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Math and Science For Young Children 8Th Edition Charlesworth Solutions Manual Full Chapter PDF
Math and Science For Young Children 8Th Edition Charlesworth Solutions Manual Full Chapter PDF
Math and Science For Young Children 8Th Edition Charlesworth Solutions Manual Full Chapter PDF
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase
of the menstrual cycle?
a. Hysterosalpingogram
b. Endometrial biopsy
c. Laparoscopy
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level
ANS: B
Endometrial biopsy is scheduled after ovulation, during the luteal phase of the menstrual
cycle. A hysterosalpingogram is scheduled 2 to 5 days after menstruation to avoid flushing
potentially fertilized ovum out through a uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity. Laparoscopy
usually is scheduled early in the menstrual cycle. Hormone analysis is performed to assess
endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are
absent or irregular.
2. A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to
the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurse’s most appropriate
response is:
a. “Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis.”
b. “Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count.”
c. “Smoking can give you lung cancer, even though it has no effect on sperm.”
d. “Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm.”
ANS: D
Use of tobacco, alcohol, and marijuana may affect sperm counts. “Your sperm count seems to
be okay in the first semen analysis” is inaccurate. Sperm counts vary from day to day and
depend on emotional and physical status and sexual activity. A single analysis may be
inconclusive. A minimum of two analyses must be performed several weeks apart to assess
male fertility.
3. A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The
woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has
fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The
man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What
additional test is needed?
a. Testicular biopsy
b. Antisperm antibodies
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level
d. Examination for testicular infection
ANS: C
The woman has irregular menstrual cycles. The scenario does not indicate that she has had
any testing related to this irregularity. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine
function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or
irregular. Determination of blood levels of prolactin, FSH, luteinizing hormone (LH),
estradiol, progesterone, and thyroid hormones may be necessary to diagnose the cause of
irregular menstrual cycles. A testicular biopsy would be indicated only in cases of
azoospermia (no sperm cells) or severe oligospermia (low number of sperm cells). Antisperm
antibodies are produced by a man against his own sperm. This is unlikely to be the case here
because the man has already produced children. Examination for testicular infection would be
done before semen analysis. Infection would affect spermatogenesis.
4. A couple is trying to cope with an infertility problem. They want to know what they can do to
preserve their emotional equilibrium. The nurse’s most appropriate response is:
a. “Tell your friends and family so they can help you.”
b. “Talk only to other friends who are infertile because only they can help.”
c. “Get involved with a support group. I’ll give you some names.”
d. “Start adoption proceedings immediately because it is very difficult to obtain an
infant.”
ANS: C
Venting negative feelings may unburden the couple. A support group may provide a safe
haven for the couple to share their experiences and gain insight from others’ experiences.
Although talking about their feelings may unburden them of negative feelings, infertility can
be a major stressor that affects the couple’s relationships with family and friends. Limiting
their interactions to other infertile couples may be a beginning point for addressing
psychosocial needs, but depending on where the other couple is in their own recovery process,
this may or may not help them. The statement about adoption proceedings is not supportive of
the psychosocial needs of this couple and may be detrimental to their well-being.
5. A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement
by the nurse is the most appropriate when instructing the client in which herbal preparations to
avoid while trying to conceive?
a. “You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get
pregnant.”
b. “You may want to avoid licorice root, lavender, fennel, sage, and thyme while you
are trying to conceive.”
c. “You should not take anything with vitamin E, calcium, or magnesium. They will
make you infertile.”
d. “Herbs have no bearing on fertility.”
ANS: B
Herbs that a woman should avoid while trying to conceive include licorice root, yarrow,
wormwood, ephedra, fennel, golden seal, lavender, juniper, flaxseed, pennyroyal,
passionflower, wild cherry, cascara, sage, thyme, and periwinkle. Nettle leaf, dong quai, and
vitamin E all promote fertility. Vitamin E, calcium, and magnesium may promote fertility and
conception. All supplements and herbs should be purchased from trusted sources.
