QUESTIONER OF GR.
3
1. Four hours after a difficult labor and birth, a
primiparous woman refuses to feed her baby, stating that she
is too tired and just wants to sleep. The nurse should:
A. Tell the woman she can rest after she feeds her baby
B. Recognize this as a behavior of the taking-hold
stage.
C. Record the behavior as ineffective maternal-
newborn attachment.
D. Take the baby back to the nursery, reassuring the
woman that her rest is a priority at this time.
2. Parents can facilitate the adjustment of their other
children to a new baby by:
A. Having the children choose or make a gift to give to
the new baby upon its arrival home.
B. Emphasizing activities that keep the new baby and
other children together.
C. Having the mother carry the new baby into the home
so she can show the other children the new baby.
D. Reducing stress on others by limiting their
involvement in the care of the new baby.
3. A primiparous woman is in the taking-in stage of
psychosocial recovery and adjustment following birth. The
nurse, recognizing the needs of women during this stage,
should:
A. Foster an active role in the baby’s care.
B. Provide time for the mother to reflect on the events
of and her behavior during childbirth.
C. Recognize the woman’s limited attention span by
giving her written materials to read when she gets
home rather than doing a teaching session now.
D. Promote maternal independence by encouraging her
to meet her own hygiene and comfort needs.
4. All of the following are important in the immediate
care of the premature neonate. Which nursing activity should
have the highest priority?
A. Neurological assessment to determine gestational
age.
B. Placement in a warm environment.
C. Identification by bracelet and footprints.
D. Instillation of antibiotics in the eyes
5. A woman is considered to be menopause if she has
experienced cessation of her menses for a period of
A. 6 months
B. 12 months C. 18 months
D. 24 months
6. Which of the following is the correct practice of self-
breast examination in a menopausal woman?
A. She should do it at the usual time that she
experiences her menstrual period in the past to
ensure that her hormones are not at their peak.
B. Any day of the month is regularly observed on the
same day every month.
C. Anytime she feels like doing it ideally every day.
D. Menopausal women do not need
regular self-breast exams as long as they do it at least
once every 6 months.
7. In assisted reproductive technology (ART), there is a
need to stimulate the ovaries to produce more than one mature
ova. The drug commonly used for this purpose is:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Provera
C. Clomiphene
D. Estrogen
8. On completing a fundal assessment, the nurse notes
the fundus is situated on the client’s left abdomen. Which of
the following actions is appropriate?
A. Ask the client to empty her bladder.
B. Straight catheterize the client immediately.
C. Call the client’s health provider for direction.
D. Straight catheterize the client for half of her uterine
volume.
9. A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse
determines that the client is beginning in the second stage of
labor when which of the following assessments is noted?
A. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid.
B. The contractions are regular.
C. The membranes have ruptured.
D. The cervix is dilated completely.
10. A nurse in the labor room is caring for a client in the
active phases of labor. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns
and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The most
appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Place the mother in the supine position.
B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the
fetal patterns.
C. Administer oxygen via face mask.
D. Increase the rate of Pitocin IV infusion.
1
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
11. A nurse is performing an assessment of a client who 16. When making a visit to the home of a postpartum
is scheduled for cesarean delivery. Which assessment finding woman one week after birth, the nurse should recognize that
would indicate a need to contact the physician? the woman would characteristically:
A. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute. A. Express a strong need to review events and her
B. White blood cell count of 12,000. behavior during the process of labor and birth.
C. Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats per minute. B. Exhibit a reduced attention span, limiting readiness
D. Hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL. to learn.
C. Vacillate between the desire to have her own
nurturing needs met and the need to take charge of
12. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room
her own care and that of her newborn.
and is prepared for cesarean delivery. The client is transferred
to the delivery room table, and the nurse places the client in D. Have reestablished her role as a spouse/partner.
the:
A. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups. 17. Which vitals sign indicates that a 5-year-old child
B. Semi-Fowler position with a pillow under the knees. requires immediate attention?
C. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated. A. Systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg
D. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip. B. Bulging, pulsatile posterior fontanel
C. Heart rate of 94 beats/min (bpm)
13. A nurse is caring for a client in labor and prepares to D. Respiratory rate of 68 breaths/min
auscultate the fetal heart rate by using a Doppler ultrasound
device. The nurse most accurately determines that the fetal 18. The layer of uterine muscle that is most active during
heart sounds are heard by: labor is composed of what kind of fibers?
A. Noting if the heart rate is greater than 140 BPM. A. Longitudinal
B. Placing the diaphragm of the Doppler on the B. Interlacing
mother's abdomen. C. Circular
C. Performing Leopold’s maneuvers first to determine D. None of the Above
the location of the fetal heart.
D. Palpating the maternal radial pulse while listening to 19. A delay in language development is suggested by:
the fetal heart rate.
A. Babbling at 6 months.
B. Saying three words at 18 months.
14. Perineal care is an important infection control
measure. When evaluating a postpartum woman’s perineal
C. Having a vocabulary of 50 words in 2.5 years.
care technique, the nurse would recognize the need for further D. Beginning to use two-word sentences at 3 years.
instruction if the woman:
A. Uses soap and warm water to wash the vulva and 20. The primary fetal risk when a mother has any type of
perineum. anemia is:
B. Washes from symphysis pubis back to episiotomy. A. Neonatal anemia
C. Changes her perineal pad every 2 – 3 hours. B. Elevated bilirubin C. Limited infection defenses
D. Uses the peri bottle to rinse upward into her vagina. D. Reduced oxygen delivery.

