APPSC Group I G1WPT-0116 Explanations - English

APPSC Group-I | Full Length Test-03 | Paper-I | Test Code: G1WPT-0116
Key and Explanations

Q No Option Q No Option Q No Option Q No Option
1 (2) 31 (1) 61 (2) 91 (4)
2 (4) 32 (3) 62 (4) 92 (2)
3 (2) 33 (4) 63 (1) 93 (2)
4 (3) 34 (2) 64 (1) 94 (3)
5 (4) 35 (1) 65 (3) 95 (2)
6 (1) 36 (2) 66 (4) 96 (3)
7 (3) 37 (4) 67 (1) 97 (4)
8 (2) 38 (3) 68 (3) 98 (1)
9 (1) 39 (3) 69 (2) 99 (2)
10 (3) 40 (1) 70 (1) 100 (4)
11 (2) 41 (3) 71 (4) 101 (2)
12 (1) 42 (1) 72 (2) 102 (1)
13 (4) 43 (2) 73 (3) 103 (3)
14 (3) 44 (4) 74 (1) 104 (4)
15 (1) 45 (4) 75 (2) 105 (3)
16 (2) 46 (4) 76 (2) 106 (1)
17 (4) 47 (1) 77 (4) 107 (3)
18 (3) 48 (4) 78 (1) 108 (1)
19 (1) 49 (1) 79 (1) 109 (1)
20 (3) 50 (4) 80 (2) 110 (2)
21 (3) 51 (1) 81 (3) 111 (3)
22 (3) 52 (1) 82 (4) 112 (2)

23 (2) 53 (3) 83 (3) 113 (2)
24 (4) 54 (1) 84 (1) 114 (1)
25 (3) 55 (4) 85 (4) 115 (2)
26 (4) 56 (2) 86 (1) 116 (2)
27 (1) 57 (4) 87 (4) 117 (4)
28 (3) 58 (4) 88 (1) 118 (1)
29 (1) 59 (2) 89 (1) 119 (1)
30 (2) 60 (1) 90 (3) 120 (3)
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Detailed Explanations
Part- A ✓ The most famous specimen in this regard
History and Culture is the bronze ‘dancing girl’ figurine
1. Correct Answer: Option (2) discovered at Mohenjodaro.
Type of Question: Factual ✓ It is a nude female figure, with right arm
• Harappan civilization was discovered in 1920– on the hip and left arm hanging in a
22 when two of its most important sites were dancing pose.
excavated. ✓ She is wearing a large number of bangles.
• These were Harappa on the banks of the river
Ravi and Mohenjodaro on the banks of the
Indus.
• The first was excavated by D. R. Sahani and
the second by R.D. Bannerji.
• On the basis of the archaeological findings the
Harappan civilization has been dated between
2600 B.C–1900 BC and is one of the oldest
civilizations of the world.
• There was a great progress in all spheres of
economic activity such as agriculture, industry
and crafts and trade.
• Wheat and barley were the main crops grown 3. Correct Answer: Option (2)
besides sesame, mustard and cotton. Type of Question: Factual
• Surplus grain is stored in granaries. • From the seals, terracotta figurines and
• Animals like sheep, goats and buffalo were copper tablets we get an idea on the religious
domesticated. life of the Harappans.
• The use of horse is not yet firmly established. • The chief male deity was Pasupati, (proto-
• A number of other animals were hunted for Siva) represented in seals as sitting in a yogic
food including deer. posture with three faces and two horns.
2. Correct Answer: Option (4) • He is surrounded by four animals (elephant,
Type of Question: Factual tiger, rhino, and buffalo each facing a
• The Harappan people were aware of almost different direction).
all the metals except iron. They manufactured • Two deer appear on his feet.
gold and silver objects.
• The gold objects include beads, armlets,
needles and other ornaments.
• But the use of silver was more common than
gold.
• A large number of silver ornaments, dishes,
etc. have been discovered.
• A number of copper tools and weapons have
also been discovered.
• The common tools included axe, saws, chisels,
knives, spearheads and arrowheads
• We also have the evidence of the use of the
bronze though in limited manner.

4. Correct Answer: Option (3) • In later Vedic Period besides nishka of the Rig
Type of Question: Factual Vedic period, gold and silver coins like
• During the Rig Vedic period, the Aryans were satamana and krishnala were used as media
mostly confined to the Indus region. of exchange.
• The Rig Veda refers to Saptasindhu or the land 7. Correct Answer: Option (3)
of seven rivers. Type of Question: Factual
• This includes the five rivers of Punjab, namely • Jainism believed that the monastic life was
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej along essential to attain salvation and a
with the Indus and Saraswathi. householder could not attain it.
• The political, social and cultural life of the Rig • According to tradition the original doctrines
Vedic people can be traced from the hymns of taught by Mahavira were contained in
the Rig Veda. fourteen old texts known as ‘purvas’.
5. Correct Answer: Option (4) • In the first Council at Pataliputra,
Type of Question: Factual Sthulabhadra divided the Jaina canon into 12
Political Organization during Rig Vedic Period: ‘angas’ or sections.
• The basic unit of political organization was ✓ This was accepted by Svetambaras.
kula or family. ✓ However, the Digambaras refused to
• Several families joined together on the basis accept this claiming that all the old
of their kinship to form a village or grama. scriptures were lost.
• The leader of grama was known as gramani. • At the second Council held at Vallabhi new
• A group of villages constituted a larger unit additions were made in the form of ‘Upangas’
called visu. or minor sections.
• It was headed by vishayapati. ✓ Among the 12 Angas the Acharanga sutta
• The highest political unit was called jana or and Bhagavati sutta are the most
tribe. important.
• There were several tribal kingdoms during the ✓ While the former deals with the code of
Rig Vedic period such as Bharatas, Matsyas, conduct which a Jaina monk is required
Yadus and Purus. to follow, the later expounds the Jaina
• The head of the kingdom was called as rajan doctrines in a comprehensive manner.
or king. 8. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• The Rig Vedic polity was normally monarchical Type of Question: Factual
and the succession was hereditary. • The decline of the Gupta Empire was followed
• The king was assisted by purohita or priest by a period of political disorder and disunity in
and senani or commander of the army in his North India.
administration. ✓ It was only in the beginning of the
• There were two popular bodies called the seventh century A.D. that Harshvardhana
Sabha and Samiti. succeeded in establishing a larger
✓ The former seems to have been a council kingdom in north India.
of elders and the latter, a general • The chief sources for tracing the history of
assembly of the entire people. Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita
6. Correct Answer: Option (1) written by Bana and the Travel accounts of
Type of Question: Factual Hiuen Tsang.
• During Rig Vedic Period trade was conducted • Bana was the court poet of Harsha.
on barter system. • Hiuen Tsang was the Chinese traveller who
✓ In the later times, gold coins called nishka visited India in the seventh century A.D.
were used as media of exchange in large 9. Correct Answer: Option (1)
transactions. Type of Question: Factual

• The Venitian traveller Marco Polo visited the • The monuments before the period of Asoka
port of Motupalli during the closing years of were mostly made of wood and therefore
Rudramadcwt’s reign. perished.
• The exports from the port of Motupalli, • The use of stone started from the time of
according to the testimony of Macro Polo, Asoka.
were the diamonds, best and most delicate • Even of the numerous monuments of Asoka,
buckrams and those of highest price which only a few have remained.
look like the tissues of spider’s web. • His palace and monasteries and most of his
• Besides, Motupalli, Kirshnapatnam, stupas have disappeared.
Chinaganjam, Nellore and Divi also played a • The only remaining stupa is at Sanchi.
very important part in fostering sea-born • Asoka built a number of stupas throughout his
trade. empire but majority of them were destroyed
• Ganapatideva had no male issue. during foreign invasions.
✓ He had two daughters, the elder called • Only a few have survived. The best example is
Rudramma or Rudramadevi and the the famous Sanchi stupa with massive
younger named Ganapamba. dimensions.
✓ The elder was given in marriage to ✓ It was originally built with bricks but later
Chalukya Virabhadra and the younger to enlarged after the time of Asoka.
Beta of the Kota family. • The caves presented to the Ajivikas by Asoka
✓ Ganapatideva selected his elder and his son Dasaratha remain important
daughter, Rudrama, as his heir apparant. heritage of the Mauryas.
✓ He regarded her as son and even named • Their interior walls are polished like mirror.
her as Rudradeva. These were meant to be residences of monks.
✓ He made her as his co- regent from A.D. • The caves at Barabar hills near Bodh Gaya are
1260 to A.D. 1262. wonderful pieces of Mauryan architecture.
10. Correct Answer: Option (3) 12. Correct Answer: Option (1)
Type of Question: Factual Type of Question: Factual
Krishna Deva Raya (1509 – 1530): Persian and Greek invasions:
• Though a Vaishnavaite, he respected all Persian Invasions:
religions. • Cyrus (558 – 530 B.C) Cyrus the Great was the
• He was a great patron of literature and art and greatest conqueror of the Achaemenian
he was known as Andhra Bhoja. Empire. He was the first conqueror who led an
• Eight eminent scholars known as expedition and entered into India. He
Ashtadiggajas were at his royal court. captured the Gandhara region.
• Allasani Peddanna was the greatest and he • Darius I (522 – 486 B.C.) Darius I, the grandson
was called Andhrakavita Pitamaga. of Cyrus, conquered the Indus valley in 518
✓ His important works include B.C. and annexed the Punjab and Sindh.
Manucharitam and Harikathasaram. ✓ This region became the 20th Satrapy of
• Pingali Suranna and Tenali Ramakrishna were his empire. It was the most fertile and
other important scholars. populous province of the Achaemenian
• Krishna Deva Raya himself authored a Telugu Empire.
work, Amukthamalyadha and Sanskrit works, ✓ Darius sent a naval expedition under
Jambavati Kalyanam and Ushaparinayam. Skylas to explore the Indus.
11. Correct Answer: Option (2) Xerxes (465-456 B.C.) Xerxes utilized his
Type of Question: Factual Indian province to strengthen his
Mauryan Art and Architecture: position.

✓ He deployed Indian infantry and cavalry ✓ In doing so, he equates Varendri with
to Greece to fight his opponents. But Sita, and Ramapala with Rama.
they retreated after Xerxes faced a ✓ Another charita work is found in Gujarat,
defeat in Greece. After this failure, the where Hemachandra composed
Achaemenians could not follow a Kumarapalacharita, a biography of
forward policy in India. Kumarapala, the ruler of Anahilawada.
✓ However, the Indian province was still ✓ The purpose of this work, in addition to
under their control. praising the ruler, is also to illustrate the
✓ Darius III enlisted Indian soldiers to fight rules of grammar.
against Alexander in 330 B.C. ✓ The work is bilingual in nature, being
✓ It is evident that the control of Persians composed in both Sanskrit and Prakrit
slackened on the eve of Alexander’s 14. Correct Answer: Option (3)
invasion of India Type of Question: Factual
• After two centuries of the Persian invasion, • Telugu literature owes its origin to the Eastern
Alexander from Macedonia invaded India. Chalukyas of Vengi.
✓ On the eve of his invasion, there were a • The Eastern Chalukyan king who was the
number of small kingdoms in north- originator of the desi poetry in Telugu was
western India Rajarajanarendra.
13. Correct Answer: Option (4) ✓ He patronised Nannayabhatta, the
Type of Question: Factual authors of the first three cantos of
• A classic example of charita literature is Andhra Mahabharata.
Harshacharita composed by the court poet • Prathamakavi Srigiri was the other poet
Banabhatta. patronised by Prolaya Vema Reddi.
✓ It gives us details of his patron king ✓ He was the author of the story of the
Harshavardhana’s genealogy and Navanathas.
childhood, with special focus on the • Srinatha was the greatest poet of this age.
events which led him to become the ruler ✓ He was first patronised by king Peda
of Kannauj (Thapar, 2013). Komati VemaReddi of Kondavidu.
• The other important charitas are: 15. Correct Answer: Option (1)
✓ Bilhana’s Vikramakadevacharita Type of Question: Factual
composed under Vikramaditya VI of the • Subhas Chandra Bose was president of the
Chalukyas of Kalayani; Bengal Provincial Congress Committee
✓ Padmagupta’s Navasahasankacarita • Bose did not agree with Gandhi and other
composed in the Paramara court; and, leaders of the Congress on many aspects of
Ramacharita by Sandhyakaranandin in the struggle for freedom.
the court of Palas. • At the Congress meeting in Haripura, Gujarat,
✓ Sandhyakaranandin’s work is a unique in February 1938, Bose was unanimously
kind of charita literature which employs elected president of the session.
a dual narrative, describing the ✓ The session adopted a resolution that the
achievements of Pala king Ramapala Congress would give moral support to
within the larger narrative of the Epic those who were agitating against the
story of Ramayana. governance in the princely states
✓ The poet discusses the recovery of • In January 1939, Subhas Chandra Bose
Varendri region from the Kaivartas by decided to stand again for the president’s post
king Ramapala. The Kaivartas had in the Congress.
rebelled against the Palas. ✓ Gandhi was not happy with Bose’s
candidature.

