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Physical Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
14. If hypothetically end centered cubic cell exist in 20. A solid has P atoms at corners & Q atoms at face
nature, effective no. of atoms per unit cell would be centers. If atoms along one of the face diagonals are
(1) 1 (2) 2 removed, formula of solid would be
(1) P2Q3 (2) P4Q3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) P4Q5 (4) P3Q10
16. How many bravais lattices are present in all crystal 22. Formula of given solid is
system?
(1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 16
Answer Key
1. (2) 14. (2)
2. (3) 15. (4)
3. (2) 16. (3)
4. (3) 17. (3)
5. (4) 18. (3)
6. (4) 19. (3)
7. (2) 20. (4)
8. (3) 21. (4)
9. (3) 22. (3)
10. (2) 23. (2)
11. (2) 24. (4)
12. (2) 25. (3)
13. (3)
4
16. (3)
5. (4)
There are total 14 bravias lattices.
These all are characteristics of molecular solids.
17. (3)
6. (4) Cubic : Primitive, Face centered, Body Centered
Molecular solid is a bad conductor of heat & Hexagonal : Primitive
electricity and has high mp. Tetragonal : Primitive, Body centered
Triclinic : Primitive
7. (2)
Glass is super-cooled liquid.
18. (3)
Triclinic crystal a b c ; = 90°
8. (3)
Ionic solids are formed by ions through coulombic Cubic crystal a = b = c ; = = = 90°
interactions
. 19. (3)
9. (3) ZX = 8 × 1/8 = 1 ; ZY = 6 × 1/2 = 3
Metals show ductility. Formula : X1Y3
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1. Which defect causes decrease in the density of 7. Structure shown here represents:
crystal?
A+ B– A+ B–
(1) Frenkel (2) Schottky
A+
(3) Interstitial (4) centre
B– A+ B– A+
Cation : A+
2. Which of the following has the least void space e–
fraction in their structure? Anion : B–
+ – + –
A B A B
(1) BCC (2) BCC and HCP
(3) HCP (4) FCC and HCP
B– A+ B– A+
3. The number of octahedral void in BCC structure is (1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) Both defects (4) None of these
(3) 2 (4) 4
B– B– A+
Cation : A+ 11. Which defect decreases density of the crystal?
+
A –
Anion : B (1) Frenkel defect (2) Schottky defect
A+ B– A+ B–
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
B– A+ B– A+
(1) Schottky defect 12. LiCl is pink due to
(2) Frenkel defect (1) Frenkel defect (2) Schottky defect
(3) Metal excess defect (3) F-Center (4) Interstitial defect
(4) None of these
2
13. Which among the given metal oxides is 16. Which one of the following has Frenkel defect
antiferromagnetic in nature? (1) Sodium chloride (2) Graphite
(1) MnO (2) CrO2 (3) Silver bromide (4) Diamond
(3) NO2 (4) CrO2
17. Which one of the following compounds shows both.
Frenkel as well as Schottky defects?
14. Which among the given defects is also known as (1) AgI (2) NaCl
dislocation defect? (3) ZnS (4) AgBr
(1) Frenkel defect (2) Schottky defect
18. Silicon should be doped with which one of the
(3) Non-stoichiomeric (4) Metal excess defect following so as to give p-type of semiconductor?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Arsenic
15. Among the given defects, which is also known as (3) Selenium (4) Boron
dislocation defect?
19. Si doped with electron rich impurity forms
(1) Frenkel defect
(1) p-type semiconductor
(2) Schottky defect
(2) n-type semiconductor
(3) Metal excess defect (3) Insulator
(4) Simple interstitial defect (4) Salt bridge
3
Answer Key
1. (2) 11. (2)
2. (4) 12. (3)
3. (1) 13. (1)
4. (2) 14. (1)
5. (3) 15. (1)
6. (2) 16. (3)
7. (4) 17. (4)
8. (4) 18. (4)
9. (2) 19. (2)
10. (3)
4
11. (2)
3. (1)
Due to missing ion pair, density decreases due to
BCC unit cell doesn’t have any octahedral void.