15. Which measure would be least effective in

preventing postpartum hemorrhage?
A. Administer Methergine 0.2 mg every 6 hours for 4
doses as ordered.
B. Encourage the woman to void every 2 hours.
C. Massage the fundus every hour for the first 24 hours
following birth.
D. Teach the woman the importance of rest and
nutrition to enhance healing.
21. Drug toxicity may occur more rapidly in the infant
for which reason?
A. Larger surface area requires a larger dosage.
B. Fewer enzymes are available to bind with the drug.
C. Renal immaturity may delay drug excretion.
D. The blood–brain barrier becomes less selective with
maturity.
22. The nurse should expect the HIV-infected pregnant
woman to receive:
2
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
A. Antibiotics C. Abdominal wall.
B. Protease inhibitors C. Zidovudine D. Great toe.
D. Acyclovir.
28. The nursery nurse is careful to wear gloves when
23. A pregnant woman is prone to urinary tract infection admitting neonates into the nursery. Which of the following is
primarily because: the scientific rationale for this action?
A. A large volume of fetal wastes must be excreted by A. Meconium is filled with enteric bacteria.
her kidneys. B. Amniotic fluid may contain harmful viruses.
B. Urine stasis allows additional time for bacteria to C. The high alkalinity of fetal urine is caustic to the
multiply. skin.
C. The volume of urine excreted is reduced and its D. The baby is at high risk for infection and must be
specific gravity is high. protected.
D. Reduced blood flow to the urinary tract allows waste
to accumulate. 29. A mother, 1 day postpartum from a 3-hour labor and
a spontaneous vaginal delivery, questions the nurse because
24. The best indicator of pain in a 15-month-old toddler her baby’s face is “purple.” Upon examination, the nurse
is: notes petechiae over the scalp, forehead, and cheeks of the
A. Behavioral changes. baby. The nurse’s response should be based on which of the
B. Changes in vital signs. following?
C. The child’s parents’ assessment of the child’s pain. A. Petechiae are indicative of severe bacterial
infections.
D. The child’s verbal response.
B. Rapid deliveries can injure the neonatal presenting
part.
25. The nurse is discussing the importance of doing
Kegel exercises during the postpartum period. Which of the C. Petechiae are characteristic of the normal newborn
rash.
following should be included in the teaching plan?
A. She should repeatedly contract and relax her rectal D. The injuries are a sign that the child has been
abused.
and thigh muscles.
B. She should practice by stopping the urine flow
midstream every time she voids. 30. A mother asks whether or not she should be
concerned that her baby never opens his mouth to breathe
C. She should get on her hands and knees whenever
when his nose is so small. Which of the following is the
performing the exercises.
nurse’s best response?
D. She should be taught that toned pubococcygeal
A. “The baby does rarely open his mouth but you can
muscles decrease blood loss.
see that he isn’t in any distress.”
B. “Babies usually breathe in and out through their
26. When asked when she last fed the baby her reply is,
noses so they can feed without choking.”
“I fed the baby last evening. I let the nurses feed him in the
nursery last night. I needed to rest.” Which of the following C. “Everything about babies is small. It truly is
amazing how everything works so well.”
actions should the nurse take at this time?
A. Encourage the woman exclusively to breastfeed her D. “You are right. I will report the baby’s small nasal
openings to the pediatrician right away.”
baby.
B. Have the woman massage her breasts hourly.
31. A woman states that she frequently awakens with
C. Obtain an order to culture her expressed breast milk.
“painful leg cramps” during the night. Which of the following
D. Take the temperature and pulse rate of the woman. assessments should the nurse make? A. Dietary evaluation.
B. Goodell’s sign.
27. A neonate is in the warming crib for poor
C. Hegar’s sign.
thermoregulation. Which of the following sites is appropriate
for the placement of the skin thermal sensor?
D. Posture evaluation.
A. Xiphoid process.
B. Forehead.
3
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
32. A woman provides the nurse with the following 37. During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses
obstetrical history: Delivered a son, now 7 years old, at 28 the fetal heart rate. The nurse determines that the fetal heart
weeks’ gestation; delivered a daughter, now 5 years old, at 39 rate is normal if which of the following is noted?
weeks’ gestation; had a miscarriage 3 years ago, and had a A. 80 BPM
first-trimester abortion 2 years ago. She is currently pregnant.
B. 100 BPM C. 150 BPM
Which of the following portrays an accurate picture of this
D. 180 BPM
woman’s gravidity and parity? A. G4 P2121.