✓ Bose said he represented the “new ideas, sciences and literature through the
ideologies, problems, and programmes” medium of English language alone.
that had come out of the “the ✓ Lord Macaulay held the view that Indian
progressive sharpening of the learning was inferior to European
antiimperialist struggle in India”. learning.
✓ However, Sardar Patel, Rajendra Prasad, • In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch
J.B. Kripalani, and some other members on an educational system for India.
of the Congress Working Committee ✓ Considered the “Magna Carta of English
favoured the candidate supported by Education in India”,
Gandhi, namely, Pattabhi Sitaramayya. ✓ This document was the first
✓ Bose won the election by 1580 votes comprehensive plan for the spread of
against 1377; he got the full support of education in India.
the Congress Socialist Party and the ✓ It asked the government of India to
communists. assume responsibility for education of
• The idea of creating an army out of the Indian the masses, thus repudiating the
prisoners of war (POWs) was originally that of ‘downward filtration theory’, at least on
Mohan Singh, an Indian army officer who had paper.
decided not to join the retreating British army ✓ It systematised the hierarchy from
in Malaya vernacular primary schools in villages at
✓ The Japanese handed over the Indian bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular
prisoners of war to Mohan Singh who High Schools and an affiliated college at
tried to recruit them into an Indian the district level, and affiliating
National Army. universities in the presidency towns of
✓ The second phase of INA began with the Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras
arrival of Subhas Bose in Singapore. • In 1902, Raleigh Commission was set up to go
16. Correct Answer: Option (2) into conditions and prospects of universities
Type of Question: Factual in India and to suggest measures for
• Within the General Committee on Public improvement in their constitution and
Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the working.
government spending on education should be ✓ The commission precluded from
exclusively for modern studies. reporting on primary or secondary
✓ The Orientalists said while Western education.
sciences and literature should be taught ✓ Based on its recommendations, the
to prepare students to take up jobs, Indian Universities Act was passed in
emphasis should be placed on expansion 1904.
of traditional Indian learning. • In 1917, the Government of India appointed
✓ Even the Anglicists were divided over the the Calcutta University Commission,
question of medium of instruction commonly called the Sadler Commission after
(1) one faction was for English language as its chairman, Michael Sadler.
the medium, ✓ The commission was set up to study and
(2) while the other faction was for Indian report on problems of Calcutta
languages (vernaculars) for the purpose University, but its recommendations
• The famous Lord Macaulay’s Minute settled were applicable more or less to other
the row in favour of Anglicists universities also.
✓ The limited government resources were 17. Correct Answer: Option (4)
to be devoted to teaching of Western Type of Question: Factual

• Gandhi gave up all his other preoccupations • The army, which was at the forefront of the
and launched a whirlwind campaign against outbreak, was thoroughly reorganised and
untouchability—first from jail and then, after British military policy came to be dominated
his release in August 1933, from outside jail. by the idea of “division and counterpoise”
✓ While in jail, he set up the All India Anti- • The British could no longer depend on Indian
Untouchability League in September loyalty, so the number of Indian soldiers was
1932 and started the weekly Harijan in drastically reduced even as the number of
January 1933 European soldiers was increased.
• Babasaheb Ambedkar, who had experienced • All Indian artillery units, except a few
the worst form of casteist discrimination mountain batteries, were made defunct.
during his childhood, fought against upper- • All higher posts in the army and the artillery
caste tyranny throughout his life. departments were reserved for the
• In the 1920s, Ambedkar started a fortnightly Europeans.
newspaper, Mooknayak (Leader of the 19. Correct Answer: Option (1)
Voiceless) in 1920. Type of Question: Factual
• He stated in the Mooknayak that a nationalist • The Qutub Shahi dynasty played a very
consciousness could not develop if social important role in the mediaeval history of
divisions were ignored Deccan.
• He also formed the Bahushkrit Hitakarani • They not only maintained the balance of
Sabha in 1924 with the motto of “educate, power in Deccan but also checked for a long
agitate and organise”, the focus being on time, with the assistance of the other Deccan
mobilising the masses powers, the penetration of Mughals into the
• Ambedkar organised the All India Scheduled Deccan and south India.
Castes Federation in 1942, while several other • The Qutub Shahi kingdom rose out of the
leaders of the depressed classes had founded ruins of the Bahmani kingdom.
the All India Depressed Classes Association in • Quli Qutub Shah (1512 A.D. to 1543 A.D.)
the 1920s. ✓ Fortified the fort of Golkonda and named
18. Correct Answer: Option (3) it as Muhammadnagar, in the name of his
Type of Question: Factual patron, Muhammad Shah III.
• The revolt of 1857 marks a turning point in the • Jamshed Quili (1543 A.D. to 1550 A.D.)
history of India. • Ibrahim Qutub Shah (1550 A.D. to 1580 A.D.)
• It led to far-reaching changes in the system of ✓ Ibrahim Qutub Shah was the last son of
administration and the policies of the British Quli Qutub Shah. He is popularly known
government. to the poetic world as ‘Malkibharam’.
• On August 2, 1858, passed an act for the • Muhammud Qulii Qutub Shah (1580 A.D. to
Better Government of India. 1612 A.D.)
• The act declared Queen Victoria as the ✓ During his time the kingdom of Golkonda
sovereign of British India and provided for the embraced the whole of Andhra country.
appointment of a Secretary of State for India His reign was peaceful and prosperous.
(a member of the British cabinet). 20. Correct Answer: Option (3)
• The direct responsibility for the Type of Question: Factual
administration of the country was assumed by • By the early 16th century, the Bahmani
the British Crown and Company rule was Sultanate had completely disintegrated,
abolished. giving rise to five independent sultanates:
• The people of India were promised freedom ✓ Adil Shahi Dynasty: It was founded by
of religion without interference from British Yusuf Adil Shah, with Bijapur as its capital
officials. in 1489

✓ Nizam Shahi Dynasty: It was Established the Hindu god Krishna and Jesus returned to
by Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah, ruling from Earth.
Ahmednagar (1490). • The Ahmadiyya community, rejecting the
✓ Qutb Shahi Dynasty: It was founded by concept of Jihad against non-Muslims,
Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk, with Golconda emphasized harmonious relations among
as its capital (1518). people from all walks of life.
✓ Barid Shahi Dynasty: It was Established 22. Correct Answer: Option (3)
by Amir Qasim Barid, who ruled from Type of Question: Factual
Bidar (1487). • Ambedkar was not only a political leader and
✓ Imad Shahi Dynasty: It was founded by social reformer but also a scholar and thinker.
Fathullah Imad-ul-Mulk, with Achalpur • He has written extensively on various social
(Ellichpur) as its capital (1490). and political matters. ‘Annihilation of Castes',
• These five sultanates were collectively known 'Who Were the Shudras', 'The Untouchables’,
as the Deccan Sultanates, which ruled over ‘Buddha and His Dharma' are his more
the Deccan plateau for the next two centuries, important writings.
• Later they were gradually conquered by the ✓ The book titled "My Life is My Message"
Mughal Empire. was authored by Mahatma Gandhi.
21. Correct Answer: Option (3) • His thinking was based on a deep faith in the
Type of Question: Factual goals of equity and liberty.
• The Deoband Movement, spearheaded by the • Liberalism and the philosophy of John Dewey
orthodox faction within the Muslim ulema also influenced his thinking. Jotirao Phule and
aimed to achieve two primary goals: Buddha have exercised a deep influence on
✓ Disseminating the unadulterated Ambedkar's ideas on society, religion and
teachings of the Quran and Hadith morality.
among Muslims, and • His political views were also influenced by his
✓ Sustaining the fervor for jihad against legal approach.
foreign rulers. • Ambedkar's personal suffering, his
• Wahabi Movement (1830’s-1860’s): The scholarship and his constant attention to the
leader of the movement was Syed Ahmed problem of bringing about equality for the
Barelvi of Rae Bareilly who was greatly downtrodden untouchable community forms
influenced by the teachings of Abdul Wahab the basis of his thinking and writings.
of Arabia and Shah Waliullah, a Delhi saint. 23. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• The movement was primarily religious in its Type of Question: Factual
origin. It soon assumed the character of a class • Muslim tyranny spurred a movement for
struggle in some places, especially in Bengal. liberation in Andhra, led by Prolaya Nayaka of
Irrespective of communal distinctions, the Musunuri family.
peasants united against their landlords. • He restored Hindu dharma, revived Vedic
• Ahmadiya Movement Founded in 1889 by practices, and repealed unjust taxes from his
Mirza Ghulam Ahmad of Qadian (1839-1908), capital, Rekapaili.
the movement initially aimed to defend Islam • Success in coastal Andhra inspired revolt in
against the challenges posed by the Arya Rayalaseema under Somadevaraja.
Samaj and Christian missionaries. • After Prolaya's death, Kapaya Nayaka took up
• Ghulam Ahmad, influenced by Western the cause, with support from Warangal and
liberalism, theosophy, and Hindu religious Dwarasamudra chiefs, successfully rebelling
reform movements, declared himself to be at Warangal and ousting Muslims.
Masih (Messiah) and Mahdi in 1889, later
asserting his identity as an incarnation of both

✓ Kapaya Nayaka became the uncrowned • In October 1920, the Awadh Kisan Sabha came
king of Andhra, earning titles Andhra- into existence because of differences in
deshadhisvara and Andhra-suratrana. nationalist ranks.
• Prolaya Vema Reddi was the founder of the • The Awadh Kisan Sabha asked the kisans to
Reddi kingdom. refuse to till bedakhali land, not to offer hari
• He played a very important role in expelling and begar (forms of unpaid labour), to boycott
the Muslims from the coastal Andhra region. those who did not accept these conditions,
He was an ardent supporter of Hindu dharma. and to solve their disputes through
24. Correct Answer: Option (4) panchayats.
Type of Question: Factual • From the earlier forms of mass meetings and
• The Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha, or mobilisation, the patterns of activity changed
Religious Reform Association, was established rapidly in January 1921 to the looting of
in 1851 by a group of English-educated Parsis bazaars, houses, granaries, and clashes with
with the aim of the police.
✓ revitalizing the social conditions of the • The centres of activity were primarily the
Parsi community and restoring the districts of Rai Bareilly, Faizabad, and
Zoroastrian religion to its original purity. Sultanpur.
• Notable leaders of this movement included • The movement declined soon, partly due to
Naoroji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, K.R. government repression and partly because of
Cama, and S.S. Bengalee. the passing of the Awadh Rent (Amendment)
• The dissemination of reformist ideas was Act.
facilitated through the newspaper Rast Goftar 26. Correct Answer: Option (4)
(Truth-Teller). Type of Question: Factual
• Under the auspices of this association, Parsi • Rampa rebellion was conducted under the
religious rituals and practices underwent leadership of Alluri Seetharama Raju.
significant reforms, and the Parsi creed was • It was confined to the Agency areas of the East
redefined. Godavari and Visakhapatnam districts.
• Social initiatives were also implemented, with • The important feature of the rebellion was
a focus on uplifting the status of Parsi women. that it does not constitute a part of the
• This involved the abolition of the purdah struggle launched by the Indian National
system, raising the age of marriage, and Congress.
promoting education among Parsi women. • However, it was greatly influenced in its
25. Correct Answer: Option (3) culmination by the contemporary patriotic
Type of Question: Factual favour and anti-British feelings in the country
• Mainly due to the efforts of the Home Rule and that it was an off-shoot of the National
activists, kisan sabhas were organised in UP. movement in Andhra.
• The United Provinces Kisan Sabha was set up • Many reasons were attributed for the
in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra and outbreak of the Rampa rebellion but the
Indra Narayan Dwivedi. Madan Mohan following are prominent.
Malaviya supported their efforts. ✓ The oppressive and exploitative
• By June 1919, the UP Kisan Sabha had 450 behaviour of the taluk officer, Mr.
branches. Bastian.
✓ Other prominent leaders included ✓ The Muttadar system: The muttadars
JhinguriSingh, Durgapal Singh and Baba were the intermediaries between the
Ramchandra. tribals and the Government.