Schottky defect.
4. (2)
12. (3)
For FCC cell,
LiCl is pink due to presence of F-center.
Z = 4, 4r = 2a
Z 4r 3
PF 13. (1)
3a 3
Among the given, MnO is anti-ferromagnetic in
2 2a 3 nature.
4 4
43
3 a3 14. (1)
2
PF Frenkel defect is also known as dislocation defect as
6 in this, the smaller ion (usually cation) is dislocated
from its normal site to an interstitial site, hence it is
5. (3) also called dislocation effect.
Both FCC & HCP has 74% packing efficiency
6. (2) 15. (1)
Frenkel defect has dislocation of smaller ion. Frenkel defect is also known as dislocation defect
because atom present in crystal lattice is dislocated
7. (4) from normal site to interstitial site in frenkel defect.
Given defect is metal excess defect.
16. (3)
8. (4) Due to large difference in the size of Ag+ and Br– ions,
Frenkel defect is noticed in ionic solids with low AgBr exhibits Frenkel defect.
radius ratio.
5
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Physical Chemistry
Lecture No.- 01
By- Anushka Chaudhary Ma'am
Physical Chemistry
Lecture No. - 02
By- Anushka Chaudhary Ma'am
Physical Chemistry
1
1. What is the number of ppm of NaCl in the solution 6. Find molarity of a sample of pure water. Consider
with 117g of NaCl dissolved in 500 mL of water? density = 1 g/ml.
(1) 1.89 × 105 (2) 2.78 × 105 (1) 27.7 (2) 33.3
(3) 55.5 (4) 11.1
(3) 9.12 × 105 (4) 6.54 × 105
Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (1) 7. (3)
2. (4) 8. (1)
3. (4) 9. (4)
4. (4) 10. (1)
5. (1) 11. (3)
6. (3)
3
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1. The factor that does not affect the solubility of solid 8. The value of Henry’s constant (KH) depends on
in water is (1) nature of the gas
(1) temperature
(2) nature of the solvent
(2) nature of bond
(3) complex formation (3) temperature and pressure
(4) pressure (4) all of these
5. Unit of Henry’s constant KH is same as that of (1) open container (2) closed container
(1) Volume (2) Temperature (3) both (1) & (2) (4) none of these
(3) Energy (4) Pressure
12. Maximum value of partial pressure at a particular
6. If partial pressure of Gas A = 0.4 bar, Gas B = 0.2 temperature is called
bar and Gas C = 0.5 bar, then the gas having
(1) Osmotic pressure
maximum solubility (neglecting other factors) is
(1) A (2) B (2) -pressure
(3) C (4) All are equal soluble (3) atmospheric pressure
(4) vapour pressure
7. Which law states that the amount of gas that is
soluble in a liquid is directly proportional to the
partial pressure of that gas above the liquid when the 13. A solution which is ideal in nature follows.
temperature is kept constant? (1) Graham’s Law (2) Ostwald Law
(1) Raoult’s Law (2) Henry’s Law (3) Fleming’s Law (4) Raoult’s Law
(3) Coloumb’s Law (4) Dalton’s Law
2
14. The correct relationship of vapour pressure and 16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
temperature is given by ideal solution?
(1) Vmix = 0 (2) Smix = +ve
(3) Hmix = 0 (4) Gmix = +ve
Answer Key
1. (4) 11. (2)
2. (4) 12. (4)
3. (2) 13. (4)
4. (2) 14. (1)
5. (4) 15. (1)
6. (3) 16. (4)
7. (2) 17. (1)
8. (4) 18. (3)
9. (3) 19. (1)
10. (1)
4
3. (2)
12. (4)
According to ‘like dissolves like’ law, benzene
dissolves in naphthalene as both are non-polar. At a particular temperature
H2O(l) ⇌ H2O(g)
KP PH2O
5. (4)
∴ Maximum value of partial pressure is called
∵ P = KH . X vapour pressure achieved at equilibrium.
And X (mole fraction) is unit less so P = KH and thus
both have same unit.