B. G4 P1212. C. G5
P1122. 38. What cycle day does the proliferative stage occur?
D. G5 P2211. A. Cycle day 7-14
B. Cycle day 14-28
33. Which of the following findings would be expected C. Cycle day 1-6
when assessing the postpartum client? D. Cycle day 1-14
A. Fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus 1 hour
postpartum. 39. In what stage does the corpus luteum form?
B. Fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus on a postpartum A. Luteal Phase
day 3. B. Follicular Phase
C. Fundus palpable in the abdomen at 2 weeks C. Proliferative Phase
postpartum.
D. None of the above
D. Fundus slightly to the right; 2 cm above umbilicus
on postpartum day
40. A nurse is describing the process of fetal circulation
2.
to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse accurately tells
the client that fetal circulation consists of:
34. What type of milk is present in the breasts 7 to 10
A. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery.
days PP?
B. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein.
A. Colostrum
C. Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus.
B. Transitional milk
D. Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus.
C. Mature milk
D. Hind milk
41. Rosann’s primary care provider is considering
whether to augment her labor with oxytocin. Which of the
35. A client arrives at a prenatal clinic for the first following would make you question the care provider’s use of
prenatal assessment. The client tells a nurse that the first day oxytocin for her?
of her last menstrual period was September 19th, 2013. Using
A. Her blood pressure is slightly elevated above
Naegele’s rule, the nurse determines the estimated date of
normal.
confinement as:
B. Her membranes ruptured after only 1 hour of labor.
A. July 26, 2013
C. Her fetus is large for gestational age by sonogram.
B. June 12, 2014
D. She had an amniocentesis performed during
C. June 26, 2014 pregnancy.
D. July 12, 2014
42. Celeste Bailey didn't recognize for over an hour that
36. A nurse is collecting data during an admission she was in labor. During her prenatal education, Celeste
assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client should have been taught to recognize which sign of true labor.
has a healthy 5-year-old child that was delivered at 37 weeks
A. Sudden loss of energy from epinephrine release.
and tells the nurse that she doesn’t have any history of
abortion or fetal demise. The nurse would document the B. “Nagging” but constant pain in the lower back.
GTPAL for this client as: C. Urinary urgency from increased bladder pressure.
A. Gravida 3, para 2001 D. “Show” or release of the cervical mucus plug.
B. Gravida 2, para 0101 43. Celeste is anxious for her placenta to deliver so she
can move to a rocking chair and help relieve her back pain. In
C. Gravida 1, para 1101
D. Gravida 2, para 1001
4
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
order to best facilitate Celeste's wishes, which action would C. Color, breathing rate, cry, amount of brown fat, and
be best to do? response to loud noise
A. Tug gently on the umbilical cord until the placenta D. Abdominal tone, persistence, reflexes, blood
come loose pressure, and response to pain.
B. Ask celeste to continue hard pushing as she did to
birth her baby 48. Beth Ruiz has milia on her nose. What teaching point
C. Push on the lax fundus of her uterus to cause the would constitute a safety risk?
placenta to loosen. A. “These will disappear on their own, so you don't
D. Assure her that a placenta loosen quickly so the need to take any
waiting time will not be long. action.”
B. “Wash Beth the same way that nurse first taught
44. Suppose Celeste is having long and hard uterine you.”
contractions. What length of contraction would report as C. “Try to gently scratch off these spots in a few days.”
indicative of a potential safety risk. D. “Make sure that you keep Beth bundled warmly.”
A. Any length of contraction over 30 seconds
B. A contraction over 70 seconds in length 49. Transferring an object from hand to hand typically occurs
C. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds by what age?
D. A contraction that appears intensely painful. A. 7-8 months
B. 10 months
45.You assess Celeste Bailey’ s uterine contractions and the
FHR. Which of the following would you document as late C. 4 months
deceleration? D. 12 months
A. The FHR began increasing 45 seconds after the 50. What is the primary purpose of the
contraction was over. Leopold maneuvers during pregnancy?
B. The FHR decreased in rate 30 seconds after the start A. Assessing fetal heart rate
of a contraction.
C. The FHR decreased in strength after the 10th
B. Determining fetal position and presentation
consecutive contraction. C. Estimating amniotic fluid volume
D. A decrease in FHR occurs but is totally unrelated to D. Measuring fundal height
timing of contractions.