8. With regard to the assessment of female, male, and couple infertility, nurses should be aware
that:
a. The couple’s religious, cultural, and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter
that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis.
b. The investigation takes 3 to 4 months and a significant financial investment.
c. The woman is assessed first; if she is not the problem, the male partner is analyzed.
d. Semen analysis is for men; the postcoital test is for women.
ANS: B
Fertility assessment and diagnosis take time, money, and commitment from the couple.
Religious, cultural, and ethnic-bred attitudes about fertility and related issues always have an
impact on diagnosis and assessment. Both partners are assessed systematically and
simultaneously, as individuals and as a couple. Semen analysis is for men, but the postcoital
test is for the couple.
9. In their role of implementing a plan of care for infertile couples, nurses should:
a. Be comfortable with their sexuality and nonjudgmental about others to counsel
their clients effectively.
b. Know about such nonmedical remedies as diet, exercise, and stress management.
c. Be able to direct clients to sources of information about what herbs to take that
might help and which ones to avoid.
d. Do all of the above plus be knowledgeable about potential drug and surgical
remedies.
ANS: D
Nurses should be open to and ready to help with a variety of medical and nonmedical
approaches.
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 109
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
11. A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. During the assessment
process, it is most important that the nurse:
a. Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months.
b. Determine the client’s weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year.
c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes.
d. Explore the client’s previous experiences with conception control.
ANS: A
The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle,
counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of
menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be
partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on use of the calendar method.
Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for
use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may
demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but it is not the most important aspect to
assess for discussion of the calendar method.
13. A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about
fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse’s most appropriate reply is:
a. “They’re not very effective, and it’s very likely you’ll get pregnant.”
b. “They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation.”
c. “These methods have a few advantages and several health risks.”
d. “You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry.”
ANS: B
FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and adherence
to coitus intervals. They are effective if used correctly by a woman with a regular menstrual
cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 25% during the first year of use. FAMs have no
associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking
a pill daily requires compliance on the client’s part.
14. A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with
nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). The nurse’s most appropriate response is:
a. “The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation.”
b. “Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections,
as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of
human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions.”
c. “The additional lubrication improves sex.”
d. “Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity.”
ANS: B
The statement “Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against sexually transmitted
infections, as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of
human immunodeficiency virus and can cause genital lesions” is true. Nonoxynol-9 may
cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on
penile sensitivity.
15. A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks
the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse’s most appropriate response
would be:
a. “This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects.”
b. “Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill.”
c. “The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication.”
d. “This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history.”
ANS: B
Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are
taken simultaneously with anticonvulsants. The statement “Your current medications will
reduce the effectiveness of the pill” is true, but it is not the most appropriate response. The
anticonvulsant will reduce the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. The
statement “This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history” does not
teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant
therapy.
16. Injectable progestins (DMPA, Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women
who:
a. Want menstrual regularity and predictability.
b. Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
c. Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.
d. Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.
ANS: C
Advantages of DMPA include a contraceptive effectiveness comparable to that of combined
oral contraceptives with the requirement of only four injections a year. Disadvantages of
injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. Use of injectable
progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be
effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care
is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.
17. A woman currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse
what the major differences are between the cervical cap and diaphragm. The nurse’s most
appropriate response is:
a. “No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it’s less messy.”
b. “The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse.”
c. “Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient.”
d. “The cervical cap can safely be used for repeated acts of intercourse without
adding more spermicide later.”
ANS: D
The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for
additional spermicide later. No additional spermicide is required for repeated acts of
intercourse. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The
cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated
intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is
needed.
18. A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse
occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what
contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?
a. Cervical cap c. Vaginal film
b. Condom d. Vaginal sheath
ANS: A
Women with a history of TSS should not use a cervical cap. Condoms, vaginal films, and
vaginal sheaths are not contraindicated for a woman with a history of TSS.
19. An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as “active” and involving “many” partners.
She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests
an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse’s most appropriate response is:
a. “The IUD does not interfere with sex.”
b. “The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you.”
c. “The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections (STIs).”
d. “Pregnancy rates are high with IUDs.”
