AIRCRAFT ENGINIEERING REVIEWER
Left side - white, right side - green, rear aft
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1.Where electric cables must pass through holes in
bulkheads, formers, ribs, Firewalls, etc., the wires
should be protected from chafing by
a. wrapping with electrical tape.
b. using a suitable grommet.
c. wrapping with plastic.
2. Which motor would be most likely to have an
armature brake?
a. Starter motor.
b. Landing light retraction motor.
c. inverter drive motor.
3. What is the principal advantage of the series-
wound dc motor?
a. High starling torque.
b. Suitable for constant speed use.
c. Low starting torque.
4. How can it be determined if a transformer
winding has some of its turns
shorted together?
a. Measure the input voltage with an
ohmmeter.
b. The output voltage will be high.
c. The transformer will get hot in normal
operation.
5. If the reverse current cutout relay contact points
fail to open after the
generator output has dropped below battery
potential, current will flow
through the generator armature
a. in the normal direction and through the
shunt field opposite the normal direction.
b. and the shunt field opposite the normal
direction.
c. opposite the normal direction and
through the shunt field in the normal
direction.
6. What is the color and orientation of the position
lights for navigation on
civil airplanes?
a. Left side - green, right side - red, rear aft -
white.
b. Left side - red, right side - green, rear aft -
white.
c.
– red.
7. What is required when operating two aircraft ac
generators in parallel?
a. Amperes and frequency must both be
equal.
b. Frequency and voltage must both be
equal.
c. Amperes and voltage must both be equal.
8. What is the minimum bend radius for an
electrical wire bundle?
a. Ten times the outside diameter of the
bundle.
b. Five times the outside diameter of the
bundle.
c. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the
bundle.
9. What is a cause of generator brush arcing?
a. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper.
b. Carbon dust particles.
c. Low spring tension.
10. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an
electrical circuit, be sure it
a. has a full charge before removing it from
the circuit.
b. has at least a residual charge before
removing it from the circuit.
c. is fully discharged before removing it
from the circuit.
11. The nominal rating of electrical switches refers
to continuous
a. current rating with the contacts open.
b. voltage rating with the contacts closed.
c. current rating with the contacts closed.
12. What is normally used to bond noncontiguous
stainless steel aircraft components?
a. Stainless steel jumpers.
b. Copper jumpers.
c. Aluminum jumpers.
13. Grounding is electrically connecting a
conductive object to the primary
structure. One purpose of grounding is to
a. prevent current return paths.
b. allow static charge accumulation.
c. prevent development of radio frequency
potentials.
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14. A battery-generator system provides direct
current. On installations requiring alternating
current from the battery-generator system, it is
necessary to have
a. a transformer.
b. an inverter.
c. a variable resistor between the battery
and generator.
15. Which of the following must be accomplished
when installing an anti-collision light?
a. Install a switch independent of the
position light switch.
b. Use shielded electrical cable to assure
fail-safe operation.
c. Connect the anticollision light to the
aircraft position light switch.
16. Which of the following copper electrical cable
sizes should be selected to replace a No. 6
aluminum electrical cable?
a. No. 4.
b. No.6.
c. No.8.
17. Major adjustments on equipment such as
regulators, contactors, and inverters are best
accomplished outside the airplane on test benches
with necessary instruments and equipment.
Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by
a. the equipment manufacturer.
b. the FAA.
c. aircraft technical orders.
18. Which of the following tactors must be taken
into consideration when determining the wire size
to use for an aircraft installation?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Resistance of current return path through the
aircraft structure.
5. Permissible voltage drop.
6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.
7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
a. 2,5,6,7.
b. 1,2,4,5.
c. 2,4, 6,7.
19. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the
a. field windings.
b. field shoes.
c. armature.
20. Electric circuits are protected from overheating
by means of
a. thermocouples.
b. shunts.
c. fuses.
21. What is the purpose of the selection of derated
switches for known continuous load current
applications?
a. To calculate the voltage drop across the
circuit.
b. To prevent short circuits in the motor field
windings.
c. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and
service life.
22. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in
a. volts.
b. ohms.
c. Amperes
23. Which of the following should be accomplished
in the installation of aircraft wiring?
a. Support the bundle to structure and/ or
solid fluid lines to prevent chafing damage.
b. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle
to compensate for large changes in
temperature.
c. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid
lines and securely clamp to structure.
24. If one switch is used to control all navigation
lights, the lights are most likely connected
a. in series with each other and parallel to
the switch.
b. in series with each other and in series
with the switch.
c. parallel to each other and in series with
the switch.
25. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system
is to change
a. the frequency of alternating current.
b. direct current to alternating current.
c. alternating current to direct current.
26. Which statement relating to electric wiring is
true?
a. When attaching a terminal to the end of an
electric cable, it should be determined that
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 the strength of the cable-to-terminal joint is
at least twice the tensile strength of the
cable.
b. When attaching a terminal to the end of an
electric cable, it should be determined that
the strength of the cable-to-terminal joint
is at least equal to the tensile strength of
the cable itself.
c. All electric cable splices should be covered
with soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for
mechanical protection against external
abrasion.
27. One purpose of a growler test is to determine
the presence of
a. an out-of-round commutator.
b. a broken field lead.
c. a shorted armature.
28. The inductor-type inverter output voltage is
controlled by the
a. number of poles and the speed of the
motor.
b. voltage regulator.
c. dc stator field current.
29. If the positive field lead between a generator
and a generator control panel breaks and is
shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter
connected to generator output would indicate
a. zero voltage.
b. residual voltage.
c. normal voltage.
30. During ground operation, aircraft generator
cooling is usually accomplished by
a. auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel
heat exchanger.
b. an integral fan.
c. an external motor-driven fan.
31. (1) There are three basic types of dc motors;
series, shunt, and compound.
(2) In the series motor, the field windings,
consisting of relatively few, turns of heavy wire, are
connected in series with the armature winding.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
32. Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical
power for all normal operation and battery
furnished dc electrical power for standby
emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate
no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by
a. inverters which use the aircraft’s ac
generators as a source of power.
b. alternators which use the aircraft’s
generators as a source of power.
c. rectifiers which use the aircraft’s ac
generators as a source of power.
33. The most common method of regulating the
voltage output of a compound dc
generator is to vary the
a. current flowing through the shunt field
coils.
b. total effective field strength by changing
the reluctance of the magnetic circuit.
c. resistance of the series field circuit.
34. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of
numbers used to designate
electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size
is related to its
a. combined resistance and current-carrying
capacity.
b. current-carrying capacity.
c. cross-sectional area.
35. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils
laminated?
a. To reduce the core reluctance.
b. To increase the core permeability.
c. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
36. One advantage of using ac electrical power in
aircraft is
a. that ac electrical motors can be reversed
while dc motors cannot.
b. greater ease in stepping the voltage up
or down.
c. that the effective voltage is 1 .41 times
the maximum instantaneous voltage;
therefore, less power input is required.
37. When necessary during operation, CSD
disconnect is usually accomplished by
a. a switch in the cockpit.
b. circuit breaker activation.
c. a shear section in the input shaft.
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38. When a diode is checked for an open circuit or
a short circuit, it should be
a. in the circuit.
b. checked with a milliamp ammeter.
c. disconnected from the circuit.
39. The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting
system protects the
a. lights from too much current.
b. wiring from too much current.
c. wiring from too much voltage.
40. The generator rating is usually found stamped
on the
a. firewall.
b. generator.
c. Engine
41. Which type of dc generator is not used as an
airplane generator?
a. Externally grounded.
b. Series wound.
c. Compound wound.
42. How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in
a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type for
each revolution of the rotor?
a. Four.
b. Three.
c. Six.
43. If several long lengths of electrical cable are to
be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of
damage to the cable as it is pulled through the
conduit will be reduced by
a. dusting the cable with powdered
graphite.
b. dusting the cable with powdered
soapstone.
c. applying a light coat of dielectric grease.
44. If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type
voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage
regulator points remain open
a. depends on the load carried by the
generator.
b. is controlled by the reverse-current cutout
relay point clearance.
c. is increased when the external load is
greater than the generator output.
45. What is an important factor in selecting aircraft
fuses?
a. The current exceeds a predetermined
value.
b. The voltage rating should be lower than
the maximum circuit voltage.
c. Capacity matches the needs of the
circuit.
46. When dc generators are operated in parallel to
supply power for a single load, their controls
include an equalizer circuit to assure that all
generators share the load equally. The equalizer
circuit operates by
a. increasing the output of the low
generator to equal the output of the high
generator.
b. decreasing the output of the high
generator to equal the output of the low
generator.
c. increasing the output of the low
generator and decreasing the output of
the high generator until they are equal
47. In installations where the ammeter is in the
generator or alternator lead, and the regulator
system does not limit the maximum current that
the generator or alternator can deliver, the
ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the
generator or alternator rating?
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
48. The method most often used in overcoming the
effect of armature reaction is through the use of
a. interpoles.
b. shaded poles.
c. drum-wound armatures in combination
with a negatively connected series field
49. The commutator of a generator
a. changes direct current produced in the
armature into alternating current as it is
taken from the armature.
b. changes alternating current produced in
the armature into direct current as it is
taken from the armature.
c. reverses the current in the field coils at the
proper time in order to produce direct
current.
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50. What is the ratio of turns between the primary
coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a
transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
a. Primary will have one-third as many turns
as its secondary.
b. Primary will have twice as many turns as
its secondary.
c. Primary will have three times as many
turns as its secondary
51. What kind of switch should you install in a
single wire circuit that required the switch to be
manually held in the ON position?
a. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-
position normally open (NO).
b. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), single-
position.
c. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), single-
position normally open (NO).
52. When using the voltage drop method of
checking circuit resistance, the
a. input voltage must be maintained at a
constant value.
b. output voltage must be maintained at a
constant value.
c. input voltage must be varied.
53. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft
applications must be what type?
a. Slotted.
b. Hook.
c. Ring.
54. The major advantages of alternating current
(AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact that its
current and voltage can easily be increased or
decreased
a. by means of a inverter.
b. by means of a rectifier.
c. by means of a transformer.
55. How does the magnetic brake used to stop
rotation of an electric motor armature operate?
a. Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake
cog from a stationary notch when the
armature reaches a certain speed and
magnetic force re-engages the cog when
the electrical power is turned off.
b. A friction brake is applied by a magnet
and released by a spring.
c. A friction brake is applied by a spring and
released by a magnet.
56. What does a rectifier do?
a. Changes direct current into alternating
current.
b. Changes alternating current into direct
current.
c. Reduces voltage.
57. A series-wound dc electric motor will normally
require
a. more current at high RPM than at low RPM.
b. approximately the same current throughout
its operating range of speed.
c. more current at low RPM than at high
RPM.
58. (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the batteries are
connected together incorrectly?
View Figure(s)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
59. The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of
a single circuit controlled by a single switch which
has an ON position and an OFF position, with no
additional positions possible. This switch is referred
to as a
a. double-pole, single-throw (DPST), two-
position switch.
b. single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), two-
position switch.
c. single-pole, single-throw (S PST), two-
position switch.
60. A circuit protection device called a current
limiter is essentially a slow blow fuse and is
designed to be used in
a. 400 cycle AC circuits.
b. heavy power circuits.
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 c. starter-generator circuits. 67. Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully
61. Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel because
electrical junction boxes is considered to be a. high resistance will develop in stripping
a. normal operation in vibration prone nicks.
areas. b. stripping nicks can cause short circuits.
b. a shorting hazard. c. individual strands will break easily after
c. acceptable operation. being nicked.
62. Some electric motors have two sets of field 68. The voltage output of an alternator may be
windings wound in opposite directions so that the regulated by controlling the
a. speed of the motor can be more closely a. speed of the alternator.
controlled. b. voltage output of the dc exciter.
b. power output of the motor can be more c. resistance in the rotor windings.
closely controlled. 69. Bonding connections should be tested for
c. motor can be operated in either a. resistance value.
direction. b. amperage value.
63. When using an ohmmeter to check the c. reactance.
continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should 70. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices
a. be removed from the generator housing. used most commonly in aircraft circuits are
b. show high resistance when the meter prods a. circuit breakers, resistors, and current
are connected to the terminals of the coil. limiters.
c. show very low resistance if it is a series b. circuit breakers, fuses, and current
field coil. limiters.
64. For general electrical use in aircraft, the c. circuit breakers, capacitors, and current
acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a limiter plug-ins mechanical reset types.
wire is by 71. CSD driven generators are usually cooled by
a. crimping. a. oil spray.
b. soldering. b. an integral fan.
c. crimping and soldering. c. both ram air and an integral fan.
65. Which of the following are the major parts of a 72. When approved, splices may be used to repair
dc motor? manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The
1. Armature assembly. maximum number of splices permitted between
2. Field assembly. any two connectors is
3. Brush assembly. a. one.
4. Commutator. b. two.
5. Pole piece. c. three.
6. Rheostat. 73. What is the advantage of a current limiter?
7. End frame. a. It breaks circuit quickly.
a. 1, 2, 3, 7. b. It can be reset easily.
b. 2,3,4,5. c. It will take overload for a short period.
c. 3,5,6,7. 74. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator
66. In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which are a part of the
is true? a. armature assembly.
a. Real power is zero. b. field assembly.
b. Real power is greater than apparent power. c. brush assembly
c. Real power equals apparent power. 75. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to
control the light intensity, it should be connected in
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 a. parallel with the light.
b. series with the light.
c. series parallel with the light switch.
76. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when
compared to a fuse?
a. Never needs replacing.
b. Always eliminates the need of a switch.
c. Resettable and reusable.
77. To help minimize radio interference a capacitor
will largely eliminate and provide a steady direct
current if the capacitor is connected to the
generator in
a. parallel.
b. series
c. series/parallel.
78. How is a shunt-wound dc generator connected?
a. One field is shunted across the other.
b. Both fields are shunted across the
armature.
c. The field and armature are shunted with a
capacitor.
79. Circuits that must be operated only in an
emergency or whose inadvertent activation could
endanger a system frequently employ
a. guarded switches.
b. push-pull-type circuit breakers only (no
switches).
c. spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker
switches.
80. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector
where it may be exposed to moisture, the
mechanic should
a. coat the connector with grease.
b. use a special moisture-proof type.
c. spray the connector with varnish or zinc-
chromate.
81. A voltage regulator controls generator output
by
a. introducing a resistance in generator-to-
battery lead in the event of overload.
b. shorting out field coil in the event of
overload.
c. varying current flow to generator field coil.
82. To test generator or motor armature windings
for opens,
a. place armature in a growler and connect a
110V test light on adjacent segments; light
should light.
b. check adjacent segments on commutator
with an ohmmeter on the high resistance
scale.
c. use a 12/24V test light between the
armature core segments and the shaft.
83. The primary considerations when selecting
electric cable size are
a. current-carrying capacity and allowable
voltage drop.
b. the voltage and amperage of the load it
must carry.
c. the system voltage and cable length
84. Static inverters are electronic devices that
change DC to AC with the
a. use of an oscillator.
b. properties of an exclusive OR gate.
c. input from an amplifier control by
integrated circuits.
85. An aircraft electrical circuit control relay is
a. an electronically operated switch.
b. a device which converts electrical energy
to kinetic energy.
c. any conductor which receives electrical
energy and passes it on with little or no
resistance.
86. How are generators rated?
a. Watts at rated voltage.
b. Amperes at rated voltage.
c. The impedance at rated voltage.
87. What is the most accurate type of frequency-
measuring instrument?
a. Integrated circuit chip having a clock
circuit.
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 b. Electrodynamometers using
electromagnetic fields.
c. Electromagnets using one permanent
magnet.
88. When considering an alteration, the criteria
upon which the selection of electric cable size
should be based are
a. applied voltage and allowable voltage
drop.
b. current-carrying capacity and allowable
voltage drop.
c. current-carrying capacity and applied
voltage.
89. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected
to the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-)
terminal of the meter is connected to the (+)
terminal of the source voltage, the voltmeter will
read
a. correctly.
b. low voltage.
c. backwards.
90. The strength of the core of an electromagnet
depends upon the material from which it is
constructed and which of the following?
a. The number of turns of wire in the coil and
the applied voltage.
b. The number of turns of wire in the coil
and the amount of current (amperes)
passing through the coil.
c. The size (cross section) and the number of
turns of wire in the coil and the applied
voltage.
91. What type of instrument is used for measuring
very high values of resistance?
a. Megohmmeter.
b. Shunt-type ohmmeter.
c. Multimeter
92. (Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of the
landing gear extension cycle, the green light
illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is
the probable cause?
View Figure(s)
a. Short in the down limit switch.
b. Short in the gear safety switch.
c. Short in the up limit switch.
93. What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper
wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes,
continuous operation?
Use the formula VD = RLA
VD = Voltage drop
R = Resistance per ft = .00644
L = Length of wire
A = Amperes
a. 1/2V
b. 1V
c. 4V
94. How should a voltmeter be connected?
a. In series with the source.
b. In parallel with the load.
c. In series with the load.
95. The poles of a generator are laminated to
a. reduce flux losses.
b. increase flux concentration.
c. reduce eddy current losses
96. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding
connections to an aircraft structure, which of the
following should be considered?
1. Mechanical strength.
2. Allowable power loss.
3. Ease of installation.
4. Permissible voltage drop.
5. Amount of current to be carried.
6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
a. 1, 3 , 5
b. 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 3, 3
97. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for
the purpose of indicating the
a. amperage available for use.
b. total amperes being used in the airplane.
c. rate of current used to charge the battery
98. The overvoltage control automatically protects
the generator system when excessive voltage is
present by
a. opening the shunt field circuit.
b. opening and resetting the field control
relay.
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 c. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field
control relay.
99. To what depth is the mica insulation between
the commutator bars of a dc generator undercut?
a. One-half the width of the mica.
b. Equal to twice the width of the mica.
c. Equal to the width of the mica.
100. If anyone generator in a 24-volt dc system
shows low voltage, the most likely cause is
a. an out-of-adjustment voltage regulator.
b. shorted or grounded wiring.
c. a defective reverse current cutout relay.
101. During inspection of an anti-collision light
installation for condition and proper operation, it
should be determined that
a. electrical or mechanical interconnections
are provided so that the anti-collision light
will operate at
b. all times that the position light switch is in
the ON position.
c. an appropriately rated fuse is in position at
the light to protect the connecting wiring
against electrical faults.
d. the anti-collision light can be operated
independently of the position lights.
102. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a
fire zone are usually constructed of
a. asbestos.
b. cadmium-plated steel.
c. stainless steel.
103. What is a method used for restoring generator
field residual magnetism?
a. Flash the fields.
b. Reseat the brushes.
c. Energize the armature.
104. Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a
type of high output ac generator that utilizes
a. brushes and slip rings to carry generated
dc exciter current to the rotating field.
b. battery current to excite the field.
c. a brushless system to produce current.
105. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ
from the routing of electrical wiring?
a. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with
stringers or ribs.
b. Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to
stringers or ribs.
c. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as
possible.
106 What protection to wires and cables does
conduit provide when used in aircraft installations?
a. Electromagnetic.
b. Mechanical.
c. Structural.
107. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an
ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit
component and some value of resistance is read,
a. the component has continuity and is
open.
b. either the component or the circuit is
shorted.
c. the component has continuity and is not
open.
108. During inspection of the terminal strips of an
aircraft electrical system, it should be determined
that
a. only locknuts have been used for terminal
attachment to the studs.
b. the terminal studs are anchored against
rotation.
c. only plain nuts and lockwashers have
been used for terminal attachment to the
studs.
109. The type of electric wire terminals used for
most aircraft applications, in addition to providing
good current carrying capabilities, are designed
primarily
a. To prevent circuit failure due to terminal
disconnection.
b. for uncomplicated and rapid circuit
connection and disconnection.
c. for permanent connection to the circuit.
110. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact
with some moving parts, what protection should
be given the wire?
a. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield.
b. Wrap with friction tape.
c. Pass through conduit.
111. Which of the following is not one of the
purposes of interpoles in a generator?
a. Reduce field strength.
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 b. Overcome armature reaction.
c. Reduce arcing at the brushes.
112. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset
circuit breakers
a. Should not be used as circuit protective
devices.
b. Are useful where only temporary
overloads are normally encountered.
c. Must be used in all circuits essential to
safe operation of the aircraft.
113. If the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)
scavenge oil filter is contaminated with metal, you
should
a. do an oil analysis to diagnose the
problem.
b. remove and replace the IDG.
c. replace the oil and filter at 25 hour
intervals.
114. Aircraft which operate only ac generators
(alternators) as a primary source of electrical
power normally provide current suitable for battery
charging through the use of
a. a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
b. an inverter and a voltage-dropping resistor.
c. a dyna motor with a half-wave dc output.
115. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft
electrical system primarily to protect the
a. circuit and should be located as close to
the source as possible.
b. circuit and should be located as close to
the unit as possible.
c. electrical unit in the circuit and should be
located as close to the source as possible.
116. What is the maximum amount of time a circuit
can be in operation and still be an intermittent duty
circuit?
a. Three minutes.
b. Two minutes.
c. One minute.
117. The only practical method of maintaining a
constant voltage output from an aircraft generator
under varying conditions of speed and load is to
vary the
a. strength of the magnetic field.
b. number of conductors in the armature.
c. speed at which the armature rotates.
118. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is
normally installed on
a. the power supply side of a circuit.
b. the ground side of a circuit.
c. either side of a circuit (makes no
difference).
119. Which of the following is most likely to cause
thermal runaway in a nickel- cadmium battery?
a. A high internal resistance condition.
b. Excessive current draw from the battery.
c. Constant current charging of the battery
to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
120. How can the direction of rotation of a dc
electric motor be changed?
a. Interchange the wires which connect the
motor to the external power source.
b. Reverse the electrical connections to
either the field or armature windings.
c. Rotate the positive brush one
commutator segment.
121. The most common method of attaching a pin
or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical
connector is by
a. crimping.
b. soldering.
c. crimping and soldering.
122. What is the frequency of an alternator
dependent upon?
a. Voltage.
b. RPM.
c. Current.
123. In a generator, what eliminates any possible
sparking to the brush guides caused by the
movement of the brushes within the holder?
a. The brush pigtail.
b. Brush spring tension.
c. Undercutting the mica on the
commutator.
124. A certain switch is described as a single-pole,
double-throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch
indicates the number of
a. circuits each pole can complete through
the switch.
b. terminals at which current can enter or
leave the switch.
10
 c. places at which the operating device
(toggle, plunger, etc.) will come to rest and
at the same time open or close a circuit.
125. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage
by changing the
a. resistance in the generator output circuit.
b. current in the generator output circuit.
c. resistance of the generator field circuit.
126. The starting current of a series-wound dc
motor, in passing through both the field and
armature windings, produces a
a. low starting torque.
b. speed slightly higher when unloaded.
c. high starting torque.
127. Electric wiring installed in aircraft without
special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the
advantages of ease of installation, simple
maintenance, and reduced weight. When bundling
open wiring, the bundles should
a. be limited as to the number of cables to
minimize damage from a single electrical
fault.
b. include at least one shielded cable to
provide good bonding of the bundle to
the airframe.
c. be limited to a minimum bend radius of
five times the bundle diameter to avoid
excessive stresses on the cable insulation.
128. A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due
to a malfunction such as over temperature, may be
reconnected
a. automatically if the temperature falls back
into the normal operating range.
b. manually by the flight crew.
c. only on the ground by maintenance
personnel.
129. AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically
designed to meet
a. Technical Standard Order (TSO)
specifications.
b. military specifications.
c. International Civil Aviation Organization
(ICAO) standards.
130. The voltage in an ac transformer secondary
that contains twice as many ioops as the primary
will be
a. greater and the amperage less than in
the primary.
b. greater and the amperage greater than in
the primary.
c. less and the amperage greater than in the
primary.
131. How should the splices be arranged if several
are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?
a. Staggered along the length of the
bundle.
b. Grouped together to facilitate inspection.
c. Enclosed in a conduit.
132. A CSD unit drives a generator through the use
of
a. a synchronous electric motor.
b. an infinitely variable mechanical gearing
system.
c. a variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic
motor.
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
1. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures
are measured by using
a. Iron/constantan thermocouples.
b. chromel/alumel thermocouples.
c. Ratiometer electrical resistance
thermometers.
2. Which of the following causes of aircraft
magnetic compass inaccuracies may be
compensated for by mechanics?
a. Deviation.
b. Magnetic compass current.
c. Variation.
3. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are
displayed on an HSI, the indication is
a. that function is inoperative.
b. that function is operating.
c. to call attention to deviation from
the desired setting, or flight path, or
heading, etc.
4. Which instruments are connected to an
aircraft’s static pressure system only?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
11
 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 2, 4, and 5.
c. 2 and 4.
5. Which of the following instruments will
normally have range markings?
a. Altimeter.
b. Cylinder head temperature
gauge, airspeed indicator.
c. Altimeter, airspeed indicator
6. Which instrument condition is acceptable
and would not require correction?
1. Red line missing.
2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.
a. 1
b. 5
c. None
7. The maximum altitude loss permitted
during an unpressurized aircraft instrument
static pressure system integrity check is
a. 50 feet in 1 minute.
b. 200 feet in 1 minute.
c. 100 feet in 1 minute.
8. A radar altimeter indicates
a. flight level (pressure) altitude.
b. altitude above sea level.
c. altitude above ground level.
9. The operating mechanism of most
hydraulic pressure gauges is
a. a Bourdon tube.
b. an airtight diaphragm.
c. an evacuated bellows filled with an
inert gas to which suitable arms,
levers, and gears are attached.
10. Which condition would be most likely to
cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum
system?
a. Vacuum pump overspeed.
b. Vacuum relief valve improperly
adjusted.
c. Vacuum relief valve spring weak.
11. Data transmitted between components in
an EFIS are converted into
a. digital signals.
b. analog signals.
c. carrier wave signals.
12. Which statement regarding an aircraft
instrument vacuum system is true?
a. Dry-type vacuum pumps with
carbon vanes are very susceptible
to damage from solid airborne
particles and must take in only
filtered air.
b. Vacuum systems are generally
more effective at high altitudes
than positive pressure systems.
c. If the air inlet to each vacuum
instrument is connected to a
common atmospheric pressure
manifold, the system generally will
be equipped with individual
instrument filters only
13. What marking color is used to indicate if a
cover glass has slipped?
a. Red.
b. White.
c. Yellow.
14. When performing the static system leakage
check required by Section 91.411, the
technician utilizes
a. Static pressure.
b. Positive pressure.
c. Negative pressure.
15. When an unpressurized aircraft’s static
pressure system is leak checked to comply
with the requirements of Section 91.411,
what aircraft instrument maybe used in lieu
of a pitot-static system tester?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.
a. 1 or 5.
12
 b. 2 or 4. b. 1
c. 3 c. 2 and 3
16. How is a flangeless instrument case 20. How would an airspeed indicator be
mounted in an instrument panel? marked to show the best rate-of-climb
a. By four machine screws which speed (one engine inoperative)?
extend through the instrument a. A red radial line.
panel. b. A blue radial line.
b. By an expanding-type clamp c. A green arc.
secured to the back of the panel 21. The requirements for testing and inspection
and tightened by a screw from of instrument static systems required by
the front of the instrument panel. Section 91 .411 are contained in
c. By a metal shelf separate from and a. Type Certificate Data Sheets.
located behind the instrument b. AC 43.13-lA.
panel. c. Part 43, appendix E.