13. (4)
Ideal solutions are those which follow Raoult’s Law.
6. (3)
∵ Solubility of gas α-partial pressure of gas. 14. (1)
∴ Gas C is maximum soluble by Henry’s Law. The vapour pressure rises with temperature
exponentially.
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1. Find elevation in boiling point of a solution obtained 7. The solution having lesser value of osmotic pressure
by dissolving 90 g of glucose in 200 g of water. is called
(Kb of H2O = 0.52 K kg/mole) (1) Hypotonic solution
(1) 2.6 K (2) 5.3 K (2) Hypertonic solution
(3) 1.3 K (4) 4.2 K (3) Isotonic solution
(4) Osmotic solution
2. 30 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 360 g of
water at 100°C. If vapour pressure of solution is 570 8. The osmotic pressure of a solution is 2 atm at 273 K
mm of Hg, find molar mass of solute then at 546 K, the osmotic pressure is
(1) 5.5 g (2) 4.5 g (1) 0.5 atm (2) 1 atm
(3) 6.5 g (4) 7.5 g (3) 2 atm (4) 4 atm
3. Find the molality of an aqueous solution of urea 9. Osmotic pressure is 0.0821 atm at temperature of
which has a boiling point of 102.08°C. 300 K. Find concentration in mole/litre.
(Take Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) (1) 0.33 (2) 0.066
–3
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3.3 × 10 (4) 3
(3) 3 (4) 4
10. Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous solution of
glucose is 2K. Find the depression in freezing point
4. The boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous solution of of the same solution. (Kf = 1.86 K kg/mole and Kb =
urea is 100.18°C at 1 atm. The molal elevation 0.52 K kg/mole)
constant of water is (1) 2.16 K (2) 7.14 K
(1) 0.2 K kg mol–1 (2) 0.8 K kg mol–1 (3) 3.38 K (4) 6.28 K
–1
(3) 1.2 K kg mol (4) 1.8 K kg mol–1
11. Find the osmotic pressure of 12% solution of cane
5. A centimolal non aqueous solution of a non- sugar (mol. wt. 342) at 27°C (d = 1 g/ml)
electrolyte has elevation in boiling point of 0.6°C. (1) 9.2 atm (2) 5.62 atm
Find elevation in boiling point of the same solution (3) 7.32 atm (4) 8.64 atm
if molality is 0.4 mole/kg.
(1) 12°C (2) 24°C 12. The osmotic pressure of a M/5 solution of glucose at
(3) 6°C (4) 36°C 47°C is
(1) 1.25 atm (2) 2.25 atm
6. The process of separating solvent from its solution (3) 5.25 atm (4) 7.25 atm
by applying pressure greater than osmotic pressure is
called 13. Elevation in boiling point for equimolal solutions of
(1) fractional distillation NaCl, Al2(SO4)3, BaCl2 and MgSO4 is highest for
(2) condensation (assume = 1)
(3) distillation (1) NaCl (2) Na2SO4
(4) reverse osmosis
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) MgSO4
2
14. The relationship between osmotic pressure of 17. Correct expression for degree of dissociation ‘’ of
equimolar solutions of KCl, Ca(NO3)2 and Na2SO4 is electrolyte AxBy is given by
( = 1) i 1 i 1
Na2SO4 Ca2 (NO3 )2 KCl (1) (2)
(1) x y 1 1 y 1
(2) KCl Ca(NO3 )2 Na2SO4
1 i
1 y 1
(3) Ca(NO3 )2 KCl Na2SO4 (3) (4)
1 x y i 1
(4) Ca(NO3 )2 KCl Na2SO4
18. Elevation in boiling point for 2 molal solution of
15. Which of the following pairs of solutions are glucose is 2K. The depression in the freezing point
expected to be isotonic at same temperature? for molal solution of glucose is 2K. The relation
