Merged

GROUP 13
Borax
1. If the formula of Borax is Na2B4Ox(OH)y ⋅ zH2O, then x + y + z = _ _ _ _ _ _
2. During the borax bead test with CuSO4, a blue green colour of the bead was observed in oxidising
flame due to the formation of
(A) Cu3 B2
(B) Cu
(C) Cu (BO2 )2
(D) CuO
Boron Halides
3. The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides follows the order:
(A) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 > Bl3
(B) Bl3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C) BBr3 > Bl3 > BCl3 > BF3
(D) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > Bl3
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Werner’s Theory
4. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in
20 mL of 0.01 M solution of [𝐶𝑟(𝐻2 𝑂)5 𝐶𝑙]𝐶𝑙2 as silver chloride is ____.
Coordination Compounds
5. Which of the following are the example of double salt?
A. 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 . (𝑁𝐻4 )2 𝑆𝑂4 . 6𝐻2 𝑂
B. 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 . 4 𝑁𝐻3 . 𝐻2 𝑂
C. 𝐾2 𝑆𝑂4 . 𝐴𝑙2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 . 24𝐻2 𝑂
D. 𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)2 . 4 𝐾𝐶𝑁
Choose the correct answer.
A. A and C only
B. A and B only
C. A, B and D only
D. B and D only
6. To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the compounds used from the following:
A. EDTA
B. Coordination Compounds of Pt
C. D-Penicillamine
D. Cis-Platin
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
A. B and D Only
B. C and D Only
C. A and B Only
D. A and C Only
Valence Bond Theory

7. The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is
A. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−
B. [𝐹𝑒𝐹6 ]3−
C. [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3−
D. [𝐶𝑟(𝑜𝑥𝑎𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒)3 ]3−
E. [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. E < A < D < C < B

B. E < A < B < D < C
C. A < E, C < B < D
D. A < E < D < C < B
8. Match List I with List II
List-I Complex List-II CFSE (∆0 )
A. [𝐶𝑢(𝑁𝐻3 )6 ]2+ I. -0.6
B. [𝑇𝑖(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3+ II. -2.0
C. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− III. -1.2
D. [𝑁𝑖𝐹6 ]4− IV. -0.4
A. A(III), B(IV), C(I), D(II)

B. A(I), B(IV), C(II), D(III)
C. A(I), B(II), C(IV), D(III)
D. A(II), B(III), C(I), D(IV)
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9. The correct order of spin only magnetic moments for the following complex ions is
A. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− < [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− < [𝑀𝑛𝐵𝑟4 ]2− < [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−
B. [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− < [𝑀𝑛𝐵𝑟4 ]2− < [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− < [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−
C. [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− < [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− < [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− − [𝑀𝑛𝐵𝑟4 ]2−
D. [𝑀𝑛𝐵𝑟4 ]2− < [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− < [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− < [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3−
10. Cobalt chloride when dissolved in water forms pink colored complex X which has octachedral
geometery. This solution on treating with cone HCl forms deep blue complex, Y which has a Z
geometry. X, Y and Z, respectively, are
A. 𝑋 = [𝐶𝑂(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ , 𝑌 = [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2− , 𝑍 =Tetrahedral

B. 𝑋 = [𝐶𝑜(𝐻2 𝑂6 )]2+ , 𝑌 = [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙6 ]3− , 𝑍 = Octahedral
C. 𝑋 = [𝐶𝑜(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3+ , 𝑌 = [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙6 ]3− , 𝑍 = Octahedral
D. 𝑋 = [𝐶𝑜(𝐻2 𝑂)4 𝐶𝑙2 ]+ , 𝑌 = [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2− , 𝑍 = Tetrahedral
11. 1 L, 0.02M solution of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 𝑆𝑂4 ]𝐵𝑟 is mixed with 1 L, 0.02M solution of [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 𝐵𝑟]𝑆𝑂4 .
The resulting solution is divided into two equal parts (X) and treated with excess 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 solution
and 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 solution respectively as shown below:
1 L Solution (𝑋)+ 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 solution (excess) → 𝑌
1 L solution (X) + 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 solution (excess) → Z
The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are
A. 0.02, 0.02
B. 0.01, 0.01
C. 0.02, 0.01
D. 0.01, 0.02
12. The number of paramagnetic species from the following is
[𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑁)4 ]2− , [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4 ], [𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙4 ]2−
[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]4− , [𝐶𝑢(𝑁𝐻3 )4 ]2+
[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3− 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [𝐹𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+
Crystal Field Theory

13. The d-electronic configuration of [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2− in tetrahedral crystal field is 𝑒 𝑚 𝑡2𝑛 . The sum of m and
number of unpaired electrons is
14. The complex with highest magnitude of crystal field splitting energy (∆0 ) is
A. [𝑇𝑖(𝑂𝐻2 )6 ]3+
B. [𝐶𝑟(𝑂𝐻2 )6 ]3+
C. [𝑀𝑛(𝑂𝐻2 )6 ]3+
D. [𝐹𝑒(𝑂𝐻2 )6 ]3+
15. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
assertion 𝐴: [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙(𝑁𝐻3 )5 ]2+ absorbs at lower wavelength of light with respect to
[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )5 (𝐻2 𝑂)]3+
Reason R: It is because the wavelength of light absorbed depends on the oxidation state of the
metal ion. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. A is false but R is true
B. A is true but R is false
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A
D. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
16. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I Complex List-II Crystal Field

splitting energy
(∆0 )
A. [𝑇𝑖(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ I. -1.2
B. [𝑉(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ II. -0.6
C. [𝑀𝑛(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3+ III. 0
D. [𝐹𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3+ IV. -0.8
A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

B. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
C. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
D. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
17. Correct order of spin only magnetic moment of the following complex ions is:
(Given At. No. Fe: 26, Co: 27)
A. [𝐹𝑒𝐹6 ]3− > [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− > [𝐶𝑜(𝐶2 𝑂4 )3 ]3−
B. [𝐶𝑜(𝐶2 𝑂4 )3 ]3− > [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− > [𝐹𝑒𝐹6 ]3−
C. [𝐹𝑒𝐹6 ]3− > [𝐶𝑜(𝐶2 𝑂4 )3 ]3− > [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3−
D. [𝐶𝑜𝐹6 ]3− > [𝐹𝑒𝐹6 ]3− > [𝐶𝑜(𝐶2 𝑂4 )3 ]3−
Ligands
18. The denticity of the ligand present in the Fehling’s reagent is ____.
Isomerism
19. The total number of stereoisomers for the complex [𝐶𝑟(𝑜𝑥)2 𝐶𝑙𝐵𝑟]3− (where ox = oxalate) is
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
20. If 𝑁𝑖 2+ is replaced by 𝑝𝑡 2+ in the complex[𝑁𝑖𝐶𝑙2 𝐵𝑟2 ]2− , which of the following properties are
expected to get changed?
A. Geometry
B. Geometrical isomerism
C. Optical isomerism
D. Magnetic properties
A. A and D
B. A, B and C
C. B and C
D. A, B and D
21. Chiral complex from the following is:
Here en = ethylene diamine
A. 𝑐𝑖𝑠 − [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙2 (𝑒𝑛)2 ]2+

