere is
(1) Michael Faraday (1) 11%
(2) S.N. Bose (2) 4%
(3) G. Fahrenheit (3) 7%
(4) James Watt (4) 9%

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17. The percentage errors in the quantities 23. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are
a,b,c,d are respectively given by 0.5% , 1% , 3.123 m and 2.45 m, then the area of the
2%, and 4%. Then the maximum possible rectangle upto proper significant figure is
percentage error in quantity Y which is given (1) 7.6
2
a b
by Y = is (2) 7.65
√c3 d

(3) 7.651
(1) 9%
(4) 7.6513
(2) 3%
(3) 5.5 %
24. Order of magnitude of the distance of the
(4) 7%
sun from the earth (in S.I. unit) is
(1) 11
18. The relation between power p, distance x
2
(2) 5
b+x
and time t is given as p =
at
, the (3) 3
b
dimensions of a
is (4) 19
(1) [ML2 T–2 ]
(2) [M–1 LT–2 ] 25. Dimensional analysis fails
(1) To identify the value of constant
(3) [M–1 L2 T–2 ]
involved in physical equation.
(4) [ML–2 T–2 ] (2) To establish the relation between the
physical quantities when they are
related other than product type
19. 1 eV is equal to
(3) When a physical quantity depends on
(1) 746 J
different physical quantities having
(2) 3.6 × 106 J same dimensional formula
(3) 10
−19
J
(4) All of these
(4) 1.6 × 10
−19
J
26. True value of a measurement is 7.01 m.
Which of the following is the most accurate
20. If a, b and c be three physical quantities reading?
having different dimensions. Which of the (1) 6.99 m
following mathematical operations must be
(2) 7.09 m
meaningless?
(1) a2 b2 = c (3) 7.11 m
(4) 7.05 m
(2) a2 + b3 = c
(3) a +b
3 3

ab
= c 27. Which of the following relation is
dimensionally incorrect? (Symbols have
(4) a
3

3
= c their usual meaning)
b
(1) v = u + at
(2) y = x tanθ
21. If 19 main scale divisions coincides with 20
vernier scale divisions. The least count will (3) 2(Energy)
F =
be (1 main scale division = 1 mm) Volume

(1) 0.1 mm (4) 1

mv
2
= mgh
2
(2) 10 mm
(3) 10 μm
28. Which of the following is the smallest unit of
(4) 50 μm length?
(1) Millimeter
22. The order of magnitude of 220 will be (2) Angstrom
(1) 3 (3) Picometer
(2) 4 (4) Fermi
(3) 5
(4) 6 29. A physical equation is
(1) Always mathematically correct
(2) Always dimensionally correct
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Only (1)

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30. The dimensional formula of force is 33. 1

dimensional formula is same as
frequency
(1) [MLT–2 ]
(1) time
(2) [ML2 T–2 ]
(2) speed
(3) [MLT–1 ] (3) distance
(4) [ML2 T–1 ] (4) force

31. The S.I. unit of volumetric mass density of 34. If there is a positive error of 50% in the
substance is measurement of the velocity of a body, then
(1) kg the error in the measurement of kinetic
m
2 energy will be
(2) kg (1) 50%
(2) 25%
3
m

(3) kg m3 (3) 100%

(4) kg m2 (4) 125%

32. Parallax method is used for the 35. L2 T–2 is Dimensional formula of which of the
measurement of following physical quantity
(1) Large distances (1) Velocity
(2) Very small distances (2) Acceleration
(3) Solid angle (3) Latent heat
(4) Plane angle (4) Work done

SECTION-B

36. The dimensions of impulse is same as that 39. The scientific principle involved in LASER is
of (1) Newton's law of motion
(1) Force (2) Faraday's law of induction
(2) Pressure (3) Coulomb's law of induction
(3) Linear momentum (4) Light amplification by stimulated
(4) Torque emission of radiation

37. James Chadwick was awarded the 1935 40. If linear momentum (P), length (L) and time
Nobel prize in Physics for the discovery of (T) are assumed to be fundamental
the quantities, then the dimensional formula of
(1) Neutron pressure is
(2) Electron (1) [PL–2 T–1 ]
(3) Proton (2) [P–1 L–1 T–1 ]
(4) Nucleus (3) [PLT–2 ]
(4) [PL–2 T]
38. Select correct statement regarding
mesoscopic physics.
(1) It deals with molecules, atoms, nuclei 41. Which of the following relation cannot be
and subatomic particles deduced using only dimensional analysis?
(1) y = Aeωt
(2) It deals with the phenomenon at the
laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical (2) s = ut + 1
at2
scale 2
−
−
(3) l
(3) It deals with quantum physics T = 2π√ g
(4) It deals with a few tens or hundreds of
atoms together (4) All of these