(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl between Kb and Kf is
(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2 (1) Kb = 2Kf (2) Kf = 2Kb
(3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (3) Kb = Kf (4) None of these
16. K2[PtCl4] is 30% ionized in aqueous solution. The 19. The process used for desalination of sea water is
value of its Vant Hoff factor is (1) Osmosis (2) Centrifugation
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.4 (3) Reverse osmosis (4) Distillation
(3) 1.6 (4) 1.8
3
Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (3) 11. (4)
2. (2) 12. (3)
3. (4) 13. (3)
4. (4) 14. (2)
5. (2) 15. (4)
6. (4) 16. (3)
7. (1) 17. (1, 3)
8. (4) 18. (2)
9. (3) 19. (3)
10. (2)
4
3. (4) 9. (3)
ΔTb = Kb m π = CRT
102.08 – 100 = 0.52 m 0.0821 = C × 0.0821 × 300
2.08 1
m 4 C 3.3 10–3 mol / L
0.52 300
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Physical Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
1
1. Galvanic or voltaic cell is a device used to convert 6. Calculate Eo for a given cell
chemical energy produced in ________ reaction into Zn(s) | ZnSO4(aq) || CuSO4(aq) | Cu(s)
__________ energy. Given that,
(1) Chemical, chemical (2) Electrical, chemical E oZn / Zn +2 = 0.76 V
(3) Redox, electrical (4) Redox, redox
E oCu /Cu +2 = −0.34 V
2. In Daniell cell (1) –1.1 V (2) 0.0 V
(1) Zn rod as anode and Cu rod as cathode (3) 1.1 V (4) 0.42 V
(2) Zn rod as cathode and Cu rod as anode
(3) Zn rod is represented by (+ve) electrode 7. Standard electrode potentials for Sn+4/Sn+2 couple is
(4) Cu rod is represented by (–ve) electrode +0.15 V and that for the Cr+3/Cr couple is –0.74 V.
These two couples in their standard state are
3. The potential difference between the two electrodes connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be
of a galvanic cell is called (1) 0.89 V (2) +0.18 V
(1) Electrode potential (2) Zeta potential (3) 1.83 V (4) +1.19 V
(3) Cell potential (4) Junction potential
8. The cell reaction of a cell is:
4. In Galvanic cell, conventional, Mg(s) + Cu2+ (aq.) ⇌ Cu(s) + Mg2+ (aq.)
(1) Anode is on the left hand side and is (+ve) If the standard reduction potentials of Mg and Cu are
electrode
–2.37 V and +0.34 V respectively. The standard
(2) Cathode is on the left hand side and is (–ve) EMF of the cell is
electrode
(1) 2.03 V (2) –2.03 V
(3) Cathode is on the left hand side and is (+ve) (3) + 2.71 V (4) –2.71 V
electrode
(4) Anode is on the left hand side and is (–ve) 9. When the salt bridge is removed, the voltage.
electrode, cathode is on right hand side and is (1) Does not change
+ve electrode
(2) Increase to maximum
(3) Decrease to half the value
5. Which of following statements is/are correct for a
(4) Drops to zero
galvanic cell?
I. Reduction at cathode and oxidation at anode. 10. In a galvanic cell, which of following statement(s)
II. Reduction at anode and oxidation at cathode. is/are correct regarding salt bridge.
III. Electrons flow from anode to cathode (1) To complete the electrical circuit.
IV. Electrons flow from cathode to anode (2) To maintain the electrical neutrality of both
(1) I, IV (2) II, III anodic and cathodic compartment.