ANS: B
Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of PID in the first 20 days after insertion and
the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against
STIs or human immunodeficiency virus. Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is
at higher risk of developing a STI. The IUD does not protect against infection, as does a
barrier method. Although the statement “The IUD does not interfere with sex” may be correct,
it is not the most appropriate response. The IUD offers no protection from STIs. The typical
failure rate of the IUD in the first year of use is 0.8%.
20. A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. The nurse knows
that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second
trimester is:
a. Dilation and evacuation (D&E).
b. Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity.
c. Intravenous administration of Pitocin.
d. Vacuum aspiration.
ANS: A
The most common technique for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is
D&E. It is usually performed between 13 and 16 weeks. Hypertonic solutions injected directly
into the uterus account for less than 1% of all abortions because other methods are safer and
easier to use. Intravenous administration of Pitocin is used to induce labor in a woman with a
third-trimester fetal demise. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester.
21. A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. The nurse should advise this
woman to protect against pregnancy by:
a. Limiting sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill.
b. Using condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as she takes an antibiotic.
c. Taking one pill at the same time every day.
d. Throwing away the pack and using a backup method if she misses two pills during
week 1 of her cycle.
ANS: C
To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients
should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at
any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or abortion, another
method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of
pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy
cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-
spectrum antibiotics and altered hormone levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client
misses two pills during week 1, she should take two pills a day for 2 days, finish the package,
and use a backup method the next 7 consecutive days.
22. A woman had unprotected intercourse 36 hours ago and is concerned that she may become
pregnant because it is her “fertile” time. She asks the nurse about emergency contraception.
The nurse tells her that:
a. It is too late; she needed to begin treatment within 24 hours after intercourse.
b. Preven, an emergency contraceptive method, is 98% effective at preventing
pregnancy.
c. An over-the-counter antiemetic can be taken 1 hour before each contraceptive dose
to prevent nausea and vomiting.
d. The most effective approach is to use a progestin-only preparation.
ANS: C
To minimize the side effect of nausea that occurs with high doses of estrogen and progestin,
the woman can take an over-the-counter antiemetic 1 hour before each dose. Emergency
contraception is used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy.
Postcoital contraceptive use is 74% to 90% effective at preventing pregnancy. Oral emergency
contraceptive regimens may include progestin-only and estrogen-progestin pills. Women with
contraindications to estrogen use should use progestin-only pills.
24. While instructing a couple regarding birth control, the nurse should be aware that the method
called natural family planning:
a. Is the same as coitus interruptus, or “pulling out.”
b. Uses the calendar method to align the woman’s cycle with the natural phases of the
moon.
c. Is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic church.
d. Relies on barrier methods during fertility phases.
ANS: C
Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to
pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers.
Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic
church. “Pulling out” is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family
planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method.
25. Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
a. Standard days c. Postovulation
b. Periodic abstinence d. Coitus interruptus
ANS: A
The standard days variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12%. The periodic
abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or greater. The postovulation method has a failure
rate of 25% or greater. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or greater.
26. Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. Periodic abstinence
b. Barrier methods
c. Hormonal methods
d. They all offer about the same protection.
ANS: B
Barrier methods such as condoms best protect against STIs and HIV. Periodic abstinence and
hormonal methods (“the pill”) offer no protection against STIs or HIV.
27. With regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combined oral contraceptive pills
(COCs), nurses should be aware that:
a. COCs can cause toxic shock syndrome if the prescription is wrong.
b. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is a bit more profuse than in normal
menstruation and lasts a week.
c. COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer.
d. The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications
and herbal supplements.
ANS: D
The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal
supplements. Toxic shock syndrome can occur in some diaphragm users, but it is not a
consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is
lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer
protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.
28. With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs), nurses should be aware that:
a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed.
b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted
within a few days of unprotected intercourse.
c. IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as
the diaphragm.
d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.