B. Trans −[𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙2 (𝑒𝑛)2 ]2+
C. 𝑐𝑖𝑠 − [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙2 (𝑁𝐻3 )2 ]
D. Trans −[𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻3 )4 𝐶𝑙2 ]+
Metal Carbonyls
22. The sum of bridging carbonyls in 𝑊(𝐶𝑂)6 and 𝑀𝑛2 (𝐶𝑂)10 is ____.
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Electronegativity
23. For compound having the formula 𝐺𝑎𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙4 , the correct option from the following is
A. Ga is coordinated with CI in 𝐺𝑎𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙4
B. Ga is more electronegative than AI and is present as a cationic part of the salt 𝐺𝑎𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙4
C. CI forms bond with both AI and Ga in 𝐺𝑎𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙4
D. Oxidation state of Ga in the salt 𝐺𝑎𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙4 is +3
24. The correct order of electronegativity for given elements is
A. P > Br > C > At
B. Br > P > At > C
C. Br > C > At > P
D. C > P > At > Br
Ionization Enthalpy
25. For elements B, C, N Li, Be, O and F, the correct order of first ionization enthalpy is
A. 𝐿𝑖 < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝑂 < 𝑁 < 𝐹
B. 𝐵 < 𝐿𝑖 < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐶 < 𝑁 < 𝑂 < 𝐹
C. 𝐿𝑖 < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝑁 < 𝑂 < 𝐹
D. 𝐿𝑖 < 𝐵 < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐶 < 𝑂 < 𝑁 < 𝐹
26. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The decrease in first ionization enthalpy from B to Al is much large than that from Al to
Ga.
Statement II: The d orbitals in Ga are completely filled.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

B. Both the statements I and II are correct
C. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Both the statements I and II are incorrect
Electron Gain Enthalpy

27. For electron gain enthalpies of the elements denoted as ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻, the incorrect option is:
A. ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝐶𝑙) < ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝐹)
B. ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝑆𝑒) < ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝑆)
C. ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝐼) < ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝐴𝑡)
D. ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝑇𝑒) < ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻(𝑃𝑜)
P BLOCK ELEMENTS GROUP 17

Reactions of HALOGENS
28. The correct group of halide ions which can be oxidized by oxygen in acidic medium is
A. 𝐵𝑟 − 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼 −
B. 𝐵𝑟 − only
C. 𝐼 − only
D. 𝐶𝐼 − , 𝐵𝑟 − 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼 − only
29. When 𝐶𝑢2+ ion is treated with KI, a white precipitate, X appears in solution. The solution is titrated
with sodium thiosulphate, the compound Y is formed. X and Y respectivley are
A. 𝑋 = 𝐶𝑢2 𝐼2 , 𝑌 = 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆4 𝑂5
B. 𝑋 = 𝐶𝑢2 𝐼2 , 𝑌 = 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆4 𝑂6
C. 𝑋 = 𝐶𝑢𝐼2 , 𝑌 = 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆4 𝑂3
D. 𝑋 = 𝐶𝑢𝐼2 , 𝑌 = 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆4 𝑂6
Oxyacids of Halogens
30. Sum of oxidation states of bromine in bromic acid and per bromic acid is
Group 18
Noble Gases
2−
31. XeF4 reacts with 𝑆𝑏𝐹5 𝑡𝑜 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚 [𝑋𝑒𝐹𝑚 ]𝑛+ [𝑆𝑏𝐹𝑦 ] 𝑚 + 𝑛 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 =?.
32. Inert gases have positive electron gain enthalpy. Its correct order is
(A) Xe < Kr < Ne < He
(B) He < Ne < Kr < Xe
(C) He < Xe < Kr < Ne
(D) He < Kr < Xe < Ne
Ans. C
33. The difference between electron gain enthalpies will be maximum between :
(A) Ne and F
(B) Ar and F
(C) Ne and Cl
(D) Ar and Cl
D AND F BLOCK ELEMENTS

Compounds of Chromium
34. In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons present on chromium is same as in (Given at no. of Ti
: 22, V : 23, Cr : 24, Mn : 25, Fe : 26)
A. V (IV)
B. Mn (VII)
C. Fe (III)
D. Ti (III)
35. A solution of 𝐶𝑟𝑂5 in amyl alcohol has a …. Colour
A. Green
B. Orange-Red
C. Yellow
D. Blue
Compounds of Manganese
36. Highest oxidation state of Mn is exhibited in 𝑀𝑛2 𝑂7 . The correct statements about 𝑀𝑛2 𝑂7 are
A. Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms
B. Mn is octahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms
C. Contains 𝑀𝑛 − 𝑂 − 𝑀𝑛 bridge
D. Contains Mn – Mn bond.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. A and C only
B. A and D only
C. B and D only
D. B and C only
37. 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 oxidises 𝐼 − in acidic and neutral/faintly alkaline solution, respectively to
A. 𝐼2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼𝑂3−
B. 𝐼𝑂3− 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2
C. 𝐼𝑂3− 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼𝑂3−
D. 𝐼2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2
Important Trends
38. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. The 𝑀3+ /𝑀2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than manganese.
B. The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion
C. Aqueous solution of 𝐶𝑟 2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid
D. Magnetic moment of 𝑉 2+ is observed between 4.4 – 5.2 BM
A. (B), (C) only

B. (A), (B), (D) only
C. (C), (D) only
D. (A), (B) only
Reactions of d block metals

39. Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given below?
2𝐶𝑢2+ 4𝑥 − → 𝐶𝑢2 𝑋2 (𝑠) + 𝑋2
A. Only Iodide
B. Only Bromine
C. All halogens
D. Only Chlorine
40. In ammonium – phosphomolybdate, the oxidation state of Mo is + _____
41. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): 𝐶𝑢2+ in water is more stable than 𝐶𝑢+ .
Reason (R): Enthalpy of hydration for 𝐶𝑢2+ is much less than that of 𝐶𝑢+
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
C. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
42. Prolonged heating is avoided during the preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to
A. Prevent hydrolysis
B. Prevent reduction
C. Prevent breaking
D. Prevent oxidation
43. A solution of 𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑙3 when treated with 𝐾4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ] gives a Prussian blue precipitate due to the
formation of
A. 𝐾[𝐹𝑒2 (𝐶𝑁)6 ]
B. 𝐹𝑒[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]
C. 𝐹𝑒3 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]2
D. 𝐹𝑒4 [𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6 ]3
Important Properties of Lanthanoids

44. Which one amongst the following are good oxidizing agents?
A. 𝑆𝑚2+
B. 𝐶𝑒 2+
C. 𝐶𝑒 4+
D. 𝑇𝑏 4+
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. C only
B. D only
C. A and B only
D. C and D only
45. Which of the following elements have half-filled f-orbitals in their ground state?
(Given: atomic number Sm – 62; Eu = 63; Tb = 65; Gd = 64, Pm = 61)
A. A and B only
B. C and D only
C. B and D only
D. A and E only
Qualitative Analysis
Borax Bead Test
Statement I: Upon heating a borax bead dipped in cupric sulphate in a luminous flame, the
colour of the bead becomes green.
Statement II: The green colour observed is due to the formation of copper (I) metaborate In the
light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Group 16
Oxygen
Statement I: Chlorine can easily combine with oxygen to from oxides: and the product has a
tendency to explode.
Statement II: Chemical reactivity of an element can be determined by its reaction with oxygen
and halogens.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both the statements I and II are true
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Both the Statements I and II are false
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