(3) II, IV (4) I, III (3) For smooth flow of current
(4) All are correct
2
Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (3)
2. (1)
3. (3)
4. (4)
5. (4)
6. (3)
7. (1)
8. (3)
9. (4)
10. (4)
3
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1. Assuming that hydrogen behaves as an ideal gas, 7. Determine the equilibrium constant of the following
what is the EMF of the cell at 25°C if P1 = 600 mm reaction at 298 K:
and P2 = 420 mm: 2Fe3+ + Sn2+ → 2Fe2+ + Sn4+
Pt|H2(P1)|HCl||H2(P2)| Pt? (Given: 𝐸𝐸°𝑠𝑠𝑛𝑛4+/𝑆𝑆𝑛𝑛2+ = 0.15 volt, 𝐸𝐸°𝐹𝐹𝑒𝑒 3+/ 𝐹𝐹𝑒𝑒 2+ =
[Given: 2.303 RT/F = 0.06, log 7 = 0.85] 0.771 volt)
(1) –0.0045 V (2) –0.0 V (1) 1.0 × 1010 (2) 1.0 × 1021
(3) +0.0045 V (4) +0.0015 V (3) 2.0 × 10 21
(4) 2.0 × 1011
2. The standard EMF for the cell reaction: Zn(s) + Cu2+ 8. The equilibrium constant for the following general
(aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s) is 1.10 volts at 25°C. The reaction is 1030. Calculate E° for the cell at 298K.
EMF of the cell reaction when 0.1 M Cu2+ and 0.1 M 2X2(s) + 3Y2+ (aq) ⇌ 2X23+ (aq) + 3Y (s)
Zn2+ solutions are used at 25°C is (1) +0.105 V (2) +0.2955 V
(1) 1.10 V (2) 1.041 V (3) 0.0985 V (4) –0.2955 V
(3) –1.10 V (4) –1.041 V
9. The potential of the cell containing two hydrogen
3. Electrode potential of the half-cell electrodes as represented below
Pt(s)|Hg(l)|Hg2Cl2(s)|Cl– (aq) can be increased by: 1 1
(1) Increasing [Cl–] Pt ; H2(g) | H+ (10–8 M) | | H+ (0.001 M) | H2(g) ; Pt,
2 2
(2) Decreasing [Cl–] is
(3) Increasing Hg2Cl2(s) (1) 0.296 V (2) –0.295 V
(4) Decreasing Hg (l) (3) 0.13 V (4) –0.13 V
4. A solution containing H+ and D+ ions is in 10. The standard EMF of a galvanic cell involving two
equilibrium with a mixture of H2 and D2 gases at moles of electrons in its redox reaction is 0.59 V.
25°C. If the partial pressures of both gases are 1.0 The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction of the
atm, find the ratio of [D+ ]/ [H+]: cell is
(Given: 𝐸𝐸𝐷𝐷° +/𝐷𝐷2 = –0.003 V) (1) 1020 (2) 105
(1) 1.23 (2) 1.12 (3) 10 (4) 1010
(3) 0.11 (4) 1.0
11. If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value,
5. The measured voltage for the reaction with the then which of the following gives the correct
indicated concentration is 1.50 V. Calculate E°. relationships for the values of ∆G° and Keq?
Cr(s) + 3Ag+(aq, 0.10M) → 3Ag(s) + Cr3+(aq, (1) ∆G° > 0; Keq > 1 (2) ∆G° < 0; Keq > 1
0.30M) (3) ∆G° < 0; Keq < 1 (4) ∆G° > 0; Keq < 1
(1) 1.35 (2) 1.40
(3) 1.65 (4) 1.55 12. Given:
(i) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu; E° = 0.337 V
6. The EMF of the cell: Zn | Zn2+ (0.01 M) || Fe2+ (ii) Cu2+ + e– → Cu+; E° = 0.153 V
(0.001 M) | Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 V, then the value Standard electrode potential (E°) for the reaction,
of equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is Cu+ + e– → Cu, will be:
0.32 0.32 (1) 0.52 V (2) 0.90 V
(1) e 0.0295
(2) 10 0.0295
(3) 0.30 V (4) 0.38 V
0.26 0.32
(3) 10 0.0295
(4) 10 0.0591
2
Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (3)
2. (1)
3. (1)
4. (2)
5. (4)
6. (2)
7. (2)
8. (2)
9. (1)
10. (1)
11. (4)
12. (1)
3
Or, 0.2905 =
0.059
. log Keq Zn ( s ) + Cu 2+ ( aq )
Zn 2+ ( aq ) + Cu ( s )
2
0.059 0.01 Zn 2
Zn 2+ + 2e − ; n =
=– . log
2 0.001
0.32
� �
∴ Keq = 10 0.0295
4
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1
14. The ⋀∞ of NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are 129.8, 217.4 18. The value of Λ ∞
m for KCl and KNO3 are 149.86 and
and 108.9 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 respectively. The ⋀∞ of 154.96 Ω cm mol–1.