ANS: B
The woman has up to 8 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. Return to fertility is
immediate after removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection for STIs. A consent form is
required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.
29. Which of the following statements is the most complete and accurate description of medical
abortions?
a. They are performed only for maternal health.
b. They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs.
c. They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
d. They can be either elective or therapeutic.
ANS: D
Medical abortions are performed through the use of medications (rather than surgical
procedures). They are mostly done in the first trimester, and they can be either elective (the
woman’s choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health).
30. Nurses, certified nurse-midwives, and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and
expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception. A
multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the woman’s social, cultural, and interpersonal
needs are met. Which action should the nurse take first when meeting with a new client to
discuss contraception?
a. Obtain data about the frequency of coitus.
b. Determine the woman’s level of knowledge about contraception and commitment
to any particular method.
c. Assess the woman’s willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus.
d. Evaluate the woman’s contraceptive life plan.
ANS: B
This is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the
process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the client’s level of knowledge is
determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost,
comfort level, protection from sexually transmitted infections, and a partner’s willingness to
participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first
action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include
not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive
involvement, and partner’s objections. Assessing the woman’s willingness to touch herself is
a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express interest in using one of the
fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the client’s plan
regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.
33. A physician prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid, Serophene) for a woman experiencing
infertility. She is very concerned about the risk of multiple births. The nurse’s most
appropriate response is:
a. “This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss this further before your
treatment begins?”
b. “No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid.”
c. “Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound so that this will not happen.”
d. “Ten percent is a very low risk, so you don’t need to worry too much.”
ANS: A
The incidence of multiple pregnancies with the use of these medications is significantly
increased. The patient’s concern is legitimate and should be discussed so that she can make an
informed decision. Stating that no one has ever had “more than triplets” is inaccurate and
negates the patient’s concerns. Ultrasound cannot ensure that a multiple pregnancy will not
occur. The percentage quoted in this statement is inaccurate. The comment “don’t worry”
discredits the patient’s concern.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
34. You (the nurse) are reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation.
What is an important fact you should point out (Select all that apply)?
a. “It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure.”
b. “This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won’t be able to
get pregnant.”
c. “Sterilization offers some form of protection against sexually transmitted
infections (STIs).”
d. “Sterilization offers no protection against STIs.”
e. “Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization.”
ANS: A, D
A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation, although it is not 100%
effective. Sterilization offers no protection against STIs. The menstrual cycle typically
remains the same after a tubal ligation.
MATCHING
Evaluation for infertility should be offered to couples who have failed to become pregnant
after 1 year of regular intercourse or after 6 months if the woman is older than 35. Impaired
fertility in women may be the result of numerous factors. Careful identification of the cause of
infertility assists in determining the correct treatment plan. The nurse who chooses to work in
the specialty of infertility must have an excellent understanding of these factors and causes.
Match each factor affecting female infertility with the likely cause.
a. Ovarian d. Vaginal/cervical
b. Tubal/peritoneal e. Other factors
c. Uterine
COMPLETION
40. Practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of days in each menstrual
cycle. The fertile period is determined after monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The
beginning of the fertile period is estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and
11 days from the shortest. If the woman’s cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, what
would her fertile period be?
________ to _________
ANS:
Day 6 to day 19
To avoid pregnancy, the couple must abstain from intercourse on days 6 through 19.
Ovulation occurs on day 12 (plus or minus 2 days either way).
Von Kreuzen, die mir früher entgangen waren, steht das eine am
Friedhof zu Röhrsdorf bei Meißen im waldigen Talgehänge.
(Abb. 80.) Es ist 1896 an der Kreuzung der Dorfstraße und des
Neustadt-Klipphausener Weges drei Meter tief im Boden gefunden
worden, als der Fleischer Lindner einen Abfluß für sein Schlachthaus
anlegte. Ein anderes in Form des Antoniuskreuzes steht vor dem
Gute Nr. 28 in Schrebitz bei Mügeln, Bezirk Leipzig. (Abb. 87.)
Abb. 86 Bockwen bei Meißen a. E.
