Test-1 - 31 Dec., - Final

FULL LENGTH TESTS
TEST-1
DATE: 31 DEC., 2023
M.M.: 720 TIME: 3 : 20 Hrs.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Duration of test is 3 hours 20 minutes and questions paper contains 200 questions (Phy. 50,
Chem. 50 and Bot. 50 and Zoo. 50). The max. marks are 720. So the total number of question
and utilization of time will remain the same.
2. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and section B
will have 15 questions, out of these 15 question, candidates can choose to attempt any 10
questions. So the total number of question and utilization of time will remain the same.
3. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or
the centre in charge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensures that it contains all the pages and that no
question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. Use blue or black ball point pen only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened.
“A Little Progress Each Day

Adds Up To Big Results”
1
PHYSICS SECTION - A 4. A particle moves so that its position vector

1. A physical quantity z depends on four is given by r  cos txˆ  sin tyˆ. Where  is
2
a constant. Which of the following is true?
a 2b 3
observables a, b, c and d, as z  . The (a) Velocity and acceleration both are
cd 3
perpendicular to r
percentages of error in the measurement of
(b) Velocity and acceleration both are
a, b, c and d are 2%, 1.5%, 4% and 2.5%
parallel to r
respectively. The percentage of error in z
(c) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
is:
acceleration is directed towards the origin
(a) 12.25% (b) 16.5% (d) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
(c) 13.5% (d) 14.5% acceleration is directed away from the origin
2. The fig given shows the time-displacement 5. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to
curve of two particles P and Q. Which of just hold a block stationary against a wall.
the following statement is correct? The coefficient of friction between the
block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the
block is
(a) Both P and Q move with uniform equal

speed
(b) P is accelerated Q is retarded (a) 20 N (b) 50 N
(c) Both P and Q move with uniform (c) 100 N (d) 2 N
speeds but the speed of P is more than the 6. A car moves at speed of 20 ms-1 on a
speed of Q banked track and describes an arc of a
(d) Both P and Q move with uniform circle of radius 40 3 m. The angle of
speeds but the speed of Q is more than the
banking is (g = 10 ms-2)
speed of P.
(a) 25o (b) 60o
3. Centripetal acceleration is
(c) 45o (d) 30o
(a) a constant vector
7. In the given figure, the block of mass m is
(b) a constant scalar
dropped from the point „A‟. The expression
(c) a magnitude changing vector
for kinetic energy of block when it reaches
(d) not a constant vector
point „B‟ is:
ADD- C2/30A, GROUND FLOOR , SERVICE LANE , YAMUNA VIHAR , DELHI -110053, MOBILE NO- 8448459294, 7011427765
2
(a) m1 = m3 (b) m2 = m4
(c) m1 = m2 (d) m3 = m4
10. A uniform thin rod AB of length L has
bx
linear mass density  ( x)  a  , where x
L
is measured from A. If the CM of the rod lies at
7
a distance of   L from A, then a and b are
 12 
related as:
(a) a = 2b (b) 2a = b
(c) a = b (d) 3a = 2b
11. M.I of a circular loop of radius R about the
axis in figure is
8. A particle of mass „m‟ tied to a string of

length „ ’ and whirled in a horizontal circle. If
the particles moves in circle with speed ‘v’ (a) MR2 (b) (3/4)MR2
then the net force on the particle will be (T = (c) MR2/2 (d) 2MR2
tensaion in the string) 12. Two discs of same moment of inertia
mv 2 mv 2 rotating about their regular axis passing
(a) T  (b) T 
l r through centre and perpendicular to the
(c) T (d) zero plane of disc with angular velocities
9. Four particles of masses m1,m2,m3 and m4 1 and 2 . They are brought into contact face
are placed at the vertices A, B, C and D as to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
respectively of a square shown. The COM expression for loss of energy during this
of the system will lie at diagonal AC if process is: Ans.A
DD- C2/30A, GROUND FLOOR , SERVICE LANE , YAMUNA VIHAR , DELHI -110053, MOBILE NO- 8448459294, 7011427765
3
13. The figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit 16. An air bubble of negligible weight having
around the sun S. Where is the kinetic radius r rises steadily through a solution of
energy of the planet maximum? density  at speed v. The coefficient of
viscosity of the solution is given by:
(a) P1 (b) P2
(c) P3 (d) P4
14. The variation of acceleration due to gravity 17. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of
(g) with distance (r) from the center of the copper, mercury and glass are respectively
earth is correctly represented by: Kc, Km and Kg such that Kc > Km > Kg. If
(Given R = radius of earth) the same quantity of heat is to flow per sec
per unit area of each and corresponding
temperature gradients are Xc, Xm and Xg
then
(a) Xc = Xm = Xg (b) Xc > Xm > Xg
(c) Xc < Xm < Xg (d) Xm < Xc < Xg
18. n moles of an ideal gas with constant
volume heat capacity CV undergo an
15. The stress-strain graph for a metal wire is isobaric expansion by certain volume. The
as shown in the figure. In the graph, the ratio of the work done in the process, to the
region in which Hooke's law is obeyed, the heat supplied is:
ultimate strength and fracture points are nR nR
(a) (b)
represented by Cv  nR Cv  nR
4nR 4nR
(c) (d)
Cv  nR Cv  nR
19. For an ideal gas graph is shown for three
processes. Process 1, 2 and 3 are
respectively
(a) OA, C, D (b) OB, D, E

(c) OA, D, E (d) OB, C, D
4
harmonic motion, over one period, then the
correct relation is
(a) < E > = 
(b) < E > = 2 
(c) < E > = - 2 
(d) < E > = - 
23. The rate of transfer of energy in a wave
(a) Isobaric, adiabatic, isochoric depends
(b) Adiabatic, isobaric, isochoric (a) directly on the square of the wave
(c) Isochoric, adiabatic, isobaric amplitude and square of the wave
(d) Isochoric, isobaric, adiabatic frequency
20. A gas is enclosed in a cube of side l. What (b) directly on the square of the wave
will be the change in momentum of the amplitude and root of the wave frequency
molecule, if it suffers an elastic collision (c) directly on the wave amplitude and
with the plane wall parallel to yz-plane and square of the wave frequency
rebounds with the same velocity? (d) none of these
[(Vx, Vy & Vz) initial velocities of the gas 24. Two pulses in a stretched string whose
molecules] centres are initially 8 cm apart are moving
(a) mvx (b) zero towards each other as shown in the figure.
(c) –mvx (d) -2mvx. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2
21. A particle starts with S.H.M. from the mean s, the total energy of the pulses will be
position as shown in figure below. Its
amplitude is A and its time period is T. At
one time, its speed is half that of the
maximum speed. What is the displacement
at that time? (a) Zero
(b) Purely kinetic
2A 3A (c) Purely potential
(a) (b)
3 2 (d) Partly kinetic and partly potential
2A 3A 25. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental
(c) (d)
3 2 frequencies of there segments into which a
22. If < E > and denote the average string is divided, then the original
kinetic and the average potential energies fundamental frequency in of the string is
respectively of mass describing a simple given by
5
(a) maximum at B
(b) maximum at C
(c) same at all the three points A, B and C
(d) maximum at A
29. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure.
Then the electric field strength will be
26. The force of repulsion between two