17. Which of the following instrument 22. When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92”
discrepancies could be corrected by an Hg on the ground, the altimeter will read
aviation mechanic? a. pressure altitude.
1. Red line missing. b. density altitude.
2. Case leaking. c. field elevation.
3. Glass cracked. 23. Cases for electrically operated instruments
4. Mounting screws loose. are made of
5. Case paint chipped. a. Aluminum or composite cases.
6. Leaking at line B nut. b. Iron or steel cases.
7. Will not adjust. c. Bakelite or plastic cases.
8. Fogged. 24. A certificated mechanic with airframe and
a. 1, 4, 6. powerplant ratings may
b. 3,4,5,6. a. perform minor repairs to aircraft
c. 1,4,5,6. instruments.
18. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft b. perform minor repairs and minor
instrument? alterations to aircraft instruments.
1. A certified mechanic with an airframe c. not perform repairs to aircraft
rating. instruments.
2. A certificated repairman with an airframe 25. How many of the following are controlled
rating. by gyroscopes?
3. A certificated repair station approved for 1. Attitude indicator.
that class instrument. 2. Heading indicator.
4. A certificated airframe repair station. 3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip
a. 1,2,3 and 4 indicator.
b. 3 and 4 a. Three.
c. 3 b. Two.
19. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to c. One.
indicate 26. What will be the result if the instrument
1. pressure. static pressure line becomes disconnected
2. temperature. inside a pressurized cabin during cruising
3. position. flight?
a. 1 and 2.
13
 a. The altimeter and airspeed
indicator will both read low.
b. The altimeter and airspeed
indicator will both read high.
c. The altimeter will read low and
the airspeed indicator will read
high.
27. What must be done to an instrument panel
that is supported by shock mounts?
a. Bonding straps must be installed
across the instrument mounts as
a current path.
b. The instrument mounts must be
grounded to the aircraft
structure as a current path.
c. The instrument mounts must be
tightened to the specified torque
required by the maintenance
manual.
28. What does a reciprocating engine manifold
pressure gauge indicate when the engine is
not operating?
a. Zero pressure.
b. The differential between the
manifold pressure and the
atmospheric pressure.
c. The existing atmospheric
pressure.
29. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to
transmit data
a. mechanically.
b. electrically.
c. utilizing fluid power.
30. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in
an EFIS is to
a. display alphanumeric data and
representations of aircraft
instruments.
b. allow the pilot to select the
appropriate system configuration
for the current flight situation.
c. receive and process input signals
from aircraft and engine sensors
and send the data to the
appropriate display.
31. The maximum deviation (during level flight)
permitted in a compensated magnetic
direction indicator installed on an aircraft
certificated under Federal Aviation
Regulation Part 23 is
a. 6 degrees
b. 8 degrees
c. 10 degrees
32. The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to
a. allow the pilot to select the
appropriate system configuration
for the current flight situation.
b. display alphanumeric data and
representations of aircraft
instruments.
c. receive and process input signals
from aircraft and engine sensors
and send the data to the
appropriate display.
33. Which instruments are connected to an
aircraft’s pitot-static system?
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
5. Airspeed indicator.
a. 1,2,3,4, and 5.
b. 1,2, and 4.
c. 1,3, and 5.
34. When installing an instrument in an
aircraft, who is responsible for making sure
it is properly marked?
a. The aircraft owner.
b. The instrument installer.
c. The instrument manufacturer.
35. If a static pressure system check reveals
excessive leakage, the leak(s) maybe
located by
a. pressurizing the system and
adding leak detection dye.
b. isolating portions of the line and
testing each portion
systematically starting at the
instrument connections.
c. removing and visually inspecting
the line segments.
14
36. A turn coordinator instrument indicates
a. the longitudinal attitude of the
aircraft during climb and descent.
b. the need for corrections in pitch
and bank.
c. both roll and yaw.
37. A radar altimeter determines altitude by
a. transmitting a signal and
receiving back a reflected signal.
b. receiving signals transmitted from
ground radar stations.
c. means of transponder
interrogation.
38. Where may a person look for the
information necessary to determine the
required markings on an engine
instrument?
1. Engine manufacturer’s specifications.
2. Aircraft flight manual.
3. Instrument manufacturer’s
specifications.
4. Aircraft maintenance manual.
a. 2 or 4.
b. 1 or 4.
c. 2 or 3.
39. Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads
may
a. not be altered and are designed
for a specific installation.
b. be installed with either lead to
either post of the indicator.
c. be repaired using solderless
connectors.
40. What is the fixed line mark attached to the
compass bowl of a magnetic compass
called?
a. Reeder line.
b. Lubber line.
c. Reference line.
41. Instrument static system leakage can be
detected by observing the rate of change in
indication of the
a. airspeed indicator after suction
has been applied to the static
system to cause a prescribed
equivalent airspeed to be
indicated.
b. altimeter after pressure has been
applied to the static system to
cause a prescribed equivalent
altitude to be indicated.
c. altimeter after suction has been
applied to the static system to
cause a prescribed equivalent
altitude to be indicated.
42. (1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to
direct attention to operational ranges and
limitations.
(2) Aircraft instruments range markings are
not specified by Title 14 of the Code of
Federal Regulations but are standardized by
aircraft manufacturers.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
43. The operation of an angle-of-attack
indicating system is based on detection of
differential pressure at a point where the
airstream flows in a direction
a. not parallel to the true angle of
attack of the aircraft.
b. parallel to the angle of attack of
the aircraft.
c. parallel to the longitudinal axis of
the aircraft.
44. Resistance-type temperature indicators
using Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer
circuits may be used to indicate the
temperatures of which of the fo1lowing?
1. Free air.
2. Exhaust gas temperature.
3. Carburetor air.
4. Coolant (engine).
5. Oil temperature.
6. Cylinder head temperature.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
b. 1,3, 4,and 5.
c. 1,2,3 and 6.
45. Instrument panel shock mounts absorb
15
 a. high energy impact shocks caused
by hard landings.
b. low frequency, high-amplitude
shocks.
c. high G shock loads imposed by
turbulent air.
46. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a
liquid to
a. retard precession of the float.
b. reduce deviation errors.
c. dampen the oscillation of the
float.
47. The green arc on an aircraft temperature
gauge indicates
a. the instrument is not calibrated.
b. the desirable temperature
range.
c. a low, unsafe temperature range.
48. Which of the following instrument
discrepancies would require replacement of
the instrument?
1. Red line missing.
2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.
a. 2,3,7,8.
b. 1,4,6,7.
c. 1, 3,5,8.
49. Aircraft instrument value should be marked
and graduated in accordance with
a. the instrument manufacturer’s
specifications.
b. both the aircraft and engine
manufacturers’ specifications.
c. the specific aircraft maintenance
or flight manual.
50. When swinging a magnetic compass, the
compensators are adjusted to correct for
a. magnetic influence deviation.
b. compass card oscillations.
c. magnetic variations.
51. Which procedure should you use if you find
a vacuum-operated instrument glass loose?
a. Mark the case and glass with a
slippage mark.
b. Replace the glass.
c. Install another instrument.
52. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically
bonded to the aircraft structure to
a. Act as a restraint strap.
b. provide current return paths
c. Aid in the panel installation.
53. A certificated mechanic may perform
a. minor repairs to instruments.
b. 100-hour inspections of
instruments.
c. instrument overhaul.
54. A synchro transmitter is connected to a
synchro receiver
a. mechanically through linkage.
b. electromagnetically without
wires.
c. electrically with wires.
55. The red radial lines on the face of an engine
oil pressure gauge indicates
a. minimum engine safe RPM
operating range.
b. minimum precautionary safe
operating range.
c. minimum and! or maximum safe
operating limits.
56. A barometric altimeter indicates pressure
altitude when the barometric scale is set at
a. 29.92” Hg.
b. 14.7” Hg.
c. field elevation.
57. The method of mounting aircraft
instruments in their respective panels
depends on the
a. instrument manufacturer.
b. design of the instrument case.
c. design of the instrument panel.
58. An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to
up-date the compass correction card when
a. an annual inspection is
accomplished on the aircraft.
b. the compass is serviced.
16
 c. equipment is added that could
effect compass deviation.
59. The function of a display controller in an
EFIS is to
a. display alphanumeric data and
representations of aircraft
instruments.
b. allow the pilot to select the
appropriate system
configuration for the current
flight situation.
c. receive and process input signals
from aircraft and engine sensors
and send the data to the
appropriate display.
60. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used
to
a. represent the nose of the
aircraft.
b. align the instrument glass in the
case.
c. represent the wings of the
aircraft.
61. Aircraft instrument panels are generally
shock-mounted to absorb
a. all vibration.
b. low-frequency, high-amplitude
shocks.
c. high-frequency, high-amplitude
shocks.
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
1. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide
a. Directional stability
b. Longitudinal stability
c. Lateral stability
2. A universal propeller protractor used to
measure the degrees of aileron travel
should be zeroed
a. With the aileron in the NEUTRAL
position
b. With the aileron in the DOWN position
c. When the aircraft is in a level flight
attitude
3. Other than the manufacturer maintenance
manual what other document could be
used to determine the primary flight control
surface deflection for an imported aircraft
that is reassembled after shipment?
a. Aircraft type certificate data sheet
b. Import manual for the aircraft
c. The certificate of airworthiness issued
by the importing country
4. If all instructions issued by the swaging tool
manufacturer are followed when swaging a
cable terminal, the resultant swaged
terminal strength should be
a. The full rated strength of the cable
b. 80 percent of the full rated strength of
the cable
c. 70 percent of the full rated strength of
the cable
5. If control cables are adjusted properly and
the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the
probable cause is
a. Worn attachment fittings
b. Oil can effects on the control surfaces
c. Excessive cable tension
6. Fairleads should never deflect the
alignment of a cable more than
a. 12°
b. 8°
c. 3°
7. Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll)
in a helicopter is affected by movement of
the
a. Collective pitch control
b. Cyclic pitch control
c. Tail rotor pitch control
8. What physical factors are involved in the
aspect ratio of airplane wings?
a. Thickness and chord
b. Span and chord
c. Dihedral and angle of attack
17
9. A reduction in anti-torque thrust will cause
the
a. Tail pivot in the opposite direction of
torque rotation around the main rotor
axis
b. Tail to pivot in the direction of torque
rotation around the main rotor axis
c. Anti-torque system to become more
efficient in the hover mode
10. Which statement concerning the 100-hour
inspection of an airplane equipped with a
push-pull tube-type control system is true?
a. The threaded rod ends should not be
adjusted in length for rigging purposes
because the rod ends have been
properly positioned and staked during
manufacture
b. The terminal end threads of the
turnbuckles should be visible through
the safety hole in the barrel
c. The threaded rod ends should be
checked for the amount of thread
engagement by means of the
inspection hole provided
11. Main rotor blades that do not cone by the
same amount during rotation are said to be
out of
a. Balance
b. Collective pitch
c. Track
12. An airplane which has good longitudinal
stability should have a minimum tendency
to
a. Roll
b. Pitch
c. Yaw
13. Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a
helicopter is effected by movement of the
a. Collective pitch control
b. Cyclic pitch control
c. Tail rotor pitch control
14. The chord of a wing is measured from
a. Wingtip to wingtip
b. Wing root to the wingtip
c. Leading edge to trailing edge
15. The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is
to
a. Assist the pilot in moving the control
surfaces
b. Contribute to the static balance of the
control surface
c. Make in-flight trim adjustments possible
16. Why is it generally necessary to jack an
aircraft indoors for weighing?
a. So aircraft may be placed in a level
position
b. So that air currents do not destabilize
the scales
c. So weighing scales may be calibrated to
0 pounds
17. Which is an acceptable safety device for a
castle nut when installed on secondary
structures?
a. Star washer
b. Lock washer
c. Cotter pin
18. As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases,
the center of pressure will
a. Move toward the trailing edge
b. Remain stationary because both lift and
drag components increase
proportionally to increased angle of
attack
c. Move toward the leading edge
19. During inspection of the flight control
system of an airplane equipped with
differential-type aileron control, side-to-
side movement of the control stick will
cause
18
 a. Each aileron to have a greater up travel
(from the streamlined position) than
down travel
b. Each aileron to have a greater down
travel (from the streamlined position)
than up travel
c. The left aileron to move through a
greater number of degrees (from full up
to full down) than the right aileron
20. What nondestructive checking method is
normally used to ensure that the correct
amount of swaging has taken place when
installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft
control cable?
a. Check the surface of the swaged portion
of the terminal for small cracks which
indicate incomplete swaging
b. Measure the finished length of the
terminal barrel and compare with the
beginning length
c. Use a terminal gauge to check the
diameter of the swaged portion of the
terminal
21. Aircraft flight control trim systems must be
designed and installed so that the
a. Pilot can determine the relative
position of the trim tab from the
cockpit
b. Operating control and the trim tab will
always move in the same direction
c. Trim system will disengage or become
inoperative if the primary flight control
system fails
22. Which statement is correct concerning
torque effect on helicopters?
a. Torque direction is the same as rotor
blade rotation
b. As horsepower decreases, torque
increases
c. Torque direction is the opposite of
rotor blade rotation
23. In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail
rotor, directional control is maintained by
a. Changing the tail rotor RPM
b. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired
direction
c. Varying the pitch of the tail rotor
blades
24. Movement of the cockpit control toward
the nosedown position during a ground
operational check of the elevator trim tab
system will cause the trailing edge of the
trim tab to move in which direction?
a. Downward regardless of elevator
position
b. Upward regardless of elevator position
c. Downward if the elevator is in the UP
position and upward if the elevator is in
the DOWN position
25. Where would you find precise information
to perform a symmetry alignment check for
a particular aircraft?
a. Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate
Data Sheet
b. Manufacturer’s service bulletins
c. Aircraft service or maintenance manual
26. If the right wing of a monoplane is
improperly rigged to a greater angle of
incidence than designated in the
manufacturer’s specifications, it will cause
the
a. Airplane to be off balance both
laterally and directionally
b. Airplane to pitch and roll about the
lateral axis
c. Right wing to have both an increased lift
and a decreased drag
27. The universal propeller protractor can be
used to measure
19
 a. Propeller track
b. Aspect ratio of a wing
c. Degrees of flap travel
28. One purpose of the freewheeling unit
required between the engine and the
helicopter transmission is to
a. Automatically disengage the rotor from
the engine in case of an engine failure
b. Disconnect the rotor from the engine to
relieve the starter load
c. Permit practice of autorotation landings
29. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually
increase a pitching moment that has been
set into motion has
a. Poor longitudinal stability
b. Good lateral stability
c. Poor lateral stability
30. The primary purpose of stall strips is to
a. Provide added lift at slow speeds
b. Stall the inboard portion of the wings
first
c. Provide added lift at high angles of
attack
31. The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter
permits the pilot to compensate for and/or
accomplish which of the following?
a. Attitude and airspeed
b. Lateral and yaw position
c. Torque and directional control
32. If the control stick of an aircraft with
properly rigged flight controls is moved
rearward and to the left, the right aileron
will move
a. Down and the elevator will move down
b. Up and the elevator will move down
c. Down and the elevator will move up
33. The correct dihedral angle can be
determined by
a. Measuring the angular setting of each
wing at the rear spar with a bubble
protractor
b. Placing a straightedge and bubble
protractor across the spars while the
airplane is in flying position
c. Using a dihedral board and bubble
level along the front spar of each wing
34. Excessive wear on both of the sides of a
control cable pulley groove is evidence of
a. Pulley misalignment
b. Cable misalignment
c. Excessive cable tension
35. What is the purpose of the free-wheeling
unit in a helicopter drive system?
a. It disconnects the rotor whenever the
engine stops or slows below the
equivalent of rotor RPM
b. It releases the rotor brake for starting
c. It relieves bending stress on the rotor
blades during starting
36. The angle of incidence is that acute angle
formed by
a. The angular difference between the
setting of the main airfoil and the
auxiliary airfoil (horizontal stabilizer) in
reference to the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft
b. A line parallel to the wing chord and a
line parallel to the longitudinal axis of
the aircraft
c. A line parallel to the wing from root to
tip and a line parallel to the lateral axis
of the aircraft
37. Which should be accomplished before
jacking an aircraft?
a. Install critical stress panels or plates
b. Determine that the fuel tanks are empty
c. Make sure the aircraft is leveled
laterally
20
38. The acute angle formed by the chord line of
a wing and the relative wind is known as the
a. Longitudinal dihedral angle
b. Angle of incidence
c. Angle of attack
39. An airplane is controlled directionally about
its vertical axis by the
a. Rudder
b. Elevator(s)
c. Ailerons
40. When the lift of an airfoil increases, the
drag will
a. Decrease
b. Also increase
c. Increase while the lift is changing but
will return to its original value
41. Very often, repairs to a control surface
require static rebalancing of the control
surface. Generally, flight control balance
condition may be determined by
a. Checking for equal distribution of
weight throughout the control surface
b. The behavior of the trailing edge when
the surface is suspended from its hinge
points
c. Suspending the control surface from its
leading edge in the stream line position
and checking weight distribution
42. If a single-rotor helicopter is in forward
horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the
advancing blade is
a. More than the retreating blade
b. Equal to the retreating blade
c. Less than the retreating blade
43. A helicopter in forward flight, cruise
configuration, changes direction by
a. Varying the pitch of the main rotor
blades
b. Changing rotor RPM
c. Tilting the main rotor disk in the
desired direction
44. Differential control on an aileron system
means that
a. The down travel is more than the up
travel
b. The up travel is more than the down
travel
c. One aileron on one wing travels further
up than the aileron on the opposite
wing to adjust for wash-in and wash-out
45. The vertical flight of a helicopter is
controlled by
a. Collective pitch changes
b. Cyclic pitch changes
c. Increasing or decreasing the RPM of the
main rotor
46. What is the smallest size cable that may be
used in aircraft primary control systems?
a. ¼ inch
b. 5/16 inch
c. 1/8 inch
47. The cable-operated control system of an all-
metal aircraft, not incorporating a
temperature compensating device, has
been rigged to the correct tension in a
heated hangar. If the aircraft is operated in
very cold weather, the cable tension will
a. Decrease when the aircraft structure
and cables become cold
b. Increase when the aircraft structure and
cables become cold
c. Be unaffected if stainless steel cable is
installed
48. Washing-in the left wing of a monoplane,
for purposes of rigging corrections after
flight test, will have what effect on the lift
and drag of that wing?
a. Both drag and lift will decrease due to
decreased angle of attack
21
 b. Both drag and lift will increase due to
increased angle of attack
c. The drag will decrease due to the effect
of the lift increase
49. A tension regulator in the flight control
cable system of a large all-metal aircraft is
used primarily to
a. Increase the cable tension in cold
weather
b. Provide a means of changing cable
tension in flight
c. Retain a set tension
50. Buffeting is the intermittent application of
forces to a part of an airplane. It is caused
by
a. Incorrect rigging of flaps
b. An unsteady flow from turbulence
c. Incorrect rigging of ailerons
51. Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on
most airplanes of conventional design,
contributes most to stability of the airplane
about its
a. Longitudinal axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Lateral axis
52. Where is the buttock line or buttline of an
aircraft?
a. A height measurement left or right of,
and perpendicular to, the horizontal
centerline
b. A width measurement left of, and
perpendicular to, the vertical centerline
c. A width measurement left or right of,
and parallel to, the vertical centerline
53. If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left
wing heavy, this condition may be corrected
by
a. Increasing the angle of incidence of the
left wing, or decreasing the angle of
incidence of the right wing, or both
b. Increasing the dihedral angle of the left
wing, or decreasing the dihedral angle
adjusting the dihedral of the right wing,
or both
c. Adjusting the dihedral angle of the left
wing so that differential pressure
between the upper and lower wing
surfaces is increased
54. If the vertical fin of a single-engine,
propeller-driven airplane is rigged properly,
it will generally be parallel to
a. The longitudinal axis but not the vertical
axis
b. The vertical axis but not the
longitudinal axis
c. Both the longitudinal and vertical axes
55. How are changes in direction of a control
cable accomplished?
a. Pulleys
b. Bell cranks
c. Fairleads
56. If the travel of an airplane’s controls is
correct but the cables are rigged
exceptionally tight, what probable effect
will this have when flying the airplane?
a. The airplane will tend to fall off on one
wing
b. The airplane will be heavy on the
controls
c. The pilot will be unable to fly the
airplane hands-off
57. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest
a. Affects the dihedral of the wings in flight
b. Is the same as the angle between the
relative wind and the chord of the wing
c. Does not change when in flight
58. When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-
locking nut can be threaded on a bolt or
stud through the insert with only the
fingers, it should be
22
 a. Re-torqued frequently
b. Rejected
c. Reused only in a different location
59. In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal
location of the cargo release is where the
line of action passes
a. Aft of the center of gravity at all times
b. Forward of the center of gravity at all
times
c. Through the center of gravity at all
times
60. Where does the breakage of control cable
wires occur most frequently?
a. Breakage usually occurs where cables
pass over pulleys and through fairleads
b. Breakage sites are unpredictable and
usually occur randomly anywhere along
the length of a cable
c. Breakage usually occurs where cables
are swaged to turnbuckle and ball
terminals
61. Stability about the axis which runs parallel
to the line of flight is referred to as
a. Longitudinal stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Directional stability
62. Movement of an airplane along its lateral
axis (roll) is also movement
a. Around or about the longitudinal axis
controlled by the elevator
b. Around or about the lateral axis
controlled by the ailerons
c. Around or about the longitudinal axis
controlled by the ailerons
63. The purpose in checking main rotor blade
tracking is to determine the
a. Relative position of the blades during
rotation
b. Flight path of the blades during rotation
c. Extent of an out of balance condition
during rotation
64. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located?
a. 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed
reference line
b. 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed
reference line
c. Aft of the engine
65. The vast majority of aircraft control cables
are terminated with swaged terminals, that
must be
a. Corrosion treated to show compliance
with the manufacturer’s requirements
after the swaging operation
b. Pull tested to show compliance with the
manufacturer’s requirements after the
swaging operation
c. Checked with a go-no-go gauge before
and after, to show compliance with
manufacturer’s requirements after the
swaging operation
66. When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle
for proper installation, determine that
a. No more than four threads are exposed
on either side of the turnbuckle barrel
b. The terminal end threads are visible
through the safety hole in the barrel
c. The safety wire ends are wrapped a
minimum of four turns around the
terminal end shanks
67. The elevators of a conventional airplane are
used to provide rotation about the
a. Longitudinal axis
b. Lateral axis
c. Vertical axis
68. What type of flap system increase the wing
area and changes the wing camber?
a. Fowler flaps
b. Slotted flaps
c. Split flaps
23
69. With which system is differential control
associated?
a. Trim
b. Aileron
c. Elevator
70. When used in close proximity to magnetic
compasses, cotter pins are made of what
material?
a. Corrosion resisting steel
b. Anodized aluminum alloy
c. Cadmium-plated low carbon steel
71. Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab
system will affect the balance of the
airplane about its
a. Lateral axis
b. Longitudinal axis
c. Vertical axis
72. After repairing or re-covering a rudder, the
surface should be rebalanced
a. To its spanwise axis
b. In its normal flight position
c. To manufacturer’s specifications
73. The purpose of wing slats is to
a. Reduce stalling speed
b. Decrease drag
c. Increase speed on takeoff
74. Proper wing twist in a sheet metal
constructed wing can usually be checked by
utilizing a
a. Plum bob, string, and straightedge
b. Bubble level and special fixtures
described by the manufacturer
c. Straightedge, tape measure, and
carpenter’s square
75. Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless
steel control cable and running it back and
forth over the length of the cable is
generally a satisfactory method of
a. Applying methyl-ethyl-ketone
b. Inspecting for broken strands
c. Inspecting for wear or corrosion
76. An airplane’s center of lift is usually located
aft of its center of gravity
a. So that the airplane will have a tail-
heavy tendency
b. So that the airplane will have a nose-
heavy tendency
c. To improve stability about the
longitudinal axis
77. The dihedral angle of a wing may be
measured by placing a straightedge and
level protractor on the
a. Front spar
b. Wing root
c. Wing chord
78. Rigging and alignment checks should not be
undertaken in the open; however, if this
cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be
positioned
a. Obliquely into the wind
b. Facing any direction since it makes no
difference if the wind is steady (not
gusting)
c. With the nose into the wind
79. When installing a castle nut, start alignment
with the cotter pin hole at the
a. Maximum recommended torque
minus friction drag torque
b. Minimum recommended torque
without friction drag torque
c. Minimum recommended torque
plus friction drag torque
BASIC ELECTRICITY
1. Electrostatic fields are also known as
a. Electrostatic field
b. Dielectric field
c. Static field
2. The presence of any small amount of
potassium carbonate deposits on the top of
nickel-cadmium battery cells in service is an
indication of
24
 a. Normal operation
b. Excessive gassing
c. Plate sulfation
3. A 14-ohm resistor is to be installed in a
series circuit carrying .05 ampere. How
much power will the resistor be required to
dissipate?
a. At least .70 milliwatt
b. Less than .035 watt
c. At least 35 milliwatts
4. What is the total capacitance of a certain
circuit containing three capacitors with
capacitance with capacitances of .25
microfarad, .03 microfarad, and .12
microfarad, respectively?
(Note: C(T)= C(1) + C(2) + C(3))
a. .4 µF
b. .04 pF
c. .04 µF
5. A thermal switch, or thermal protector, as
used in an electric motor, is designed to
a. Open the circuit in order to allow
cooling of the motor
b. Close the integral fan circuit to allow
cooling of the motor
c. Reroute the circuit to ground
6. During discharge, nickel-cadmium batteries
will show a lower liquid level than when at
full charge because
a. The electrolytes become absorbed into
the plates
b. Current leakage from individual cells
causes a rise in temperature
c. A chemical action causes the electrolyte
to evaporate through the vents
7. The voltage drop in a circuit of known
resistance is dependent on
a. The amperage of the circuit
b. The voltage of the circuit
c. Only the resistance of the conductor
and does not change with a change in
either voltage or amperage
8. When referencing resistance in a parallel DC
circuit, which of the following statements is
true?
a. The current in amperes can be found by
dividing the EMF in volts by the um of
the resistors in ohms.
b. The total current is equal to the sum of
the currents through the individual
branches of the circuit
c. The current is equal in all portions of the
circuit
9. What is the basic unit of electrical quantity?
a. Electromotive force
b. Coulomb
c. Ampere
10. A fully charge lead-acid battery will not
freeze until extremely low temperatures are
reached because
a. Increased internal resistance generates
sufficient heat to prevent freezing
b. The acid is in the plates, thereby
increasing the specific gravity of the
solution
c. Most of the acid is in the solution
11. Which of the following is commonly used as
a rectifier in electrical circuits?
a. Anodes
b. Cathodes
c. Diodes
12. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery
is the lowest when the battery is
a. In a discharged condition
b. Under a heavy load condition
c. Being charged
13. If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms, and 22
ohms are connected in series in a 28-volt
circuit, how much current will flow through
the 3-ohm resistor?
a. 0.93 ampere
b. 9.3 ampere
c. 1.05 ampere
25
14. What is the opposition to the flow of the AC
produced by a magnetic field with
generated back voltage (EMF) called?
a. Mutual inductance
b. Inductive reactance
c. Capacitive reactance
15. Typical application for Zener diodes is as
a. Voltage regulators
b. Half-wave rectifiers
c. Full-wave rectifiers
16. What will a voltmeter read if properly
connected across a closed switch in a circuit
with electrical power on?
a. Voltage drop in the component(s) the
switch is connected to
b. System voltage
c. Zero voltage
17. Convert farads to picofarads by:
a. Multiplying picofarads by 10 to the
power of 12
b. Multiplying farads by 10 to the power
of 12
c. Multiplying microfarads by 10 to the
power of -12
18. When charging current is applied to a
nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas
a. Toward the end of the charging cycle
b. Throughout the charging cycle
c. Especially if the electrolyte level is high
19. A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts
and a load consisting of a 10-ohm resistor in
series with a 20-ohm resistor. What is the
voltage drop across the 10-ohm resistor?
a. 10 volts
b. 30 volts
c. 20 volts
20. What may result if water is added to a
nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully
charged?
a. Excessive electrolyte dilution
b. Excessive spewing is likely to occur
during the charging cycle
c. No adverse effects since water may be
added anytime
21. The amount of electricity a capacitor can
store is directly proportional to the
a. Plate area and is not affected by the
distance between the plates.
b. Plate area and inversely proportional
to the distance between the plates.
c. Distance between the plates and
inversely proportional to the plate area.