(1) They were tyrannical and ruthlessly suspects could be tried in secrecy without
exploited the innocent tribals. They had recourse to legal help.
the protection of the British officials. • Gandhi, who had been at the forefront in
✓ The greatest irritant was the forest offering cooperation in the British war effort,
reservation policy. This was adopted by and who had even offered to encourage
the British Government to increase the recruitment of Indians into the British Indian
revenue, this literally sapped the forces.
avenues of income to the tribals. ✓ He called the Rowlatt Act the “Black Act”
Type of Question: Factual Type of Question: Factual
• Kubja Vishnuvardhana was appointed by his • Domingo Paes visited Vijayanagara in about
brother Pulakesin II to rule over the Vengi 1520-1522 when Krishnadevaraya was the
region as his deputy. king.
• After the death of Pulakesin II he declared • Paes calls Vijayanagara, the Kingdom of
himself independent. Narsymga.
• Thus Kubja Vishnuvardhana became the • The visitor gives critical information on the
founder of the Chalukyan dynasty of Vengi fortifications, gates, streets and markets of
which controlled the destiny of the coastal different commodities in the city, as well as
Andhra region during the next four centuries, the major temples of the city, including the
ie; from the seventh century A.D. to eleventh Virupaksha and Vitthalswami at Hampi,
century A.D. together with its colonnaded bazaar.
• Kubja Vishnuvardhana called himself Fernao Nuniz:
Paramabhattaraka or a devout worshipper of • He was a Portuguese horse-trader, composed
Vishnu. his account around 1536-37.
• But he tolerated other religions, especially • He was in the capital during the reign of
Jainism, His queen Ayyana Mahadevi was a Achyutaraya and may have been present at
Jain and built a Jaina temple called Nadumba earlier battles fought by Krishnadevaraya.
Vasati at Vijayawada Reference • This visitor was particularly interested in the
28. Correct Answer: Option (3) history of Vijayanagara, especially the
Type of Question: Factual foundation of the city, the subsequent careers
• An extension to the Defence of India of three dynasties of rulers, and the battles
Regulations Act, 1915—was passed in March that they fought with the Deccan sultans and
1919. Odishan Rayas.
• It was what was officially called the Anarchical Pelsaert:
and Revolutionary Crimes Act, but popularly • He was a Dutch factor (Gumashta) who lived
known as the Rowlatt Act. in Agra during Jahangir’s time.
• It was based on the recommendations made • He has given a very interesting description of
in the previous year to the Imperial Legislative the social and economic conditions of many
Council by the Rowlatt Commission, headed places in the subcontinent of India.
by the British judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt, to • His description is a kind of report, which is
investigate the ‘seditious conspiracy’ of the based on his experiences and explorations
Indian people. done by him.
• The act allowed political activists to be tried Jean-Baptiste Tavernier:
without juries or even imprisoned without • He was the most famous French traveller of
trial. the seventeenth century.
• It allowed arrest of Indians without warrant • He was a jeweller by profession and came to
on the mere suspicion of ‘treason’. Such India during the reign of Shah Jahan.

30. Correct Answer: Option (2) ✓ It can exclude strangers from its
Type of Question: Factual proceedings and hold secret sittings to
• The period between 1936 and 1939 was a discuss some important matters.
period of political transformation for the ✓ It can punish members as well as
Congress. It was when the Congress opted for outsiders for breach of its privileges or its
constitutional politics suspending the path of contempt by reprimand, admonition or
agitation and confrontation. imprisonment.
• After a hectic debate on various issues by right • Individual Privileges:
wing and left wing the Congress decided to ✓ They cannot be arrested during the
contest the elections in 1937 and was session of Parliament and 40 days before
successful in forming governments in seven the beginning and 40 days after the end
provinces. of a session.
• The Congress ministries functioned for a little ✓ This privilege is available only in civil
more than two years. cases and not in criminal cases or
• The Congress Ministries resigned office in preventive detention cases.
November, 1939 on the ground that the ✓ They have freedom of speech in
Viceroy on its own had made India a Parliament.
participant in the imperialist war without ✓ No member is liable to any proceedings
consulting the Congress. in any court for anything said or any vote
Part- B given by him in Parliament or its
Constitution, Polity, Social Justice & committees.
International Relations ✓ They are exempted from jury service.
31. Correct Answer: Option (1) ✓ They can refuse to give evidence and
Type of Question: Factual appear as a witness in a case pending in
Parliamentary Privileges: a court when Parliament is in session.
• Parliamentary privileges are special rights, 32. Correct Answer: Option (3)
immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the Type of Question: Factual.
two Houses of Parliament, their committees Ethics Committee:
and their members. • This committee was constituted in Rajya
• They are necessary in order to secure the Sabha in 1997 and in Lok Sabha in 2000. It
independence and effectiveness of their enforces the code of conduct of members of
actions. Parliament.
• The Constitution has also extended the • It examines the cases of misconduct and
parliamentary privileges to those persons recommends appropriate action.
who are entitled to speak and take part in the • Thus, it is engaged in maintaining discipline
proceedings of a House of Parliament or any and decorum in Parliament.
of its committees. • Ethics committee of Lok Sabha consists of not
✓ These include the Attorney General of more than 15 members, while Rajya Sabha
India and Union ministers. consist of 10 members
• The parliamentary privileges do not extend • They shall hold the office for a term not
to the president who is also an integral part exceeding one year.
of the Parliament. • Any person can complain against a member
• Collective Privileges: through another Lok Sabha MP along with all
✓ It has the right to publish its reports, evidence of misconduct and an affidavit
debates and proceedings and also the stating that the complaint is not “false,
right to prohibit others from publishing frivolous or vexatious”.
the same.

• A member, too, can complain against another ✓ Regulation of slaughter houses and
member with evidence without any need for tanneries.
an accompanying affidavit. 34. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• In the case of the Ethics Committee, however, Type of Question: Factual.
only an MP can be examined for misconduct. • Article 276 of the Indian Constitution
33. Correct Answer: Option (4) addresses the imposition and allocation of
Type of Question: Factual. taxes by both the Union and State
Functional Items under the purview of governments.
Municipalities as per 12th Schedule of Indian • This article stipulates that taxes on
Constitution: professions, trades, callings, and
• 12th Schedule contains the following 18 employments are to be imposed and collected
functional items placed within the purview by the State government.
of municipalities: • The Union government is empowered to levy
✓ Urban planning including town planning taxes on specific matters such as the sale or
✓ Regulation of land use and construction purchase of goods, subject to certain
of buildings conditions.
✓ Planning for economic and social Profession Tax:
development • Professional tax is imposed on all professions,
✓ Roads and bridges employments, and trades, encompassing
✓ Water supply for domestic, industrial and employees, freelancers, professionals, etc.,
commercial purposes provided their income surpasses a specified
✓ Public health, sanitation, conservancy threshold.
and solid waste management • It is imposed by state governments and
✓ Fire services varies across different states.
✓ Urban forestry, protection of the • According to the Income Tax Act of 1961, it
environment and promotion of can be deducted from the taxable income.
ecological aspects • The commercial tax department administers
✓ Safeguarding the interests of weaker this tax, and the funds collected are
sections of society, including the subsequently transferred to the account of
handicapped and mentally retarded the local municipal body.
✓ Slum improvement and upgradation • Despite the implementation of GST, this tax
✓ Urban poverty alleviation remains applicable, albeit capped at a
✓ Provision of urban amenities and maximum of Rs 2,500.
facilities such as parks, gardens, 35. Correct Answer: Option (1)
playgrounds Type of Question: Factual.
✓ Promotion of cultural, educational and Delegated legislation:
aesthetic aspects • The Parliament makes laws in a skeleton form
✓ Burials and burial grounds, cremations and authorises the Executive to make detailed
and cremation grounds and electric rules and regulations within the framework of
crematoriums the parent law.
✓ Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to • This is known as delegated legislation or
animals executive legislation or subordinate
✓ Vital statistics including registration of legislation.
births and deaths • Such rules and regulations are placed before
✓ Public amenities including street lighting, the Parliament for its examination.
parking lots, bus stops and public • In a 1973 ruling, the Supreme Court affirmed
conveniences that the concept of delegated legislation has

emerged as a result of practical necessity and to the protection, welfare and development
the pragmatic requirements of a modern and advancement of the STs:
welfare State. ✓ Measures to be taken over conferring
36. Correct Answer: Option (2) ownership rights in respect of minor
Type of Question: Factual. forest produce to STs living in forest
Model Code of Conduct (MCC): areas
• MCC comprises guidelines issued by the ✓ Measures to be taken to safeguard rights
Election Commission (EC) to regulate the of the tribal communities over mineral
activities of political parties and candidates resources, water resources etc., as per
before elections. law
• It assists the EC in fulfilling its constitutional ✓ Measures to be taken for the
mandate outlined in Article 324, empowering development of tribals and to work for
it to oversee and ensure the conduct of free more viable livelihood strategies
and fair elections to both the Parliament and ✓ Measures to be taken to improve the
State Legislatures. efficacy of relief and rehabilitation
• The MCC remains in effect from the measures for tribal groups displaced by
announcement of the election schedule until development projects.
the declaration of results. ✓ Measures to be taken to prevent
• MCC doesn’t has any statutory backing. alienation of tribal people from land and
Some of the guidelines to be followed by to effectively rehabilitate such people in
candidates and political parties while MCC is in whose case alienation has already taken
motion: place.
• No party or candidate shall include in any ✓ Measures to be taken to elicit maximum
activity which may aggravate existing cooperation and involvement of tribal
differences or create mutual hatred or cause communities for protecting forests and
tension between different castes and undertaking social afforestation.
communities, religious or linguistic. ✓ Measures to be taken to ensure full
• Criticism of other political parties, when implementation of the Provisions of
made, shall be confined to their policies and Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
programme, past record and work. Areas) Act, 1996.
• There shall be no appeal to caste or communal ✓ Measures to be taken to reduce and
feelings for securing votes. ultimately eliminate the practice of
• Mosques, Churches, Temples or other places shifting cultivation by tribals that lead to
of worship shall not be used as forum for their continuous disempowerment and
election propaganda. degradation of land and the
• The Ministers shall not combine their official environment.
visit with electioneering work and shall not 38. Correct Answer: Option (3)
also make use of official machinery or Type of Question: Conceptual
personnel during the electioneering work. • The Union Government set up the National
• Ministers and other authorities shall not Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the
sanction grants/payments out of National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
discretionary funds from the time elections • Initially five religious’ communities, viz.,
are announced by the Commission. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and
37. Correct Answer: Option (4) Zoroastrians (Parsis) were notified as minority
Type of Question: Conceptual communities by the Union Government.
• In 2005, the President specified the following
other functions of the Commission in relation

• Further vide notification dated 27th January ✓ Art 21 - Protection of life and personal
2014, Jains were also notified as another liberty
minority community. ✓ Art 21A - Right to education
• Union Government constituted National ✓ Art 22 - Protection against arrest and
Commission for Minorities, New Delhi and detention in certain cases
State Government constituted State 41. Correct Answer: Option (3)
Minorities Commissions in their respective Type of Question: Conceptual
State Capitals. • Article 22 grants protection to persons who
• These organisations are set-up to safeguard are arrested or detained.
and protect the interests of minorities as • Detention is of two types, namely, punitive
provided in the Constitution of India and laws and preventive.
enacted by the Parliament and the State ✓ Punitive detention is to punish a person
Legislatures. for an offence committed by him after
• Aggrieved persons belonging to the minority trial and conviction in a court.
communities may approach the concerned ✓ Preventive detention, on the other hand,
State Minorities Commissions for redressal of means detention of a person without
their grievances. trial and conviction by a court. Its
39. Correct Answer: Option (3) purpose is not to punish a person for a
Type of Question: Factual past offence but to prevent him from
• 370 - Temporary provisions with respect to committing an offence in the near future.
the State of Jammu and Kashmir Thus, preventive detention is only a
• 371 - Special provision with respect to the precautionary measure and based on
States of Maharashtra and Gujarat suspicion.
• 371A - Special provision with respect to the • The Article 22 has two parts–the first part
State of Nagaland deals with the cases of ordinary law and the
• 371B - Special provision with respect to the second part deals with the cases of preventive
State of Assam detention law.
• 371C - Special provision with respect to the • The first part of Article 22 confers the
State of Manipur following rights on a person who is arrested or
• 371D - Special provisions with respect to the detained under an ordinary law:
State of Andhra Pradesh or the state of ✓ Right to be informed of the grounds of
Telangana arrest.
• 371E - Establishment of central university in ✓ Right to consult and be defended by a
Andhra Pradesh legal practitioner.
• 371H - Special provision with respect to the ✓ Right to be produced before a magistrate
State of Arunachal Pradesh within 24 hours including the journey
• 371I - Special provision with respect to the time.
State of Goa ✓ Right to be released after 24 hours unless
• 371J - Special provision with respect to the the magistrate authorises further
State of Karnataka detention.
40. Correct Answer: Option (1) ✓ These safeguards are not available to an
Type of Question: Factual enemy alien or a person arrested or
Right to Freedom: detained under a preventive detention
✓ Art 19 - Protection of certain rights law.
regarding freedom of speech, etc. • The second part of Article 22 grants
✓ Art 20 - Protection in respect of protection to persons who are arrested or
conviction for offences detained under a preventive detention law.