electrons at a certain distance is F. The
force between two protons separated by the
same distance is (mp = 1836 me) (a) 100 Vm-1 along X-axis
(a) 2F ((b) F (b) 100 Vm-1 along Y-axis
(c) 1836 F (d)
F (c) 200 Vm-1 at an angle 120o with X-axis
1836 (d) 50 Vm-1 at an angle 120o with X-axis
27. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread 30. A conductor carries a certain charge. When
S, which makes an angle  with a large it is connected to another uncharged
charged conducting sheet P, as shown in the conductor of finite capacity, then the
figure. The surface charge density  of the energy of the combined system is
sheet is proportional to (a) more than that of the first conductor
(b) less than that of the first conductor
(c) equal to that of the first conductor
(d) uncertain
31. If n cells each of emf  and internal
resistance r are connected in parallel, then the
total emf and internal resistances will be
r
(a)  , (b)  , nr
(a) cot  (b) cos  n
(c) tan  (d) sin  r
(c) n , (d) n , nr
28. A, B and C are three points in a uniform n
electric field. The electric potential is 32. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine
the value of unknown resistance X by
adjusting the variable resistance Y as
shown in the figure. For the most precise
measurement of X, the resistances P and Q:
6
34. An electron , a proton and an alpha particle
having the same kinetic energy are moving
in circular orbits of radii re, rp, r
respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. The
relation between re, rp, r is:
(a) should be approximately equal and are 35. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials
small A and B are given below:
(b) should be very large and unequal
(c) do not play any significant role
(d) should be approximately equal to 2X
33. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Biot-Savart‟s law gives us the
expression for the magnetic field strength
These materials are used to make magnets
of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of
for electric generators, transformer core and
a current carrying conductor only.
electromagnet core. Then it is proper to
Statement II: Biot-Savart‟s law is
use:
analogous to Coulomb‟s inverse square law
(a) A for transformers and B for electric
of change q, with the former being related
generators
to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl
(b) B for electromagnets and transformers.
while the latter being produced by a vector
(c) A for electric generators and
source, q. In light of above statement chose
transformers.
the most appropriate answer from the
(d) A for electromagnets and B for electric
options given below:
generators.
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct and Statement II
is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II
is correct
(d) Both statement I and Statement II are
correct.
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PHYSICS SECTION - B
36. Consider a circular coil of wire carrying
constant current I, forming a magnetic
dipole. The magnetic flux through an 39. An em wave is propagating in a medium
infinite plane that contains the circular coil with a velocity V  Viˆ. The instantaneous
and excluding the circular coil area is given oscillating electric field of this em wave is
by i , The magnetic flux through the area of along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
the circular coil area is given by 0 . Which of magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(a) –z direction (b) +z direction
the following option is correct?
(c) –x direction (d) –y direction
(a) i  0
40. A green light is incident from the water to
(b) i  0 the air – water interface at the critical angle
(c) i  0 ( ). Select the correct statement.
(d) i  0 (a) The entire spectrum of visible light will
come out of the water at an angle of 90o to
37. Which of the following graphs represent
the normal.
the variation of current (I) with frequency
(b) The spectrum of visible light whose
(f) in an AC circuit containing a pure
frequency is less than that of green light
capacitor?
will come out to the air medium.
(c) The spectrum of visible light whose
frequency is more than that of green light
will come out to the air medium.
(d) The entire spectrum of visible light will
come out of the water at various angles to
the normal.
41. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a
refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The
angle of prism is 60o. If the ray suffers
38. Which of the following combinations minimum deviation through the prism, the
should be selected for better tuning of an L- angle of minimum deviation and refractive
C-R circuit used for communication? index of the material of the prism
respectively, are:
1
(a) 45o , (b) 30o , 2
2
8
1 (a) A and B will have different intensities
(c) 45o , 2 (d) 30o ,
2 while B and C will have different
42. Assertion: When a convex lens (  g  3 / 2) frequencies
(b) B and C will have different intensities
 4
of focal length f is dipped in water   w  , while A and C will have different
 3 frequencies
its focal length becomes 4f. (c) A and B will have different intensities
Reason: The focal length of convex lens is while A and C will have equal frequencies
always half of its radius of curvature. (d) A and B will have equal intensities
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct while B and C will have different
and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
frequencies
Assertion.
45. An electron (mass m) with an initial
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
velocity v  v0iˆ (v0 > 0) is moving in an
but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion. electric field E  E0iˆ ( E0  0) where E0 is
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is constant. If at t = 0 de Broglie wavelength
incorrect. h
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is 0  , then its de Broglie
mv0
is correct.
wavelength after time t is given by
43. In a Young‟s double slit experiment, the
separation of the two slits is doubled. To
keep the same spacing of fringes, the
distance D of the screen from the slits
should be made
D D
(a) (b)
2 2
(c) 2D (d) 4D
46. According to the Bhor theory of H-atom,
44. In a photoelectric experiment, anode
the speed of the electron, its energy and the
potential (v) is plotted against plate current
radius of its orbit varies with the principal
(I)
quantum number n, respectively, as
47. Nuclear forces are
9
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central (c) Both circuits (1) and (3)
part (d) Circuit (1) only
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central 50. Statement-I: The drift current in a p-n
part junction is from the n-side to the p-side.
(c) spin independent and have no non- Statement-II: Drift current opposite in
central part direction to the diffusion current.
(d) spin independent and have a non-central (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
part reason is a correct explanation for
48. The conductivity of a semiconductor assertion.
increases with increase in temperature (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct;
because reason is not a correct explanation for
(a) number density of free current carries assertion
increases (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(b) relaxation time increases (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(c) both number density of carries and
relaxation time increase CHEMISTRY SECTION - A
51. The probability density plots of 1s and 2s
(d) number density of carries increases,
orbitals are given in Fig.
relaxation time decreases but effect of
decrease in relaxation time is much less
than increase in number density
49.
The density of dots in a region represents