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42. If Z = A + B, then the absolute error in Z will 47. λ

Dimension of c is same with dimension of
be
(where λ is wavelength and c is velocity of
(1) ΔA + ΔB light)
A B

(2) AΔB + BΔA (1) Speed

(3) ΔA – ΔB (2) Mass
(4) ΔA + ΔB (3) Frequency
(4) Time
43. If A = 2.231 cm and B = 3.1 cm, then A + B
with correct significant figure is 48. Which of the following instrument is not used
(1) 5.331 cm for measurement of length?
(2) 5.33 cm (1) Barometer
(3) 5.3 cm (2) Spherometer
(4) 5.0 cm (3) Screw gauge
(4) Vernier calliper
44. Which of the following time measuring
devices, is most precise? 49. Identify the pair whose dimensions are
(1) A digital watch equal.
(2) A wall clock (1) Stress and energy
(3) A stop watch (2) Force and pressure
(4) An atomic clock (3) Work and pressure
(4) Torque and energy
45. The dimension formula of moment of mass is
(1) [M1 L2 T0 ] 50. The value of 46.7 – 10.04 with due regard to
significant figure is
(2) [M1 L1 T0 ] (1) 36.6
(3) [M0 L2 T0 ] (2) 36.7
(4) [M1 L1 T–1 ] (3) 36
(4) 36.8
46. Which one is wrongly matched unit of
lengths measurement?
(1) 1 fermi = 10–15 m
(2) 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
(3) 1 parsec = 3.08 × 1016 m
(4) 1 angstrom = 10–9 m

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CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Consider the following statements. 56. A container contains H2 and CO in the mass
(a) Molality of the solution does not change ratio of 1 : 2. The molar ratio of the two gases
with temperature in the mixture is
(b) An empirical formula represents the (1) 1 : 2
simplest whole number ratio of various
atoms present in a compound (2) 3 : 2
(c) In reaction, the reactant which gets (3) 5 : 1
completely consumed is called limiting (4) 7 : 1
reagent
(d) A solution of known higher concentration
is also known as stock solution 57. Assertion (A): 1.2 g of CO2 molecules and
The correct statement(s) are 1.2 g molecule of CO2 contains equal
(1) (a) and (b) only number of atoms.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only Reason (R): Amounts represented in g
molecule and in g are same.
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
52. The mass percentage of oxygen in water (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(1) 80.25% the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(2) 92.45%
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) 88.89%
is false
(4) 95.95% (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
53. Which among the following species will
contain same number of atoms as in 20 g of 58. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a
calcium? 1.00 m aqueous solution?
(1) 23 gram of sodium (1) 0.0354
(2) 24 gram of magnesium
(2) 0.0177
(3) 12 g carbon (3) 0.177
(4) 8 g oxygen atom
(4) 1.770

54. Phosphorus forms two oxides P2 O3 and

59. If 4 moles of a gas ‘x’ weighs 176 g, then the
P2 O5 . For constant amount of phosphorus, gas ‘x’ can be
amounts of oxygen combine in the ratio of (1) NH3
(1) 3 : 5
(2) CO
(2) 1 : 1
(3) CO2
(3) 1 : 2
(4) O2
(4) 1 : 3

55. An element, X has following isotopic 60. From 440 mg of CO2 , 1020 molecules of
composition 40 X : 80%, 42 X : 20%. The CO2 are removed. The total number of
average atomic mass of X is remaining atoms will be
(1) 40.4 u (1) 1.51 × 1020
(2) 41.8 u (2) 2.89 × 1021
(3) 40.9 u (3) 1.77 × 1022
(4) 42.2 u
(4) 1.46 × 1023

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61. Incorrect statement among the following is 67. Caffeine is a molecular substance
(1) SI unit of amount of substance is mole containing 4 atoms of ‘N’ per molecule. The
mass percentage of nitrogen in caffeine is
(2) The prefix used for the multiple 102 is
28.1%. What is the molecular mass of
hecto caffeine?
(3) Accuracy refers to the closeness of (1) 387.5
various measurements for the same
(2) 200
quantity
(3) 96.8
(4) Pure substances have fix composition
(4) 176.5