VSEPR Theory
48. For OF2 molecule consider the following:
(A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2.
(B) FOF angle is less than 104.5°.
(C) Oxidation state of O is −2.
(D) Molecules are bent 'V ' shaped.
(E) Molecular geometry is linear.
Correct options are:
A. C, D, E only
B. B, E, A only
C. A, C, D only
D. A, B, D only
49. Amongst the following, the number of species having the linear shape is
𝑋𝑒𝐹2 , 𝐼3+ , 𝐶3 𝑂2 , 𝐼3− , 𝐶𝑂2 , 𝑆𝑂2 , 𝐵𝑒𝐶𝑙2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝐶𝑙2⊖
50. The number of species from the following carrying a single lone pair on central atom Xenon is
𝑋𝑒𝐹5+ , 𝑋𝑒𝑂3 , 𝑋𝑒𝑂2 𝐹2 , 𝑋𝑒𝐹5− , 𝑋𝑒𝑂3 𝐹2 , 𝑋𝑒𝑂𝐹4 , 𝑋𝑒𝐹4
51. The maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom from the following species
is...... ClO3−, XeF4, SF4 and l3−
Bond Length
52. The bond dissociation energy is highest for
A. Cl2
B. I2
C. Br2
D. F2
Oxy Acids
53. Sum of π -bonds present in peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid is
Hydrogen Bonding
54. In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to _____ neighbouring molecules.
Dipole Moment
55. Among the following compounds, the one which shows highest dipole moment is
A.
B.
C.
D.
MOT
56. In which of the following processes, the bond order increases and
Paramagnetic character changes to diamagnetic one?
A. 𝑂2 → 𝑂2+
B. 𝑂2 → 𝑂22−
C. 𝑁𝑂 → 𝑁𝑂 +
D. 𝑁2 → 𝑁𝑂+
57. The bond order and magnetic property of acetylide ion are same as that of
A. 𝑂2+
B. 𝑁2+
C. 𝑁𝑂 +
D. 𝑂2−
Group 15
Compounds of Nitrogen
58. The incorrect statement regarding the reaction given below is
(A) The product ‘B ’ formed in the above reaction is p -nitroso compound at low temperature
(B) ‘B ’ is N -nitroso ammonium compound
(C) The reaction occurs at low temperature
(D) The electrophile involved in the reaction is NO+
59. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I: Methane and steam passed over a heated Ni catalyst produces hydrogen gas.
Statement-II: Sodium nitrite reacts with NH4Cl to give H2O, N2 and NaCl.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(B) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Both the statements I and II are correct
Oxides of Nitrogen
List I List II
Oxide Type of bond
A. 𝑁2 𝑂4 I 1 N = 0 bond
B. 𝑁𝑂2 II 1 N – O – N bond
C. 𝑁2 𝑂5 III 1 N – N bond
D. 𝑁2 𝑂 IV N bond
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A−III, B−I, C−II, D−IV

(B) A−II, B−IV, C−III, D−I
(C) A−III, B−I, C−IV, D−II
(D) A−II, B−I, C−III, D−IV
Oxy acids of Phosphorous

61. Which of the Phosphorus oxoacid can create silver mirror from AgNO3 solution?
(A) (HPO3)n
(B) H4P2O5
(C) H4P2O6
(D) H4P2O7
62. The number of P−O−P bonds in H4P2O7, (HPO3)3, and P4O10 are respectively
(A) 0, 3, 6
(B) 0, 3, 4
(C) 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 3, 6
63. One mole of P4 reacts with 8 moles of SOCl2 to give 4 moles of A, x mole of SO2 and 2 moles of B. A, B
and x respectively are
(A) 𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 𝑆2 𝐶𝑙2
(B) 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4 𝑆2 𝐶𝑙2
(C) 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 𝑆2 𝐶𝑙2
(D) 𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4 𝑆2 𝐶𝑙2
64. The ratio of sigma and π bonds present in pyro phosphoric acid is
Answer Key.
1. 17 23. B 45. C
2. C 24. C 46. A
3. B 25. D 47. A
4. 4 26. B 48. D
5. A 27. B 49. 5
6. A 28. C 50. 4
7. A 29. B 51. 3
8. B 30. 12 52. A
9. C 31. 11 53. 8
10. A 32. C 54. 4
11. B 33. C 55. D
12. 4 34. B 56. C
13. 7 35. D 57. C
14. B 36. A 58. B
15. A 37. A 59. D
16. C 38. A 60. A
17. A 39. 1 61. B
18. 4 40. 6 62. D
19. A 41. A 63. B
20. D 42. D 64. 6
21. A 43. D
22. 0 44. D
Fill Your Answers
Q1 Q23 Q45
Q2 Q24 Q46
Q3 Q25 Q47
Q4 Q26 Q48
Q5 Q27 Q49
Q6 Q28 Q50
Q7 Q29 Q51
Q8 Q30 Q52
Q9 Q31 Q53
Q10 Q32 Q54
Q11 Q33 Q55
Q12 Q34 Q56
Q13 Q35 Q57
Q14 Q36 Q58
Q15 Q37 Q59
Q16 Q38 Q60
Q17 Q39 Q61
Q18 Q40 Q62
Q19 Q41 Q63
Q20 Q42 Q64
Q21 Q43
Q22 Q44
MOLE CONCEPT
Quantitative Measurements
1. An organic compound gives 0.220 g of CO2 and 0.126 g of H2O on complete combustion. If the
% of carbon is 24 then the % of hydrogen is × 10-1(Nearest integer)
2. Assume carbon burns according to following equation :
2C(s) +O2 (g) → 2CO(s)
When 12 g carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the volume of carbon monoxide produced is × 10-1
L at STP [nearest integer]
[Given: Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is 12 g mol-1, mass of O is 16 g mol-1 and molar volume
of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol-1]
Mole
3. On complete combustion, 0.492 g of an organic compound gave 0.792 g of CO2. The %% of
carbon in the organic compound is (Nearest integer)
4. A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal chloride at
STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular formula of the metal chloride is
(Given: Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u)
A. MCl4
B. MCl3
C. MCl2
D. MCl
Concentration terms
5. The molality of a 10% (v/V) solution of di-bromine solution in CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is x’ .x =
× 10−2 M. (Nearest integer)
[Given: molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol-1

Atomic mass of C = 12 g mol-1
Atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol-1
Density of dibromine = 3.2 g cm-3
Density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm-3]
6. The density of the 3M solution of NaCl is 1.0 g mL−1 .Molality of the solution is ______×10−2m
(Nearest integer).
Given: Molar mass of Na and Cl is 23 and 35.5 g mol−1 respectively.
Structure of Atom
Bohr’s model
7. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is
-2.18×10-18 J Its energy in the third Bohr orbit is____
A. 1/9 th of the value
B. 1/27 of this value
C. Three times of this value
D. One third of this value
8. if the radius of the first orbit of H atom is a0, then the de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in
third orbit is
𝜋𝑎0
A.
6
𝜋𝑎0
B.
3
C. 6𝜋𝑎0
D. 3𝜋𝑎0
9. The radius of the 2nd orbit of Li2+ is x. The expected radius of the 3nd orbit of Be3+ is
9
A. 4
𝑥
4
B. 9 𝑥
27
C. 𝑥
16
16
D. 27 𝑥
10. If wavelength of the first line of the Paschen series of hydrogen atom is 720 nm, then the
wavelength of the second line of this series is _______nm. (Nearest integer)
Dual Behaviour of Matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty

Principle
11. Values of work function (W0) for a few metals are given below
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag
𝑊0
2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7 4.8 4.3
𝑒𝑉
The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of
wavelength 400 nm falls on it is _____
Given: h = 6.6 × 10-34 J s
c = 3 × 108 ms-1
e = 1.6 × 10-19 C
12. Electrons in a cathode ray tube have been emitted with a velocity of 1000 ms−1. The number of
following statements which is/are true about the emitted radiation is
Given: h = 6 × 10−34Js, me = 9 × 10−31 kg
(A) The de Broglie wavelength of the electron emitted is 666.67 nm
(B) The characteristic of electrons emitted depend upon the material of the electrodes of the
cathode ray tube.
(C) The cathode rays start from cathode and move towards anode.
(D) The nature of the emitted electrons depends on the nature of the gas present in cathode ray
tube.
Quantum mechanical model