51. What do you call a narrow, brown line that forms from
46. A Moro reflex is the single best assessment of neurologic the umbilicus to the symphysis pubis and separates the
ability in a newborn. Unit protocols should specify what abdomen into right and left halves?
action for eliciting a Moro reflex in Beth?
A. linea nigra
A. Turn her on her abdomen and see if she can turn her
head. B. striae gravidarum
B. Make a sharp noise, such as clapping your hands. C. Diastasis
C. Lift her head while she is supine and allow it to fall D. Melasma
back 1 in.
D. Gently shake Beth’s bassinette until she responds by
52. This stretching can cause rupture and atrophy of small
failing out her arms.
segments of the connective layer of the skin, leading to
streaks on the sides of the abdominal wall and sometimes
47. Beth Ruiz had Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 on the thighs.
minutes after birth. Which of the following are the five
areas assessed with Apgar scoring?
A. Diastasis

A. Heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex B. Striae gravidarum

irritability, and color. C. Linea nigra
B. Respiratory rate, abdominal tone, reflexes, color, and D. Melasma
head circumference

5
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
53. This is the "hormone that maintains pregnancy" A. Striae Gravidarum
A. Estrogen B. Rubra
B. Endocrine C. Linea Nigra
C. Gonadotropin D. Distensae
D. Progesterone
60. The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis:
nuchal rigidity, fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse
54. The sex of the fetus can be determined at what gestational
knows to prepare for the following test
week?
A. end of 12th week
A. blood culture.