Zu den neugemeldeten Funden zählt ferner ein kleines Steinkreuz
im Pfarrgarten zu Wehlen a. E., das vor etwa zwanzig Jahren an der
alten abgebrochenen Kirche beim Umpflastern des Hofes
aufgefunden worden ist und unbeachtet dort lehnte. (Abb. 88.)
Gleichfalls persönlich konnte ich mich vom Vorhandensein eines
Steines in Gestalt des eisernen Kreuzes am obersten Ende von
Porschdorf bei Bad Schandau überzeugen (Abb. 89) und ebenso
das im Acker ausgegrabene große Kreuz an der alten Dresdner
Landstraße beim Elbtalwerk Pirna photographieren. Das letztere ist
von sachverständiger Hand mit einem neuen Unterbau ausgestattet
worden, da er abgebrochen und nicht mit zu finden war. (Abb. 90.) In
Löbau fand sich bei Aufgrabungen an der alten Kittlitzer Landstraße
in drei Meter Tiefe ein wohlerhaltenes Steinkreuz und erhielt vom
Stadtrat einen Platz am Schnittpunkt der Ziegel- und Mücklichstraße.
(Abb. 79.)
Abb. 92 Meißen a. E.
Im Vogtland, wo schon vor Jahrzehnten der verstorbene Steuerrat
Trauer besonders eifrige Nachforschungen gehalten und der
Vogtländische Anzeiger in Plauen wiederholt längere Beiträge zur
Steinkreuzkunde veröffentlicht hatte, wurden seit 1914 noch
verschiedene Steinkreuze an offener Straße, darunter in
Gospersgrün, Kemnitzbachtal und Kürbitz neu festgestellt. (Abb. 98
und 99.) Das letztere, das an der Außenseite der Friedhofsmauer
eingesetzt war (Abb. 97), ist übrigens im Jahre 1923
bedauerlicherweise bei Bauarbeiten völlig verschüttet worden. Ältere
literarische Nachrichten sind dazu nirgends vorhanden und nur bei
den zwei Gospersgrünern geht die Sage vom gegenseitigen
Umbringen zweier Fleischerburschen. Bemerken möchte ich
übrigens, daß das sogenannte Schäferkreuz bei Limbach i. V. und
das Denkmal an der »Schwarzen Tafel« bei Reichenbach i. V. keine
Kreuzesform besitzen und von mir deshalb nicht aufgenommen
wurden.
Soweit es mir meine beengten persönlichen Verhältnisse
erlaubten, habe ich auch diese neuen Funde – ähnlich wie alle
zweihundertsechzig älteren Standorte – selbst besucht und
photographiert. Nur bei einigen Stücken im Vogtland und bei
Annaberg, von denen ich glaubhafte Kenntnis erhielt, bitte ich
andere wanderfreudige Helfer um Nachprüfung und Ergänzung der
heutigen Listen nach Gesteinart, Größe, Inschrift und genauem
Standort. Anderseits habe ich andere Stücke, die mir ohne jede
nähere Bezeichnung nur flüchtig genannt wurden, wie ein Kreuz
»beim Harrachsfelsen« bei Braunsdorf und ein Kreuz »in Reuth« bei
Plauen i. V., im Interesse der Genauigkeit noch gar nicht ins
Verzeichnis aufgenommen, sondern bemühe mich erst, sicheres
über ihr Vorhandensein und Aussehen zu erfahren. Die
Heimatfreunde jener Gegenden ersuche ich also freundlichst um
Unterstützung und Benachrichtigung durch Schrift und Bild.