–1 2
NH4OH is (S cm2 eq–1)
Also Λ ∞ − is 71.44 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1.
(1) 238.3 (2) 218 Cl
(3) 240 (4) 260 The value of Λ ∞ is
NO3−
15. The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of (1) 76.54 ohm cm2 mol–1
–1
AgNO3, NaCl and NaNO3 are 116.5, 110.3 and (2) 133.08 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
105.2 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The molar (3) 37.7 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
conductivity of AgCl is (S cm2 mol–1) (4) Unpredictable
(1) 121.6 (2) 111.4
(3) 130.6 (4) 150.2 19. If Λ ∞
m (H 2SO 4 ) x S cm 2 mol−1
=
Note: Kindly find the Video Solution of DPPs Questions in the DPPs Section.
Answer Key
1. (3)
2. (2)
3. (4)
4. (1)
5. (1)
6. (4)
7. (2)
8. (4)
9. (1)
10. (3)
11. (4)
12. (3)
13. (4)
14. (1)
15. (1)
16. (4)
17. (1)
18. (1)
19. (1)
4
19. (1)
1
Λ∞
m (CH3COOH) =Λ∞
m (CH3COOK) + Λ∞
m(H 2SO 4 )
2
1
− Λ∞ m(K 2SO 4 )
2
x y = z+ x−y
=z + −
2 2 2
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Physical Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
1
1. The rate of a chemical reaction 5. For the reaction: H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g), the rate of
(1) increases as the reaction proceeds disappearance of H2, is 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1. The
rate of appearance of HI will be
(2) decreases as the reaction proceeds
(1) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) may increase or decrease during the reaction (2) 0.50 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) remains constant as the reaction proceeds (3) 2.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 4.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
2. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 2NH3, rate is
6. In a reaction, the concentration of a reactant changes
expressed as
from 0.2 mole L–1 to 0.15 mol L–1 in 10 min. Avg.
d[N2 ] d[H2 ] d[NH3 ]
(1) 3 rate of reaction
3dt 2dt dt (1) 0.05 (2) 0.0005
d[N 2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] (3) 0.5 (4) 0.005
(2)
dt 3 dt 2 dt
d[N 2 ] 3d[H 2 ] 2d[NH3 ] 7. For the reaction, 2NO N2 + O2, the expression
(3)
dt dt dt 1 d[NO]
represents
d[N2 ] d[H 2 ] d[NH3 ] 2 dt
(4) (1) The rate of formation of NO.
dt dt dt
(2) The average rate of the reaction.
(3) The instantaneous rate of reaction.
dx
3. The term in the rate expression refers to the (4) All of these
dt
(1) instantaneous rate of reaction dx
8. Rate expression of a chemical change is =
(2) average rate of reaction dt
k[A]2[B][C]0. The order of reaction is
(3) increase in the concentration of reactants
(1) 3 (2) 2
(4) concentration of reactants
(3) 1 (4) zero
10. Which statement about molecularity of reaction is 11. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data
not correct? shown for the following reaction: A + B C
(1) It can be obtained from reaction mechanism. Expt. No. [A]0 [B]0 Initial
(2) It may be either whole number or fractional. rate
(3) It depends on elementary step of reaction. 1. 0.012 0.035 0.10
(4) It is the number of molecules of reactants 2. 0.024 0.070 0.80
taking part in a single step reaction. 3. 0.024 0.035 0.10
4. 0.012 0.070 0.80
(1) rate = k[B]3 (2) rate = k[B]4
(3) rate = k[A][B]3 (4) rate = k[A]2[B]2
3
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Answer Key
1. (2, 4) 7. (3)
2. (2) 8. (1)
3. (1) 9. (3)
4. (2) 10. (2)
5. (3) 11. (1)
6. (4)
4
2. (2) 9. (3)
1 d[N2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] Initial rate = K[A][B]
1 dt 3 dt 2 dt Final rate = K[4A][4B]
= 16 K[A][B]
3. (1) Final rate 16
Instantaneous rate of reaction. 16 :1
Initial rate 1
4. (2)
10. (2)
1 d[A] 1 d[B]
Molecularity can never be fractional.