62. Formula mass is applicable in the case of

68. The molarity of 4% (w/v) NaOH solution is
(1) H2 O
(1) 1 M
(2) NaCl
(2) 2 M
(3) NH3
(3) 3 M
(4) CH4
(4) 4 M

63. Statement I : Mole fraction is the ratio of 69. 5.6 g of nitrogen and 2 g of hydrogen were
moles of a substance to the total moles in heated in a closed steel vessel. Maximum
the solution. amount of ammonia produced in this
Statement II : Mole fraction does not reaction will be
depend on temperature of solution.
(1) 6.8 g
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given (2) 8.5 g
below. (3) 3.4 g
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II (4) 4.25 g
is true
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
false 70. 200 ml of 3 M NaOH solution is diluted by
400 ml water. The molarity of the resulting
(3) Both statement I and statement II are solution is
true
(1) 1 M
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) 2 M
false
(3) 1.5 M
(4) 2.25 M
64. 0.2 mol of a solute (molar mass = 60 g mol–
1 ) is present in 200 ml solution. Molarity of
the solution is 71. How many statement(s) among a, b, c and d
is/are correct?
(1) 1 M
(a) Mole fraction is unit less quantity
(2) 2 M (b) 1 M NaOH means 1 mol NaOH is present
(3) 0.1 M in 1 litre of the solution
(4) 0.2 M (c) Unit of molality is mol kg–1
(d) Dilution equation: M1 V1 = M2 V2
(1) 1
65. The number of oxygen atoms required to
combine with 7.0 g of N2 to form N2 O3 if (2) 2
80% of N2 is converted into N2 O3 (3) 3
(1) 2.24 × 1023 (4) 4
(2) 3.6 × 1023
72. An example of homogeneous mixture is
(3) 18 × 1023
(1) Copper
(4) 6.02 × 1023
(2) Oil and water
(3) Air
66. Total number of electrons in 2 mol of (4) Carbon dioxide
sulphide ion is
(1) 3.6 × 1024
73. The ratio of vapour densities of two gases
(2) 3.6 × 1023 oxygen and methane is
(3) 2.16 × 1025 (1) 1 : 2
(4) 2.16 × 1023 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

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74. Mass percentage of carbon in urea 80. Which of the following set represents most
(NH2 CONH2 ) is precise measurements of a physical
(1) 46.66% quantity?
(1) 8.0, 8.5 , 8.6
(2) 26.66%
(3) 20% (2) 8.23, 8.66, 8.86
(4) 30% (3) 8.1, 8.13, 8.15
(4) 8.0, 9.0, 7.0

75. According to following reaction.

XY + O2 → X2 O3 + Y2 O3 81. The molecular mass of Na2 CO3 ·10H2 O is
The number of moles of Y2 O3 produced if 1 (1) 286 u
mole of XY is burnt with 1 mole of O2 is (2) 180 u
(1) 3 (3) 106 u
(2) 1 (4) 272 u
(3) 1/3
(4) 2/3 82. The S.I. unit of density is
(1) g/cm3
76. Which of the following values possess (2) g/L
maximum number of significant zeros?
(3) kg/m3
(1) 0.00007
(2) 0.0070 (4) kg/cm3
(3) 20.000
(4) 0.800 83. Maximum number of molecules are present
in
(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
77. For which of the following pair of
compounds, law of multiple proportion is (2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
applicable? (3) 0.5 g of H2 gas at STP
(1) HI and HCl
(4) 10 g of O2 gas at STP
(2) CO2 and CS2
(3) H2 S and SO2
84. “Matter can neither be created nor be
(4) H2 O and H2 O2 destroyed” is the statement of which of the
following laws of chemical combinations?
78. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample (1) Law of definite proportion
decomposes on heating to give carbon (2) Law of multiple proportion
dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What (3) Gay Lusac’s law
will be the percentage purity of magnesium (4) Law of conservation of mass
carbonate in the sample? (At. wt. : Mg = 24)
(1) 60
85. 32°F is equal to
(2) 84
(1) 0°C
(3) 75
(2) 32°C
(4) 96
(3) 100°C
(4) 132°C
79. 60 ml, 0.4 M NaOH is mixed with 40 ml, 0.8
M NaOH solution. The molarity of resultant
mixture is
(1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.4 M
(3) 0.56 M
(4) 0.64 M