22. The potential difference between two
conductors which are insulated from each
other is measured in
a. Amperes
b. Coulombs
c. Volts
23. When inductors are connected in series in a
circuit, the total inductance is (where the
magnetic fields of each inductor do not
affect the others).
(Note: L(T) = L(1) + L(2) + L(3)…)
a. Equal to the inductance of the highest
rated inductor
b. Less than the inductance of the lowest
rated inductor
c. Equal to the sum of the individual
inductances
24. Which term means .001 ampere?
a. Milliampere
b. Kiloampere
c. Microampere
25. Transfer of electric energy from one circuit
to another without the aid of electrical
connections
a. Is called capacitance
b. Is called induction
c. Can cause excessive arcing and heat,
and as a result is practical for use only
with low voltages/amperages
26. Which effect does not apply to the
movement of electrons flowing in a
conductor?
a. Static energy
26
 b. Magnetic energy
c. Thermal energy
27. What unit is used to express electrical
power?
a. Watt
b. Volt
c. Ampere
28. The term that describes the combined
resistive forces in an ac circuit is
a. Resistance
b. Impedance
c. Reactance
29. Which of the following logic gates will
provide an active high out only when all
inputs are different?
a. XNOR
b. NAND
c. XOR
30. How many amperes will a 28-volt generator
be required to supply to a circuit containing
five lamps in parallel, three of which have a
resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which
have a resistance of 5 ohms each?
A. 25.23 amperes
B. 1 ampere
C. 1.11 amperes
31. A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48
watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four
resistors of equal value. What is the voltage
drop across each resistor?
a. 12 volts
b. 6 volts
c. 24 volts
32. An increase in which of the following
factors will cause an increase in the
inductive reactance of a circuit?
a. Resistance and capacitive reactance
b. Resistance and voltage
c. Inductance and frequency
33. In a P-N-P transistor application, the solid
state device is turned on when the
a. Emitter is negative with respect to the
base
b. Base is positive with respect to the
emitter
c. Base is negative with respect to the
emitter
34. Convert farads to microfarads by
a. Multiplying picofarads by 10 to the
power of 6
b. Multiplying farads by 10 to the power
of 6
c. Multiplying microfarads by 10 to the
power of 6
35. When calculating power in a reactive or
inductive ac circuit, the true power is
a. Less than the apparent power
b. Less than the apparent power in a
reactive circuit and more than the
apparent power in an inductive circuit
c. More than the apparent power
36. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-
cadmium battery be determined?
a. By a measured discharge
b. By measuring the specific gravity of the
electrolyte
c. By the level of electrolyte
37. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected
in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per
cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2-
ohms resistance. The internal resistance of
the battery in this instance is
a. 2.52 ohms
b. 0.52 ohms
c. 5.0 ohms
38. The purpose of providing a space
underneath the plates in a lead acid
battery’s cell container is to
a. Prevent sediment buildup from
contacting the plates and causing a
short circuit
b. Allow for convection flow of the
electrolyte in order to provide for
cooling of the plates
27
 c. Ensure that the electrolyte quantity
ratio to the number of plates and plate
area is adequate
39. In a parallel circuit with three 6-ohm
resistors across a 12-volt battery, what is
the total current (lt) value in the circuit?
a. 12 amps
b. 6 amps
c. 2 amps
40. Which statement regarding the hydrometer
reading of a lead-acid storage battery
electrolyte is true?
a. The hydrometer reading will give a true
indication of the capacity of the battery
regardless of the electrolyte
temperature
b. A specific gravity correction should be
added to the hydrometer reading if the
electrolyte temperature is below 59°F
c. The hydrometer reading does not
require a temperature correction if the
electrolyte temperature is 80°F
41. The end-of-charge voltage of a 19-cell
nickel-cadmium battery, measured while
still on charge,
a. Depends upon its temperature and the
method used for charging
b. Must be 1.4 volts per cell
c. Must be 1.2 to 1.3 volts per cell
42. Which is correct concerning a parallel
circuit?
a. Total resistance will decrease when one
of the resistances is removed
b. Total voltage drop is the same as the
total resistance
c. Total resistance will be smaller than
the smallest resistor
43. Which of these will cause the resistance of a
conductor to decrease?
a. Decrease the length or the cross-
sectional area
b. Decrease the length or increase the
cross-sectional area
c. Increase the length or decrease the
cross-sectional area
44. What does the letter Q symbolize when
measuring electrical charge?
a. Coulomb
b. Farad
c. Electron
45. Which condition is an indication of
improperly torqued cell link connections of
a nickel-cadmium battery?
a. Light spewing at the cell caps
b. Heat or burn marks on the hardware
c. Toxic and corrosive deposits of
potassium carbonate crystals
46. The working voltage of a capacitor in an ac
circuit should be
a. Equal to the highest applied voltage
b. At least 20% greater than the highest
applied voltage
c. At least 50% greater than the highest
applied voltage
47. The electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery
is highest when the battery is
a. Under a no-load condition
b. In a discharged condition
c. In fully charged condition
48. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow
of alternating current is called (disregard
resistance)
a. Reluctance
b. Impedance
c. Inductive reactance
49. Capacitors are sometimes used in dc circuits
to
a. Assist in stepping voltage and current
up and/or down
b. Smooth out slight pulsations in
current/voltage
c. Counteract inductive reactance at
specific locations
50. Which of the following best describes the
contributing factors to thermal runaway in a
28
 nickel-cadmium battery installed in an
aircraft?
a. High internal resistance intensified by
high cell temperatures and a high
current discharge/charge rate in a
constant potential (voltage) charging
system
b. Low internal resistance intensified by
high cell temperatures and a high
voltage discharge/charge rate in a
constant current charging system
c. Low internal resistance intensified by
high cell temperatures and a high
current discharge/charge rate in a
constant potential (voltage) charging
system
51. Which is correct in reference to electrical
resistance?
a. If one of three bulbs in a parallel
lighting circuit is removed, the total
resistance of the circuit will become
together
b. An electrical device that has a high
resistance will use more power than one
with a low resistance with the same
applied voltage
c. Two electrical devices will have the
same combined resistance if they are
connected in series as they will have if
connected in parallel
52. When referring to an electrical circuit
diagram, what point is considered to be at
zero voltage?
a. The ground reference
b. The switch
c. The circuit breaker
53. What factors strengthen a coil inductor?
a. Limiting and separating the coils
b. Adding and separating the coils
c. Adding coils close together
54. A cabin entry light of 10 watts and a dome
light of 20 watts are connected in parallel to
a circuit 30-volt source. If the voltage across
the 10-watt light is measured, it will be
a. One-third of the input voltage
b. Half the voltage across the 20-watt light
c. Equal to the voltage across the 20-watt
light
55. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter
in a circuit is
a. Between the source voltage and the
load
b. In series with a unit
c. In parallel with a unit
56. .002KV equals
a. .2 volt
b. 20 volts
c. 2.0 volts
57. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-
cadmium battery utilizes
a. Constant voltage and varying current
b. Constant current and constant voltage
c. Constant current and varying voltage
58. If each cell, connected in series, equals 2
volts, how would a 12-cell lead acid battery
be rated?
a. 24 volts
b. 12 volts
c. 6 volts
59. Through which material will magnetic lines
of force pass the most readily?
a. Aluminum
b. Iron
c. Copper
60. The basis for transformer operations in the
use of alternating current is mutual
a. Reactance
b. Capacitance
c. Inductance
61. In an ac circuit, the effective voltage is
a. Greater than the maximum
instantaneous voltage.
b. Equal to the maximum instantaneous
voltage.

29
 c. Less than the maximum instantaneous
voltage.
62. Which of the following statements is/are
generally true regarding the charging of
several aircraft batteries together?
1. Batteries of different voltages (but
similar capacities) can be connected in
series with each other across the
charger, and charged using the constant
current method.
2. Batteries of different ampere-hour
capacity and same voltage can be
connected in parallel with each other
across the charger, and charged using
the constant voltage method.
3. Batteries of the same voltage and same
ampere-hour capacity must be
connected in series with each other
across the charger, and charged using
the constant current method.
a. 2 and 3
b. 3
c. 1 and 2
63. What is the purpose of the ground symbol
used in electrical circuit diagrams?
a. To show the source of electrical energy
for the load
b. To show that there is a common bus for
connection of the source of electrical
energy to the load
c. To show that there is a return path for
the current between the source of
electrical energy and the load
64. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell
temperature
a. Causes a decrease in internal resistance
b. Causes an increase in internal resistance
c. Increases cell voltage
65. Forward biasing of a solid state device will
cause the device to
a. Conduct via Zener breakdown
b. Conduct
c. Turn off
66. Which of the following best describes the
operating principle in a nickel-cadmium
battery installed in an aircraft?
a. At full charge, the electrolyte will be at
it lowest level and should be filled
b. To completely charge a nickel-cadmium
battery, some gassing must take place;
thus, some water will be used
c. When positive plates slowly given up
oxygen, which is regained by the
negative plates, the battery is charging
67. Which requires the most electrical power?
(Note: 1 hp = 746 watts)
a. A 24-volt anti-collision light circuit
consisting of two light assemblies which
require 3 amperes each during
operation
b. Four 30-watt lamps arranged in a 12-
volt parallel circuit
c. A 1/5 horsepower, 24-volt motor which
is 75 percent efficient
68. A 1-horsepower , 2-volt dc electric motor
that is 80 percent efficient requires 932.5
watts. How much power will a 1-
horspeower, 12-volt dc electric motor that
is 75 percent efficient require?
(Note: 1hp= 746 watts)
a. 932.5 watts
b. 994.6 watts
c. 1,205.5 watts
69. A 12-volt electric motor has 1,000 watts
input and 1 hp output, Maintaining the
same efficiency, how much input power will
a 24-volt, 1 hp electric motor require?
(Note: 1hp = 746 watts)
a. 1,000 watts
b. 2,000 watts
c. 500 watts
70. Unless otherwise specified, any values given
for current or voltage in an ac circuit are
assumed to be
a. Maximum values
30
 b. Effective values
c. Instantaneous values
71. What is the likely result of servicing and
charging nickel-cadmium and lead acid
batteries together in the same service area?
a. Contamination of both types of
batteries
b. Reduced battery service life for both
types of batteries
c. Lowered amp-hour capacities, for both
types of batteries
72. When different rated capacitors are
connected in parallel in a circuit, the total
capacitance is
(Note: C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3)…)
a. Less than the capacitance of the lowest
rated capacitor
b. Equal to the capacitance of the highest
rated capacitor
c. Equal to the sum of all the capacitances
73. What determines the amount of current
which will flow through a battery while it is
being charged by a constant voltage
source?
a. The total plate area of the battery
b. The state-of-charge of the battery
c. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery
74. What is the operating resistance of a 30-
watt light bulb designed for a 28-volt
system?
a. 0.93 ohm
b. 26 ohms
c. 1.07 ohms
75. What is the total capacitance of a circuit
containing three capacitors in parallel with
capacitances of .02 microfarad, .05
microfarad, and .10 microfarad,
respectively?
a. 0.170 µF
b. 0.125 µF
c. 0.0125 µF
76. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is
spilled in the battery compartment, which
procedure should be followed?
a. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to
the affected area followed by a water
rinse
b. Rinse the affected are thoroughly with
clean water
c. Apply boric acid solution to the affected
area followed by a water rinse
77. In an N-P-N transistor application, the solid
state device is turned on when the
a. Emitter is positive with respect to the
base
b. Base is negative with respect to the
emitter
c. Base is positive with respect to the
emitter
78. Which requires the most electrical power
during operation?
(Note: 1hp = 746 watts)
a. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in
a 24-volt parallel system
b. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel
circuit
c. A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes
79. In a parallel circuit with four 6-ohm
resistors across a 24-volt battery, what is
the total voltage across resistor-three (VR3)
in the circuit?
a. 18 volts
b. 6 volts
c. 24 volts
80. What happens to the current in a voltage
step-up transformer with a ratio of 1 to 4?
a. The current is stepped down by a 1 to 4
ratio
b. The current does not change
c. The current stepped up by a 1 to 4 ratio
ENGINE ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1. What is the purpose of a reverse-current
cutout relay?
31
 a. It eliminates the possibility of reversed
polarity of the generator output current
b. It prevents fluctuations of generator
voltage
c. It opens the main generator circuit
whenever the generator voltage drops
below the battery voltage
2. How are the rotor windings of an aircraft
alternator usually excited?
a. By a constant ac voltage from the
battery
b. By a constant ac voltage
c. By a variable direct current
3. A high surge of current is required when a
dc electric motor is first started. As the
speed of the motor increases,
a. The counter emf decreases
proportionally
b. The applied emf increases
proportionally
c. The counter emf builds up and opposes
the applied emf, thus reducing the
current flow through the armature
4. Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of
the exciter on a brushless alternator?
a. The exciter is constantly changed by
battery voltage
b. Brushless alternators do not have
exciters
c. Permanent magnets are installed in the
main field poles
5. A term commonly used when two or more
electrical terminals are installed on a single
lug of a terminal strip is
a. Strapping
b. Piggy backing
c. Stacking
6. (Refer to Figure 4.) The following data
concerning the installation of an electrical
unit is known: current requirements for
continuous operation -- 11 amperes;
measured cable length -- 45 feet; system
voltage
-- 28 volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable
in conduit and bundles. What is the
minimum size copper electrical cable that
may be selected?
a. No. 10
b. No. 12
c. No. 14
7. What is used to polish commutators or slip
rings?
a. Very fine sandpaper
b. Crocus cloth or fine oilstone
c. Aluminum oxide or garnet paper
8. The reason for flashing the field in a
generator is to
a. Restore correct polarity and/or residual
magnetism to the field poles
b. Increase generator capacity
c. Remove excessive deposits
9. What is the ampere-hour rating of a
storage battery that is designed to deliver
45 amperes for 2.5 hours?
a. 112.5 ampere-hour
b. 90.0 ampere-hour
c. 45.0 ampere-hour
10. Arcing at the brushes and burning of the
commutator of a motor may be caused by
a. Weak brush springs
b. Excessive brush spring tension
c. Low mica
11. (1) Electrical circuit protection devices
are rated based on the amount of
current that can be carried without
overheating the wiring insulation.
(2)A 'trip-free' circuit breaker makes it
impossible to manually hold the
circuit closed when excessive current
is flowing.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no. 1 is true
b. Only no. 2 is true
c. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
32
12. A certain direct current series motor
mounted within an aircraft draws more
amperes during start than when it is
running under its rated load. The most
logical conclusion that may be drawn is
a. the starting winding is shorted
b. the brushes are floating at operating
RPM because of weak brush springs
c. the condition is normal for this type of
motor
13. (1) Most modern aircraft use circuit
breakers rather than fuses to protect their
electrical circuits.
(2)Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23
requires that all electrical circuits
incorporate some form of circuit protective
device.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no.1 is true
b. Only no. 2 is true
c. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
14. Electrical circuit protection devices are
installed primarily to protect the
a. Switches
b. Units
c. Wiring
15. Electric motors are often classified
according to the method of connecting the
field coils and armature. Aircraft engine
starter motors are generally of which type?
a. Compound
b. Series
c. Shunt (parallel)
16. What is the smallest terminal stud allowed
for aircraft electrical power systems?
a. No. 6
b. No. 8
c. No. 10
17. Aircraft that operate more than one
generator connected to a common
electrical system must be provided
with
a. Automatic generator switches
that operate to isolate any
generator whose output is less
than 80 percent of its share of
the load
b. An automatic device that will
isolate nonessential loads from
the system if one of the
generator fails
c. Individual generator switches
that can be operated from the
cockpit during flight
18. Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with
tin, silver, or nickel in order to
a. Improve conductivity
b. Add strength
c. Prevent oxidization
19. If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage
can be reduced to residual by actuating the
a. Rheostat
b. Generator master switch
c. Master solenoid
20. According to the electron theory of the
flow of electricity, when a properly
functioning dc alternator and voltage
regulating system is charging an aircraft's
battery, the direction of current flow
through the battery
a. is into the negative terminal an out
the positive terminal
b. is into the positive terminal and out
the negative terminal
c. cycles back and forth with the number
of cycles per second being controlled
by the rotational speed of the
alternator
21. As the flux density in the field of a dc
generator increases and the current flow
to the system increases, the
a. Generator voltage decreases
b. Generator amperage decreases
c. Force required to turn the generator
increases
22. (Refer to Figure 4.) In a 28-volt system,
what is the maximum continuous current
33
 that can be carried by a single No. 10
copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free
air?
a. 20 amperes
b. 35 amperes
c. 28 amperes
23. The resistance of the current return path
through the aircraft is always considered
negligible, provided the
a. Voltage drop across the circuit is
checked
b. Generator is properly grounded
c. Structure is adequately bonded
24. In order to reduce the possibility of ground
shorting the circuits when the connectors
are separated for maintenance, the AN and
MS electrical connectors should be installed
with the
a. socket section on the ground side of the
electrical circuit
b. pin section on the ground side of the
electrical circuit
c. pin section on the positive side of the
electrical circuit
25. Which of the following aircraft circuits does
NOT contain a fuse/circuit breaker?
a. Generator circuit
b. Air-conditioning circuit
c. Starter circuit
26. What is a basic advantage of using ac for
electrical power for a large aircraft
a. AC systems operate at higher voltage
than dc systems and therefore use less
current and can use smaller and lighter
weight wiring
b. AC systems operate at lower voltage
than dc systems and therefore use less
current and can use smaller and lighter
weight wiring
c. AC systems operate at higher voltage
than dc systems and therefore use more
current and ca use smaller and lighter
weight wiring
27. ON-OFF two position engine electrical
switches should be installed
a. So that the toggle will move in the same
direction as the desired motion of the
unit controlled.
b. Under a guard
c. So the ON position is reached by a
forward or upward motion
28. What device is used to convert
alternating current, which has been
induced into the loops of the
rotating armature of a dc
generator, to direct current?
a. a rectifier
b. a commutator
c. an inverter
29. The most effective method of regulating
aircraft direct current generator output is
to vary, according to the load
requirements, the
a. Strength of the stationary field
b. Generator speed
c. Number of rotating armature loops in
use
30. Upon what does the output frequency of an
ac generator (alternator) depend?
a. The speed of rotation and the strength
of the field
b. The speed of rotation, the strength of
the field, and the number of field poles
c. The speed of rotation and the number
of field poles
31. When selecting an electrical switch for
installation in an aircraft circuit utilizing a
direct current motor,
a. a switch designed for dc should be
chosen
b. a derating factor should be applied
c. only switches with screw-type terminal
connections should be used
32. Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies
that each resettable circuit protective
34
 device requires a manual operation to the generator limit
restore service after the device has c. the load will be within the generator
interrupted the circuit? load limit
a. 14 CFR Part 23 38. As a general rule, starter brushes are
b. 14 CFR Part 43 replaced when they are approximately
a. One-half their original length
c. 14 CFR Part 91
b. One-third their original length
33. Aircraft electrical wire size is measured
c. Two-thirds their original length
according to the
39. The time/current capacities of a circuit
a. Military Specification (MS)
breaker or fuse must be
b. American Wire Gauge (AWG)
a. Above those of the associated
c. Technical Standard Order (TSO)
conductor
b. Equal to those of the associated
34. Which of the following is regulated in a
conductor
generator to control its voltage output?
c. Below those of the associated
a. Speed of the armature
conductor
b. Number of windings in the armature
40. What is the maximum number of bonding
c. The strength of the field
jumper wires that may be attached to one
35. Which of the following Federal Aviation
terminal grounded to a flat surface?
Regulations require that all aircraft using
a. Two
fuses as the circuit protective devices carry
b. Three
'one spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses
c. Four
of each kind required’ ?
41. Why is a constant-speed drive used to
a. 14 CFR Part 23
control the speed of some aircraft engine-
b. 14 CFR Part 43
driven generators?
c. 14 CFR Part 91
a. So that the voltage output of the
36. When does current flow through the coil of
generator will remain within limits
a solenoid-operated electrical switch?
b. To eliminate uncontrolled surges of
a. Continually, as long as the aircraft’s
current to the electrical system
electrical system master switch is on
c. So that the frequency of the alternating
b. Continually, as long as the control
current output will remain constant
circuit is complete
42. Alternators (ac generators) that are driven
c. Only until the moveable points contact
by a constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism
the stationary points
are used to regulate the alternator to a
37. When a 28 volt, 75 ampere generator is
constant
installed on an aircraft, an electrical load
a. Voltage output
analysis ground check is performed and it
b. Amperage output
is determined that the battery is
c. Hertz output
furnishing 57 amperes to the system, with
43. Electrical switches are rated according to
all electrical equipment operating. This
the
indicates
a. Voltage and the current they can
a. the load exceeds the maximum
control
system percentage capacity
b. that the generator load will exceed
35
 b. Resistance rating of the switch and the
wiring
c. Resistance and the temperature rating
44. What speed must an eight-pole ac
generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac?
a. 400 RPM
b. 1,200 RPM
c. 6,000 RPM
45. What is the frequency of most aircraft
alternating current?
a. 115 Hertz
b. 60 Hertz
c. 400 Hertz
46. What type of electric motor is generally
used with a direct-cranking engine starter?
a. Direct current, shunt-wound motor
b. Direct current, series-wound motor
c. Synchronous motor
47. When installing an electrical switch,
under which of the following
conditions should the switch be
derated from its nominal current
rating?
a. conductive circuits
b. capacitive circuits
c. direct-current motor circuits
48. A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip
is made of
a. Paper-base phenolic compound
b. Polyester resin and graphite compound
c. Layered aluminum impregnated with
compound
49. How many basic types of circuit breakers
are used in powerplant installation
electrical systems?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
50. What type of lubricant may be used to aid
in pulling electrical wires or cables through
conduits?
a. Silicone grease
b. Soapstone talc
c. Rubber lubricant
51. When installing electrical wiring parallel to a
fuel line, the wiring should be
a. In metal conduit
b. In a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve
c. Above the fuel line
52. If the points in a vibrator-type voltage
regulator stick in the closed position while
the generator is operating, what will be the
probable result?
a. Generator output voltage will decrease
b. Generator output voltage will not be
affected
c. Generator output voltage will increase
53. (1) Alternators are rated in volt-amps,
which is a measure of the apparent power
being produced by the generator.
(2) Alternating current has the advantage
over direct current in that its voltage and
current can easily be stepped up or down.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no.1 is true
b. Only no. 2 is true
c. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
54. How many hours will a 140 ampere-hour
battery deliver 15 amperes?
a. 1.40 hours
b. 9.33 hours
c. 14.0 hours
55. The constant current method of charging a
ni-cad battery
a. Will bring it up to fully charged in the
shortest amount of time
b. Will lead to cell imbalance over a period
of time
c. Is the method most effective in
maintaining cell balance
56. What are two types of ac motors that are
used to produce a relatively high torque?
a. Shaded pole and shunt field
b. Shunt field and single phase
c. Three-phase induction and capacitor
start
36
57. (1)Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use
uninsulated terminals.
(2)Electrical wires smaller than 10 gauge
use uninsulated terminals.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no. 1 is true
b. Only no. 2 is true
c. Neither no. 1 or no. 2 is true
58. The stationary field strength in a direct
current generator is varied
a. By the reverse-current relay
b. Because of generator speed
c. According to the load requirements
59. The maximum allowable voltage drop
between the generator and the bus bar is
a. 1 percent of the regulated voltage
b. 2 percent of the regulated voltage
c. Less than the voltage drop permitted
between the battery and the bus bar
60. The maximum number of terminals
that may be connected to any one
terminal stud in an aircraft electrical
system is
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
61. As the generator load is increased (within
its rated capacity), the voltage will
a. Decrease and the amperage output will
increase
b. Remain constant and the amperage
output will increase
c. Remain constant and the amperage
output will decrease
62. When the starter switch to the aircraft gas
turbine engine starter-generator is
energized and the engine fails to rotate,
one of the probable causes would be the
a. Power lever switch is defective
b. Undercurrent solenoid contacts are
defective
c. Starter solenoid is defective
63. The part of a dc alternator power system
that prevents reverse flow of current from
the battery to the alternator is the
a. Reverse current relay
b. Voltage regulator
c. Rectifier
64. Bonding jumpers should be designed and
installed in such a manner that they
a. Are not subjected to flexing by relative
motion of airframe or engine
components
b. Provide a low electrical resistance in
the ground circuit
c. Prevent building of a static electrical
charge between the airframe and the
surrounding atmosphere
65. Which Federal Aviation Regulation
requirement prevents the use of automatic
reset circuit breakers?
a. 14 CFR Part 21
b. 14 CFR Part 23
c. 14 CFR Part 91
66. One way that the automatic ignition relight
systems are activated on gas turbine
engines is by a
a. Drop in compressor discharge pressure
b. Sensing switch located in the tailpipe
c. Drop in fuel flow
67. Generator voltage will not build up
when the field is flashed and solder is
found on the brush cover plate.
These are most likely indications of
a. An open armature
b. Excessive brush arcing
c. Armature shaft bearings
overheating
68. What precaution is usually taken to prevent
electrolyte from freezing in a lead acid
battery?
a. Place the aircraft in a hangar
b. Remove the battery and keep it under
constant charge
c. Keep the battery fully charged
69. The generating system of an aircraft charges
the battery by using
37
 a. Constant current and varying voltage
b. Constant voltage and varying current
c. Constant voltage and constant current
ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
1. On a twin engine aircraft with fuel-injected
reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow
indicator reads considerably higher than the
other in all engine operating configurations.