the probability density of finding electrons
in the region.
On the basis of above diagram which one
of the following statements is incorrect.
(a) 1s and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.
(b) The probability of finding the electron
is maximum near the nucleus.
In the given circuits (1), (2) and (3), the (c) The probability of finding the electron
potential drop across the two p-n junctions at a given distance is equal in all directions.
are equal in:
(a) Circuit (2) only
(b) Circuit (3) only
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(d) The probability density of electrons for 53. Assertion (A) : It is impossible to
2s orbital decreases uniformly as distance determine the exact position and exact
from the nucleus increases. momentum of an electron simultaneously.
52. Match the following rules with their Reason (R) : The path of an electron in an
statements: atom is clearly defined.
Rules Statements (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(i) Hund‟s Rule (a) No two electrons correct explanation of A.
in an atom can
have the same set (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
of four quantum correct explanation of A.
numbers (c) A is true but R is false.
(ii) Aufbau (b) Half-filled and (d) Both A and R are false.
Principle completely filled
orbitals have 54. The formation of the oxide ion, O2- (g),
extra stability. from oxygen atom requires first an
(iii) Pauli Exclusion (c) Pairing of exothermic and then an endothermic step as
Principle electrons in the shown below:
orbitals
belonging to the
same subshell
does not take
place until each
orbital is singly
occupied.
(iv) Heisenberg‟s (d) It is impossible to Thus process of formation of O2- in gas
Uncertainty determine the phase is unfavourable even through O2- is
Principle exact position
isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact
and exact
momentum of a that:
subatomic (a) oxygen is more electronegative.
particle (b) addition of electron in oxygen results in
simultaneously.
larger size of the ion.
(e) In the ground
state of atoms, (c) electron repulsion outweighs the
orbitals are filled stability gained by achieving noble gas
in the order of configuration.
their increasing
(d) O- ion has comparatively smaller size
energies.
than oxygen atom
(a) (i)-(c) (ii) – (e) (iii)- (a) (iv)-(d) 55. Which of the following statement is not
(b) (ii)-(c) (i) – (e) (iii)- (a) (iv)-(d) correct from the view point of molecular
(c) (i)-(c) (iii) – (e) (ii)- (a) (iv)-(d) orbital theory?
(d) (iii)-(c) (ii) – (e) (i)- (a) (iv)-(d) (a) Be2 is not a stable molecule.
11
 58. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on the
(b) He2 is not stable but He is expected to
2
exist. basis of which of the following concepts?