SECTION-B

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86. The mass of an atom of calcium is 93. A : Molar mass is the mass of one mole of a
(1) 40 g substance in gram.
(2) 1 g R : Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g mol–1 .
40
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(3) NA × 40 g the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) 40 g the assertion
NA (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
87. 20 g NaOH is mixed with 36 g of H2 O. What
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is mole fraction of H2 O in solution?
is false
(1) 0.6
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) 0.8 statements
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.1 94. In an organic compound containing carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen, the percentage of
carbon and hydrogen in it are 40% and
88. 0.1 M H2 SO4 solution has a density of
6.67% respectively. Its molecular formula
2g/mL. The molality of solution is may be
(1) 0.01 m (1) C2 H5 OH
(2) 0.05 m
(2) CH3 CHO
(3) 0.1 m
(3) C6 H12 O6
(4) 0.5 m
(4) C12 H22 O11

89. Volume of 8 g of CH4 (g) at STP is

(1) 22.4 L 95. The incorrect statement regarding Dalton’s
atomic theory is
(2) 11.2 L
(1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms
(3) 5.6 L
(2) Atoms can neither be created nor
(4) 44.8 L destroyed in a chemical reaction
(3) Compounds are formed when atoms of
90. A : 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g different elements combine in variable
R : One atomic mass unit is a mass exactly ratio.
equal to one-twelfth the mass of one carbon- (4) All the atoms of a given element have
12 atom. identical properties
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of 96. In the synthesis of ammonia, 42 g of nitrogen
the assertion
gas is reacted with 8 g of hydrogen gas.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Mass of ammonia produced in the process is
the reason is not the correct (1) 50 g
explanation of the assertion
(2) 36.5 g
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false (3) 45.3 g
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) 48 g
statements
97. A metal oxide containing 70% of metal (At.
91. The number of oxygen atoms present in 90 g wt of metal = 56) and rest oxygen. Its
of water is empirical formula would be
(1) NA (1) MO
(2) MO2
(2) 5NA
(3) M2 O3
(3) 2.5NA
(4) M2 O
(4) 10NA

92. A quantity of aluminium has a mass of 81 g.

98. Total number of electrons in 1.4 g of N3– ion
What is the mass of same number of is
magnesium atom? (1) 10 NA
(1) 81 g (2) 0.1 NA
(2) 72 g (3) NA
(3) 41 g (4) 0.2 NA
(4) 48 g

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99. Correct scientific notation is

(1) 0.000473
(2) 0.473 × 10–3
(3) 4.73 × 10–4
(4) 473 × 10–6

100. Assertion (A) : Atomicity of phosphorus is

four.
Reason (R) : Atomicity is the number of
atoms present in a 1 molecule.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the 106. A non-membrane bound cell organelle
bacterial cells are helpful in which forms spindle fibres during cell
(1) Cell wall formation division in animal cells
(2) Attachment to the host tissue (1) Has '9 + 2' arrangement of
microtubules
(3) Secretion process
(2) Is also found in higher plants
(4) Cell motility
(3) Helps in formation of basal bodies
(4) Has nine microtubules doublets at
102. Choose the pair of cell organelles that do periphery
not contain any nucleic acid
(1) Plastid, mitochondria
107. Leucoplast lacks
(2) Ribosome, chloroplast
(1) Stroma
(3) Nucleus, vacuole
(2) Storage material
(4) Centriole, vacuole
(3) Double membranous covering
(4) Granum
103. Select the incorrect statement about
nucleolus.
(1) It is the site for rRNA synthesis 108. Continuity of cytoplasm from one plant cell to
another cell is maintained by
(2) Larger nucleoli are present in the cells
that are actively involved in protein (1) Nuclear pore
synthesis (2) Middle lamella
(3) It is not bounded by a membrane (3) Plasmodesmata
(4) It is found in the cytoplasm as it takes (4) Plasma membrane
part in spindle formation
109. Identify the incorrect statement for plasma
104. The bacterial envelope consists of three membrane
layers. Which layers(s) is/are structurally (1) The lipid component of membrane
similar to that of the eukaryotes? consists of phosphoglycerides and
(1) Innermost layer and middle layer cholesterol.
(2) Innermost layer (2) The tail of phospholipid is made up of
(3) Outermost layer unsaturated hydrocarbons only
(4) Middle layer and outermost layer (3) Lipids enable lateral movement of
proteins within the overall bilayer
(4) The fluid nature of membrane helps in
105. Match the following columns and select the
intake of materials in the form of carrier
correct option.
vesicles.
Column-I Column-II
Infoldings in
a. Ribozyme (i) 110. Nucleolus contains
mitochondria
(1) Ribonucleic acid
Single membrane
b. Cristae (ii) (2) Double membranous covering
bound
c. Chromatophores (iii) Photosynthesis (3) Microtubules
d. Lysosome (iv) Nucleic acid (4) Small vacuoles
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