What is the probable cause of this
indication?
a. Carburetor icing
b. One more fuel nozzles are clogged
c. Alternate air door stuck open
2. The principal fault in the pressure type fuel
flowmeter indicating system, installed on a
horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel
injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that
a plugged fuel injection nozzle will cause a
a. Normal operation indication
b. Lower than normal fuel flow indication
c. Higher than normal fuel flow indication
3. A manifold pressure gauge is designed to
a. Maintain constant pressure in the intake
manifold
b. Indicate differential pressure between
the intake manifold and atmospheric
pressure
c. Indicate absolute pressure in the intake
manifold
4. A complete break in the line between the
manifold pressure gauge and the induction
system will be indicated by the gauge
registering
a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure
b. Zero
c. Lower than normal for conditions
prevailing
5. Thermocouple leads
a. May be installed with either lead to
either post of the indicator
b. Are designed for a specific installation
and may not be altered
c. May be repaired using solderless
connectors
6. The EGT gauge used with reciprocating
engines is primarily used to furnish
temperature readings in order to
a. Obtain the best mixture setting for fuel
efficiency
b. Obtain the best mixture setting for
engine cooling
c. Prevent engine over temperature
7. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the
temperature of the oil
a. Entering the oil cooler
b. Entering the engine
c. In the oil storage tank
8. Basically, the indicator of a tachometer
system is responsive to change in
a. Current flow
b. Frequency
c. voltage
9. The purpose of an exhaust gas analyzer is to
indicate the
a. Brake specific fuel consumption
b. Fuel/air ratio being burned in the
cylinders
c. Temperature of the exhaust gases in the
exhaust manifold
10. Instruments that provide readings of low or
negative pressure, such as manifold
pressure gauges, are usually what type?
a. Vane with calibrated spring
b. Bourdon tube
c. Diaphragm or bellows
38
11. Engine pressure ratio is determined by
a. Multiplying engine inlet total pressure
by turbine outlet total pressure
b. Dividing turbine outlet total pressure
by engine inlet total pressure
c. Dividing engine inlet total pressure by
turbine outlet total pressure
12. Which of the following instrument
discrepancies require replacement of the
instrument?
1. Red line missing from glass
2. Glass cracked
3. Case paint chipped
4. Will not zero out
5. Pointer loose on shaft
6. Mounting screw loose
7. Leaking at line B nut
8. Fogged
a. 2,3,7,8
b. 2,4,5,8
c. 1,2,4,7
13. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a
constant power, the application of engine
anti-icing will result in
a. Noticeable shift in EPR
b. A false EPR reading
c. An increase in EPR
14. The fuel-flow indicator rotor and needle for
a motor-impeller and turbine indicating
system is driven by
a. An electrical signal
b. Direct coupling to the motor shaft
c. A mechanical gear train
15. (1) Powerplant instrument range markings
show whether the current state of
powerplant operation is normal, acceptable
for a limited time, or unauthorized.
(2) Powerplant instrument range makings
are based are based on installed engine
operating limits which may not exceed (but
necessarily equal to) those limits shown on
the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Both No. 1 & No. 2 are true
b. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 Is true
c. Only No. 1 is true
16. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an
engine instrument face or glass indicates
a. The maximum operating limit of all
normal operations
b. The maximum limit for high transients
such as starting
c. A restricted operating range
17. The exhaust gas temperature (EGT)
indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a
relative indication of the
a. Exhaust temperature
b. Temperature of the exhaust gases as
they pass the exhaust con
c. Turbine inlet temperature
18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine
discharge pressure indicator sensor
located?
a. At the aft end of the compressor section
b. At a location in the exhaust cone that is
determined to be subjected to the
highest pressures
c. Immediately aft of the last turbine
stage
19. An indication of unregulated power changes
that result in continual drift of manifold
pressure indication on a turbo
supercharged aircraft engine is known as
a. Overshoot
b. Waste gate fluctuation
c. Bootstrapping
20. (1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of
the exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet
air pressure, and indicates the thrust
produced.
39
 (2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of b. An increased fuel flow indication on
the exhaust gas pressure in the engine inlet the gauge
air pressure, and indicates volumetric c. No change in fuel flow indication on the
efficiency. gauge
Regarding the above statements, 26. If the thermocouple leads were
a. Only No. 1 is true inadvertently crossed at installation, what
b. Only No. 2 is true would the cylinder temperature gauge
c. Bothe No. 1 & No. 2 are true pointer indicate?
21. Which unit most accurately indicates fuel a. Normal temperature for prevailing
consumption of reciprocating engine? condition
a. Fuel flowmeter b. Moves off-scale on the zero side of the
b. Fuel pressure gauge meter
c. Electronic fuel quantity indicator c. Moves off-scale on the high side of the
22. What basic meter is used to indicate meter
cylinder head temperature in most aircraft? 27. A common type of electrically operated oil
a. Electrodynamometer temperature gauge utilizes
b. Galvanometer a. Either wheatstone bridge or ratiometer
c. Thermocouple-type meter circuit
23. What instrument indicates the thrust of a b. A thermocouple type circuit
gas turbine engine? c. Vapor pressure and pressure switches
a. Exhaust gas temperature indicator 28. Jet engine thermocouples are usually
b. Turbine inlet temperature indicator constructed of
c. Engine pressure ratio indicator a. Chromel-alumel
24. What is the primary purpose of the b. Iron-constantan
tachometer on an axial-compressor turbine c. Alumel-constantan
engine? 29. Which of the following is a primary engine
a. Monitor engine RPM during cruise instrument?
conditions a. Tachometer
b. It is the most accurate instrument for b. Fuel flowmeter
establishing thrust settings under all c. Airspeed indicator
conditions 30. The RPM indication of a synchronous ac
c. Monitor engine RPM during starting motor-tachometer is governed by the
and to indicate overspeed conditions generator
25. In an aircraft equipped with a pressure-drop a. Voltage
type fuel-flow indicating system, if one of b. Current
the injector nozzles becomes restricted, this c. Frequency
would cause a decrease in fuel flow with 31. A bourdon-tube instrument may be used to
a. A decreased fuel flow indication on the indicate
gauge 1. Pressure
2. Temperature
40
 3. Position
4. Quantity
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
32. A complete break in the line between the
manifold pressure gauge and the induction
system will be indicated by the gauge
registering
a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure
b. Zero
c. Lower than normal for conditions
prevailing
33. Instruments that measure relatively high
fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges,
are usually what type?
a. Vane with calibrated spring
b. Bourdon tube
c. Diaphragm or bellows
34. The fuel-flow indication system used with
many fuel-injected opposed engine
airplanes utilizes a measure of
a. Fuel flow volume
b. Fuel pressure
c. Fuel flow mass
35. The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-
fuel injection system installed on an aircraft
horizontally opposed reciprocating engines
measures the fuel pressure drop across the
a. manifold valve
b. fuel nozzles
c. metering valve
36. What instrument on a gas turbine engine
should be monitored to minimize the
possibility of a “hot” start?
a. RPM indicator
b. Turbine inlet temperature
c. Torquemeter
37. Where are the hot and cold junctions
located in an engine cylinder temperature
indicating system?
a. Both junctions are located at the
instrument
b. Both junctions are located at the
cylinder
c. The hot junction is located at the
cylinder and the cold junction is
located at the instrument
38. The engine pressure ratio (ERP) indicator is
a direct indication of
a. Engine thrust being produced
b. Pressure ratio between the font and aft
end of the compressor
c. Ratio of engine RPM to compressor
pressure
39. What unit in a tachometer system sends
information to the indicator?
a. The three-phase ac generator
b. The two-phase ac generator
c. The synchronous motor
40. In regard to using a turbine engine oil
analysis program, which of the following is
NOT true?
a. Generally, an accurate trend forecast
may be made after an engine’s first oil
sample analysis
b. It is best to start an oil analysis program
on an engine when it is new
c. A successful oil analysis program should
be run over an engine’s total operating
life so that normal trends can be
established
41. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow
transmitters are designed to transmit data
a. Using aircraft electrical system power
b. Mechanically
c. By fuel pressure
41
42. The fuel-flow indication data sent from
motor driven impeller and turbine, and
motorless type fuel flow transmitters is a
measure of
a. Fuel mass-flow
b. Fuel volume-flow
c. Engine burner pressure drop
43. What would be the possible cause if a gas
turbine engine has high exhaust gas
temperature, high fuel flow, and low RPM
at all engine power settings?
a. Fuel control out of adjustment
b. Loose or corroded thermocouple
c. Turbine damage or loss of turbine
efficiency
44. Why do helicopters require a minimum of
two synchronous tachometer systems?
a. One indicates engine RPM and the other
tail rotor RPM
b. One indicates main rotor RPM and the
other tail rotor RPM
c. One indicates engine RPM and the
other main rotor RPM
45. (1) Generally, when a turbine engine
indicates high EGT for a particular EPR
(when there is no significant damage), it
means that the engine is out of trim
(2) Some turbine-powered aircraft use RPM
as the primary indicator of thrust produced,
others use EPR as the primary indicator
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only No. 1 is true
b. Only No. 2 is true
c. Both No. 1 and No.2 is true
46. In what units are turbine engine
tachometers calibrated?
a. Percent of engine RPM
b. Actual engine RPM
c. Percent of engine pressure ratio
47. A change in engine manifold pressure has a
direct effect on the
a. Piston displacement
b. Compression ratio
c. Mean effective cylinder pressure
48. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure
ratio between the
a. Aft end of the compressor and the aft
end of the turbine
b. Front of the compressor and the rear of
the turbine
c. Front of the engine inlet and the aft end
of the compressor
49. Which of the following instrument
conditions is acceptable and does not
require immediate correction?
1. Red line missing
2. Pointer loose on shaft
3. Glass cracked
4. Mounting screws loose
5. Case paint chipped
6. Leaking at line B nut
7. Will not zero out
8. Fogged
a. 1
b. 4
c. 5
50. Which statement is correct concerning a
thermocouple-type temperature indicating
instrument system?
a. It is a balanced-type, variable resistor
circuit
b. It requires no external power source
c. It usually contains a balancing circuit in
the instrument case to prevent
fluctuations of the system voltage from
affecting the temperature reading
51. The indication on a thermocouple-type
cylinder head temperature indicator is
produced by
42
 a. Resistance changes in two dissimilar a. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length
metals b. A slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of
b. A difference in the voltage between two the length
dissimilar metals c. Enough slack to allow maximum flexing
c. A current generated by the during operation
temperature difference between 2. Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a
dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions localized area to such an extent that repair
52. Which statement is true regarding a is necessary, may be repaired
thermocouple-type cylinder head a. By cutting out the damaged area and
temperature measuring system? utilizing a swaged tube fitting to join
a. The resistance required for cylinder the tube ends
head temperature indicators is b. Only by replacing the tubing section run
measured in farads (connection to connection) using the
b. The voltage output of a thermocouple same size and material as the original
system is determined by the c. By cutting out the damaged section and
temperature difference between the soldering in a replacement section of
two ends of the thermocouple tubing
c. When the master switch is turned on, a 3. Rolling-type flaring Tools are used to flare X,
thermocouple indicator will move off- X, and X tubing
scale to the low side a. Stainless steel, hard copper, mild steel
53. Which of the following types of electric b. Titanium, soft copper, corrosion
motors are commonly used in electric resistant steel
tachometers? c. Soft copper, aluminum, brass
a. Direct current, series-wound motors 4. If a flared tube coupling nut is
b. Synchronous motors overtightened, where is the tube most likely
c. Direct current, shunt-wound motors to be weakened/damaged?
54. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized a. Along the entire length of the sleeve
fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator and tube interface
provides indication of how many of the b. At the edge of the sleeve and straight
following? portion of the tube
1. Fuel flow rate c. At the sleeve and flare junction
2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up 5. The maximum distance between end
3. Fuel time remaining at current power fittings to which a straight hose assembly is
setting to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum
4. Fuel temperature hose length to make such a connection
a. Two should be
b. Three a. 54-1/2 inches
c. four b. 51-1/2 inches
FLUID LINES & FITTINGS c. 52-1/2 inches
1. Flexible lines must be installed with
43
6. Which statement (s) about Military
Standard (MS) flareless fittings is/are
correct?
1. During installation, MS flareless fittings
are normally tightened by turning the
nut a specified amount, rather than
being torqued
2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should
be assembled clean and dry without
lubrication
3. During installation, MS flareless fittings
are normally tightened by applying a
specified torque to the nut
a. 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3
7. Which statement is true regarding
flattening of tubing in bends?
a. Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent
of the original diameter is permissible
b. Flattening by not more than 25 percent
of the original diameter is permissible
c. The small diameter portion in the bend
cannot exceed more than 75 percent of
the diameter of straight tubing
8. From the following sequences of steps,
indicate the proper order you would use to
make a single flare on a piece of tubing
1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in
the flaring block
2. Project the end of the tube slightly from
the top of the flaring tool, about the
thickness of a dime
3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the
tube
4. Strike the plunger several light blows
with a lightweight hammer or mallet
and turn the plunger one-half turn after
each blow
5. Tightened the clamp bar securely to
prevent slippage
6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over
the tube
a. 1,3,5,2,4,6
b. 3,1,6,2,5,4
c. 3,1,2,6,5,4
9. A gas or fluid line marked with the letters
PHDAN is
a. A dual-purpose pneumatic and/or
hydraulic line for normal and emergency
system use
b. Used to carry a hazardous substance
c. A pneumatic or hydraulic system drain
or discharge line
10. Which coupling nut should be selected for
use with ½ -inch aluminum oil lines which
are to be assembled using flared tube ends
and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings?
a. AN-818-5
b. AN-818-16
c. AN-818-8
11. Which statement concerning Bernoulli’s
principle is true?
a. The pressure of a fluid increases at
points where the velocity of the fluid
increases
b. The pressure of a fluid decreases at
points where the velocity of the fluid
increases
c. It applies only to gases and vaporized
liquids
12. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-
piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve
and a nut are used when a tubing flare is
required. The use of this type connector
eliminates
a. The flaring operation prior to assembly
44
 b. The possibility of reducing the flare system for operation of landing gear and
thickness by wiping or ironing during flaps?
the tightening process a. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminum alloy
c. Wrench damage to the tubing during b. Corrosion-resistant steel annealed or
the tightening process 1/4H
13. Which of the following hose materials are c. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2 H aluminum
compatible with phosphate-ester base alloy
hydraulic fluids? 18. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall
1. Butyl thickness and
2. Teflon a. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch
3. Buna-N increments
4. Neoprene b. Inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
a. 1 and 2 c. Outside diameter in 1/32 inch
b. 2 and 4 increments
c. 1 and 3 19. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support
14. The primary purpose of providing suitable when installing metal tubing
bends in fluid and pneumatic metal tubing (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support
runs is to when installing wiring
a. Clear obstacle and make turns in aircraft Regarding the above statements,
structures a. Only No.1 is true
b. Provides for access within aircraft b. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
structures c. Neither o.1 nor No.2 is true
c. Prevent excessing stress on the tubing 20. What is an advantage of a double flare on
15. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube aluminum tubing?
fitting a. Ease of construction
a. Black b. More resistant to damage when the
b. Blue joint is tightened
c. Red c. Can be applied to any size and wall-
16. The material specifications for a certain thickness of tubing
aircraft require that a replacement oil line 21. A 3/8 aircraft high pressure flexible hose as
be fabricated from 3/4 –inch 0.072 5052-0 compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in
aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside the same system will
dimension of this tubing? a. Have higher flow capabilities
a. 0.606 inch b. Have equivalent flow characteristics
b. 0.688 inch c. Usually have interchangeable
c. 0.750 inch applications
17. Which tubings have the characteristics (high 22. When flaring aluminum tubing for use AN
strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for fittings, the flare angle must be
use in a high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic a. 37°
b. 39°
45
 c. 45°
23. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of
aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if
they are no deeper than
a. 20 percent of the wall thickness
b. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall
thickness, whichever is less
c. 10 percent of the wall thickness
24. When installing bonded clamps to support
metal tubing
a. Paint removal from tube is not
recommended as it will inhibit corrosion
b. Paint clamp and tube after clamp
installation to prevent corrosion
c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube
at clamp location
25. Which of the following statements is true
regarding minimum allowable bend radii for
1.5 inches OD or less aluminum alloy and
steel tubing of the same size?
a. The minimum radius for steel is greater
than for aluminum
b. The minimum radius for steel is less
than for aluminum
c. The minimum radius is the same both
steel and aluminum
26. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal
tubing caused by expansion and contraction
due to temperature changes can best be
avoided by
a. Using short, straight sections of tubing
between fixed parts of the aircraft
b. Using tubing of the same material as the
majority of the adjoining structure
c. Providing bends in the tubing
27. Which statement is true regarding the
variety of symbols utilized on the identifying
color-code bands that are currently used on
aircraft plumbing lines
a. symbols are composed of various single
colors according to line content
b. symbols are always black against a
white background regardless of line
content
c. symbols are composed of one to three
contrasting colors according to line
content
28. Which of the following statements is/are
correct in reference to flare fittings?
1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder
between the end of the threads and the
flare cone
2. AC and AN fittings are considered
identical except for material
composition and identifying colors
3. AN fittings are generally
interchangeable with AC fittings of
compatible material composition
a. 1
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3
29. The term ‘cold flow’ is generally associated
with
a. The effects of low temperature gasses
or liquids flowing in hose or tubing
b. Impressions left in natural or synthetic
rubber hose material
c. Flexibility characteristics of various hose
materials at low ambient temperatures
30. When a Teflon hose has been in service for
a time, what condition may have occurred
and/or what precautions should be taken
when it is temporarily removed from the
aircraft?
a. The hose interior must be kept wet with
fluid carried to prevent
embrittlement/deterioration
b. The hose may become stiff and brittle if
not flexed or moved regularly
46
 c. The hose may have developed a set, or
have been manufactured with a pre-set
shape, and must be supported to
maintain its shape
31. A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be
repaired provided it does not
a. Appear in the heel of a bend
b. Appear on the inside of a bend
c. Exceed 10 percent of the tube OD on a
straight section
32. A certain amount of slack must be left in a
flexible hose during installation because,
when under pressure, it
a. Expands in length and diameter
b. Expands in length and contracts in
diameter
c. Contracts in length and expands in
diameter
33. In a metal tubing installation,
a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable
b. Tension is undesirable because
pressurization will cause it to expand
and shift
c. A tube may be pulled in line if the nut
will start on the threaded coupling
34. The best tool to use when cutting aluminum
tubing, or any tubing of moderately soft
metal is
a. Hand operated wheel-type cutter
b. Fine-tooth hacksaw
c. Circular-saw equipped with an abrasive
cutting wheel
35. Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is
classified in size according to the
a. Outside diameter
b. Wall thickness
c. Inside diameter
36. When installing a castle nut, and the nut
castellation does not align with the cotter
pin hole in the bolt within the torque range,
the acceptable practice is to
a. Change the nut or washer and try
again
b. Continue tightening the nut to the
next hole
c. Back the nut off and align it to the
nearest hole
IGNITION & STARTING SYSTEM
1.A safety feature usually employed in direct
cranking starters that is used to prevent the starter
from reaching burst speed is the
a. drive shaft shear point.
b. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow
and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
c. spring coupling release.
2.In a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine, when does
the ignition event take place?
a. Before the piston reaches TDC on
compression stroke.
b. After the piston reaches TDC on power
stroke.
c. After the piston reaches TDC on
compression stroke.
3.What likely effect would a cracked distributor
rotor have on a magneto?
a. Ground the secondary circuit through the
crack.
b. Fire two cylinders simultaneously.
c. Ground the primary circuit through the
crack.
4.Sharp bends should be avoided in ignition leads
primarily because
a. weak points may develop in the insulation
through which high tension current can
leak.
b. ignition lead wire conductor material is
brittle and may break.
c. ignition lead shielding effectiveness will be
reduced.
5.Using a cold spark plug in a high-compression
aircraft engine would probably result in
a. normal operation.
b. a fouled plug.
47
 c. detonation.
6. The purpose of an undercurrent relay in a starter
generator system is to
a. provide a backup for the starter relay
b. disconnect power from the starter-
generator and ignition when sufficient
engine speed is reached.
c. keep current flow to the starter-generator
under the circuit capacity maximum.
7.How does high-tension ignition shielding tend to
reduce radio interference?
a. Prevents ignition flashover at high altitudes.
b. Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of
high-tension current.
c. Receives and grounds high-frequency
waves coming from the magneto and high-
tension ignition leads.
8.Ignition check during engine run-up indicates a
slow drop in RPM. This is usually caused by
a. defective spark plugs.
b. a defective high-tension lead.
c. incorrect ignition timing or valve
adjustment.
9. The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded
through the
a. ignition switch.
b. primary coil.
c. grounded side of the breaker points.
10.When installing a magneto on an engine, the
a. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a
prescribed number of degrees before top
center on the compression stroke.
b. magneto breaker points must be just
closing.
c. piston in the No. 1 cylinder must be a
prescribed number of degrees after top
center on the intake stroke.
11.A certain nine-cylinder radial engine used a non-
compensated single-unit, dual-type magneto with a
four-pole rotating magnet and separately mounted
distributors. Which of the following will have the
lowest RPM at any given engine speed?
a. Breaker cam.
b. Engine crankshaft.
c. Distributors.
12.A defective primary capacitor in a magneto is
indicated by
a. a fine-grained frosted appearance of the
breaker points.
b. burned and pitted breaker points.
c. a weak spark.
13.When the ignition switch of a single
(reciprocating) engine aircraft is turned to the OFF
position.
a. ‘the primary circuits of both magnetos are
grounded.
b. the secondary circuits of both magnetos are
opened.
c. all circuits are automatically opened.
14. The capacitor-type ignition system is used
almost universally on turbine engines primarily
because of its high voltage and
a. low amperage.
b. long life.
c. high-heat intensity.
15.What test instrument could be used to test an
ignition harness for suspected leakage?
a. A high tension lead tester.
b. A high voltage dc voltmeter.
c. A high amperage dc ammeter.
16.The greatest density of flux lines in the magnetic
circuit of a rotating magnet-type magneto occurs
when the magnet is in what position?
a. Full alignment with the field shoe faces.
b. A certain angular displacement beyond the
neutral position, referred to as E-gap angle
or position.
c. The position where the contact points
open.
17.Failure of an engine to cease firing after turning
the magneto switch off is an indication of
a. an open high tension lead.
b. an open P-lead to ground.
c. a grounded magneto switch.
18.In a turbine engine dc capacitor discharge
ignition system, where are the high-voltage pulses
formed?
a. At the breaker.
b. At the triggering transformer.
c. At the rectifier.
48
19.Ignition check during engine run-up indicates
excessive RPM drop during operation on the right
magneto. The major portion of the RPM loss occurs
rapidly after switching to the right magneto
position (fast drop). The most likely cause is
a. faulty or fouled spark plugs.
b. incorrect ignition timing on both magnetos.
c. one or more dead cylinders.
20.When internally timing a magneto, the breaker
points begin to open when the rotating magnet is
a. fully aligned with the pole shoes.
b. a few degrees past full alignment with the
pole shoes
c. a few degrees past the neutral position.
21. When a magneto is disassembled, keepers are
usually placed across the poles of the rotating
magnet to reduce the loss of magnetism. These
keepers are usually made of
a. chrome magnet steel.
b. soft iron.
c. cobalt steel.
23. What components make up the magnetic
system of a magneto?
a. Pole shoes, the pole shoe extensions, and
the primary coil.
b. Primary and secondary coils.
c. Rotating magnet, the pole shoes, the pole
shoe extensions, and the
coil core.
24.Magneto timing drift is caused by erosion of the
breaker points and
a. excessive spark plug gap.
b. wear of the cam followers.
c. loss of magnetism in the rotor.
25.What would be the result if a magneto breaker
point mainspring did not have sufficient tension?
a. The points will stick.
b. The points will not open to the specified
gap.
c. The points will float or bounce.
26.Magneto breaker point opening relative to the
position of the rotating magnet and distributor
rotor (internal timing) can be set most accurately
a. during the magneto-to-engine timing
operation.
b. during assembly of the magneto before
installation on the engine.
c. by setting the points roughly at the required
clearance before
installing the magneto and then making the
fine breaker point
adjustment after installation to compensate
for wear in the
magneto drive train.
27. (1) The platinum and iridium ground electrodes
used on fine wire spark plugs are extremely brittle
and can be broken if they are improperly handled
or adjusted.
(2) When gapping massive-electrode spark plugs,
a wire gauge should be inserted between the
center and ground electrodes while moving the
ground electrode in order to avoid setting the gap
too close. Regarding the above statements.
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No.2istrue.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
28. Magneto pole shoes are generally made of
a. laminations of high-grade soft iron.
b. laminations of high-grade Alnico.
c. pieces of high-carbon iron.
29. What will be the result of using too hot a spark
plug?
a. Fouling of plug.
b. Pre-ignition.
c. Burned capacitor.
30. Hot spark plugs are generally used in aircraft
powerplants
a. with comparatively high compression or
high operating temperatures
b. with comparatively low operating
temperatures.
c. which produce high power per cubic inch
displacement.
31. In an aircraft ignition system, one of the
functions of the capacitor is to
a. regulate the flow of current between the
primary and secondary coil.
b. facilitate a more rapid collapse of the
magnetic field in the primary coil.
c. stop the flow of magnetic lines of force
when the points open.
49
32. Inspection of pneumatic starters by
maintenance technicians usually includes checking
the
a. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
b. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
c. rotor alignment.
34. Which of the following statements regarding
magneto switch circuits is NOT true?
a. In the BOTH position, the right and left
magneto circuits are grounded.
b. In the OFF position, neither the right nor
left magneto circuits are open.
c. In the RIGHT position, the right magneto
circuit is open and the left magneto circuit
is grounded.
35.The spark occurs at the spark plug when the
ignition’s
a. secondary circuit is completed.
b. primary circuit is completed.
c. primary circuit is broken.
36.Spark plug fouling caused by lead deposits
occurs most often
a. during cruise with rich mixture.
b. when cylinder head temperatures are
relatively low.
c. when cylinder head temperatures are high.
37.Generally, when removing a turbine engine
igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of
the technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition
switch is turned off and
a. disconnected from the power supply circuit.
b. the igniter lead is disconnected from the
plug and the center electrode grounded to
the engine after disconnecting the
transformer-exciter input lead and waiting
the prescribed time.
c. the transformer-exciter input lead is
disconnected and the center electrode
grounded to the engine after disconnecting
the igniter lead from the plug and waiting
the prescribed time.
38.What is the electrical location of the primary
capacitor in a high-tension magneto?
a. In parallel with the breaker points.
b. In series with the breaker points.
c. In series with the primary and secondary
winding.
39.The numbers appearing on the ignition
distributor block indicate the
a. sparking order of the distributor.
b. relation between distributor terminal
numbers and cylinder
numbers.
c. firing order of the engine.
40.When performing a magneto ground check on
an engine, correct operation is indicated by
a. a slight increase in RPM.
b. no drop in RPM.
c. a slight drop in RPM.
41.The type of ignition system used on most
turbine aircraft engines is
a. high resistance.
b. low tension.
c. capacitor discharge.
42.It is found that a shielded ignition system does
not adequately reduce ignition noise, it may be
necessary to install
a. a second layer of shielding.
b. a filter between the magneto and magneto
switch.
c. bonding wires from the shielding to ground.
43. In a typical starter-generator system, under
which of the following starting circumstances may
it be necessary to use the start stop button?
a. Hung start.
b. Hot start.
c. Contacts stick open.