3 dt 2 dt
11. (1)
5. (3)
r k[A]0x [B]0y
1 d[H2 ] 1 d[HI]
x y
1 dt 2 dt 0.10 K [0.012] [0.035] .........(I)
0.80 K [0.012]x [0.070]y ........(II)
6. (4) y
A = [0.15 – 0.2] 1 1
y3
= –0.05 8 2
[A] x
0.10 K [0.012] [0.035]
y
Avg. rate = Also,
t 0.10 K [0.024]x [0.035]y
(0.05)
x
10 1
1 x 0
= 0.005 2
7. (3)
Instantaneous rate.
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1
1. For the reaction A B, the rate of reaction is 7. Which of the following curves represents a first
quadrupled when the concentration of A is doubled; order reaction?
the rate of the reaction is r = k[A]n; the value of n is
(1) 1 (2) zero
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) (2)
5. Units of rate constant of first and zero order 10. The t1/2 of first order reaction is 10 min. Starting
reactions in terms of molarity M unit are, with 100 g of the reactant, the amount remaining
respectively, after one hour is
(1) s–1, M s–1 (2) s–1, M (1) 25.0 g (2) 3.130 g
(3) M s–1, s–1 (4) M, s–1 (3) 12.50 g (4) 1.563 g
12. If concentrations are measured in mol L–1 and time 14. A substance decomposes having rate constant
in min, the unit for the rate constant of a third order 6.8 × 10–2 lit mole–1 sec–1. Calculate half-life if Co
reaction is was 0.05 M.
(1) 240.0 sec. (2) 298.3 sec.
(1) mol L–1 min–1 (2) L2 mol–2 min–1
(3) 294.1 sec. (4) 220.0 sec.
(3) L mol–1 min–1 (4) min–1
15. For a zero order reaction
(1) t1/2 a (2) t1/2 1/a
13. A first order reaction takes 40 min for 30%
decomposition. Calculate t1/2 (3) t1/2 a 2
(4) t1/2 1/a2
(1) 77.7 min (2) 27.2 min 16. Time required to decompose half of the substance
for nth order reaction is inversely proportional to
(3) 55.3 min (4) 67.3 min
(1) an+1 (2) an–1
(3) an–2 (4) an
3
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Answer Key
1. (4) 9. (2)
2. (3) 10. (4)
3. (2) 11. (3)
4. (1) 12. (2)
5. (1) 13. (1)
6. (3) 14. (3)
7. (2) 15. (1)
8. (1) 16. (2)
4
13. (1)
2.303 100
K log 15. (1)
40 100 30
a
2.303 10 t1/2 i.e. t1/2 a
log 2K
40 7
0.693
t1/2
K 16. (2)
1
14. (3) t1/2
The unit of k = 2nd order a n 1
1 1
t1/2 294.1 sec.
K Co 6.8 102 0.05
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Physical Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
1
PRAVESH 2.0(2023)
Chemical Kinetics and Surface Chemistry DPP-01
1. Adsorption is the phenomenon in which a substance 6. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid depends
(1) Accumulates on the surface of other on
substance. (1) Nature of gas (2) Pressure of gas
(2) Goes into the body of the other substances. (3) Temperature (4) All the above
(3) Remains close to the other substances.
(4) Oxidises or reduces the other substances. 7. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, at
x
high pressure, the value of is
2. Adsorption is always m
(1) Endothermic. (1) Directly proportional to pressure.
(2) Exothermic. (2) Inversely proportional to pressure.
(3) Accompanies with increase in entropy. (3) Directly proportional to square of pressure.