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111. Arrange the following in ascending order 118. The functions are co-ordinated in
w.r.t. their sizes. organelles
A. PPLO (1) Peroxisome and ribosome
B. Typical bacteria
(2) Mitochondria and ER
C. Viruses
(3) Chloroplast and ER
(1) C < A < B
(4) ER and Golgi body
(2) A < B < C
(3) B < A < C
(4) C < B < A 119. How many stage(s) of karyokinesis of
mitosis occur(s) after the disappearance of
nuclear membrane?
112. How many of the given structure(s) is/are (1) Three
present in higher plant cells?
(2) Two
Cell wall, Plastid, Centriole, Large
(3) Four
central vacuole
(4) One
(1) One
(2) Two 120. Event which occur in mitotic metaphase is
(3) Three (1) Chromosomal material start to
(4) Four condense to form compact mitotic
chromosomes
113. Which of the following is an exception of cell (2) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
theory chromosomes
(1) Bacteria (3) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle
(2) Viruses (4) Endomembrane system begin to
disappear along with nuclear
(3) Protists membrane
(4) Fungi

121. Bivalent formation takes place in

114. A chromosome with the centromere at its (1) Leptotene
one end is
(2) Zygotene
(1) Acrocentric
(3) Pachytene
(2) Metacentric
(4) Diplotene
(3) Submetacentric
(4) Telocentric
122. Histone protein synthesis occurs in
(1) G1 phase
115. Glycocalyx may be thick and tough in
bacterial cells called (2) S phase
(1) Cell wall (3) G2 phase
(2) Slime layer (4) M phase
(3) Capsule
(4) Cell membrane 123. A cell at prophase shows all, except
(1) Condensation of chromatin
116. Motile bacteria are able to move with the (2) Spindle fibre formation
help of (3) Nucleolus reappearance
(1) Pili (4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Flagella 124. Yeast cell divides once in
(4) Cilia (1) 15 minutes
(2) 90 minutes
117. The genetic material is naked and not (3) 30 minutes
surrounded by a nuclear membrane in
(4) 24 hours
(1) PPLO
(2) WBC
125. In interkinesis of _______ cells, centriole
(3) Columnar epithelial cell pair duplicates.
(4) Mesophyll cell (1) Angiospermic
(2) Animal
(3) E. coli
(4) Meristematic higher plant

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

126. Splitting of centromere is not seen in 131. Proteinaceous small disc shaped structure
(1) Anaphase at the surface of centromere of chromosome
is known as
(2) Anaphase I
(1) Telomere
(3) Anaphase II
(2) Centrosome
(4) Both anaphase and anaphase II
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centriole
127. Telophase differs from prophase as in
(1) Telophase Golgi, ER and nucleus
reform but in prophase they disappear 132. How many tetrads will be formed if a diploid
cell contains 18 chromosomes?
(2) Telophase chromatin condensation
begins and in prophase it is completed (1) 18
(3) Telophase nuclear envelop (2) 9
disintegrates and in prophase it (3) 27
develops around the chromatin (4) 36
(4) Telophase chromatids move to
opposite poles and in prophase they
are aligned at equator 133. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes
place in
(1) Zygotene
128. Mitosis is not required for
(2) Pachytene
(1) Healing the wounds
(3) Leptotene
(2) Growth of multicellular organisms
(4) Diplotene
(3) Maintenance of cell size
(4) Introduction of variations
134. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata
129. Metaphase is considered as best stage to
(2) Disappearance of nucleolus and
study the morphology of chromosomes
nuclear membrane
because here
(3) Dissolution of the synaptonemal
(1) Each chromosome contains a single
chromatid complex
(2) Chromosomes align themselves at the (4) Recombination of genetic material on
the two chromosomes
equator
(3) Condensation of chromatin material
starts 135. How many mitotic divisions are required to
(4) Chromosomes are thickest and produce 64 cells from one cell?
shortest (1) 64
(2) 16
130. Crossing over takes place between (3) 63
(1) Sister chromatids of a chromosome (4) 8
(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
chromosomes
(3) Sister chromatids of non homologous
chromosomes
(4) Non sister chromatids of non
homologous chromosomes

SECTION-B

136. Mark the incorrect option for mitochondria.
(1) Double membrane bound
(2) 70 S ribosome is present
(3) Few RNA molecules present
(4) It has single linear DNA
137. Select the pair of single membrane bound
organelles
(1) ER, Nucleus
(2) Lysosome, Golgi apparatus
(3) Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus
(4) Lysosome, Chloroplast