44.A spark plug is fouled when
a. its spark grounds by jumping electrodes.
b. it causes preignition.
c. its spark grounds without jumping
electrodes.
45.When internally timing a magneto, the breaker
points begin to open when
a. the piston has just passed TOC at the end of
the compression stroke.
b. the magnet poles are a few degrees
beyond the neutral position.
c. the magnet poles are fully aligned with the
pole shoes.
50
47.What is the purpose of a safety gap in some a. it projects into the combustion chamber.
magnetos? b. the applied voltage ¡s less.
a. To discharge the secondary coil’s voltage if c. the construction is such that the spark
an open occurs in the occurs beyond the face of the combustion
secondary circuit. chamber liner.
b. To ground the magneto when the ignition 54. When does battery current flow through the
switch is off. primary circuit of a battery ignition coil?
c. To prevent flashover in the distributor. a. Only when the breaker points are open.
48.What is the radial location of the two north b. At all times when the ignition switch is on
poles of a four-pole rotating magnet in a high- c. When the breaker points are closed and
tension magneto? the ignition switch is on.
a. 180° apart. 55. How many secondary coils are required in a low
b. 270 apart. tension ignition system on an 18-cylinder engine?
c. 90 apart. a. 36
49.Magneto breaker points must be timed to open b. 18
when the c. 9
a. rotating magnet is positioned a few degrees 56. Which of the following breaker point
before neutral. characteristics is associated with a faulty capacitor?
b. greatest magnetic field stress exists in the a. Crowned.
magnetic circuit. b. Fine grained.
c. rotating magnet is in the full register c. Coarse grained.
position. 57. How are most radial engine spark plug wires
50.What are two parts of a distributor in an aircraft connected to the distributor block?
engine ignition system? a. By use of cable-piercing screws.
1. Coil. b. By use of self-locking cable ferrules.
2. Block. c. By use of terminal sleeves and retaining
3. Stator. nuts.
4. Rotor. 58. What is the relationship between distributor
5. Transformer. and crankshaft speed of aircraft reciprocating
a. 2and 4. engines?
b. 3and 4. a. The distributor turns at one-half
c. 2and 5. crankshaft speed.
51.If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the b. The distributor turns at one and one-half
engine continues to run normally, the trouble is crankshaft speed.
probably caused by c. The crankshaft turns at one-half distributor
a. an open ground lead in the magneto. speed.
b. arcing magneto breaker points. 59. In a low-tension ignition system each spark plug
c. primary lead grounding. requires an individual
52.When removing a snieiciea spark plug. Which of a. capacitor.
the following is most likely to be damaged? b. breaker assembly.
a. Center electrode. c. secondary coil.
b. Shell section. 60. The purpose of staggered ignition is to
c. Core insulator. compensate for
53. The constrained-gap igniter plug used in some a. short ignition harness.
gas turbine engines operates at a cooler b. rich fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve.
temperature because
51
 c. diluted fuel/air mixture around exhaust
valve.
61. Why are high-tension ignition cables frequently
routed from the distributors to the spark plugs in
flexible metallic conduits?
a. To eliminate high altitude flashover.
b. To reduce the formation of corona and
nitric oxide on the cable
insulation.
c. To reduce the effect of the high-frequency
electromagnetic waves emanated during
operation.
62. In a high-tension ignition system, a primary
capacitor of too low a capacity will cause
a. excessive primary voltage.
b. excessively high secondary voltage.
c. the breaker contacts to burn.
63. As an aircraft engines speed is increased, the
vo1tage induced in the primary coil of the magneto
a. remains constant.
b. increases.
c. vanes with the setting of the voltage
regulator.
64. A spark plugs heat range is the result of
a. the area of the plug exposed to the cooling
airstream.
b. its ability to transfer heat from the firing
end of the spark plug to the cylinder head.
c. the heat intensity of the spark.
65. When using an electric starter motor, current
usage
a. is highest at the start of motor rotation.
b. remains relatively constant throughout the
starting cycle.
c. is highest just before starter cutoff (at
highest RPM).
66. Why are turbine engine igniters less susceptible
to fouling than reciprocating engine spark plugs?
a. The high-intensity spark cleans the igniter.
b. The frequency of the spark is less for
igniters.
c. Turbine igniters operate at cooler
temperatures.
67. Great caution should be exercised in handling
damaged hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter
transformer units because
a. compounds in the unit may become a fire
or explosion hazard when exposed to the
air.
b. some contain radioactive material.
c. some contain toxic chemicals.
68. Which of the following are included in a typical
turbine engine ignition system?
1. Two igniter plugs.
2. Two transformers.
3. One exciter unit.
4. Two intermediate ignition leads.
5. Two low-tension igniter leads.
6. Two high-tension igniter leads.
a. 2,3,4.
b. 1,4,5.
c. 1,3,6.
69. A magneto ignition switch is connected
a. in series with the breaker points.
b. parallel to the breaker points.
c. in series with the primary capacitor and
parallel to the breaker
points.
70. Spark plugs are considered worn out when the
a. electrodes have worn away to about one-
half of their original dimensions.
b. center electrode edges have become
rounded.
c. electrodes have worn away to about two-
thirds of their original dimensions
71. When timing a magneto internally, the
alignment of the timing marks indicates that the
a. breaker points are just closing.
b. magnets are in the neutral position.
c. magnets are in the E-gap position.
72. Which of the following are distinct circuits of a
high-tension magneto?
1. Magnetic.
2. Primary.
3. E-gap.
4. P-lead.
5. Secondary.
a. 1,2,5.
b. 1,3,4.
c. 2,4,5.
52
73. Which malfunctions will allow the igniters to
operate when tested but be inoperative during a
start attempt?
1. Conductor No. lo broken.
2. Conductor No. li broken.
3. Ignition relay inoperative.
4. Conductor No. 12 broken.
a. 1 or 4.
b. 2or 3.
c. 1 or 3.
74. What is a result of flashover’ in a distributor?
a. Intense voltage at the spark plug.
b. Reversal of current flow.
c. Conductive carbon trail.
75. Which statement is correct regarding the
ignition system of a turbine engine?
a. The system is normally de-energized as
soon as the engine start
b. It is energized during the starting and warm
up periods only.
c. The system generally includes a polar
inductor-type magneto.
76. When the switch is off in a battery ignition
system. The primary circuit is
a. grounded.
b. opened.
c. shorted.
77. If staggered ignition timing is used, the
a. spark plug nearest the exhaust valve will
fire first.
b. spark will be automatically advanced as
engine speed increases.
c. spark plug nearest the intake valve will fire
first.
78. When a •Shower of Sparks ignition system is
activated at an engine start, a spark plug fires
a. as soon as the advance breaker points
open.
b. only while both the retard and advance
breaker points are closed.
c. only while both the retard and advance
breaker points are open.
79. (Refer to Figure 5.) Which malfunctions will
allow the igniters to operate normally during start
but be inoperative when tested?
1. Conductor No. 14 broken.
2. Conductor No. lo broken.
3. Conductor No. 15 broken.
4. Conductor No. 12 broken.
a. 2or 4.
b. 1 or 3.
c. 3 or 4.
80. When a magneto is operating, what is the
probable cause for a shift in internal timing?
a. The rotating magnet loses its magnetism.
b. The distributor gear teeth are wearing on
the rotor gear teeth.
c. The cam follower wear and/or breaker
points wear.
81. What will be the results of increasing the gap of
the breaker points in a magneto?
a. Retard the spark and increase its intensity.
b. Advance the spark and decrease its
intensity.
c. Retard the spark and decrease its intensity.
82. What is the purpose of using an impulse
coupling with a magneto?
a. To absorb impulse vibrations between the
magneto and the engine.
b. To compensate for backlash in the magneto
and the engine gears.
c. To produce a momentary high rotational
speed of the magneto.
83. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine
engine differ from that of a reciprocating engine?
a. One igniter plug is used in each
combustion chamber.
b. Magneto-to-engine timing is not critical.
c. A high-energy spark is required for
ignition.
84. The E-gap angle is usually defined as the
number of degrees between the neutral position of
the rotating magnet and the position
a. where the contact points close.
b. where the contact points open.
c. of greatest magnetic flux density.
85. In reference to a •Shower of Sparks ignition
system,
(1) the retard breaker points are designed to keep
the affected ignition system operating if the
advance breaker points should fail during normal
engine operation (after start).
53
(2) the timed opening of the retard breaker points
is designed to prevent engine kickback during start.
Regarding the above statements.
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No.2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
86. Spark plug heat range is determined by
a. the reach of the spark plug.
b. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder
head.
c. the number of ground electrodes.
87. The term reach, as applied to spark plug design
and/or type, indicates the
a. linear distance from the shell gasket seat
to the end of the threads
on the shell skirt.
b. length of center electrode exposed to the
flame of combustion.
c. length of the shielded barrel.
88. When using an electric starter motor, the
current flow through it
a. is highest just before starter cutoff (at
highest RPM).
b. remains relatively constant throughout the
starting cycle.
c. is highest at the start of motor rotation.
89. At what RPM is a reciprocating engine ignition
switch check made?
a. 1,500RPM
b. The slowest possible RPM.
c. Full throttle RPM.
90. In the aircraft magneto system, if the P-lead is
disconnected, the magneto will be
a. on regardless of ignition switch position.
b. grounded regardless of ignition switch
position.
c. open regardless of ignition switch position.
91. (Refer to Figure 5.) The type of system depicted
is capable of operating with
a. external power only.
b. either battery or external power.
c. battery power and external power
simultaneously.
92. Aircraft magneto housings are usually
ventilated in order to
a. prevent the entrance of outside air which
may contain moisture.
b. allow heated air from the accessory
compartment to keep the
internal parts of the magneto dry.
c. provide cooling and remove corrosive
gases produced by normal arcing.
93. Air turbine starters are generally designed so
that reduction gear distress or damage may be
detected by
a. characteristic sounds from the starter
assembly during engine start.
b. breakage of a shear section on the starter
drive shaft.
c. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
94. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air
turbine) starters over comparable electric starters
for turbine engines is
a. a decreased fire hazard.
b. reduction gearing not required.
c. high power-to-weight ratio.
95. (Refer to Figure 5.) With power applied to the
bus bar, what wire supplies standby power to the
starter relay contact?
a. 4
b. 7.
c. 8
96. In the event a pneumatic start valve will not
operate and the manual override must be used, the
starter T-handle must be closed at scheduled
starter drop out because
a. the starter will overheat.
b. the starter will overspeed at a given NA2.
c. the starter oil will be blown overboard.
97. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require
high energy?
a. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high
altitude and high
temperatures.
b. Because the applied voltage is much
greater.
c. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high
altitude and low
temperatures.
98. What is the difference between a low-tension
and a high-tension engine ignition system?
54
 a. A low-tension system produces relatively
low voltage at the sparkplug as compared
to a high-tension system.
b. A high-tension system is designed for high-
altitude aircraft, while a low-tension system
is for low- to medium-attitude aircraft.
c. A low-tension system uses a transformer
coil near the spark plugs to boost voltage,
while the high-tension system voltage is
constant from the magneto to the spark
plugs.
99. Capacitance after firing of a spark plug is
caused by
a. the stored energy in the ignition shielded
lead unloading after normal timed ignition.
b. excessive center electrode erosion.
c. constant polarity firing.
100. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with
what types of airflow impingement systems?
a. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow
turbine.
b. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow
compressor.
c. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and
axial-flow turbines.
101. Which of the following could cause damage to
the nose ceramic or to the electrode of an aircraft
spark plug?
a. Plug installed without a copper gasket.
b. Improper gapping procedure.
c. Excessive magneto voltage.
102. The purpose of a safety gap in a magneto is to
a. prevent burning out the primary winding.
b. protect the high-voltage winding from
damage.
c. prevent burning of contact points.
103. Capacitance after firing in most modern spark
plugs is reduced by the
a. use of fine wire electrodes.
b. a built-in resistor in each plug.
c. aluminum oxide insulation.
104. A safety feature usually employed in
pneumatic starters that is used if the clutch does
not release from the engine drive at the proper
time during start is the
a. flyweight cutout switch.
b. spring coupling release.
c. drive shaft shear point.
105. The amount of voltage generated in any
magneto secondary coil is determined by the
number of windings and by the
a. Rate of buildup of the magnetic field
around the primary coil.
b. rate of collapse of the magnetic field
around the primary coil.
c. amount of charge released by the capacitor.
106. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a
ground unites normally prevented from causing
starter overspeed during engine start by
a. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and
stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
b. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.
c. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the
source.
107. Which of the following, obtained during
magneto check at 1,700 RPM. indicates a short
(grounded) circuit between the right magneto
primary and the ignition switch?
a. BOTH — 1,700 RPM, R — 1,625 RPM, L —
1,700 RPM, OFF— 1,625RPM.
b. BOTH —1,700 RPM, R — 0RPM, L— 1,700
RPM, OFF— 0RPM.
c. BOTH—1,700 RPM,R—ORPM,L—
1,675RPM,OFF--ORPM
108. What is the approximate position of the
rotating magnet in a high-tension magneto when
the points first close?
a. Full register.
b. Neutral.
c. A few degrees after neutral.
109. Shielding is used on spark plug and ignition
wires
a. protect the wires from short circuits as a
result of chafing or rubbing.
b. prevent outside electromagnetic emissions
from disrupting the
c. operation of the ignition system.
d. prevent interference with radio reception.
110. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are
subjected to high intensity spark discharges and yet
they have a long service life because they
55
 a. operate at much lower temperatures. 118. When testing a magneto distributor block for
b. are not placed directly into the combustion electrical leakage. which of the following pieces of
chamber. test equipment should be used?
c. do not require continuous operation. a. A high-tension harness tester.
111. Alignment 01 the marks provided or internal b. A continuity tester.
timing of a magneto indicates that the c. A high-range ammeter.
a. breaker points are just beginning to close 119.Which of the following would be cause for
for No. 1 cylinder. rejection of a spark plug?
b. magneto is in E-gap position. a. Carbon fouling of the electrode and
c. No. 1 cylinder is on TOC of compression insulator.
stroke. b. Insulator tip cracked.
112. If new breaker points are installed in a c. Lead fouling of the electrode and insulator,
magneto on an engine, it will be necessary to time 120.What should be used to clean grease or carbon
the tracks from capacitors or coils that are used in
a. magneto internally and the magneto to the magnetos?
engine. a. Solvent.
b. breaker points to the No. 1 cylinder. b. Acetone.
c. magneto drive to the engine. c. Naphtha.
113. What component of a dual magneto is shared 122 . A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down
by both ignition systems? in a pneumatic starter incorporating a sprig clutch
a. High-tension coil. ratchet assembly is an indication of
b. Rotating magnet. a. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
c. Capacitor. b. one or more broken pawl springs.
114. The spark is produced in a magneto ignition c. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the
system when the breaker points are ratchet gear.
a. fully open. 123. Which of the following are advantages of dual
b. beginning to open. ignition in aircraft engines?
c. fully closed. 1. Gives a more complete and quick combustion of
115. When using a timing light to time a magneto the fuel.
to an aircraft engine, the magneto switch should be 2. Provides a backup magneto system.
placed in the 3. Increases the output power of the engine.
a. BOTH position. 4. Permits the use of lower grade fuels.
b. OFF position. 5. Increases the intensity of the spark at the spark
c. LEFT or RIGHT position (either one). plugs.
116. Defective spark plugs will cause the engine to a. 2.3,4.
run rough at b. 2.3,5.
a. high speeds only. c. 1,2,3.
b. low speeds only. 124. The electrical circuit from the magneto is
c. all speeds. completed by through the
117. What will be the effect if the spark plugs are a. engine structure.
gapped too wide? b. P-lead.
a. Insulation failure. c. cockpit switch.
b. Hard starting. 125. If the ground wire of a magneto is
c. Lead damage. disconnected at the ignition switch, the result will
be the affected magneto will be isolated and the
engine will run on the
56
 a. opposite magneto.
b. engine will stop running.
c. engine will not stop running when me
ignition switch is turn off.
126. Upon inspection of the spark plugs in an
aircraft engine, the plugs were found caked with a
heavy black soot. This indicates
a. worn oil seal rings.
b. a rich mixture.
c. a lean mixture.
127. In a high-tension ignition system, the current
in the magneto secondary winding is
a. conducted from the primary winding via the
discharge of the
b. capacitor.
c. induced when the primary circuit is
interrupted.
d. induced when the primary circuit discharges
via the breaker points.
128. Thermocouples are usually inserted or
installed on the
a. front cylinder of the engine.
b. rear cylinder of the engine.
c. hottest cylinder of the engine.
129. In order to turn a magneto off, the primary
circuit must be
a. grounded.
b. opened.
c. shorted.
130. Which of the following statements most
accurately describes spark plug heat range?
a. The length of the threaded portion of the
shell usually denotes the spark plug heat
range.
b. A hot plug is designed so that the insulator
tip is reasonably short to fasten the rate of
heat transfer from the tip through the spark
plug to the cylinder head.
c. A cold plug is designed so that the
insulator tip is reasonably short to hasten
the rate of heat transfer from the tip
through the sparkplug shell to the cylinder
head.
131. If a spark plug lead becomes grounded, the
a. magneto will not be affected.
b. distributor rotor finger will discharge to the
next closest electrode within the
distributor.
c. capacitor will break down.
132. When will the voltage in the secondary
winding of a magneto, installed on a normally
operating engine, be at its highest value?
a. Just prior to spark plug firing.
b. Toward the latter part of the spark duration
when the flame front reaches its maximum
velocity.
c. Immediately after the breaker points close.
MATERIALS AND PROCESSES
1. What two types of indicating mediums are
available for magnetic particle inspection?
a. Iron and ferric oxides
b. Wet and dry process materials
c. High retentivity and low permeability
material
2. What precision measuring tool is used for
measuring crankpin and main bearing
journals for out-of-round wear?
a. Dial gauge
b. Micrometer caliper
c. Depth gauge
3. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is
correct?
a. When tightening castellated nuts on
drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do
not line up, it is permissible to
overtighten the nut to permit alignment
of the next slot with the cotter pin hole
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should
equal the material thickness
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼ -inch
diameter should not be used in primary
structure
4. How many of these factors are considered
essential knowledge for x-ray exposure?
1. Processing of the film
2. Material thickness and density
3. Exposure distance and angle
57
 4. Film characteristics
a. One
b. Three
c. Four
5. On a fillet weld, the penetration
requirement includes what percentage(s) of
the base metal thickness?
a. 100 percent
b. 25 – 50 percent
c. 60 – 80 percent
6. What is descriptive of the annealing process
of steel during after it has been annealed?
a. Rapid cooling; high strength
b. Slow cooling; low strength
c. Slow cooling; increased resistance to
wear
7. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with
a material
a. Class 1 fit for the threads
b. Class 2 fit for the threads
c. Class 3 fit for the threads
8. Which tool can be used to determine
piston pin out-of-round wear?
a. Telescopic gauge
b. Micrometer caliper
c. Dial indicator
9. In examining and evaluating a welded
joint, a mechanic should be familiar with
a. Likely ambient exposure
conditions and intended use of
the part, along with type of weld
and original part material
composition
b. The welding technique, filler
material, and temperature range
used
c. The parts, proportions, and
formation of a weld
10. What nondestructive testing method
requires little or no part preparation, is
used to detect surface or near-surface
defects in most metals, and may also be
used to separate metals or alloys and
their heat-treat conditions?
a. Eddy current inspection
b. Ultrasonic inspection
c. Magnetic particle inspection
11. Which of the following is a main
determinant of the dwell time to use
when conducting a dye r fluorescent
penetrant inspection?
a. The size and shape of the
discontinuities being looked for
b. The size and shape of the part being
inspected
c. The type and/or density of the part
12. Circular magnetization of a part can be
used to detect which defects?
a. Defects parallel to the long axis of
the part
b. Defects perpendicular to the long
axis of the part
c. Defects perpendicular to the
concentric circles of magnetic force
within the part
13. If it is necessary to accurately measure
the diameter of a hole approximately ¼
inch in diameter, the mechanic should
use a
a. Telescoping gauge and determine
the size of the hole by taking a
micrometer reading of the
adjustable end of the telescoping
gauge
b. 0 - to 1-inch inside micrometer and read
the measurement directly from the
micrometer
58
 c. Small-hole gauge and determine the
size of the hole by taking a micrometer
reading of the ball end of the gauge
14. Which statement relating to the residual
magnetizing inspection method is true?
a. Subsurface discontinuities are made
readily apparent
b. It is used in practically all circular and
longitudinal magnetizing procedures
c. It may be used with steels which have
been heat treated for stressed
applications
15. Which of the following defects are not
acceptable for metal lines?
1. Cracked flare
2. Seams
3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than
20% of the diameter
4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend
less than 10% of wall thickness
5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of
tube diameter
a. 1,2,3,4 and 5
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2,3 and 5
16. If dye penetrant inspection indications are
not sharp and clear, the most cause is that
part
a. Was not correctly degaussed before the
developer was applied
b. Has no appreciable damage
c. Was not thoroughly washed before the
developer was applied
17. Which heat-treating operation would be
performed when the surface of the metal is
changed chemically by introducing a high
carbide or nitride content?
a. Tempering
b. Normalizing
c. Case hardening
18. (1) In nondestructive testing a discontinuity
may be defined as an interruption in the
normal physical structure or configuration
of a part
(2) A discontinuity may or may not affect
the usefulness of a part
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only No.1 is true
b. Only No.2 is true
c. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
19. Unless otherwise specified, torque values
for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate
to
a. Clean, dry threads
b. Clean, lightly oiled threads
c. Both dry and lightly oiled threads
20. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type
locknut obtained?
a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber
locking insert
b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at
the base of the load carrying section
c. By making the threads in the fiber insert
slightly smaller than those in the load
carrying section
21. When the specific torque value for nuts is
not given, where can the recommended
torque value be found?
a. AC 43. 13-1B
b. Technical Standard Order
c. AC43. 13-2A
22. Which of the following occurs when a
mechanical force is repeatedly applied to
most metals at room temperature, such as
rolling, hammering, or bending?
1. The metals become artificially aged.
2. The metals become stress corrosion
cracked
3. The metals become cold worked, strain
or work hardened
59
 a. 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 3.
23. In performing a dye penetrant inspection,
the developer
a. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate
the presence of a defect
b. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible
indication
c. Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to
inspection
24. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the
head is classified as an
a. NAS standard aircraft bolt
b. NAS close tolerance bolt
c. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
25. Which heat-treating process of metal
produces a hard, wear-resistant surface
over a strong, tough core?
a. Case hardening
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
26. Alclad is a metal consisting of
a. Aluminum alloy surface layers and a
pure aluminum core
b. Pure aluminum surface layers on an
aluminum alloy core
c. A homogeneous mixture of pure
aluminum and aluminum alloy
27. Unless otherwise specified or required,
aircraft bolts should be installed so that
the bolthead is
a. Upward, or in rearward direction
b. Upward, or in a forward direction
c. Downward, or in a forward direction
28. The society of Automotive Engineers
(SAE) and the American Iron and Steel
Institute use a numerical index system
to identify the composition of various
steels. In the number ‘4130’ designating
chromium molybdenum steel, the first
digit indicates the
a. Percentage of the basic element in
the alloy
b. Percentage of carbon in the alloy in
hundredths of a percent
c. Basic alloying element
29. Which of the following describe the
effects of annealing steel and aluminum
alloys?
1. Decrease in internal stress
2. Softening of the metal
3. Improved corrosion resistance
a. 1,2
b. 1,3
c. 2,3
30. What method of magnetic particle
inspection is used most often to inspect
aircraft parts for invisible cracks and
other defects?
a. Residual
b. Inductance
c. Continuous
31. (1) An aircraft part may be
demagnetized by subjecting it to a
magnetizing force from alternating
current that is gradually reduced in
strength
(2) An aircraft part may be
demagnetized by subjecting it to a
magnetizing force from direct current
that is alternately reversed in direction
and gradually reduced in strength
Regarding the above statements,
a. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
b. Only No.2 is true
c. Only No.1 is true
32. What aluminum alloy designations
indicate that the metal has received no
hardening or tempering treatment
60
 a. 3003-F
b. 5052-H36
c. 6061-O
33. What is steel tempered after being
hardened
a. To increase its hardness and ductility
b. To increase its strength and
decrease its internal stresses
c. To relieve its internal stresses and
reduce its brittleness
34. Identify the correct statement
a. An outside micrometer is limited to
measuring diameters
b. Tools used on certificated aircraft
must be an approved type
c. Dividers do not provide a reading
when used as measuring device
35. Which condition indicates a part has
cooled too quickly after being welded?
a. Cracking adjacent to the weld
b. Discoloration of the base metal
c. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag
inclusions
36. How is the locking feature of the fiber-
type locknut obtained?
a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber
locking insert
b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place
at the base of the load carrying
section
c. By making the threads in the fiber
insert slightly smaller than those in
the load carrying section
37. Which number represents the Vernier
scale graduation of a micrometer?
a. .00001
b. .001
c. .0001
38. One characteristics of a good weld is
that no oxide should be formed on the
base metal at a distance from the weld
of more than
a. ½ inch
b. 1 inch
c. ¼ inch
39. Which material cannot be heat treated
repeatedly without harmful effects?
a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
b. 6061-T9
c. Clad aluminum alloy
40. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured
with
a. Class 1 fit for the threads
b. Class 2 fit for the threads
c. Class 3 fit for the threads
41. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths
should be
a. Equal to the thickness of the
material which is fastened together,
plus approximately one diameter
b. Equal to the thickness of the
material which is fastened together
c. One and one half times the
thickness of the material which is
fastened together
42. Which statement regarding aircraft
bolts is correct?
a. When tightening castellated nuts on
drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes
do not line up, it is permissible to
overtighten the nut to permit
alignment of the next slot with the
cotter pin hole
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should
equal the material thickness
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼-inch
diameter should not be used in
primary structure
43. A mechanic has completed a bonded
honeycomb repair using the potted
61
 compound repair technique. What
nondestructive testing method is used
to determine the soundness of the
repair after the repair has cured?
a. Eddy current test
b. Metallic ring test
c. Ultrasonic test
44. Which of the following materials may be
inspected using the magnetic particle
inspection method?