13. The number of correct statements from the following is...........
A. For 1s orbital, the probability density is maximum at the nucleus
B. For 2s orbital, the probability density first increases to maximum and then decreases sharply
to zero.
C. Boundary surface diagrams of the orbitals encloses a region of 100% probability of finding the
electron.
D. p and d -orbitals have 1 and 2 angular nodes respectively
E. probability density of p -orbital is zero at the nucleus
14. The number of atomic orbitals from the following having 5 radial nodes is
7s, 7p, 6s, 8p, 8d
15. The wave function (Ψ) of 2 s is given by
1
1 1 2 𝑟
𝛹2𝑠 = 2√2𝜋 (𝑎 ) (2 − 𝑎 ) 𝑒 −𝑟/2𝑎0
0 0
At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms of a0
A. r0 = a0
B. r0 = 4a0
𝑎
C. 𝑟0 = 20
D. R0 = 2a0
16. The number of given orbitals which have electron density along the axis is
px, py, pz, dxy, dyz, dxz, 𝑑𝑧2 , 𝑑𝑥 2−𝑦2
Hydrogen spectrum
17. The shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in Lyman series is λ. The longest wavelength in
Balmer series of He+ is
5
A. 9𝜆
9𝜆
B. 5
36𝜆
C. 5
5𝜆
D. 9
THERMODYNAMICS
First Law Thermodynamics
18. When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100 s in a constant volume container with
adiabatic walls, the temperature of the gas rises by 5°C. The heat capacity of the given gas is JK−1
(Nearest integer)
19. 1 mol of ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically form a temperature of
27oC. The work done is 3kJ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
The final temperature of the gas is __K (Nearest integer). Given C V = 20 J mol-1 K-1
20. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is subjected to changes as shown in the graph. The
magnitude of the work done (by the system or on the system) is _______ J (nearest integer)
Given: log 2 = 0.3, In 10 = 2.3
ENTHALPY CHANGE
21. For independent process at 300 K.
Process ∆H ∆S
/kJmol-1 /JK-1
A -25 -80
B -22 40
C 25 -50
D 22 20
The number of non-spontaneous process from the following is_____.
Entropy and Second law of thermodynamics

22. One mole of an ideal gas at 350 K is in a 2.0 L vessel of thermally conducting walls, which are in
contact with the surroundings. It undergoes isothermal reversible expansion from 2.0 L to 3.0 L
against a constant pressure of 4 atm. The change in entropy of the surroundings (ΔS) is _____ J
K–1 (Nearest integer)
Given: R=8.314 J K−1 mol−1
Thermochemistry
23. 28.0 L of CO2 is produced on complete combustion of 16.8 L gaseous mixture of ethene and
methane at 25°C and 1 atm. Heat evolved during the combustion process is kJ
Given: ΔHC (CH4) = − 900 kJ mol−1
ΔHC (C2H4) = − 1400 kJ mol−1
24. Solid fuel used in rocket is a mixture of Fe2O3 and Al (in ratio 1 : 2 ). The heat evolved (kJ) per
gram of the mixture is _____ (Nearest integer)
Given 𝛥𝐻 𝑓0 (Al2O3) = − 1700 kJ mol−1
𝛥𝐻 𝑓0 (Fe2O3) = − 840 kJ mol−1
Molar mass of Fe, AI and O are 56, 27 and 16 g mol–1 respectively
25. For complete combustion of ethene,

C2H4 (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (1)
The amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1406 kJ mol −1 at 300 K. The
minimum value of TΔS needed to reach equilibrium is (−) kJ. (Nearest integer)
Given: R = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1
26. 0.3 g of ethane undergoes combustion at 27°C in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of
calorimeter system (including the water) is found to rise by 0.5°C. The heat evolved during
combustion of ethane at constant pressure is kJmol−1.
(Nearest integer)
[Given: The heat capacity of the calorimeter system is 20 kJ K−1, R = 8.3JK−1 mol−1.
Assume ideal gas behaviour.
Assume ideal gas behaviour.
Atomic mass of C and H are 12 and 1 g 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 respectively]
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
Law of Mass Action, Equilibrium Constant (Kc and Kp)
and its Application
27. The equilibrium composition for the reaction
PCl3 + Cl2 ⇌ PCl5 at 298 K is given below:
[PCl3] eq = 0.2 mol L−1, [Cl2] eq = 0.1 mol L−1, [PCl5] eq = 0.40 mol L−1
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of PCl 5 is
_____× 10–2 mol L–1 Given: Kc for the reaction at 298 K is 20
28. A mixture of one mole of H2O and 1 mole of CO is taken in a 10 litre container and heated to 725
K. At equilibrium 40% of water by mass reacts with carbon monoxide according to the equation:
CO (g) + H2O (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) + H2 (g). The equilibrium constant KC × 102 for the reaction is
________ (Nearest integer)
29. (i) X(g) ⇌ Y(g) + Z(g) Kp1 = 3
(ii) A (g) ⇌ 2 B (g) Kp2 = 1
If the degree of dissociation and initial concentration of both the reactants X (g) and A (g) are
equal, then the ratio of the total pressure at equilibrium (p1/p2) is equal to x: 1. The value of x is
(Nearest integer)
30. Water decomposes at 2300 K
1
H2 O(g) → H2 (g) + O2 (g)
2
The percent of water decomposing at 2300 K and 1 bar is _____ (Nearest integer). Equilibrium
constant for the reaction is 2 × 10−3 at 2300 K
Le chatelier's principle
31. The effect of addition of helium gas to the following reaction in equilibrium state at constant
volume, is :
PCI5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
A. the equilibrium will shift in the forward direction and more of Cl 2 and PCl3 gases will be
produced.
B. the equilibrium will go backward due to suppression of dissociation of PCl 5.
C. helium will deactivate PCl5 and reaction will stop.
D. addition of helium will not affect the equilibrium.
Ionic Equilibrium
Buffer solutions
32. 20 mL of 0.1M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0.1M acetic acid solution. The pH of the resulting
solution is × 10−2 . (Nearest integer)
Given: 𝑝𝐾𝑎(𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻) = 4.76
Log 2 = 0.30
Log 3 = 0.48
33. Millimoles of calcium hydroxyide required to produce 100mL of the aqueous solution of pH 12 is
X × 10−1. The value of X is _____ (Nearest integer). Assume complete dissociation.
34. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl solution is 8.
(B) The conjugate base of H2PO4− is HPO2− 4 .
(C) Kw increases with increase in temperature.
(D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base at half
neutralisation point, pH =1/2 pKa. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solubility
35. 25.0 mL of 0.050 M Ba (NO3)2 is mixed with 25.0 mL of 0.020 M NaF. Ksp of BaF2 is 0.5 × 10–6 at
298K. The ratio of [Ba2+][F−]2 and Ksp is _
TITRATION & INDICATORS

Statement-I: Methyl orange is a weak acid.
Statement-II: The benzenoid form of methyl orange is more intense/deeply coloured than the
quinonoid form. In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

B. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
C. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
D. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
37. The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indicator is shown
below. The Kphenolphthalein = 4 × 10−10 Given: log 2 = 0.3
The number of following statement/s which is/are correct about phenolphthalein is _______
A. It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
B. It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4
C. It is a weak organic base
D. It is colourless in acidic medium
38. Incorrect statement for the use of indicator in acid-base titration is:
A. Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid vs weak bas titration.
B. Phenolphthalein may be used for a strong acid vs strong base titration.
C. Methyl orange is a suitable indicator for a strong acid vs weak base titration.
D. Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for a weak acid vs strong base titration.
Salt Hydrolysis
39. If the pKa of lactic acid is 5 , then the pH of 0.005 M calcium lactate solution at 25° C is
__________ × 10–1 (Nearest integer)
REDOX REACTIONS
BALANCING OF REDOX REACTIONS
40. 2𝐼𝑂3− + 𝑥𝐼 − + 12𝐻 + → 6𝐼2 + 6𝐻2
What is the value of x?
A. 2
B. 12
C. 10
D. 6
Equivalence concept
41. KMnO4 is titrated with ferrous ammonium sulphate hexahydrate in presence of dilute H 2SO4.
Number of water molecules produced for 2 molecules of KMnO4 is _
42. During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese
occurs by value of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction.
A. Both aqueous acidic and neutral Correct Answer
B. Aqueous neutral
C. Both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline
D. Aqueous acidic
TITEATIONS CONCEPT
43. The density of a monobasic strong acid (Molar mass 24.2 g mol) is 1.21 kg L . The volume of its
solution required for the complete neutralization of 25 mL of 0.24 M NaOH is 10 −2 mL (Nearest
integer)
DILUTE SOLUTIONS
Solubility, Henry’s Law and Concentration of Solutions
44. Some amount of dichloromethane (CH2 Cl2) is added to 671. 141 mL of chloroform (CHCl3) to
prepare 2. 6 × 10−3 M solution of CH2 Cl2 (DCM). The concentration of DCM is _____ ppm (by
mass).
Given: Atomic mass: C = 12; H: 1; Cl = 35. 5 density of CHCl3 = 1. 49 g cm–3
45. A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0.2 MCO2 dissolved in it. Assuming CO2 behaves as an ideal gas,
the volume of the dissolved CO2 at STP is _____ mL.
(Nearest integer)
Given: At STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is 22. 7 L mol –1
Vapour pressure and Raoult's law