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

138. Chromatin contains 145. The daughter cells produced after meiosis I
(1) DNA and RNA only (1) Are genetically similar to each other
(2) DNA, RNA and acidic histone proteins (2) Are genetically similar to parent cell
(3) DNA, RNA, basic histones and some (3) Are genetically dissimilar to each other
non-histone proteins (4) Have same ploidy level as that of
(4) DNA, RNA and non-histone proteins parent cell
only
146. What will be the number of chromatids in
139. Plasmid prophase I of a cell having 20 bivalents?
(1) Is ssDNA (1) 20
(2) Is linear DNA (2) 80
(3) Is genomic DNA (3) 40
(4) Confers certain unique phenotypic (4) 10
features to bacteria

147. Double metaphasic plate is formed during

140. The core of the cilium or flagellum is called (1) Mitosis
the
(2) Meiosis I
(1) Axoneme
(3) Meiosis II
(2) Radial spoke
(4) Mitosis and meiosis II
(3) Hub
(4) Central sheath
148. In G0 phase, a cell
(1) Divides continuously
141. Tonoplast is the membrane of
(1) Mitochondria (2) Is metabolically active
(2) Vacuole (3) Divides into two daughter cells
(3) Ribosome (4) Prepares itself for division
(4) Peroxisome
149. DNA becomes double in
(1) G1 phase
142. Palade particles are ________ bound cell
organelles. (2) S phase
(1) Double membrane (3) G2 phase
(2) Single membrane (4) M phase
(3) Non-membrane
(4) Four membrane 150. In animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by
(1) Cell plate formation
143. Recombinase mediated activity is seen (2) Cell wall formation
during which stage of meiosis-I? (3) Phragmoplast formation
(1) Leptotene
(4) Furrow formation
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

144. The most active stage, though called resting

phase of cell cycle involves
(1) Congression of chromosomes
(2) Separation of chromatids and splitting
of centromere
(3) Duplication of cell organelles
(4) Condensation of chromatids

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. The kind of epithelium which covers the dry 156. Osteocytes are bone forming cells, present
surface of the skin is in the spaces called
(1) Simple squamous (1) Lamellae
(2) Ciliated cuboidal (2) Lacunae
(3) Simple columnar (3) Fat storage area
(4) Compound (4) Solid and pliable ground matrix

152. Select the correct option for smooth muscle 157. Identify and observe the given tissue.
fibre.
(1) Branched
(2) Peripheral nucleus
(3) Unbranched
(4) Cylindrical in shape

153. A single layer of thin and flattened cells with

irregular boundaries in alveoli of lungs is
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the
given tissue.
(4) Ciliated epithelium
(1) It serves weight bearing function in
human body
154. Match column I with column II and select the (2) It provides structural framework to the
correct option. body
(3) It has a solid and pliable ground
Column I Column II substance rich in collagen fibres
a. Macrophage (i) Release of (4) It protects and supports softer tissues
vasodilator and organs
b. Mast cell (ii) Collagen
fibre
158. The excess, unused nutrients in the form of
c. Fibroblast (iii) Phagocytosis fat is stored in
d. Adipocyte (iv) Loose (1) Neural tissue
connective
tissue (2) Adipose tissue
(3) Skeletal tissue
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Areolar tissue
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
159. Tip of nose and outer ear pinna show the
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
presence of which connective tissue?
(1) Cartilage
155. Property shown by neurons is (2) Bone
(1) Excitability
(3) Ligament
(2) Elasticity
(4) Tendon
(3) Extensibility
(4) Contractility
160. Cell junctions that prevent the leakage of
substances across a tissue are
(1) Tight junctions
(2) Adhering junctions
(3) Gap junctions
(4) Desmosomes

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

161. 166. Following is the diagram of glandular

epithelium which is marked as (a) and (b).
Select the option which is correct
In above given box, how many structures are identification of (a) and (b) with
unicellular glands? functions/characteristics/ location
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

162. Read the following statements.

A : Some of the squamous and cuboidal
cells get specialised for secretion, called
glandular epithelium.
B : Salivary gland is an example of
multicellular glandular epithelium consisting
of cluster of cells.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Statement A is correct and B is
incorrect
(4) Statement B is correct and A is
incorrect