1. Magnesium alloys
2. Aluminum alloys
3. Iron alloys
4. Copper alloys
5. Zinc alloys
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 3
45. Why is it considered good practice to
normalize a part after welding?
a. To relieve internal stresses
developed within the base metal
b. To increase the hardness of the weld
c. To remove the surface scale formed
during welding
46. What is generally used in the
construction of aircraft engine firewalls?
a. Stainless steel
b. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel
c. Titanium nickel alloy
47. The aluminum code number 1100
identifies what type of aluminum
a. Aluminum alloy containing 11
percent copper
b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc
c. 99 percent commercially pure
aluminum
48. What tool is generally used to set a
divider to an exact dimension?
a. Machinist scale
b. Surface gauge
c. Dial indicator
49. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is
a. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and
the surface material is
commercially pure aluminum
b. Commercially pure aluminum, and
the surface material is heat-treated
aluminum alloy
c. Strain- hardened aluminum alloy,
and the surface material is
commercially pure aluminum
50. The clearance between the piston rings
and the ring lands is measured with a
a. Micrometer caliper
b. Thickness gauge
c. Depth gauge
51. To detect a minute crack using dye
penetrant inspection usually requires
a. That the developer be applied to a
flat surface
b. A longer-than-normal penetrating
time
c. The surface to be highly polished
52. Magnetic particle inspection is used
primarily to detect
a. Distortion
b. Deep surface flaws
c. Flaws on or near the surface
53. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk
marked on the bolthead are
a. Made of aluminum alloy
b. Close tolerance bolts
c. Standard steel bolts
54. Select a characteristics of a good gas
weld
a. The depth of penetration shall be
sufficient to ensure fusion of the
filler rod
62
 b. The height of the weld bead should
be 1/8 inch above the base metal
c. The weld should taper off smoothly
into the base metal
55. What defects will be detected by
magnetizing a part using continuous
longitudinal magnetization with a cable?
a. Defects perpendicular to the axis of
the part
b. Defects parallel to the long axis of
the part
c. Defects parallel to the concentric
circles of magnetic force within the
part
56. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an
airplane
a. For tension and shear load
conditions
b. Where external tension loads are
applied
c. Only for shear load applications
57. When checking an item with the
magnetic particle inspection method,
circular and longitudinal magnetization
should be used to
a. Reveal all possible defects
b. Evenly magnetize the entire part
c. Ensure uniform current flow
58. One way a part may be demagnetized
after magnetic particle inspection is by
a. Subjecting the part to high voltage,
low amperage ac
b. Slowly moving the part out of an ac
magnetic field of sufficient strength
c. Slowly moving the part into an ac
magnetic field of sufficient strength
59. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end
cable terminal secured?
a. With a shear nut tightened to a
snug fit, but with no strain imposed
on the fork and safe tied with a
cotter pin
b. With a castle nut tightened until
slight binding occurs between the
fork and the fitting to which it is
being attached
c. With a shear nut and cotter pin or
thin self-locking nut tightened
enough to prevent rotation of the
bolt in the fork
60. A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never
be used on an aircraft if the bolt is
a. Under shear loading
b. Under tension loading
c. Subject to rotation
61. Why should an aircraft maintenance
technician be familiar with weld
nomenclature?
a. So that accurate visual (pictorial)
comparisons can be made
b. In order to gain familiarity with the
welding technique, filler material
and temperature range used
c. In order to compare welds with
written (non-pictorial) description
standards
62. Which type crack can be detected by
magnetic particle inspection using either
circular or longitudinal magnetization
a. 45°
b. Longitudinal
c. Transverse
63. A particular component is attached to
the aircraft structure by the use of an
aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut
combination. If the cotter pin hole does
not align within the recommended
torque range, the acceptable practice is
to
63
 a. Exceed the recommended torque
range by no more than 10 percent
b. Tighten below the torque range
c. Change washers and try again
64. In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw
that is perpendicular to the magnetic
field flux lines generally causes
a. A large disruption in the magnetic
field
b. A minimal disruption in the
magnetic field
c. No disruption in the magnetic field
65. Which of the following methods may be
suitable to use to detect cracks open to
the surface in aluminum forgings and
castings?
1. Dye penetrant inspection
2. Magnetic particle inspection
3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection
4. Eddy current inspection
5. Ultrasonic inspection
6. Visual inspection
a. 1,4,5,6
b. 1,2,4,5,6
c. 1,2,3,4,5,6
66. Which tool is used to find the center of
a shaft or other cylindrical work
a. Combination set
b. Dial indicator
c. Micrometer caliper
67. A part which is being prepared for dye
penetrant inspection should be clean
with
a. A volatile petroleum-based solvent
b. The penetrant developer
c. Water-base solvents only
68. A bolt with a single raised dash on the
head is classified as an
a. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
b. NAS standard aircraft bolt
c. NAS close tolerance bolt
69. Liquid penetrant inspection methods
may be used on which of the following?
1. Porous plastics
2. Ferrous metals
3. Nonferrous metals
4. Smooth primer-sealed wood
5. Nonporous plastics
a. 2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3,5
70. What tool is generally used to calibrate
a micrometer or check its accuracy?
a. Gauge block
b. Dial indicator
c. Machinist scale
71. In the four-digit aluminum index system
number 2024, the first digit indicates
a. The major alloying element
b. The number of major alloying
elements used in the metal
c. The percent of alloying metal added
72. Select a characteristics of a good gas
weld
a. The depth of penetration shall be
sufficient to ensure fusion off the
filler rod
b. The height of the weld bead should
be 1/8 inch above the base metal
c. The weld should taper off smoothly
into the base metal
73. The twist of a connecting rod is checked
by installing push-fit arbors in both
ends, supported by parallel steel bars on
a surface plate. Measurements are
taken between the arbor and the
parallel bar with a
a. Dial gauge
b. Height gauge
c. Thickness gauge
64
74. The pattern for an inclusion is a
magnetic particle build up forming
a. A fernlike pattern
b. A single line
c. Parallel lines
75. Which tool can be used to measure the
alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane
of rotation of a disk?
a. Dial indicator
b. Shaft gauge
c. Protractor
76. What type of corrosion may attack the
grain boundaries of aluminum alloys
when the heat treatment process has
been improperly accomplished
a. Concentration cell
b. Intergranular
c. Fretting
77. Which tool is used to measure the
clearance between a surface plate and a
relatively narrow surface being checked
for flatness?
a. Depth gauge
b. Thickness gauge
c. Dial indicator
78. Under magnetic particle inspection, a
part will be identified as having a fatigue
crack under which condition?
a. The discontinuity pattern is straight
b. The discontinuity is found in a
nonstressed area of the part
c. The discontinuity is found in a
highly stressed area of the part
79. What may be used to check the stem on
a poppet-type valve for stretch?
a. Dial indicator
b. Micrometer
c. Telescoping gauge
80. Which of these nondestructive testing
methods is suitable for the inspection of
most metals, plastics and ceramics for
surface and subsurface defects?
a. Eddy current inspection
b. Magnetic particle inspection
c. Ultrasonic inspection
81. What metal has special short-time heat
properties and is used in the
construction of aircraft firewalls?
a. Stainless steel
b. Chrome molybdenum alloy steel
c. Titanium alloy
82. How can the dimensional inspection of a
bearing in a rocker arm be
accomplished?
a. Depth gauge and micrometer
b. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor
c. Telescopic gauge and micrometer
83. The reheating of het treated metal, such
as with a welding torch
a. Has little or no effect on a metal’s
heat treated characteristics
b. Has a cumulative enhancement
effect on the original heat treatment
c. Can significantly alter a metal’s
properties in the reheated area
84. Holes and a few projecting globules are
found in a weld. What action should be
taken?
a. Reweld the defective portions
b. Remove all the old weld, and
Reweld the joint
c. Grind the rough surface smooth,
inspect, and Reweld all gaps/holes
85. Normalizing is a process of heat treating
a. Aluminum alloys only
b. Iron-base metal only
c. Both aluminum alloys and iron-base
metals
86. The testing medium that is generally
used in magnetic particle inspection
65
 utilizes a ferromagnetic material that
has
a. High permeability and low
retentivity
b. Low permeability and high
retentivity
c. High permeability and high
retentivity
RECIPROCATING ENGINES
1. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a
conventional reciprocating engine?
a. When the piston has reached top
dead center of the intake stroke.
b. Shortly before the piston reaches
the top of the compression
stroke.
c. When the piston reaches top dead
center on the compression stroke.
2. Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat
control linkages should normally be
adjusted so that the stop located on the
diverter valve will be contacted
a. before the stop at the control
lever is reached in both HOT and
COLD positions.
b. before the stop at the control
lever ¡s reached in the HOT
position and after the stop at the
control lever is reached in the
COLD position.
c. after the stop at the control lever
is reached in both HOT and COLD
positions.
3. At what speed must a crankshaft turn if
each cylinder of a four-stroke cycle engine
is to be fired 200 times a minute?
a. 800 RPM.
b. 1,600 RPM.
c. 400 RPM.
4. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
a. increases valve overlap.
b. increases valve opening time.
c. decreases valve overlap.
5. On which part of the cylinder walls of a
normally operating engine will the greatest
amount of wear occur?
a.Near the center of the cylinder where
piston velocity is greatest.
b. Near the top of the cylinder.
c.Wear is normally evenly distributed.
6. During the inspection of an engine control
system in which push-pull control rods are
used, the threaded rod ends should
a. insure that the safety wire passes thru
the hole in shank of the rod-end.
b. Be checked for the thread engagement
of at least two threads but more than
four threads.
c. Be checked for the amount of thread
engagement by means of the
inspection holes.
7. Some aircraft engine manufactures equip
their product with choked or taper-ground
cylinders in order to
a.Provide a straight cylinder bore at
operating temperatures.
b.Flex the rings slightly during operation
and reduce the possibility of the rings
sticking in the grooves.
c. Increase the compression pressure for
starting purposes.
8. An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating
engine, operated at full throttle from sea
level, to 10,000 feet, provided the RPM is
unchanged, will
a. Lose power due to the reduced volume of
air drawn into the cylinders.
b.Produce constant power due to the same
volume of air drawn into the cylinders.
66
 c. Lose power due to the reduce density of
the air drawn into the cylinders.
9. As the pressure is applied during a
reciprocating engine compression check
using a differential pressure tester, what
would a movement of the propeller in the
direction of engine rotation indicate?
a. The piston was on compression stroke.
b. The piston was on exhaust stroke.
c. The piston was positioned past top
dead center.
10. The valve clearance of an engine using
hydraulic lifters, when the lifters are
completely flatl, or empty, should not
exceed
a.0.00 inch
b. a specified amount above zero.
c.a specified amount below zero.
11. What does valve overlap promote?
a. Lower intake manifold pressure and
temperatures.
b. A backflow of gases across the cylinder.
c. Better scavenging and cooling
characteristics.
12. During ground check an engine is found to
be rough-running, the magneto drop is
normal, and the manifold pressure is
higher than normal for any given RPM. The
trouble may be caused by
a.Several spark plugs fouled on different
cylinders.
b. a leak in the intake manifold.
c.a dead cylinder.
13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating
engine , a deposit of small , bright , metallic
particles which do not cling to the magnetic
drain plug is discovered in the oil sump and
on the surface of the oil filter. This
condition
a. may be a result of abnormal plain
type bearing wear and is cause for
further investigation.
b. is probably a result of ring and
cylinder wall wear and is cause for
engine removal and/ or overhaul.
c. is normal in engines utilizing plain
type bearings and aluminum pistons
and is not cause for alarm.
14. Master rod bearings are generally what
type?
a. Plain
b. Roller
c. Ball
15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks
when the propeller is being pulled through
manually indicates
a. a cracked exhaust stack
b. exhaust valve blow-by
c. worn piston rings
16. If the exhaust valve of a four – stroke cycle
engine is closed and the intake valve is just
closed , the piston is on the
a. intake stroke
b. power stroke
c. compression stroke
17. When will small induction system air leaks
have the most noticeable effect on engine
operation?
a. At high RPM.
b. At maximum continuous and takeoff
power settings.
c. At low RPM.
18. What special procedure must be followed
when adjusting the values of an engine
equipped with a floating cam ring?
a. Adjust valves when the engine is
hot.
b. Adjust all exhaust valves before
intake valves.
67
 c. Eliminate cam bearing clearance
when making valve adjustment.
19. Valve overlap is defined as the number of
degrees of crankshaft travel
a. during which both valves are off
their seats.
b. between the closing of the intake
valve and the opening of the
exhaust valve.
c. during which both valves ate on
their seats.
20. Which of the following engine servicing
operations generally requires engine pre-
oiling prior to starting the engine?
a. Engine oil and filter change.
b. Engine installation.
c. Replacement of oil lines.
21. What is the best indication of worn valve
guides?
a. High oil consumption.
b. Low compression
c. Low oil pressure.
22. How may it be determined that a
reciprocating engine with a dry sump is pre-
oiled sufficiently?
a. The engine oil pressure gauge will
indicate normal oil pressure.
b. Oil will flow from engine return line
or indicator port.
c. When the quantity of oil specified by
the manufacturer has been pumped
into the engine.
23. If air is heard coming from the crankcase
breather or oil filler during a differential
compression check, What is this an
indication of?
a. Exhaust valve leakage
b. Intake valve leakage
c. Piston ring leakage.
24. Excessive valve clearances will cause the
duration of valve opening to
a. increase for both intake and
exhaust valves.
b. decrease for both intake and
exhaust valves.
c. decrease for intake valves and
decrease for exhaust valves.
25. Which statement is correct regarding a
four- stroke cycle aircraft engine?
a. The intake valve closes on the
compassion stroke.
b. The exhaust valve opens on the
exhaust stroke.
c. The intake valve closes on the intake
stroke.
26. A characteristic of dyna- focal engine
mounts as applied to aircraft reciprocating
engines is that the
a. shock mounts eliminate the
torsional flexing of the powerplant.
b. engine attaches to the shock mount
at the engine’s center of gravity.
c. shock mount point toward the
engine’s center of gravity.
27. Which statement pertaining to fuel/air
ratios is true?
a. The mixture ratio which gives the
best power is richer than the
mixture ratio which gives
maximum economy.
b. A rich mixture is faster burning
than a normal mixture.
c. The mixture ratio which gives
maximum economy may also be
designated as best power mixture.
28. One cause of after firing in an aircraft
engine is
a. sticking intake valves.
b. an excessively lean mixture.
68
 c. an excessively rich mixture.
29. The horsepower developed in the cylinders
of a reciprocating engine is known as the
a. shaft horsepower
b. indicated horsepower
c. brake horsepower
30. An increase in manifold pressure with a
constant RPM will cause the bearing load in
an engine to
a. decrease
b. remain relatively constant
c. increase
31. Which of the following will decrease
volumetric efficiency in a reciprocating
engine?
1.Full throttle operation.
2.Low cylinder head temperatures.
3.Improper valve timing.
4.Sharp bends in the induction system.
5.High carburetor air temperatures.
a. 2,4, and 5
b. 1,2,3, and 4
c. 3,4, and 5
32. A nine –cylinder engine with a bore of
5.5 inches and a stroke of 6 inches will
have a total piston displacement of
a. 740 cubic inches
b. 1,425 cubic inches
c. 1,283 cubic inches
33. The primary purpose in setting proper valve
timing and overlap is to
a. permit the best possible charge of
fuel / air mixture into the cylinders.
b. gain more thorough exhaust gas
scavenging.
c. obtain the best volumetric efficiency
and lower cylinder operating
temperatures.
34. Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked
1.during engine overhaul.
2.during annual inspection.
3.after a “prop strike” or sudden engine
stoppage.
4.during 100 – hour inspection.
a. 1,3 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3.
35. A condition that can occur in radial engines
but is unlikely to occur in horizontally
opposed engines is
a. oil- fouled spark plug
b. valve overlap.
c. hydraulic lock.
36. Which statement is true regarding
bearings used in high-powered
reciprocating aircraft engines?
a. The outer race of a single-row,self –
aligning ball bearing will always have
a radius equal to the radius of the
balls.
b. There is less rolling friction when
ball bearings are used than when
roller bearings are employed.
c. Crankshaft bearings are generally of
the ball-type due to their ability to
withstand extreme loads without
overheating.
37. Excessive valve clearance results in the
valves opening
a. late and closing early.
b. early and closing late.
c. late and closing late.
38. What will be the likely result if the piston
ring gaps happen to be aligned when
performing a differential-pressure
compression check on a cylinder?
a. Little or no effect.
b. The rings will not be seated.
c. A worn or defective ring(s)
indication.
69
 39. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of
the engine to
a. deliver maximum horsepower at a
specific altitude.
b. meet exacting requirements of
efficiency and low weight per
horsepower ratio.
c. run smoothly and give the desired
performance at all speeds.
40. An engine misses in both the right and left
positions of the magneto switch. The
quickest method for locating the trouble is
to
a. check for one oi more cold
cylinders.
b. perform a compression check.
c. check each spark plug.
41. After spark plugs from an opposed engine
have been serviced, in what position should
they be reinstalled?
a. Next in firing order to the one from
which they were removed.
b. Swapped bottom to top.
c. Next in firing order to the one from
which they were removed and
swapped bottom to top.
42. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating
engine to a feather edge is likely to result in
a. normal operation and long life.
b. excessive valve clearance.
c. preignition and burned valves.
43. Which of these conditions will cause an engine
to have an increased tendency to detonate?
1. High manifold pressure.
2. High intake air temperature.
3. Engine overheated.
4. Late ignition timing.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2,3,4.
c. 1,4
44. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually
range from 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on
automobile engine cylinders may range up to 0.100
inch.
This is because aircraft engine cylinders
a. have more limited cooling capacity.
b. have relatively thin walls and may be
nitrided.
c. operate at high temperatures.
45. The purpose of two or more valve springs in
aircraft engines is to
a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems.
b. eliminate valve spring surge.
c. equalize valve face loading.
46. What could cause excessive pressure buildup in
the crankcase of a reciprocating engine?
a. Plugged crankcase breather.
b. Improper warmup operation.
c. An excessive quantity of oil.
47. By use of a differential pressure compression
tester, it is determined that the
No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will
not hold pressure after the crankshaft has been
rotated 2600 from top dead center compression
stroke
No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be
interpreted?
a. A normal indication.
b. Exhaust valve blow-by.
c. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient
exhaust valve clearance.
48. One of the best indicators of reciprocating
engine combustion chamber
problems is
a. excessive engine vibration.
b. starting difficulties.
c. spark plug condition.
49. If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to
either LEFT or RIGHT during a magneto check, a
normal operation is usually indicated by
70
 a. no change in RPM.
b. momentary interruption of both ignition
systems.
c. slight drop in RPM.
50. The primary concern in establishing the firing
order for an opposed engine is
to
a. provide for balance and eliminate
vibration to the greatest extent possible.
b. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders
as far apart as possible in order to obtain
the greatest mechanical efficiency.
c. keep the power impulses on adjacent
cylinders as close as possible in order to
obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency.
51. Increased water vapor (higher relative
humidity) in the incoming air to a
reciprocating engine will normally result in which
of the following?
a. Decreased engine power at a constant
RPM and manifold pressure.
b. Increased power output due to increased
volumetric efficiency.
c. A leaning effect on engines which use non-
automatic carburetors.
52. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves
when the engine is cold, what
will occur during operation of the engine?
a. The valves will open early and close early.
b. The valves will open late and close early.
c. The valves will open early and close late.
53. Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest
engine temperature (all
other factors remaining constant)?
a. A mixture leaner than a rich best-power
mixture of .085.
b. A mixture richer than a full-rich mixture
of .087.
c. A mixture leaner than a manual lean
mixture of .060.
54. What is the principal advantage of using
propeller reduction gears?
a. To enable the propeller RPM to be
increased without an accompanying
increase in engine RPM.
b. To enable the engine RPM to be increased
with an accompanying increase in power
and allow the propeller to remain at a
lower, more efficient RPM.
c. To enable the engine RPM to be increased
with an accompanying increase in propeller
RPM.
55. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball
bearing?
a. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve
engine).
b. Master rod bearing (radial engine).
c. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine).
56. On which strokes are both valves on a four-
stroke cycle reciprocating
aircraft engine open?
a. Power and exhaust.
b. Intake and compression.
c. Exhaust and intake.
57. To reduce the power output of an engine
equipped with a constant-speed
propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the
a. manifold pressure is reduced with the
throttle control before the RPM is reduced
with the propeller control.
b. manifold pressure is reduced with the
propeller control before the RPM is reduced
with the throttle control.
c. RPM is reduced with the propeller control
before the manifold pressure is reduced
with the throttle control.
58. Which of the following would indicate a general
weak-engine condition when operated with a fixed-
pitch propeller or test club?
71
 a. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle
operation.
b. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at
static RPM.
c. Lower than normal manifold pressure for
any given RPM.
59. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by
a. nitriding.
b. shot peening.
c. tempering.
60. Why does the smoothness of operation of an
engine increase with a greater number of
cylinders?
a. The power impulses are spaced closer
together.
b. The power impulses are spaced farther
apart.
c. The engine has larger counterbalance
weights.
61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a
thrust bearing used in most radial engines?
a. Tapered roller.
b. Double-row ball.
c. Deep-groove ball.
62. Which condition would be the least likely to be
caused by failed or failing engine bearings?
a. Excessive oil consumption.
b. High oil temperatures.
c. Low oil temperatures.
63. Valve clearance changes on opposed-type
engines using hydraulic lifters are accomplished by
a. rocker arm adjustment.
b. rocker arm replacement.
c. push rod replacement.
64. The floating control thermostat, used on some
reciprocating engine
installations, helps regulate oil temperature by
a. controlling oil flow through the oil cooler.
b. recirculating hot oil back through the sump.
c. controlling air flow through the oil cooler.
65. Which of the following would most likely cause
a reciprocating engine to
backfire through the induction system at low RPM
operation?
a. Idle mixture too rich.
b. Clogged derichment valve.
c. Lean mixture.
66. What is the purpose of a power check on a
reciprocating engine?
a. To check magneto drop.
b. To determine satisfactory performance.
c. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is
adequate.
67. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine
maintain sea level pressure?
a. Critical altitude.
b. Service ceiling.
c. Pressure altitude.
68. Before attempting to start a radial engine that
has been shut down for more
than 30 minutes,
a. turn the propeller by hand three or four
revolutions in the opposite direction of
normal rotation to check for liquid lock.
b. turn the ignition switch on before
energizing the starter.
c. turn the propeller by hand three to four
revolutions in the normal direction of
rotation to check for liquid lock.
69. If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial
indicator are plus .002 inch
and minus .003 inch, the runout is
a. .005 inch.
b. pIus .001 inch.
c. minus .001 inch.
70. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow
motion between the pin and
a. the piston.
72
 b. both the piston and the large end of the
connecting rod.
c. both the piston and the small end of the
connecting rod.
71. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an
engine are usually degreased
with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather
than water-mixed degreasers
primarily because
a. solvent degreasers are much more
effective.
b. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause
engine oil contamination in the overhauled
engine.
c. water mixed degreasers cause corrosion
72. When does valve overlap occur in the operation
of an aircraft reciprocating engine?
a. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the
beginning of the intake stroke.
b. At the end of the power stroke and the
beginning of the exhaust stroke.
c. At the end of the compression stroke and
the beginning of the power stroke.
73. Which statement is correct regarding engine
crankshafts?
a. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce
the dynamic vibrations in an aircraft
reciprocating engine.
b. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce
the torsional vibrations in an aircraft
reciprocating engine.
c. Moveable counterweights are designed to
resonate at the natural frequency of the
crankshaft.
74. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches
when the piston îs at bottom
center. When the piston is at the top of the
cylinder, the volume equals 10 cubic inches. What
is the compression ratio?
a. 1 : 7
b. 7 : 10
c. 7 : 1
75. Which of the following is most likely to occur if
an overhead valve engine is operated with
inadequate valve clearances?
a. The valves will not seat positively during
start and engine warmup.
b. The further decrease in valve clearance that
occurs as engine temperatures increase will
cause damage to the valve-operating
mechanism.
c. The valves will remain closed for longer
periods than specified by the engine
manufacturer.
76. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter
during an inspection,
a. It is an indication of normal engine wear
unless the particles are nonferrous.
b. the cause should be identified and
corrected before the aircraft is released for
flight.
c. it is an indication of normal engine wear
unless the deposit exceeds a specified
amount.
77. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in
the order of their occurrence are
a. intake, ignition, compression, power,
exhaust.
b. intake, power, compression, ignition,
exhaust.
c. intake, compression, ignition, power,
exhaust.
78. Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-
stroke cycle engine, and the
intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees
of crankshaft travel after
ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one
cylinder only.)
a. 707°.
b. 373°.
73
 c. 347°.
79. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D
when performing an annual/100-
hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft?
a. Magneto timing check.
b. Cylinder compression check.
c. Valve clearance check.
80. Backfiring through the carburetor generally
results from the use of
a. an excessively lean mixture.
b. excessively atomized fuel.
c. an excessively rich mixture.
81. Reduced air density at high altitude has a
decided effect on carburetion,
resulting in a reduction of engine power by
a. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture.
b. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture.
c. reducing fuel vaporization.
82. Which of the following conditions would most
likely lead to detonation?
a. Late ignition timing.
b. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating.
c. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.
83. How many of the following are factors in
establishing the maximum compression
ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?
1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.
2. Design limitations of the engine.
3. Degree of supercharging.
4. Spark plug reach.
a. Four.
b. Two.
c. THREE
84. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some
aircraft engines to
a. provide a better fit at operating
temperatures.
b. act as a compensating feature so that a
compensated magneto is not required.
c. equalize the wear on all pistons
85. What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium
filled exhaust valves in
aircraft reciprocating engines?
a. Increased strength and resistance to
cracking.
b. Reduced valve operating temperatures.
c. Greater resistance to deterioration at high
valve temperatures.
86. The operating temperature valve clearance of a
radial engine as compared to
cold valve clearance is
a. greater.
b. less.
c. the same.
87. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium
engine parts, it is inadvisable to soak
them in solutions containing soap because
a. some of the soap will become impregnated
in the surface of the material and
subsequently cause engine oil
contamination and foaming.
b. the soap can chemically alter the metals
causing them to become more susceptible
to corrosion.
c. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar
metal electrolytic action if they are placed
together in the solution for more than a few
minutes.
89. Using the following information, determine
how many degrees the crankshaft
will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves
seated.
Intake opens 15°: BTDC.
Exhaust opens 700: BBDC.
Intake closes 45°: ABDC.
Exhaust closes 10°: ATDC.
a. 290°.
74
 b. 245°.
c. 25°.
90. What tool is generally used to measure the
crankshaft rotation in degrees?
a. Dial indicator.
b. Timing disk.
c. Prop Protractor.
91. How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston
rings assured during the
overhaul of an engine?
a. By accurately measuring and matching the
outside diameter of the rings with the
inside diameter of the cylinders.
b. By using rings specified by the engine
manufacturer.
c. By placing the rings in the cylinder and
measuring the end-gap with a feeler
gauge.
92. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic
valve lifters is observed to have no clearance in its
valve-operating mechanism after the minimum
inlet
oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have
been reached. When can
this condition be expected?
a. During normal operation.
b. When the lifters become deflated.
c. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming
trapped in the lifter and restricting its
motion.
93. Compression ratio is the ratio between the
a. piston travel on the compression stroke and
on the intake stroke.
b. combustion chamber pressure on the
combustion stroke and on the exhaust
stroke.
c. cylinder volume with piston at bottom
dead center and at top dead center.
94. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timîng is
correct, the combustion
process should be completed
a. 20 to 300 before top center at the end of
the compression stroke.
b. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of
the power stroke.
c. just after top center at the beginning of the
power stroke.
95. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure
and a high oil temperature, the
problem may be caused by a
a. leaking oil dilution valve.
b. sheared oil pump shaft.
c. clogged oil cooler annular jacket.
96. What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine
is operated at high power
settings before it is properly warmed up?
a. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts.
b. Excessive thinning of the engine oil.
c. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation.
97. What is the basic operational sequence for
reducing the power output of an
engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
a. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold
pressure.
b. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard
the throttle to obtain the correct RPM.
c. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the
RPM.