(c) Bond strength of N2 is maximum amongst (a) Arrhenius concept
the homonuclear diatomic molecules (b) Bronsted Lowry concept
belonging to the second period. (c) Lewis concept
(d) The order of energies of molecular orbitals (d) Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis
in N2 molecule is concept.
59. Thiosulphate reacts differently with iodine
and bromide in the reactions given below:
56. Assertion (A) : Though the central atom of
both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3
hybridised, yet H-N-H bond angle is
greater than that of H-O-H.
Which of the following statements justifies
Reason (R) : This is because nitrogen atom
the above dual behaviour of thiosulphate?
has one lone pair and oxygen atom has two
(a) Bromine is a stronger oxidant than
lone pairs.
iodine.
(a) A and R both are correct, and R is the
(b) Bromine is a weaker oxidant than
correct explanation of A.
iodine.
(b) A and R both are correct, but R is not
(c) Thiosulphate undergoes oxidation by
the correct explanation of A.
bromine and reduction by iodine in these
(c) A is true but R is false.
reactions.
(d) A and R both are false.
(d) Bromine undergoes oxidation and
57. The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas
iodine undergoes reduction in these
can be calculated by using the expression
reactions.
60. Ionisation enthalpy ( i H1 kJ mol 1 ) for the
elements of group 13 follows the order.
calculated from the PV-plot by using the (a) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
area under the curve within the specified (b) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a) (c) B < Al > Ga < In > Tl
reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume (d) B > Al < Ga > In < Tl
Vi to Vf. Choose the correct option. 61. The fragrance of flowers is due to the
(a) w (reversible) = w (irreversible) presence of some steam volatile organic
(b) w (reversible) < w (irreversible) compounds called essential oils. These are
(c) w (reversible) > w (irreversible) generally insoluble in water at room
(d) w (reversible) = w (irreversible) temperature but are miscible with water
12
vapour in vapour phase. A suitable method (d) the nature of solvent particles.
for the extraction of these oils from the 65. Assertion: When NaCl is added to water a
flowers is : depression in freezing point is observed.
(a) Distillation Reason: The lowering of vapour pressure of
(b) Crystallisation a solution causes depression in the freezing
(c) Distillation under reduced pressure point.
(d) Steam distillation (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
62. Assertion: The resonance hybrid is more statements and reason is correct
stable than any of the contributing explanation for assertion.
structure. (b) Assertion and reason both are correct
Reason: The contributing structures statements but reason is not correct
contains the same number of unpaired explanation for assertion.
electrons and have the real existence. (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the is wrong statement.
correct explanation of A (d) Assertion and reason both are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not statements.
the correct explanation of A. 66. Which of the following statement is
(c) A is correct but R is wrong. correct?
(d) A is wrong but R is correct. o
(a) Ecell and  r G of cell reaction both are
63. Arrange the following in decreasing order extensive properties.
of their boiling points. o
(b) Ecell and  r G of cell reaction both are
(A) n-butane
(B) 2-methylbutane intensive properties.
(C)- n-pentane
o
(d) Ecell is an intensive property while  r G
(D) 2, 2-dimethylpropane of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(a) A > B > C > D o
(d) Ecell is an extensive property while  r G
(b) B > C > D > A of cell reaction is an intensive property.
(c) D > C > B > A 67. Assertion: All collisions of reactant
(d) C > B > D > A molecules lead to product formation.
64. Colligative properties depend on………. . Reason: Only those collisions in which
(a) the nature of the solute particles molecules have correct orientation and
dissolved in solution. sufficient kinetic energy lead to compound
(b) the number of solute particles in formation.
solution. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct
(c) the physical properties of the solute and the reason is the correct explanation of
particles dissolved in solution. assertion.
13
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct a (c) Assertion is correct but the reason is
but reason does not explain assertion. wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct but the reason is (d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct
incorrect. statement.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is 71. Assertion: Aldehydes and ketones, both
correct. react with Tollen‟s reagent to form silver
68. Interstitial compounds are formed when mirror.
small atoms are trapped inside the crystal Reason : Both, aldehydes and ketones
lattice of metals. Which of the following is contain a carbonyl group.
not the characteristic property of interstitial (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
compounds? and reason is correct explanation of
(a) They have high melting points in assertion.
comparison to pure metals. (b) Assertion and reason both are wrong
(b) They are very hard. statements.
(c) They retain metallic conductivity. (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
(d) They are chemically very reactive. is wrong statement.
69. When 1 mol CrCl3 .6 H2O is treated with (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
excess of AgNO3, 3 mol of AgCl are is correct statement.
obtained. The formula of the complex is: 72. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10B(19%)
Ans.D and 11B(81%). Calculate average at. Wt. of
boron in the periodic table.
(a) 10.8 (b) 10.2
(c) 11.2 (d) 10.0
73. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from
6.022  1023 mol-1 to 6.022  1020 mol-1, this
70. Assertion: It is difficult to replace chlorine would change
by –OH in chlorobenzene in comparison to (a) the mass of one mole of carbon
that in chloroethane. (b) the ratio of chemical species to each
Reason: Chlorine-carbon (C-Cl) bond in other in a balanced equation
chlorobenzene has a partial double bond (c) the ratio of elements to each other in a
character due to resonance. compound
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct (d) the definition of mass in units of grams.
and the reason is the correct explanation of 74. When 0.1 mole CoCl3(NH3)5 is combined
assertion. with access AgNO3, then 0.2 mole AgCl is
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong obtained the conductivity of the solution
statements. suits the
14
(a) 1 : 3 electrolytes (a) +270 kJ (b) -900 J
(b) 1 : 1 electrolytes (c) +900 kJ (d) -900 kJ
(c) 3 : 1 electrolytes 78. The equilibrium constants of the following
(d) 1 : 2 electrolytes are
75. Predict the correct order among the
following:
(a) bond pair-bond pair > lone pair – bond
pair > lone pair – lone pair
(b) lone pair- bond pair > bond pair – bond The equilibrium constant (K) of the
pair > lone pair – lone pair reaction:
(c) lone pair-lone pair > lone pair – bond
pair > bond pair – bond pair
(d) lone pair- lone pair > bond pair – bond
pair > lone pair – bond pair
79. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and
76. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under
HF are
isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as
(a) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
shown in the figure.
(b) OH- and H2F+, respectively
AB  Isothermal expansion
(c) H3O+ and F-, respectively
AC  Adiabatic expansion
(d) OH- and F-, respectively.
Which of the following options is not
80. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
not true?
(a) Among halide ions, iodide is the most
powerful reducing agent.
(b) Fluorine is the only halogen that does
not show a variable oxidation state.
(c) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr.
(d) HF is a stronger acid than HCl.
81. The number of sigma ( ) and pi ( ) bonds
in pent-2-en-4-yne is
(a) 13  bonds and no  bond
(b) 10  bonds and 3  bonds
(c) 8  bonds and 5  bonds
77. An ideal gas expands isothermally from
(d) 11  bonds and 2  bonds.
10-3 m3 to 10-2 m3 at 300 K against a
82. The correct statement regarding
constant pressure of 105 N m-2. The work
electrophile is
done on the gas is
15
(a) electrophile is a negatively charged (c) free rotation about single bond
species and can form bond by accepting a (d) chiral carbon.
pair of electrons from another electrophile 85. pA and pB are the vapour pressures of pure
(b) electrophiles are generally neutral liquid components, A and B, respectively
species and can form a bond by accepting a of an ideal binary solution. If xA represents
pair of electrons from a nucleophile the mole fraction of component A, the total
(c) electrophile can be either neural or pressure of the solution will be
positively charged species and can form a
bond by accepting a pair of electrons from
a nucleophile
(d) electrophile is a negatively charged
species and can form a bond by accepting a
pair of electrons from a nucleophile.
83. The correct statement regarding the
comparison of staggered and eclipsed CHEMISTRY SECTION - B
conformations of ethane, is 86. Consider the following relations for emf of
(a) the eclipsed conformation of ethane is an electrochemical cell
more stable than staggered conformation (i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of
even though the eclipsed conformation has anode)- (Reduction potential of cathode)
torsional strain (ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of
(b) the staggered conformation of ethane is anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
more stable than eclipsed conformation, (iii) EMF of cell = (Reductional potential
because staggered conformation has no of anode) + (Reduction potential of
torsional strain cathode)
(c) the staggered conformation of ethane is (iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of
less stable than eclipsed conformation, anode)- (Oxidation potential of cathode)
because staggered conformation has Which of the above relations are correct?
torsional strain (a) (iii) and (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(d) the eclipsed conformation of ethane is (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
more stable than staggered conformation, 87. Given:
because eclipsed conformation has no
torsional strain.
84. 2-Butene shows geometrical isomerism due Electrode potential, Eo for the reaction,
to Cu+ + e-  Cu, will be
(a) restricted rotation about double bond (a) 0.90 V (b) 0.30 V
(b) free rotation about double bond (c) 0.38 V (d) 0.52 V
16
88. For the chemical reaction, (c) Both statement I and statement II are
N 2( g )  3H 2( g ) 2 NH 3( g ) false.
the correct option is (d) Statement I is correct but statement II is
false.
91. The electronic configuration of transition
elements is exhibited by
(a) ns1 (b) ns2np5
(c) ns2 (n-1)d1-10 (d) ns2 (n-1) d10
92. More number of oxidation states are
exhibited by the actinoids than by the
lanthanoids. The main reason for this is
89. The rate of the reaction: 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2 (a) more active nature of the actinoids
can be written in three ways. (b) more energy difference between 5f and
6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d
orbitals
(c) lesser energy difference between 5f and
6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d
orbitals
The relationship between k and k‟ and
(d) greater metallic character of the
between k and k” are
lanthanoids than that of the corresponding
actinoids.
93. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is
90. Statement I: Acid strength increases in the (a) tridentate ligand with three “N” donor
order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. atoms
Statement II: As the size of the elements F, (b) hexadentate ligand with four “O” and
Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the two “N” donor atoms
bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr, and HI (c) unidentate ligand
decreases and so the acid strength (d) bidentate ligand with two “N” donor
increases. atoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose 94. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d
the correct answer from the options given orbitals involved d2sp3 hybridisation is
below. (a) d x2  y 2 , d z 2 (b) d xz , d x2  y 2
(a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(c) d z 2 , d xz (d) d xy , d yz ,
is true.
(b) Both statement I and statement II are
true.
17
95. Which of the following is an optically (a) Electrophilic addition-elimination
active compound? reaction
(a) 1-Butanol (b) 1-Propanol (b) Free radical addition-elimination
(c) 2-Chlorobutane (d) 4- reaction
Hydroxyheptane (c) Electrophilic substitution-elimination
96. Reaction between acetone and methyl reaction
magnesium chloride followed by (d) Nucleophilic addition-elimination
hydrolysis will give reaction
(a) iso-propyl alcohol 99. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic
(b) sec-butyl alcohol medium also gives m-nitroaniline because
(c) tert-butyl alcohol (a) inspite of substituents nitro group
(d) iso-butyl alcohol. always goes to only m-position
97. Predict the products in the given reaction. (b) in electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive
(c) in absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position
(d) in acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion.
100. The correct increasing order of basic
strength for the following compounds is
(a) III < I < II (b) III < II < I