46. The Total pressure observed by mixing two liquid A and B is 350 mm Hg when their mole
fractions are 0. 7 and 0. 3 respectively. The Total pressure becomes 410 mm Hg if the mole
fractions are changed to 0. 2 and 0. 8 respectively for A and B. The vapour pressure of pure A is
______ mm Hg . (Nearest integer) Consider the liquids and solutions behave ideally
Colligative Properties
47. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by
0.20 mm Hg? (Assume dilute solution is being formed) Given: Vapour pressure of pure water is
54.2 mm Hg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol–1
A. 3.59 g
B. 6.69 g
C. 4.69 g
D. 2.59 g
48. 0.004 M K2 SO4 solution is isotonic with 0.01 M glucose solution. Percentage dissociation of K2
SO4 is _____ (Nearest integer)
49. If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y (having same molecular weights) are in the ratio 2: 1
and their enthalpy of vaporizations are in the ratio 1: 2, then the boiling point elevation constant
of X is m times the boiling point elevation constant of Y. The value of m is (nearest integer).
50. Sea water contains 29. 25 % NaCl and 19 % MgCl2 by weight of solution. The normal boiling
point of the sea water is ∘C (Nearest integer) Assume 100 % ionization for both NaCl and MgCl 2
Given: K b (H2O = 0. 52 K kg mol−1) Molar mass of NaCl and MgCl2 is 58. 5 and 95 g mol−1
respectively.
51. If the degree of dissociation of aqueous solution of weak monobasic acid is determined to be
0.3, then the observed freezing point will be _____ % higher than the expected/theoretical
freezing point. (Nearest integer).
52. 20 % of acetic acid is dissociated when its 5 g is added to 500 mL of water. The depression in
freezing point of such water is _ _ _ _ _ × 10−3 ∘C. Atomic mass of C, H and O are 12, 1 and 16
a.m.u. respectively.
53. 25 mL of an aqueous solution of KCl was found to require 20 mL of 1 M AgNO3 solution when
titrated using K2 CrO4 as an indicator. What is the depression in freezing point of KCl solution of
the given concentration?
(Nearest integer).
(Given: Kf = 2. 0 K kg mol−1)
Assume
1) 100 % ionization and
2) Density of the aqueous solution as 1 g mL–1
54. Solid Lead nitrate is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The solution was found to boil at 100. 15 °C.
When 0. 2 mol of NaCl is added to the resulting solution, it was observed that the solution froze
at − 0. 8 °C. The solubility product of PbCl2 formed is _____ × 10−6 at 298 K. (Nearest integer)
Given: Kb = 0. 5 K kg mol−1 and Kf = 1. 8 kg mol−1. Assume molality to be equal to molarity in all

cases.
55. The number of pairs of the solution having the same value of the osmotic pressure from the
following is (Assume 100 % ionization)
A. 0. 500 M C2H5 OH (aq) and 0. 25 M KBr (aq)
B. 0. 100 M K4 [Fe (CN) 6] (aq) and 0. 100 M FeSO4 (NH4)2 SO4 (aq)
C. 0. 05 M K4 [Fe (CN) 6] (aq) and 0. 25 M NaCl (aq)
D. 0. 15 M NaCl (aq) and 0.1 M BaCl2 (aq)
E. 0. 02 M KCl. MgCl2. 6H2O (aq) and 0.05 M KCl (aq)
56. In the depression of freezing point experiment
A. Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
B. Vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
C. Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point
D. Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Nernst Equation
57. At 298 K, the standard reduction potential for 𝐶𝑢2+ /𝐶𝑢 electrode is 0.34 V. Given:
2.303𝑅𝑇
𝐾𝑠𝑝 𝐶𝑢(𝑂𝐻)2 = 1 × 10−20 . Take = 0.059 V. The reduction potential at pH = 14
𝐹
for the above is (−)𝑥 × 10−2 V. The value of x is
𝑜
58. In an electrochemical reaction of lead, at standard temperature, if 𝐸(𝑃𝑏 2+ /𝑃𝑏) = 𝑚 Volt
𝑜 𝑜 2+
and 𝐸(𝑃𝑏 4+ /𝑝𝑏) = 𝑛 Volt, then the value of 𝐸 (𝑃𝑏 /𝑃𝑏4+ ) is given by m – xn. The value
of x is _____. (Nearest integer)
59. At what pH, given half cell 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− (0.1𝑀)| 𝑀𝑛2+ (0.001 𝑀) will have electrode potential
of 1.282 V? (Nearest Integer)
𝑜 2303𝑅𝑇
Given 𝐸𝑀𝑛𝑂 −
4 /𝑀𝑛
2+ = 1.54 𝑉, = 0.059 𝑉
𝐹
60. The standard electrode potential (𝑀3+ /𝑀2+ ) for V, Cr, Mn & Co
are −0.26 𝑉, −0.41 𝑉, +1.57 𝑉 𝑎𝑛𝑑 + 1.97𝑉, respectively. The metal ions which can
liberate 𝐻2 form a dilute acid are
A. 𝑉 2+ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑀𝑛2+
B. 𝐶𝑟 2+ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑜2+
C. 𝑉 2+ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑟 2+
D. 𝑀𝑛2+ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝑜2+
Faraday’s Laws
61. The number of correct statements from the following is...........
A. 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 is an intensive parameter
B. A negative 𝐸 𝑜 means that the redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than
the 𝐻 + /𝐻2 couple.
C. The amount of electricity required for oxidation or reduction depends on the
stoichiometry of the electrode reaction.
D. The amount of chemical reaction which occurs at any electrode during electrolysis by
a current is proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
Conductance
62. The resistivity of a 0.8M solution of an electrolyte is 5 × 10−3 Ωcm. Its molar
conductivity is 104 Ω−1 𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (Nearest integer)
63. The specific conductance of 0.0025M acetic acid is 5 × 10−5 𝑆 𝑐𝑚−1 at a certain
temperature. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is ____ × 10−7 (Nearest integer)
Consider limiting molar conductivity of 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 as 400 𝑆 𝑐𝑚2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
64. The number of correct statements from the following is _____
A. Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both strong and
weak electrolytes.
B. The number of ions per unit volume that carry current in a solution increases on
dilution.
C. Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration.

D. The variation in molar conductivity is different for strong and weak electrolytes.
E. For weak electrolytes, the change in molar conductivity with dilution is due to
decrease in degree of dissociation.
CHEMICAL KINETICS
Rate of reaction
65. 𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂3 + 6𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 + 3𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐾𝐶𝑙 + 3𝐹𝑒2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 + 3𝐻2 𝑂
The above reaction was studied at 300 K by monitoring the concentration of 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 in which
initial concentration was 10 M and after half an hour become 8.8 M. The rate of production of
𝐹𝑒2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 is _____× 10−6 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 𝑠 −1 (Nearest integer)
Rate law and rate constant

66. A first order reaction has the rate constant,𝑘 = 4.6 × 10−3 𝑠 −1 . The number of correct
statements/s from the following is/are
Given: log 3 = 0.48
A. Reaction completes in 1000 s.
B. The reaction has a half-life of 500 s.
C. The time required for 10% completion is 25 times the time required for 90% completion.
D. The degree of dissociation is equal to (1 − 𝑒 −𝑘𝑡 )
E. The rate and the rate constant have the same unit.
67. The reaction 2𝑁𝑂 + 𝐵𝑟2 → 2𝑁𝑂𝐵𝑟 takes place through the mechanism given below
𝑁𝑂 + 𝐵𝑟2 ⇌ 𝑁𝑂𝐵𝑟2 (𝑓𝑎𝑠𝑡)
𝑁𝑂𝐵𝑟2 + 𝑁𝑂 → 2𝑁𝑂𝐵𝑟 (𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑤)
The overall order of the reaction is ___.
Order of Reactions
68. A student has studied the decomposition of a gas 𝐴𝐵3 𝑎𝑡 25°𝐶. He obtained the following data
P (mm Hg) 50 100 200 400
Relative 𝑡1 (𝑠) 4 2 1 0.5