• This protection is available to both citizens as ✓ It is moved for ascertaining the
well as aliens and includes the following: confidence of Lok Sabha in the council of
✓ The detention of a person cannot exceed ministers.
three months unless advisory board ✓ If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council
reports sufficient cause for extended of ministers must resign from office.
detention the board is to consist of 44. Correct Answer: Option (4)
judges of a high court. Type of Question: Factual
✓ The grounds of detention should be • The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-
communicated to the detent However, Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced
the facts considered to be against the in Lok Sabha on September 19, 2023.
public need not be disclosed. • The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 was
✓ The detenu should be afforded an officially enacted as the One Hundred and
opportunity to make representation Sixth Amendment Act, 2023.
against the detention order. Key features of the Bill:
42. Correct Answer: Option (1) • Reservation for women:
Type of Question: Conceptual ✓ The Bill reserves one-third of all seats for
Personality rights: women in Lok Sabha, state legislative
• The name, voice, signature, images or any assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly
other feature easily identified by the public of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
are markers of a celebrity’s personality and This will also apply to the seats reserved
are referred loosely as “personality rights.” for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and states
• These could include a pose, a mannerism or legislatures.
any aspect of their personality. • Commencement of reservation:
• Many celebrities even register some aspects ✓ The reservation will be effective after the
as a trademark to use them commercially. For census conducted after the
example, Usain Bolt’s “bolting” or lightning commencement of this Bill has been
pose is a registered trademark. published.
• Personality rights or their protection are not ✓ Based on the census, delimitation will be
expressly mentioned in a statute in India but undertaken to reserve seats for women.
are traced to fall under the right to privacy ✓ The reservation will be provided for a
and the right to property. period of 15 years. However, it shall
43. Correct Answer: Option (2) continue till such date as determined by
Type of Question: Conceptual a law made by Parliament.
No Confidence Motion: • Rotation of seats:
• Article 75 of the Constitution says that the ✓ Seats reserved for women will be rotated
council of ministers shall be collectively after each delimitation, as determined by
responsible to the Lok Sabha. a law made by Parliament.
• It means that the ministry stays in office so 45. Correct Answer: Option (4)
long as it enjoys confidence of the majority of Type of Question: Factual
the members of the Lok Sabha. The motion The Government of National Capital Territory of
needs the support of 50 members to be Delhi (Amendment) Bill, 2023:
admitted. • The Bill establishes the National Capital Civil
✓ It need not state the reasons for its Services Authority, which consists of the Chief
adoption in the Lok Sabha. Minister, Chief Secretary of Delhi, and
✓ It can be moved against the entire council Principal Home Secretary of Delhi.
of ministers only. • The Authority will make recommendations to
the Lieutenant Governor (LG) regarding

transfers and postings of officials and • Countries involved in these accords were
disciplinary matters. ✓ Israel
• The Bill empowers the LG to exercise his sole ✓ UAE
discretion on several matters including those ✓ Bahrain
recommended by the National Capital Civil ✓ Sudan
Services Authority, and the summoning, ✓ Morocco
prorogation and dissolution of the Delhi 48. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Legislative Assembly. Type of Question: Factual.
• It gives department secretaries the authority Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO):
to bring up any issue that might put the Delhi • The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
government in conflict with the Central evolved from the Shanghai Five, which was
government with the LG, the Chief Minister, established in 1996 by China, Kazakhstan,
and the Chief Secretary. Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan.
46. Correct Answer: Option (4) • On 15 June 2001, these nations, along with
Type of Question: Factual. Uzbekistan, convened in Shanghai to
Kaladan Multi-modal transit transport project introduce a new organization focused on
(KMTTP): enhancing political and economic
• KMTTP is the joint project between India and collaboration.
Myanmar. • Gradually, the SCO expanded its membership
to include eight states, with India and
Pakistan becoming members in 2017.
• Iran was officially admitted as a member in
2023.
• SCO headquartered in Beijing.
• Its primary objective was to enhance regional
cooperation for efforts to curb terrorism,
separatism, and extremism in the Central
Asian region.
• Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia
enjoy Observer status in the SCO,
• KMTTP was aimed at connecting the port of
• While six other countries — Azerbaijan,
Kolkata with the port of Sittwe in Rakhine or
Armenia, Cambodia, Nepal, Turkey and Sri
Arakan State which would then be connected
Lanka have Dialogue Partner status.
to Mizoram by road and the Kaladan river
• Varanasi designated as the first ever tourist
which flows by Paletwa
and cultural capital of the SCO for the year
47. Correct Answer: Option (1)
2022-23.
Type of Question: Factual.
Abraham Accords:
• The Abraham Accords, established in 2020,
Bletchley Declaration:
are a collection of agreements inked between
• Twenty-nine countries such as the US, the UK,
Israel, UAE and Bahrain.
China, Australia, Brazil and India, along with
• It was mediated by USA.
the European Union have signed Bletchley
• It is the significant transformation in
declaration to work together to prevent
diplomatic ties within the Middle East.
“catastrophic harm, either deliberate or
• Named after the biblical figure Abraham,
unintentional” which may arise from
traditionally considered a shared ancestor of
artificially intelligent computer models and
both Jews and Arabs, the Accords symbolize a
engines.
gesture of fraternity and unity.

50. Correct Answer: Option (4) Kampala, Uganda to advance cooperation on
Type of Question: Factual. climate change induced human mobility.
BIMSTEC: • The Kampala Ministerial Declaration on
• BIMSTEC is a regional organization that was Migration, Environment and Climate Change
established on 06 June 1997 with the signing outlines concerns on the effects of climate
of the Bangkok Declaration. change on human mobility.
• Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India- • The Declaration is the first action-oriented
Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation). framework spearheaded by Member States to
• The main aim of the regional group was the tackle climate-induced mobility in a pragmatic
promotion of economic cooperation and efficient manner.
between countries bordering the Bay of 53. Correct Answer: Option (3)
Bengal. Type of Question: Factual.
• The BIMSTEC Secretariat was established in Features of Panchayats extension to Scheduled
Dhaka, Bangladesh. areas (PESA) Act 1996:
• Being a sector-driven grouping, cooperation • Every village shall have a Gram Sabha
within BIMSTEC had initially focused on six consisting of persons whose names are
sectors in 1997 (trade, technology, energy, included in the electoral rolls for the
transport, tourism, and fisheries). Panchayat at the village level.
• It was expanded in 2008 to incorporate • Every Gram Sabha shall be competent to
agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, safeguard and preserve the traditions and
counter-terrorism, environment, culture, customs of the people, their cultural identity,
people-to-people contact, and climate community resources and the customary
change. mode of dispute resolution.
• India Leads the sub sectors of Counter • Every Gram Sabha shall
terrorism and transnational crime, Disaster ✓ Approve of the plans, programmes and
management, Energy. projects for social economic
51. Correct Answer: Option (1) development before they are taken up
Type of Question: Factual. implementation by the Panchayat at the
Raisina Dialogue: village level
• The Raisina Dialogue is an annual conference ✓ Be responsible for the identification of
on geopolitics and geo-economics, which beneficiaries under poverty alleviation
aims to address the most challenging issues and other programmes
faced by the world. • Every Panchayat at the village level shall be
• The conference takes place in New Delhi and required to obtain from the Gram Sabha a
is attended by people from political, business, certification of utilisation of funds for the
media, and civil society backgrounds. above plans, programmes and projects
• Delhi-based think tank Observer Research • The Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the
Foundation, in partnership with the Ministry appropriate level shall be consulted before
of External Affairs, hosts the conference. making the acquisition of land in the
• The theme of the 2024 edition is “Chaturanga: Scheduled Areas for development projects
Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create,” and before resettling or rehabilitating persons
52. Correct Answer: Option (1) affected by such projects in the Scheduled
Type of Question: Factual. Areas.
Kampala Declaration: • The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or
• Governments from across Africa met at an the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall
Inter-Ministerial Conference on Migration, be mandatory for grant of prospecting
Environment and Climate Change held in

licence or mining lease for minor minerals in State Finance Commission (SFC):
the Scheduled Areas. • Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of
• The prior recommendation of the Gram Sabha India, the governor of a state is required to
or the Panchayats at the appropriate level constitute a Finance Commission every five
shall be mandatory for grant of concession for years.
the exploitation of minor minerals by auction. • This is in order to decide the resource
54. Correct Answer: Option (1) allocation between the state government and
Type of Question: Factual. the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Nabam Rebia vs Deputy Speaker case: • A State Finance Commission reviews the
✓ The Nabam Rebia case involved a dispute financial position of the panchayats in a state
over the powers of the Governor and and makes recommendations to the Governor
Speaker in Arunachal Pradesh. about the principles that should govern the
✓ The Supreme Court's 2015 ruling upheld distribution of tax proceeds – taxes, duties,
the Speaker's authority and levies, toll fee collected by the state between
parliamentary procedures, limiting the the state and its Panchayati Raj Institutions at
Governor's discretion in assembly all three levels – village level, block level and
matters, reinforcing constitutional district level.
principles. • Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution,
• S.R Bommai Case: the governor of a state ensures the laying of a
✓ The Supreme Court ruled that the State Finance Commission’s
President's power to dismiss a state recommendations to the table of the state
government under Article 356 is not legislature.
absolute; approval by both Houses of • It also includes a memorandum of action
Parliament is necessary. taken by the government on the
✓ It emphasized federalism as a basic Commission’s report.
feature of the Constitution and deemed • SFC recommendations are advisory in
Article 356 a last resort for when state nature.
machinery fails. • Article 280 deals with Union Finance
✓ The verdict emphasized that the majority commission
in the Assembly, not the Governor's 56. Correct Answer: Option (2)
subjective view, determines the Type of Question: Factual.
government's legitimacy. Ordinance making powers of President:
• Prakash Singh vs Union of India case deals • Article 123 of the Constitution grants the
with Police reforms which includes State DGP President certain law-making powers to
appointment and tenure, formation of State promulgate Ordinances when either of the
security commission. two Houses of Parliament is not in session and
• The Kihoto Hollohon case is a significant legal hence it is not possible to enact laws in the
matter in India where the Supreme Court, in Parliament.
1992, upheld the validity of the Tenth • An Ordinance may relate to any subject that
Schedule to the Constitution, popularly the Parliament has the power to legislate on.
known as the Anti-Defection Law. • Conversely, it has the same limitations as the
• The Supreme Court affirmed the wide Parliament to legislate, given the distribution
discretion granted to the Speaker in of powers between the Union, State and
determining the disqualification of Members Concurrent Lists.
of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs). • The President can only promulgate an
55. Correct Answer: Option (4) Ordinance when either of the two Houses of
Type of Question: Factual. Parliament is not in session.