B. end of 24th week

B. throat and ear culture.
C. CAT scan.
C. end of 16th week
D. lumbar puncture.
D. end of 28th week
55. Length of the embryo at end of 40th gestational week
A. 25cm 61. The nurse is assessing a 9-month-old boy for a well-baby
check up. Which of the following observations would be
B. 20cm of most concern?
C. 38-43cm A. The baby cannot say “mama” when he wants his
D. 48-52cm mother.
B. The mother has not given him finger foods.
56. How many cotyledons does the placenta have? C. The child does not sit unsupported.
A. 15-20 D. The baby cries whenever the mother goes out.
B. 10-12
C. 20-25 Situation 1: Raphael, a 6 year’s old prep pupil is seen at the
school clinic for growth and development monitoring
D. 5-10
62. Which of the following is characterized by the rate of
57. A nurse explains to a 32 year old pregnant woman growth during this period?
undergoing a non-stress test is a way of evaluating the
A. most rapid period of growth
condition of the fetus by comparing the fetal heart rate
with: B. a decline in growth rate
C. growth spurt
A. Fetal movement
D. slow uniform growth rate
B. Maternal blood pressure
C. Fetal lie
63. What is a normal systolic blood pressure for a 3-year-old
D. Maternal uterine contraction child?
A. 60 mm Hg
58. What is happening in the first stage of labor? B. 93 mm Hg
A. The cervix opens or dilates and thins out to allow the C. 120 mm Hg
baby to move into the birth canal.
D. 150 mm Hg
B. Ready for childbirth 64. What should a nurse do to ensure a safe hospital
C. After birth where you push out the placenta environment for a toddler?
D. Recovery A. Place the child in a youth bed.
B. Move stacking toys out of reach.
59. What do we call a dark line that extends from the C. Pad the crib rails.
umbilicus to the mons pubis, commonly appearing during
D. Move the equipment out of reach.
pregnancy?
6
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
65. Which one of the following is not considered as D. Using a back-and-forth motion
presumptive signs of pregnancy?
A. Ballottement 72. During the palpation of the lower uterine segment, you
B. Increased urination felt that it was movable. What is the degree of
C. Amenorrhea engagement?
D. Quickening A. Not engaged.
B. Head.
66. Which of the following is not a positive sign of C. Buttocks D. Engaged.
pregnancy?
A. Ultrasound detecting fetus 73. The primary purpose of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
B. Fetal movement made by the examiner. (GnRH) is to stimulate:
C. Goodell’s sign D. Delivery of the placenta. A. The development of the woman’s breast for
lactation.
67. It’s a skin condition sometimes called the mask of B. Growth of pubic and axillary hair.
pregnancy, and it can look like brown patches or C. Breakdown of the endometrium during the
discoloration on the face. menstrual flow.
A. Striae caerelae D. Secretion of the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Striae Nigrae and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior
pituitary gland.
C. Chloasma
D. Striae Gravidarum
74. Conditions that cause the fallopian tubes to be narrower
than normal may result in:
68. You’re assessing a patient’s chart and find that the patient
A. Excessive cramping and bleeding during
is 36 weeks pregnant. Where should you find the fundus
menstruation.
of the uterus during your assessment of fundal height?
B. Increased likelihood of pregnancy during each cycle.
A. midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process
C. More rapid propulsion of the ovum through the tube.
B. about 4 cm below the xiphoid process
D. Implantation of a fertilized ovum within the tube.
C. at the xiphoid process
D. 5 cm above the umbilicus
75. A pregnant woman expects to give birth to her first baby
in approximately 1 week. She asks the nurse whether she
69. A patient says she has never been pregnant before. You has a bladder infection because she urinates so much,
would chart this as? although urination causes no discomfort. The nurse
A. Nullipara should explain to her that:
B. Primigravida A. Urinary tract infections are most common just before
C. Nulligravida birth, so she should have a urine specimen tested.
D. Multigravida B. Her fetus is probably lower in her pelvis, putting
more pressure on her bladder.
70. The nurse teaches a pregnant woman that which C. Limiting her fluid can reduce the number of times
diagnostic test evaluates the effect of fetal movement on she must interrupt her activity to urinate.
fetal heart activity? D. The fetal growth has probably stopped and she
A. Nonstress test should expect to start labor in a few days.
B. Contraction stress test
C. Ultrasonography 76. When assessing a laboring woman’s blood pressure, the
nurse should:
D. Fetoscopy
A. Inflate the cuff at the beginning of a contraction.
71. What is the first step in providing perineal care for a B. Check the blood pressure between two contractions.
female resident? A. Until the perineum is Red. C. Expect a slight elevation in
blood pressure.
B. Wipe front to back.
C. Wipe back to front. D. Position the woman on her back with her knees bent.
7
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
77. The most appropriate time for the nurse to encourage a A. Effacement
laboring woman to push is during: B. Both A and C
A. The interval between contractions. C. Dilation
B. First-stage of labor. D. None of the Above
C. Second-stage of labor.
D. Whenever she feels the need. 83. The nurse implements efforts to maintain
78. When palpating labor contractions, the nurse should use: thermoregulation based on the notion that neonates have
A. Use the palm of one hand while palpating the lower little ability to regulate body temperature?
uterus. A. Have a smaller body surface compared to body mass
B. Avoid palpating during the period of maximum B. Lose more body heat when they sweat than adults
intensity. C. Have an abundant amount of subcutaneous fat all
C. Place the fingertips over the fundus of the uterus. over
D. Limit palpations to three consecutive contractions. D. Are unable to shiver effectively to increase heat
production
79. When performing fourth Leopold’s maneuver, the nurse
determines that the cephalic prominence is on the same 84. Annika is changing the diaper of her 20-hour-old