(c) II < I < III (d) II < III < I
98. Consider the reaction:

RCHO + NH2NH2  RCH=N –NH2
What sort of reaction is it?
18
BIOLOGY SECTION - A 105. Dinoflagellates have
101. Match the following columns (a) A single flagellum in the
Column I Column II transverse groove between the
A. Planaria I. Binary fission cell plates
(b) A single flagellum in the
B. Fungi II. Asexual spores
longitudinal groove between the
C. Yeast III. Budding cell plates
D. Hydra IV. True (c) Two flagella one lies
regeneration longitudinally and the other
E. Amoeba V. Fragmentation transversely in a furrow between
F. Binomial VI. Linnaeus the wall plates.
nomenclature (d) No flagella.
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E- VI, F –V 106. I. It includes unicellular as well as
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-III, E- I, F –VI multicellular fungi
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E- VI, F –I II. In multicellular forms hyphae are
(d) A-V B-III, C-I, D-IV, E- II, F –VI branched and septate
102. Basic unit or smallest taxon of III. Conidiophore produces conidia
taxonomy, classification is (spores) exogenously in chain
(a) Species (b) Kingdom IV. Sexual spores are ascopores
(c) Family (d) Variety produced endogenously in Ascus
103. In nomenclature V. Fruiting body is called ascocarp
(a) Both genus and species are Which of the above characters are
printed in italics shown by
(b) Genus and species may be of same (a) Phycomycetes
name (b) Ascomycetes fungi
(c) Both in genus and species, the (c) Basidiomycetes fungi
first letter is capital (d) Fungi imperfacti
(d) Genus is written after the species. 107. In plants mosaic formation, leaf rolling
104. Which of the following statements is and curling, yellowing and vein
wrong about Archaebacteria? clearing dwarfing and stunted growth
(a) They live in some of the most are symptoms of
harsh habitats (a) Bacterial diseases
(b) They are recently evolved group (b) Mycoplasmal diseases
(c) Cell wall is peptidoglycanless (c) Viral diseases
(d) They are unlike most other (d) Fungal diseases.
bacteria. 108. Which of the following is wrongly
matched?
(a) T.O. Diener – Viroids are found to
be a free DNA
19
(b) W.M. Stanley – Crystallised
proteins
(c) M.W. Beijerinck – Contagium 110. Assertion: Spores of slime moulds
vivum fluidum survive for many years.
(d) D.J. Ivanowsky – Microbes smaller Reason: Spores possess true walls
than a bacteria cause mosaic which are extremely resistant in
disease of tobacco. adverse conditions.
109. Read the statements A and B and (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
choose the correct option as: true and the Reason is a correct
Statement I: Plasmid is small extra explanation of the Assertion.
chromosomal circular self replicating (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
DNA that can carry genes into host true but the Reason is not a
organism. correct explanation of the
Statement II: Transfer of genetic Assertion.
material with help of a virus is called (c) If assertion is True but Reason is
transduction. false.
(a) If both Statements are correct (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
(b) If both statements are incorrect false.
(c) If only statement A is correct 111. Marijuana is obtained from
(d) If only statement B is correct. (a) Ergot
(b) Cannabis
(c) Papaver
(d) Coffea
112. Examine the figures (A-D) given below and select the right option out of (a) – (d) , in which
all the four items A, B, C and D are identified correctly.
20
A B C D
(a) Gemma Cup Archagoniophore Sporophyte Sphagnum
(b) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Gametophyte Sphagnum
(c) Archegonia Antheridia Gemma cup Sphagnum
(d) Antheridia Archegonia Gemma cup Sphagnum
113. Examine the figure A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C and D
are correct.
A B C D
(a) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia
(b) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia
(c) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia
(d) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidobast
114. Plant body of bryophyte is (a) If both Statements are correct

(a) Less differentiated than that of (b) If both statements are incorrect
algae (c) If only statement A is correct
(b) Equally differentiated to that of (d) If only statement B is correct.
algae 116. Shark, Torpedo (Electric ray) and
(c) More differentiated to that of Trygon (Sting ray) are cartilaginous
algae fishes and belong to class
(d) Is not differentiated at all. (a) Cyclostomata
115. Read the statements A and B and (b) Chondrichthyes
choose the correct option as: (c) Osteichthyes
Statement I: In Marchantia, (d) Amphibia
gametophyte starts from spore and
ends in zygote.
Statement II: In Funaria, Meiosis
occurs in Spore.
21
(c) Nerium, Calotropis and China
rose
(d) Calotropis, china rose and nerium.
117.
120. A flower is
(a) A modified shoot
A, B and C are found in (b) The reproductive unit in
(a) Annelids, Aschelminthes, angiosperms
Plathylminthes respectively (c) The reproductive unit of
(b) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, gymnosperms
Aschelminthes respectively (d) a and b
(c) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, 121. Identify the types of aestivation shown
Annelids respectively in the following diagram.
(d) Sponges, Ascheliminthes,
Plathyhelminthes respectively.
118. Assertion: In Platyhelminthes, Mollusca
and Echinodermata the members are
unsegmented.
Reason: Arthropoda, a largest phylum (a) A- Valvate, B – Twisted, C-
of animalia, includes two-third of all Imbricate, D-Vexillary
names species. (b) A-Vexillary, B – Valvate, C-
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are Twisted, D-Imbricate
true and the Reason is a correct (c) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-
explanation of the Assertion. Valvate, D-Twisted
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are (d) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-
true but the Reason is not a Vexillary, D-Valvate.
correct explanation of the 122. Assertion: Alstonia show whorled
Assertion. phyllotaxy.
(c) If assertion is True but Reason is Reason: In Alstonia 1 leaf arises on
false. each node.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
false. true and the Reason is a correct
119. Identify the order where plants show explanation of the Assertion.
alternate, opposite and whorled (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
phyllotaxy true but the Reason is not a
(a) China rose, Calotropis and correct explanation of the
Alstonia Assertion.
(b) China rose, Nerium and (c) If assertion is True but Reason is
Calotropis false.
22
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are
false.
123. Meristem helps in
(a) Absorption of water choose the correct answer from the
(b) Growth of plants options given below:
(c) Absorption of minerals (a) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
(d) Transpiration (b) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
124. Cortex is the region found between (c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(a) Endodermis and pith (d) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
(b) Endodermis and vascular bundle 126. Assertion: Dicot stem possess ability to
(c) Epidermis and stele form secondary xylem and secondary
(d) pericycle and endodermis. phloem tissues.
125. Match the List I with List II Reason: Vascular bundles of dicot stem
List I List II are open.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are
A. Lenticles I. Phellogen
true and the Reason is a correct
B. Cork II. Suberin explanation of the Assertion.
cambium deposition
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are
C. Secondary III. Exchange true but the Reason is not a
cortex correct explanation of the
D. Cork IV. Phelloderm Assertion.
(c) If assertion is True but Reason is
false.
false.
127. Observe the following figures