(4) Accompanies with increase of enthalpy. (4) Independent of pressure.
10. Which is not a characteristic property of a positive 16. The influence of temperature on the rate of reaction
catalyst? is determined by
(1) It changes the position of the equilibrium (1) Nernst’s equation
(2) It alters the reaction path (2) Gibbs-Helmholtz equation
(3) It increases the rate of reaction (3) Arrhenius equation
(4) None of these (4) Van’t Hoff equation
11. According to collision theory 17. According to Arrhenius equation, rate constant of a
(1) all collisions are sufficiently violent chemical reaction is equal to
(2) all collisions are responsible for product (1) Ae–Ea/RT (2) AeEa/RT
formation (3) Ae RT/Ea
(4) Ae–RT/Ea
(3) all collisions are effective
(4) only a fraction of collisions are effective 18. The correct expression for Arrhenius equation
which have enough energy to from products containing effect of temperature on the rate constant
is (T2 > T1)
12. In order to react, molecule, at the time of collisions, k2 Ea T1T2
must process a certain amount of energy known as (1) log10
k1 2.030R T2 T1
(1) free energy (2) kinetic energy
k2 R T2 T1
(3) threshold energy (4) internal energy (2) log10
k1 2.030Ea T1T2
13. For first order reaction if rate constant at 17oC is 2.8 k 2 Ea T2 T1
10–5 sec–1 and at 27oC is 2.8 10–4 sec–1, then (3) log10
k1 R T1T2
activation energy is
(1) 166.3 kJ mol–1 (2) 16.63 kJ mol–1 k2 Ea T2 T1
(4) log10
(3) 1.663 kJ mol –1
(4) None of these k1 2.303R T2T1
15. Which graph shows zero activation energy? 20. The rate constant of a reaction does not depend upon
(1) temperature
(1) (2) (2) activation energy
(3) catalyst
(4) concentration of reactants and products
(3) (4)
3
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Answer Key
1. (1) 11. (4)
2. (2) 12. (3)
3. (3) 13. (1)
4. (3) 14. (4)
5. (1) 15. (3)
6. (4) 16. (3)
7. (4) 17. (1)
8. (4) 18. (4)
9. (1) 19. (3)
10. (1) 20. (4)
4
3. (3)
The phenomenon in which both adsorption (surface 10. (1)
phenomenon) and absorption (bulk phenomenon)
A positive catalyst does not affect the position of
take place simultaneously is called "Sorption". equilibrium.
4. (3)
11. (4)
Chemisorption is unilayered phenomenon.
Effective collision form products.
13. (1)
6. (4)
k2 Ea 1 1
The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid depends log
on nature of gas and low pressure and high k1 2.303R T1 T2
temperature. 2.8 104 Ea 1 1
log
2.8 105
2.303 8.3 290 300
7. (4) Ea = 166.3 kJ mol–1.
x
kp1/n
m (n > 1) 14. (4)
When k1 = k2,
1015 e–2000/T = 1014 e–1000/T
10 = e1000/T
1000
2.303log10
1
T = 434.2 K
5
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1
4. Point out the false statement. 11. When dispersed phase is solid and dispersion
(1) Colloidal sols are homogeneous. medium is gas, the colloidal system is
(2) Colloids carry +ve or –ve charges. (1) Smoke (2) Clouds
(3) Colloids show Tyndall effect. (3) Emulsion (4) Milk
(4) The size range of colloidal particles is
1nm-1μm 12. An example of micelle is
(1) As2O3 solution
5. Which of the following will have the highest (2) Sodium stearate conc. solution
coagulating power for As2S3 colloid? (3) Ruby glass
(4) Na2CO3 solution
(1) Al3+ (2) SO24
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Answer Key
1. (3) 9. (1)
2. (4) 10. (3)
3. (4) 11. (1)
4. (1) 12. (2)
5. (1) 13. (1)
6. (4) 14. (4)
7. (3) 15. (4)
8. (3)
3
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Physical Chemistry
Practice Session
Doubt Solving Session
Lecture No - 1
Doubt Solving Session