• The President cannot promulgate an India is not a member of following
Ordinance unless he is satisfied that there are Treaties/agreements:
circumstances that require taking ‘immediate • Wassenaar Arrangement
action. ✓ The Wassenaar Arrangement, a
• Ordinances must be approved by Parliament voluntary export control regime, consists
within six weeks of reassembling or they of 42 members who share information
shall cease to operate. regarding the transfer of conventional
• They will also cease to operate in case weapons and dual-use goods and
resolutions disapproving the Ordinance are technologies.
passed by both the Houses. • Nuclear supplier group:
• Article 142: ✓ The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a
✓ Article 142 of the Indian Constitution multilateral export control regime aimed
gives the Supreme Court the power to at preventing nuclear proliferation by
issue orders and decrees to ensure controlling the export of materials,
"complete justice" in any case. equipment, and technology that can be
✓ Recently Supreme Court overturns the used to manufacture nuclear weapons.
Chandigarh mayor election results by • Non-proliferation treaty:
invoking Article 142. ✓ The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
57. Correct Answer: Option (4) (NPT) is a landmark international treaty
Type of Question: Factual. aimed at preventing the spread of
Cooperative Societies: nuclear weapons and promoting
• The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of disarmament.
2011 granted constitutional status and ✓ It obligates non-nuclear-weapon states
protection to cooperative societies. to refrain from acquiring or developing
• The amendment made three changes to the nuclear weapons and commits nuclear-
constitution: weapon states to pursue disarmament
✓ Article 19: Established the right to form efforts.
cooperative societies as a fundamental • The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty
right. (CTBT):
✓ Part IXB: Inserted Part IXB into the ✓ CTBT is an international treaty aimed at
Constitution, which specifies conditions banning all nuclear explosions for both
for state laws relating to cooperative civilian and military purposes.
societies. ✓ It prohibits nuclear testing and
✓ Article 43B: Inserted Article 43B into Part establishes a global monitoring system to
IV of the Constitution as a Directive detect and verify compliance with the
Principle of State Policy for the treaty's provisions.
promotion of cooperative societies. • Rome Statute (International Criminal court)
• 99 Constitutional amendment act:
th
✓ The Rome Statute is the treaty that
✓ The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act established the International Criminal
of 2014 and the National Judicial Court (ICC).
Appointments Commission Act of 2014 ✓ ICC is an international tribunal with
replaced the collegium system for jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for
appointing judges to the Supreme Court the international crimes of genocide,
and High Courts. It was struck down by crimes against humanity, war crimes, and
Supreme Court. the crime of aggression
Type of Question: Factual. Type of Question: Factual.

Anti-Defection Law: • By signing the charter, the member states
• The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, also pledge to support each other, including
known as the anti-defection law, was added militarily, in case of an attack on any member.
to prevent political defections. • Additionally, they are obligated to collaborate
• The rationale to curb such defections was that in preventing or resolving armed uprisings.
they undermine the foundations and Part- C
principles of Indian democracy. Economy
• The law disqualifies legislators for violating 61. Correct Answer: Option (2)
the will of their political party. Type of Question: Factual
• A legislator belonging to a political party will • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched a
be disqualified if he: Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) in 2021.
✓ Voluntarily gives up his party ✓ It is to track the process of ensuring
membership, or access to financial services, timely and
✓ Votes/abstains to vote in the House adequate credit for vulnerable groups
contrary to the direction issued by his such as weaker sections and low-income
political party. groups at an affordable cost.
• Independent members will be disqualified if • The index captures information on various
they join a political party after getting elected aspects of financial inclusion in a single value
to the House. ranging between 0 and 100.
• Nominated members will be disqualified if ✓ Where 0 represents complete financial
they join any political party six months after exclusion and 100 indicates full financial
getting nominated. inclusion.
• Members are exempted from such • According to RBI, the FI-Index comprises three
disqualification when at least two thirds of the broad parameters- Access, Usage and Quality
original political party merges with another - each carrying different weightage.
political party. • Access to financial institutions carries a
• The decision to disqualify a member from the weightage of 35 per cent, Usage 45 per and
House rests with the Chairman/Speaker of the Quality 20 per cent. Each of these consists of
House. various dimensions, which are computed
60. Correct Answer: Option (1) based on a number of indicators.
Type of Question: Factual. 62. Correct Answer: Option (4)
Liptako- Gourma charter: Type of Question: Factual
• In a recent development, military leaders • National Payments Corporation of India
from Mali, Burkina Faso, and Niger convened (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating
in Mali's capital, Bamako, to sign the Liptako- retail payments and settlement systems in
Gourma Charter, a mutual defence India
agreement. ✓ It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India
• The Liptako-Gourma Charter inaugurates the (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
Alliance of Sahel States (AES), with the ✓ It is under the provisions of the Payment
objective of creating a framework for and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for
collective defence and mutual aid for the creating a robust Payment & Settlement
populace. Infrastructure in India.
• This alliance entails a joint commitment to • Considering the utility nature of the objects of
both military and economic endeavours NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for
among the three nations. Profit” Company under the provisions of
Section 25 of Companies Act 1956.

• National Payments Corporation of India similar to physical cash, but in a digital
(NPCI) has developed the National Electronic form.
Toll Collection (NETC) program to meet the • e₹ as a legal tender issued by a central bank in
electronic tolling requirements of the Indian a digital form.
market. ✓ The conversion rate is 1 e₹ = 1 Rupee. e₹
63. Correct Answer: Option (1) shall be accepted as a medium of
Type of Question: Conceptual payment, legal tender and a safe store of
• The RBI has started publishing a set of new value.
monetary aggregates following the • e₹ is an RBI digital currency.
recommendations of the Working Group on ✓ It is like cash in a digital form which has a
Money Supply. value as per the denomination of the
• Analytics and Methodology of Compilation currency.
(Chairman, Dr. Y. V. Reddy) which submitted ✓ On the other hand, cryptocurrencies like
its report in June 1998. bitcoins are public currencies (not
• The Working Group recommended backed by RBI).
compilation of four monetary aggregates on • A cryptocurrency is a decentralized asset
the basis of the balance sheet of the banking where transactions between parties are
sector in conformity with the norms of settled by a pool of users.
progressive liquidity. ✓ In e₹, the central bank takes
• The New Monetary Aggregates are as given responsibility for ensuring the
below: transactions are settled.
✓ Reserve Money (M0) = Currency in ✓ Besides, e₹ will enjoy the same stability
circulation + Bankers’ Deposits with the in value as the rupee while
RBI + ‘Other’ deposits with the RBI. cryptocurrencies can be very volatile.
✓ Narrow Money (M1) = Currency with the 65. Correct Answer: Option (3)
Public + Demand Deposits with the Type of Question: Factual
Banking System + ‘Other’ deposits with • Insurance Regulatory and Development
the RBI. Authority of India (IRDAI) to deploy Bima
✓ M2 = M1 + Savings Deposits of Post- Vahaks in every Gram Panchayat before 31
office Savings Banks. December 2024.
✓ Broad Money (M3) = M1 + Time Deposits • As per the guidelines, every insurer shall
with the Banking System. endeavour to engage individual Bima Vahaks
✓ M4 = M3 + All deposits with Post Office and/or corporate Bima Vahaks with the focus
Savings Banks (excluding National to progressively achieve coverage of every
Savings Certificates). Gram Panchayat.
64. Correct Answer: Option (1) • Bima Vahaks shall be deployed in each Gram
Type of Question: Conceptual Panchayat before 31 December 2024
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a • The objective of Bima Vahak continues to be a
concept note on Central Bank Digital Currency women-centric, dedicated distribution
(CBDC) on October 7, 2022 channel that will ensure accessibility and
• Digital Rupee – legal tender/currency issued availability of insurance in every nook and
by RBI just like cash, in a convenient digital corner of the country.
form. 66. Correct Answer: Option (4)
• UPI/NEFT/RTGS/IMPS are all forms of digital Type of Question: Factual
payments. • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has
✓ e₹ is a digital form of currency and is a several lending instruments to meet the
legal tender provided by RBI that is

different needs and specific circumstances of Development (NABARD) was approved
its members. by the Parliament through Act 61 of
• The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) provides 1981.
financial assistance to countries facing serious • NABARD has been providing long-term
medium-term balance of payments problems refinance to the approved financial
because of structural weaknesses that require institutions under the provisions of Section
time to address. 25(i)(a) of NABARD Act, 1981
• To help countries implement medium-term ✓ It is to supplement their resources for
structural reforms, the EFF offers longer providing adequate credit for taking up
program engagement and a longer repayment investment activities in agriculture and
period. allied activities and rural off-farm sector
67. Correct Answer: Option (1) etc.
Type of Question: Factual ✓ NABARD does not directly provide loans
• SAMARTH is a placement-oriented to farmers.
programme targeting skill development of 10 69. Correct Answer: Option (2)
lakh youth in the entire value chain of textiles, Type of Question: Factual
excluding Spinning & Weaving in the • The State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2023
organized sector. has been developed by Bureau of Energy
• The Government launched the Scheme for Efficiency (BEE) in collaboration with Alliance
Capacity Building in Textile Sector (SCBTS) and for an Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE) to
named it Samarth Scheme. track EE initiatives in the states and UTs.
• SAMARTH was approved towards addressing • It provides insights about sub-national energy
the skill gap in textile sector and also to efficiency policies, programmes, and
supplement the efforts of textile industry in investments.
providing gainful and sustainable • SEEI 2023 is the fifth edition of the index,
employment to the youth. following the successful execution of State
• It is the initiative of Ministry of Textiles Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index 2018,
68. Correct Answer: Option (3) SEEI 2019, SEEI 2020, and SEEI 2021-22.
Type of Question: Factual • SEEI 2023 assesses the EE progress of the 36
• NABARD is India’s apex development bank, states and UTs for FY 2022-23 using 65
established in 1982 under an Act of qualitative, quantitative, and outcome-based
Parliament to promote sustainable and indicators distributed across 7 demand
equitable agriculture and rural development. sectors, namely:
• The recognition of the importance of ✓ Buildings, Industries, Municipal Services,
institutional credit in boosting rural economy Transport, Agriculture, DISCOMs, and
by the Government of India led to the Cross-Sector.
inception of a Committee to review the ✓ The maximum score for the index is 100.
Arrangements for Institutional Credit for • In SEEI 2023, the states and UTs are
Agriculture and Rural Development categorised as
(CRAFICARD). ✓ ‘Front runner’ (>=60), ‘Achiever’ (50-
✓ This was established under the able 59.75), ‘Contender’ (30-49.75), and
Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, ‘Aspirant’ (<30) based on their total
former Member of Planning Commission scores.
on 30 March 1979. • The top-performing states in each group are
✓ Based on the Committee’s interim report Karnataka (Group 1), Andhra Pradesh (Group
recommendation, the creation of 2), Assam (Group 3), and Chandigarh (Group
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural

4). Compared to five (5) states in SEEI 2021- the National Co-operative Development
22, Corporation Act, 1962
✓ There are seven states - Andhra Pradesh, ✓ Any other corporation owned or
Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, controlled by the Government
Maharashtra, Punjab and Telangana in ✓ Such class or classes of persons or
the ‘Front runner’ category in SEEI 2023. associations of persons as may be
✓ Two states, Assam and Uttar Pradesh are permitted by the Central Registrar having
in the ‘Achiever’ category, regard to the nature and activities of the
✓ Three states—Goa, Jharkhand, and Tamil Society.
Nadu—are in the ‘Contender’ category. • No individual shall be eligible to become
70. Correct Answer: Option (1) ordinary member of the BBSSL.
Type of Question: Factual • Any company created or incorporated under
• India is the largest producer, consumer and the Companies Act/Producer Companies Act,
exporter of turmeric in the world. except a Government Company, can only
• In the year 2022-23, India constitutes over become an Associate or Nominal Member.
75% of global turmeric production. 72. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown Type of Question: Analytical
in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the • PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja
country. Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) Scheme
• The largest producing states of Turmeric are is aimed at ensuring energy security for
Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil farmers in India.
Nadu. ✓ Along with honouring India’s
• The Government of India today notified the commitment to increase the share of
constitution of the National Turmeric Board. installed capacity of electric power from
The National Turmeric Board will focus on the non-fossil-fuel sources to 40% by 2030 as
development and growth of turmeric and part of Intended Nationally Determined
turmeric products in the country. Contributions (INDCs).
✓ It is under the Ministry of Commerce & • The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in
Industry. 2019 with 3 components:
71. Correct Answer: Option (4) ✓ Component-A: For Setting up of 10,000
Type of Question: Factual MW of Decentralized Grid Connected
• Ministry of Cooperation has set up Bhartiya Renewable Energy Power Plants on
Beej Sahkari Samiti Limited under the Multi- barren land.
State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002. ✓ Component-B: For Installation of 17.50
• The BBSSL will undertake production, Lakh stand-alone solar agriculture
procurement & distribution of quality seeds pumps.
under single brand through cooperative ✓ Component-C: For Solarisation of 10 Lakh
network to improve crop yield and develop a Grid Connected Agriculture Pumps.
system for preservation and promotion of 73. Correct Answer: Option (3)
indigenous natural seeds. Type of Question: Factual
• Ordinary Members: The following shall be Foreign Trade Policy 2023:
eligible to become ordinary member of the • FTP seeks to take India's exports to 2 trillion
BBSSL:- dollars by 2030.
✓ Any multi-State co-operative society or • The Key Approach to the policy is based on
any co-operative society. these 4 pillars:
✓ The National Co-operative Development ✓ Incentive to Remission
Corporation (NCDC) established under