Figures A and B indicate glands while Figure C indicates specific type of tissues.
Identify these figure.
A B C
(a) Unicellular gland Multicellular gland Compound epithelium
(b) Unicellular gland Multicellular gland Pseudostratified
23
epithelium
(c) Multicellular gland Unicellular gland Pseudostratified
epithelium
(d) Unicellular gland Goblet gland Pseudostratified
epithelium
131. Unicellular organisms are
128. Bones have a _________ and _______ (a) Not capable of independent
ground substance, rich in________ salts existence because they cannot
and ________ fibres perform all the essential functions
(a) Soft, Pliable, Ca, Colalge of life.
(b) Hard, pliable, Ca, Collagen (b) Not capable of independent
(c) Hard, non-pliable, Ca, Collagen existence but they can perform all
(d) Hard, pliable, Fe, Collagen. the essential vital functions
129. Read the statements and choose the (c) Are capable of independent
correct options existence and perform all the
Statement I: Some of the epithelial cells essential vital functions
and smooth muscle fibres can (d) Are capable to lead independent
communicate with each other. existence but they perform some
Statement II: They are connected by vital functions.
gap junctions. 132. I. Sausage shaped/cylindrical
(a) If both statements are correct II. Diameter 0.2-0.1 µm (average 0.5
(b) If both statements are incorrect –µm); Length 1.0-4.1 µm.
(c) If only statement A is correct III. Has 2 aqueous compartments
(d) If only statement B is correct. IV. Outer membrane as continuous
130. Assertion: Neuroglia found in brain limiting boundary of the organelle
and spinal cord supports the neurons. V. Inner membrane forms many
Reason: Approximately 95% of all the cristae which increase surface
brain cells are neuroglial cells. area
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are VI. Both membranes have their own
true and the Reason is a correct specific enzymes.
explanation of the Assertion. All the above features are attributed to
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are (a) Chloroplast
true but the Reason is not a (b) Nucleus
correct explanation of the (c) ER
Assertion. (d) Mitochondria.
(c) If assertion is True but Reason is 133. Read the statements and choose the
false. correct options
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are Statement I: All organisms are made of
false. cells or aggregates of cells.
24
Statement II: Cells vary in their shape, BIOLOGY SECTION - B
size and activities or functions. 136. ER is not related with
(a) If both statements are correct (a) Plasma membrane
(b) If both statements are incorrect (b) GB
(c) If only statement A is correct (c) Mitochondria
(d) If only statement B is correct. (d) Nucleus.
134. Read the statements and choose the 137. Match the columns
correct options Column I Column II
Statement I: The number of A. Collagen I. Glucose
mitochondria per cell is variable transport
depending on physiological activity of
B. Trypsin II. Binding with
the cells.
some
Statement II: Golgi apparatus is chemical like
important site of formation of for small
glycoprotein and glycolipids. taste and
(a) If both statements are correct hormones.
(b) If both statements are incorrect C. Insulin III. Hormones.
(c) If only statement A is correct
D. Antibody IV. Enzyme
(d) If only statement B is correct.
E. Receptor V. Intercellular
135. Assertion: Fluid mosaic model is the
ground
famous model of structure of cell wall.
substance
Reason: Cell wall is lipo-protein
F. GLUT-4 VI. Fight
structure.
infectious
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are
agents.
true and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion. (a) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-I
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V, E-VI, F-I
true but the Reason is not a (c) A-VI, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV, F-III
correct explanation of the (d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-V
Assertion. 138. Which one is heteropolymer?
(c) If assertion is True but Reason is (a) Chitin
false. (b) Peptidoglycan
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are (c) Both
false. (d) Inulin
139. Consider the following statement
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is
tightly bound to enzyme protein
is called prosthetic group.
25
(B) A complete catalytic active (a) IV, III, II, I (b) III, II, I, IV
enzyme with its bound prosthetic (c) II, I, IV, III (d) I, IV, III, II
group is called apoenzyme. 143. Read the statements and choose the
Select the correct option correct options
(a) A is true but B is false Statement I: In dipole zygote,
(b) Both A and B are false chromosome number is 40 .
(c) A is false but B is true Chromosome number in a gamete will
(d) Both A and B are true. be 20.
140. Read the statements and choose the Statement II: Pairing of homologous
correct options chromosomes in zygotene is called
Statement I: Tryptophan is an aromatic translocation.
amino acid. (a) If both statements are correct
Statement II: Lysine is a basic amino (b) If both statements are incorrect
acid. (c) If only statement A is correct
(a) If both statements are correct (d) If only statement B is correct.
(b) If both statements are incorrect 144. Reaction centre consists of
(c) If only statement A is correct (a) Single molecule of Chl b
(d) If only statement B is correct. (b) LHC
141. Match the List I and List II (c) Single molecule of Chl a
List I List II (d) Single molecules of Chl a but 2
A. Cellular i. Interferons molecules of Chl b
barrier 145. Calvin cycle has
B. Cytokine ii. Mucus (a) Carboxylation, Regeneration
barrier (b) Oxygenation, Regeneration
C. Physical iii. Neutrophils (c) Reduction, Oxygenation
barrier (d) Carboxylation, reduction and
regeneration.
D. Physiological iv. HCl in gastric
146. Oxygen evolution is connected with
barrier juice.
(a) Photosystem II
(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(b) Photosystem I
(b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(c) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(d) RUBP enzyme
(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
147. Read the statements and choose the
142. Arrange the following events of correct options
meiosis in correct sequence
Statement I: Photosynthetic bacteria
I. Terminalization
having both PS I and PS II are
II. Crossing over cyanobacteria.
III. Synapsis Statement II: C4 plants belong to both
IV. Disappearance of nucleolus monocots and dicots.
26
(a) If both statements are correct BIOLOGY SECTION - C
(b) If both statements are incorrect
(c) If only statement A is correct 151. Match the Columns
(d) If only statement B is correct. Column I Column II
148. Glycolysis: I. IAA A. Terpenes
(a) Takes place in all living cells II. GA B. Indole
(b) Causes partial oxidation of Compounds
glucose (one molecule) to form 2
III. ABA C. Adenine
molecules of pyruvic acid and 2
derivatives
ATP as net gain
(c) Uses 2 ATP at two steps IV. C2H4 D. Gases
(d) All V. Kinetin, (N - E. Carotenoid
6
149. Pyruvate   C2H5OH + CO2. furfuryl derivatives.