163. Heparin and histamine are released by

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Mast cells
(1) (a)–Unicelluiar gland, Sweat glands
(3) Osteocytes
(2) (b)–Multicellular gland, consists of a
(4) Adipocytes duct and secretory part, both made up
of epithelial cells e,g,: Gastric glands
164. Read the following statements w.r.t neurons (3) (a)–Multicellular gland, isolated cells
(A) They are unit of neural system e.g.: Sebaceous glands
(B) They exert greatest control over the (4) (b)–Multicellular gland, cluster of cells
body’s responsiveness to changing e.g.: mucocytes
conditions
(C) These are specialized to send messages
in our body 167. The backbone in nucleic acid is formed by
How many statements is/are correct? (1) Sugar chain only
(1) One (2) Phosphate chain only
(2) Two (3) Sugar-nitrogen base chain
(3) Three (4) Sugar-phosphate-sugar chain
(4) Zero
168. GLUT-4 is a X and is associated with Y .
165. Which of the following type of tissue is
Choose the ¯¯
¯¯¯
option ¯
¯¯
that correctly fill X and¯
¯
Y.
incorrectly matched with its location?
X Y
Tissue Location
¯
¯¯¯
¯ ¯
¯¯¯
¯
Compound Inner lining of (1) Carbohydrate Glucose transport
(1) –
epithelium pancreatic duct (2) Protein Ionic transport
Pseudostratified Inner surface of (3) Lipid Protein transport
(2) –
epithelium buccal cavity
(4) Protein Glucose transport
Cuboidal Tubular parts of
(3) – (1) (1)
epithelium nephron
Squamous (2) (2)
(4) – Air sacs of lungs
epithelium (3) (3)
(1) (1) (4) (4)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

169. The simplest amino acid is 175. Match the column I with column II and
(1) Glutamic acid choose the correct answer with respect to
elements present in earth crust.
(2) Lysine
Column I Column II
(3) Valine
a. Hydrogen (i) Very little
(4) Glycine
b. Sulphur (ii) 46.6%
c. Nitrogen (iii) 0.14%
170. Select the amino acid which is not aromatic
in nature. d. Oxygen (iv) 0.03%
(1) Tyrosine e. Silicon (v) 27.7%
(2) Phenylalanine (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(v,) e(i)
(3) Tryptophan (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i), e(v)
(4) Glutamic acid (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii), e(v)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii), e(v)
171. Prosthetic group is usually
(1) An organic co-factor firmly attached to 176. Select the correct match between column I
the apoenzyme and column II.
(2) An inorganic co-factor transiently Column I Column II
attached to the apoenzyme Storage
a. Cellulose (i)
(3) An organic co-factor loosely attached to homopolysaccharide
the apoenzyme Structural
b. Chitin (ii)
(4) An inorganic co-factor loosely attached homopolysaccharide
to the apoenzyme Branched polymer of
c. Inulin (iii)
glucose
172. Select the incorrect match. d. Glycogen (iv) Exoskeleton of arthropods
(1) Polymeric substance : Rubber (v) Cannot trap I2 molecules
(2) Drug : Curcumin Choose the correct option.
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Toxin : Ricin
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Terpenoid : Codeine
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) (1)
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
177. Select the correct statement.
(4) (4)
(1) Dipeptides have two peptide bonds
and three amino acids
173. All of the following bonds are likely to be (2) Formation of glycosidic bond is
involved in stabilizing three-dimensional accompanied by gain of water
folding of most proteins except molecule
(1) Hydrogen bonds (3) Lipids are polymers made up of
(2) Covalent bonds glycerol and fatty acids
(3) Ionic bonds (4) Phosphoester bond is present between
(4) Phosphodiester bonds a phospate group and hydroxyl group
of sugar molecule of a nucleotide

174. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lipids.

(1) Phospholipids have phosphorus and a
phosphorylated organic compound in
them
(2) Gingelly oil has higher melting point
than fats
(3) Lecithin is an example of a
phospholipid
(4) Phospholipids are found in cell
membrane

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

178. In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is 182. Assertion : Co-enzymes are inorganic
called the A end and the left end is called compounds but their association with
¯¯¯¯¯ apoenzymes is only transient.
the B end. Reason : Catalytic activity is enhanced
Fill ¯¯¯¯¯
the blanks A and B by selecting the when prosthetic groups are detached from
correct option. apoenzymes.
A B In the light of above statements, select the
correct option.
(1) Non-reducing Reducing
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
(2) Non-reducing Non-reducing the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Reducing Reducing
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(4) Reducing Non-reducing
and the reason is the correct
(1) (1) explanation of the assertion
(2) (2) (3) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) (3) statements
(4) (4) (4) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false

179. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of

183. In sea urchin’s dsDNA, 27% of the bases
(1) Malic dehydrogenase were shown to be guanine. The percentages
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase of the other three bases expected to be in
(3) Carbonic anhydrase this DNA are:
(4) Cytochrome oxidase C A T
(1) 23%, 23%, 36%
180. Identify the number of compounds from the (2) 36%, 23%, 23%
box given below which form a part of acid
(3) 27%, 23%, 23%
soluble fraction.
Monosaccharides, Lipids, Amino acids, (4) 17%, 33%, 33%
Polysaccharides (1) (1)
Choose the correct option. (2) (2)
(1) One (3) (3)
(2) Two (4) (4)
(3) Three
(4) Four 184. Secondary metabolite functioning as a lectin
is
181. Read the following statements (A) and (B) (1) Abrin
and select the correct option. (2) Vinblastin
Statement (A): Glycerol is trihydroxy
(3) Morphine
propane.
Statement (B): Some tissues especially the (4) Concanavalin A
neural tissues have lipids with more
complex structures.
185. The most abundant protein in animal world
(1) Statement (A) is incorrect while (B) is is
correct
(1) Elastin
(2) Statement (A) is correct while (B) is
(2) Myosin
incorrect
(3) Actin
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Collagen
(4) Both statements are incorrect

SECTION-B

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

186. Tendon is a type of 191. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose
(1) Dense regular connective tissue the correct option.
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue Column-I Column-II
(3) Areolar connective tissue Catalyzes a
(4) Fluid connective tissue transfer of a
group (other
(a) Oxidoreductases (i)
than hydrogen)
187. Choose the correct option w.r.t. ciliated between a pair
columnar epithelium. of substrate
(1) Cells are loosely packed. Catalyzes
(2) It lines the hollow surface of fallopian interconversion
tube. of optical,
(b) Transferases (ii)
(3) High amount of intracellular matrix is geometric or
present between cells. positional
isomers
(4) It represents brush bordered
epithelium. Catalyzes
oxidoreduction
(c) Isomerases (iii)
between two
188. Structural and functional unit of neural substrates
system is
(1) Node of Ranvier (a) (b) (c)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Neuron
(3) Axon (2) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Schwann cells (3) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)

189. Ligament connects (1) (1)

(1) Humerus to biceps (2) (2)
(2) Tibia to femur (3) (3)
(3) Biceps to triceps (4) (4)
(4) Triceps to humerus
192. Read the given statements.
a. Ribozyme is a nucleic acid acting as an
190. The incorrect statement w.r.t. primary
enzyme.
metabolites is that they
b. After catalysis, ES complex breaks to
(1) Are required for basic metabolic release free enzyme and substrate.
processes c. Deoxyribose sugar is present in DNA.
(2) Have identifiable functions d. Inulin is a homopolymer of galactose.
(3) Do not take part in physiological How many statements are wrong?
processes (1) One
(4) Include nucleic acids (2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

193. Which of the following is not a property of

enzymes?
(1) Efficiency of an enzyme is directly
proportional to the turn-over number
(2) Catalytic activity of an apoenzyme
depends upon additional inorganic or
organic cofactors that attach to it
(3) Enzymes increase the activation
energy barrier of chemical reactions
(4) Enzymes remain unchanged at the end
of a catalysed reaction

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A

194. Match column I with column II and choose 197. Vinblastine and curcumin are example of
the correct option. which type of secondary metabolites?
Column I Column II (1) Pigments
a. Peptide bonds (i) Cellulose (2) Toxins
b. Nucleotide (ii) Haemoglobin (3) Lectins
c. Nucleoside (iii) Adenylic acid (4) Drugs
d. Glycosidic bonds (iv) Uridine
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 198. Identify the cell junction which performs
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) cementing to keep neighbouring cells
together
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Tight junction
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Adhering junction
(3) Gap junction
195. Which statement is correct for
biomolecules? (4) Zonula occludens
(1) All carbohydrates break down into
glucose 199. In humans, microvilli are present in
(2) Sequence of amino acids determines epithelium of
primary protein structure (1) Urinary bladder
(3) RNA is single stranded and contains (2) Moist surface of skin
similar nitrogen bases as in DNA (3) PCT of nephron
(4) Lipids are macromolecules that are (4) Cornea of eye
formed by esterification of fatty acid
with glycerol/alcohol
200. Enzymes which catalyse joining of C-S bond
falls under the class
196. All of the following are the characteristic
(1) Transferases
features of lining of alveoli, except
(1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with (2) Lyases
irregular boundaries (3) Hydrolases
(2) Cells are compactly packed with little (4) Ligases
intercellular matrix
(3) Lining cells of alveoli rest on a non-
cellular basement membrane
(4) Cells contain microvilli to increase
surface are for diffusion

20