An literarischen Funden ist für den sächsischen Bereich eine
Reihe von Sühne-Urkunden nachzutragen, die Professor Dr. Meiche
bei Besprechung meiner Arbeit von 1914 im Neuen Archiv für
Sächsische Geschichte und Altertumskunde, Bd. XL, Heft 1/2,
S. 189 ff. abgedruckt hat. Darin wird unter anderem ein Totschlag auf
dem Tharandter Walde erwähnt, bei dem Jocuff Fritzsch den Greger
Gunter von Naundorf im Jahre 1492 erschlagen hat. Da Meiche die
Urkunde und das verordnete Sühnekreuz am Tatort mit einem der
vorhandenen Steinmäler in Verbindung zu bringen sucht, so sei
bemerkt, daß »Angermanns Kreuz« auf Forstort 35 des Naundorfer
Reviers überhaupt keine Inschriftspur, sondern einen doppelten
Kreis und darüber die Zeichnung eines Spitzhammers trägt,
dagegen hängt vielleicht das neuentdeckte verstümmelte Stück an
der großen Grillenburger Waldlichtung auf Forstabteilung 48, das
Meiche noch nicht kannte (Abb. 95 u. 96), mit jener Tat zusammen.
Es ist auf der Südseite ganz mit leidlich lesbarer Schrift bedeckt, nur
fehlen davon an den abgestoßenen Kanten des Querbalkens rechts
und links stets mehrere Buchstaben. Bei verschiedenem
Sonnenstand konnte ich am Standorte selbst und später vor allen
Dingen durch genaue Betrachtung meines Negatives 13 × 18
Zentimeter, das erfahrungsgemäß eine bessere Entzifferung
gewährt, als jede positive Papierkopie, folgendes Schriftbild
zusammenstellen:
1|5|9|2|
GE EGIDII IST G
ITZSCH VON N
EIG⅁EM ALLHIER E
SSEN WORDEN
VASS VIGOTA
PAETZERPIE
IZSCH VND
HANS GVT
KEES HABEN
DIS CREVTZ
MAAL AVF
Die vier großen Zeilen, die durch Horizontallinien von den übrigen
getrennt sind, haben sich beiderseits noch auf die stark
verstümmelten Kreuzesarme hinauserstreckt, sind aber bis auf den
dritten Buchstaben der dritten Zeile, der ein D oder ein verkehrtes G
oder C darstellen soll, ganz tadellos erhalten. Dagegen erscheint die
Inschrift am Kreuzfuß unter dem zweiten Horizontalstrich stärker
verwittert. Wahrscheinlich ist das Kreuz jahrhundertelang, wie
manches andere, bis zum Querbalken im Waldboden versunken und
dem zerstörenden Einfluß der Feuchtigkeit dadurch am Unterteil
stärker ausgesetzt gewesen. Seltsamerweise erscheinen aber
innerhalb der zwei Querlinien unter und zwischen den deutlich
dastehenden vier Zeilen noch Spuren einer nahezu verwischten
Schrift von halber Buchstabengröße, so daß man vielleicht
annehmen muß, eine ältere wortreichere Inschrift sei später durch
eine größere überdeckt worden. Da die Jahreszahl 1592 zweifelsfrei
lesbar ist, so kann also dieses Kreuz oder wenigstens seine jüngere
Inschrift mit der Untat von 1492 nicht in Zusammenhang stehen,
wiewohl der Name Fritsch, wenn auch mit verwechselter Rolle, hier
wiederum vorkommt.
Gleichfalls Dr. Meiches Forschungen im Dresdner
Hauptstaatsarchiv verdanke ich die Bemerkung, daß das Kreuz von
Boritz (Nr. 16) schon 1540 urkundlich erwähnt wird. Bei der Kirche
wurden nämlich »Zinsen vom Feld unter dem steinernen Kreutz«
vereinnahmt[4].
Auch über einige verschwundene Kreuze ließen sich noch
nachträgliche Feststellungen gewinnen. Wie mir der Bürgermeister
Hackebeil von Gottleuba mitteilte, hat er zufällig in alten Akten vom
Jahre 1500 gelesen, daß ein Steinkreuz am Hellendorfer Weg einem
Bauer als Schleifstein verkauft worden sei. Das fünfte der
Königsbrücker Kreuze, das bereits zu Beginn der
Steinkreuzforschung um 1890 mit verzeichnet wurde, soll mündlicher
Auskunft zufolge im Jahre 1908 beim Bau eines Schuppens am
Krankenhaus mit vermauert worden sein.