amino
The above reaction needs 2 enzymes
purine)
named as
(a) Pyruvate decarboxylase and The correct match is
alcohol dehydrogenase (a) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C
(b) Pyruvate decarboxylase and (b) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E
enolase (c) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B, V-C
(c) Pyruvate decarboxylase and (d) None of these
pyruvate kinase 152. Which of the following immune
(d) Pyruvate carboxylase + Aldolase. responses is responsible for rejection
150. Which of the following is amphibolic: of kidney graft?
(a) Glycolysis (a) Humoral immune response
(b) Oxidative decarboxylation of (b) Inflammatory immune response
pyruvate (c) Cell-Mediated immune response
(c) TCA cycle (d) Auto immune response.
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation 153. Expiratory capacity is equal to
(a) TV + ERV
(b) ERV + IRV
(c) ERV + RV
(d) ERV + RV
154. Emphysema is characterized by
(a) Permanent enlargement and
destruction of alveolar area
leading to reduction in
respiratory surface
(b) Inhibition of respiratory centre
(c) Accumulation of fluid in lungs
27
(d) Spasm of muscles of trachea.
155. I. Proteins contributes 6-8% of the 158. Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by

blood plasma (a) Vasopressin or ADH
II. Plasma contains very high (b) Aldosterone
amount of minerals (c) Renin
III. Plasma without the clotting (d) Rennin
factors is called serum 159. Rib cage is formed by all except
IV. Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc., (a) Thoracic vertebrae
are also present in the plasma as (b) Lumbar vertebrae
they are always in transit in the (c) Ribs
body. (d) Sternum
(a) All are correct 160. Arthritis is
(b) Only II is false (a) Inflammation of muscles
(c) Only I is correct (b) Inflammation of joints
(d) All are false. (c) Inflammation of bone
156. Match the columns (d) Inflammation of tongue
Column I Column II
161. The electrical potential difference
A. Heart failure I. Heart muscle is
suddenly
across the depolarized membrane is
damaged by an called
B. Cardiac arrest II. Chest pain due (a) Action potential
to inadequate (b) Resting potential
O2 reaching the (c) Water potential
heart muscles
(d) Solute potential.
C. Heart Attack III. Atherosclerosis
162. The inner parts of cerebral
D. Coronary IV. Heart not hemispheres and a group of associated
Artery Disease pumping blood deep structures like amygdala,
(CAD) effectively
enough to meet
hippocampus, etc., from a complex
the needs of the structure called
body (a) Reticular system
E. Angina V. Heart stops (b) Corpora quadrigemina
pectoris beating (c) Limbic lobe/limbic system
(a) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II (d) Arbor vitae
(b) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II 163. Endocrine glands are
(c) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III (a) Ductless glands whose secretions
(d) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I pour directly into blood
157. Vasa recta is (b) Have ducts and pour their
(a) L-shaped (b) S-shaped secretions into blood directly
(c) U-shaped (d) J-shaped
28
(c) Have ducts which straight way 168. Match the Columns
pour secretions into target Column I Column II
organs. I. Morula A. Fertilization
(d) All of the above. II. Polyspermy B. Solid ball of
164. Which of the following hormones cells
produces anti-inflammatory reactions, III. Implantation C. Mammary
suppresses immune response, gland
stimulates RBC production, and is also IV. Prolactin D. Endometruim
involved in maintaining cardiovascular
system and kidney functions?
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(a) Aldosterone
(b) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
(b) Epinephrine
(c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(c) Cortisol
(d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(d) Norepinephrine.
169. Which of the following hormone levels
165. Grave’s disease is caused due to will cause release of ovum (ovulation)
(a) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland from the Graafian follicle?
(b) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland (a) High concentration of
(c) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland progesterone
(d) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland. (b) Low concentration of LH
166. Pollination occurring without (c) Low concentration of FSH
pollinating agent in closed flowers is (d) High concentration of oestrogen.
(a) Bud pollinated 170. Seeds are the basis of our agriculture
(b) Cleistogamy and offer several advantages to
(c) Chasmogamy angiosperms. Find the odd statement
(d) Allogamy among the following
167. What type of pollination takes place in (a) Seeds have better adaptive
Vallisneria? strategies for dispersal
(a) Pollination occurs in submerged (b) Seeds may remain alive for long
condition by water times.
(b) Flowers emerge above surface of (c) Seeds have sufficient food
water and pollination occurs by reserve.
insects (d) None of the above.
(c) Flowers emerge above water 171. MTP is
surface and pollen is carried by (a) Medical Termination of
wind. Pregnancy
(d) Male flowers are carried by water (b) also called induced abortion
currents to female flowers at the (c) Both a and b
surface of water.
29
(d) Aimed at decreasing population 177. Assertion: Human exploited the
size. variations that were present naturally
172. Select the hormone-releasing Intra in the wild populations of plants and
Uterine Devices. animals.
(a) Vaults, LNG-20 Reason: Variation is the degree by
(b) Multiload 375, Progestasert which progeny resembles from their
(c) Progestasert, LNG-20 parents.
(d) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
173. Klinefelter’s syndrome results from the true and the Reason is a correct
fusion of explanation of the Assertion.
(a) an X egg and a Y sperm (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
(b) an X egg and an X sperm true but the Reason is not a
correct explanation of the
(c) an XX egg and a Y sperm.
Assertion.
(d) an XX egg and a YY sperm
(c) If assertion is True but Reason is
174. Polyploidy
false.
A. Is the occurrence of more than 2
sets of chromosomes or genome
false.
B. Is resulted due to non-formation
178. A. Taylor et al used radioactive
of spindle fibres.
thymidine in root tip of Vicia feba
C. Is resulted due to failure of (Broad Bean) and proved that
cytokinesis chromosome
D. Is more common in plants.
B. In eukaryotes replication of DNA
(a) A, C, D (b) A, B, C, D takes place in S-phase of the cell
(c) B, C, D (d) A, B, C cycle.
175. In a marriage between male with blood C. A failure in cell division after DNA
group A and female with blood group replication results into