✓ Export promotion through collaboration • The other arm is the around 1,500-km
- Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Western DFC from Dadri in Uttar Pradesh to
Missions JNPT in Mumbai, touching all major ports
✓ Ease of doing business, reduction in along the way.
transaction cost and e-initiatives • Built at a cost of Rs 5,750 crore through a loan
✓ Emerging Areas – E-Commerce from World Bank which is funding a majority
Developing Districts as Export Hubs and of the EDFC; the WDFC is being funded by the
streamlining SCOMET policy. Japan International Cooperation Agency.
• The FTP 2023 aims at process re-engineering
and automation to facilitate ease of doing
business for exporters.
✓ It also focuses on emerging areas like
dual use high end technology items
under SCOMET.
• The new FTP is introducing a one-time
Amnesty Scheme for exporters to close the
old pending authorizations and start afresh.
Type of Question: Factual 76. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• The World Economic Forum is the Type of Question: Factual
International Organization for Public-Private • Agricultural and Processed Food Products
Cooperation. Export Development Authority (APEDA) a
• It provides a global, impartial and not-for- Statutory Body under the Ministry of
profit platform for meaningful connection Commerce & Industry, Government of India
between stakeholders to establish trust, and • It is the nodal agency for promoting Indian
build initiatives for cooperation and progress. agro and processed food exports and is
• The World Economic Forum (WEF) publishes a responsible for facilitating and promoting
variety of reports and series: export of horticulture, floriculture, processed
✓ The Future of Growth Report food, poultry products, dairy and other agro
✓ Global Risks Report products.
✓ Global Gender Gap Index • It was established by the Government of India
✓ Energy Transition Index under the Agricultural and Processed Food
✓ Global Competitiveness Report Products Export Development Authority Act
✓ Global IT Report passed by the Parliament in December, 1985.
✓ Global Travel and Tourism Report 77. Correct Answer: Option (4)
• The main bodies of the United Nations are the Type of Question: Factual
General Assembly, the Security Council, the • The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) is a
Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship report released by NITI Aayog that evaluates
Council, the International Court of Justice, and the performance of India's states and union
the UN Secretariat. territories (UTs) in export-related areas.
75. Correct Answer: Option (2) • The index was first launched in August 2020 in
Type of Question: Factual partnership with the Institute for
Dedicated Fright Corridor: Competitiveness
• The DFC consists of two arms 1,839 km • EPI assess the performance of the States and
Eastern DFC that starts at Sohnewal UTs across four pillars – Policy, Business
(Ludhiana) in Punjab and ends at Dankuni in Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export
West Bengal. Performance.

78. Correct Answer: Option (1) Type of Question: Factual
Type of Question: Factual LEADS Report 2023:
• The Union Budget 2023-24 has highlighted the • LEADS was conceived on the lines of Logistics
importance of coarse grains or millets as Performance Index (LPI) of World Bank in
means of sustainable cultivation that can raise 2018 and has evolved over time.
the income of small farmers in arid regions • While the LPI relies entirely on perception-
besides providing food and nutritional based surveys, LEADS incorporates both
security globally. perception as well as objectivity thereby
• Millets have been an integral part of our enhancing the robustness and
Indian diets for centuries. comprehensiveness of this exercise.
• Millets, in addition to providing numerous • The 5th edition of the LEADS annual exercise -
health benefits, are also beneficial to the LEADS 2023 report, provides insights into
environment due to their low water and input improvement of logistics performance at
requirements. State/UT level.
• The United Nations declared 2023 the • This report, signalling a positive shift in States’
International Year of Millets at the request of performance across the key pillars – Logistics
the Government of India to raise awareness Infrastructure, Logistics Services and
and increase the production and consumption Operating and Regulatory Environment,
of millets. empowers the State/UT Governments by
• The economic survey 2023, highlighted that providing region specific insights for informed
India alone was responsible for the decision making and comprehensive growth.
production of 80 per cent of Asia’s and 20 per 81. Correct Answer: Option (3)
cent of the global production of millet. Type of Question: Factual
• India’s average yield of millet is 1239 kg/ha, • Tampon tax or period tax is the VAT or GST
compared to the global average yield of 1229 applied on menstrual products, which makes
kg/ha. their prices skyrocket, making it hard for many
• India is the largest producer and second- to afford them.
largest exporter of Shree Anna in the world. • The tampon tax makes it impossible for many
79. Correct Answer: Option (1) girls across the world to afford menstrual
Type of Question: Factual products, eventually hampering their
SAMARTH campaign: education and work life.
• The Ministry of Rural Development, • Period tax still exists in many countries, while
Government of India is running a “Campaign items like toilet paper, over-the-counter
on Promoting Digital Transactions in 50000 medicines, and condoms have been made tax-
Gram Panchayats” which started from 1st free, sparking a major outrage. However,
February 2023 and continued till 15 August many countries have taken steps to make sure
2023 under the AzadiKa Amrit Mahotsav. that tampon tax is not levied on menstrual
✓ The key thrust of the campaign is to products anymore.
promote Digital Transactions in rural • In 2022, Scotland became the first nation to
areas, particularly among women. make tampons and sanitary pads free and
• The #SAMARTH campaign, executed under available at designated public places such as
the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National community centres, youth clubs and
Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) within pharmacies.
the Ministry of Rural Development, • Sin taxes: These taxes are levied on goods and
encompasses a series of milestones aimed at services deemed harmful to health or morals,
enhancing rural livelihoods. such as tobacco, alcohol, and gambling.

Type of Question: Factual ✓ reduce forced migration and also lead to
• The Ministry of Mines in India recently the conservation of natural resources.
unveiled the country's first-ever report on 84. Correct Answer: Option (1)
"Critical Minerals for India." Type of Question: Conceptual
• This comprehensive report, prepared by an • Raising tax rates can initially increase tax
expert team, identifies 30 critical minerals revenue, as per the Laffer Curve, but beyond
crucial for various sectors like defence, a certain point (tm), revenue starts to decline
agriculture, energy, pharmaceuticals, and due to decreased economic activity.
telecom. • The curve is an inverted U-shape, with zero
• India has become the newest partner in the revenue at both 0% and 100% tax rates.
coveted Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) Excessive rates deter work, leading to a shift
to bolster critical mineral supply chains. towards non-taxable leisure.
• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is • A. W. Phillips introduced the Phillips Curve,
currently emphasizing the exploration of which posits a consistent and inverse
critical and deep-seated minerals to boost the connection between inflation and
growth of the mining sector. unemployment in the economy.
• The Ministry of mines plans to periodically • Max O. Lorenz created the Lorenz curve in
review and update the critical mineral list. 1905 as a method to visually represent the
• The release of the Critical Minerals List is a distribution of income or wealth within an
significant step toward India's goal of self- economy.
reliance and security in the domain of mineral • The Kuznets Curve illustrates the theory that
resources. economic growth initially results in increased
• This compiled list prioritizes minerals inequality, followed by subsequent
essential for industrial sectors such as high- reductions in inequality.
tech electronics, telecommunications, 85. Correct Answer: Option (4)
transport, and defence. Type of Question: Factual
• It will serve as a guiding framework for policy • The Ministry of Skill Development and
formulation, strategic planning, and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration
investment decisions in the mining sector, with Generation India Foundation (GIF) and
aligning with the larger vision of achieving a Amazon Web Services India Private Limited
'Net Zero' target for India (AWS India) is providing ‘cloud’ skills training
83. Correct Answer: Option (3) to 1,500 learners and connecting them to
Type of Question: Factual employment opportunities, under project
• In the absence of skill and education, AMBER
organized sectors have traditionally had • The initiative has been undertaken under the
minimal contribution in tribal livelihood as SANKALP programme of MSDE with a focus on
compared to the national average. women to improve gender diversification in
• The Grameen Udyami Scheme was launched the tech industry and underprivileged groups.
to augment skill training in tribal communities • It intends to train 30,000 people, with a
for their inclusive and sustainable growth. particular emphasis on having 50% of the
• Under the programme, the endeavor is to trainees be female.
multi skill India’s youth and impart functional • The two-year training program, which focuses
skills to them for enabling livelihoods. on resilient job roles, is intended to address
• It is implemented under the Sansadiya Sankul post-COVID challenges.
Pariyojana with an aim to • By utilizing Generation's extensive seven-step
✓ expand the rural/local economy skill development process which will improve
✓ enhance employment opportunities job and retention rates.

86. Correct Answer: Option (1) The Mines and Minerals (Development and
Type of Question: Factual Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023:
• The Indian Council of Agricultural Research • The exploration licence will be issued for 29
(ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under minerals specified in the Seventh Schedule.
the Department of Agricultural Research and ✓ These include gold, silver, copper, cobalt,
Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and nickel, lead, potash, and rock phosphate.
Farmers Welfare, Government of India. • These also include six minerals classified as
• Formerly known as Imperial Council of atomic minerals under the Act: (i) beryl and
Agricultural Research, it was established on beryllium, (ii) lithium, (iii) niobium, (iv)
16 July 1929 as a registered society under the titanium, (v) tantallium, and (vi) zirconium.
Societies Registration Act, 1860 in pursuance The Bill declassifies them as atomic minerals.
of the report of the Royal Commission on ✓ Unlike other minerals, the prospecting
Agriculture. and mining of atomic minerals is
• The ICAR has its headquarters at New Delhi. reserved for government entities under
• The Council is the apex body for co-ordinating, the Act.
guiding and managing research and education • The exploration licence will be granted by the
in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries state government through competitive
and animal sciences in the entire country. bidding.
• With 113 ICAR institutes and 74 agricultural • The central government will prescribe details
universities spread across the country this is such as manner of auction, terms and
one of the largest national agricultural conditions, and bidding parameters for
systems in the world. exploration licence through rules.
87. Correct Answer: Option (4) • The exploration licence will be issued for five
Type of Question: Factual isof up to two years by making an application
• The establishment of the AP State Seeds to the state government. The application may
Development Corporation Limited on March be made after three years of issuance of
26, 1976, aims to enhance and streamline licence but before its expiry.
quality seed production in the state, aligning 89. Correct Answer: Option (1)
with the National Seed Project objectives. Type of Question: Factual.
• The APSSDCL was set up with active joint Kuznets Curve:
participation of Government of Andhra • Kuznets curve used to demonstrate the
Pradesh, Government of India through hypothesis that economic growth initially
National Seeds Corporation, and shareholder
farmers of the State.
• The main objective of the Andhra Pradesh
State Seeds Development Corporation
Limited is to produce good quality seeds for
timely supply to the farmers in the State at
reasonable prices.
• The APSSDCL is managed by a Board of
Directors consisting of 10 Directors.
• All the Directors are appointed once in 3 years
leads to greater inequality, followed later by
according to the Principle of proportional
the reduction of inequality.
representation.
Laffer curve:
• The Laffer curve is a theoretical curve that
Type of Question: Factual
illustrates the relationship between tax rates
and government tax revenue.