98. Which of the following will be caused by
excessive valve clearance of a
cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine?
a. Reduced valve overlap period.
b. Intake and exhaust valves will open early
and close late.
c. A power increase by shortening the exhaust
event.
99. If the intake valve is opened too early in the
cycle of operation of a four
stroke cycle engine, it may result in
a. improper scavenging of exhaust gases.
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 b. engine kickback.
c. backfiring into the induction system.
100. (1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition
timing.
(2) Detonation occurs when an area of the
combustion chamber becomes
incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in
advance of normal timed
ignition.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
101. If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what
position in the cylinder
should the piston be?
a. Bottom dead center.
b. Top dead center.
c. Halfway between top and bottom dead
center.
102. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust
valves are checked for stretch
a. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
b. with a contour or radius gauge.
c. by placing the valve on a surface plate and
measuring its length with a vernier height
gauge.
103. The actual power delivered to the propeller of
an aircraft engine is called
a. friction horsepower.
b. brake horsepower.
c. indicated horsepower
104. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is
operated at 2,000 RPM, the piston movement
within the cylinder will be
a. at maximum velocity around TDC.
b. constant during the entire 360° of
crankshaft travel.
c. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC.
105. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a
wide range from zero to normal
operating pressure, the most likely cause is
a. low oil supply.
b. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
c. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.
106. What is the purpose of the safety circlet
installed on some valve stems?
a. To hold the valve guide in position.
b. To hold the valve spring retaining washer
in position.
c. To prevent valves from falling into the
combustion chamber.
107. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher
than at normal operating
temperatures, the
a. oil system relief valve should be readjusted.
b. engines lubrication system is probably
operating normally.
c. oil dilution system should be turned on
immediately.
108. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in
chrome-plated cylinders.
(2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel
cylinders.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
SHEETMETAL & NON-SHEETMETALIC STRUCTURE
1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test
on composite structure, a change in sound
may be due to damage or to transition to a
different internal structure
(2) The extent of separation damage in
composite structures is most accurately
measured by a ring (coin tap) test
Regarding the above statements,
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 a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
b. Only No.1 is true
c. Only No.2 is true
2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft
because they
a. Can be heat treated much easier than
the other forms of aluminum
b. Are less subject to corrosion than
uncoated aluminum alloys
c. Are stronger than unclad aluminum
alloys
3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the
rivets to
a. Compressive loads
b. Shear loads
c. Tension loads
4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand
formed using a form block, a piece of dead
soft aluminum should first be placed over
the hollow portion of the mold and securely
fastened in place. The bumping operation
should be
a. Distributed evenly over the face of the
aluminum at all times rather than being
started at the edges or center.
b. Started by tapping the aluminum
lightly around the edges and gradually
working down into the center
c. Started by tapping the aluminum in the
center until it touches the bottom of the
mold and then working out in all
directions
5. If it is necessary to compute a bend
allowance problem and bend allowance
tables are not available, the neutral axis of
the bend can be
a. Represented by the actual length of the
required material for the bend
b. Found by adding approximately one-
half of the thickness to the bend radius
c. Found by subtracting the stock
thickness from the bend radius
6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to
be bent in a cornice or box brake is
measured and marked
a. One-half radius from either bend
tangent line
b. One radius from either bend tangent
line
c. One radius from the bend tangent line
that is placed under the brake
7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single
bend, allow for stretching by
a. Adding the setback to each leg
b. Subtracting the setback from one leg
c. Subtracting the setback from both legs
8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid
is usually acceptable for machining
composite laminates?
a. Water soluble oil
b. Water displacing oil
c. Water only
9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue
streaming back from some of the rivets on
an aircraft?
a. The rivets were excessively work
hardened during installation
b. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside
the structure
c. Fretting corrosion is occurring between
the rivets and the skin
10. What type of bit should be used to drill
holes in Plexiglas?
a. A standard twist drill
b. A specially modified twist drill
c. A dulled twist drill
11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to
prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal
honeycomb structure?
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 a. Prime the repair with a corrosion
inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere
b. Paint the outside area with several coats
of exterior paint
c. None. Honeycomb is usually made from
a man-made or fibrous material which is
not susceptible to corrosion
12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
a. Nickel-steel parts
b. Magnesium parts
c. Steel parts
13. A main difference between
Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and shear
fasteners (other than their application) is in
the
a. Number of locking collar grooves
b. Shape of the head
c. Method of installation
14. What is the minimum spacing for a single
row of aircraft rivets?
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet
shank
b. Three times the length of the rivet
shank
c. Three times the diameter of the rivet
shank
15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic
enclosure materials is
a. Greater than both steel and aluminum
b. Greater than steel but less than
aluminum
c. Less than either steel or aluminum
16. What should be the included angle of a
twist drill for soft metals?
a. 118°
b. 90°
c. 65°
17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy
designation indicates the primary alloying
agent used in its manufacture?
a. 2
b. 17
c. 20
18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the
distance between the
a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same
row
c. Heads of rivets in the same row
19. Which statement is true regarding a
cantilever wing?
a. It has nonadjustable lift struts
b. No external bracing is needed
c. It requires only one lift strut on each
side
20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely
through a laminated sandwich structure
a. May be repaired
b. Must be filled with resin to eliminate
dangerous stress concentrations
c. May be filled with putty which is
compatible with resin
21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly
used to
a. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal
where shear strength is desired
b. Attach parts or components with
screws to sheet metal
c. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal
where bearing strength is desired
22. What should be the included angle of a
twist drill for hard metal?
a. 118°
b. 100°
c. 90°
23. When repairing a small hole on a metal
stressed skin, the major consideration in
the design of the patch should be
a. The shear strength of the riveted joint
78
 b. To use rivet spacing similar to a seam in
the skin
c. That the bond between the patch and
the skin is sufficient to prevent
dissimilar metal corrosion
24. A factor which determines the minimum
space between rivets is the
a. Length of the rivets being used
b. Diameter of the rivets being used
c. Thickness of the material being riveted
25. What is the material layer used within the
vacuum bag pressure system to absorb
excess resin during curing called?
a. Bleeder
b. Breather
c. Release
26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an
aircraft, the belt must conform to the
strength requirements in which
documents?
a. STC 1282
b. 14 CFR Part 39
c. TSO C22
27. What is one of the determining factors
which permit machine countersinking when
flush riveting?
a. Thickness of the material and rivet
diameter are the same
b. Thickness of the material is less than the
thickness of the rivet head
c. Thickness of the material is greater
than the thickness of the rivet head
28. When balsa wood is used to replace a
damaged honeycomb core, the plug should
be cut so that
a. The grain is parallel to the skin
b. It is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow
sufficient bonding material to be applied
c. The grain is perpendicular to the skin
29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are
not used because of their
a. Low strength characteristics
b. High alloy content
c. Tendency toward embrittlement when
subjected to vibration
30. Which rivet may be used as received
without further treatment?
a. 2024-T4
b. 2117-T3
c. 2017-T3
31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in
current standard category airplanes must
a. Be fireproof
b. Be at least flame resistant
c. Meet the requirements prescribed in
Part 43
32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets
should
a. Have the same radius as the rivet head
b. Have a slightly greater radius than the
rivet head
c. Be nearly flat on the end, with a slight
radius on the edge to prevent damage
to the sheet being riveted
33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet
dimeter is
a. Three times the thickness of the
materials to be joined
b. Two times the rivet length
c. Three times the thickness of the
thickest sheet
34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk
rivet which has
a. A shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding
head)
b. A shank length 5/32 inch (excluding
head)
c. An overall length of 5/16 inch
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35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface
abrasion, or rain erosion on fiberglass
laminates can generally be repaired by
applying
a. A piece of resin-impregnated glass
fabric facing
b. One or more coats of suitable resin
(room-temperature catalyzed) to the
surface
c. A sheet of polyethylene over the
abraded surface and one or more coats
of resin cured with infrared heat lamps
36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends
completely through one facing and into the
core
a. Cannot be repaired
b. Requires the replacement of the
damaged core and facing
c. Can be repaired by using a typical metal
facing patch
37. When straightening members made of
2024-T4, you should
a. Straighten cold and reinforce
b. Straighten cold and anneal to remove
stress
c. Apply heat to the inside of the bend
38. The classification for high tensile strength
fiberglass used in aircraft structure is
a. E-glass
b. S-glass
c. G-glass
39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the
lower surface of stressed skin metal wings
are usually
a. Not permitted
b. Permitted only if the damage does not
exceed 6 inches in any direction
c. Permitted but are normally more
critical in reference to strength in
tension than similar repairs to the
upper surface
40. Which is correct concerning the use of a
file?
a. Apply pressure on the forward stroke,
only, except when filing very soft
metals such as lead or aluminum
b. A smoother finish can be obtained by
using a double-cut file than by using a
single-cut file
c. The terms ’double-cut’ and ‘second-cut’
have the same meaning in reference to
files
41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a
stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud
diameter is measured in
a. Tenths of an inch
b. Hundredths of an inch
c. Sixteenths of an inch
42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series
that are not driven within the prescribed
time after heat treatment or removal from
refrigeration
a. Must be reheat treated before use
b. Must be discarded
c. May be returned to refrigeration and
used later without reheat treatment
43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3
aluminum sheet stock must have all
a. Bends made with a small radius to
develop maximum strength
b. Bends 90° to the grain
c. Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc.,
must be held to a minimum
44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite
composite structures
a. May be constructed of any of the metals
commonly used in aircraft fasteners
b. Must be constructed of material such
as titanium or corrosion resistant steel
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 c. Must be constructed of high strength b. Neutral line
aluminum-lithium alloy c. Bend radius
45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core 51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-
that must line up with the adjacent original lok rivets is accomplished by utilizing
is the a. Rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking
a. Cell side bar
b. Ribbon direction b. A pulling tool
c. Cell edge c. Ordinary hand tools
46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural 52. Which is an identifying characteristic of
members of a semi-monocoque fuselage acrylic plastics?
are called a. Zinc chloride will have no effect
a. Spars and ribs b. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed
b. Longerons and stringers from the edge
c. Spars and stringers c. Acetone will soften plastic, but will
47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used change its color
should have an included angle of 53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a
a. 90° and turn at a low speed piece of metal without critically weakening
b. 118° and turn at a high speed the part is called the
c. 140° and turn at a low speed a. Bend allowance
48. What is the minimum edge distance for b. Minimum radius of bend
aircraft rivets? c. Maximum radius of bend
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet 54. What is the most common method of
shank cementing transparent plastics?
b. Two times the diameter of the rivet a. Heat method
head b. Soak method
c. Three times the diameter of the rivet c. Bevel method
shank 55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel
49. The identifying marks on the heads of alloys?
aluminum alloy rivets indicate the a. 2024-aluminum
a. Degree of dimensional and process b. Mild steel
control observed during manufacture c. Monel
b. Head shape, shank size, material used, 56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic
and specifications adhered to during enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may
manufacture extend in a network over or under the
c. Specific alloy used in the manufacture surface or through the plastic, the plastic is
of the rivets said to be
50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain a. Hazing
radius. The curvature of the bend is b. Brinelling
referred to as the c. Crazing
a. Bend allowance
81
57. Which of the following drill bit types work
best when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©)
composite laminate?
a. Tool steel with standard grind
b. Diamond dust coated
c. Carbide W-point
58. The purpose of a joggle is to
a. Allow clearance for a sheet an
extrusion
b. Increase obstruction for a sheet or an
extrusion
c. Decrease the weight of the part and still
retain the necessary strength
59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017
and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat
treatment?
a. To accelerate age hardening
b. To relieve internal stresses
c. To retard age hardening
60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for
advanced composite wet lay-ups is
generally considered the best for strength?
a. 40:60
b. 50:50
c. 60:40
61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb
construction ae used on modern aircraft
because this type of construction
a. Has a high strength to weight ratio
b. May be repaired by gluing replacement
skin to the inner core material with
thermoplastic resin
c. Is lighter than single sheet skin of the
same strength and is more corrosion
resistant
62. Which statement is true regarding the
inspection of a stressed skin metal wing
assembly known to have been critically
loaded?
a. If rivets show no visible distortion,
further investigation is unnecessary
b. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet
shanks will be joggled
c. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred,
groups of consecutive rivet heads will
be tipped in the same direction
63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a
stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud
length is measured in
a. Hundredths of an inch
b. Tenths of an inch
c. Sixteenth of an inch
64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a
closed angle of 15° must be bent through
an angle of
a. 165°
b. 105°
c. 90°
65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset
plate used in the construction and repair of
aircraft structures?
a. To hold structural members in position
temporarily until the permanent
attachment has been completed
b. To provide access for inspection of
structural attachments
c. To join and reinforce intersecting
structural members
66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using
two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted
together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-
inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be
used will be
a. 5/32 inch
b. 3/16 inch
c. 5/16 inch
67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning
of the area to be repaired is essential for a
82
 good bond. The final cleaning should be
made using
a. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone)
b. Soap, water, and a scrub brush
c. A thixotropic agent
68. What type loads cause the most rivet
failures?
a. Shear
b. Bearing
c. Head
69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars,
engine supports, etc., which have been built
up from sheet metal, are normally
a. Repairable, using approved methods
b. Repairable, except when subjected to
compressive loads
c. Not repairable, but must be replaced
when damaged or deteriorated
70. Hole filling fasteners (for example,
MS20470 rivets) should not be used in
composite structures primarily because of
the
a. Possibility of causing delamination
b. Increased possibility of fretting
corrosion in the fastener
c. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head
71. When comparing the machining techniques
for stainless steel sheet material to those
for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally
considered good practice to drill the
stainless steel at a
a. Higher speed with less pressure applied
to the drill
b. Lower speed with more pressure
applied to the drill
c. Lower speed with less pressure applied
to the drill
72. How does acoustic emission testing detect
defects in composite materials?
a. By picking up the ‘noise’ of any
deterioration that may be present
b. By analyzing ultrasonic signals
transmitted into the parts being
inspected
c. By creating sonogram pictures of the
areas being inspected
73. One of the best ways to assure that a
properly prepared batch of matrix resin has
been achieved is to
a. Perform a chemical composition
analysis
b. Have mixed enough for a test sample
c. Test the viscosity of the resin
immediately after mixing
74. If no scratches are visible after transparent
plastic enclosure materials have been
cleaned, their surfaces should be
a. Polished with rubbing compound
applied with a damp cloth
b. Buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth
c. Covered with a thin coat of wax
75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin
will remain in a workable state is called the
a. Pot life
b. Shelf life
c. Service life
76. Which is considered good practice
concerning the installation of acrylic
plastics?
a. When nuts and bolts are used, the
plastic should be installed hot and
tightened to a firm fit before the plastic
cools
b. When rivets are used, adequate spacer
or other satisfactory means to prevent
excessive tightening of the frame to the
plastic should be provided
c. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used,
slotted holes are not recommended
83
77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is
indicated by the number
a. 2
b. 20
c. 24
78. How many of the following are benefits of
using microballoons when making repairs to
laminated honeycomb panels?
1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges
and corners
2. Improved strength to weight ratio
3. Less density
4. Lower stress concentrations
a. 2,3, and 4
b. 1,2 and 4
c. All of the above
79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
a. By the manufacturer and do not
require heat treatment before being
driven
b. By the manufacturer but require reheat
treatment before being driven
c. To a temperature of 910 to 930°F and
quenched in cold water
80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok
type fasteners over earlier generations is
that
a. They can be removed and reused again
b. The squeezed can be installed with
ordinary hand tools
c. They can be installed with ordinary
hand tools
81. The most important Factors needed to
make a flat pattern layout are
a. Radius, thickness, and mold line
b. Radius, thickness, and degree of bend
c. The lengths of the legs (flat sections)
82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb
can usually be made on damages less than
a. 4 inches in diameter
b. 2 inches in diameter
c. 1 inch in diameter
83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be
repaired by
a. Burnishing
b. Buffling
c. Stop drilling
84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on
the strength of
a. Longerons and formers
b. Skin or covering
c. Bulkheads and longerons
85. You can distinguish between aluminum and
aluminum alloy by
a. Filing the metal
b. Testing with an acetic solution.
c. Testing with a 10 percent solution of
caustic soda
86. When bending metal, the material on the
outside of the curve stretches while the
material on the inside of the curve
compresses. That part of the material which
is not affected by either stress is the
a. Mold line
b. Bend tangent line
c. Neutral line
87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be
required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using
a single row of rivets, minimum edge
distance and 4D spacing?
a. 56
b. 54
c. 52
88. When installing transparent plastic
enclosures which are retained by bolts
extending through the plastic material and
self-locking nuts, the nuts should be
a. Tightened to a firm fit, plus one full
turn.
84
 b. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off
one full turn
c. Tightened to a firm
89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a
metal faced laminated honeycomb panel,
the edges of the doubler should be tapered
to
a. Two times the thickness of the metal
b. 100 times the thickness of the metal
c. Whatever is desired for a neat, clean
Appearance
90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding
the first layer or play can be repaired by
a. filling with a putty consisting of a
compatible resin and clean, short glass
fibers.
b. Sanding the damaged area until
aerodynamic smoothness is obtained
c. Trimming the rough edges and sealing
with paint
91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction
have
a. Dimples
b. Smooth heads without markings
c. A raised dot
92. Composite fabric material is considered to
be the strongest in what direction?
a. Fill
b. Warp
c. Bias
93. The markings on the head of a Dzus
fastener identify the
a. Body diameter, type of head, and
length of the fastener
b. Body type, head diameter, and type of
material
c. Manufacturer and type of material
94. The strength and stiffness of a properly
constructed composite buildup depends
primarily on
a. A 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber
ratio
b. The orientation of the plies to the load
direction
c. The ability of the fibers to transfer
stress to the matrix
95. When riveting dissimilar metals together,
what precautions must be taken to prevent
an electrolytic action?
a. Treat the surfaces to be riveted
together with a process called anodic
treatment
b. Place a protective separator between
areas of potential electrical difference
c. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by
redesigning the unit according to the
recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-
1A
96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
a. Harden and increase strength
b. Relieve internal stresses
c. Soften to facilitate riveting
97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be
bent using minimum radius for the type and
thickness of material
a. The piece should be bent slowly to
eliminate cracking
b. The layout should be made so that the
bend will be 90° to the grain of the
sheet
c. Less pressure than usual should be
applied with the movable (upper)
clamping bar
98. Which of the following are generally
characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber
composites?
1. Flexibility
2. Stiffness
3. High compressive strength
85
 4. Corrosive effect in contact with
aluminum
5. Ability to conduct electricity
a. 1 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,3 and 5
99. The classification for fiberglass
reinforcement material that has high
resistivity and is the most common is
a. E-glass
b. S-glass
c. G-glass
100. When repairing large, flat surfaces with
polyester resins, warping of the surface is
likely to occur. One method of reducing the
amount of warpage is to
a. Add an extra amount of catalyst to the
resin
b. Use short strips of fiberglass in the
bonded repair
c. Use less catalyst than normal so the
repair will be more flexible
101. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would
indicate partial
a. Bearing failure
b. Torsion failure
c. Shear failure
102. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet
are
a. 1/8 inch in diameter and ¼ inch long
b. 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long
c. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long
103. When inspecting a composite panel using
the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud
may indicate
a. Less than full strength curing of the
matrix
b. Separation of the laminates
c. An area of too much matrix between
fiber layers
104. Which of the following, when added to wet
resins, provide strength for the repair of
damaged fastener holes in composite
panels?
1. Microballoons
2. Flox
3. Chapped fibers
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2, and 3
105. Which procedure is correct when using a
reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct
size?
a. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction
when enlarging the hole and in the
opposite direction to remove from the
hole
b. Turn the reamer only in the cutting
direction
c. Apply considerable pressure on the
reamer when starting the cut and reduce
the pressure when finishing the cut
106. Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque
fuselage prevents (s) tension and
compression from bending the fuselage?
a. The fuselage covering
b. Longerons and stringers
c. Bulkhead and skin
107. What is generally the best procedure to use
when removing a solid shank rivet?
a. Drill through the manufactured head and
shank with a shank size drill and remove
the rivet with a punch
b. Drill to the base of the manufactured
rivet head with a drill one size smaller
than the rivet shank and remove the
rivet with a punch
c. Drill through the manufactured head and
shank with a drill one size smaller than
86
 the rivet and remove the rivet with a
punch
108. What is the minimum edge distance
allowed for aluminum alloy single lap sheet
splices containing a single row of rivets as
compared to a joint with multiple rows, all
rivets being equal I diameter?
a. The minimum edge distance for the
single row is greater than that for the
multiple row
b. The minimum edge distance for the
single row is less than that for the
multiple row
c. The minimum edge distance for the
single row is equal to that for the
multiple row
109. When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full
shear strength is obtained
a. Only after a period of age hardening
b. By the cold working of the rivet metal in
forming a shop head
c. By heat treating just prior to being driven
110. A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to
repair a section of damaged aluminum skin.
If a double row of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the
minimum allowable overlap will be
a. ½ inch
b. ¾ inch
c. 13/16 inch
111. The length of rivet to be chosen when
making a structural repair that involves the
joining of 0.032-sheet, drilled with a No. 30
drill, is
a. 7/16 inch
b. 5/16 inch
c. ¼ inch
112. A sheet metal repair is to be made using
two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted
together. All rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-
inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be
used will be
a. 1/8 inch
b. ¼ inch
c. 5/16 inch
113. Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a
bend is the
a. Inside radius of the metal being formed
b. Inside radius plus one-half the thickness
of the metal being formed
c. Radius of the metal axis plus one-half the
thickness of the metal being formed
114. Which of the following need not be
considered when determining minimum
rivet spacing?
a. Rivet diameter
b. Rivet length
c. Type of material being riveted
115. The preferred way to make permanent
repairs on composites is by
a. Bonding on metal or cured composite
patches
b. Riveting on metal or cured composite
patches
c. Laminating on new repair plies
116. Which of these methods may be used to
inspect fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for
entrapped water?
1. Acoustic emission monitoring
2. X-ray
3. Backlighting
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
117. Which rivets should be selected to join two
sheets of .032-inch aluminum?
a. MS20425D-4-3
b. MS20470AD-4-4
c. MS20455DD-5-3

87
118. Select the alternative which best describes c. Three times the rivet diameter plus .096
the function of the flute section of a twist inch
drill 122. Rivet pitch is the distance between the
a. Provides a method for cooling oil to be a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
delivered to the cutting surface b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same
b. Forms the area where the drill bit row
attaches to the drill motor c. Heads of rivets in the same row
c. Forms the cutting edges of the drill 123. A category of plastic material that is capable
point of softening or flowing when reheated is
119. Which of the following are generally described as a
characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) a. Thermoplastic
composites? b. Thermocure
1. High tensile strength c. Thermoset
2. Flexibility 124. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium
3. Stiffness alloy structures?
4. Corrosive effect in contact with a. Mild steel
aluminum b. 5056 aluminum
5. Ability to conduct electricity c. Monel
a. 1 and 2 125. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is
b. 2, 3 and 4 generally accomplished by
c. 1, 3 and 5 1. Applying external heat
120. One method of inspecting a laminated 2. Room temperature exposure
fiberglass structure that has been subjected 3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the
to damage is to resin
a. Strip the damaged area of all paint and 4. Applying pressure
shine a strong light through the a. 2 and 3
structure b. 1 and 4
b. Use dye-penetrant inspection c. 1, 2, and 4
procedures, exposing the entire 126. The flat layout or blank length of a piece of
damaged area to the penetrant metal from which a simple L-shaped bracket
solution. 3 inches by 1 inch is to be bent depends
c. Use an eddy current probe on both upon the radius of the desired bend. The
sides of the damaged are bracket which will require the greatest
121. The length of a rivet to be used to join a amount of material is one which has a bend
sheet of .032- inch and .064-inch aluminum radius of
alloy should be equal to a. 1/8 inch
a. Two times the rivet diameter plus .064 b. ½ inch
inch c. ¼ inch
b. One and one-half times the rivet
diameter plus .096 inch
88
127. What reference tool is used to determine
how the fiber is to be oriented for a
particular ply of fabric?
a. Fill clock (or compass)
b. Bias clock (or compass)
c. Warp clock (or compass)
128. Repairing advanced composites using
materials and techniques traditionally used
for fiberglass repairs is likely to result in
a. Restored strength and flexibility
b. Improved wear resistance to the
structure
c. An unairworthy repair
129. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft
construction are usually hardened by which
method?
a. Cold-working
b. Aging
c. Heat treatment
130. The shop head of a rivet should be
a. One and one-half times the diameter of
the rivet shank
b. One-half times the diameter of the rivet
shank
c. One and one-half times the diameter of
the manufactured head of the rivet
131. Which part of 2024-T3 aluminum
alloy indicates the temper designation?
a. 20
b. 2024
c. T3
132. Which of the following is one
advantage of Hi-lok fasteners?
a. Shorter transition area etween the
shank and thread
b. External counterbore at the base to
accommodate material thickness
c. Inability to be over-torqued
133. On a semi monocoque fuselage, the
skin is reinforced by longitudinal structural
members called
a. Longerons and stringers
b. Beams and struts
c. Formers and bulkheads
TURBINE ENGINE
1. Turbine engine components exposed to high
temperatures generally may NOT be marked with
1. layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil.
a. 1,2, and 3.
b. 3 and 5.
c. 4and 5.
2. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed
inspection must be reinstalled in
a. a specified slot 1800 away.
b. a specified slot 900 away in the direction of
rotation.
c. the same slot.
3. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine
engine
a. is usually accomplished only at engine
overhaul.
b. should be performed parallel to the length
of the blade using smooth contours to
minimize stress points.
c. may sometimes be accomplished with the
engine installed, ordinarily using power
tools.
4. One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a
turbine engine is to
a. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases.
b. Center the fuel spray in the combustion
chamber.
c. Direct the flow of gases to strike the
turbine blades at the desired angle.
5. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet
engines are equipped with two-spool or split
compressors. When these engines are operated at
high altitudes, the
89

a. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed
as the compressor load decreases in the
lower density air.
b. throttle must be retarded to prevent over
speeding of the high-pressure rotor due to
the lower density air.
c. low-pressure rotor will decrease in speed as
the compressor load decreases in the lower
density air.
6. A gas turbine engine comprises which three
main sections?
a. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
b. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
c. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
7. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet
engine will cause the pressure in the first part of
the exhaust duct to
a. increase and the velocity to decrease.
b. increase and the velocity to increase.
c. decrease and the velocity to increase.
8. The compression ratio of an axial-flow
compressor is a function of the
a. number of compressor stages.
b. rotor diameter.
c. air inlet velocity.
9. The compression ratio of an axial-flow
compressor is a function of the
a. number of compressor stages.
b. rotor diameter.
c. air inlet velocity.
10. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff
EPR before its EGT limit is reached, this is an
indication that the
a. fuel control must be replaced.
b. EGT controller is out of adjustment.
c. compressor may be contaminated or
damaged.
11. Which turbine engine compressor offers the
greatest advantages for both starting flexibility and
improved high-altitude performance?
a. Dual-stage, centrifugal-flow.
b. Split-spool, axial-flow.
c. Single-spool, axial-flow.
12. Who establishes the recommended operating
time between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine
used in general aviation?
a. The engine manufacturer.