side as the fetal back. How should this assessment be newborn and wonders why the feces is nearly black.
interpreted? Which reaction from the nurse would be the most
A. The fetus is in breech position with the head appropriate?
extended. A. "You probably took iron during your pregnancy."
B. The fetus is in a face presentation with the head B. "This is meconium stool, normal for a newborn."
extended. C. "I'll take a sample and check it for possible
C. The fetus is in a transverse lie presentation with the bleeding."
face toward the mother’s back. D. "This is unusual and I need to report this."
D. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation with the head
well flexed. 85. When weighing a newborn, Nurse John places a warm
blanket on the scale. The nurse does so to reduce heat loss
80. The nurse should note how long the interval between through what mechanism?
contractions lasts because: A. Evaporation
A. Maternal cells restore their glucose levels during the B. Conduction
interval. C. Convection
B. A very short interval requires earlier administration D. Radiation
of analgesia. 86. Amy asks the nurse, "Why has my baby lost weight since
C. Most exchange of fetal oxygen and waste products he was born?" The nurse integrates knowledge of which
occurs. of the following when responding to amy?
D. The interval becomes longer as cervical dilation A. Insufficient calorie intake
increases. B. Shift of water from extracellular space to
intracellular space
81. Enlargement or widening of the cervical canal from the C. Increase in stool passage
opening of the cervical canal from an opening a few D. Overproduction of bilirubin
millimeters wide to 1 approximately 10 cm to permit
passage of a fetus?
87. Grace assessed a pregnant client and prepared to test her
A. Effacement and Dilation blood pressure. How does the nurse position the client?
B. Effacement A. In a sitting position with the arm in a horizontal
C. Dilation position at heart level
D. None of the above B. Supine , on the right side
C. Lying down with the arm in a
82. Shortening and thinning of the cervical canal, horizontal position at heart level
approximately 1 to 2 cm long? D. Supine , on the left side
8
QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
88. Fina described Braxton-Hicks contractions. What does
the nurse advise a pregnant client about the expected
problems and contractions?
A. Indicate that labor has started
B. Necessitate bed rest for the remainder of the
pregnancy
C. Must be reported to the primary health care provider
D. Are a common occurrence of pregnancy
89. Liz Calhorn, 18 years of age, asks how much longer her
nurse practitioner will refer to the baby inside her as an
embryo. To ensure team members use terms consistently,
the nurse would want them to know the conceptus is
classified as an embryo at what time?
A. At the time of fertilization
B. When the placenta forms
C. From implantation until 20 weeks
D. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks
90. Liz Calhorn tells the nurse she is worried her baby will be
born with a congenital heart disease. What assessment of
the umbilical cord at birth would be most important to
help detect congenital heart defects?
A. Assessing whether the pH of the Wharton jelly is
higher than 7.2
B. Assessing whether the umbilical cord has two
arteries and one vein
C. Measuring the length of the cord to be certain it is
longer than 3 ft
D. Determining that the umbilical cord is neither green
nor yellow stained
91. Liz Calhorn asks the nurse why her nurse midwife is
concerned whether her fetus's lungs are producing
surfactant. The nurse's best answer would be:
A. "Surfactant keeps lungs from collapsing at birth, so
it aids newborn breathing."
B. "Surfactant is produced by the fetal liver, so its
presence reveals liver maturity."
C. "Surfactant is necessary for antibody production, so
it helps prevent infection."
D. "Surfactant reveals mature kidney function, as it is
important for fetal growth."
92. Liz Calhorn is scheduled to have an ultrasound
examination and the nurse wants to ensure that she
understands and is prepared for this procedure to mitigate
her anxiety. What instruction would the nurse give her
before her examination?
A. "Use the restroom immediately before the procedure
to reduce your bladder size."
B. "The intravenous fluid used to dilate your uterus
does not hurt the fetus."
C. "You will need to drink at least three glasses of
water before the procedure."
D. "You can have medicine for the pain of any
contractions caused by the test.
93. Liz Calhorn is scheduled to have an amniocentesis to test
for fetal maturity. To help make sure the procedure is
successful, what instruction would be best to give her
before this procedure?
A. "Void (pee) immediately before the procedure to
reduce the size of your bladder."
B. "The X-ray used to reveal your fetus's position will
have no long-term fetal effects."
C. "The IV fluid used to dilate your uterus is isotonic
saline so will not hurt the fetus."
D. "Your fetus will have less amniotic fluid for the rest
of pregnancy, but that's all right."
94. Lauren wasn't totally happy about learning that she was
pregnant. What psychological task is important for the
woman to complete during the first trimester of her
pregnancy?
A. Accepting morning sickness nausea
B. Accepting the fact that she is pregnant
C. Appreciating the responsibility of having a baby
D. Choosing a name for her baby
95. Lauren Maxwell is aware she's been showing some
narcissism since becoming pregnant. How would the
nurse describe this phenomenon to an unlicensed care
provider?
A. She feels pulled in multiple directions.
B. She feels a need to sleep more than usual
C. Her thoughts tend to be mainly about herself.
D. She often feels emotionally "numb."
96. Lauren Maxwell's doctor told her she had a positive
Chadwick's sign. When she asks the nurse what this
means, the best answer would be which of the following?
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QUESTIONER OF GR. 3
A. "Your abdomen feels soft and tender, a normal C. The need to report any spotting or bleeding.
finding." D. The need for a pap smear.
B. "Your uterus has tipped forward, a potential
complication."
C. "Your cervical mucus feels sticky, just as it should
feel."
D. "Your vagina looks dark in color, a typical
pregnancy sign."