• The curve is often used to support the
argument that lowering tax rates can increase
total tax revenue.
Phillips Curve:
• The Phillips curve is an economic theory that
inflation and unemployment have a stable
and inverse relationship.
Lorenz Curve:
• The Lorenz curve relating the distribution of
income among households in a population.
Global Multi-dimensional poverty Index:
• The global MPI Report is jointly published by
United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human
Development Initiative (OPHI).
• It measures 10 indicators among three main
dimensions: Part- D
✓ Health
Geography
✓ Education
✓ Standard of Living
Absolute humidity:
• Absolute humidity is a measure of the actual
amount of water vapour (moisture) in the air,
regardless of the air's temperature.
• The higher the amount of water vapor, the
higher the absolute humidity.
• For example, a maximum of about 30 grams
of water vapor can exist in a cubic meter
volume of air with a temperature in the
middle 80s.
• SPECIFIC HUMIDITY refers to the weight
(amount) of water vapour contained in a unit
weight (amount) of air (expressed as grams of
water vapour per kilogram of air)
• Absolute and specific humidity are quite
National Multi-dimensional poverty Index:
similar in concept.
• National MPI is being measured by NITI
Relative humidity:
Aayog.
• Relative humidity (RH) (expressed as a
• Along with 10 indicators of Global MPI index,
percent) also measures water vapour, but
it also covers indicators of Maternal Health
RELATIVE to the temperature of the air.
(under Health dimension) and Bank account
• In other words, it is a measure of the actual
(under Standard of Living).
amount of water vapour in the air compared
• National MPI uses NFHS data, which is
to the total amount of vapour that can exist in
conducted by the International institute for
the air at its current temperature.
population sciences.
• Warm air can possess more water vapour
(moisture) than cold air, so with the same

amount of absolute/specific humidity, air will ✓ It is the smallest and weakest of the cells.
have a HIGHER relative humidity if the air is
cooler, and a LOWER relative humidity if the
air is warmer.
• What we "feel" outside is the actual amount
of moisture (absolute humidity) in the air.
Global atmospheric circulations:
• Global Atmospheric Circulation is the
movement of air around the planet.
• It explains how thermal energy and storm
systems move over the Earth's surface.
• Hadley Cell:
✓ At low latitudes, air moves toward the
equator, where it is heated and rises
vertically. In the upper atmosphere, air
moves poleward. 93. Correct Answer: Option (2)
✓ This forms a convection cell that covers Type of Question: Factual.
tropical and sub-tropical climates. Earth Quakes:
• An earthquake is what happens when two
✓ This cell is named for English physicist
and meteorologist George Hadley, who blocks of the earth suddenly slip past one
proposed the single circulation for each another.
• The surface where they slip is called the fault
hemisphere in 1735
• Ferrel Cell:
or fault plane.
• The location below the earth’s surface where
✓ In this mid-latitude atmospheric
circulation cell, air near the surface flows the earthquake starts is called the
poleward and eastward, while air higher hypocentre.
• The location directly above it on the surface of
in the atmosphere moves equatorward
and westward. the earth is called the epicentre.
✓ Proposed by William Ferrell in 1856, it Types of Seismic Waves:
• Body waves - travel through the earth's
was the first to account for westerly
winds between 35° and 60° N/S, which interior.
are caused by friction, not heat ✓ Ex: P-waves, S-waves
• Surface waves - can only move along the
differences at the equator and poles.
• Polar Cell:
surface of the planet
✓ At higher latitudes, air rises and travels ✓ Love waves, Rayleigh waves
toward the poles.
✓ Once over the poles, the air sinks,
forming areas of high atmospheric
pressure called the polar highs.
✓ At the surface, air moves outward from
the polar highs, creating east-blowing
surface winds called polar easterlies.

• P-Waves: ✓ Most of the shaking felt from an
✓ The first kind of body wave is the P wave
or primary wave.
✓ The particle motion of P waves is parallel
to the direction of propagation of the
wave.
✓ This is the fastest of seismic waves.
✓ The P wave can move through solid rock
and fluids, like water or the liquid layers
of the earth.
✓ It pushes and pulls the rock as it moves
through; just like sound waves push and
pull the air.
• S-Waves:
✓ The second kind of body wave is the S
wave or secondary wave. earthquake is due to the Rayleigh wave,
✓ The particle motion of the wave is which can be much larger than the other
perpendicular to the direction of waves.
propagation of the wave. • Mercalli scale uses the observations of the
✓ An S wave is slower than the P wave and people who experienced the earthquake to
can only travel through solid rock. estimate its intensity.
✓ This wave moves rock up and down, or • This scale, composed of 12 increasing levels of
side-to-side. intensity that range from imperceptible
• Love waves: shaking to catastrophic destruction, is
✓ It's the fastest surface wave and moves designated by Roman numerals.
the ground from side-to-side. 94. Correct Answer: Option (3)
✓ The arrow shows the direction that the Type of Question: Factual.
wave is moving. Grasslands:
• Rayleigh waves: • Grasslands are found where there is not
✓ A Rayleigh wave rolls along the ground enough regular rainfall to support the growth
of a forest, but not so little that a desert form.
Region Grasslands There are two main kinds of grasslands:
North America Prairies • Tropical
South America Pampas, Llanos, • Temperate
Cerrados ✓ Examples of temperate grasslands
Africa Savannah, Veld include Eurasian steppes, North
NothAsia & Steppes, Taiga American prairies, and Argentine
Europe pampas.
Australia, New Downs, Rangeland, ✓ Tropical grasslands include the hot
Zealand Canterbury savannas of sub-Saharan Africa and
Hungary Pustaz northern Australia.
Tanzania Serengeti Volcanic • Some of the grasslands around the world:
just like a wave rolls across a lake or an 95. Correct Answer: Option (2)
ocean. Type of Question: Factual.
✓ Because it rolls, it moves the ground up Water, Ice, Society and ecosystems (WISE)
and down, and side-to-side in the same report:
direction that the wave is moving.

• The Water, ice, society, and ecosystems in the • The Mediterranean Sea, situated between the
Hindu Kush Himalaya (HI-WISE) report continents of Eurasia and Africa, is almost
released by The International Centre for entirely surrounded by land.
Integrated Mountain Development
(ICIMOD).
• According to this report, Rivers in eastern and
north-eastern India including the
Brahmaputra, Ganga and Teesta will, like their
counterparts in the rest of the Hindu Kush
Himalayas (HKH), see a rapid increase in
stream flow followed by water scarcity.
• It pointed out that glaciers in the HKH region
“can lose up to 80 per cent of their current
volume by the end of the century (with)
Himalayan glaciers disappeared 65 percent
faster in the 2010s than in previous decade”.
Mount Kilimanjaro:
• It shares borders with 21 countries including
• Located in Tanzania, Mount Kilimanjaro is
Africa’s tallest mountain at about 5,895 Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina,
meters (19,340 feet). Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel,
• It is the largest free-standing mountain rise in
Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco,
the world, meaning it is not part of a mountain Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria,
range. Tunisia, and Turkey.
• African nations: Algeria, Morocco, Libya,
• Also called a stratovolcano (a term for a very
large volcano made of ash, lava, and rock), Tunisia, Egypt
• To the west, it connects to the Atlantic Ocean
Kilimanjaro is made up of three cones:
✓ Kibo via the Strait of Gibraltar, to the east it links to
✓ Mawenzi the Black Sea through the Dardanelles Straits,
✓ Shira. and to the south, it connects to the Red Sea
• Kibo is the summit of the mountain and the
via the Suez Canal.
• The Nile River in Africa flows into the
tallest of the three volcanic formations.
• While Mawenzi and Shira are extinct, Kibo is
Mediterranean Sea.
dormant and could possibly erupt again. 98. Correct Answer: Option (1)
• In 1973, the mountain and its six surrounding
forest corridors were named Kilimanjaro Atlantification:
• Atlantification refers to the phenomenon
National Park in order to protect its unique
environment. where warmer and saltier Atlantic water
• The park was named a United Nations
intrudes into the Arctic Ocean, resulting in
Educational, Scientific and Cultural increased temperatures and salinity levels, as
Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage site in well as a reduction in sea ice.
• This process primarily manifests as diminished
1987.
97. Correct Answer: Option (4) ice cover in the eastern Eurasian Basin, a
Type of Question: Factual. weakening of the halocline, and heightened
Countries bordering Mediterranean Sea: winter ventilation within the ocean.
• Consequently, this region adopts structural
similarities to the western Eurasian Basin.

99. Correct Answer: Option (2) Pancheshwar multipurpose project:
Type of Question: Factual. • India and Nepal had signed a Treaty known as
Khondalite rocks: Mahakali Treaty in February, 1996.
• Khondalite, a metamorphic rock type, is Implementation of Pancheshwar
abundant in the Eastern Ghats area of India, Multipurpose Project is the centrepiece of the
notably in the state of Odisha. Mahakali Treaty.
• It derives its name from the Khondalite Group • Pancheshwar Main Dam is proposed on river
of rocks, presumed to have originated Mahakali (known as river Sarada in India),
approximately 1.6 billion years ago during the where the river forms the international
Proterozoic era. boundary between the Far Western
• Comprising predominantly of feldspar, quartz, Development Region of Nepal and State of
and mica, Khondalite displays a notable Uttarakhand in India.
pinkish-grey colouration. • The dam site is around 2.5 km downstream of
• These rocks were named after Khond tribes the confluence of river Sarju with river
of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh because well- Mahakali.
formed examples of the rock were found in 102. Correct Answer: Option (1)
the inhabited hills of these regions of eastern Type of Question: Factual.
India. Tropic of Cancer:
• Khondalite stones are proposed to be used Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 States in India:
widely to maintain aesthetic value of some • Gujarat
projects such as heritage security zone, • Rajasthan
Jagannath Ballav pilgrim centre, Puri lake • Madhya Pradesh
development project, Atharnala heritage • Chhattisgarh
project and Matha Development Initiative. • Jharkhand
100. Correct Answer: Option (4) • West Bengal
Type of Question: Factual. • Tripura
Tantalum in Sutlej River: • Mizoram
• A team of researchers from the Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT), Ropar has found
the presence of Tantalum, a rare metal, in the
Sutlej river sand in Punjab.
• The presence of tantalum is significant not
only for Punjab but also India as the metal is
widely used in electronics and
semiconductors.
• Tantalum is a rare metal with the atomic
number 73 — the number of protons found in
one atom of the element.
• It’s grey, heavy, very hard, and one of the 103. Correct Answer: Option (3)
most corrosion-resistant metals in use today. Type of Question: Factual.
• It possesses high corrosion resistance because • Lake Titicaca:
when exposed to air, it forms an oxide layer ✓ Lake Titicaca is a large freshwater lake in
that is extremely difficult to remove, even the Andes Mountains on the border of
when it interacts with strong and hot acid Bolivia and Peru.
environments. ✓ It's the highest navigable body of water
101. Correct Answer: Option (2) in the world, with a surface elevation of
Type of Question: Factual. 3,812 meters (12,507 feet).

• Lake Victoria: ✓ Vertical wind shear is the change in wind
✓ Lake Victoria is the world's largest speed with height.
tropical lake and the largest lake in the ✓ Presence of Coriolis force.
African Great Lakes region. 105. Correct Answer: Option (3)
✓ The lake supports the largest freshwater Type of Question: Factual.
fishery in the world, producing 1 million Some of the volcanoes in news:
tons of fish per year and employing Volcano Country
200,000 people in supporting the Mount Merapi Indonesia
livelihoods of 4 million people. Kilauea USA
✓ Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda share Lake Mount Etna, Stromboli Italy
Victoria. Piton de la Fournaise Reunion Island
• Lake Poopo: Mount Yasur Vanuatu
✓ Lake Poopó is a large saline lake in Sakurajima Japan
Bolivia's Altiplano Mountains. Fuego Guatemala
✓ It's located at an altitude of about 12,100 Popocatépetl Mexico
ft and is 90 by 32 km (56 by 20 mi) long Galapagos Volcano Ecuador
and wide.
• Barren Island is an island located in the
✓ The lake's main inlet is the Desaguadero Andaman Sea.
River, which enters the lake at the north
• It is the only confirmed active volcano in the
end Indian subcontinent, and the only active
104. Correct Answer: Option (4) volcano along a chain of volcanoes from
Type of Question: Factual. Sumatra to Myanmar.
Favourable conditions for Tropical cyclone 106. Correct Answer: Option (1)
formation: Type of Question: Factual.
• A tropical cyclone is a warm-core low pressure
Regions in news:
system, without any front attached, that • Puntland region:
develops over the tropical or subtropical ✓ Puntland is an autonomous state in
waters and has an organized circulation. north-eastern Somalia.
• These include hurricanes and typhoons.
✓ It's located at the tip of the Horn of
• There are several favourable environmental
Africa, which is made up of Somalia,
conditions that must be in place before a
Ethiopia, Eritrea, Djibouti, and Kenya
tropical cyclone can form. They are: • Abeyi Region:
✓ Warm ocean waters (at least 27°C)
✓ The Abyei region is a 10,546 square
throughout a depth of about 150 ft. (46 kilometer territory on the border
m).
between Sudan and South Sudan.
✓ An atmosphere which cools fast enough • Amami Islands:
with height such that it is potentially ✓ The Amami Islands are a chain of
unstable to moist convection. limestone islands in the Satsunan Islands,
✓ Relatively moist air near the mid-level of which are part of the Ryukyu Islands.
the troposphere (16,000 ft. / 4,900 m). ✓ They are located in the East China Sea
✓ Generally, a minimum distance of at least between Okinawa and Kyushu,
300 miles (480 km) from the equator. southwest of Japan.
✓ A pre-existing near-surface disturbance. • Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region:
✓ Low values (less than about 23 mph / 37
✓ The Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region
km/h) of vertical wind shear between the (Xinjiang) is an autonomous region of the
surface and the upper troposphere. People's Republic of China (PRC).