2
The order of the reaction is
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0 (zero)
69. For certain chemical reaction𝑋 → 𝑌, the rate of formation of product is plotted against the time
as shown in the figure. The number of Correct statement/s from the following is ___
A. Over all order of this reaction is one
B. Order of this reaction can’t be determined
C. In region-I and III, the reaction is of first and zero order respectively
D. In region-II the reaction is of first order
E. In region-II, the order of reaction is in the range of 0.1 to 0.9.
Integrated Rate Law Expression
70. 𝐴(𝑔) → 2 𝐵(𝑔) + 𝐶 (𝑔) is a first order reaction. The initial pressure of the system was found to
be 800 mm Hg which increased to 1600 mm Hg after 10 min. the total pressure of the system
after 30 min will be mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
71. 𝑡87.5 is the time required for the reaction to undergo 87.5% completion and 𝑡50 is the time
required for the reaction to undergo 50% completion? The relation between 𝑡87.5 and 𝑡50 for a
first order reaction is 𝑡87.5 = 𝑥 × 𝑡50 The value of x is ____ (Nearest integer)
72. A and B are two substances undergoing radioactive decay in a container. The half-life of A is 15
min and that of B is 5 min. If the initial concentration of B is 4 times that of A and they both start
decaying at the same time, how much time will it take for the concentration of both of them to
be same? ____ Min.
73. A molecule undergoes two independent first order reactions whose respective half-lives are 12
min and 3 min. If both the reactions are occurring then the time taken for the 50% consumption
of the reactant is ___ min. (Nearest integer)
ARRHENIUS EQUATION
74. 𝐴 → 𝐵
The rate constants of the above reaction at 200 K and 300 K are 0.03 min−1 and 0.05 𝑚𝑖𝑛 −1
respectively. The activation energy for the reaction is J (Nearest integer)
(Given: In 10 = 2.3
R = 8.3 𝐽 𝐾 −1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
Log 5 = 0.70
Log 3 = 0.48
Log 2 = 0.30
Answer Key.
1. 56 26. 1006 51. 30
2. 227 27. 49 52. 372
3. 44 28. 44 53. 3
4. C 29. 12 54. 13
5. 139 30. 2 55. 4
6. 204 31. D 56. A
7. A 32. 458 57. 25
8. C 33. 5 58. 2
9. C 34. A 59. 3
10. 492 35. 5 60. C
11. 3 36. D 61. 4
12. 2 37. 2 62. 25
13. 3 38. A 63. 66
14. 3 39. 85 64. 3
15. D 40. C 65. 333
16. 5 41. 68 66. 1
17. B 42. B 67. 3
18. 1200 43. 12 68. B
19. 150 44. 148 69. 1
20. 620 45. 1362 70. 2200
21. 2 46. 314 71. 3
22. 3 47. B 72. 15
23. 847 48. 75 73. 2
24. 4 49. 8 74. 75
25. 1411 50. 116
Fill Your Answers
Q1 Q26 Q51
Q2 Q27 Q52
Q3 Q28 Q53
Q4 Q29 Q54
Q5 Q30 Q55
Q6 Q31 Q56
Q7 Q32 Q57
Q8 Q33 Q58
Q9 Q34 Q59
Q10 Q35 Q60
Q11 Q36 Q61
Q12 Q37 Q62
Q13 Q38 Q63
Q14 Q39 Q64
Q15 Q40 Q65
Q16 Q41 Q66
Q17 Q42 Q67
Q18 Q43 Q68
Q19 Q44 Q69
Q20 Q45 Q70
Q21 Q46 Q71
Q22 Q47 Q72
Q23 Q48 Q73
Q24 Q49 Q74
Q25 Q50
Reactions of Alcohols
1. In the reaction given below ‘B’ is
2.
In the above reaction, left hand side and right hand side rings are named as ‘A’ and ‘B’
respectively. They undergo ring expansion. The correct statement for this process is:
A. Ring expansion can go up to seven membered rings

B. Finally both rings will become six membered each.
C. Finally both rings will become five membered each.
D. Only A will become 6 membered.
3. In the following reaction, ‘B’ is
4. Find out the major product for the following reaction
A. B.
C. D.
Reactions of Phenol
5. A compound ' X ' when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields
‘Y’. ‘Y’ is used as an acid/base indicator. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively
A. Anisole, methyl orange
B. Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
C. Toludine, Phenolphthalein
D. Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein
Preparation of Ethers
6. ‘A’ in the given reaction is
A. B.
C. D.
Dihydric alcohols
7.
‘A’ formed in the above reaction is
A. B.
C. D.
Properties of Phenol
8. The increasing order of pK a for the following phenols is
(A) 2, 4-Dinitrophenol
(B) 4-Nitrophenol
(C) 2, 4, 5-Trimethylphenol
(D) Phenol
(E) 3-Chlorophenol
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
A. (A), (E), (B), (D), (C)

B. (A), (B), (E), (D), (C)
C. (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)
D. (C), (E), (D), (B), (A)
Chirality
9. The total number of chiral compound/s from the following is
Conformations
10. Which of the following conformations will be the most stable?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Preparation of Alkyl Halides

11. In the following given reaction ‘A’ is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reactions of Alkyl Halides

12. The one giving maximum number of isomeric alkenes on dehydrohalogenation reaction is
(excluding rearrangement)
A. 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane
B. 2-Bromopropane
C. 2-Bromopentane
D. 2-Bromo-3, 3-dimethylpentane
13. In the above conversion of compound (X) to product (Y), the sequence of reagents to be used
will be:
A. (𝑖)𝐵𝑟2 , 𝐹𝑒(𝑖𝑖)𝐹𝑒, 𝐻 + (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4
B. (𝑖)𝐵𝑟2 (𝑎𝑞)(𝑖𝑖)𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝐻3 𝑂+
C. (𝑖)𝐹𝑒, 𝐻 + (𝑖𝑖)𝐵𝑟2 (𝑎𝑞)(𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝐻𝑁𝑂2 (𝑖𝑣)𝐶𝑢𝐵𝑟
D. (𝑖)𝐹𝑒, 𝐻 + (𝑖𝑖)𝐵𝑟2 (𝑎𝑞)(𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝐻𝑁𝑂2 (𝑖𝑣)𝐻3 𝑃𝑂2
14. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is
A.
B.
C.
D.
15. Identify the correct order for the given property for following compounds
A. Boiling Point:
B. Density:
C. Boiling Point:
D. Density:
E. Boiling Point:
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: -

A. (B), (C) and (D) only
B. (A), (C) and (E) only
C. (A), (C) and (D) only
D. (A), (B) and (E) only
16. Maximum number of isomeric monochloro derivatives which can be obtained from 2, 2, 5, and
5- tetramethyl hexane by chlorination is ____.
17. In the following halogenated organic compounds, the one with maximum number of chlorine
atoms in its structure is:
A. Chloral
B. Gammaxene
C. Chloropicrin
D. Freon-12
18. The correct order of melting of dichlorobenzenes is
A.
B.
C.
D.
19. The major product for the following reaction is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
SN1 and SN2 Reactions

20. 2-Methyl propyl bromide reacts with 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂− and gives ‘A’ whereas on reaction with 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻
it gives ‘B’. The mechanism followed in these reactions and the products ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively
are:
A. 𝑆𝑁 2, 𝐴 = 𝑖𝑠𝑜 − 𝑏𝑢𝑡𝑦𝑙 𝑒𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑦𝑙 𝑒𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟; 𝑆𝑁 1, 𝐵 = tert-butyl ethyl ether
B. 𝑆𝑁 1, 𝐴 = tert-butyl ethyl ether; 𝑆𝑁 1, 𝐵 = 2 −butyl ethyl ether
C. 𝑆𝑁 2, 𝐴 = 2-butyl ethyl ether; 𝑆𝑁 2, 𝐵 = iso-butyl ethyl ether
D. 𝑆𝑁 1, 𝐴 = tert-butyl ethyl ether; 𝑆𝑁 2, B = iso-butyl ethyl ether
21. For the reaction

𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝐵𝑟 + 𝐼 − 𝐴𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒 → 𝑅𝐶𝐻2 𝐼 + 𝐵𝑟 −
The correct statement is
A. 𝐵𝑟 − Can act as competing nucleophile.
B. The reaction can occur in acetic acid also.
C. The transition state formed in the above reaction is less polar than the localised anion.
D. The solvent used in the reaction solvates the ions formed in rate determining step
22. Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction in the given compounds (A, B,
C & D)
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. 𝐴 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑏) ; 𝐵 − 𝐼(𝑎) ; 𝐶 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎) ; 𝐷 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎)

B. 𝐴 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑏); 𝐵 − 𝐼(𝑏) ; 𝐶 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑏); 𝐷 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑏)
C. 𝐴 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎) ; 𝐵 − 𝐼(𝑎) ; 𝐶 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑏) ; 𝐷 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎)
D. 𝐴 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎) ; 𝐵 − 𝐼(𝑎) ; 𝐶 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎) ; 𝐷 − 𝐵𝑟(𝑎)
23.
Where Nu = Nucleophile
Find out the correct statement from the options given below for the above two reactions.
A. Reaction (I) is of 2nd order and reaction (II) is of 1st order
B. Reactions (I) and (II) both are of 2nd order
C. Reactions (I) is of 1st order and reaction (II) is of 2 nd order
D. Reaction (I) and (II) both are of 1st order
Stability of Intermediates
24. Increasing order of stability of the resonance structure is:
(A) C,D,B,A
(B) C,A,B,D
(C) D,C,A,B
(D) D,C,B,A
Aromaticity
25. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Tropolone is an aromatic compound and has 8π electrons.
Statement II: π electrons of >C=O group in tropolone is involved in aromaticity. In the light of
the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
26. Correct statements for the given reaction are:
A. Compound ‘B ’ is aromatic
B. The completion of above reaction is very slow
C. ‘A ’ shows tautomerism
D. The bond lengths of C−C in compound B are found to be same
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) B, C and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) A, C and D only
(D) A, B and D only
Acidic Strength
27. The correct order of pKa values for the following compounds is:
(A) c > a > d > b

(B) b > d > a > c
(C) b > a > d > c
(D) a > b > c > d
28. What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A–D in the given compounds?
(A) HC>HD>HB>HA
(B) HC>HD>HA>HB
(C) HD>HC>HB>HA
(D) HC>HA>HD>HB
Reactions of Diaz onium Salts

29.
In the abo e conversion the correct sequence of reagents to be added is
A. (i) 𝐾𝑀𝑛 𝑂4 , (𝑖𝑖)𝐵𝑟2 /𝐹𝑒, (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝐹𝑒/𝐻 + , (𝑖𝑣)𝐶𝑙2

B. (i) 𝐵𝑟2 /𝐹𝑒, (𝑖𝑖) 𝐹𝑒/𝐻 + , (𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 , (𝑖𝑣)𝐶𝑙2
C. (i) 𝐹𝑒/𝐻 + , (𝑖𝑖)𝐻𝑂𝑁𝑂, (𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝐶𝑢𝐶𝑙, (𝑖𝑣) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 (𝑣)𝐵𝑟2
D. (i) 𝐵𝑟2 /𝐹𝑒, (𝑖𝑖)𝐹𝑒/𝐻 + , (𝑖𝑖𝑖) 𝐻𝑂𝑁𝑂, (𝑖𝑣) 𝐶𝑢𝐶𝑙 (𝑣) 𝐾𝑀𝑛 𝑂4
30. Consider the following sequence of reaction
The product ‘B’ is

A.
B.
C.
D.
𝐻𝑁𝑂2 ′𝑋′
31. O-Phenylenediamine → ‘X’
𝑀𝑎𝑗𝑜𝑟 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡
A.
B.
C.
D.
32. Choose the correct colour of the product for the following reaction.
A. Yellow
B. White
C. Red
D. Blue
Gabriel Phthalimidine Reaction

33. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula 𝐶8 𝐻11 𝑁, which can be synthesized
by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is ___.
Hoffmann Bromoimide Degradation
34. The major product formed in the following reaction is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reactions of Aniline
35.
Compound P is neutral, Q gives effervescence with 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 while R reacts with Hinsberg’s
reagent to give solid soluble in 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻. Compound P is
A.
B.
C.
D.
36. In the following reaction, ‘A’ is
‘A’ Major Product
A.
B.
C.
D.
37. How many of the transformation given below would result in aromatic amines?
1.
2.
3.
4.
38. Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained by:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Chooose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A and D
B. Only B
C. A and B
D. B and C
Properties of Amines
List I (Amines) List II (pKb)
A. Aniline I. 3.25
B. Ethan amine II. 3.00
C. N-Ethylethanamine III. 9.38
D. N, N-Diethylethanamine IV. 3.29
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-
A. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
D. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
40. An organic compound [𝐴](𝐶4 𝐻11 𝑁), shows optical activity and gives 𝑁2 gas on treatment with
𝐻𝑁𝑂2 . The compound [A] reacts with 𝑃ℎ𝑆𝑂2 Cl producing a compound which is soluble in KOH.
The structure of A is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
A.
B.
C.
D.
42. The major products A and B from the following reactions are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Method of preparation for both aldehydes and ketones

43. Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous acid yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results in
(Q). When (Q) is heated with dil. NaOH we get (R) The final product (R) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
𝑖) 𝐻𝐶𝑁
→
44. 𝐷 − (+) − 𝐺𝑙𝑦𝑐𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑑𝑒ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑒 𝑖𝑖) 𝐻 𝑂/𝐻 +
2
𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝐻𝑁𝑂3
The products formed in the above reaction are
A. One optically active and one meso product
B. Two optically inactive products
C. Two optically active products
D. One optically inactive and one meso product
45.
A in the above reaction is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.
The value of x in compound ‘D’ is ____.
47. Consider the following reaction

(𝑖)𝑑𝑖𝑙. 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
→
(𝑖𝑖)∆ 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝐵
Propanal + Methanal =
(𝐶5 𝐻8 𝑂3 )
(𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁
(𝑖𝑣)𝐻3 𝑂+
The correct statement for product B is. It is
A. Optically active and adds one mole of bromine
B. Racemic mixture and is neutral
C. Racemic mixture and gives a gas with saturated 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 solution
D. Optically active alcohol and is neutrall
48. Find out the major products from the following reaction sequence.
A.
B.
C.
D.
49. Compound (X) undergoes following sequence of reaction to give the Lactone (Y)
A.
B.
C.
D.
50. The mass of 𝑁𝐻3 produced when 131.8 kg of cyclohexane carbaldehyde undergoes Tollen’s test
is ____ Kg. (Nearest Integer)
Molar mass of C = 12 g/mol
N = 14 g/mol
O = 16 g/mol
51. Among the following the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is
___.
a. 1-Phenylbutan-2-one
b. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
c. 3-Methylbutan-2-ol
d. 1-Phenylethanol
e. 3, 3-dimethylbutan-2-one
f. 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
52. The number of molecules which given halo form test among the following molecules is:
53.
The correct sequence of reagents for the preparation of Q and R is:

A. (𝑖)𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 , 770𝐾, ; (𝑖𝑖) 𝐶𝑟𝑂2 , 𝐻3 𝑂+ ; (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻; (𝑖𝑣)𝐻3 𝑂+ 20 𝑎𝑡𝑚
B. (𝑖)𝐶𝑟𝑂2 𝐶𝑙2 , 𝐻3 𝑂+ ; (𝑖𝑖)𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 , 770 𝐾, ; (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻; (𝑖𝑣)𝐻3 𝑂+ 20 𝑎𝑡𝑚
C. (𝑖)𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 , 𝑂𝐻 − ; (𝑖𝑖)𝑀𝑜2 𝑂3 , ∆; (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻; (𝑖𝑣)𝐻3 𝑂+
D. (𝑖)𝑀𝑜2 𝑂3 , ∆; (𝑖𝑖)𝐶𝑟𝑂2 , 𝐶𝑙2 , 𝐻3 𝑂+ ; (𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻; (𝑖𝑣)𝐻3 𝑂+
54. The product formed in the following multistep reaction is:
CH3-CH=CH2 iB2H6 iiH2O2, NaOH → iiiPCC ivCH3MgBr
A.
B.
C.
D. 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 − 𝑂𝐻

55. The major products ‘A’ and ‘B’, respectively, are
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.
‘A’ and ‘B’ in the above reactions are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statement I:
Under Clemmensen reduction conditions will give
Statement II:
Under Wolff-Kishner reduction condition will give
Under Wolff-Kishner reduction condition will give
A. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Reactions of Alkanes
58. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating ethane with excess of 𝐵𝑟2 in diffused
sunlight is
59. When 0.01 mol of an organic compound containing 60% carbon was burnt completely, 4.4 g of
𝐶𝑂2 was produced. The molar mass of compound is ___ 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (Nearest integer)
60. A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with formula 𝐶6 𝐻8 uses two moles of 𝐻2 on catalystic hydrogenation of its
one mole. On ozonolysis, ‘X’ yields two moles of methane dicarbaldehyde. The hydrocarbon ‘X’
is:
A. Hexa-1, 3, 5-triene
B. 1-methylcyclopenta-1, 4-diene
C. Cyclohexa-1, 3-diene
D. Cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
61. 17 mg of a hydrocarbon (M.F. 𝐶10 𝐻16) takes up 8.40 mL of the 𝐻2 gas measured at 0°C and 760
mm of Hg. Ozonolysis of the same hydrocarbon yields
The number of double bond/s present in the hydrocarbon is

62. The compound which will have the lowest rate towards nucleophilic aromatic substitution on
treatment with 𝑂𝐻 − is.
A.
B.
C.
D.
63. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of rate of aromatic electrophilic
substitution reaction.
A. d, b, c, a
B. d, b, a, c
C. b, c, a, d
D. c, a, b, d
64. ‘X’ is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
65. Decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution for the following compounds is:
A. d>a>e>c>b
B. >d>a>b>c
C. a>d>e>b>c
D. c>b>a>d>e
Structure of Glucose and Fructose

66. The correct representation in six membered pyranose form for the following sugar [X] is
A.
B.
C.
D.
67. Compound A,𝐶5 𝐻10 𝑂5 give a tetra acetate with 𝐴𝐶2 𝑂 and oxidation of A with 𝐵𝑟2 − 𝐻2 𝑂 gives
an acid,𝐶5 𝐻10 𝑂6 . Reduction of A with HI gives isopentane. The possible structure of A is:
AMINO ACIDS & PROTEINS
68. Following tetra peptide can be represented as
(F, L, D, Y, I, Q, P are one letter codes for amino acids)

A. FIQY
B. FLDY
C. YQLE
D. PLDY
69. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ketoses give Seliwanoff’s test faster than Aldoses.
Reason (R): Ketoses undergo 𝛽-elimination followed by formation of furfural.
A. (A) if false but (R) is true
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explantion of (A)
70. Number of cyclic tripeptides formed with 2 amino acids A and B is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
71. A short peptide on complete hydrolysis produces 3 moles of glycine (G), two moles of leucine (L)
and two moles of valine (V) per mole of peptide. The number of peptide linkages in it are ____.
Answer Key.
1. D 26. C 51. 4
2. B 27. B 52. 3
3. C 28. B 53. A
4. B 29. D 54. C
5. D 30. C 55. A
6. B 31. A 56. B
7. A 32. C 57. C
8. B 33. 5 58. 9
9. 2 34. B 59. 200
10. A 35. D 60. D
11. D 36. B 61. 3
12. C 37. 3 62. D
13. D 38. C 63. D
14. A 39. D 64. A
15. B 40. D 65. B
16. 3 41. A 66. B
17. B 42. C 67. A
18. D 43. B 68. B
19. B 44. A 69. C
20. A 45. C 70. D
21. C 46. 15 71. 6
22. C 47. C
23. C 48. B
24. B 49. A
25. A 50. 60
Fill Your Answers
Q1 Q26 Q51
Q2 Q27 Q52
Q3 Q28 Q53
Q4 Q29 Q54
Q5 Q30 Q55
Q6 Q31 Q56
Q7 Q32 Q57
Q8 Q33 Q58
Q9 Q34 Q59
Q10 Q35 Q60
Q11 Q36 Q61
Q12 Q37 Q62
Q13 Q38 Q63
Q14 Q39 Q64
Q15 Q40 Q65
Q16 Q41 Q66
Q17 Q42 Q67
Q18 Q43 Q68
Q19 Q44 Q69
Q20 Q45 Q70
Q21 Q46 Q71
Q22 Q47
Q23 Q48
Q24 Q49
Q25 Q50

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GROUP 13

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

Valence Bond Theory

A. E < A < D < C < B

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A(III), B(IV), C(I), D(II)

A. 𝑋 = [𝐶𝑂(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ , 𝑌 = [𝐶𝑜𝐶𝑙4 ]2− , 𝑍 =Tetrahedral

Crystal Field Theory

List-I Complex List-II Crystal Field

A. [𝑇𝑖(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ I. -1.2

B. [𝑉(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]2+ II. -0.6

C. [𝑀𝑛(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3+ III. 0

D. [𝐹𝑒(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]3+ IV. -0.8

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Here en = ethylene diamine

A. 𝑐𝑖𝑠 − [𝑃𝑡𝐶𝑙2 (𝑒𝑛)2 ]2+

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Statement II: The d orbitals in Ga are completely filled.

A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Electron Gain Enthalpy

P BLOCK ELEMENTS GROUP 17

D AND F BLOCK ELEMENTS

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (B), (C) only

Reactions of d block metals

2𝐶𝑢2+ 4𝑥 − → 𝐶𝑢2 𝑋2 (𝑠) + 𝑋2

Assertion (A): 𝐶𝑢2+ in water is more stable than 𝐶𝑢+ .

Important Properties of Lanthanoids

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

𝑋𝑒𝐹2 , 𝐼3+ , 𝐶3 𝑂2 , 𝐼3− , 𝐶𝑂2 , 𝑆𝑂2 , 𝐵𝑒𝐶𝑙2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝐶𝑙2⊖

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A−III, B−I, C−II, D−IV

Oxy acids of Phosphorous

(Given: Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u)

[Given: molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol-1

Atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol-1

Density of dibromine = 3.2 g cm-3

Density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm-3]

Given: Molar mass of Na and Cl is 23 and 35.5 g mol−1 respectively.

Dual Behaviour of Matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty

Given: h = 6 × 10−34Js, me = 9 × 10−31 kg

(A) The de Broglie wavelength of the electron emitted is 666.67 nm

Quantum mechanical model

D. p and d -orbitals have 1 and 2 angular nodes respectively

E. probability density of p -orbital is zero at the nucleus

Given: log 2 = 0.3, In 10 = 2.3

The number of non-spontaneous process from the following is_____.

Entropy and Second law of thermodynamics

Given: R=8.314 J K−1 mol−1

Given: ΔHC (CH4) = − 900 kJ mol−1

ΔHC (C2H4) = − 1400 kJ mol−1

Given 𝛥𝐻 𝑓0 (Al2O3) = − 1700 kJ mol−1

𝛥𝐻 𝑓0 (Fe2O3) = − 840 kJ mol−1

Molar mass of Fe, AI and O are 56, 27 and 16 g mol–1 respectively

25. For complete combustion of ethene,