Abb. 93 Dippoldiswalder Heide
Das verschwundene Riesaer Kreuz Nr. 54 endlich findet sich auf
einer im Heimatmuseum Riesa aufbewahrten Zeichnung des
Rektors Bamann von 1866 abgebildet; es stand an der Ecke der
Poppitzer Straße auf dem Platze des heutigen Restaurants »Stadt
Freiberg« und ist seit längerer Zeit verlorengegangen[5].
Mit diesen Bemerkungen sei die Reihe der tatsächlichen
Aufzeichnungen geschlossen und im übrigen auf die anhängenden
Verzeichnisse I a, b und II verwiesen, in denen ich die Ergänzungen
zu meinen Listen von 1914 sowie neue Funde zusammengestellt
habe.
An literarischen Arbeiten ist mir in letzten Jahren nur wenig Neues
über den sächsischen Steinkreuzbestand oder über allgemeine
Fragen des Steinkreuzproblems zu Gesicht gekommen. Zahlreicher
dagegen waren Einzelforschungen aus anderen deutschen Gauen,
so daß ich einige davon als vorbildlich mit im Literaturverzeichnis III
erwähnen möchte, zumal sie natürlich auch über Zweck und
Ursprung stets eine Reihe von allgemeinen Betrachtungen
enthalten.
Einen Beitrag zur badischen Steinkreuzforschung aus der Feder
von Max Walter, Ernsttal, brachten im vorigen Jahre die
Heimatblätter »Vom Bodensee zum Main[6]«. Der Verfasser geht,
ebenso wie ich, von der Ansicht aus, daß eine Klärung des
Steinkreuzproblems erst möglich ist, wenn durch örtliche Vorarbeiten
möglichst alle Fundstellen nach Zahl, Standort, Form, Gestein, Sage
und Literatur festgestellt sein werden. Demgemäß behandelt er das
Gebiet des hinteren Odenwalds, jener Dreiländerecke, die seit etwa
hundert Jahren politisch zu Baden, Hessen und Bayern gehörte und
vorher kurmainzisch war. Nicht weniger als dreiundsechzig
vorhandene und fünfzehn verschwundene Steinkreuze lassen sich
hier auf verhältnismäßig kleinem Raum feststellen. Auffällig
erscheinen die Versuche zu künstlerischer Formgebung und die
häufige Ausstattung dieser Steine mit figürlichen Zeichnungen und
Inschriften, die zum Teil auf späte Entstehung bis ins achtzehnte
Jahrhundert verweisen.
Abb. 94 Rathendorf bei Penig
Bei den ausführlichen Deutungsversuchen lehnt Walter, genau wie
ich es für Sachsen getan habe, die Annahme von Grenz- und
Hoheitszeichen auch auf Grund der dortigen Befunde rundweg ab;
ebenso erscheint die Frage von Gerichts-, Markt- und
Wegweiserkreuzen unhaltbar. Das Schwergewicht wird auch hier auf
den Zusammenhang mit blutiger Tat, mit dem Sühnegedanken, mit
religiösem Ursprung und dem Zwecke des späteren Bildstocks oder
Martels gelegt.
Über Mord- und Sühnekreuze in den Muldenkreisen Bitterfeld,
Delitzsch usw. schreibt Emil Obst (Bitterfeld 1921) in einer
selbstverlegten Broschüre. Neben fünfzig zahlreichen alten und
neuen Denkmälern beschreibt er eigentlich nur fünf wirkliche alte
Steinkreuze und druckt zur Einleitung drei interessante Bekenntnisse
aus der Delitzscher Gerichtspflege von 1474 bis 1503, leider ohne
Quellenangabe, ab. Die kleine Schrift bringt damit einige
dankenswerte tatsächliche Ergänzungen zur Bestandsübersicht der
preußischen Provinz Sachsen und sei deshalb unter Hinweis auf
meine Karte von 1914 als Grenzgebiet erwähnt.