Type of Question: Factual. ✓ This cooling contributes to the formation
Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): of a positive IOD
• IOD, sometimes referred to as the Indian
Nino, is a similar phenomenon, playing out in
the relatively smaller area of the Indian Ocean
between the Indonesian and Malaysian
coastline in the east and the African coastline
near Somalia in the west.
• IOD is the difference between the
temperature of eastern and the western part
of Indian Ocean.
• One side of the ocean, along the equator, gets
warmer than the other.
• IOD is said to be positive when the western
side of the Indian Ocean, near the Somalia • Negative IOD:
coast, becomes warmer than the eastern ✓ In the Indian Ocean basin, air circulation
Indian Ocean. typically moves west to east, flowing
• It is negative when the western Indian Ocean from the African coast toward the
is cooler. Indonesian islands near the surface, and
• Positive IOD: conversely, in the opposite direction at
✓ During certain occasions, air circulation upper levels.
weakens slightly from its usual intensity, ✓ Consequently, surface waters in the
and in rare instances, it may even reverse Indian Ocean are propelled from west to
direction. east.
✓ As a result, the African coastline ✓ During years of intensified air circulation,
experiences warming while the greater quantities of warm surface
Indonesian coastline undergoes cooling. waters from the African coast are pushed
✓ Positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) events toward the Indonesian islands, resulting
tend to occur concurrently with El Niño in above-average warmth in that region.
occurrences, whereas negative IOD ✓ This leads to the ascent of hotter air,
events are occasionally linked with La thereby reinforcing the cycle
Niña phenomena.
✓ A positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)
contributes to increased rainfall along
the coastline’s Indian subcontinent.
✓ During El Niño episodes, the Pacific side
of Indonesia experiences cooler-than-
normal conditions, which in turn lead to
cooling on the Indian Ocean side.

El-Nino:

• El Nino is a climatic phenomenon Mangrove forests:
characterized by the abnormal warming of • There are about 80 different species of
surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific mangrove trees.
Ocean. • All of these trees grow in areas with low-
• It represents the "warm phase" of the broader oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow
El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) fine sediments to accumulate.
phenomenon and tends to occur more • Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and
frequently than La Nina. subtropical latitudes near the equator
• The discovery of El Niño traces back to because they cannot withstand freezing
Peruvian fishermen off the coast of Peru, who temperatures.
observed the appearance of unusually warm Mangrove forests in India:
water. • India possesses approximately 4,992 square
• It was named El Nino, meaning "the little boy" kilometers of mangrove forest cover,
in Spanish, by Spanish immigrants. accounting for 0.15% of its total geographical
• El Nino also affects ocean temperatures, the area.
velocity and intensity of ocean currents, the • Mangrove forests are categorized based on
vitality of coastal fisheries, and regional their canopy density into three types:
weather patterns from Australia to South • Very Dense (over 70%)
America and beyond. • Moderately Dense (40%-70%)
• Convection over warmer surface waters leads • Open (10%-40%).
to heightened rainfall. • As of 2021, 29.55% of mangroves were
• This surge in rainfall notably impacts South classified as Very Dense, 29.67% as
America, leading to coastal flooding and Moderately Dense, and 40.78% as Open. Over
erosion. the period from 2019 to 2021, India's
• Communities ravaged by natural calamities mangrove cover expanded by 17 square
such as floods or droughts often face kilometers due to regeneration and
increased risks of disease outbreaks. plantation efforts.
La-Nina: • The Sundarbans in West Bengal comprise
• La Nina, also known as the "Little Girl," 41.74% of India’s total mangroves, covering
represents the opposite of El Nino. This an area of 2,114 square kilometers of dense
phenomenon entails cooler-than-average sea forest.
surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific • Other significant mangrove sites include:
region, constituting the "Cool phase" of the ✓ Bhitarkanika in Odisha, the second-
cycle. largest mangroves in India, spanning 672
• During La Nina, trade winds intensify, driving square kilometers.
warmer water towards Asia. ✓ It holds status as an important Ramsar
• Weather-wise, the presence of Pacific cold wetland.
waters near the Americas redirects jet ✓ Godavari-Krishna Mangroves in Andhra
streams northward. Pradesh, stretching along the coast from
• La Nina typically results in drier conditions in Odisha to Tamil Nadu.
the Southern United States and has been ✓ Kerala Backwaters, densely populated
linked to severe floods in Australia. with mangroves along intricate canal
• In the Indian context, La Nina is associated networks.
with favourable rainfall during the monsoon ✓ Pichavaram in Tamil Nadu, hosting one of
season. the world’s largest areas of mangrove-
109. Correct Answer: Option (1) covered water.
Type of Question: Factual. 110. Correct Answer: Option (2)

Type of Question: Factual. Isotach:
National Water Ways: • An isotach is a plotted line on a weather map
NWs Name States/Territories or chart that links locations with uniform wind
NW 1 Ganga- UP, Bihar, speeds.
Bhagirathi- Jharkhand, West • Meteorologists employ these lines to depict
Hooghly Bengal wind patterns and pinpoint regions
NW2 Brahmaputra Assam characterized by either strong or weak winds.
River 112. Correct Answer: Option (2)
NW3 West Coast Canal Kerala Type of Question: Conceptual
and Champakara • Initially monsoons are viewed as a massive
and convectional circulation, monsoons are
Udyogmandal distinguished by the seasonal reversal of wind
Canals direction.
NW4 The Kakinada- Andhra Pradesh, • In summer, the southern hemisphere's trade
Puducherry Telangana, winds shift northward due to the sun's
stretch of Canals Karnataka, Tamil apparent northward movement and the
integrated Nadu and presence of a low-pressure core in the north-
Bhadrachalam - Maharashtra west of the Indian subcontinent.
Rajahmundry • Upon crossing the equator, these winds are
stretch of River deflected to the right by the Coriolis force,
Godavari and giving rise to the south-west monsoons as
Wazira they approach the Asian landmass.
Vijayawada Conversely, in winter, the conditions reverse,
stretch of River forming a high-pressure core north of the
Krishna Indian subcontinent. Divergent winds result
NW5 East Coast canal Odisha and West from this anticyclone movement, traveling
and Matai River Bengal southwards towards the equator.
111. Correct Answer: Option (3) • The apparent southward movement of the
Type of Question: Conceptual sun enhances this movement, giving rise to
Isobars: the north-east or winter monsoons, which
• Isobars are lines connecting places having contribute to precipitation along the east
equal pressure. coast of India.
• The spacing of isobars expresses the rate of • The monsoon winds flow over India, Pakistan,
pressure changes and is referred to as Bangladesh, Myanmar (Burma), Sri Lanka, the
pressure gradient. Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, south-eastern
• Close spacing of isobars indicates a steep or Asia, northern Australia, China and Japan.
strong pressure gradient, while wide spacing • Outside India, in the eastern Asiatic countries,
suggests weak gradient. such as China and Japan, the winter monsoon
Isohaline: is stronger than the summer monsoon.
• An Isohaline denotes a mapped or charted 113. Correct Answer: Option (2)
line linking locations with identical salinity Type of Question: Factual
levels within a water body, such as an ocean, • The tectonic mountains may be categorized
sea, lake, or estuary. into
• These delineations aid in illustrating the ✓ Fold mountains (the Himalayas, the
spatial distribution of salt concentration, Rockies, the Andes)
influenced by factors like river influx,
evaporation, and ocean currents.

✓ Block mountains (Vosges mountains in Ocean current Type
France, the Black Forest in Germany, Gulf Stream Warm current
Vindhya and Satpura in India) Kuroshio Current Warm current
✓ Volcanic mountains (Cascade Range in Labrador Current Cold current
the USA, Mount Kenya, Mount Canary Current Cold current
Kilimanjaro, Mount Fujiyama). 116. Correct Answer: Option (2)
• Inland mountains Type of Question: Conceptual
✓ The Vosges and the Black Forest (Europe) • The earth’s rotation on its axis causes day and
✓ The Kunlun, Tienshan, Altai mountains of night.
Asia • The earth’s revolution around the sun in an
✓ The Urals of Russia, the Aravallis elliptical manner causes perihelion (closest
✓ The Himalayas, the Satpura, and the position of earth to sun) and aphelion
Maikal of India. (farthest position of earth to sun).
114. Correct Answer: Option (1) • Latitudinal position of the place determines
Type of Question: Factual the amount of sunlight received.
• Pacific Ocean: • Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis causes
✓ Samoa, group of Polynesian islands and seasons or variations in the length of daytime
islets in the south-central Pacific Ocean and night time from season to season.
about 1,600 miles (2,600 km) northeast 117. Correct Answer: Option (4)
of New Zealand. Type of Question: Factual
• South Pacific Ocean River Continent Ocean
✓ Fiji, country and archipelago in the South Nile Africa Mediterranean
Pacific Ocean Sea
• Mid-Atlantic Ocean Amazon South Atlantic Ocean
✓ The Cape Verde Islands are located in the America
mid-Atlantic Ocean some 450 kilometers Sea of Okhotsk
off the west coast of Africa. The Amur Asia
(Pacific Ocean)
archipelago includes 10 islands and 5 Parana South Atlantic Ocean
islets, divided into the windward America (via Rio de la Plata
(Barlavento) and leeward (Sotavento) estuary)
groups.
Yangtze Asia East China Sea
• Aleutian Islands are located in North Pacific
(Chang (Pacific Ocean)
Ocean
Jiang)
Type of Question: Conceptual
• Streams cut their beds slower, and lateral
erosion of valley sides becomes severe.
• Gradually, the valley sides are reduced to
lower and lower slopes.
• The divides between drainage basins are
likewise lowered until they are almost
completely flattened leaving finally, a lowland
of faint relief with some low resistant
remnants called monadnocks standing out
here and there.

✓ This type of plain forming as a result of • The International Date Line, established in
stream erosion is called a peneplain (an 1884, passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean
almost plain). and roughly follows a 180 degrees longitude
• Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial north-south line on the Earth. It is located
till. halfway around the world from the prime
✓ Terminal moraines are long ridges of meridian — the 0 degrees longitude line in
debris deposited at the end (toe) of the Greenwich, England.
glaciers. • The International Date Line functions as a
✓ Lateral moraines form along the sides “line of demarcation” separating two
parallel to the glacial valleys. consecutive calendar dates. When you cross
• Point bars are also known as meander bars. the date line, you become a time traveller of
• They are found on the concave side of sorts! Cross to the west and its one day later;
meanders of large rivers and are sediments cross back and you’ve “gone back in time.
deposited in a linear fashion by flowing waters Strait Contagious Water bodies
along the bank. landmass
✓ They are almost uniform in profile and in Bosporus Divides Europe The Black Sea
width and contain mixed sizes of strait from Asia to Sea of
sediments. Marmara
• Cirques are the most common of erosional Bab el Djibouti, Yemen, The Gulf of
landforms in glaciated mountains. Mandab and Eritrea of the Aden and the
• The cirques quite often are found at the heads Somali Peninsula Red Sea
of glacial valleys. Strait of Malaysia and The Pacific
• The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while Malacca Sumatra Ocean to the
moving down the mountain tops. They are east with the
deep, long and wide troughs or basins with Indian Ocean
very steep concave to vertically dropping high to the west
walls at its head as well as sides Cook New Zealand The Tasman
119. Correct Answer: Option (1) strait Sea and
Type of Question: Conceptual South Pacific
• Rocks formed out of solidification of magma Ocean
(molten rock below the surface) and lava
(molten rock abovethe surface) and are
known as igneous or primary rocks.
• Having their origin under conditions of high
temperatures the igneous rocks are
unfossiliferous.
• Granite, gabbro, basalt, are some of the
examples of igneous rocks.
• There are three types of igneous rocks based
on place and time taken in cooling of the
molten matter, plutonicrocks, volcanic rocks
and intermediate rocks.
• The lava that is released during volcanic
eruptions on cooling develops into igneous
rocks.

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APPSC Group-I | Full Length Test-03 | Paper-I | Test Code: G1WPT-0116

Key and Explanations

21 (3) 51 (1) 81 (3) 111 (3)

22 (3) 52 (1) 82 (4) 112 (2)

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108. Correct Answer: Option (1)

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