Fourier Analysis - HW 1

Sam Johnson

Due Monday, January 29

Instructions:
• Write your solutions in LATEX. Your full name should be on the first page.
• Proof should be written in complete sentences. All statements should be logically justified.
For computations, show sufficient work to demonstrate understanding of the problem.
• You are free to work with your classmates and get help in office hours. However, your work
must be written in your own words and demonstrate your personal level of understanding.
Copying another students work or copying work from an outside source such as the internet
is prohibited.
• Return the assignment in class or to TUC 305 on the due date no later than 3pm. Late
homework will not be accepted. You may submit a physical copy or a digital copy in pdf
form. If you submit multiple pages, staple them together.

Problem 1.
(Steinitz Exchange Lemma) Let n, m ∈ N. Suppose that {e1 , . . . , en } and {f1 , . . . , fm } are both
bases for a vector space V . Prove that for each k ≤ n, there exists j ≤ m such that
{e1 , . . . , ek−1 , fj , ek+1 , . . . , en } is a basis for V (i.e. exchanging ek and fj yields a new basis).
If E = {e1 , . . . , en } and F = {f1 , . . . , fm } are both bases for a vector space V , then each set of
vectors are linearly independent and span V . So choose some k ≤ n. We have
ek = a1 f1 +· · ·+am fm ̸= (0, . . . , 0) for some ai in my field since F spans V . To give a contradiction,
suppose for every j ≤ m, the set Sj = {e1 , . . . , ek−1 , fj , ek+1 , . . . , en } does not span V . We
must be failing to span {cek |c is in our field}. Then fj = bj1 e1 + · · · + bjk ek + . . . bjn en uniquely
since E is a basis, and so we must have for every j, bjk = 0. Then this implies that writing
ek = a1 f1 + · · · + am fm ̸= (0, . . . , 0) is equivalent to writing ek as a linear combination of elements
from Ek − {ek }, which contradicts that E is a linearly independent set.

Problem 2.
Let n, m ∈ N. Suppose that {e1 , . . . , en } and {f1 , . . . , fm } are both bases for a vector space V .
Prove that n = m. Hint: Use the Steinitz Exchange Lemma.
By the exchange lemma, for each ek , there exists some fj ∈ F for which Sj is a basis. This fj
must be unique, otherwise suppose that for one ek , there exists fi ̸= fj such that Si and Sj span.
Then for any v ∈ V , v = a1 e1 + · · · + ai fi + . . . and v = b1 e1 + · · · + bj fj + . . . . The projection map
from V to V − {cek |c is in field} satisfies πk (a1 e1 + · · · + ai fi + . . . ) = πk (b1 e1 + · · · + bj fj + . . . ) or
am = bm for every m ̸= k. Then v = a1 e1 + · · · + ai fi + · · · = b1 e1 + · · · + bj fj + . . . iff ai fi = bj fj ,
or fi , fj are linearly dependent. Consider the correspondence between elements of the sets E, F
made by ϕ(ek ) = ϕ(fj ) if Sj spans. We have just shown ϕ is injective. Then we can also say by the
exchange theorem, for each fj in F , there exists ek in E such that {f1 , . . . , ej−1 , ek , fj+1 , . . . , fm }
shows that ϕ is surjective. Then a bijection between elements of finite sets shows that m = n.
Problem 3.
Suppose f and g are continuous C-valued functions on [−1, 1]. Prove that if f is odd and g is even
(i.e. f (−x) = −x and g(−x) = g(x) for all x ∈ [−1, 1]), then f and g are orthogonal with respect
to the L2 [−1, 1] inner product
Z 1
⟨f, g⟩ = f (x)g(x)dx
−1

If g = u + iv, then g(−z) = −u + iv = −g(z), so g is an odd function. If h(x)f g, then

h(−x) = −f (x)g(x) = −h(x), so h is odd.
R1 R0 R1 R0 R1
Then −1
f (x)g(x)dx = −1 h(x)dx + 0 h(x)dx = −1 −h(−x)dx + 0 h(x)dx =
R0 R1
1
h(u)du + 0 h(x) = 0 by using substitution u = −x.