B, the progeny had either blood group polyploidy.
AB or B. What could be the possible D. Crick pointed out that DNA
genotype or parents? replicates semiconservatively but
(a) IAi (Male): IBIB (female) first proof for it came from the
(b) IAIA (Male) : IBIB (female) experiment of Meselson and Stahl
(c) IAIA (Male) : IBi (female) who used 15NH4Cl in E. coli.
(d) IAi(Male) : IBi (female) (a) All are correct
176. XO type of sex determination can be (b) All are incorrect
found in (c) Only D is correct
(a) Drosophila (d) A and D are correct.
(b) Birds 179. The full form of ELSI is
(c) Grasshoppers (a) Embedded Low Software Index
(d) Monkeys (b) Ear Lung Spleen Immunity
30
(c) Ethical, Legal and Social Issue (a) Two light chains
(d) Endonuclease Ligase Surface (b) Two heavy chains
Immunity. (c) One heavy and one light chain
180. From the following, identify the correct (d) Either between two light chains
combination of salient features of or between one heavy and one
Genetic code. light chain depending upon the
(a) Universal, Non-ambiguous, nature of antigen.
Overlapping 184. Assertion: Interferons are a type of
(b) degenerate, Overlapping, antibodies produced by body cells
Commaless infected by bacteria.
(c) Universal, Ambiguous Degenerate Reason: Interferons stimulate
(d) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, inflammation at the site of injury.
Non-ambiguous. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are
181. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ true and the Reason is a correct
allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What explanation of the Assertion.
would be the frequency of (b) If both Assertion and Reason are
heterozygotes in a random mating true but the Reason is not a
population at equilibria? correct explanation of the
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.48 Assertion.
(c) 0.16 (d) 0.24 (c) If assertion is True but Reason is
false.
182. Match the Columns (d) If both Assertion and Reason are
Column I Column II false.
I. Human A. Chemical 185. Assertion: A person goes to high
embryos have Evolution altitude and experiences ‘altitude
gill sickness’ with symptoms like breathing
difficulty and heart palpitations.
II. Oparin and B. Stimulation
Haldane experiment Reason: due to low atmospheric
pressure at high altitude, the body does
III. Millar and Urey C. Wings of bird
not get sufficient oxygen.
and butterfly
In the light of the above statements,
IV. Analogous D. Ontogeny
choose the correct answer from the
organs repeats
options given below.
phylogeny
(a) A is false but R is true
(a) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the
(b) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
correct explanation of A
(c) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(c) Both A and R are true but R is not
(d) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B the correct explanation of A
183. Antigen binding site in an antibody is (d) A is true but R is false.
found between
31
191. Match List I with List II
BIOLOGY SECTION - D List I List II
A. Gene gun I. Replacement
186. Identify the incorrect pair of a faulty
(a) alkaloids – Codeine gene by a
(b) Toxin – Abrin normal
(c) Lectins – Concanavalin – A healthy gene
(d) Drugs – Ricin. B. Gene therapy II. Used for
187. Methanogens grow anaerobically on transfer of
cellulosic material and produce Gene
A. Ethanol C. Gene cloning III. Total DNA in
B. Oxygen the cells of
C. Carbon dioxide an organisms
D. Hydrogen D. Genome IV. To obtain
(a) A, C, D (b) A, B, C , D identical
(c) B, C, D (d) A, B copies of a
188. The organisms which are used to particular
enrich the nutrient quality of the soil DNA
are called: molecule.
(a) Mycorrhiza (b) Biofertilizers
(c) Yeast (d) Methanogens Choose the correct answer from the
189. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) options given below
does not show (a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(a) Host specify (b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(b) Narrow spectrum applications (c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) Effects on non-target pathogens (d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(d) Utility in IPM programme. 192. In India, the organization responsible
190. Which of the following techniques can for assessing the safety of introducing
be used to introduce foreign DNA into genetically modified organisms for
cell? public use is
(a) Using disarmed pathogen (a) Indian Council Of Medical
(b) Microinjection Research (ICMR)
(c) Gene gun (Biolistic) (b) Council for Scientific and
Industrial Research (CSIR)
(d) All of these
(c) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM)
(d) Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee (GEAC).
32
193. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are 196. In most of the algae which type of
prevented in meiosis occurs:
(a) Papaya (b) Cucumber (a) Sporice meiosis
(c) Castor (d) Maize (b) Zygotic meiosis
194. Which of the following is not true of a (c) Gametic meiosis
pyramid of productivity? (d) Endomitosis
(a) Only about 10% of the energy in 197. What is the function of germ pore?
one trophic level is passed into (a) Emergence of radicle
the next level. (b) Absorption of water for seed
(b) Because of the loss of energy at germination
each trophic level, most food (c) Initiation of pollen tube
chains are limited to three to five (d) Release of male gametes.
steps 198. Who did prove that the chromosomes
(c) The pyramid of productivity of replicate semi conservatively?
some aquatic ecosystems is (a) Taylor
inverted because of the large (b) Mendel
zooplankton primary consumer
(c) Morgan
level.
(d) Meselson and Stahl
(d) Eating grain fed beef is an
199. Which of the following is an example of
inefficient means of obtaining the
coevolution?
energy trapped by
photosynthesis. (a) Barnacle and whale
195. Alexander Von Humbolt described for (b) Clown fish and sea anemone
the first time: (c) Hermit crab and sea anemone
(a) Laws of limiting factor (d) Bees and orchid flower.
(b) Species area relationship 200. Pollen grain of which plant causes
(c) Population Growth equation allergy?
(d) Ecological Biodiversity. (a) Myosotis
(b) Typha
(c) Capparis
(d) parthenium.

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FULL LENGTH TESTS

“A Little Progress Each Day

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98. Consider the reaction:

114. Plant body of bryophyte is (a) If both Statements are correct

127. Observe the following figures

149. Pyruvate   C2H5OH + CO2. furfuryl derivatives.

155. I. Proteins contributes 6-8% of the 158. Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by

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