97. Lauren Maxwell overheard her doctor say insulin is not

as effective during pregnancy as usual. How would the
nurse explain how decreased insulin effectiveness
safeguards the health of her fetus?
A. Decreased effectiveness of insulin prevents the fetus
from having low blood sugar.
B. Because insulin is ineffective, it cannot cross the
placenta and harm the fetus.
C. The lessened action of insulin prevents the fetus
from gaining too much weight.
D. It is the mother, not the fetus, who is guarded by this
decreased insulin action.
98. Sandra Czerinski feels healthy, so she asks the nurse why
she needs to bother coming for prenatal care. What
benefit should the nurse cite when responding to Sandra's
statement?
A. Discovering any allergies can reduce the risk of
preterm labor.
B. It allows for the collection of accurate epidemiologic
and demographic data.
C. It provides time for education about pregnancy and
birth.
D. It provides important time to interact with a prenatal
group.

99. While reading a patient's chart, the nurse notes that the
patient was diagnosed with oligohydramnios. The nurse
knows:
A. The patient has a low level of amniotic fluid.
B. The patient has a high level of amniotic fluid.
C. The patient's baby is measuring small.
D. The patient's baby is measuring large.

100. A nurse is providing education for a patient with

newly discovered placenta previa. The instructions should
include all the following except:
A. The importance of taking an iron supplement daily.
B. The importance of not having sex.

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