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data
and trend analysis) working in conjunction
with the FAA.
c. The FAA.
13. Which statements are true regarding aircraft
engine propulsion?
1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively
small amount of
acceleration to a large mass of air.
2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a
relatively large amount of
acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent
of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines
to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest
providing exhaust thrust.
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2
c. 1.3
14. Continued and/or excessive heat and
centrifugal force on turbine engine rotor blades is
likely to cause
a. profile.
b. creep.
c. galling.
15. The procedure for removing the accumulation
of dirt deposits on compressor blades is called
a. the soak method.
b. field cleaning.
c. the purging process.
16. The stators in the turbine section of a gas
turbine engine
a. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
b. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
c. increase the pressure of the gas flow.
17. What is the first engine instrument indication of
a successful start of a turbine engine?
a. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
b. A rise in oil pressure.
c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
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18. n what section of a turbojet engine is the jet
nozzle located?
a. Combustion.
b. Turbine.
c. Exhaust.
19. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine
airborne particulates into a turbine engine can
result in
a. foreign object damage to the compressor
section.
b. the need for less frequent abrasive grit
cleaning of the engine.
c. erosion damage to the compressor and
turbine sections.
20. What turbine engine section provides for
proper mixing of the fuel and air?
a. Combustion section.
b. Compressor section.
c. Diffuser section.
21. Which two elements make up the axial-flow
compressor assembly?
a. Rotor and stator.
b. Compressor and manifold.
c. Stator and diffuser.
22. Three types of turbine blades are
a. reaction, converging, and diverging.
b. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.
c. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
23. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the
beginning stages of the compressor, in an aircraft
gas turbine engine is to
a. vent some of the air overboard to prevent
a compressor stall.
b. control excessively high RPM to prevent a
compressor stall.
c. vent high ram air pressure overboard to
prevent a compressor stall.
24. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its
a. low starting power requirements.
b. low weight.
c. high peak efficiency.
25. Who establishes mandatory replacement times
for critical components of turbine engines?
a. The FAA.
b. The operator working in conjunction with
the FAA.
c. The engine manufacturer.
26. What type igniter plug is used in the low
tension ignition system of an aircraft turbofan
engine?
a. Low voltage, high amperage glow plug.
b. Self-ionizing or shunted-gap type plug.
c. Recessed surface gap plug.
27. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a
convergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains constant.
28. When starting a turbine engine,
a. a hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas
temperature exceeds specified limits.
b. an excessively lean mixture is likely to
cause a hot start.
c. release the starter switch as soon as
indication of light-off occurs.
29. Hot section inspections for many modern
turbine engines are required
a. only at engine overhaul.
b. only when an over temperature or over
speed has occurred.
c. on a time or cycle basis.
30. What are the two functional elements in a
centrifugal compressor?
a. Turbine and compressor.
b. Bucket and expander.
c. Impeller and diffuser.
31. Hot spots in the combustion section of a
turbojet engine are possible indicators of
a. faulty igniter plugs.
b. dirty compressor blades.
c. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
32. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve
the efficiency of a turbojet engine?
a. More turbine wheels can be used.
b. Higher compression ratios can be
obtained.
c. The velocity of the air entering the
combustion chamber is increased.
33. (1) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor,
each consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades
constitutes a pressure stage.
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(2) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, the
number of rows of stages is determined by the
amount of air and total pressure rise required.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
34. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two
main sections: the cold section and the hot section.
(1) The cold section includes the engine inlet,
compressor, and turbine sections.
(2) The hot section includes the combustor,
diffuser, and exhaust sections.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 ¡s true.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
35. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains
constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades
can be changed by
a. changing the velocity of the airflow.
b. changing the compressor diameter.
c. increasing the pressure ratio.
36. Which of the following factors affect the
thermal efficiency of a turbine engine?
1. Turbine inlet temperature.
2. Compression ratio.
3. Ambient temperature.
4. Speed of the aircraft.
5. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
6. Altitude of the aircraft.
a. 3, 4, 6.
b. 1,2,5.
c. 1.2.6.
37. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows
through a divergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. is inversely proportional to the
temperature.
38. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear
on turbine blades?
a. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir
tree.
b. Along the leading edge, parallel to the
edge.
c. Across the leading or trailing edge at a
right angle to the edge length.
39. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a
constant
a. volume.
b. pressure.
c. density.
40. What is meant by a double entry centrifugal
compressor?
a. A compressor that has two intakes.
b. A two-stage compressor independently
connected to the main shaft.
c. A compressor with vanes on both sides of
the impeller.
41.The pressure of supersonic air as it flows
through a divergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. is inversely proportional to the
temperature.
42. What is the proper starting sequence for a
turbojet engine?
a. Ignition, starter, fuel.
b. Starter, ignition, fuel.
c. Starter, fuel, ignition.
43. Which of the following types of combustion
sections are used in aircraft turbine engines?
a. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
b. Can, multiple-can, and variable.
c. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.
44.Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the
starter should be disengaged
a. after the engine has reached self-
accelerating speed.
b. only after the engine has reached full idle
RPM.
c. when the ignition and fuel system are
activated.
45.In which type of turbine engine combustion
chamber is the case and liner removed and
installed as one unit during routine maintenance?
a. Can.
b. Can annular.
c. Annular.
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46.What is the function of the stator vane
assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial-
flow compressor?
a. To straighten airflow to eliminate
turbulence.
b. To direct the flow of gases into the
combustion chambers.
c. To increase air swirling motion into the
combustion chambers.
47. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas
turbine engines identify turbine discharge pressure
in their maintenance manuals as
a. Pt7.
b. Pt2.
c. Tt7.
48. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is
performed primarily in order to
a. prevent engine oil contamination and
subsequent engine bearing wear or
damage.
b. facilitate flight line inspection of engine
inlet and compressor areas for defects or
FOD.
c. prevent engine performance degradation,
increased fuel costs, and damage or
corrosion to gas path surfaces.
49. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the
standard sea level temperature is
a. 59°F
b. 59°C.
c. 29°C.
50. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine
engines are usually what type(s)?
a. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
b. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
51. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine
are possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel
nozzle or
a. a faulty combustion chamber.
b. a faulty igniter plug.
c. an improperly positioned tail cone.
52. What should be done initially if a turbine
engine catches fire when starting?
a. Turn off the fuel and continue engine
rotation with the starter.
b. Continue engine start rotation and
discharge a fire extinguisher into the
intake.
c. Continue starting attempt in order to blow
out the fire.
53. What is the possible cause when a turbine
engine indicates no change in power setting
parameters, but oil temperature is high?
a. High scavenge pump oil flow.
b. Engine main bearing distress.
c. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine
efficiency.
54. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor
a. convert velocity energy into pressure
energy.
b. convert pressure energy into velocity
energy.
c. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at
the proper angle.
55. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the
upstream side of each turbine wheel are used in
the gas turbine engine to
a. decrease the velocity of the heated gases
flowing past this point.
b. direct the flow of gases parallel to the
vertical line of the turbine blades.
c. increase the velocity of the heated gases
flowing past this point.
56. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine
engine is accomplished in order to
a. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the
case contracts around it.
b. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control
and/or fuel lines.
c. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
57. What is meant by a shrouded turbine?
a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their
ends form a band or shroud.
b. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a
protective shroud to contain the blades in
case of failure.
c. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct
which provides cooling air to the turbine
blades.
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58. What is used in turbine engines to aid in
stabilization of compressor airflow during low
thrust engine operation?
a. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
b. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor
bleed valves.
c. Pressurization and dump valves.
59. In a turbine engine with a dual-spool
compressor, the low speed compressor
a. always turns at the same speed as the high
speed compressor.
b. is connected directly to the high speed
compressor.
c. seeks its own best operating speed.
60. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet
engine?
a. At the outlet of the tailpipe section.
b. At the entrance of the turbine section.
c. In the entrance of the burner section.
61. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades
of an axial-flow engine is to
a. reduce vibration.
b. increase tip speed.
c. reduce air entrance.
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade
shingling in a turbofan engine?
1. Engine over speed.
2. Engine over temperature.
3. Large, rapid throttle movements.
4. FOD.
a. 1,2
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 1,4.
63. What term is used to describe a permanent and
cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of a
turbojet engine?
a. Stretch.
b. Distortion.
c. Creep.
64. What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow
compressor over a centrifugal compressor?
a. High frontal area.
b. Less expensive.
c. Greater pressure ratio.
65.In a dual axial-flow compressor, the first stage
turbine drives
a. N(2) compressor.
b. N(1) compressor.
c. low pressure compressor.
66. Between each row of rotating blades in a
turbine engine compressor, there is a row of
stationary blades which act to diffuse the air. These
stationary blades are called
a. buckets.
b. rotors.
c. stators.
67. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils
in an aircraft gas turbine engine, are called
a. pressurization vanes.
b. stator vanes.
c. bleed vanes.
68. Standard seal level pressure is
a. 29.00” Hg.
b. 29.29” Hg.
c. 29.92” Hg.
69. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor
blades will usually cause
a. bowing.
b. cracking.
c. galling.
70. What is the function of the inlet guide vane
assembly on an axial-flow compressor?
a. Directs the air into the first stage rotor
blades at the proper angle.
b. Converts velocity energy into pressure
energy.
c. Converts pressure energy into velocity
energy.
71. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
a. fir-tree blade attachment.
b. impulse type blades.
c. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
72. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly
accomplished by
a. electrical heating elements inside the inlet
guide vanes.
b. engine bleed air ducted through the
critical areas.
c. electrical heating elements located within
the engine air inlet cowling.
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73. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into
the compressor of a turbine engine will form a
coating on all but which of the following?
a. Turbine blades.
b. Casings.
c. Inlet guide vanes.
74. A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal
airflow through a turbine engine may result in
a. a rich flameout.
b. a lean die-out.
c. high EGT.
75. Newton’s Law of Motion, generally termed the
“Law of Momentum,” states:
a. Acceleration is produced when a force acts
on a mass. The greater the mass, the
greater the amount of force needed.
b. For every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction.
c. Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of
motion in a straight line, unless acted upon
by some outside force.
76. In an axial-flow compressor, one purpose of the
stator vanes at the discharge end of the
compressor is to
a. straighten the airflow and eliminate
turbulence.
b. increase the velocity and prevent swirling
and eddying.
c. decrease the velocity, prevent swirling, and
decrease pressure.
77. What is the primary factor which controls the
pressure ratio of an axial-flow compressor?
a. Number of stages in compressor.
b. Compressor inlet pressure.
c. Compressor inlet temperature.
78. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a
turbine engine is to
a. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise
suppressor.
b. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a
single exhaust jet.
c. straighten and collect the exhaust gases
into a solid exhaust jet.
79. What is the profile of a turbine engine
compressor blade?
a. The leading edge of the blade.
b. A reduced blade tip thickness.
c. The curvature of the blade root.
80. Which of the following variables affect the inlet
air density of a turbine engine?
1. Speed of the aircraft.
2. Compression ratio.
3. Turbine inlet temperature.
4. Altitude of the aircraft.
5. Ambient temperature.
6. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
a. 1,3,6.
b. 1,4,5.
c. 4. 5. 6.
81. A turbine engine hot section is particularly
susceptible to which kind of damage?
a. Scoring.
b. Cracking.
c. Galling.
82. What type of turbine blade is most commonly
used in aircraft jet engines?
a. Reaction.
b. Impulse.
c. Impulse-reaction.
83. The two types of centrifugal compressor
impellers are
a. single entry and double entry.
b. rotor and stator.
c. impeller and diffuser.
84. Newton’s First Law of Motion, generally termed
the Law of Inertia, states:
a. To every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction.
b. Force is proportional to the product of mass
and acceleration.
c. Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of
motion in a straight line, unless acted upon
by some outside force.
85. The turbine section of a jet engine
a. increases air velocity to generate thrust
forces.
b. utilizes heat energy to expand and
accelerate the incoming gas flow.
c. drives the compressor section.
86. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial
compressor forward fan engine is the same as the
a. low-pressure compressor.
95
 b. forward turbine wheel.
c. high-pressure compressor.
87. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant
a. pressure cycle.
b. temperature cycle.
c. mass cycle.
88. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on
aircraft gas turbine engines?
a. The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzles
and the manifolds are drained preventing
fuel boiling off as a result of residual
engine heat.
b. The valve controls compressor stall by
dumping compressor bleed air from the
compressor discharge port under certain
conditions.
c. Maintains minimum fuel pressure to the
engine fuel control unit inlet and dumps
excessive fuel back to the inlet of the
engine-driven fuel pump.
89. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is
indicated if the engine
a. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified
limits.
b. fails to reach idle RPM.
c. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
90. The abbreviation Pt7 used in turbine engine
terminology means
a. the total inlet pressure.
b. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
c. the total pressure at station No. 7.
91. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine
blade is found to have stress rupture cracks, which
of the following should be suspected?
a. Faulty cooling shield.
b. Over temperature condition.
c. Overspeed condition.
92. What are the two basic elements of the
turbine section in a turbine engine?
a. Impeller and diffuser.
b. Hot and cold.
c. Stator and rotor.
93. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet
engine is the
a. burner cans.
b. turbine inlet guide vanes.
c. turbine blades.
94. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to
excessive heat stress, what type of failures would
you expect?
a. Bending and torsion.
b. Torsion and tension.
c. Stress rupture.
95. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through
a convergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains constant.
96. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a
turbine engine?
a. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
b. To convert pressure to velocity.
c. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
97. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting
factor of turbine engine operation?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Turbine inlet temperature.
c. Burner-can pressure.
98. In the dual axial-flow or twin spoil compressor
system, the first stage turbine drives the
a. N(1) and N(2) compressors.
b. N(2) compressor.
c. N(1) compressor.
99. Which of the following engine variables is the
most critical during turbine engine operation?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Compressor RPM.
c. Turbine inlet temperature.
100. (1) Welding and straightening of turbine
engine rotating airfoils does not require special
equipment.
(2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine
rotating airfoils is commonly recommended by the
manufacturer.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
101. What is the major function of the turbine
assembly in a turbojet engine?
96
 a. Directs the gases in the proper direction to
the tailpipe.
b. Supplies the power to turn the
compressor.
c. Increases the temperature of the exhaust
gases.
102. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible
to operating damage than compressor blades
because of
a. higher centrifugal loading.
b. exposure to high temperatures.
c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
103. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or
roller bearings are found to have magnetism but
otherwise have no defects, they
a. cannot be used again.
b. are in an acceptable service condition.
c. must be degaussed before use.
104. Stator blades in the compressor section of an
axial-flow turbine engine
a. increase the air velocity and prevent
swirling.
b. straighten the airflow and accelerate it.
c. decrease the air velocity and prevent
swirling.
105. What must be done after the fuel control unit
has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine
engine?
a. Perform a full power engine run to check
fuel flow.
b. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
c. Retrim the engine.
106. The air passing through the combustion
chamber of a turbine engine is
a. used to support combustion and to cool
the engine.
b. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
c. speeded up and heated by the action of
the turbines.
107. During inspection, turbine engine components
exposed to high temperatures may only be marked
with such materials as allowed by the
manufacturer. These materials generally include
1. layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil.
a. 1, 2, and 4.
b. 1, 3, and 4.
c. 2.4. and 5.
108. What is one purpose of the stator blades in
the compressor section of a turbine engine?
a. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
b. Control the direction of the airflow.
c. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
109. Why do some turbine engines have more than
one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
a. To facilitate balancing of the turbine
assembly.
b. To help stabilize the pressure between the
compressor and the turbine.
c. To extract more power from the exhaust
gases than a single wheel can absorb.
110. Which of the following influences the
operation of an automatic fuel control unit on a
turbojet engine?
a. Burner pressure.
b. Mixture control position.
c. Exhaust gas temperature.
111. (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the
compressor of a turbojet engine reduces
aerodynamic efficiency of the blades.
(2) Two common methods for removing dirt
deposits from turbojet engine compressor blades
are a fluid wash and an abrasive grit blast.
Regarding the above statements
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
112. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located
between
a. the burner section and the turbine section.
b. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
c. the compressor section and the burner
section.
113. The compressor stators in a gas turbine
engine act as diffusers to
a. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
b. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
c. increase the velocity and decrease the
pressure of the gas.
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114. Which statement is true regarding jet
engines?
a. At the lower engine speeds, thrust
increases rapidly with small increases in
RPM.
b. At the higher engine speeds, thrust
increases rapidly with small increases in
RPM.
c. The thrust delivered per pound of air
consumed is less at high altitude than at
low altitude.
115. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is
designed to
a. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust
gases.
b. increase temperature, therefore increasing
velocity.
c. decrease temperature, therefore
decreasing pressure.
116. A turbine engine compressor which contains
vanes on both sides of the impeller is a
a. double entry centrifugal compressor.
b. double entry axial-flow compressor.
c. single entry axial-flow compressor.
117. condition known as ‘hot streaking’ in turbine
engines is caused by
a. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.
b. a misaligned combustion liner.
c. excessive fuel flow.
118. An advantage of the centrifugal-flow
compressor is its high
a. pressure rise per stage.
b. ram efficiency.
c. peak efficiency.
119. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas
pressures the greatest?
a. Compressor inlet.
b. Turbine outlet.
c. Compressor outlet.
120. At what point in an axial-flow turbojet engine
will the highest gas pressures occur?
a. At the turbine entrance.
b. Within the burner section.
c. At the compressor outlet.
121. Compressor stall is caused by
a. A low angle of attack airflow through the
first stages of compression
b. A high angle of attack airflow through the
first stages of compression
c. Rapid engine deceleration
122. Which of the following is a good indication of
a malfunctioning fuel nozzle when inspecting the
exhaust section of an aircraft turbine engine?
a. Buckling of the combustion liner
b. Hotspots on the tail cone
c. Carbon build-up in the exhaust
WELDING
1. In gas welding, the amount of heat applied
to the material being welded is controlled
by the
a. Amount of gas pressure used
b. Size of the tip opening
c. Distance the tip is held from the work
2. Where should the flux be applied when
oxyacetylene welding aluminum?
a. Painted only on the surface to be
welded
b. Painted on the surface to be welded
and applied to the welding rod
c. Applied only to the welding rod
3. A welding torch backfire may be caused by
a. A loose tip
b. Using too much acetylene
c. A tip temperature that is too cool
4. If too much acetylene is used in the welding
of stainless steel
a. A porous weld will result
b. The metal will absorb carbon and lose
its resistance to corrosion
c. Oxide will be formed on the base metal
close to the weld
5. The shielding gases generally used in the
Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of
aluminum consists of
a. a mixture of nitrogen and carbon
dioxide
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 b. nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of c. Look for evidence of excessive heat in
nitrogen and hydrogen the form of a very high bead
c. helium or argon, or a mixture of helium 11. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding , a
and argon stream of inert gas is used to
6. Cylinders used to prevent to transport and a. Prevent the formation of oxides in the
store acetylene puddle
a. are pressure tested to 3,000 PSI b. Concentrate the heat of the arc and
b. are green in color prevent its dissipation
c. contain acetone c. Lower the temperature required to
7. Which of the following can normally be properly fuse the metal
welded without adversely affecting 12. The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum
strength? welding should
1. Aircraft bolts a. Be neutral and soft
2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing b. Be slightly oxidizing
3. Spring steel struts c. Contain an excess of acetylene and
4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy leave the tip at a relatively low speed
components 13. High pressure cylinders used to transport
a. 2 and 4 and store acetylene must
b. 1 and 3 a. Be pressure tested to 3,000 PSI
c. 2 b. Be green in color
8. Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made c. Contain acetone
of 14. How should a welding torch flame be
a. Seamless aluminum adjusted to weld stainless steel?
b. Steel a. Slightly carburizing
c. Bronze b. Slightly oxidizing
9. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or c. Neutral
metals are hot. It is important, therefore, 15. Which statement concerning soldering is
when welding aluminum to use a correct?
a. Solvent a. Joints in electric wire to be soldered
b. Filler should be mechanically secure prior to
c. Flux soldering
10. When a butt welded joint is visually b. Changeable shades of blue can be
inspected for penetration observed on the surface of a copper
a. The penetration should be 25 to 50 soldering tip when the proper
percent of the thickness of the base temperature for soldering has been
metal reached
b. The penetration should be 100 c. If the soldering temperature is too high,
percent of the thickness of the base the solder will form in lumps and not
metal produce a positive bond

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16. The most important consideration (s) when
selecting welding rod is
a. Current setting or flame temperature
b. Material compatibility
c. Ambient conditions
17. In selecting a torch tip size to use in
welding, the size of the tip opening
determines the
a. Amount of heat applied the work
b. Temperature of the flame
c. Melting point of the filler metal
18. Engine mount members should preferably
be repaired by using a
a. Larger diameter tube with fishmouth
and no rosette welds
b. Larger diameter tube with fishmouth
and rosette welds
c. Smaller diameter tube with fishmouth
and rosette welds
19. A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering
copper is undesirable because it will
a. Transfer too much heat to the work
b. Have tendency to overheat and become
brittle
c. Cool too rapidly
20. What method of repair is recommended for
a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster
a. Welded split sleeve
b. Welded outer sleeve
c. Welded patch plate
21. Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI is
a. Dangerously unstable
b. Used when a reducing flame is
necessary
c. Usually necessary when welding metal
over 3/8-imch thick
22. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering
should be
a. Oxidizing
b. Neutral
c. Carburizing
23. Which statement concerning a welding
process is true?
a. The inert-arc welding process uses an
inert gas to protect the weld zone from
the atmosphere
b. In the metallic-arc welding process, filler
material, if needed, is provided by a
separate metal tool of the proper
material held in the arc
c. In the oxyacetylene welding process,
the filler rod used for steel is covered
with a thin coating of flux
24. Welding over brazed or soldered joint is
a. Not permitted
b. Permissible for mild steel
c. Permissible for most metals or alloys
that are not heat treated
25. Why should a carburizing flame be avoided
when welding steel?
a. It removes the carbon content
b. It hardens the surface
c. A cold weld will result
26. Which statement best describes magnesium
welding?
a. Magnesium can be welded to other
metals
b. Filler rod should be nickel-steel
c. Filler rod should be the same
composition as a base metal
27. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver
soldering operations?
a. To chemically clean the base metal of
oxide film
b. To prevent overheating of the base
metal
c. To increase heat conductivity
28. Edge notching is generally recommended in
butt welding above a certain thickness of
aluminum because it
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 a. Helps hold the metal in alignment
during welding
b. Aids in the removal or penetration of
oxides o the metal surface
c. Aids in getting full penetration of the
metal and prevents local distortion
29. Filing or grinding a weld bead is considered
to be
a. An acceptable means t7o achieve a
smoother surface
b. A way to bring about strength
reduction in joint
c. Frequently necessary to avoid adding
excess weight to a weld joint
30. What purpose does flux serve in welding
aluminum?
a. Removes dirt, grease, and oil
b. Minimizes or prevents oxidation
c. Ensures proper distribution
31. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used
effectively until after the working face has
been
a. Fluxed
b. Polished
c. Tinned
32. Which statement is true in regard to
welding heat-treated magnesium?
a. The welded section does not have the
strength of the original metal
b. Flux should not be used because it is
very difficult to remove and is likely to
cause corrosion
c. Magnesium cannot be repaired by
fusion welding because of the high
probability of igniting the metal
33. Annealing of aluminum
a. Increases the tensile strength
b. Makes the material brittle
c. Removes stresses caused by forming
34. Why are aluminum plates ¼ inch or more
thick usually preheated before welding?
a. Reduces internal stresses and assures
more complete penetration
b. Reduces welding time
c. Prevents corrosion and ensures proper
distribution of flux
35. High-pressure cylinders used to transport
and store acetylene must
a. Be pressure tested to 3,000 psi
b. Contain acetone
c. Be green in color
36. When welding or cutting, the acetylene
pressure gauge should never be set higher
than
a. 20 psi
b. 25 psi
c. 15 psi
37. When selecting a welding rod, one of the
most important factors to consider is to
ensure that
a. Ferrous rods are used on aluminum
b. Nonferrous rods are used on steel
c. The proper AMS specification
number is used
WOOD STRUCTURES
1. Where is information found concerning
acceptable species substitutions for wood
materials used in aircraft repair?
a. Aircraft Specifications or Type
Certificate Data Sheets
b. AC 43.13-1B
c. Technical Standard Order
2. Which of the following conditions will
determine acceptance of wood with
mineral streaks?
a. They produce only a small effect on
grain direction
b. Careful Inspection fails to reveal any
decay
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 c. Local irregularities do not exceed
limitations specified for spiral and
diagonal grain
3. Compression failures in wood aircraft
structures are characterized by buckling of
the fibers that appear as streaks on the
surface
a. At right angles to the growth rings
b. Parallel to the grain
c. At right angles to the grain
4. Any wooden member that has been
overstressed is subjected to which type of
failure?
a. Bond failure
b. Compression failure
c. Finish failure
5. The cantilever wing uses
a. External struts or wire bracing
b. No external bracing
c. The skin to carry most of the load to the
wing butt
6. Which statement concerning wood decay is
correct?
a. Decay that appears to be mineral
streaks is acceptable
b. A limited amount of decay along the
beveled edges of unrouted beams is
acceptable
c. Any form or amount of decay is not
permitted
7. A faint line running across the grain of a
wood spar generally indicates
a. Compression failure
b. Shear failure
c. Decay
8. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood
spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,
a. It is permissible to ream the hole, plug
with hardwood, and redrill
b. The spar may be reinforced by using
hardwood reinforcing plates
c. A new section of spar should be spliced
in or the spar replaced entirely
9. The strength of a well-designed and
properly prepared wood splice joint is
provided by the
a. Bearing surface of the wood fibers
b. Glue
c. Reinforcement plates
10. When patching a plywood skin, abrupt
changes in cross-sectional areas which will
develop dangerous stress concentration
should be avoided by using
a. Circular or elliptical patches
b. Square patches
c. Doublers with any desired shaped
patches
11. Laminated wood spars may be substituted
for solid rectangular wood spars
a. Only in certain instances where the
primary load is shared by one or more
other original structural member
b. If the same quality wood is used in
both
c. Only upon specific approval by the
manufacturer or the FAA
12. Laminated wood is sometimes used in the
construction of highly stressed aircraft
components. This wood can be identified by
its
a. Parallel grain construction
b. Similarity to standard plywood
construction
c. Perpendicular grain construction
13. Glue deterioration in wood aircraft
structure is indicated
a. When a joint has separated and the
glue surface shows only the imprint of
the wood with no wood fibers clinging
to the glue
b. When a joint has separated and the glue
surface shows pieces of wood and/or
wood fibers clinging to the glue
c. By any joint separation
14. The I-beam wooden spar is routed to
a. Increase strength
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 b. Obtain uniform strength
c. Reduce weight
15. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood
aircraft structure provided
a. They produced a small effect on grain
direction
b. They have no mineral streaks
c. No pitch pockets are within 12 inches
16. Which statement about wood decay is
correct?
a. Decay that occurs before the wood is
seasoned does not affect the strength of
the finished piece
b. A limited amount of certain kinds of
decay is acceptable in aircraft woods
since decay affects the binding between
the fibers and not the fibers themselves
c. Decay is not acceptable in any form or
amount

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